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9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
OMR
C C C C C C
C C C C
(1) 3 C (2) 5 C (3) 4 C (4) 2 C (1) 3 C (2) 5 C (3) 4 C (4) 2 C
5. A double slit experiment is performed by using 5.
6000Å
light of wavelength of 6000Å. If distance of
1m
0.1 cm
screen is 1m and slits are 0.1 cm apart then
10
th
-
calculate angular position of 10th bright fringe.
(1) 6 × 10–4 rad (2) 6 × 10–3 rad (1) 6 × 10–4 rad (2) 6 × 10–3 rad
–5
(3) 6 × 10 rad (4) 6 × 10–7 rad (3) 6 × 10–5 rad (4) 6 × 10–7 rad
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Xn Xn
6. If Q = and X is absolute error in the 6. Q =
X, X
Ym Ym
measurement of X,Y is absolute error in the Y,Y
Q
measurement of Y, then absolute error Q in
Q
:-
Q is :-
X Y
(1) Q = ± n m
X Y X Y
(1) Q = ± n m
X Y
X Y
X Y (2) Q = ± n m Q
(2) Q = ± n m Q X Y
X Y
X Y
X Y (3) Q = ± n m Q
(3) Q = ± n m Q X Y
X Y
X Y X Y
(4) Q = ± n m (4) Q = ± n m Q
Q Y X
Y X
7. Block A of mass 30 kg. is resting on a 7. 30 kg
A
frictionless floor. Another block B of mass 5 kg
B
5 kg is resting on it as shown in the figure. The
0.4
coefficient of static friction between the blocks 0.3
175 N
is 0.4 while kinetic friction is 0.3. If a
horizontal force of 175 N is applied to block B
A
B, then the acceleration of the block A will be (g = 10 m/s2 ) :-
(g = 10 m/s2 ) :-
5 kg
B 175 N
5 kg
B 175 N 30 kg
30 kg A
A
(1) 0.5 m/s2 (2) 0.67 m/s2
(1) 0.5 m/s2 (2) 0.67m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
8. Two blocks which are connected to each other 8.
by means of a massless string are placed on two
inclined planes as shown in fig. After releasing
from rest, the magnitude of acceleration of the
(g = 10 m/s2)
centre of mass of both the blocks is-
(1) 1 m/s2
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 1 ms/2 1
(2) m/s2
1 2
(2) m/s2
2
(3) 2 m/s2
2
(3) 2 m/s
(4)
(4) zero
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9. A Carnot engine has efficiency 25%. It operates 9.
25%
between reservoirs of constant temperature 80K
with temperature difference of 80K. What is the
temperature of low temperature reservoir ?
(1) –22oC (2) 25oC (1) –22oC (2) 25oC
(3) –33 o C (4) 33C (3) –33 o C (4) 33C
10. What is the minimum energy required to launch 10. m M
a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet R
of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an 2R
altitute of 2R ?
?
5GmM 2GmM 5GmM 2GmM
(1) (2) (1) (2)
6R 3R 6R 3R
C A
1 q q
(1) – (2) 2
2 0 0
1 q q
(1) – (2)
2 0 2 0
q
q (3) (4) –
(3) (4) – 3 0
3 0
12. A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane 12.
of inclination kept on the floor of a lift. When
a
the lift is descending with an acceleration 'a'.
Then the acceleration of the block relative to
:-
the incline is:-
(1) (g + a) sin (2) (g – a)
(1) (g + a) sin (2) (g – a)
(3) g sin (4) (g – a) sin (3) g sin (4) (g – a) sin
13. A man of mass M stands at one end of a plank 13. M
of length , which lies at rest on a frictionless
surface. The man walks to the other end of
plank, if mass of plank is 3M, the distance
moved by the man relative to the ground is- 3M
3 2 3 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 3 3 4 4 3 3
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14. At 0oC, the value of the density of fixed mass 14. 0oC
of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At
x
100oC
100oC, this value will be
100 273 273 100 273 273
(1) x (2) x (3) x (4) x (1) x (2) x (3) x (4) x
273 100 373 273 100 373
15. The total mechanical energy of a particle in 15.
SHM is :- (1)
(1) Always constant
(2)
(2) Depend on time
1
1
KA2 cos 2 (t ) (3) KA2 cos 2 (t )
(3) 2
2
1 1
(4) mA 2 cos 2 (t ) (4) mA 2 cos 2 (t )
2 2
16. The adjacent diagram shows a charge +Q held 16.
+Q S
on an insulating support S and enclosed by a
hollow spherical conductor. O represents the
O
P
centre of the spherical conductor. and P is a
OP = x SP = r
P
:-
point such that OP = x and SP = r. The electric
field at point P will be :-
+ Q
Charge + Q on S r
Insulating support P
S r O x
P SP = r
O x OP = x
SP = r
OP = x
Q Q
Q Q (1) 4 x2 (2) 4 r 2
(1) 4 x2 (2) 4 r 2 0 0
0 0
2 1 3 2 1 3
120 V 120 V
(1) Charge on C1 is zero (1) C1
(2) Charge on C1 is 80 C (2) C1 80 C
(3) Charge on C2 is 40 C (3) C2 40 C
(4) Charge on C2 is 20 C (4) C2 20 C
Key
Filling
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18. Shown in the figure is a circular loop of radius r and 18.
