PAPER 1 (Tooth Conservation, Dental Caries, Endodontics, Dental

Pulp, Dental Materials)

SBQCASE1
ON RADIOGRAPH middle age Lady visits your clinic after 5 years
for routine examination. She is taking tricyclic antidepressants . Cone
cut seen on x-ray. Open contact between lower 5 and 6(?). Upper
premolar no caries(?). You obtain bitewing.
Bitewing given

Q1. What treatment will you give for distal surface of 25

A. Tunnel Prep Need to see the x-ray to answer.
B. No treatment However, mostly if the decay is initial
(within or just past Enamel) answer is D
C. Recall and X-ray after 6 months Please read caries risk assessment by Evans
D. CPP-ACP and recall after 6 months
E. Remove existing restoration and restore with composite

Q2. What is the main technical error in the IOPA radiograph

A. Cone-cut
Acc. to people who saw the photo
B. Insufficient angulation
C. Poor contrast Take D if apex cut off
D. Patient didn't bite properly
E. Film placed too posteriorly

Q3. What is seen at the distal surface of 37 beneath CEJ

A. Cervical Burn out 
Need to see the x-ray to answer.
B. Caries However, mostly it’s A, as decay would be
C. Horizontal fracture just below contact areas not below CEJ.

D. Iatrogenic removal of lower 8

Q4. What treatment will you give for 36?

a. root planning of 36 Need to see the x-ray to answer.

b. refilling of existing restoration

c. removal of 38 and 47 (or something like that)
1
Q5. patient complains that lower left back region gets sore
sometimes. What could be the reason?
A. Open contact between 36 and 37. Need to see the x-ray to answer.
B. Secondary caries under restoration.
C. Food packing
D.periodontal problem

Q5. Which tooth is with greater loss of attachment

A. Need to see the x-ray to answer.
Remember that normal alv. crest is 1.5-2 mm
B. apical to CEJ, this can help estimating the loss.

SBQ CASE 2

13 yr boy.Hasn't been to a dentist for 5 yrs. Conscious about

discoloration of teeth.
Photo shows enamel hypoplasia in central incisors,
lateral incisors, canines, both maxillary and
mandibular.

Q1. What is the condition?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia
B. Enamel hyperplasia
C. Enamel hypomineralisation
D. Enamel hypermineralisation
E. Amelogenesis imperfecta

Q2. What is the cause?

A. Systemic factors Note:
-not C as 34,44 are not affected
B. Local factors -not D (maternal may affect only 6s,1s)
C. Genetic factors
D. Maternal infection during pregnancy
2
Q3. At which age did the defect occur?
Take 31,41 as an indicator 
A. At birth - they erupt at 6-7 yrs, i.e. crown completed at
B. 6 months around 3-4 yrs
- their incisal ½ is intact, which means definitely
C. 1 year before age of 3 yrs and after age of 6 ms
D. 3 years
E. 6 years

Q4. Treatment plan for this condition?

A. Porcelain veneers -A  requires older age
-E  may be indicated as a caries control
B. Composite veneers interim restorations, if it was rampant caries.
C. Bleaching -C, D inappropriate options.

D. Microabrasion with remineralisation.

E. GIC veneers

Q5. The photo shows over-retained submerged lower second

molars. What is the reason/cause for this?
a. Agenesis of 2nd premolars. Acc. to people who saw the photo

b. Ectopic eruption of 2nd premolars.

c. patient cannot bite properly
d. absence of succedaneous tooth/premolar

Q- 14 year old patient, mother bought the pt to surgery, who will

give consent  16 yrs  consent taken from the pt.
 < 16 yrs  parents give consent.
 Note: 14-16 yrs, child can also consent besides the
parents.

SBQ CASE 3

Patient was complaining of discoloured

upper right central incisor. He remembers
having a trauma when he was 15 years old
due to sporting injury and had a lot of treatment done for that tooth.

3
Q1. What investigation will help for diagnosis and treatment
planning?
To detect apical pathosis or pulp calcification

A. Pulp sensibility
B. Periapical x-ray
C. Percussion
D. OPG
E. Probing

Q2. What is the cause of discoloration?

If B is absent, take D
A. Tetracycline stains
B. Pupal haemorrage
C. Discoloration of the restoration.
D. Pulp necrosis
E. Internal resorption

Q3. If the tooth was endodontically treated, what would be the

most likely cause?

A. Incomplete debridement of pulp chamber

B. Sealer paste left on the pulp chamber

Q4. What is the best treatment for this patient?

A. External bleaching
B. Internal bleaching
C. Change restoration
D. Put crowns
E. full veneer

Q5. What risk from internal bleaching?

4
a. internal resorption
b. external resorption
c. external cervical resorption
d. pdl loss

SBQ CASE 4
Dislodged/defective amalgam restoration.
Photo showing upper molar. It has a big dark/black looking
cavity-only mb, db, little of ml cusps seen. The filling fell off 2
days ago while patient was having breakfast. And now it is
sensitive to hot and cold.

Q1. Reason for the amalgam to fall down:

A. Unretentive cavity
Acc. to people who saw the photo
B. Secondary caries
C. Fractured cusp

Q2. What is the probable diagnosis?

A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Open dentinal tubules B is the cause not the diagnosis

C. Irreversible pulpitis without involvement of PA area

D. Irreversible pulpitis with involvement of periapical infection.

Q3. In case root canal treatment needs to be done, what problems

would you encounter (IOPA was given here)
a. Difficulty to place the rubber dam
b. Difficult to access the canals
Need to the photo (x-ray)
c. root curvature Acc. to case, it might be A, as no
tooth str. remained.
d. periapical infection

Q4. A temporary restoration was given and the patient is

asymptomatic now. What is the choice of restoration?
If amalgam is to be used  at least
1 pin per missing cusp.
5
a. Composite restoration
b. Amalgam with 3 pins
c. GIC core plus crown
d. post core and crown/ core and crown
e. Full venner crown

Q5. For capping a cusp

A. Minimum 2 mm of amalgam is required
B. Cusp should be reduced to level of gingiva and then built up
C. Add a pin for each cusp
D. 2 mm following the outline of the cusp
E. 2mm flat outline(decks for more resistance)

Q6. The best survival rate can be expected with

A. Full veneer crown
B. Amalgam with min 3 pins Inlay/Onlay is the best
C. Composite build up
D. Core and crown

MCQs (paper 1)
Q. NOT True about F/S
A. BW radiographs before
B. Fissure that is sticky and catch the probe should be sealed
C. F/S when probe is sticky in the pit
D. F/S in all newly erupted teeth
E. Composite resin and GIC have equal success rate

Q. Mercury causes toxicity by

A- Hepatic toxicity
B- Brain toxicity
C- Cardiac problems
D- Kidney toxicity

6
Q. Which are not present in pulp
A.Fibroblasts
B. Histiocytes
C. Fat cells
D. Plasma cells
E. Lymphocytes
Q. Cavity at buccal pit of molar
A. Class I
B. Class II -Also on palatal of upper ant.  Class I
-Class VI is on cusp tips
C. Class V
D. Class III
E. Class VI
Q. Not an indication for GA
A. Long surgery
B. Multiple quadrant
C. Young patient
D. Spreading infection
E. Patient’s request

Q. Just after obturation of the lower 2nd premolar, you notice

that the sealer is overextending 1mm beyond apex. What would
you do? A. Leave it
B. Pull the GP out by 1mm
C. Repeat the obturation
D. Apicectomy.

