Road to becoming

a Registered
Psychometrician
Tips on studying; BLEP experience; Rationalization
POINTS TO REMEMBER
1.Know your own learning style
2.Set your own review schedule
3.Assess your strengths and weakness
4.Discipline is a must
5.Reward yourself
6.Pray
Hi Future RPm! I just want you to be reminded that you are doing this for a
greater and deeper purpose. To feel anxious is normal. Acknowledge your
emotions. But never let your self-doubts overpower your passion. In a world
where negativity and mental health stigma exists, I hope you continue to
persevere as you are destined to become one of the mental health advocates
in our field. Last year, I was just like you, dreaming that I could have that
“RPm” next to surname. If I made it, you too can.

Just work hard, pray and believe. I am very much excited to see you as my
colleague!!! God bless you, RPm!!! I will be praying for all you, my VIP, Lower
box, Upper box and Gen Ad babies!!! I love you all ☺

- Sir Rolf Gian “Catriona” Marcos, RPm.

See you sa Oath Taking and PAP Convention!!!!!!!
Psychological
Assessment
Prepared by: Rolf Gian Marcos, RPm
 References:
1.Psychological Testing and Assessment
by Cohen and Swerdlik
2.Psychological Assessment and Theory by
Kaplan and Sacuzzo
3.Experimental Psychology by Myers and
Hansen
BONUS ITEMS
Anika has Antisocial Personality Disorder. Nadine
has Intermittent Explosive Disorder. What could be
the major difference between them?
a. Level/Severity of damage and harm
b. Level/Severity of Physical Violence
c. Level/Severity of Guilt
d. Level/Severity of Verbal attacks
Answer: C
 Antisocial Intermittent
Personality Explosive
Disorder Disorder
Classification Personality Impulse Control
Disorder Disorder
Course Chronic Episodic
Remorse No Yes
Impulse Less Severe More Severe
Aggression
_________ investigates changes across time by
measuring behavior of same group of subjects at different
points in time while ________ investigates changes
across time by comparing groups of subjects already at
different stages at a single point in time.
a. cross lagged; cross sectional
b. cross sectional; path analysis
c. path analysis; longitudinal
d. longitudinal; cross sectional
LONGITUDINAL DESIGN
Cassie Cassie Cassie Cassie
1 y old 10 y old 30 y old 90 y old

Disadvantage:
• Possible subject mortality
• Time consuming
 CROSS-SECTIONAL DESIGN
Bochok Aura Marga Daniela Esther Susan
1 y old 10 y old 16 y old 40 y old 60 y old 80 y old

Disadvantage:
Does not control for subject differences
Answer: D
 What is Path Analysis?
• to determine whether or not a multivariate set of
nonexperimental data fits well with a particular (a priori)
causal model.
• uses beta weights to construct path models, outlining
causal sequences for the related behavior; the models
are constructed according to the behaviors that have
been measured. (This is computer generated) computer
does multiple regression and tests for different paths
E.g. Effect of empathy on the amount of helping
(willingness to give to stigmatized group)

Figure indicates the best fitting model for helping

Be careful not to frame models into causal
statements because:
(a) direction of cause and effects are not
established with certainty,
(b) third variable is not completely ruled out.
Letty, a 6 year-old pupil from Bukidnon, has been suspected to show signs of
cognitive deficiencies. The school psychologist administered intelligence test
to gather information about the deviation IQ of Letty. The result showed that
Letty was below average, with an IQ score of 43. What is the best statement
that could describe Letty’s score?