r
R
resistance R. A variable magnetic field of induction B = B0e-t
B = B0e-t is established inside the coil. If the key
(K)
(K) is closed, the electrical power developed right
after closing the switch is equal to :-
:-
B20 r 2
(1) B20 r 2
R X X R (1)
R X X R
B 10r 3 X X X
(2) 0
X X X
B 10r 3 X X X
R (2) 0
R X X X
B20 2 r 4 R
(3) K B20 2 r 4 R K
5 (3)
5
B20 2 r 4 B20 2 r 4
(4) (4)
R R
19. A flint glass prism and a crown glass prism are 19.
to be combined in such a way that the
deviation of the mean ray is zero. The
refractive index of flint and crown glasses for
the mean ray are 1.620 and 1.518 respectively. 1.620
1.518
If the refracting angle of the flint prism is 6.0°, 6.0°
?
what would be the refracting angle of the
(1) 6.0° (2) 10°
crown prism?
(1) 6.0° (2) 10° (3) 7.2° (4) 4° (3) 7.2° (4) 4°
20. A light whose frequency is equal to 6 × 1014 Hz is 20. 2eV 6 × 1014 Hz
incident on a metal whose work function is
[h = 6.63 × 10–34Js, 1eV=1.6 × 10–19 J).
2 eV. [h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J).
The maximum energy of the electrons emitted
will be: (1) 2.49 eV (2) 4.49 eV
(1) 2.49 eV (2) 4.49 eV
(3) 0.49 eV (4) 5.49 eV (3) 0.49 eV (4) 5.49 eV
21. Electric potential at an equatorial point of a 21. P
small dipole with dipole moment P (r, distance
r
:-
from the dipole) is :- P
P (1) (2) 4 r 2
0
(1) Zero (2) 4 r 2
0
P 2P
P 2P (3) 4 r 3 (4) 4 r 3
(3) 4 r 3 (4) 4 r 3 0 0
0 0
22. In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 22.
AB 30V
30V is applied across AB. The potential M N
:-
difference between the points M and N is :-
2C
2C M
M
A
A
C C
C C 30V
30V
B 2C
B 2C
N
N
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V (3) 20 V (4) 30 V
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V (3) 20 V (4) 30 V
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23. A conducting bar is pulled with a constant speed 23.
v
v on a smooth conducting rail. The region has
a steady magnetic field of induction B as shown
B
in the figure. If the speed of the bar is doubled
then the rate of heat dissipation will :-
:-
B v
B v
(1)
(1) Remain constant
(2)
(2) Become quarter of the initial value
(3) Become four fold (3)
(4) Get doubled (4)
24. When we see an object, the image formed on 24.
the retina is
(1) (2)
(1) real (2) virtual
(3) erect (4) None of these (3) (4)
25. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased 25. 16
by 16 times, the percentage change in the
de Broglie wavelength of the particle is :-
(1) 25 % (2) 75 % (3) 60 % (4) 50 % (1) 25 % (2) 75 % (3) 60 % (4) 50 %
26. The displacement-time graph for two particles 26.
A
B
A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of
30° 60°
30° and 60° with the time axis. The ratio of
VA : VB
:-
velocities of VA : VB is :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
27. When a spring is stretched by 2 cm, it stores 27.
2 cm
100 J of energy. If it is stretched further by 100 J
2 cm
2 cm, the stored energy will be increased by :-
:-
(1) 100 J (2) 200 J (3) 300 J (4) 400 J (1) 100 J (2) 200 J (3) 300 J (4) 400 J
28. A fly wheel of moment of inertia 0.4 kg m2 and 28. 0.4 kg m
2
0.2 m
radius 0.2 m is free to rotate about a central
axis. If a string is wrapped around it and it is
pulled with a force of 10 N, then angular 10 N
4 sec
velocity after 4 sec will be :-
:-
(1) 10 rad s–1 (2) 5 rad s–1 (1) 10 rad s–1 (2) 5 rad s–1
(3) 20 rad s–1 (4) 25 rad s–1 (3) 20 rad s–1 (4) 25 rad s–1
29. A rod is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. 29.
The stress developed when temperature is
40ºC
increased by 40º C
[ = 5 × 10–5 ºC–1, = 5 × 1011 N/m 2]
[ = 5 × 10–5 ºC–1, = 5 × 1011 N/m 2]
(1) 109 N/m2 (2) 2 × 109 N/m2 (1) 109 N/m2 (2) 2 × 109 N/m2
(3) 1011 N/m2 (4) Zero (3) 1011 N/m2 (4)
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30. Two waves coming from two coherent sources, 30.