Q. Primary goal in endodontic treatment

A. Complete debridement.
B. Complete apical seal.
C. Proper coronal seal

Q. Which one is correct (a definition was given)

A. Specificity
B. Incidence U need to know all definitions from
dental public health (my pedo notes).
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C. Prevalence
D. Sensitivity
E. Risk factor
F. Prospective study

Q. What is the function of matrix band in composite restorations

A. Gives shape and better condensation
B. Prevent bonding to adjacent tooth
C. Prevent marginal leakage -that’s the major function.
-also D is correct.
D. Prevent gingival extension of restoration -E is the function of rubber dam.
e. limit/prevent moisture contamination

Q. Patient with rare sensitivity to hot and sweet. Poorly localized

pain is due to A. Pulpal origin
B. Periapical origin
C. Abscess
Q. An 8 years old patient with avulsed tooth about 25 min ago,
presented to dental office and replaced successfully and what u do
next?
A. Wait and observe
B. RCT Re-anastomosis is expected (young
incomplete apex).
C. Apexogenesis

Q. Reaction of pulp to dental caries

A. Formation of reparative dentin
B. Formation of primary dentin
C. Pulp polyp
Q. Initial irritation of pulp during caries progression is due to
A. Reach of bacteria to pulp
B. Reaching of bacterial toxins before bacteria

Q. High speed air motor

8
A. Should not be used without water.
B. Should not be used to remove soft caries.
C. Causes more vibration
D. Cannot be used for polishing

Q. Which of the following mostly affect the incidence of dental

caries
A. Frequency of eaten sugar
B. Amount of sugar
C. Type of sugar
Q. Patient had throbbing pain, aggravated by heat, able to
localized tooth and percussion positive
A. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Occlusal trauma Associated with apical periodontitis

C. Pulphyperemia
D. Pulp necrosis

Q. Final restoration that will last for a long time in severely

discoloured bleaching If the actual Q in the exam is more clearly stating SEVERELY
A. All ceramic crown DISCOLOURED AFTER BLEACHING  THEN TAKE B

B. Metal fused to ceramic crown answer chosen by everyone because it

will last longer
C. external bleaching
D. composite veneer

Q. Stiffness means
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Fracture resistance

Q. Normal mouth with no caries have

A. High buffering saliva
B. Low buffering saliva
C. High amylase

9
D. Glycoprotein?
E. Low mucin level

Q. Biofilm in newborns
A. None
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Staphylococcus aureus

Q. Early coloniser of dental plaque

A. S. Sanguis
A > S. mitis > C
B. S. Salivarius D is a late coloniser
C. Actinomyces
D. Provetella intermedia
11. First bacteria to be seen in the oral cavity
1 S sanguis
2 S salivarius
3. P gingivalis

Q. Which organism is found in newborns

A. Strep. Mutans only
B. None.
C. Strp. Mutans plus lactobacillus
D. Provetella intermedia

Q. Root caries microorganisms

A. Actinomyces For root caries initiation

B. Lactobacillus
C. Streptococcus Mutans

Q. Correct about streptococcus mutans

A. Not easy transfer from area to area in oral cavity
B. Requires special environment to grow
C. Able to restructure carbohydrates
d. highly acidogenic
10
e. all of the above if not present we choose C
Q. When demineralised enamel is exposed to high concentration
of fluoride, which molecule is formed
A. Calcium Fluoride
CPP-ACP
B. Fluorapatite

Q. If the tooth surface is rapidly lost, what should u check for

A. Occlusal analysis
B. Family history
C. Salivary factors
D. Medical history
E. Oral galvanism

Q. What is disinfection
A. Limiting microbial growth to a safe level
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Bactericidal
D. Killing microorganisms, but not spores

Q. What is transillumination used for

Also Cracks
A. Caries

Q. Patient comes to see you and have a RCT done before

somewhere else. No previous x-rays. When you take xray you find
small RL at the apex of the tooth A.
Apicectomy
B. Redo RCT
C. Leave it and observe in 6 months
D.Detection of caries

Q. Patient with sensitivity to cold and hot and large class V cavity

11
A. Pulpitis
B. Necrosis
C. Gingival recession

Q. The objective of pulpotomy is to

A. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp
B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp
C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp
D. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp

Q. Child presented to you with sore throat, fever and joint

swelling; the MOST probable diagnosis is
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Rheumatic arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis

Q. What clinically significant finding will you see if you examine a

child's mouth in which you find a retained primary deciduous
second molar? A. Agenesis of
premolar
B. Ectopic eruption of premolar

Q. Best technique to place gutta percha in a lateral mandibular

incisor A. Master cone with Lateral
condensation
B. Silver point
C. Master cone with cement
D. Cement
E. Thermal filling
Q. Differentiation cyst from granuloma based on
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Histology
D. X-ray
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Q. If an instrument breaks in a canal during treatment, procedure
would be to
A. Tell the patient immediately, regardless of consequences
B. Extract the tooth
C. Complete treatment and not tell the patient
D. Complete treatment and then tell the patient

Q. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II

amalgam restoration is
A. Delayed expansion
B. Inadequate depth at the isthmus area
C. Inadequate width at the isthmus area
D. Moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement
Q. Retention for occlusal amalgam cavity in premolars is BEST
provided by if molar ….grooves M and D
A. Slightly undercutting of walls with inversed cone bur
B. Mesial and distal undercuts
C. Buccal and lingual undercuts
D. Dovetail

Q. If used, in which direction should pinholes be placed

A. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
B. Parallel to the nearest external surface
C. At a 15 degrees angle to the long axis of the tooth
D. Perpendicular to the gingival floor
E. Directly below and parallel to the restored cusp tip

Q. Mesiolingual cusp fracture, what to do Amalgam #

a. Insufficient bulk. (Cause)
b. 2mm reduction in amalgam, restore with pin (How to solve)

20) Pain with tapping/percussion?

a. Pulp disease extend to apical area
13
 b. Apical cyst
c. Apical granuloma

21) The reason for sensitivity after preparation?

a. thermal influence
b. chemical influence
c. mechanical influence

22) What is correct regarding the pulp or patient reaction to

thermal test?
a. Only pain
b. patient respond to cold and not to heat
c. patient respond to heat and not cold

24) Emergency treatment for acute pulpitis?

a. Occlusal adjustment
b. Pulpectomy

14
PAPER 2 Fixed Prosthodontics, Removable Prosthodontics,
Implantology
SBQ CASE 1
Angular cheilitis

A patient wearing full dentures has angular cheilitis.

Q1. What was seen in the palate?(Picture with lesion on the palate
was provided)
A. Chronic atrophic candidosis
= Chronic erythematous candidosis
B. Chronic hypertrophic candidosis = Denture sore mouth
C. Hyperplastic candidosis = Denture stomatitis

D. Atrophic candidosis

Q2. Which microorganism can cause this lesion (support your

diagnosis) A. Candida albicans
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Staphylococcus aureus

Q3. What will be your first treatment for denture stomatitis if

aesthetics permit?
A. Leave the denture outside of the mouth
B. Keep wearing the denture
C.Nystatin lozenges Spare denture wearing (tissue relief)
D.Make a new denture Denture Hygiene
Reline, rebase or new denture
E.Give antibiotics

Q4. What is incorrect in relation to its treatment?

a. Dentures always need to be remade
b. Increase the vertical height
15
Q5. The lesion showing raised tissue/inflamed reddish mucosa in
multiple areas with angular cheilitis we expect it to be (picture
was given)
A. Chronic atrophic stomatitis
B. Acute atrophic stomatitis
C. Chronic hypertrophic stomatitis
D. Acute hypertrophic stomatitis
E. Acute hyperplastic gingivitis

Q6. Patient comes back after a week and the lesion was not
healed, what will be your next step?
A. Amphotericin lozenges 10mg or Miconzole gel 2%
B. Antifungal
C. Antiviral
D. Biopsy of lesion with 2 mm of normal tissue
E. Leave the denture out
Another picture (3rd) in this case showing vesicles on palate. Few
days after giving new denture and treating atrophic candidiasis,
patient was wearing new denture and was unwell. On examination
– vesicles presented on palate unilaterally.

Vesicles not white patches

Q6. What is the diagnosis

A. Herpes Zoster
B. Burn -Also called Shingles, caused by VZV  Dermatome affection
-Prodrome (pain)  UNILATERAL vesicles and ulcers)
C. Denture allergy -Post-herpetic neuralgia in Trigeminal nerve affection (old females)
D. Aphtous ulcer -Ramsay Hunt Synd. in Facial nerve affection.

E. Allergic reaction to impression material

16
SBQ CASE 2
Q re: papilloma or wart (photo) (only one Q was there)

A. Papilloma

 It is benign, rough, exophytic hyperplasia of epith. tissue caused by (HPV)

 Oral papilloma is recognized as a relatively common oral lesion w’ is
seldom > 1 cm in diameter.
 Papillomatous in shape e’ Pebbled surface & prominent clefting 
Cauliflower-Like.
 Site: ⅓ cases occur in Tongue (other sites  palate, buccal mucosa).
 Age: 3rd to 5th decade
 No tendency for malignant transformation.

SBQ 3re: POST CROWN FRACTURE

Patient has been treated with post crown 5 years back on maxillary
right central incisor. Now it has become loose (according to Ghulam
it was central incisor)
Q1. What investigation will help
A. Vitality
B. Probing ( if gingival tissues don’t appear healthy or crown
was lose with no pain)
C. Percussion ( if gingival tissues appear healthy, like in this

17
photo, and pain present)
D. OPG

Q2. What could be the cause of dislodgement of the post core that
has least favourable prognosis
A. Vertical root fracture
B. Internal resorption
C. Luting cement issue

Q3. How will you treat this patient

A. Crown lengthening
B. Crown lengthening and orthodontic extrusion
C. Better post fabrication
D. Extraction
E. Gingivoplasty

Q4. What is the significant problem in replacing the post core

A. Insufficient ferrule
B. Retention In VRF, the problem is absence of seal.
C. If this answer is not available  take A ???

Q3. If this tooth is extracted, what is best method of restoration

which is long lasting
A. Implant
B. Fixed bridge
C. Cantilever bridge
D. RPD

18
SBQ CASE 4 re: The patient with fracture porcelain

.
A male patient presented with a chipped porcelain 3 unit PFM bridge.
It was made by another dentist who moved interstate. Edge to edge
bite is clearly seen. 3 unit FPD, chip off seen in the region of 11, 12.
He has a meeting today and needs it to be fixed urgently. Photo from
front 21 as a pontic. A bridge with 11,22 as abutments. Some
porcelain is missing mesioincisal of 21 (in exam case according to
Ghulam). Edge to edge relationship at front.

Q1. What is the most probable main cause for this defect in bridge
A. Improper framework A  is the most common cause of PFM fractures.
But according to this photo, edge to edge has also
B. Unfavourable bite (resulting in chipping)
taken part.
C. Bridge design YOU NEED TO PROPERLY ANALYSE THE PHOTO 
i.e. see the impact of the bite to decide A or B.
D. Hard biting
E. Thin porcelain

Q2. What is the name of this defect

A. Adhesion cohesion defect Adhesion defect is the most common (B), but in this
photo  also cohesive defect is evident  so take A
B. Adhesion
C. Cohesion
D. Wrote adhesion

Q3. If you want to repair the fractured porcelain in the chair,

what you will do
A. CAD/CAM or similar option
B. Etching with 4% hydrofluoric acid for 20 sec and restore with
composite C. Etching
with 4% hydrofluoric acid for 5 min and restore with composite

19
Q4. How would you prevent similar fracture in future?
A. Occlusion Best if you find proper framework design and prep
B. Use splint at night of tooth str. (or similar)

C. Make group function occlusion

Q5. For a new bridge if you wanted to construct high strength

metal free bridge, what material would you use?
A. Feldspathic
B. Procera
C. Zirconia
D. Scintered aluminia
E. Porcelain

Q6. Resin bonded bridges loose retention between

A. Resin-enamel
B. Resin-metal
C. Within resin

Q7. At a later date when you want to replace 3 unit bridge, what
do u want to alter

A. Change the labial contour

B. Alter the bridge design

Q8. How many mm will you reduce the Fabrication of the Metal
Ceramic Crown Restoration

A. 1.2 mm to 1.5 mm for the labial surface, 0.5 mm to 0.7 mm for the
lingual surface, 2.0 mm for the occlusal surface
B…….

20
Q9. What main problem when need to provide aesthetic bridge to
patient in future
Need to see the photo  mostly it’s B

A. Gingival margin
B. Grind incisal edge of 11 more
C. Extract and placement of implants

Q 10. What would be the most challenging or difficult aspect in

replacing this bridge

A. Removing the bridge

B. Lip or smile line

SBQ 5

Picture given - lower anteriors present (from Canine to Canine),

upper completely edentulous)
(Maxilla- maxillary ridge has undercuts, a red elevated spot in the
incisor area, flabby ridges, buccalfrenum slightly more prominent,
bulbous maxillary tuberosity.
Mandible- marked resoprtion of mandibular posterior region, with
supra-erupted anteriors and triangular embrasure gap between
them)
70 year old lady, wearing dentures since last 20 years, never had
any problem with them. Her new denture (12 months old) is
giving her problem. It is fine when at rest or talking but the lower
denture becomes loose when eating.
She got her teeth extracted early in age, on her second baby, and
she is wearing dentures since then. She recently had a hip
replacement procedure done, and is in early stage of Parkinson.

On examination, you found that the denture fits well and is made
to a high standard. She says her lower incisors are becoming long

21
and she should get them all extracted now, when she is fit and
healthy.

Q1) What is the red spot on the upper ridge

a. incisive papilla
b. insertion of labial frenum
c. root fragment
d. abscess

Q2) By looking at the picture, how would you describe Maxilla?

a. undesirable labial undercut
b. excessive resorption of anterior ridge
c. exostosis of anterior maxilla
d. unmanageable buccal frena
e. overhanging/enlarged maxillary tuberosities

Q3) In making Lower denture (of high quality), what is the most
significant difficulty that you will face?
a. Lingual plate showing through the lower incisors embrasure
22
 b. Hypertrophy of tongue/ inadequate area for the tongue- to
manage it in the lower denture
c. High occlusal plane- due to over erupted incisors
d. To get retentive area on Canine, as undercut lies in the gingival
third
e. Problematic buccal frenum

Q4) Reason for the denture to become loose? (during function)

a. Canine interference on lateral excursion
b. Unfavourable palatal anatomy
c. Increase OVD
d. Decrease saliva (xerostomia) / changes in saliva quality
e. Involuntary muscle action on denture, due to Parkinson disease
f. Managing dentures for a lot of years

Q5) Before the procedure? (Patient had undergone hip

replacement, what will you do before performing the
procedure/extraction)
a. No prophylaxis required
b. Refer to Orthopedic to consult regarding prophylaxiS

Q6) What will be the difficulty in making new denture?

a. Recording jaw relation( I think impression of upper)

Q5. If all mandibular teeth are extracted, which ridge will be

resorbed more A. Upper ridge palatally
B. Mandible loses more bone from the buccal than lingual
C. Mandible loses more bone from lingual than buccal
D. Same amount of bone is lost on either side
E. Upper ridge buccally

23
Q6. When you construct the mandibular distal extension partial
denture what is the most significant problem you will face
A. Inability to get enough undercut on canines
B. Marked ridge resorption
C. Big tongue

Q7. What was the principal complication or difficulty to design

new denture for this patient
A. Resorption of anterior ridge
B. Large buccal frena
C. Her medication case
D. Parkinson disease

Q8. What is the difficulty during construction of lower RPD

A. High occlusal level of lower anterior teeth
B. Inadequate space for the tongue (a bit large)
C. Adjust occlusal plane according to retromolar area
D. Problematic buccal frenums
E. Resorbed upper anterior ridge

Q. What material will u use for final impression of the lower jaw?
A. Alginate
B. PVS
C. Polyether
D. Impression plaster
E. additional silicone

24
SBQ 6

A male patient comes to you complaining his lower teeth are loose
and painful.
Upper edentulous, lower canine to canine present (or premolar to
premolar)
Lower incisors have grade 3 mobiltiy. You agreed on extraction
and replacement with immediate denture

Q1 What test or procedure will help you in diagnosis?

a. Vitality
b. Percussion UNCLEAR Q, but A is most appropriate here

c. Transillumination

Q2) You decide to give immediate denture, what material will you
recommend to the patient?
a. Acrylic
b. Cobalt chromium

Q3) If you decide to give Acrylic denture, what is the advantage of

acrylic over cobalt chromium?Also easier to reline
a. Can add teeth in future

Q4) What impression material will you use for final impression?
a. Alginate
b. ZnOEugenol Because Alginate is less stiff compared to PVS and
Polyether  so avoiding premature exo of lose
c. PVS anterior teeth (as this is an IMMEDIATE DENTURE)
d. Polyether
e. Impression plaster

Q5) After giving the denture, what instructions will you give to the
patient?
a. You will need a new denture or relining will be required
25
b. Nothing, denture will be best for life
c. Denture will help in healing the socket

SBQ 7

An old patient has pain under his full upper and lower
dentures. The pain increases when he wears them during the
day and stops immediately after removing the dentures. His
doctor thinks it is due to mental nerve compression by lower
denture and refers to you for the second opinion.

Q1) What investigations will you perform other than checking

denture borders?
a. occlusal prematurities
b. soft tissues under denture
c. assess vertical dimension To detect any sore spots/ulcer
Then after B  A is to be taken
d. retention of the denture
e. palpation of muscles

Q2) What is the likely cause of pain?

a. increased vertical dimension
b. overextension of borders of the denture

Q3) What is the clinical symptoms of mental nerve compression

by the denture borders?
a. lower lip numbness
b. pain on the lower lip
c. chin and lower lip numbness
d. pain in the floor of the mouth not crossing the midline

Q4) Tests to investigate nerve sensation. What is

INCORRECT?
a. two-point discrimination

26
 b. sharp test

c. blunt test
d. pressure test
e. thermal test
f. direction test

Q5) What do you think the diagnosis of the nerve could be?