A. Letty has a severe intellectual disability which needs extensive support.

B. Letty has a moderate intellectual disability which needs intermittent support.
C. Letty has a severe ID which needs pervasive support.
D. Letty has a moderate ID which needs limited support.
Mild- 50/55 to 70 ( Intermittent
support)
Moderate- 35/40 to 50/55 ( Limited )
Severe- 20/25 to 35/40 (Extensive)
Profound- Below 20/25 ( Pervasive )
Answer: D
Experimental Psychology
1. The conclusions that we have drawn from everyday
observation could be considered as unscientific even after we
have applied systematic and impartial data collection. The
following are the factors that causes biased results. Point the
exception.
a. We conclude that people’s behavior corresponds to their
traits.
b. We overlook instances that disconfirm our beliefs.
c. Our samples are large, representative and randomized.
d. All of the above are correct
1. Answer: C
FACTORS THAT CAUSES BIASED RESULTS:
1. Source of Data
- small sample, unrepresentative sample, not randomized
sample.
2. How we interpret data (Inferential strategies)
- Confirmation Bias: We overlook instances that disconfirm
our beliefs.
- Beliefs tend to become stable because we rarely test them.
- Heuristics/Mental Shortcuts: We think that people’s
behavior corresponds to their traits.
2. Miles, as part of the control group, lost the
motivation to participate in the experiment
due to her perception that she is being
treated unfairly as to compare with the
treatment group. This is an example of
a. Frusto effect c. Allegiance effect
b. Placebo effect d. John Henry effect
2. Answer: A
 FRUSTO EFFECT
• Latin word “frusto” which means “to
disappoint”
• A term that denotes disappointment of the
control group for the reason that they are not
receiving the treatment that the experimental
group is receiving.
 PLACEBO EFFECT
• It is said to happen when a behavior
changes as a result of a person’s
expectation of change rather than a result
of any manipulation by an experimenter.
ALLEGIANCE EFFECT
• If the treatment that wasn’t expected to work
seemed to be failing, the researcher might not
push as hard to see it succeed.
• If the treatment that was expected work
seemed failing, the researcher might tell to the
preferred group to“try harder” in order to see it
succeed.
JOHN HENRY EFFECT
•A phenomenon wherein the control
group competes with the
experimental group.
3. The following are in correct match regarding basic and applied
research. Point the exception.
a. Applied research aims to solve real world problems while basic
research aims to test theories or explain psychological
phenomenon.
b. New counseling techniques and updated interventions for
children’s problematic behaviors are examples of applied
research.
c. Impact of caffeine consumption to the brain is an example of basic
research.
d. None of the above is incorrect.
 3. Answer: D

