1. A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal.

The nurse
document this finding as:
a. Tachypnea
b. Tachycardia
c. Hyperpyrexia
d. Arrhythmia

2. A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing a mouth
care, the best position of a client is:
a. Side lying
b. Fowler’s position
c. Supine
d. Trendelenburg

3. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and
diarrhea. The nurse takes the clients vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing
process is being implemented here by the nurse?
a. Assessment
b. Diagnosis
c. Planning
d. Implementation

4. Nurse opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
this method?
a. Most direct means of gathering information
b. Versatile in terms of content coverage
c. Yield information that would be difficult to gather by another method
d. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering

5. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

a. Newman
b. Neuman
c. Watson
d. Rogers

6. 5 teaspoon is equivalent to how many milliliters (mL)?

a. 30 mL
b. 25 mL
c. 20 mL
d. 100 mL
7. A nurse inadvertently infuses an IV solution containing potassium chloride too
rapidly. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention advised by the
physician?
a. Rapid infusion of IV Ringer’s solution
b. Rapid infusion of IV NS 0.9%
c. Insulin added to 10% dextrose in water solution
d. Administration of albumin

8. A patient is wearing a soft wrist-safety device. Which of the following nursing

assessment is considered abnormal?
a. Palpable radical pulse
b. Palpable ulnar pulse
c. Capillary refill within 3 seconds
d. Bluish fingernails, cool and pale fingers

9. When providing a continuous enteral feeding, which of the following action is

essential for the nurse to do?
a. Place the client on the left side of the bed
b. Attach the feeding bag to the current tubing
c. Elevate the head of the bed
d. Cold the formula before administering

10. If air bubble appears during chest drainage:

a. It shows air leakage
b. It shows water leakage
c. It is a normal condition
d. It indicates air embolism

11. Palpating the mid-clavicular line is the correct technique for assessing:
a. Baseline vital sign
b. Systolic blood pressure
c. Respiratory rate
d. Apical pulse

12. The size of the intravenous cannula used for neonates is:
a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
d. 24

13. As a safety alert the nurse is aware the following medication is never given
intravenously:
a. Potassium chloride
b. Lasix
c. Dextrose
d. Calcium gluconate

14. Which of the following is the preferred site for intramuscular injection in infants?
a. Deltoid
b. Rectus femoris
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Ventrogluteal

15. The nurse is admitting a client with a suspected fluid imbalance. The most sensitive
indicator of body fluid balance is:
a. Daily weight
b. Serum sodium levels
c. Measured intake and output
d. Blood pressure

16. Oral care is helpful in all for a patient, EXPECT:

a. Decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth
b. Reduces need to use commercial mouthwash which irritate the buccal mucosa
c. Improves clients’ appearance and self-confidence
d. Improves appetite and taste of food

17. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the
client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best
method to take the client’s body temperature?
a. Oral
b. Axillary
c. Arterial line
d. Rectal

18. In palpating the client’s abdomen, which of the following is the best position for the
client to assume?
a. Dorsal recumbent
b. Side lying
c. Supine
d. Lithotomy

19. Physician ordered Paracetamol tablet ss. What does ss means?

a. Without
b. With
c. One half
d. With one half dose
20. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis?
a. Early morning
b. Later afternoon
c. Midnight
d. Before breakfast

21. A client has been diagnosed with hypertension. The nurse priority nursing diagnosis
would be:
a. Ineffective health maintenance
b. Impaired skin integrity
c. Deficient fluid volume
d. None of the above
22. Nurse Jia is about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Singh. She is using a
wall unit suction machine. How much pressure should she set the valve before
suctioning Mr. Singh?
a. 50–95 mmHg
b. 200–350 mmHg
c. 100–120 mmHg
d. 10–15 mmHg

23. The most unique characteristic of nursing as profession is:

a. Education
b. Theory
c. Caring
d. Autonomy

24. What best describes nurses as a care provider?

a. Determine clients’ need
b. Provide direct nursing care
c. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
d. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patients’ care

25. Which type of solution causes water to shift from cells to plasma?
a. Alkaline
b. Isotonic
c. Hypotonic
d. Hypertonic

26. How a nurse will have to collect urine sample for culture from urinary collecting
system?
a. With needle aspiration
b. Empty urine from bag
c. Collect from catheter
d. Disconnect bag and catheter

27. Which guideline a nurse has to follow when caring for pressure sore:
a. Wound must remain moist
b. Tight packing of the wound
c. Dressing to dry before removal
d. Plastic sheet type of dressing for cover

28. Depending on the client’s age and physical condition the room temperature should be
maintained between:
a. 68 degree and 74-degree F
b. 75 degree and 77-degree F
c. 78 degree and 80-degree F
d. 65 degree and 70-degree F

29. A physiological risk associated with prolonged immobility is:

a. Decreased bone resorption
b. Decreased cardiac workload
c. Decreased serum calcium level
d. Increased hemoglobin formation

30. Proprioception is:

a. Awareness of the position of the body
b. Needed for antigravity
c. Located within the semicircular canals
d. An uncommon metabolic disease

31. What instructions should be given to the client before undergoing a paracentesis?
a. NPO 12 hours before procedure
b. Empty bladder before procedure
c. Strict bed rest following procedure
d. Empty bowel before procedure