having different intensities interfere their ratio of
maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is
25
25. The intensities of the sources are in the ratio?
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 25 : 16
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 25 : 16
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 5 : 1 (3) 9 : 4 (4) 5 : 1
31. For the velocity-time graph shown in figure, 31.
the total distance covered by the particle in the
last two seconds of its motion is what fraction
of the total distance covered by it in all seven :-
seconds:-
B C
B C 20
20
Velocity
15
Velocity
15 (m/s) 10
(m/s) 10
5
5 A D
A D 0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Time
Time (Sec)
(Sec)
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 4 8 16
2 4 8 16
32. What is the value of linear velocity, if 32. 3iˆ 4ˆj kˆ r 5iˆ 6ˆj 6kˆ
3iˆ 4ˆj kˆ and r 5iˆ 6ˆj 6kˆ :-
:-
(1) 6iˆ 2ˆj 3kˆ (2) –18iˆ –13jˆ 2kˆ (1) 6iˆ 2ˆj 3kˆ (2) –18iˆ –13jˆ 2kˆ
(3) 4iˆ 13ˆj 6kˆ (4) 6iˆ 2 ˆj 8kˆ (3) 4iˆ 13ˆj 6kˆ (4) 6iˆ 2 ˆj 8kˆ
33. The ratio of angular speeds of minute hand and 33.
hour hand of a watch is :-
:-
(1) 1 : 12 (2) 6 : 1 (3) 12 : 1 (4) 1 : 6 (1) 1 : 12 (2) 6 : 1 (3) 12 : 1 (4) 1 : 6
34. The diameter of two pistons of a hydraulic 34.
press are 0.1 m and 0.6 m respectively. 0.1 m 0.6 m
Advantage of the hydraulic press assuming
effort is applied directly on pump plunger.
1 1 1 1
(1) 6 (2) 36 (3) (4) (1) 6 (2) 36 (3) (4)
6 36 6 36
35. A wire is stretched between two rigid supports 35.
50
vibrates in its fundamental mode with a
30
frequency of 50 Hz. The mass of the wire is
4 × 10–2
30 g and its linear density is 4 × 10–2 kg/m. The
:-
speed of the transverse wave at the string is :-
(1) 25 m s–1 (2) 50 m s–1 (1) 25 m s–1 (2) 50 m s–1
(3) 75 m s–1 (4) 100 m s–1 (3) 75 m s–1 (4) 100 m s–1
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36. The current i 1 and i 2 through the resistors 36.
E 1
= 3
R1(=10) and R2(=30in the circuit diagram E2 = 3
E3 = 2
R1(=10 )
with E 1 = 3V, E 2 = 3V and E 3 = 2 V are R2(=30
i1 i2
respectively :- E1 :- E 1
i1 i1
(1) 0.2 A, 0.1 A (1) 0.2 A, 0.1 A
E2 E3 R1 E2 E3 R1
(2) 0.4 A, 0.2 A (2) 0.4 A, 0.2 A
(3) 0.1 A, 0.2 A i2 (3) 0.1 A, 0.2 A i2
(4) 0.2 A, 0.4 A R2 (4) 0.2 A, 0.4 A R2
37. A current I flows in an infinitely long wire with 37.
R
cross-section in the form of a semicircular ring
I
of radius R. The magnitude of the magnetic
:-
induction along its axis is :-
0I 0I 0 I 0 I 0I 0I 0 I 0 I
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
2
R 2
2 R 2R 4R 2R 2 2 R 2R 4R
38. A sinusoidal voltage V0 sin t is applied across 38.
R
L
a series combination of resistance R and
V0 sin t
inductance L. The amplitude of the current in
this circuit is :
V0 V0 V0 V0
(1) (2) (1) 2 2 2
(2)
R 2 2 L2 R 2 2 L2 R L R 2 L2
2
V0 V0 V0 V0
(3) (4) (3) (4)
R L R R L R
39. Under a pressure head the rate of orderly 39.
volume flow of a liquid through a capillary tube Q
is Q. If the length of capillary tube is doubled
and the diameter of tube is halved, the rate of
flow would become :-
Q Q Q Q Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4) 8Q (1) (2) (3) (4) 8Q
32 8 4 32 8 4
40. Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne) 40. 500 K
and hole (nh ) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 m –3 . (ne)
(nh)
Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. 1.5 × 1016 m–3
()
The doped semiconductor is of :- nh
4.5 × 10 m
22 –3
R
R 2V
2V
y
y
(1) 4.0 V (2) 3.0 V
(1) 4.0 V (2) 3.0 V
(3) 2.5 V (4) 2.0 V
(3) 2.5 V (4) 2.0 V
42. If the angular momentum of an electron is J 42.
J
then the magnitude of the magnetic moment
-
will be-
eJ eJ 2m
eJ eJ 2m (1) (2) (3) eJ 2m (4)
(1) (2) (3) eJ 2m (4) m 2m eJ
m 2m eJ
43. If value of R is changed then : 43. R
10V 10 V R
10V 10 V R
Supply
Supply
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46. In Lother Meyer curve, descending position 46.
(next to peak) is held by :-
:-
(1) Halogens (1)
(2) Alkaline earth metals (2)
(3) d–block elements (3) d–
(4) Alkali metals (4)
47. Which of the following order of given properties 47.
:-
is incorrect :-
(1) PF3 > PC3
(1) PF3 > PC3 Basic character)
(2) N(CH)3 > N(SiH3)3
(2) N(CH)3 > N(SiH3)3 Basic character)
(3) HCC3 > HCF3 (Acidic character) (3) HCC3 > HCF3 (
(4) SiH3–OH > CH3–OH Acidic character) (4) SiH3–OH > CH3–OH
H Br H Br
48. CH3–CH=CH OH 48. CH3–CH=CH OH
Major product (A) A is :–
(A) A :–
49. Which among the given acids has lowest pKa 49.
pKa
value :-
:-
(1) Chloroacetic acid (1) Chloroacetic acid
(2) Bromoacetic acid (2) Bromoacetic acid
(3) Nitroacetic acid (3) Nitroacetic acid
(4) Cyanoacetic acid (4) Cyanoacetic acid
50. The numerical values of rate constants are same 50.
for first, second and third order reactions. Which
one is true at a moment for rate of these three
reactions if concentration of reactants is same and
1M
lesser than 1M.