BASIC RESEARCH: Provides

theory
APPLIED RESEARCH: Provides
supporting data for the theory
 EXAMPLES OF
BASIC RESEARCH
❖ What is cognition?
❖What is behaviorism?
❖What are the specific processes on
a person’s cognition?
 EXAMPLES OF
APPLIED RESEARCH
❖Modern techniques for treating anxiety
disorders
❖Studying the factors that would enhance
participation for college students in extra-
curricular activities
4. The following statements about experimental
variables are in correct match. Point the exception.
a. Categorical Independent Variable: Different teaching
methodologies
b. Continuous Independent Variable: Length of
learning, amount of food deprivation
c. Organismic variables: Age, gender, personality and
intelligence
d. All of the above are correct
 4. Answer: D.
VARIABLES IN EXPERIMENTAL RESEARCH
❖In the simple experiment, a researcher
creates two equivalent group of subjects
wherein they were treated differently.
❖(Experimental Group and Control Group)
❖Independent Variable: manipulator
❖Dependent Variable: outcome
 Example
Epekto ng madalas na pagharot sa pag
aaral.
IV: Pagharot (Ex: Pagpunta sa bar para
um-awra/ pakikipag date kesa sa mag
aral for exams)
DV: Grades sa school/ score sa exam.
 TYPES OF
INDEPENDENT VARIABLES
A. Qualitative IV or Categorical IV
- represents variations in kind or
type.
- Ex: Different teaching methods.
B. Quantitative IV or Continuous IV
- represents variations in amounts.
- Ex: amount of food deprivation
- Height
- Weight of a fish
- Time taken to complete an
examination
C. Classification Variables, Subject Variables,
Organismic Variables and Individual
Difference Variables
- these are pre existing variables
- Ex: Age, gender, personality, intelligence.
- Manipulation of this variable does not constitute
a true experiment since the treatment is not under
the control of the experimenter
5. Aivine is currently working on her experiment regarding the effects
of hot temperature to the cognitive performance of senior high
school students. When you checked the experimental laboratory,
you found out that other factors might intervene to the participants’
performance such as the noise and the poor facilities. Thus, what
could not be the best suggestion that you could give to Aivine?
a. Tell her to use of counterbalancing
b. Tell her to hold constant the other intervening variables throughout
the experiment
c. Tell her to just include it in the design
d. Tell her to use non-randomization
 5. Answer: D.
Nuisance Variable- factors that influence the
value of the dependent variable other than the
treatment of interest.
Example: IQ; Noise; Room Temperature.
The effect of humor-filled teaching to
academic performance.
EFFECTS OF NUISANCE VARIABLES:
1. confounds your experiments
2. if there are treatment effects,
nuisance variable obscures whatever
treatment effects there may be.
DEALING WITH NUISANCE VARIABLE:
1. Hold constant throughout the
experiment (run the experiment same
time of the day)
2. Use counterbalancing
3. Include it in the design
4. Randomization
COUNTERBALANCING
• Used to control order effects in a repeated-measures
(within subject) design.
• Ex: Fatigue effects
Sample: Ashley
• Treatment A Treatment B Treatment C
• 100/100 80/100 40/100
COUNTERBALANCING
• Ashley (A,B,C)
• Bea (B,A,C)
• Clarita (C,B,A)
• Nene (C,A,B)
• Manny (A,C,B)
CONTROLLING EXTRANEOUS VARIABLES
Physical Variables
-aspects of testing conditions that needed to be
controlled
Ex: day of the week, testing room, environmental
settings, noise, distraction
Social Variables
-qualities of the relationship between subjects and
experimenters that can influence results
 Two Types of Social Variables
A.Demand characteristics - aspects of the
experimental situation that demand people
to behave in particular ways
(Good Subject Phenomenon- subjects
perform desired behavior to please
experimenters)
 TO CONTROL FOR
DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS:
Single blind experiment: subjects know that
they are getting treatments, but they do not
know what kind of treatment they are getting.
Cover stories: plausible but a possible
explanation for the procedures in the study.
Conduct debriefing after the experiment.
B. Experimenter bias - the experimenter does something that
confounds the experiment
Examples:
1. inconsistencies on the part of the experimenter (ex: one
group is given more questions than the other)
2. experimenter treat the subjects differently depending on his
or her expectations to them
3. unconscious subtle cues given by the experimenter that tells
the subject how to behave in the experiment
4. errors in recording data from the experiment
TO CONTROL FOR EXPERIMENTER BIAS:
Double blind experiment: neither the
subject nor the experimenter know
which treatment the subject is
receiving.
Personality Variables- refers to the
characteristics of the experimenters and
volunteer subjects that affect the results of
the experiment
Ex: warm and friendly vs strict and
authoritarian
TO CONTROL PERSONALITY VARIABLES:
-minimize the contact between the subjects and the
experimenter
-strict adherence with the research script
Volunteer subjects- often unrepresentative of the
population (high in social desirability and more
intelligent than non volunteers)
Context Variables: from the procedures created, or the
context or research settings)
When subjects select the experiment:
- run an ad for recruiting subjects
- avoid getting biased sample by using NEUTRAL yet NOT
boring titles)
When experimenter select the subjects:
-use random sampling (getting only nice subjects and
disregarding nasty subjects may bias your findings)
-best to get samples that you DO NOT know
Conventional Wisdom- beware of data
collected from the end of the term
subject pool
- Changes may be due to practice and
fatigue effects
- control by design (counterbalancing)
6. Liza and Nadine have been working on their own experiments.
Liza has decided that the participants on her experiment would
be experiencing only one of the treatment conditions. On the
other hand, Nadine has decided that all the participants on her
experiment would be experiencing all the treatment conditions.
Liza used __________ while Nadine used ____________.
a. Between subjects design; within subjects design
b. Within subjects design; between subjects design
c. Experimental design; non experimental design
d. Randomized design; non randomized design
 6. Answer: A.

Between subjects design- subjects

receive ONLY ONE of the different
treatment conditions.
Within subject design- subjects
serve in EVERY treatment condition
7. Emilia wants to study the effects of isolation to the level of
happiness. Camila wants to study the effects of smoking and
drinking alcohol to the cognitive functioning. Clara wants to study
the effects of deprivation to the academic performance. Which of
the following is the correct approach to apply?
a. Emilia and Camila: experimental approach; Clara: non
experimental approach
b. Emilia and Camila: non experimental approach; Clara:
experimental approach
c. All three of them should use experimental approach
d. All three of them should use non-experimental approach
 7. Answer: D.

NOTE: WHEN RISKS ARE

HIGH, WE APPLY NON
EXPERIMENTAL APPROACHES
 EXPERIMENTAL VS. NON EXPERIMENTAL
EXPERIMENTAL NON EXPERIMENTAL
APPROACH APPROACH
• capable of concluding cause- • Not capable of producing cause
and-effect relationship and effect relations
• Doesn’t use manipulation
• Depends on few number of
respondents
• Poor external validity
NON EXPERIMENTAL
APPROACHES
 PHENOMENOLOGY
• study of experience in its own terms without reference
to anything or theory which is not part of experience.
• Subject describes his immediate experiences;
personal experiences are data sources.
• No manipulation of antecedent conditions.
• Problems: accuracy and objectivity; difficult to validate
and replicate, can’t be used to infer causal
relationships.
 CASE STUDY
• a thorough observation of one or a few
participants used for psychological research
typical in clinical applications.
• No manipulation of antecedent conditions;
descriptive- systematically observe and
record behaviors that happen over time.
FIVE MAJOR PURPOSES OF CASE STUDIES
a)sources of inferences, hypothesis and theories
b)source of developing therapy techniques
c)permits study of rare cases
d)provide exceptions or allows for counter instances
to accepted ideas, theories and practices.
e)have persuasive and motivational values
 FIELD STUDIES
• used in field or real life settings; no antecedent conditions manipulated.
• uses naturalistic observation- method of data collection (researcher
remains inconspicuous/hidden to those being observed)
• uses unobtrusive measures-behavioral indicators can be observed
without the subject’s knowledge
• participant observation- direct participation of the researcher within the
context of investigation.
• Goal: to obtain intimate and detailed information about a group or
experience. The purpose of the study is not obvious to others.
 ARCHIVAL RESEARCH
• descriptive study method in which
existing records are reexamine for a new
purpose.
• used when studying societal trends, or
predicting about certain populations.
QUALITATIVE RESEARCH
• relies heavily on words for data collection through self-
reports, narratives and the like.
• used to study phenomena that are contextual in meaning
and cannot be understood without the context in which they
occur.
• allows researchers to explore a much richer experience in
which common themes are extracted from participants’
narratives.
ISSUES ON NON EXPERIMENTAL
APPROACHES
1.Interpretation of data
2.Reliance on self-reports
3.Retrospective
4.Does not control for potential sources of bias
5.Check for internal validity
6.Problems with replication
8. Sheena wants the result of her experiment
to be applicable outside the laboratory
setting. Thus, Sheena would want to have
an experiment that is low on ______.
a. Internal validity c. Internal reliability
b. External validity d. External reliability
 8. Answer: A.
Internal Validity: the degree to which
you can be certain that changes in your
DV are attributed only to your IV.
External Validity: generalizability or
applicability to situations outside
laboratory.
9. Who among the following conducts case study?
a. Manang Esther who hides from her target
samples
b. Mikoy who collects previously gathered data
c. Carlos who focuses on the themes of his
respondents’ answers.
d. Savanah who is careful and detailed in
gathering information from a respondent.
9. Answer: D
10. Jem wants to study the young adult’s
nutrition. He decided to put his participants on a
strict diet. Thus, we could imply that the
experiment is _____.
a. high on degree of manipulation
b. low on degree of manipulation
c. high on degree of imposition
d. low on degree of imposition
DESCRIBING RESEARCH ACTIVITIES 10. Answer: A.
- all approaches to research can be described along 2
major dimensions:
1. the degree of manipulation of antecedent
conditions
❖varies from low to high
❖experiments are typically high
❖non experiments are low
 Example
High degree of manipulation: Strict Diet
Low degree of manipulation: Lenient
Diet
2. the degree of imposition of units
❖the extent to which the researcher
constrains, limits the responses of a subject
❖observation is low imposition
❖non experimental designs can vary from
low to high
 Example
High degree of Imposition of Units:
True/False; Multiple Choice
Low degree of Imposition of Units:
Essay type
11. Hypothesis: Enough sleep leads to excellent
academic performance.
Thus, the IV is ___________ while the DV is
________.
a. academic performance; teaching method
b. sleep; teaching method
c. sleep; academic performance
d. teaching method; sleep
11. Answer: C.
 Bonus Question
Hypothesis: Music helps boost self-confidence.
Therefore:
IV___________________ while
DV__________________

a. Self-confidence; Music c. Music; Music

b. Music; Self-confidence d. Self-confidence; Self-confidence
Answer: B
12. The following are the essential elements
of a true experiment. Which is not?
a. Manipulation of antecedent conditions
b. Random assignment
c. At least one experimental and control
group
d. Pre existing antecedent conditions
 12. Answer: D.
CHARACTERISTICS OF A DEFINITION
TRUE EXPERIMENTAL
DESIGN
MANIPULATION Control of independent variable by the
researcher through treatment and
intervention.
CONTROL GROUP The use of control group and extraneous
variables on the dependent variable

RANDOMIZATION Every subject gets equal chance being

assigned to experimental and control group.
13. Correlation coefficients can be strongly
affected by the following EXCEPT:
a. Linear trend
b. Non-linear trend
c. Range truncation
d. Outliers
 13. Answer: A
CORRELATIONAL STUDY
❖Designed to determine the degree of
relationship, between two traits, behaviors,
or events.
❖When two things are correlated, changes
in one variable is associated with changes
in another.
❖Range of values from + 1. 0 to - 1.0 (sign
tells direction)
❖Scatter plots / scatter gram- visual
representations of scores on x and y
❖X - horizontal axis, predictor variable;
❖Y - vertical axis, criterion variable. (Variable
being predicted)
 Correlational coefficients can be
strongly affected by the following:
1. Non linear trend - the direction
between X and Y generally remains the
same. Not applicable when relationship
changes direction (curvilinear).
Nonlinear trend – some correlation doesn't fit the
linear trend e.g. Curvilinear (e.g. Test anxiety and
performance; or practice and performance)
2. Range truncation - artificial
restriction of the range of values
of x and y.
E.g strong relationship between
age and shoe size r = .67
3. Outliers – extreme scores
❖Correlation is not causation
❖We cannot say that one causes
another EVEN when such a
statement seems reasonable, EVEN
when the correlation is perfect.
Other possible explanations:
1. Bidirectionality- Does X causes
the Y or the other way around?
2. The presence of third variable-
Is there any other variable that
contributes to the correlation?
R2/ Coefficient of Determination- tells the
percentage of variability explained or accounted for.

Example: Relationship between social desirability

and altruism. r= .62 r2=.38
38% of altruism is attributed to social desirability.
Remaining 62% in unexplained.
62% unexplained:
Coefficient of Alienation
Correction of Attenuation
• to determine the actual value of
correlation between two variables
if the test is suspected to be
affected by an error
 Clinical
Assessment
 What is Clinical Assessment?
• Involves an evaluation of an individual’s or family’s
strengths and weaknesses, a conceptualization of
the problem at hand (as well as possible etiological
factors), and some prescription for alleviating the
problem; all of these leads to better understanding
of the client.
 The Referral
• Someone- a parent, a teacher, a psychiatrist, a
judge, or perhaps a psychologist-poses a question
about the patient.
• Example: “Why can’t Alicia learn to read like the
other children?”
• Thus, Clinicians begin with the referral question
 Issues with Referrals:
• Clinicians must assess whether to provide a direct answer to
an inappropriate referral question.
• Example: A parent wants to know the IQ of Alicia. In this
case, answering the question eventually do more harm than
good given that the parents doesn’t have a background on
psychometrics.
• Solution: Know the reason behind knowing Alicia’s IQ and
explain to the parents the implication of obtaining a
particular IQ score.
 What Influences How the Clinician Addresses
the Referral Question?
• Heavily influenced by the clinician’s theoretical
commitment.
• Example: Referral Question: Why does Andrew experiences
frequent headache despite absence of a medical condition?
Psychodynamic clinician: underlying hostility
Behavioral clinician: evidence of a job stress
Humanistic clinician: frustration due to unwillingness to
maximize one’s fullest potentiality
The Assessment
Interview
The Assessment Interview
• Chief technique for gathering data and making
decisions.
• Most basic and the most serviceable technique
used by clinical psychologist.
General
Characteristics
of Interviews
 1. An Interaction
• An interview is an interaction between two persons.
• Unlike conversations which are free-flowing, interviews
involves an interaction that possesses a goal, purpose and
direction.
• It is carefully planned, deliberately and skillfully executed,
and goal-oriented throughout.
• Used to elicit data, information, beliefs or attitudes in the
most skilled fashion possible.
 2. Interviews Vs. Tests
• Interviews occupy a position between ordinary
conversations but sometimes less formalized or
standardized than structured psychological tests. (Except
structured diagnostic interviews)
• Strength: Can clarify vague answers through asking follow-
up questions.
• Weakness: Affects standardization that could have a
negative effect of reliability.
 3. The Art of Interviewing
• There is a degree of freedom to exercise one’s
skill and resourcefulness that is generally
absent from other assessment procedures.
• Involves decisions such as when to probe,
when to be silent or when to be indirect or
subtle.
Interviewing
Essentials
and
Techniques
 Physical Arrangements
1.Privacy
2.Protection from interruptions
3.Neutral office environments, yet
tasteful.
 Note-Taking and Recording
• Moderate amount of note-taking seems worthwile.
• Too much note-taking would negatively affect the
opportunity to observe behavioral changes that has
occurred to the patient.
• To solve: the clinician could use audiotape or
videotape interviews with patient’s consent.
Rapport
 What is Rapport?
• Most essential ingredient of a successful
interview.
• Refers to the relationship between the patient
and the clinician.
• Involves comfortable atmosphere and a mutual
understanding of the purpose of the interview.
Characteristics of a Good Rapport
• Attitude of acceptance, understanding and respect
for the integrity of the patient.
• Probing, confrontation and assertiveness may be
acceptable once rapport has been established.
• “I know exactly what you feel” ironically convinces
that the clinician doesn’t really understand the
client’s viewpoint.
 Special Considerations
Rapport can be challenging when:
(1) Involves more than one individual
• Family therapy (rapport must be established to more than one family
member and each member does have different perspectives.
(1) Unique referral source
• Establishing rapport could be challenging when the client is aware
that the information collected during the interview will be used to
determine school placement, to meet employment criteria, or to
formulate legal disposition for a child custody, legal sanctions or
maltreatment allegations.
Communication
 Beginning a Session
• It is often useful to begin an assessment
session with a casual conversation.
• This will help the client to become at ease
which will facilitate a good assessment
interview.
 Language
• Tailor it according to your patient’s background,
educational level, or general sophistication should be
made.
• Transform psychology jargons into words that a
layperson can understand.
• Clarify the intended meaning of a word or term used by
a client if there are uncertainties or alternative
interpretations.
Five Types of Interview Questions
 Open-ended
•Importance: Gives patient responsibility
and latitude for responding.
•Example: “Would you tell me your
experiences in the army?
 Facilitative
•Importance: Encourages patient’s
flow of conversation.
•Example: “Can you tell me a little
more about that?”
 Clarifying
•Importance: Encourages clarity or
amplification
•Example: “I guess this means you felt
like …”
 Confronting
•Importance: Challenges
inconsistencies or contradictions.
•Example: “Before, when you said…”
 Direct
•Importance: Once rapport has been
established and the patient is taking
responsibility
•Example: “What did you say to your
father when he criticized your choice?”
 Possible Reasons for Silence
• Client is organizing a thought
• Deciding which topic to discuss next
• Indicates resistance
 Listening
• Thru listening, we come to appreciate the
information and emotions that the patient is
conveying.
• Some therapists failed to achieve active listening
due to preoccupations, distractions and wanting to
impress the client rather than listening to some
new and important data.
 Gratification of Self
• Sometimes the patient’s problems, experiences,
or conversation reminds clinicians of their own
problems or threatens their own values, attitudes
and adjustment.
• Clinicians should avoid discussing their own
personal lives or opinions.
 The Impact of the Clinician
• Responses of the patients might also be
contaminated by the clinician’s
appearance, race, tone of the voice and
other irrelevant factors that could
intimidate the patient.
The Clinician’s Values and Background
•Clinicians must examine their own
experiences and seek bases for their
assumptions before making clinical
judgment of others.
•Cultural differences plays a huge role in
biases.
The Clinician’s Values and Background
To address gender-related biases:
• Knowledge: reading researches, conceptual articles and books or
attending seminar on gender issues.
• Attitudes: enhanced thru experiences with people holding
conceptions of gender that differ from one’s own (such as people
from different cultures, religions or sexual orientations), which will
broaden our understanding.
• Behaviors: improved thru practice and feedback (from supervisors
that has expertise on gender-related issues.
 The
Varieties of
Interviews
Two Primary Distinguishing Factors
(1)Purpose- Is this person fit to become diagnosed with a
mental disorder? (Diagnostic Interview) What interview will I
use if I am to evaluate a client who is presenting to an
outpatient clinic for the first time. (Intake-admission interview)
(2)Structured or Unstructured? Clinical Interview/Unstructured
Interview: ask any questions that come to mind in any order.
Structured Interview: require the clinician to ask, verbatim, a
set if standardized questions in a specified sequence.
 The Intake-Admission Interview
• to determine why the patient has come to the clinic
or hospital * to judge whether the agency’s
facilities, policies and services will meet the needs
and expectations of the patient.
• to inform the patient of such matters as the clinic’s
functions, fees, policies, procedures and personnel
 The Case-History Interview
• broad background and context in which both the patient and the problem can
be placed.
• be placed in a proper historical-developmental context.
• concrete facts, dates, and events and in the patient’s feelings about them.
• it covers both childhood and adulthood, and it includes educational, sexual,
medical, parental-environmental, religious and psychopathological matters.
• note how patients present the material—— how they speak about it, the
emotional reactions to the material, evasiveness or openness and so on.
• external informants can offer a great help esp. in cases where the patient
faces cognitive difficulties.
The Mental Status Examination
• conducted to assess the presence of cognitive,
emotional or behavioral problems.
• Issue: often unstructured (lowers down
reliability)
• To solve: there are devised structured MSEs
 Appearance and behavior
* Overt Behavior
* Attire
* Appearance, posture,
expressions
 Thought processes
* Rate of speech
* Continuity of speech
* Content of speech
 Mood and affect
* Predominant feeling state of the
individual
* Feeling state accompanying what
individual says
 Intellectual functioning
* Type of vocabulary
* Use of abstractions and
metaphors
 Sensorium
* Awareness of surroundings in
terms of person (self and the
clinician), time, and place (oriented
times three)
 Sample Question:
Karla Crisostomo went to the clinic with a well-comb hair and
enthusiastic smile. She upholds this belief hat other people were
saying false issues behind her back. As a psychometrician with a
knowledge on the components of MSE, what particular facets has
been touched by the situation above?
a. Sensorium; Appearance; Insight
b. Thought content; Insight; Behavior
c. Mood; Sensorium; Appearance
d. Appearance; Thought content; Mood
Answer: D
 ANOTHER QUESTION!
Bernadette Dimagiba, a 29 year old female, went to the clinic shouting
at the staffs while having difficulty in terms of establishing eye contact.
She cannot identify where she was and has been blurting out series of
words within a short span of time. What are the components of MSE
that are not visible in this case?
a. Behavior; Thought Process; Sensorium
b. Mood; Affect; Insight
c. Mood and Affect only
d. Insight only
Answer: D
 The Crisis Interview
• usually thru phone hotlines
• to meet problems as they occur and to provide an
immediate resource
• aims to deflect potential disaster and to encourage
callers to enter into a relationship with the clinic or make
a referral so that a long-term solution can be worked out.
• such interview requires training, sensitivity and
judgment.
 The Diagnostic Interview
• consists of standard set of questions and follow-up
probes that are asked in a specified sequence.
(structured diagnostic interviews increases inter-rater
reliability)
• used to assess whether a client possesses the criteria
according to DSM 5.
• helps us arrive at reliable and valid diagnoses that can
inform treatment and intervention.
14. Assuming that a psychologist collects data
from his client. What do you think is the most
essential ingredient of a successful data
gathering?
a. Note-taking and Recording
b. Rapport
c. Physical Arrangements
d. All of the above
14. Answer: B
15. “Can you tell me a little more
about that?" is an example of
what type of interview question?
a. Facilitative c. Direct
b. Open-ended d. Confronting
15. Answer: A
16. If a psychologist wants to assess the
presence of cognitive, emotional or behavioral
problems, what particular type of interview the
psychologist must conduct?
a. Mental Status Exam c. Crisis Interview
b. Case History Interview d. Diagnostic
Interview
16. Answer: A
 Ethical
Princi-ples
The Rights of
a Test Taker
 1. Right of Informed Consent
- A person giving IC must be competent
a. Being able to evidence a choice na bet mo
magparticipate
b. Factual understanding of the issues
c. Able to reason about the facts of a
study/treatment
d. Appreciate the rates of the situation
Competent: Major Depression
(Can be improved by training)
Incompetent: Dementia,
Bipolar, Schizophrenia
(parent/legal rep.)
 What are the contents of an
informed consent in testing?
Note: Must be in Written Form
a. General purpose
b. Reason why is it being undertaken in the present case
c. General type of instruments to be administered
Court – Mandated: IC is Not necessary
Deception – if knowing facts attesting might contaminate
data
Debriefing – after testing. Full disclosure

a. Do not use deception unless it is absolutely

necessary
b. If it will cause participants emotional distress
c. Fully debrief participants
2. The Right to be informed to
test findings
- Realistic info
- Put recommendations
- Put limitation also (errors)
Communication of Results –
Most Important Part of Evaluation
Process
- answers future questions
- Ideally, put counseling resource
for violent reactions.
 3. The Right to Privacy and
Confidentiality
Privacy Right – Freedom to pick and
choose for himself the time,
circumstances, and the extent to w/c he
wishes to share/withhold from others
his/her attitude, beliefs, behaviors and
opinions
Privileged – Protected by law from
disclosure in a legal proceeding
Privileged Information - Lawyer – client
rel.; Doctor –patient rel.; Priest – perntent
rel.; Husband – wife rel.; Psychologist –
client rel.; (all keeps information revealed &
their client’s confidential)
 Confidentiality Privileged
Communication
•Ethical term •Legal term
•Non disclosure of •Non disclosure of
information within or information within
outside judicial judicial proceedings.
proceedings. •With Exceptions
•With Exceptions
- Privilege is not absolute.
(reveal padin if necessary and
inutos ng court
o If di padin dinisclose = jail,
fine, legal consequences
4. The Right to the Least
Stigmatizing Level
- Avoid using moron,
feebleminded, etc. (don’t breach
confidentiality)
17. Tony, a registered psychologist, had an affair with one of his
clients. The unethical action of Tony was documented and
reported to Harlene, the hospital administrator. What could be
the MOST appropriate corrective action to be done by Harlene?
a. Give the psychologist a second chance and let him continue
with the sessions
b. Terminate the psychologist
c. Assign the psychologist to other patients
d. Allow the psychologist to complete the sessions with the patient
before concluding the termination
 17. Answer: B