It depends on duration of numbness:

A. neuropraxia A  if few days/wks
B. axonotmesis B  if few months (3-4)
C. neurotmesis B  if few yrs or permanent

Q5. What will you do regarding mental nerve complaint , patient

read that surgery to relocate mental nerve is the best option for
her
Irrelevant Q!
A. Refer to proshtodontist consultation Could be oral surgeon
B. Refer to mental nerve surgeon
C. Insist on getting her a new denture

MCQ (paper 2)

Q. When all other removable partial denture considerations

remain unchanged, clasps constructed of which material can be
engage the deepest undercut 0.75
A. Chrome cobalt casts
B. Nickel chrome casts
C. Wrought stainless steel
D. Wrought gold
27
Q. Best way for a class II MO inlay to not get displaced
A.Dovetail
B. Undercut
C. Grooves

Q. Class I retention
A.Slight undercut in buccal and lingual walls
B. More undercut in mesial and distal

Q. Knife edged mandibular ridge. What will you do

A. Increase denture base area to distribute load
B. Decrease base area
Both A and C
C. Decrease VD to decrease biting load
If no combined answer  A

Q. The most stable impression material

A. Poly Vinyl
B. Agar
C. Polysulfide

Q. What is freeway space

A. VD at rest mines VD at occlusion
B. It is 2-4 mm different in each patient
C. Can be measured accurately in edentulous patient

Q5) Regarding Freeway space, what is correct?

a. Can be measured accurately in dentulous patients
b. It is set to 2-4mm in edentulous patients
c. OVD minus RVD at rest
d. Usually kept 2-4 mm while fabricating dentures

Q. Osseointegration of implants
A. Attached to bone directly only radigraphically
B. Anchored directly to bone at radiographic and light microscopic
28
level
C. Forms junctional epithelium with surrounding tissues
D. attached to bone at light microscopic level only

Q. In Maryland bridge must be used (forgot)Better retention of

resin bonded bridge
A. Hard gold alloy
B. Nickel chrome
C. Beryllium
Best is NON-Beryllium Nickle Chrome.
Incorporation of beryllium into the base metal alloy formulation:
1) facilitates castability
2) increases the porcelain metal bond strength.
3) Beryllium also allows the alloys to be electrolytically etchable

However, exposure to beryllium vapor or particles is associated with a

number of diseases from contact dermatitis to chronic granulomatous
lung disease, known as chronic beryllium disease (CBD)

Q. Final restoration that will last for a long time in severely

discolored bleached teeth B may be taken As tooth is still discoloured after bleaching.
But A is better as it includes ZIRCONIA which can also mask
the colour.
A. All ceramic crown
B. Metal fused to ceramic crown ??
C. External bleaching
D. Composite veneer

Q. Taper
A. Researches show that tapper 5-10 is ideal
B. Tapper 10-20 obtained
C. Tapper 7 is seeing by naked eye
D. Parallel walls is best

But 10-20 (average 15o) is to be obtained practically.

29
Q. The most common failure in constructing porcelain to metal is
A. Improper metal framework
B. Rapid heating

Q. The undercut for chrome’s retentive arm clasp is

A. 0.75 mm
B. 0.50 mm
C. 0.25 mm

Q. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is

by
A. Tapering
B. Long path of insertion

Q. Patient with lower denture and complaining of paresthesia of

the lower lip. The most common cause is
A. Pressure on mental foramen
B. Pressure on the genioglossus & mylohyoid muscles
Q. The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crown
is
A. Moisture contamination
B. Excessive firing temperature
C. Failure to anneal the platinum matrix
D. Excessive condensation of the porcelain
E. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain

30
Q. In cementing Maryland or Roche bridges the effect is generally
to
A. Lighten the colour of the teeth by the opacity of the cement
B. Darken the colour of the abutment by the presence of metal on the
lingual
C. Have no detrimental colour effect
D. Darken the abutment teeth by incisal metal coverage

Q. A crown casting with a chamfer margin fits the die; but in the
mouth the casting is open approximately 0.3 mm. A satisfactory fit
and accurate physiological close of the gingival area of the crown
can BEST be achieved by
A. Hand burnishing Max. Acceptable gap = 80 microns (0.08 mm)
B. Mechanical burnishing
C. Using finishing burs and points to remove the enamel margins on
the tooth
D. Making a new impression and remaking the crown
E. Relieving the inside of the occlusal surface of the casting to allow
for further seating

Q. Which of the following is true regarding preparation of custom

tray for elastomeric impression
A. Adhesive is preferred over perforation
Also D is correct
B. Perforation provides adequate retention
C. Adhesive is applied immediately before procedure
D. Perforations are not made in the area over the prepared tooth

Q. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the

A. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap of upper
and lower incisors
B. Mechanical equivalent at the compensating curve
C. Same as condylar guidance

31
D. Estimated by the equation: incisal guidance =1/8 of condylar
guidance

Q. In the construction of a full veneer gold crown, future recession

of gingival tissue can be prevented or at least minimized by
A. Extension of the crown 1 mm under the gingival crevice
B. Accurate reproduction of the normal tooth form in the gingival one-
fifth of the crown
C. Slight overcontouring of the tooth form in the gingival one-fifth of
the crown
D. Oral hygiene practices
E. Reducing the occlusal table
Q. How to delaminate the height of a lingual connector
A. Depends on how deep is the floor of the mouth

Q2) What determines the limit of inferior broder of lingual

component of lower RPD?
a. Elevation of the anterior floor of the mouth
b. Space of the tongue
c. Submandibular duct opening
d. Anterior crowding
e. Whether lingual plate or lingual bar is used

Q4) Which muscle forms bulk of the floor of the mouth?

a. Mylohyoid muscle
Diaphragm of the mouth
b. Genioglossus
c. Styloglossus

Q10) Incorrect about circumferential clasp?

a. Rigid 2/3rd above survey line and flexible 1/3 rd below survey line
b. Flexible 2/3rd above survey line and rigid 1/3rd below survey line
c. Should always engage deepest undercut
d. Cross-section in circle
e. Should engage a predetermined undercut

32
Q13) When giving Gold crown to patient, what prevents further
gingival recession?
a. Undercontouring
b. Overcontouring
c. Normal contouring
d. Preparation sub-gingivally

Q15) Type of cement used for resin bonded bridges

A. Resin cement

Q19) The main property of investment during casting include?

A. Compensate for solidification shrinkage of the cast

Q. How much undercut area a clasp arm should engage

A. As much under the undercut as possible
B. Anywhere beyond the survey line
C. A predetermined amount of undercut

Q. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is

A. Inclusion of platinum foil
B. Use of weak cementum
C. Voids of porcelain
D. Porcelain is thinner than 1 mm

Q. Splinting the adjacent teeth in fixed bridge is primarily due to

A. Distribute the occlusal load
B. Achieve better retention

Q. In fixed moveable bridge where should the moveable

connectors “non rigid” be placed
A. Distal to anterior retainers
= distal surface of mesial abutment
B. Mesial to posteriors retainers

Q. Which of the following will NOT be used in determination of

vertical dimension

33
A. Aesthetic
B. Phonetics
C. Gothic arch tracing
D. Swallowing

Q. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm depends on

A. Length
B. Cross section
C. Material
D. Degree of tapper
E. All of the above

Q. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm DOES NOT relate to

A. Length
B. Cross section
C. Material
D. Degree of tapper
E. Undercut area

Q. Why are three tripod marked on a cast being surveyed

A. To orient cast to articulator
B.To orient cast to surveyor
C. To provide guide planes

Q. Which is the neutral zone

A. The zone where displacing forces are neutral
B. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced

Q. The advantage of using the lingual plate on lingual bar is

A. It acts as indirect retention
Also  support & rigidity

Q. The optimum penetration of a .024 or .031 inch self-threading

pin in dentin is
A. 0.5 mm
34
 The diameter of the pin is not important.
B. 1.0 mm Depth is 2 mm regardless.
C. 2.0 mm
D. 2.5 mm
E. 3.0 mm

Q. In determining the replacement of missing maxillary anteriors

with ridge lap design or with incorporation of labial flange, what
factor is most important
A. High lip line
B. Patient wishes
 Resorption  USE FLANGED
C. Need for anterior retention
D. The degree of ridge resorption

Q. What is the purpose of selecting gauge for surveying the model

A. For most retentive part
B. Marking the undercuts (undercut gauge are used to accurately
locate retentive undercuts on proposed abutments pp.206 Stewart’s
Clinical)

Q. Location of retentive “TIP”

A. Just above the surveying line
B. Below the surveying line

Q. Rank the following impression materials according to their

flexibility A.
Alginate -> Polysulphide -> Silicone ->ZnOE

Q. Pt. With angular chelitis, what's untrue

- caused by candida
- caused by staphylococcus
- blood tests needed
- dentures should always be replaced
- microbial swabs needed
35
PAPER 3 ANAESTHESIA AND RESUSCITATION, INFECTION
CONTROL, MEDICINE ANDSURGERY, ORAL
MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY, ORAL MEDICINE,
ORAL PATHOLOGY, PHARMACOLOGY AND THERAPEUTICS

SBQ CASE 1 AMELOBLASTOMA CASE

A patient has type I diabetes. Multilocular radiolucency in the

angle of the mandible (multilocular was given in the text of the
question).*OPG -- Large radiolucent lesion in the right mandibular
angle.47(or 48 can't remember) is positioned in close proximity to
the lesion. Only crown can be seen (horizontally impacted). Well
beyond the occlusal plain, near the roots of 46(47?).
.

Q1. What is the diagnosis?

A. Dentigorous cyst
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Odontogenic keratocyst

Q2. Best radiograph for it:

A. Lateral oblique
B. CT
C. MRI

Q3. What is the treatment?

A. Enaculation + extraction + Carnoy's solution
B. Resection
C. Excision
D. Marsupilization
E. Curettage

36
Q4. Which of the following is best to assess glycaemic control of
patient?
A. Random blood sugar
B. Glycoselated haemoglobin.
C. Glucose tolerance test
D. Blood hemoglobin

Q5. What is the major risk in this patient:

A. Poor healing
B. Infection
C. Control of glucose before operation
D. Control of glucose after operation
E. Fracture of mandible

SBQ CASE 2 No photo

A 20 year old man came to your clinic after sustaining an extrusive
luxation to his upper central while cycling with his friends. He fell
over and his lower jaw hit on the bar handle of the cycle. Friends
bring him to you. Patient says he takes excessive amounts of NSAIDS
and glucosamine to help him bike ride for long distances. “He hit the
rock and went over the long brake handles. He was winded but not
knocked out”. Otherwise the patient is healthy and fit
Q1. What is the most important thing to check in the patient
A. Arms.
B. Legs
C. Neck
D. Back
E. Teeth

Q2. The patient feels pain in his shoulder and chest and tingling in
his fingers. What will you do

37
A. Call the ambulance
B. Ask his friends to take him to his doctor
C. Ask his friends to take him to the hospital
D. Take him to the hospital yourself

Q3. When should the teeth be repositioned

A.After radiographs
B.Immediately when he presents to the clinic
C.After medical assesment
D.Within 6 hours
E. After a few weeks

Q4. The patient has history of taking NSAID and glucosamine,

what effects are likely to have?

a. Will not have any effect on teeth

b. Excessive bleeding
c. It will affect his kidney
d. No pain
e. More swelling
f. Liver toxicity

Q5What is the MOST UNLIKELY after delayed fixation of

luxated teeth?

A. Teeth may fall out spontaneously

B. External resorption
C. Internal resorption
D. Spontaneous resolution
E. Pulp necrosis

SBQ CASE 3
A 42 year old patient came to your clinic with a celebrity photo saying
that she wants her teeth to be like this. A photo with a bright smile
38
was attached.
She is 32 weeks pregnant for first time, she developed moderate
hypertension &gestational diabetes but no medication required. She
wants the entire procedure completed before her child is born.

Q1. What do you think of her demand for veneers?

(psychologically, this patient suffers)

A. Normal behaviour
B. Body dismorphic disorder
C. Obcessive Compulsive Disorder
D. Anxiety
E. Depression

Q2. Risk of premature term delivery

A. High According to a GP
B. Low
C. Moderate
D. No risk
E. Unknown

Q3. When will you start with her veneers preparations?

A. Before delivery
TG page 166, 2nd paragraph
B. Immediately after delivery
C. 6 months later after delivery
D. Don't do her any preps

Q5) What condition is most likely to develop in Pregnancy?

a. Xerostomia
b. Caries
c. Gingival inflammation
39
 d. Periodontitis

Q5. The patient asked when she should bring her daughter to you
after delivery for her first dental checkup

A. Around time of eruption of her 1st deciduous tooth

B. After the eruption of first primary tooth
C. After the eruption of her all primary teeth
D.After the eruption of her first permanent teeth
E. When dental treatment needed

SBQ CASE 4
The former doctor (It was the same questions as Sept 2014).A 65
years old veteran surgeon with service in army comes to you. You
explain a conservative treatment plan for him. But he insists on
extraction as he had same experience with another molar, and if you
don't extract he will do it on himself with experience from military
service

Q1. What will you do?

A. Ask him to get a OPG done so you can explain clearer
B. Refer to an oral surgeon for management
C. Give the instruments to him so he can do it himself
D. Wait for him to change his mind hopefully

MCQS (paper3)

Q. Most common reason for IAN failure

A. Given too low
B. Given too high

Q. What is not an effect of barbiturates:

A. Sedation
40
B. Analgesia B and E are not effects
C. Anaesthesia If no combination  take B

D. Hypnosis
E. Excitement

Q. Recommended treatment for cementoma

A. Extraction of tooth
Excision with tooth extraction 100%
B. RCT of tooth
C. No treatment
D. Incision and drainage

Q. A physician refers a nine year old white male to your office to

substantiate his diagnosis. The boy has a fever of 102 F and a
cough. When you direct your dental operating light into his eyes,
he blinks and turns away.
lntraorally, a few pinhead white spots surrounded by an
erythematous border are noted on both buccal mucosae near the
maxillary first molars. The most probable diagnosis is:

A. Measles (the white spots are Koplik's spots)

B. Chicken pox: the white spots are vesicles
C. Diphtheria: the white spots are pseudomembrane
D. Erythema multiforme: the white spots are necrotic tissue

Q. Patient on warfarin, best test to assess patient’s status

A. Bleeding time
B. Clotting time
C. INR
D. Protrombin time

41
Q. When an IAN is given the needle is close to or lies near

A. Medial & lateral pterygoid

B. Medial & temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid & masseter
D. Temporalis &buccinator
E. Buccinator& superior constrictor

Q. pterygomandibular raphe is attached to buccinator and passes

a. Superior to medial pterygoid

b. Lateral to medial pterygoid
c. Anterior to medial pterygoid and medial

Q. Gorlin's syndrome, all except

A. Multiple okc
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Calcified falax
D. Abnormal head appearance
E. Bifid ribs

Q. What is incorrect about achondroplasia

A. Small maxilla
B. Small mandible
C. Change in cranial angle
D. Short
E. Short limbs

42
Q. What is correct about malignant melanoma occurring
intraorally
A. 5 year survival rate 20%
B. Has a very good prognosis
C. Deeply invasive
D. Hardly occurs on the palate

Malignant melanoma most commonly seen in

a. Palate
If Intraorally

Q. What is incorrect about antral carcinoma

A. Occurs after sinusitis
B. Common in wood workers
C. Expands the sinus
D. Displaced tuberosity
E. Causes problem with denture fitting

Q. What is associated with Prilocaine:

A. Methemoglobinemia

Q. Which of the following NOT associated with alveolar osteitis

(dry socket)
A. Infection
B. Extraction procedure/trauma
C. Pain
D. Blood clot fibrinolysis
E. Delayed healing

Q. SCC spreads
A. Locally
B. Locally and through lymphatics
C. Blood
D. Locally and through blood

43
Q. The official name of a drug is used, what else could be used
(what is used interchangeably with the official name of the drug)
A. Trade name
B. Generic name
C. Chemical name
D. Brand name
E. Molecular name

Q. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible

sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture
is most likely to be present in
A. Symphysis region
B. Left body of the mandible
C. Left sub-condylar region
D. Right sub-condylar region
E. sub-condylar region

Q. Carcinoma of the tongue initially present as

A. nodules on bilateral submandibular region
B. nodule on unilateral submandibular region
C. palpable regional lymph nodes all the lymph nodes submental,
submandibular and the others .

Q. What is the radiographic feature of Dentinogenesis imperfecta

A. Small pulp chamber Type I & II

Q. What is attached to pterygomandibular raphe

A. Superior constrictor muscle of the pharynx

Q. Correct about basal cell carcinoma..

A. From its name not mucous membrane cancer (not occur
intraorally)
B. Not metastasis & invasive

44
Q. Why asprin is contraindicated with anticoagulant?
A. Increase bleeding effect
B. Decrease bleeding effect

Q. When do you see a 1cm radiolucent area which is well defined

on lateral surface of lower left second premolar, what is the most
likely diagnosis
A. Odontogenic keratocyst
B. Lateral periodontal cyst
C. Traumatic bone cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst
E. Aneurysmal bone cyst

Q. What is incorrect about Hairy Leukoplakia

A. It is corrugated but not hairy
B. It is usually seen on the lateral ventral surface of tongue
C. It can be covered (or invaded) by candida
D. Invariably associated with onset of HIV patients
E. Premalignant

Q. Incorrect in Addison disease

A. Bone enlargement
B. Weight loss Also E is correct  take the option of A & E if exists.
C. Loss of appetite
D. Hypotension
E. Hypertension

Q. Which cyst can be detected when swallowing?

A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Branchial cyst

45
Q. Which of the following indicates an established immunity
A. Hep B surface AG positive
B. Hep B surface Ab (HBsAb)
C. Surface antigen
D. Core antigen
Q. Hepatitis B is infectious
A. During symptoms
B.Before & during symptoms
C.Before, during & after the symptoms
D. After symptoms

Q. Which of the below has a carrier state

A. Hepatitis B, hepatitis A, herpes simplex virus
B. Hepatitis B, HSV, streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pyogenes, hepatitis A
D. Hepatitis B and C. staphylococcus

Q. What will not contribute to the completion of operation:

A. proper treatment plan
B. Operator inexperience
C. Risk of soft tissue damage
D. Risk of hard tissue damage
E. pain at the site

Q. What does not affect post extraction bone loss

A. Previous periodontitis
B. Extraction technique used
C. Retained root
D. Time after extraction
E. Ill-fitting dentures

Q. What is incorrect about lingual split technique

A. Lingoversion tooth
B. Thin lingual bone
46
C. Preserve buccal bone
D. Permanent lingual nerve damage
E. Temporary lingual nerve damage

Q. What is the drug of choice for dental pain

A. Prescribed NSAIDs
B. Over The Counter NSAIDs
C. Paracetamol
D. Paracetamol Over The Counter

Q. What is the most veridical disinfectant

A. Hypochlorite
B. Quaternary ammonium
C. Alcohol
D. Betadine
Q. Chlorhexidine what is NOT true
A. Literature proved it has a potent antiplaque effect
B. Microbial resistance might occur
C. Has good substantivity
D. Strained teeth
E. Has no systemic effects

Another format: what is incorrect about chx

It has a systemic toxicity

Q. Which of the below cannot cause bony expansion

A. Steven Johnsons syndrome
B. Pagets disease
C. Osteoblastoma
D. Hyperthyroidism

Q. Drug dose does not depend on

A. Cognitive impairment
B. Renal impairment
47
C. Hepatic impairment
D. Age
E. Type II diabetes

Q. All is necessary in case of emergency in the dental clinic, except

A. Disposable airways
B. Eelectric de-fibrillator
C. Adrenaline 1:1000 IM
D. Adrenaline pre-loaded auto injector is preferable over vial ones

CPR what is incorrect,

1- don’t start if unsure
2- trained dentist
3- trained nurse
4- practice have to have plan
5- trained receptionist

Q. What is not a feature of forceps

A. Should have sharp blades
B. Close fit to the crown
C. Close fit to the roots
D. The ratio between the blade and the handles
E. Two points contact

Q. A Complete Blood Count is needed for all except (is least

needed) A.
Infectious mononucleosis
B. Lymphoma
C. Diabetes
D. Anaemia
E. Leucopenia

48
Q. SCC of lateral border of the tongue. In which lymph nodes
does it metastasize?
A.Submandibular unilateral
B. Submandibular bilateral
C. Submental unilateral
D. Submental bilateral
Q. Desquamative gingivitis is associated with:
A. Lichen planus
B. Herpetic gingivostomatis
C. Rickets

Q. Patient with atrial fibrillation. Therapeutic INR shd be

A.2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

Q. Something about AB, what's true

A. Amoxicillin has a satisfactory coverage on all/majority of intra oral

bacteria
B. Amoxicillin & Metronidazole equally/ effectively penetrates the
bone
C. AB will decrease the swelling

Q. What's untrue about root sectioning

A. Facilitates extraction procedure
B. Preserves the bone
C. Tooth comes out intact

Q. Acrylic/or occlusal splints are used for diagnosis and treatment

of craniomandibular dysfunctions because it
A. Corrects malocclusions C mainly because of Dx & Tx
B. Protects loss of teeth surface But the actual aim of using splints is B

49
C. Helps in muscle relaxation
D. Posterior positioning of the mandible
E. Mandibula moving back

Q. What is the most common reason for TMJ ankylosis

Trauma is the best answer if available
A. Generalised arthritis
B. Malocclusion

Q. All of the below are features of TMJ dysfunction, except

A. Pain
B. Crepitus
C. Myofacial pain
D. Jaw deviation
E. Clicking
F. Facial paresis

Q. TMJ dysfunction is commonly

A. Seen in males more than females
B. Seen in people younger than 45 years
C. Seen with generalised arthritis changes
D. Shows radiographic changes
E. Shows deviation on opening

Q. What is true about wisdom tooth extraction

A. AB should be prescribed 5 days post operative
B. Most/maximum swelling will occur for 24-48 hrs
C. Triamcinolone prescribed pre/or postoperative

Q. What is true about interactions between AB and oral

contraceptives
A. No risk
B. High risk
50
C. Patient should stop oral contraceptives
D. Patient should be prescribed antibiotics
E. Additional methods of contraception are required.

Q. What is the maximum daily dose of Ibuprofen?

a. 1200mg per day
b. 2400mg per day
c. Can be given indefinitely

Q. What is incorrect about Hairy leukoplakia

a. shows severe dysplasia
b. It’s corrugated but not hairy
c. It’s usually seen in the lateral ventral surface of tongue
d. It can be covered (or invaded) by candida

Q. Oral cancers spreads

A. Locally and through lymphatics

B. Lymphatics
C. Blood
D. Blood and lymphatics

Q. Delayed eruption in all exept:

A. Rickets
B. Cleido-cranial dysplasia
C. Cherubism
D. Ectodermal dysplasia
E. Hypothyroidism

Q. Tooth asymptomatic. Radiolucency on lateral surface of

mandibular premolar is :
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. OKC
51
C. Radicular cyst
D. Lateral cyst

Q. What is incorrect about lichen planus

A. Ttriamcinolone 1%
B. Bethamethasone 0.05%
C. Beclomethasome
D. All option A B C can be used indefinitely
E. Should only be used after diagnosis

Q. What is incorrect about Ectodermal Dysplasia

A. Thin hair & blond
B. Thin & fragile skin
C. Usually have brown eyes
D. Usually absence of sweat
E. Anodontia

Q. Patient received a blow to his mandible and shows left

deviation on opening, you suspect the fracture would be
A. Left subcondylar (another option neck of left condyle)
B. Right subcondylar
C.In the symphesis
D. In the body

Q. Displacement of fragments in mandibular angle fracture due to

all except (what is incorrect)
A. Direction of the blow as displacement depends on muscles of
attachment
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Temporalis
E. Masseter
In general displacement of superior segment is due to lat pterygoid

52
Q. About IAN, which muscle/s between the needle is going
through
A. Buccinator and superior constrictor

Q.The difference between Amelogenesis imperfecta and

Dentinogenesis imperfecta that Dentinogenesis imperfecta has

1. Familial distribution
2.Loss of enamel
3. Calcification of pulp chamber and pulp canals

Q. What is incorrect about resuscitation:

a. Every clinic should have emergency plan
b. You should resuscitate only when sure
c. Dental assistants must be trained B>>>D
d. Dental receptionist must be trained

Q. what is not seen in TMJ disorder:

A. Crepitus
B. Pain
C. Facial paresis
D. Deviation on opening
C. Limitation in opening

Q.During extraction for ortho purpose, apical third of root

fractured n left in situ What to do
A raise a flap and remove
B root elevator used to remove it
C forceps beaks placed in the socket n remove it
D left and observe

Q. Intact vesicles are usually seen in

a. pemphigus vulgaris
b. Bullous erythema Multiforme
53
c. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
d. Herpes simplex

Q. Glucosamine+ nsaids causes what long term complications????

a. Increased bleeding
b. Renal impairment

PAPER 4
Orthodontics, Paediatric Dentistry, Periodontics, Preventive
Dentistry, Public Dental Health, Radiology

SBQ CASE : a 20 year old man works at some industry?, smokes

20 cigarettes per day and consumes alcohol 3 standard drinks per
day. He calls you in the morning complaining he is not feeling
well, and has painful mouth and acute pain in gums with fever
39.8 C. On examination you find cervical lymphadenopathy.
Picture given (shows severe red swollen debrided gingiva with
ulcerations ) (ANUG)

Q1. From the history and clinical examination, what do you think
is the probable diagnosis?
A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. acute ulcerative gingivitis
C. chronic periodontitis Key words:
D. acute periodontitis -worker,smoking, alcohol (stress)
-ulcerated ging with systemic s & s
Q2. First line treatment
A. Oral hygiene instructions
B. Oral hygiene instructions plus gentle debridement
C. Gentle debridement followed with 0.12% chlorhexidine
D. Gentle debridement followed with 20% hydrogen peroxide
E. No immediate treatment
H2O2 is first option if <3%

54
Q3. What will you give for systemic symptoms.
A. Amoxycillin
B. Metronidazole 400mg
C. Aciclovir
D. Ddebridement with chx 0.2% till the lesion subsides
E. Gentle removing of necrotising tissues

Q5. Greatest risk factor to prevent recurrence

A. Alcohol
B. Smoking
C. Change occupation
D. Acidic fumes

Q6. Why will primary herpetic gingivostomatitis not be a common

occurrence in this patient

A.Because he is a smoker
B.Its common more in females than males
C. Because early exposure in childhood would have led to formation
of antibodies against it
D. Because those adults/infected patients get themselves treated
immediately by antiviral , during the prodormal phase of the viral
infection.
E. It is becoming common nowdays because of late age exposure to
the virus

SBQ 2
72 y.o. patient (Doctor, GP) came for extraction of his lower left
molar. He experiences pain of short duration, and bad odour
(other symptoms can't remember). Previously he had a similar
pain and one of his molars (46) and eventually was extracted.

*BW's
35 - caries on distal
36 - missing
37 - tipped, angular bone loss mesially contact between 35 and 37 is
not fully closed, bone loss
*BW's several years before (for comparison)
35- no caries
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1) What is the cause of the patients complain?(diagnosis)
a. open contact and food impaction
b. distal caries on 35  Need other symptoms & need to see the x-ray to tell.
c. perio-endo lesion on 37  Mostly, as pain is of short duration  B
d. periodontitis on 37  Bad odour is due to loc. Periodontitis 35-37

e. overhang filling in 35

2) The patient insisted on extraction of 37. He tells you, that if you

don't do it, he will do ithimself as he had an experience from the
army. What will you do?
a. extract 37 as he insists, and he will do it anyway, make him sign a
consent form
b. give him instruments to do extraction
c. refer to the maxillo-facial surgeon for second opinion and extraction
if decided
d. refuse to extract (?)
e. refuse to extract and make sure that the pt understand the diagnosis
well
E can be correct (if the wording is correct),
particularly if OPG is to be obtained.

3) Periodontal state prognosis is based on assessment of

a. periodontal pockets Attachment loss is much better assessment
b. attachment loss than pocket depths.

4) what is the most significant difference between two BWs/ What

is the latest
a. carious 15 Acc. to givens it should be carious 35D
b. recurrent caries in 14 and loc. Periodontitis 35-37

5) How would you treat this pt:

a. scaling and root planning
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b. periodontal flap, scaling and root planing
c. extraction 37 Need to see how much bone loss  if
d. chlorhexidine 0.2% mouthwash severe  B
e. calculus removal subgingivally
f. Azithromycin

MCQs (paper 4)

Q. Replantation of avulsed tooth 2.5 hours after incident; the most

likely diagnosis is
A. External resorption = ankylosis
= replacement resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Pulp stones
Q. 4 year old child with ventricular septal defect comes with a
carious exposure in primary mandibular molar. Mother says that
patient never complained. What should be your course of
treatment? In Leukemia and Cardiac defects
(liable to infective endocarditis)
A. Prescribe antibiotics  no pulp therapies.
B. Pulpotomy with prophy AB after cardiologist consult
C. Extraction with prophy AB after cardiologist consultation
D. Extraction under GA
E. Conservative treatment and recall
Q. The best prognosis when treating pocket
A. Suprabony pocket 3 osseous walls REMAINING
B. One wall defect So, worst prognosis is B

C. Two walls defect

D. Three walls defect

Q.What is the most common sequel of thumb sucking.

A. Constricrion of maxillary arch
B. Overbite -post. Cross bite
-ant. open bite
C. Retrusion of the maxillary anteriors -mand. Retrognathism
D. Protrusion of the mandibular incisors -upper ant. proclination

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  Deciduous teeth crown
calcification is INITIATED
BEFORE BIRTH
 Root completion of Deciduous
Q. What is correct incisors at 18-24 months.

A. Crown completion of deciduous teeth before birth

B. Root completion of deciduous mand incisors by 6 month
C. tooth buds of primary teeth grow from dental lamina

Q. Periodontitis is a disease that has:

A. A slow progression
B. Rapid progression
C. Cyclic or burst progression “active and inactive phases”
D. Intermittent progress

Q. How do you do0020 to DISINFECT denture after rinsing

under water
A. alcohol
B. with disinfectant solution in zipper bag
C. brush with soap (not sure if soap was there) in surgical sink
D. ultrasonic cleaner

Q. How are you going to CLEAN denture after rinsing under

water in dental surgery
A. Alcohol
B. With antiseptic solution in zipper bag
C. Brush with soap (not sure if soap was there) in surgical sink
D. Ultrasonic

Q. How deep mouthwash can reach into sulcus

A. 0.2 mm
B. 1.2mm If this option existed in the exam  it is
C. 2.2mm the correct answer (acc. to TG m.w. do
D. 3.2mm not penetrate beyond crevice [sulcus])
E. base of pocket
D. never penetrate subgingival

Q. Only time we using Brass ligature wire :

A. Closing midline diastema
B. Rotate tooth
C. Unerupted tooth
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D. Ectopic eruption of molars
E. Anterior crossbite

Q. After 4-7 days, what type of cells you would find predominately
in gingivitis
A. Leukocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils

Q. Most reliable method of evaluation in 4 weeks of OH

instructions given to a patient:
Remember:
A. Bleeding on probing Re-evaluation in periodontitis  6-8
B. Ask patient to repeat the instructions weeks.
C. Reduction of pocket depth
D. CPITN

Q. How does gingiva (or epithelium) regrow:

A. Long junctional epithelium
B. Short junctional epithelium. After flap surgeries  junctional epith grows rapidly
apically leading to LONG JUSNCTIONAL EPITH (this is
C. Connective tissue provides cells REPAIN), so for obtaining regeneration, a barrier
D. Cementum membrane is to be used (GRT)

Q. Difference between visible light & x-rays

a. Travel in straight lines
b. Cause florescence
c. Photo emulsion (?)
d. Penetrates opaque objects visible light do not penetrate opaque

59
object
e. Casts shadows .

Q. Ultrasonic scalers can go sub-gingivally up to

a. base of the pocket / as deep as it can extend
b. Never used for subgingival scaling
c. 4 mm subgingival
d. 6 mm subgingival

Q. What is correct regarding maxillary canine impaction

A. Leave it as it is
B. Can be tracted orthodontically
C. Creating excess space help in its eruption
D. Surgical exposure help in eruption

If Q is what is incorrect:
A-
b-
c-
d-
e- identified as impaction of failed to erupt in 6 months
f- ex of lateral so canines takes its place.

Q. MUCOGINGIVAL JUNCTION
A. Junction formed by attached ging. and alv. mucosa

Q. Root planning
A. to remove the outer layer of cementum which produces exotoxins
B. to remove subgingival calculus Actually A and D are correct
C. to remove granulation tissue
D. to remove the outer layer of cementum which produces endotoxin

60
Q. 13 year old has enlarged gingivae; gives a history of Dilantin
sodium what is your ttt.
A. Oral prophylaxis and surgical removal of hyperplastic gingiva
B. Oral prophylaxis, scaling, root planning
C. Stop medication However surg. Removal will be
required only if no improvement
Or could be written as: with prophylaxis & OHI.
Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplasty

Q. In periodontitis maximum destruction is present in

a. Lateral wall of pocket
b. Root surface = epith attachment
c. Junctional epithelium
d. None

Q. Floor of ulcer, what is not true

A. Smooth
B. Epithelialized if no option of epitheized and there is
keratinized ……go for it
C. Fungated Ulcer = loss of surface epith  so floor of an ulcer is not
D. Punched epithelialized and not keratinised.
E. Granulated

Q. Which is NOT an advantage for paralleling technique in X-Ray

in comparison with bisecting technique
Paralleling technique adv.:
A. Increased cone length lead to increase KV 1) Better dimensional
B. More distortion accuracy
C. Open leaded 2) Simplified beam alignment
D. Increase pt film distance leads to 3) Easier film standardisation
requires  Kvp for exposure??? 4) Head position is not critical
E. The paralleling technique needs
greater surface area for film placement
A is an option if E is not present and another option Augmentation
if both are not present
(Focus to film distance is inc to minimize magnification
(augmentation )
Paralleling technique disadv.:

1) Less pt. comfort

2) More limited by anatomy.

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Q56 Free ginigival graft is placed on
a. Periosteum
b. Bone
For more details check: http://1drv.ms/1HYHU8z
c. Ginigva
d. Periodontal pocket

Q Which antibiotic is not indicated for periodontal therapy

a. Erythromycin
b. Metronidazole
c. Tetracycline Remember primary teeth have:
d. Amoxicillin+clavulanic acid  Generalised ID spacing
 Anthropoid (primate) space
 Leeway space
Q. Primary teeth have spacing, why?
A. Growth of alveolar bone (sometimes they write dental arch
growth)
B. Pressure from permanent tooth
C. Thumb sucking

Q. Cause of gingivitis in pregnant women

A. Hormonal changes only
Mainly Prevotella intermedia
B. Hormonal and attraction of bacteria
C. actinomycemcomitans
D. Hormonal change leads to anaerobic bacterial growth.

Q. Patient comes to see you and have a RCT done before

somewhere else. No previous x-rays. When you take x-ray you
find small RL at the apex of the tooth. What will u do.
A. Apicectomy As long as no signs or symptoms, otherwise  Re-RCT
B. Redo RCT
C. Leave it and observe in 6 months

Q. Preschool child has an intruded upper incisor; what will you do

first?
A. Radiograph
B. Ortho traction to its previous place
C. Put it back in place and splint
Preschool = primary tooth
And Remember  ttt. Is do nothing, but need exo if
contacting permanent successor.

62
Q. How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand’s
disease:
A. Like a normal child VWD is deficiency of VW factor which is associated with
factor VIII bleeding and clotting problem.
B. Like a diabetic child
C. Like a haemophilic child

Q. Occlusal splint are used for treatment of cranio-mandibular

dysfunction because
a. Correct occlusal disharmonies
b. Prevent further tooth loss
c. Direct mandible in retruded position
d. Muscle relaxation
e. Enhance parafunctional habits

Q. The MOST common cause of gingival enlargement is:

A. Hereditary
B. Drug induced
C. Plaque induced
D. Leukemia

Q. What is the best medium to storage avulsed tooth?

A. Milk
B. Saliva Socket is the best, followed by Hank’s Balanced Salt Solution, then
C. Saline Milk (cold)
D. Water

Q. The MOST stable area to evaluate the craniofacial growth is:

A. Nasal floor
B. Cranial vault
C. Occlusal plane
D. Naso maxillary complex
E. Anterior cranial base

Q. 8 years child has a badly broken deciduous molar what is the

best material to restore it:
A. Amalgam
B. Gold
C. Composite

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D. GIC
E. Stainless steel crown
If not SS crown, go for composite
Q. Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is
likely to be caused by:
A. Acromegaly
B. Paget’s disease Here it is Cherubism (Familial fibrous
C. Giant cell lesion dysplasia)
D. Primordial cysts
E. Dental cysts

Q. Behavioural methods for reducing anxiety, what is not

correct/or least best
A. Show - Tell - Do
Tell show do  is the correct behavioural method not SHOW-TELL-DO
B. Distraction
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Modelling
E. Systemic desensitization

Q. What is correct about use of oral irrigation

A. It remove food debris
B. It remove plaque

Q. A healthy 6 year old child presents with carious maxillary

second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment
would be preferred?

A. Pulpectomy and SSC

B. Indirect pulp capping
Non vital tooth (sound) with no symptoms  E
C. Pulpotomy and SSC
D. Antibiotic coverage
E. Leave it and observe

Q. Significant problem of tooth whitening

A. External resorption
B. Over-whitening
C. Internal resorption

64
Q.Which of the following is the main purpose of using GTR in
periodontal surgery
A. Prevents the downgrowth of the epithelial cells and growth of
connective tissue along the root surf.
B. Promotes growth of the bone cells near the root.
C. Prevents downgrowth of epithelial cells and cementum from the
cementoblasts cells
D. Allow growth of connective tissue and inhibit further loss of
gingiva
E. Giving enough time for undifferentiated mesenchymal cells to form
cementoblast

Q. Anterior appearance of condyles in panoramic x ray

A. Normal appearance
B. Degeneration process in early forties
C. Displacement of condylar discs As pt. bites forward on bite block

D. Early signs of degenerative process

E. Late signs of accident with blow

Q. A child came in your clinic with fever, rashes and mother

complaining that he can't even eat properly (Need recall –
herpangina – was not this opyion) Unclear Q But if there’s patches on buccal
A. Herpetic gingivostomatis mucosa (bluish/yellowish)  Measles

Q. When you apply a pressure of 25 g to measure pocket depth

(Need recall Q)
A. 4 mm indicates periodontitis

8. What is the main reason for awareness public brushing

A.To prevent gingivitis
B.To prevent fissure caries
C.To stimulate gingiva
D. To keratinize gingiva

10. What is the problem will u face when there is a leak of light,
old films used, solutions not properly mixed?
A. Blurred film
B. Foggy film
65
C. Dark film
D. Light film
E. Bad contrast

17. What is Incorrect eruption sequence of permanent dentition

a. Mandibular second premolar erupts before mandibular permanent

canine

26. The effect of systemic fluoride in caries resistance can be best

described as: Fluoro apatite crystals less
a. Increase hardness of enamel soluble
b. Incorporation of Ca fluoride
c. Decrease enamel solubility due to increase of its content of fluoride
d. changes in proteolytic enzymatic activities

41. When primary 2nd molar is lost, what criteria will you use for
assessing occlusion ?
A. Canine relation
B. Incisor relation

66
Q12 GTR is done in
a. Vestibular deepening procedure
b. Frenectomy
c. Flap surgery
d. Gingivectomy

Q20 During extraction of maxillary deciduous molar, the apical

one third of the mesiobuccal root was fractured, what will u do?
a. Leave this part and follow up
b. Perform flap surgery to remove this part
c. Try to track the root using wire

Q21 During Pdl therapy, you removed some/all of cementum,

what will the effect be?
a. poor/delayed healing
b. not has effect on healing
c. new attachment would not form
d. Will lead to more attachment loss
e. new cementum would not form because old cementum is not
present

Q38 In regards to Junctional Epithelium what is correct

a. Keratinized
b. Attached by hemidesmosomes to the tooth
c. No attachment to the tooth
d. Does not regenerate
e. Is not present at the base of the pocket

Q42 In anxious and psychologically stressed patient ANUG is

often more severe because
a. Stress cause histamine and serotonin release
b. Stress causes catecholamine and corticosteroid release
c. Stress cause people to neglect oral hygiene

Q44 What is the correct sequence of permanent tooth eruption

a. Mandibular canine erupts before mandibular second premolar

Q45 Contraindications of pulpotomy in primary teeth

b. Intermittent pain after meal
67
 c. Excessive bleeding
d. Haemophilia

Q47 What can you detect in Xray

a. Pocketing
b. Bone loss
c. Activity of periodontal disease
d. Attachment loss

Q48 First sign of periodontitis

a. Change in consistency of gingiva
b. Drifting of teeth First sign of periodontal disease in general is BLEEDING ON
c. Mobility PROBING/BRUSHING.
In periodontitis  teeth migration (drifting) reported by pt.
d. Pocket formation  TAKE APICAL MIGRATION OF J.E. if existed
e.

Q49 Deciduous mandibular incisor over retained, permanent

teeth will
a. Remains impacted
b. Erupt labially
c. Erupt lingually

Q52 In which disease, periodontal destruction does not occur in

primary teeth
a. Papillon lefevre Syndrome
b. Hypophosphatasia
c. Down Syndrome
d. Stevenson Johnson Syndrome it is a variant of erythema
multiform

68