32. A client is to receive 2000 mL of IV fluid in 12 hours. The drop factor is 10 gtt/mL.
At how many drops per minute should the flow rate be set?
a. 22 drops/min
b. 24 drops/min
c. 26 drops/min
d. 28 drops/min
 33. The most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness
of breath would be …
a. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
b. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
c. Administer oxygen by venturi mask at 24%, as needed
d. Allow a 1-hour rest period between activities

34. Using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse would wear gloves in
what nursing interventions?

A. Providing a back massage

B. Feeding a client
C. Providing hair care
D. Providing oral hygiene

35. The name of the nursing diagnosis is linked to the etiology with the phrase:
A. “as manifested by ”.
B. “related to”
C. "evidenced by"
D. "due to"

36. Priorities of Planning in Nursing Process is done by

A. Information processing model
B. Interpersonal theory
C. Stages of illness model
D. Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs

37. When caring for a client with a femoral venous catheter, it is essential for the
nurse to:
A. irrigate the catheter with sterile saline solution to maintain patency.
B. maintain sterile technique when working with the catheter.
C. assess the pressure dressing frequently for bleeding.
D. limit the mobility of the affected limb

38. In brain death all are seen except:

A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Apnea
C. Constricted pupils
D. Pulse rate unresponsive to atropine
 39. Which is not seen in hyperventilaton?
A. Seizures
B. Alkalosis
C. Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia
D. Hypocalcemia and hyper phosphatemia

40. Application of force to another person without lawful justification is

A. Battery
B. Negligence
C. Tort
D. Crime

41. The Indian Nursing council Act was proposed in:

a. 1945 b. 1947
c. 1958 d. 2001
42. The practical nursing programs were developed during the:
a. First half of nineteenth century
b. First half of twentieth century
c. Second half of nineteenth century
d. Second half of twentieth century

43. The doctrine of informed consent deals with:

a. Full disclosure of all relevant facts to the patient
b. Informing higher authorities about the patient’s condition
c. Notification of diseases
d. Patient confidentiality
44. The ethical principles in nursing profession are:
a. Beneficence b. Non-maleficence
c. Fidelity d. Veracity
1. a, b, c 2. b, c, d
3. a, c, d 4. a, b, c, d

45. Parenteral penicillin can be administered as an:

A. IM injection or an IV solution
B. IV or an intradermal injection
C. Intradermal or subcutaneous injection
D. IM or a subcutaneous injection

46. The physician orders gr 10 of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in
milligrams is:

A. 0.6 mg
B. 10 mg
C. 60 mg
D. 600 mg

47. The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What

would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?

A. 5 gtt/minute
B. 13 gtt/minute
C. 25 gtt/minute
D. 50 gtt/minute

48. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction

to blood transfusion?

A. Hemoglobinuria
B. Chest pain
C. Urticaria
D. Distended neck veins

49. Which of the following conditions may require fluid restriction?

A. Fever
B. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
C. Renal Failure
D. Dehydration

50. All of the following are common signs and symptoms of phlebitis except:

A. Pain or discomfort at the IV insertion site

B. Edema and warmth at the IV insertion site
C. A red streak exiting the IV insertion site
D. Frank bleeding at the insertion site

51. The best way of determining whether a patient has learned to instill
ear medication properly is for the nurse to:

A. Ask the patient if he/she has used ear drops before

B. Have the patient repeat the nurse’s instructions using her own words
C. Demonstrate the procedure to the patient and encourage to ask questions
D. Ask the patient to demonstrate the procedure

52. Which of the following types of medications can be administered via gastrostomy
tube?

A. Any oral medications

B. Capsules whole contents are dissolved in water
C. Enteric-coated tablets that are thoroughly dissolved in water
D. Most tablets designed for oral use, except for extended-duration compounds

53. A patient who develops hives after receiving an antibiotic is exhibiting drug:

A. Tolerance
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Synergism
D. Allergy
54. A patient has returned to his room after femoral arteriography. All of the following
are appropriate nursing interventions except:

A. Assess femoral, popliteal, and pedal pulses every 15 minutes for 2 hours
B. Check the pressure dressing for sanguineous drainage
C. Assess vital signs every 15 minutes for 2 hours
D. Order a hemoglobin and hematocrit count 1 hour after the arteriography

55. A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection is:

A. Yawning
B. Body hair
C. Hiccupping
D. Rapid eye movements

56. All of the following statement are true about donning sterile gloves except:

A. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff.
B. The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff
outside the glove.
C. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and
pulling the glove over the wrist
D. The inside of the glove is considered sterile

57. When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be careful that the first
thing she touches is the:

A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown

B. Waist tie in front of the gown
C. Cuffs of the gown
D. Inside of the gown
58. Which of the following nursing interventions is considered the most effective form or
universal precautions?

A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes
B. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective
container
C. Wear gloves when administering IM injections
D. Follow enteric precautions

59. All of the following measures are recommended to prevent pressure ulcers except:

A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion

B. Using a water or air mattress
C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
D. Providing meticulous skin care

60. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?

A. Prothrombin and coagulation time

B. Blood typing and cross-matching
C. Bleeding and clotting time
D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels.