M.C.

Q class XI CHEMISTRY

Chapter 1
1. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded.
Amount of water produced in the reaction will be:
a. 3 mol
b. 4 mol
c. 2 mol
d. 1 mol
2. 200 mL of water is added to 500 mL of 0.2 M solution of HCl . What is the molarity
of the diluted solution
a. 0.5010 M
b. 0.2897 M
c. 0.7093 M
d. 0.1428 M
3. What is the mass % of Carbon in Carbon dioxide.
a. 0.034%
b. 27.27%
c. 3.4%
d. 28.7%
4. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound is CH2O and 180 g resp.
What is the molecular formula of the compound.
a. C9H18O9
b. CH2O
c. C6H12O6
d. C2H4O2

13. If water sample are taken from sea, rivers or lake, they will be found to contain hydrogen
and oxygen in the approximate ratio of 1 : 8.This indicates the law of :
a Multiple proportion
b Definite proportion
c Reciprocal proportions
d None of these
14. 20 g of an ideal gas contains only atoms of S and O occupies 5.6 L at NPT. What is
the mol. wt. of gas ?
a. 64
b 80
c 96
d None of these
15. One atom of an element weight 1.8* 10–22 g, its atomic mass is
a 29.9
b 18
c 108.36
d 154
16. How many molecules are present in one gram of hydrogen?
a 6.02 *´ 1023
b 3.01 *´ 1023
c 2.5 *´ 1023
d 1.5 *´ 1023
17. The mass percentage of oxygen in NaOH is
a 40
b 60
c 8
d 10
18. One mole of CO2 contains
a 6.02 *´ 1023 atoms of C
b 6.02 *´ 1023 atoms of O
c 18.1 *´ 1023 molecules of CO2
d 3 gram of carbon
19. What volume 0.8 M solution contains 0.1 mole of solute?
a 100 mL
b 125 mL
c 500 mL
d 0.125 mL

20. If 30 mL of hydrogen and 20 mL of oxygen reacts to form water, What is left at the
end of the reaction?
a. 10 mL of hydrogen
b. 10mL of oxygen
c. 5 mL of hydrogen
d. 5 mL of oxygen

Chapter 2 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

MCQs

1. Two electrons occupying the same orbitals are distinguished by

a. Principal Quantum number
b. Magnetic quantum number
c. Azimuthal quantum number
d. Spin quantum number
2. The total number of atomic orbital in fourth energy level of an atom is
a. 16
b. 32
c. 4
d. 8
3 What is the maximum number of orbitals identified with the following quantum
numbers n-3, l= 1, m=0
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4 Energy of the third orbit of Bohr’s atom is
a. -13.6eV
b. -3.4 eV
c. -1.5 eV
d. none of these
5 The number of unpaired electron in chromium (atomic number) is:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6
6 Magnetic quantum number specifies
a. Size of orbitals
b. shape of orbitals
c. Orientation of orbitals in space
d. nuclear stability
7 When the value of n=2 m can have:
a. 1 value
b. 3 value
c. 4 values
d. 7 values.
8. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of chlorine atom is
n l m
2 1 0
2 1 1
3 1 1
3 0 0

9. The speed of a 200 g golf ball is 5.0 metre per hour. The wavelength of this ball will b
of the order of
a. 10-10
b. 10-20
c. 10-30
d. 10-4
10. The isobars have:
a. Same atomic number
b. same number of neutrons
c. same number of electrons
d. same mass number
11. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is
a. 12 and 4
b. 12 and 5
c. 16 and 4
d. 16 and 5
12. The maximum number of electron that can be accommodated in p-subshell is
a. 2
b. 6
c. 10
d. 14
13. For Balmer series the n1 is
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
14. Which of the following series lie in UV range of spectrum
a. Balmer series
b. Paschen series
c. Lyman series
d. Bracket series
15. The total energy of an electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom is given by the
formula En = -13.6 eV/n2. What does the negative energy for an electron indicate?

a. Energy of electron in an atom is lower than energy of an electron far away from
nucleus
b. The electron has a negative charge.
c. The electron is far away from nucleus
d. Electrons have both wave and particle-like properties.

16. Which of the following is not true about Bohr’s model of the atom?

a. Electrons behave like waves and particles simultaneously.

b. Electrons revolve in discrete, quantized orbits only.
c. mvr = nh/ 2π
d. Atoms radiate discrete Electromagnetic energies only.

17. In the absorption spectrum, the wavelengths which are absorbed, are missing and
they appear as:
a. Bright lines
b. Light bands
c. Bright bands
d. Dark lines

18. For Paschen series, the initial state n1 is :

a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 1

19. Zeeman effect is the splitting of spectral line in presence of:

a. electricity
b. magnetic effect
c. molecule
d. electric field

20. EM spectrum shows all forms of radiation except one of the followings:
a. X-rays
b. Infra red
c. Gamma Rays
d. Beta rays
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

CHAPTER-3 : PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION

Q.1 Which one of th following pairs would have a large size ?

(i) K or K+ (ii) Br or Br - (iii) O2- or F- (iv) Li+ or Na+ (v) P or As (vi) Na+ or Mg 2+

Ans (i) K (ii) Br - (iii) O2- (iv) Na+ (v) As (vi) Na+

Q.2 Which of the following pairs of elements would you expect to have lower first ionization
enthalpy ?

(i) Cl or F (ii) Cl or S (iii) K or Ar (iv) Kr or Xe

Ans (i) Cl (ii) S (iii) K (iv) Xe

Q.3 Predict the formulae of the stable binary compounds that would be formed by the
following pairs of elements :

(a) Calcium and Oxygen (ii) Aluminium and Carbon

Ans (a) CaO (b) Al4C3

Q.4 Multiple Choice Questions:

(i) Atoms of the elements belonging to the same group of periodic table will have

(a) same number of protons (b) same number of electrons in the valence shell

(c ) same number of neutrons (d) same number of electrons

Ans (b)

(ii) Element with valence shell electronic configuration as (n-1) d5 ns1 is placed in which of
the following group and block of elements ?
 (a) 1, s-block (b) 16, s-block (c) 7 , s-block (d) 6 , d-block

Ans (d)

(iii) Of the following pairs , the one containing examples of metalloid elements in the
periodic table is

(a) Na and K (b) F and Cl (c) Cu and Hg (d) Si and Ge

Ans (d)

(iv) Which of the following sets represents a collection of isoelectronic species ? (At. No. Cs
= 55 , Br = 35)

( a) Ca2+ , Cs , Br (b) Na + , Ca2+ , Mg2+ (c) N3- , F- , Na+ (d) Be , Al3+ , Cl-

Ans (c )

(v) Which of the following has highest value of ionic radius ?

(a) Li+ (b) B3+ (c) O2- (d) F-

Ans ( c)

(vi) The highly metallic element will have the configuration of

(a) 2,8,7 (b) 2,8,8,5 ( c) 2,8,8,1 (d) 2,8,2

Ans ( c)

(vii) The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is

(a) sp < sp2 < sp3 (b) sp<sp2 >sp3 (c ) sp>sp2 <sp3 (d) sp<sp2<sp3

Ans (d)

(viii) valence electrons in the element A are 3 and that in element B are 6 . Most probable
compound formed from A and B is

(a) A2B (b) AB2 (c) A6B3 (d) A2B3

Ans : (d)

(ix) The period number in the long form of periodic table is equal to

(a) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.

(b) Atomic number of any element of the period .
(c) Maximum Principal quantum number of any element of the period
(d) Maximum azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period

Ans : (c)
(x) The elements in which electrons are progressively filled in 4f –orbital are called

(a) actinoids (b) transition elements (c) lanthanoids (d) halogens

Ans ( c)

(xi) Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4 ?

(a) Be (b) P (c ) S (d) B

Ans : (b,c)

(xii) Which of the following elements will gain one electron more readily in comparison to
other elements of their group ?

(a) S(g) (b) Na(g) (c ) O (g) (d) Cl (g)

Ans : (a,d)

(xiii) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Helium has the highest first ionization enthalpy in the periodic table
(b) Chlorine has less negative electron gain enthalpy than Fluorine
(c) Mercury and Bromine are liquids at room temperature
(d) In any period, atomic radius of alkali metal is highest

Ans :( a , c )

(xiv) Which of the following have no unit ?

(a) Electronegativity (b) Electron gain enthalpy (c) Ionisation enthalpy ( d) Metallic
character

Ans (a , d)

Q.5 Fill in the blanks :

(i) s- and p- block elements are collectively called _______________ elements .

Ans representative

(ii) The general outermost shell electronic configuration of d-block elements is

____________.

Ans (n-1) d1-10 ns0-2 where n = 4 -7

(iii) all the lanthanoids and actinoids belong to group ______ of the periodic table.

Ans 3

(iv) The cation is __________ and anion is _________ than the neutral atom .
Ans smaller , larger

(v) In the periodic table, the element having the highest first ionization enthalpy is ___.

Ans He

(vi) Energy released when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom is called _______ of
the atom .

Ans Electron gain enthalpy

(vii) Among the halogens , the element having the most negative electron gain enthalpy is
____.

Ans Chlorine

Q.6 State True or False :

(i) F- , Ne and Na+ are isoelectronic species .

Ans True

(ii) Out of P3- , S2- and Cl- , Cl- ion has the smallest size .

Ans : True

(iii) The first ionization enthalpy of P is lower than that of S

Ans : False

(iv) Boron is diagonally related to magnesium .

Ans : False

(v) The reactivity of non-metals increases down the group from top to bottom .

Ans : False

(vi) An element with atomic number 32 is a p-block element .

Ans :True

(vii) Zinc is a s-block element since last electron in it enters the 4s –orbital .

Ans False

(viii) Isoelectronic species have same nuclear charge.

Ans : False

(ix) The ionization enthalpy of Mg is higher than that of Al.

Ans : True
(x) The third ionization enthalpy of Ca is very high .

Ans : True

(xi) The electron gain enthalpy of Oxygen is more negative than that of sulphur.

Ans : false

(xii) The electronegativity decreases as the s-character of the hybrid orbital increases.

Ans : False

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 4 : CHEMICAL BONDING

Q.1 Multiple Choice Questions:

(i) Which of the following contains both covalent and ionic bonds ?

(a) CCl4 (b) CaCl2 (c) NH4Cl (d) H2O

Ans : ( c)

(ii) The polarity of the covalent bond is maximum in

(a) F-F (b) O-F (c) N-F (d) C-F

Ans : (d)

(iii) A neutral molecule XF3 has zero dipole moment . The element X is most likely

(a) Chlorine (b) Boron ( c) Nitrogen (d) Bromine

Ans : (b)

(iv) Among the following which one is a linear molecule having zero dipole moment ?

(a) H2O (b) HCl (c) CO2 (d) H2S

Ans : ( c)

(v) AlCl3 is covalent while AlF3 is ionic . This is justified by

(a) Crystal structure (b) valence bond theory

( c) Fajan’s rules (d) Lattice energy

Ans : ( c)
(vi) The structure of IF7 is

(a) Trigonal bipyramidal (b) Octahedral

(c ) Pentagonal bipyramidal (d) Square pyramidal

Ans : ( c)

(vii) In which of the following , the double bond consists of both pi bonds

(a) O2 (b) C2 ( c) Be2 (d) S2

Ans : (b)

(viii) Which of the following Hydrogen halide is liquid at room temperature ?

(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI

Ans : (a)

(ix) The hybridization of C involved in Acetylene is :

(a) sp2 (b) sp3 (c ) sp (d) dsp2

Ans : ( c)

(x) Which of the following has the maximum covalent character ?

(a) LiI (b) LiF (c ) LiCl (d) LiBr

Ans : (a)

(xi) Which of the following molecules is not an exception to the octet rule ?

(a) BF3 (b) PF5 (c) CO2 (d) IF7

Ans : (c)

(xii) For which of the following hybridization the bond angle is maximum ?

(a) sp2 (b) sp ( c) sp3 (d) dsp2

Ans : (b)

(xiii) Which of the following has the highest lattice enthalpy ?

(a) LiF (b) NaF ( c) KF (d) RbF

Ans : (a)
(xiv) Which of the following molecule has the net dipole moment ?

(a) CCl4 (b) C2H2 ( c) BF3 ( d) NH3

Ans : (d)

(xv) Ratio of pi and sigma bonds in Benzene is

(a) 1:2 (b) 1:6 ( c) 1:4 (d) 1:1

Ans : ( c)

(xvi) The angle between the covalent bonds is maximum in

(a) CH4 (b) BF3 (c) PF3 (d) NH3

Ans : (b)

(xvii) Which of the following has the highest boiling point ?

(a) NH3 (b) PH3 ( c) SbH3 (d) AsH3

Ans : (a)

(xviii) Intramolecular H-bond exists in

(a) ortho nitrophenol (b) Ethyl alcohol ( c) Water (d) Diethyl ether

Ans : (a)

(xix) Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the
central atom ?

(a) H2O (b) BF3 ( c) NH2- ( d) PCl3

Ans : PCl3

(xx) The percentage of p-character of the hybrid orbitals in graphite and diamond are
respectively

(a) 33 and 25 (b) 50 and 75

( c) 67 and 75 ( d) 33 and 75

Ans : ( c)
 Chapter -5 STATES OF MATTER

Q1.For one mole of a gas ideal gas equation is :-

A. PV =1/2 RT
B. PV= RT
C. PV=3/2 RT
D. PV=5/2RT

Ans B

Q2. Which of the following is correct mathematical relation for Charle’s law at constant pressure ?

a. V α T
b. V αt
c. V α 1/T
d. All of the above

Ans a

Q3. At constant temperature , the pressure of the gas is reduced to one –third ,the volume

a) Reduce to one third

b) Increases by three times
c) Remaining the same
d) Cannot be predicted

Ans b

Q4. With the rise in temperarure, the surface tension of a liquid

a) Decreases b)increases c) remaining the same d) none of the above

Ans a

Q5.Viscosity of a liquid is a measure of :-

a) Repulsive forces between the liquid molecules

b) Frictional resistance
c) Intermolecular forces between the molecules
d) None of the above

Ans b

Q6. The compressibility factor , z for an ideal gas is

a) Zero b) less than one

c) Greater than one d) equal to one

Ans d
Q7. What type of intermolecular forces exist between the water molecules :-

a) Hydrogen bonding
b) dipole –dipole forces
c) dipole –induced dipole forces
d) London forces

Ans a

Q8. The temperature at which the volume of a gas is zero is:-

A) 00 c B) 0K C)0F D)None of the above

Ans 0 k

Q9. Temperature below which the gas does not obey ideal gas law is ------------.

Ans Boyle’s temperature. -

Q10. Dipole –dipole , dipole-induced dipole and dispersion forces are collectively called -----------
.

Ans Van der waals forces.

Q11. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. --------
bonds are responsible to hold them together.

Ans Hydrogen bond.

Q12. The value of universal gas constant in the units of bar dm3 K-1mol-1 is ----------.

Ans 0.083

Q13. A real gas acts as an ideal gas under ----- pressure and ----- temperature.

Ans Low pressure and high temperature

Q14. Vander waals constant ‘a’ is a measure of --------.

Ans Intermolecular forces of attraction.

Q15. Vander waals constant ‘b’ is a measure of ------------.

Ans Effective size of the gas molecules.

Q16.Which property can be used to explain the spherical shape of rain droplet ?

Ans Surface tension

Q17. What will be the molar volume of nitrogen and argon at 273.15 k and I atm ?

Ans 22.4 L
 Q18. Why are aerated water bottles kept under water during summer ?

Ans To reduce temperature which will reduce pressure inside otherwise the bottle may burst.

Q19. What is the effect of temperature on viscosity ?

Ans Viscosity increases with decrease in temperature.

Q20 Name the gas law which correlates pressure and volume.

Ans Boyle’s law.

Chapter- 6 Thermodynmics
Q1Which of the following pairs doesnot represent example afor intensive property?

a) Temperature & density b) Pressure & molar volume

c) Molar heat capacity & density d) Heat capacity and enthalpy
Ans1d) Heat capacity and enthalpy

Q2 The species which by definition has zero std molar enthalpy of formation at 298K is

a) Br2(g) b)Cl2(g) c)H2O(g) d)CH4(g)

Ans2 b)Cl2(g)

Q3 Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is

a) Diamond b) Graphite c) Fullerenes d) coal

Ans3 b)Graphite

Q4 Which of the following demonstrates a decrease in entropy?

a) Dissolving a solid into solution b) An expanding universe

c Burning a log in a fire place d)Raking up leaves into a trash bag

Ans4 d)Raking up leaves into a trash bag

Q5 If the value of equilibrium constant K< 1.0, what will be the value of ∆G ⁰ out of the
following?

a) 1.0 b) Zero c) Negative d) Positive

Ans 5 d) Positive

Q6 A process is taking place at a constant temperature and pressure. Then

 a) ∆H=∆E b) ∆H=T∆S c) ∆H=0 d)∆S=0
Ans6 b) ∆H=T∆S ( process will be at equilibrium,∆G=0)

Q7 If w is the amount of work done by the system and q is the amount of heat supplied to
the system, identify the type of system

a) Isolated system b) Closed system c)Open system d)system with

thermally conducting walls.
Ans7 b) Closed system

Q8 Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?

a) For an isochoric process, ∆U=-q

b) For an adiabatic process, ∆U=-w
c) For an isothermal process, q=+w
d) For an isochoric process, q=-w
Ans8 d)For an isochoric process, q=-w

Q9 The volume of gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The specific heat will…

a) Reduce to half b) be doubled c) remain constant d) increases four times

Ans9 c) remain constant

Q10 The std enthalpies of formation of CO 2(g), H2O(g) & glucose(s) at 25⁰C are -400kj/mol, -
300kj/mol & -1300kj/mol respectively. The std enthalpy of combustion per gram of glucose
at 25⁰C is

a) +2900kj b)-2900kj c)-16.11kj d)+16.11kj

Ans10 -16.11kj/g

Fill in the blanks

i) If water kept in an insulated vessel at-10⁰C suddenly freezes, the entropy change of the
system _______

Ans is zero (As the system is insulated)

ii)2 Entropy of a perfectly crystalline solid is taken as zero at the absolute zero. This is a
statement of_______

Ans third law of thermodynamics

iii)Gibbs energy equation or Gibbs Helmoholtz equation is________

Ans ∆G=∆H - T∆S

iv) Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the value of______

Ans ∆U

v)Enthalpy of sublimation is the sum of enthalpy of________& enthalpy of________

Ans Fusion ,vaporization

vi) Internal energy change of a system is the heat absorbed or evolved at constant ______,
whereas enthalpy change is that at constant _________

Ans volume, pressure

vii) Molar heat capacity of aluminium will be ______ times it’s specific heat.

Ans 27

viii) During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas the change in internal energy is_______

Ans Zero

ix)A reaction was nonspontaneous at high temperature, but becomes spontaneous at low
temperature. The reaction is _________

Ans Exothermic

x)For n moles of a gas, the difference between molar heat capacity at constant pressure and
that at constant volume is equal to_______

Ans nR

Chapter -7 Equlibrium
Q1The vapour pressure of a liquid in a closed vessel
a)Depends upon the amount of the liquid taken
b)keeps on increasing continuously as more and more liquid evaporates
c)has a constant value depending only on the nature of the liquid
d)has a constant value at constant temperature
Ans1 d)has a constant value at constant temperature

Q2 We know that relationship between Kp and Kc is Kp= Kc(RT)∆n. What would be the
value of ∆n for the reaction NH4Cl(s)⇌ NH3(g)+ HCl(g)
a)1 b)0.5 c)1.5 d)2
Ans2 d)2
Q3The following two equilibria exist simultaneously in a closedvessel:
PCl5(g)⇌PCl3(g) +Cl2(g)
COCl2(g)⇌CO(g)+Cl2(g); If some CO is added into the vessel, then after the equilibrium is
attained again, concentration of
a) PCl5 will increase b) PCl5 will decrease c) PCl5 will remain unaffected d)
Cl2 will increase
Ans3 b) PCl5 will decrease
Q4 Which of the following is not general characteristic of equilibria involving physical
processes?
a) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature.
b) All measurable properties of the system remain constant.
c) All the physical processes stop at equilibrium.
d) The opposing processes occur at the same rate and there is dynamic but stable
condition.
Ans4 All the physical pr ocesses stop at equilibrium.
Q5Acidity of BF3 can be explained on the basis of:
a) Arrhenius concept b)Bronsted-Lowry concept c)Lewis concept
d)both (b)&(c)
Ans 5 c)Lewis concept
Q6Mg2+ is _____ than Al3+
a)stronger Lewis acid b)stronger Lewis base c)weaker Lewis acid d)weaker Lewis base
Ans6 c)weaker Lewis acid
Q7A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of
a) Sodium acetate and acetic acid in water
b) Sodium acetate and hydrochloric acid in water
c) Hydrochloric acid and ammonium chloride in water
d) Ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water
Ans Sodium acetate and acetic acid in water

Q8 In the reaction I 2 + I-→ I3-, which is the Lewis base?

a) I2 b) I- c) I3- d)none of these
Ans 8 b) I-

Q9 Low pressure favours those gaseous reaction which are accompanied by _______ in the
total number of moles.
Ans9 Increase
Q10If reaction quotient for a reaction is less than its equilibrium constant, then the reaction
will proceed in the _______ direction.
Ans10 Forward

Q11 On addition of a catalyst to a reaction, the equilibrium constant_________.

Ans11 Remains unchanged
Q12 The degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte is ______ one whereas that of strong
electrolyte is _____one.
Ans12 Less than, equal to
Q13 H+ ions in aqueous solutions exist as _____ions.
Ans H3O+
Q14 The conjugate acid of OH- ions is _____whereas its conjugate base is_____.
Ans 14 H2O , O2-
Q15 In the reaction between BF3 and NH3, BF3 acts as ______ whereas NH3 acts as_______.
Ans Lewis acid, Lewis base
Q16 Ionic product of water ________with increase of temperature.
Ans16 increases
Q17pKa +pKb for a conjugate acid base pair=________
Ans 17 pKw or 14
Q18The Ksp of Ca3(PO4) 2 = ________
Ans18 [Ca2+]3 [PO43-]2
Q19Basicity of phosphoric acid is_______
Ans 19 Three
Q20 The value ofequlibrium constants Kp=Kc, when ∆n=___
Ans20 Zero

Chapter -8 REDOX REACTION

Q1. Oxidation number of Mn in K2MnO4 :-

A) +7 B) +6 C) -2 D) 0

Ans A

Q2. Identify the correct statement with reference to the given reaction

P4 + 3 OH- + 3 H2O ------> PH3 + 3 H2PO2-

a) Phosphorus is undergoing reduction only

b) Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation only
c) Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation and reduction both
d) None of the above

Ans c

Q3. Reducing agent is a species

a) Which loses electrons

b) Which accepts electrons
c) Which loses and accepts electrons both
d) None of the above

Ans a

Q4. Oxidation involves :-

a) Increase in oxidation number

b) Decrease in oxidation number
 c) Both increase and decrease in oxidation number
d) None of the above

Ans a

Q5. What is the oxidation number of P in H3PO4 ?

a) +2 b) +3 c) +5 d) -2

Ans a

Q6. The oxidation number of an element in a compound is evaluated on the basis of certain rules.

Which of the following is correct one:-

a) The algebraic sum of all the oxidation numbers in a compound is zero.

b) The oxidation number of hydrogen is always +1
c) The oxidation number of F is -2
d) None of the above

Ans a

Q7. Which of the following species do not show disproportionation reaction:

A) ClO-
B) ClO2—
C) ClO3-
D) ClO4-

Ans D

Q8. Which of the following is true about given equation:-

2 KClO3 ------.> 2KCl + 3 O2

a) Potassium is undergoing oxidation

b) Chlorine is undergoing oxidation
c) Oxidation is reduced
d) None of the above

Ans d

Q9. Find out the oxidation number of Fe in Fe3O4.

Ans 8/3

Q10 What is the minimum oxidation state of metals ?

a) Zero b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

Ans a
 Chapter -9 HYDROGEN

1. The absorption of hydrogen by palladium is called:

a) Hydrogenation
b) Reduction
c) Hydration
d) Occlusion
2. Pure water is obtained from sea water by:
a) Centrifugation
b) Plasmolysis
c) Reverse osmosis
d) Sedimentation
3. Which is used as moderator in nuclear reactor:
a) H2O
b) Alum
c) D2O
d) Any of these
4. Oxidation state of oxygen in H2O2 is:
a) -1
b) +1
c) -2
d) +2
5. Which of the following gives H2 with Na metal?
a) CH4
b) C2H6
c) C2H4
d) C2H2
6. Proton is likely to have high:
a) Hydration energy
b) Electron affinity
c) Atomic size
d) Atomic mass
7. The reagent commonly used to determine the hardness of water titrametrically is;
a) Oxalic acid
b) Disodium salt of EDTA
c) Sodium citrate
d) Sodium thiosulphate
8. Water softening by clarke’s process uses:
a) Calcium bicarbonate
b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
c) Potash alum
d) Calcium hydroxide
9. Hydrogen peroxide acts as oxidising agent in:
a) Neutral medium
b) Acidic medium
c) Alkaline medium
d) Alkaline and neutral medium
 e) Acidic and alkaline medium
10. By adding which of the following, the permanent hardness of water can be removed?
a) Soda lime
b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
c) Washing soda
d) Sodium chloride
11. Which of the following substance produces H2O2 on reaction with H2SO4?
a) Na2O2
b) PbO2
c) MnO2
d) Na
12. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the electrolytic preparation oh H2O2?
a) Hydrogen is liberated at anode
b) Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation
c) Pt is used at cathode
d) 50% H2SO4 is used
13. Permanent hardness from water can be removed by adding:
a) Na2CO3
b) K
c) Ca(OCl)Cl
d) Cl2
14. Zeolite used to soften hardness of water is hydrated:
a) Potassium aluminium silicate
b) sodium aluminium silicate
c) calcium aluminium silicate
d) zinc aluminium borate
e) zinc aluminium silicate
15. syngas is a mixture of
a) CO2 + H2
b) CO + H2
c) CO + CO2
d) CO + N2
e) CO + O2
16. Heavy water is used as a
a) Fuel in engines
b) Semiconductor
c) Moderator in nuclear reactors
d) Insulator in steam engines
17. Which of the following could act as propellant for rockets?
a) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon
b) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen
c) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen
d) Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen
18. Hydrogenation of vegetable oils is presence of finely divided nickel as catalyst, the
reaction is
a) Enzyme catalysed reaction
 b) Liquid catalysed reaction
c) Heterogenous catalysis
d) Homogeneous catalysis
19. Which of the following ions will cause hardness in water?
a) Ca2+
b) Mg++
c) Cl-
d) K+
20. H2O2 can be prepared when the following react with H2SO4 except with:
a) BaO2
b) PbO2
c) Na2O2
d) SrO2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d c c a d a b d c c

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

a a a b b c c c a b

Chapter -10 S - Block Elements

1. Which of the alkali metals has highest reducing power ?

2. Which of the alkali metal is smallest ionic size

3.Which of the alkali metal has highest melting point

4.Which of the alkali metal has least electropositive character

5. Can we store sodium metal under water? Give reason.

6. Name the raw materials used in the manufacture of sodium carbonate by Solvay process.

7 Name the by-product of Solvay process.

8. Why is potassium carbonate not prepared by this method?

9. What are the products formed when a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride is
electrolysed.

10 To which group of the periodic table the metals calcium and magnesium belong?

11.. Write the electronic configurations of Mg and Ca.

12. Why do Ca and Mg act as good reducing agents?

13. Salts of which metal give brick-red colour to the flame?

14. Why are the oxides of alkali metals more basic than those of alkaline earth metals?

15. Name the minerals of magnesium which are commonly used for the manufacture of
magnesium.

16 Fill in the blanks:

1.The s-block elements of the Periodic Table are those in which the last electron enters the
out _______ -orbital.

2. The general electronic configuration of s-block elements is ____________ for alkali metals
and _____________ for alkaline earth metals.

3. Lithium shows similarities to magnesium and beryllium to aluminium in many of their

properties. This type of similarity is commonly referred to as ___________

4. The alkali metal atoms have the ___________ sizes in a particular period of the periodic
table. 5. The monovalent ions (M+ ) are ____________ than the parent atom.

6.Carbonates of alkaline earth metals are __________ in water .

7. Sulphates of the alkaline earth metals are all _________ solids and ________ to heat.

.8._____________ is used as a building material in the form of marble and in the

manufacture of quick lime.

MCQ

1. The order of decreasing ionisation enthalpy in alkali metals is

(i) Na > Li > K > Rb

(ii) Rb < Na < K < Li

(iii) Li > Na > K > Rb

(iv) K < Li < Na < Rb

2.Amongst fluorides of alkali metals, the lowest solubility of LiF in water is due to
(i) Ionic nature of lithium fluoride

(ii) High lattice enthalpy

(iii) High hydration enthalpy for lithium ion.

(iv) Low ionisation enthalpy of lithium atom

3. Amphoteric hydroxides react with both alkalies and acids. Which of the following Group 2
metal hydroxides is soluble in sodium hydroxide?

(i) Be(OH)2

(ii) Mg(OH)2

(iii) Ca(OH)2

(iv) Ba(OH)2

4. Which of the following are the correct reasons for anomalous behaviour of lithium?

(i) Exceptionally small size of its atom

(ii) Its high polarising power

(iii) It has high degree of hydration

(iv) Exceptionally low ionisation enthalpy

5. Suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

(i) lime water

(ii) quick lime

(iii) milk of lime

(iv) aqueous solution of slaked lime

6. When sodium is dissolved in liquid ammonia, a solution of deep blue colour is obtained.
The colour of the solution is due to

(i) ammoniated electron

(ii) sodium ion

(iii) sodium amide

(iv) ammoniated sodium ion

Answer Key

S Block elements-XI
 1. Cs
2. Li+
3. Li
4. Li
5. Sodium is a reactive metal ,it reacts with water and also floats on its top, because it's
less dense than water, so water can not be stored.
6. Brine (NaCl) and limestone
7. CO2 and H2O
8. Because potassium bicarbonate is too soluble to be precipitated by the addition of
ammonium bicarbonate to a saturated solution of potassium chloride.
9. H2 and Cl2
10. Gp 2
11. Mg= [Ne]103s2, Ca=[Ar]184s2
12. Low ionisation energy
13. Ca
14. Because of smaller ionic size, high ionisation energy and lattice energy.
15. MgO,MgCO3
16. Fill in the blanks
1) s orbital
2) ns1 and ns2
3) diagonal relationship
4) largest
5) smaller
6) sparingly soluble
7) white, prone
8) CaCO3

Mcq
1) iii
2) ii
3) iv
4) i
5) iii)
6) i)

Chapter -11 p-Block Elements

VSQ

1. CCl4 is immiscible in water, whereas SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed. Why?

2. Carbon has a strong tendency for catenation compared to silicon.Why?

3. Draw structure of BCl3NH3

4. Pb4+ acts as an oxidising agent but Sn2+ acts as a reducing agent.Why?

5. Electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is more negative as compared to fluorine.

6. What do you mean by Inert effect?

7.Match the species given in Column I with the properties mentioned in Column II.

Column I Column II

(i) BF4 – (a) Oxidation state of central atom is

+4 (ii) AlCl3 (b) Strong oxidising agent

(iii) SnO (c) Lewis acid

(iv) PbO2 (d) Can be further oxidised

(e) Tetrahedral shape

8 Fill in the blanks:

1. General electronic configuration of gp 14 elements is _____________

2. Formula of Boric acid is_____________

3. Banana bond can be observed in compound ______________

4. Elements present in gp 14 are C,Si,Ge, ______ and _________

5.Sn + 2H2O → __________ +__________

6What is the state of hybridization in diamond _____________

7 B2H6 + NH3 -->

MCQ

1. Which of the following is a Lewis acid

a. AlCl3

b. MgCl2

c.CaCl2

d. BaCl2
2. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule

a. contains replacebale H+ ion

b. gives up a proton

c. accepts OH- from water releasing proton

d.combines with proton from wter molecule

3. Dry ice is

a. Solid NH3

b. Solid SO2

c. Solid CO2

d. Solid N2

4. Identify the correct resonance structures of carbon dioxide from the ones given below

a. O – C ≡ O

b. O = C = O

c. – O ≡ C – O+

d. – O – C ≡ O

5.Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is

a) diamond

b) graphite

c) fullerenes

d) coal

6. Elements of group 14

a) exhibit oxidation state of +4 only

b) exhibit oxidation state of +2 and +4

c) form M2– and M4+ ions

d) form M2+ and M4+ ions

7. What all is common in p Block elements?

a. they all are reactive

b. their valence electrons are in the p orbital

c. they can be in gaseous state at room temperature

d. they all are great conductors

Class XI

p Block elements

Answer key

1. CCl4 doesn't undergo hydrolysis because of the absence of vacant d-orbitals. But
in SiCl4 silicon has vacant d-orbitals which can be used for hydrolysis. Hence
SiCl4 can undergo hydrolysis.
2. Yes carbon has a stronger tendency for catenation as compared to Silicon it is due to
smaller size and hence higher electronegativigy of carbon when compared to Silicon.
3.

4. This is due to inert pair effect..i.e. down the group lower oxidation state becomes
more stable then higher OS. ... So to achieve both these more stable states one needs
to loose and other needs to gain electron which will make sn2+ a reducing
agent n pb4+ an oxidising agent.
5. This is due to inert pair effect..i.e. down the group lower oxidation state becomes
more stable then higher OS. ... So to achieve both these more stable states one needs
to loose and other needs to gain electron which will make sn2+ a reducing
agent n pb4+ an oxidising agent
6. Inert pair effect is reluctance of s electrons to take part in bond formation.As a result
for heavier elements lower oxidation state is more stable.

7. Match the following:

1) Tetrahedral shape
2) Lewis acid
3) Can be further oxidised
4) Central atom has oxidation state +4

8. Fill in the blanks

1) ns 2np2
2) H3BO3
3) Diborane ( B2H6)
4) Sn,Pb
5) SnO + H2
6) Sp3
7) B2H6 + NH3→ B2H6.2NH3

Mcq
 1) a
2) c
3) c
4) c
5) a
6) b
7) b

Chapter -12 SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following IUPAC name is correct :

(a) 3-ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane

(b) 4,4-dimethyl-3-ethylheptane

(c) 5-ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane

(d)4,4-bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane.

2. The IUPAC name for CH3COCH2CH2COOH is :

(a) 1-hydroxypentane-1,4-dione

(b) 1,4-dioxopentanol

(c) 1-carboxybutan-3-one

(d) 4-oxopentanoic acid.

3. In which of the following compounds , the carbon marked with asterik is most electronegative:
(a) CH3-CH2-*CH2-CH3

(b) CH3-*CH=CH-CH3

(c) CH3-CH2-C=*CH

(d) CH3-CH2-CH=*CH2.

4. In which of the following , functional group isomerism is not possible:

(a) alcohol
(b) aldehyde

(c) alkyl halide

(d) cyanides

5. The fragnance of flowers is due to the presence of steam volatile organic compounds called
essential oils . These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are but are miscible
with the water vapour in vapour phase . A suitable method for the extraction of these oils from
the flowers is :
(a) distilation

(b) crystallisation

(c) distillation under reduced pressure

(d) steam distillation.

6. The principle involved in paper chromatography is :

(a) adsorption

(b) partition

(c) solubility

(d) volatility.

7. What is the correct order of decreasing stability of the following cations:

CH3-CH+-CH3 (I)

CH3-CH+-OCH3 (II)

CH3-CH+-CH2-OCH3 (III)

(a) II>I>III
(b) II>III>I
(c) III>I>II
(d) I>II>III

8. Which of the following carboxylate ion is the most stable:

(a) CH3-COO-

(b) Cl-CH3COO-

(c) F-CH2-COO-

(d) (F)(F)CH-COO-
9. The percentage of s character of the hybrid orbital of carbon in ethane , ethene and ethyne
respectively are:
(a) 25,33,50

(b) 20,50,33

(c) 25,50,75

(d) 33,66,99.

10. A student named a compound as 1,4-butadiene:

(a) the name is correct
(b) he committed an error in the selection of carbon chains

(c) he committed an error in position of the double bond

(d) unpredictable.

11. In hyperconjugation the atom involved is :

(a) ᵝ hydrogen

(b) α hydrogen

(c) ɤ hydrogen

(d) all of these.

12. Cyclohexane is :
(a) aliphatcompound

(b) alicyclic compound

(c) aromatic compound

(d) heterocyclic compound.

13. Which of the following is electrophillic reagent :

(a) RO-

(b) BF3

(c) NH3

(d) ROH.
14. The reaction : C2H5I + KOH -----> C2H5OH +KI is
(a) hydroxylation reaction

(b) electrophillic substitution

(c) nucleophillic substitution

(d) dehydroiodination.

15. Homologous compounds have:

(a) same chemical properties

(b) same physical properties

(c) same molecular weight

(d) same mpt and bpt.

16. The number of electron in the valency shell of carbon in methyl carbonium ion is:
(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 8 .

17. The shape of the carbonium ion is :

(a) planar

(b) linear

(c) pyramidal

(d) tetrahedral.

18. The number of primary , secondary and tertiary carbon atoms in isopentane are :
(a) 3,2,1

(b) 2,3,1

(c) 3,1,1

(d) 2,2,1.
19. The number of sigma and pi bonds in but-1-ene-3-yne are:
(a) 5,5

(b) 8,2

(c) 7,3

(d) 8,4.

20. Which of the following has zero dipole moment:

(a) cis but-2-ene

(b) 1-butene

(c) trans but-2-ene

(d) trans pent-2-ene

Answers (some basic concepts of organic chemistry)

1.(b) 2.(d) 3.(c ) 4.c 5.d 6.b 7.a 8.d 9.a 10.c 11.a 12.b 13.b 14.c
15.a 16.b 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.c

Chapter -13 HYDROCARBONS

1. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling point:

N-butane (I) , 2-methylbutane (II) , n-pentane (III) , 2,2-dimethylpropane (IV):

(a) I>II>III>IV

(b) II>III>IV>I

(c) IV>III>II>I

(d) III>II>IV>I.

2. Arrange the following in their order of increasing reactivity with alkanes:

F2 (I) , Cl2 (II) , Br2 (III) , I2 (IV)

(a) IV<III<II<I
(b) III<II<I<IV

(c) I<II<III<IV

(d) III<IV<II<I.

3. The increasing order of the reactivity of the alkyl halides with zinc and dilute HCl is :
(a) RCl < RI <RBr

(b) RCl < RBr < RI

(c) RI < RBr < RCl

(d) RBr < RI < RCl.

4. Arrange the following hydrogen halides in order of their decreasing reactivity with propene :
(a) HCl<HBr<HI

(b) HBr<HI<HCl

(c) HI<HBr<HCl

(d) HCl<HI<HBr.

5. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophillic nitration is
:
(a) toluene

(b) benzene

(c) benzoic acid

(d) nitrobenzene.

6. Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only one
isomer of mono substituted alkyl halide :
(a) tertiary butyl chloride

(b) neopentane

(c) isohexane

(d) neohexane.
7. The ratio of sigma and pi bonds in benzene is :
(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8.

8. Chemical name of the insecticides gammexene is :

(a) DDT

(b) benzene hexachloride

(c) chloral

(d) hexachloroethane.

9. Gammexene is prepared from benzene when it reacts with :

(a) Br2 in bright light (in absence of the catalyst)

(b) Cl2 in bright light (in absence of the catalyst)

(c) CH3Cl in presence of anhydrous AlCl3

(d) COCl2 in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3.

10. Pointout the wrong statement about the benzene structure:

(a) it forms only monosubstituted product

(b) c-c bond distance is uniform

(c) it is a resonance hybrid of a number of canonical forms

(d) it has three delocalised pi molecular orbitals.

11. Reaction of toluene with chlorine in presence of aluminium chloride gives predominantly :
(a) benzoyl chloride

(b) m-chlorotoluene

(c) benzyl chloride

(d) o- and p- chlorotoluenes.

12. Nitration of benzene by nitric acid and sulphuric acid is :
(a) electrophillic substitution

(b) electrophillic addition

(c) nucleophillic substitution

(d) free radical substitution.

13. Necessary conditions for halogenation is:

(a) cold and dark

(b) presence of halogen and lewis acid

(c) both a and b

(d) none of these.

14. The correct structure of benzene was proposed by :

(a) faraday

(b) kekule

(c) davy

(d) wohler.

15. The attacking species in sulphonation of benzene is :

(a) SO2

(b) SO3

(c) SO42-

(d) HSO3-.

16. The product formed when acetylene is passed through red hot tube is :
(a) benzene

(b) cyclohexane

(c) neoprene

(d) ethane.

17. Hydrocarbon containing following bond is most reactive :

(a) c=c

(b) c=c

(c) c-c

(d) all of these.

18. When ethylene bromide is treated with Zn , we get :

(a) alkane

(b) alkene

(c) alkyne

(d) all of these.

19. Propene reacts with HBr to form :

(a) ethane

(b) hexane

(c) 1-bromopropane

(d) 2-bromopropane.

20. The final product when the ethyl bromide is treated with alcoholic KOH is

(a) ethene

(b) ethane

(c) ethyne

(d) no reaction.

Answers (hydrocarbons)

1.d 2.a 3.b 4.b 5.a 6.b 7.b 8.b 9.b 10.a 11.d 12.a 13.c 14.b 15.b 16.a
17.a 18.b 19.d 20.a

Chapter -14 ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

Q1. The secondary precursors of photochemical smog are:

(a) SO2 and NO2

 (b) SO2 and hydrocarbons
(c) NO2 and hydrocarbons
(d) NO2 and PAN
(e) O3 and PAN

Q2. Freons are not recommended to be used in refrigerators because they cause:

(a) Global warming

(b) Acid rain
(c) Depletion of ozone layer
(d) Very less cooling

Q3. Photochemical smog is formed due to the presence of:

(a) Oxides of sulphur

(b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Oxides of carbon
(d) Oxides of lead

Q4. The gas which reacts with haemoglobin in blood is:

(a) CO
(b) SO2
(c) CO2
(d) NO

Q5. Ozone is present in:

(a) Thermosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Troposphere

Q6. Water pollution is less if BOD is:

(a) Less than 5 ppm

(b) Less than 15 ppm
(c) Less than 50 ppm
(d) Less than 100 ppm

Q7. Which is responsible mainly for depletion of ozone layer?

(a) CFCS
(b) HCFs
(c) CH3Br
(d) All are correct

Q8. The major air pollutant is:

(a) CO
 (b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Oxides of sulphur
(d) All

Q9. The pollutant released in Bhopal gas tragedy was:

(a) Ammonia
(b) Methyl isocyanate
(c) Mustard gas
(d) Ntrous oxide

Q10. Besides CO2, the other green house gas is:

(a) CH4
(b) N2
(c) Ar
(d) O2

Q11. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant?

(a) NO2
(b) N2O5
(c) NO
(d) N2O

Q12. Acid rain is due to:

(a) Formation of oxides of sulphur

(b) Formation of oxides of nitrogen
(c) Formation of H2SO and HNO3
(d) All of these

Q13. BOD is a measure of:

(a) Organic pollutant in water

(b) Oxides of SPN in air
(c) Inorganic pollutant in water
(d) Particle matter in water

Q14. Which is not a source of pollution?

(a) Forest Fire

(b) Coal Fire
(c) Volcanoes
(d) Dust Storm

Q15. Which of the following will increase the BOD of water supply?

(a) CO2
(b) O3
 (c) H2O
(d) C2H5OH

Q16. A considerable part of the harmful U.V. radiation of the sun does not reach the surface of the
earth because above the earth’s atmosphere, there is a layer of:

(a) CO2
(b) O3
(c) N2
(d) O2

Q17. Which of the following processes does not increase the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere?

(a) Decay of animals

(b) Breathing
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Burning of petrol

Q18. Which of the following is not a vehicular pollutant?

(a) CO
(b) NO2
(c) Particulate matter
(d) Hydrocarbons

Q19. Which of the following is least air pollutant?

(a) NOx
(b) SOx
(c) CO2
(d) CxHy

Q20. The most abundant water pollutant is:

(a) Detergent
(b) Industrial waste
(c) Pesticide
(d) Oil spill

ANSWER KEY

Q1. (e) Q2. (c) Q3. (b) Q4. (a) Q5. (c) Q6. (a) Q7. (a) Q8. (d) Q9. (b) Q10. (a) Q11. (b) Q12. (d)
Q13. (a) Q14. (d) Q15. (d) Q16. (b) Q17. (b) Q18. (d) Q19. (c) Q20. (b)