(1) r1 = r2 = r3 (2) r1 > r2 > r3 (1) r1 = r2 = r3 (2) r1 > r2 > r3
(3) r1 < r2 < r3 (4) None of these (3) r1 < r2 < r3 (4)
51. Correct acidic nature is :- 51.
:-
(1) HNO3 > H3AsO4 > H3PO4 (1) HNO3 > H3AsO4 > H3PO4
(2) HOF > HOBr > HOCl > HOI (2) HOF > HOBr > HOCl > HOI
(3) HClO4 > HBrO4 > HIO4 (3) HClO4 > HBrO4 > HIO4
(4) N2O > NO > N2O3 (4) N2O > NO > N2O3
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
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52. Si3O9–6 (having three tetrahedral) is represented as:- 52. Si3O9–6 (
)
:-
NO2 NO2
NH4Cl
Zn Zn
53.
NH4Cl Product is :- 53. :-
N=O NH–OH N=O NH–OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
NH2 NH2
(3) (4) 1 & 2 both (3) (4) 1 2
54. The main product of following reaction will be :- 54.
:-
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
N N
N N
F F
55. Which of following set of quantum numbers are 55.
not possible (1) n=3, = 2, m=0, s = –1/2
(1) n=3, = 2, m=0, s = –1/2
(2) n=3, = 2, m=–2, s = –1/2
(2) n=3, = 2, m=–2, s = –1/2
(3) n=3, = 3, m=–3, s = –1/2 (3) n=3, = 3, m=–3, s = –1/2
(4) n=3, = 0, m=0, s = –1/2 (4) n=3, = 0, m=0, s = –1/2
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56. Which is true about H3BO3 :- 56. H3BO3
:-
(1) Soluble in water at low temperature (1)
(2) Tribasic acid (2)
(3) Forms when borax react with a base (3)
(4) None (4)
57. At anode in the electrolysis of fused NaCl : 57. NaCl
+
(1) Na is oxidised —
(2) Cl is oxidised (1) Na+
(2) Cl—
(3) Cl— is reduced (4) Na+ is reduced (3) Cl— (4) Na+
58. Which of the following is not true :- 58.
:-
(1) Nylon–2 Nylon–6 : Biodegradable polymer (1)
–2
–6 :
(2) Decron : Polyester (2) :
(3) BuNa–S : Elastomer (3)
–S :
(4) Bakelite : Homopolymer (4) :
OH OH
Br2 in CS 2 Br2 in CS 2
X (Major Product) X (
)
59. 59.
Br2 in H2O Br2 in H2O
Y (Major Product) Y (
)
What is X and Y in above reaction respectively
X Y
:-
OH OH OH OH
Br Br
(1) and (1)
Br Br
OH OH OH OH
Br Br
(2) and (2)
Br Br
OH OH OH OH
Br Br Br Br
(3) and (3)
Br Br Br Br
OH OH OH OH
Br Br Br Br
(4) and (4)
Br Br Br Br
60. The amount of metal deposited at cathode on 60. 0.75
passing electric current of 0.75 ampere in aqueous 30
ferric sulphate solution for 30 minutes, will be -
-
(atomic wt. of Fe = 56 ) (Fe
= 56 )
(1) 0.00435 g (2) 0.261 g (1) 0.00435 g (2) 0.261 g
(3) 0.783 g (4) 0.522 g (3) 0.783 g (4) 0.522 g
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61. Correct statements among the following is/are :- 61.
:-
(1) 2nd electron gain enthalpy is always endothermic (1) 2nd
(2) Electronegativity is the property of bonded atoms (2)
(3) Al2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxides (3) Al2O3
BeO
(4) All of these (4)
62. The Lanthanoids contraction is responsible for the 62.
:-
fact that :- (1) Zr
Y
(1) Zr and Y have about same radius
(2) Zr
Nb
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius (3) Zr
Hf
O O
(1) OH C O CH3 (1) OH C O CH3
O O
(4) C OCH3 (4) C OCH3
69. Calculate pH of solution obtained by mixing 69. 50 0.2 M NH4Cl 75 0.1 M NaOH
50 ml 0.2 M NH4Cl solution and 75 ml. 0.1 M
pH NH3
NaOH solution. pK b for aqueous NH 3 pKb = 4.74
:-
is 4.74 :- (1) 4.26 (2) 5.22
(1) 4.26 (2) 5.22 (3) 8.78 (4) 9.74 (3) 8.78 (4) 9.74
70. The equivalent weight of H3PO4 in following 70. H
3
PO 4
reaction is :-
:-
H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 CaHPO4 + 2H2O H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 CaHPO4 + 2H2O
(1) 98 (2) 49 (3) 32.66 (4) 40 (1) 98 (2) 49 (3) 32.66 (4) 40
71. Which bond angle gives maximum dipole 71.
moment for triatomic molecule XY2 :- XY2 :-
(1) = 90° (2) = 120° (1) = 90° (2) = 120°
(3) = 180° (4) Both 2 and 3 (3) = 180° (4) 2 3
72. Type of chemical covalent bond between carbon- 72. C2H4
C–C
carbon atom in C2H4 :-
:-
(1) sp2–sp2 - bond, 2p–2p bond (1) sp2–sp2 -
, 2p–2p
(2) 2p–2p - bond, 2p–2p bond (2) 2p–2p -
, 2p–2p
(3) sp3–sp3 -
, 2p–2p
3 3
(3) sp –sp - bond, 2p–2p bond
(4) None of these (4)
2 Br Alc.KOH 2 Br Alc.KOH
73. CH3CH2 COOH X
Y 73. CH3CH2 COOH X
Y
Re d P Re d P
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74. Which of the following will show maximum 74.
1 m
osmotic pressure for its 1 m solution ?
?
(1) AgNO3 (2) MgCl2 (1) AgNO3 (2) MgCl2
(3) Na2SO4 (4) (NH4)3PO4 (3) Na2SO4 (4) (NH4)3PO4
75. Standard entropies for H2, Cl2 & HCl is 60, 40 75. H2 , Cl 2 HCl
and 60 Jk –1 respectively. For reaction 60, 40 60 Jk –1
H2 + Cl2 2HCl, H = +30 kJ to be at H2 + Cl2 2HCl H = +30 kJ
equilibrium, the temperature will be :-
:-
(1) 2500 K (2) 100 K (1) 2500 K (2) 100 K
(3) 1500 K (4) 1.5 K (3) 1500 K (4) 1.5 K
76. Intramolecular H-bond is present in :- 76. H-
:-
O O
(1) Ph CH CH CH2 C H (1) Ph CH CH CH2 C H
O O
(2) CH3CH2 CH C C H (2) CH3CH2 CH C C H
CH3 CH3
O O
(3) CH3CH2CH CH CH2 C H (3) CH3CH2CH CH CH2 C H
O O
(4) Ph CH CH C H (4) Ph CH CH C H
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79. On mixing 10 ml CCl4 and 10 ml benzene, the 79. 10 CCl4 10
total volume of solution is :- :-
(1) > 20 ml (2) < 20 ml (1) > 20 (2) < 20
(3) 20 ml (4) None of these (3) 20 (4)
80. The density of unit cell of Li is 0.539 g/cm3 and 80. Li 0.539 g/cm 3
the edge length of unit cell is 3.5 Å. How many 3.5 Å
Li atoms are present in a unit cell of lithium.
Li
(Li
(At mass of Li = 6.94): = 6.94):
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) Unpredictable (3) 1 (4)
81. Which is incorrect : 81. :
(1) Ni (CO)4 - Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic (1) Ni (CO)4 -
(2) [Ni(CN)4]–2 - Square planar, diamagnetic (2) [Ni(CN)4]–2 -
(3) Ni(CO)4 - Tetrahedral, diamagnetic (3) Ni(CO)4 -
(4) [NiCl4]–2 - Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic (4) [NiCl4]–2 -
(x)
KMnO4 / H KMnO / H
82. Alkene (x)
82.
4
O OH O OH
+ +
O O
x is :- x
:-
86. A Pt complex of NH3 and Cl produces four ions 86. NH3
Cl
Pt
per molecule in the aq. solution is :-
:-
90. What will be the standard heat of reaction for the 90. C2H6(g) + 7/2 O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l)
reaction C2H6(g) + 7/2 O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l) C(s)
if standard heat of combustion of C (s) and H 2(g)
–393.5
H2(g) are –393.5 and –285 kJ/mol respectively and –285 kJ/mol C2H6(g)
standard heat of formation of C2H6(g) is –88.2 kJ/mol. –88.2 kJ/mol
(1) +1553.8 kJ/mol (2) –1730.2 kJ/mol (1) +1553.8 kJ/mol (2) –1730.2 kJ/mol
(3) –1553.8 kJ/mol (4) –1456.6 kJ/mol (3) –1553.8 kJ/mol (4) –1456.6 kJ/mol
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91. A neurological disease bovine spongiform 91.
encaphalitis (BSE) or made caw disease is caused (BSE)
by :- ?
(1) Prion (2) Viroid (3) Virus (4) PPLO (1) (2)
(3) (4) PPLO
92. If a bacterial cell divides once every minute and 92.
take 23 minutes to fill a bottle. How much time
23
it will take to fill half the bottle.
(1) 24 min (2) 22 min (3) 46 min (4) 21 min (1) 24 min (2) 22 min (3) 46 min (4) 21 min
93. In banana plant, type of stem and modification 93.
of stem is respectively
(1) Rhizome and sucker (1)
(2) Sucker and rhizome (2)
(3) Rhiozome and corm (3)
(4) Rhizome and stolon (4)
94. Lipids may be present in the form of :- 94.
(1) Monoglyceride, Triglyceride only (1)
(2) Diglyceride, Triglyceride only (2) ,
(3) Monoglyceride, Diglyceride only (3)
(4) Monoglyceride, Diglyceride, Triglyceride (4)
,
95. Which of the following is correctly matched ? 95.
(1) Jaundice – The liver is affected, skin and eyes (1) –
turn blue due to the deoxygenated blood.
(2) Vomiting – Abnormal frequency of bowel (2) –
movement and increased liquidity of the
faecal discharge
(3) Physiological energy value of fat – 10.45 Kcal/gm. (3) – 10.45 Kcal/gm.
(4) Kwashiorkor – Protein deficiency (4)
–
96. Parts A, B, C and D of Nephron are shown in the 96.
A, B, C
D
diagram select the option which is incorrect with
it's function
C A C
A
Cortex Cortex
B B
Medulla Medulla
D D
98. 98.
Tasmanian wolf Tasmanian wolf
Bandicoot Bandicoot
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102. Which one of the following is most correct 102.
statement :- :-
(1) Chromatin material tends to collect in a mass (1)
in the two poles
(2) Each set of chromatin material tends to collect (2)
at each of the two poles
(3) Each set of chromatin material tends to collect (3)
at one pole
(4) Chromatin material tends to collect in a mas (4)
at one pole
103. In which type of inflorescence, the main axis 103.
terminates in a flower and flowers are borne in
basipetal order?
(1) Capitulum (2) Corymb (1) (2)
(3) Racemose (4) Cymose (3) (4)
104. Anaerobic respiration in yeast does not produce :- 104.
(1) Ethanol (2) CO2 (1) (2) CO2
(3) OAA (4) Energy (3) OAA (4)
105. Label the following diagramme correctly :- 105.
:-
Oesophagus Oesophagus
B B
A A
Superior portion Superior portion
of duodenum of duodenum
C C
D D
Leaves
Stem
Roots
Rhizome
A B
A B
C D
C D
(1) A-Equisetum, B-Selaginella, F-Fern,
D-Salvinia (1) A-
, B-
, F-
, D-
(2) A-Selaginella, B-Equisetum, F-Fern,
(2) A-
, B-
, F-
, D-
D-Salvinia
(3) A-Fern, B-Salvinia, C-Equisetum, (3) A-
, B-
, C-
, D-
D-Selaginella
(4) A-Salvinia, B-Equisetum, C-Fern, (4) A-
, B-
, C-
, D-
D-Selaginella
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112. Match the following :- 112.
:-
(I)
DNA (a)
(I) Interval between mitosis (a) Synthesis
and initiation of DNA phase
replication
(II) Complete separation of (b) Telophase (II)
(b)
daughter chromatids
(III) Doubling of amount of (c) G2 phase (III) DNA
(c) G
DNA 2
(IV) Chromosome lost their (d) Anaphase (IV) (d)
identity as discrete
elements
(e)
(e) Metaphase
(f) G
1
(f) G1 phase
Events Description
A.
Parasites reproduce RBC
A.
asexually in the red
RBC blood cells, bursting
the red blood cells and RBC
RBC
ca using cycles of
fever.
B.
RBCs
B.
Sexual stage Male
(gametocytes)
Male
develop in RBCs
of mosquito
Female
Female
Fertilization and C.
C. development take
place in stomach
of mosquito
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121. Which of the following pteridophytes is 121.
heterosporous in nature ? ?
(1) Selaginella and Salvinia (1)
(2) Adiantum and Equisetum (2)
(3) Psilotum and Lycopodium (3)
(4) Adiantum and Psilotum (4)
122. Which of the following is correct for the origin 122.
(L)
of lysosome (L) ?
(1) ER Golgi bodies L (1) ER
L
(2) Golgi bodies ER L (2)
ER L
(3) Nucleus Golgi bodies L (3)
L
(4) Mitochondria ER Golgi bodies L (4)
ER
L
123. Quiescent centre of root meristem serves as : 123.
(1) Site of food storage (1)
(2) Reservoir for growth Hormone
(2)
(3) Reserve for replenishment of damaged cells
of meristem (3)
(4) Help in absorption of water (4)
124. Wilting of plant result from excessive :- 124.
(1) Respiration (2) Photosynthesis (1) (2)
(3) Absorption (4) Transpiration (3) (4)
125. Insulin is secreted by -cells of islets of 125.
-
Langerhans. Which of the following is not truly
concerning with insulin ?
(1) Acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipose tissue (1)
(2) Peptide hormone (2)
(3) Hyperglycemic hormone
(3)
(4) Stimulate conversion of glucose to glycogen
(4)
126. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is 126.
ATPase
located in :-
(1) Troponin (2) Myosin (1) (2)
(3) Actin (4) Tropomyosin (3) (4)
127. A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with 127. DNA RNA
radioactive molecule is called :-
:-
(1) Primer (2) Probe (1) (2)
(3) Isotope (4) Vector (3) (4)
128. How many of the following parts of embryo are 128.
dervied from "Embryonal/Apical cell".
Plumule, Radicle, Epicotyle, Cotyledon, Root cap,
Hypocotyle.
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Five (4) One (1) (2) (3) (4)
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129. Above given graph showing interaction between 129.
A B
two species A and B identify the interaction
between them :- :-
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
Options :- :-
(1) One (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
131. Consider the following prokaryotes : 131.
Nitrobacter, E.coli, Lactobacillus, Frankia,
Azospirillum, Streptomyces, Beijerinckia,
Rhodopseudomonas, Rhizobium
How many of the above can fix atmospheric
nitrogen?
(1) Four (2) Six (3) Five (4) Seven (1) (2) (3) (4)
132. Read the following statements from A-D :- 132.
A D
(A) All animals ectoparasites on few fishes (A)
(B) Circular mouth without jaw (B)
(C) In their body scales and paired fins absent (C)
(D) Circulatory system closed type
(D)
These statements are correct for which class.
(1) Chondricthyes (2) Osteicthyes
(1) (2)
(3) Cyclostomata (4) Amphibia
(3) (4)
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133. Which of the following statement is incorrect for 133.
epithelium tissue :
(1) It always rest upon underlying connective (1)
tissue
(2) During embryonic development epithelium (2)
originate first
(3) Power of regeneration is very less or absent (3)
in epithelium
(4) Intercellular spaces are absent or less in (4)
epithelium
134. Which one of the following is not a photosynthetic 134.
:-
diazotroph. (1) (2)
(1) Nostoc (2) Frankia
(3) Anabaena (4) Rhodospirillum (3) (4)
135. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of 135.
nerve impulse conduction respectively. Select the (A, B, C)
option giving correct identification together with
:-
what it represents :-
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C)
(C)
(1) B –
K+ vgc
(1) B – Represent the depolarisation due to
opening of K+ vgc
(2) A –
(2) A – Represent the repolarisation due to closing
of pump
(3) C –
(3) C – Represent polarisation stage due to action
potential
(4) A – Represent polarisation stage due to resting (4) A –
membrane potential
136. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric 136.
acid crystals is known as :-
:-
(1) Osteoporosis (2) Gout (1) (2)
(3) Arthritis (4) Sprain (3) (4)
137. Which of the following peptide chain is not 137.
present in proinsulin ? ?
(1) A-peptide (2) B-peptide (1) A- (2) B-
(3) C-peptide (4) Di-peptide (3) C- (4)
-
138. Which of the following statement is not correct 138.
with respect to Anemophily ?
?
(1) It is the most primitive form of pollination (1)
(2) Pollen grains are light and sticky (2)
(3) Stamen & stigma are well exposed (3)
(4) Anemophily is quite common in grasses (4)
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139. Plant Rabbit Wolf Lion 139.
In above food chain if plant produce 1000 Kcal
energy during photosynthesis than how much
1000 Kcal
amount of energy available for wolf in given food
:-
chain:-
(1) 10 kcal (2) 1 kcal (1) 10 kcal (2) 1 kcal
(3) 100 kcal (4) 0.1 kcal (3) 100 kcal (4) 0.1 kcal
140. In a standred ECG. Select the correct statement 140.
for given figure :- :-
R R
P T P Q S T
Q S
R R
144. 144.
a b c d a b c d
Which of the following is conclusion of given
diagram :-
:-
(1) Tip of coleoptile is the site of transmittable (1)
influence (2)
(2) Tip is the photoperceptive structure for phototaxis
(3) Stump is the site of transmittable influence
(3) (
)
(4) Stump is the photoperceptive structure for
(4) (
)
photoropism
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145. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds 145.
a snake right in front on opening the door. Which
one of the following is likely to happen in his
neuro-hormonal control system ?
?
(1) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic (1)
division of brain
(2) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (2)
releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from
adrenal cortex
(3) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (3)
releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from
adrenal medulla
(4) Acetyl choline diffuse rapidly across the cleft (4)
and inhibit a nerve impulse
146. The inner ear contains a complex system located 146.
above the cochlea is A it is influenced by A
gravity and movements and helps us in B :-
B
:-
(1) Organ of corti, Hearing (1)
(2) Organ of corti, Maintaining balance (2)
(3) Vestibular apparatus, Maintaining balance (3)
(4) Eustachian tube, Hearing (4)
147. 147.
Blood group Genotype No. of individual
M LM L M 1787 M LMLM 1787
MN L M LN 3089 MN LMLN 3089
N N
N L L 1303 N LNLN 1303
A A
B B
C C
D D
A B C D A B C D
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154. During light reaction of photosynthesis :- 154. :-
(1) Both water and CO2 get oxidized (1) CO2
(2) CO2 get reduced and water get oxidized (2) CO2
(3) Water get oxidized (3)
(4) CO2 get reduced (4) CO2
155. Find correct labelling of following diagramme:- 155.
:-
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159. How many of the following are incorrect :- 159.
:-
(A) Noise is a air pollutant (A)
(B) Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic (B)
converter should use unleaded petrol.
(C) CNG burns more efficiently unlike diesel and (C)
CNG
petrol.
(D) 0.1% impurity makes water unfit for human (D) 0.1%
use.
(E) COD values are always higher than BOD (E) COD BOD
values.
(F) Agriculture induces algal bloom in nearby (F)
water bodies.
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
160. Second polar body is released during oogenesis:- 160.
(1) At the time of fertilization :-
(1)
(2) After completion of meiosis-II (2)
-II
(3) At the time of formation of haploid ovum. (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
161. Choose the incorrect statement regarding virus:- 161.
:-
(1) Once they infect a cell take over the (1)
machinery of the host cell to replicate
themselves
(2) No virus contains both RNA and DNA
(2)
RNA DNA
(3) They have an inert crystalline structure outside
(3)
the living cell
(4) They can cause cholera, typhoid, tetanus and
citrus canker (4)
162. 'Kaber's organ' are the excretory structure of 162.
which phylum ? (1) (2)
(1) Annelida (2) Arthopoda
(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata (3) (4)
163. Which one of the following have lower melting 163.
point and hence remains as oil in winter :-
:-
(1) Animal fat (1)
(2) Gingelly oil (2)
(3) Butter (3)
(4) Ghee (4)
164. Which one of the following would not be a 164.
limiting factor for photosynthesis ?
(1) Oxygen (2) CO2 (1) (2) CO2
(3) Chlorophyll (4) Light (3) (4)
165. The right atria receive blood from :- 165.
:-
(1) Superior venacava (1)
(2) Inferior vanacava (2)
(3) Coronary sinus (3)
(4) All of these (4)
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166. Which of the following information is incorrect 166.
regarding the genome size of given organisms? ?
(1) Bacteriophage × 174 – 5386 base pair (1)
× 174 – 5386
(2) Bacteriophage lambda – 48502 base pair (2)
– 48502
(3) E.coli – 4.6 × 106 base pair (3)
– 4.6 × 106
(4) Human (haploid content) – 3.3 × 109 base pair (4) () – 3.3 × 109
167. In a E.coli 4.6 × 106 bps are present than how 167. E.coli
4.6 × 106
E.coli
many nucleosome are present in this :-
:-
(1) 2.3 × 104 (2) 2.3 × 108 (1) 2.3 × 104 (2) 2.3 × 108
(3) 1.65 × 107 (4) Zero (3) 1.65 × 107 (4)
168. Yellow mosaic virus resistant variety 168.
"Parbhani Kranti" belongs to :
(1) Bhindi (2) Barley (1) (2)
(3) Chilli (4) Cauli flower (3) (4)
169. Which of the following is the main cause for the 169.
loss of biodiversity ?
?
(1) Habitat loss (1)
(2) Invasion of Alien species (2)
(3) Keeping Animals in zoological parks (3)
(4) Overexploitation of natural Resource (4)
170. How many statements are correct among 170.
?
following statements ? (a)
(a) Uterus is secondary sex organ. (b) FSH
(b) FSH stimulates Leydig cells. (c)
(c) Sertoli cells are immuno-competent cells (d)
(d) Trophoblast cells form placenta during
blastula stage.
(e) IUD
(e) IUD can be used as emergency contraceptive
method.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
171. Plasma membrane is asymmetrical structure 171.
:-
because :- (1)
(1) Protein presents on outer surface and lipid is
present only in inner surface (2)
(2) Carbohydrate is present on outer surface and
cholestrol present in inner surface (3)
(3) Carbohydrate is present in outer surface and
spectrin is present in only inner surface (4)
(4) Protein are arranged in phospholipid layer as
mosaic pattern
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172. In which of the following family gynoecium is 172.
bicarpellary obigately placed and axile
placentation is found
(1) (2)
(1) Liliaceae (2) Brassicaceae
(3) Leguminosae (4) Solanaceae (3) (4)
173. Proteins are 173.
(1) Linear chains of simple sugars (1)
(2) Branched chains of amino acids (2)
(3) Linear chains of amino acids (3)
(4) Branched chains of simple sugars (4)
174. Enzyme increase rate of reaction by :- 174.
(1) increase activation energy (1)
(2) decrease activation energy (2)
(3) changing pH (3) pH
(4) changing temperature (4)
175. Vertebrates include fishes, Amphibians, reptiles, 175.
birds and mammals. How many of them respire
through lungs :- :-
(1) only reptiles, birds and mammals (1)
(2) only amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals (2)
(3) only birds and mammals (3)
(4) Fishes, amphibia, reptiles and mammals (4)
176. Frederick Griffith's experiment on Streptococcus 176.
and mice demonstrates :-
:-
(1) Tranformation (1)
(2) Transduction (2)
(3) Transcription (3)
(4) Translation (4)
177. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the formation 177.
of :- (1) Ethanol
(1) Ethanol
(2) Methanol
(2) Methanol
(3) Acetic acid (3) Acetic acid
(4) Antibiotics (4) Antibiotics
178. Habitat togethers with function of species 178.
constitute its :-
:-
(1) Trophic level (1)
(2) Boundary (2)
(3) Topography (3)
(4) Niche (4)
179. Which of the following character is not related 179.
to biodiversity hot spot ? ?
(1) High species richness (1)
(2) High Endemism (2)
(3) Lesser inter specific interaction (3)
(4) Habitat loss (4)
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180. Read the following four statement (A - D) :- 180.
(A - D)
:-
(A) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes (A)
that are eliminated by selection.
(B) Artificial insemination helps as overcome (B)
several problems of normal matings.
(C) In MOET, the embryo at 8-32 cells stages are (C) MOET, 8-32
recovered non-surgically and transferred to
surrogate mothers.
(D) A single outcross often helps to overcome (D)
inbreeding depression.
How many of the above statement are correct?
(1) Four (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) One (3) (4)
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code
and Your Form No.
Correction
Paper code Form No.
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in
mail
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