• Having an affair with a patient/client will only

be allowed 2 years after the termination of the
professional relationship.
18. A psychometrician conducted therapeutic intervention to a community
victimized by an intense typhoon at Bacolod. The majority of the residents
were exhibiting symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder. Given that the
psychometrician was not trained in conducting such, do you think it’s
ethical?
a. No, the psychometrician needs to at least attend a lecture on the proper
facilitation of therapies
b. Yes, the fact that the professional involved passed the psychometrician
boards, he or she is capable and equipped to do such action
c. No, the psychometricians are only licensed to administer psychological
tests, not necessarily to conduct psychological intervention
d. Yes, given that there is no other person that could immediately respond to
the psychological crisis of the residents
 18. Answer: D
• As psychometricians, it is allowed to conduct therapeutic
intervention even if it’s outside the scope of your
practice given that there are no other person in the
community that could respond to the immediate incident.
• As soon as the psychologist arrives, the
psychometrician thus let go of the client and refer it to
the appropriate professional that is well-trained to
conduct such therapeutic intervention.
19. A sexually-preoccupied patient successfully seduced the
psychologist. Which of the following actions is considered
as the least ethical action to be done in this scenario?
a. Report the psychologist and provide evidences as
needed.
b. Talk to the psychologist in order to validate the allegation.
c. Let the psychologist continue because you know that their
professional relationship ended a year ago.
d. Inform the family of the patient and take over the
responsibilities of the accused psychologist.
19. Answer: C.
20. Mae, a client from Pangasinan, has been curious
about the ethical guidelines for the psychologists. She
was informed that psychologists have the professional
and scientific responsibilities to society and establish
relationships characterized by trust. This depicts what
particular principle?
a. Justice c. Fidelity and Responsibility
b. Integrity d. Beneficence and Non-Maleficence
20. Answer: C.
21. __________ is a landmark 1976 case in which
the California Supreme Court ruled that a
therapist was legally remiss for not informing all
the appropriate parties of client's intention to
harm. It is also known as the therapist's "duty to
protect."
a. Durham Rule c. Client Welfare
b. Tarasoff case d. Managed Care
21. Answer: B
 DURHAM RULE
• Defendant was not found culpable for criminal action if
his unlawful act was the product of a mental disease or
defect.
• Example: A person exhibiting positive symptoms of
Schizophrenia might be excused from killing a person if
the person/patient is currently having episodes. The
killing might be done due to patient’s delusion of
persecution which led to killing as a form of self-defense.
 TARASOFF CASE
• Duty to warn
• A legally mandated obligation (to advise an endangered
third party) which may break the confidentiality or
privileged communication between the patient and the
psychologist; therapists and assessors may have a
legal duty to warn when a client expresses intent to hurt
a third party in anyway, ranging from physical violence
to disease transmission
 M NAUGHTEN RULE
•“Right or Wrong” test of insanity.
•A standard that hinged on whether an
individual knew right from wrong at
the time commission of a crime.
 MANAGED CARE
• Health care system in the United States wherein
the products and services provided to patients by a
network of participating health care providers are
mediated by an administrative energy of the insurer
that works to keep cost down by fixing schedules of
reimbursement to service providers.
 CLIENT WELFARE
•Respect and awareness of client’s
culture, values, and beliefs.
•Confidentiality and anonymity.
22. Sheila is currently enrolled in a research class. She
decided to study the impact of childhood trauma to
children’s subjective well-being. Therefore, she should
obtain ________.
a. Informed consent
b. Informed assent
c. Informed consent and assent
d. DSWD consent
 22. Answer: C.
What is the difference between consent and assent?
Consent may only be given by individuals who have
reached the legal age of consent.
Assent is the agreement of someone not able to give legal
consent to participate in the activity. Work with children or
adults not capable of giving consent requires the consent of
the parent or legal guardian and the assent of the subject.
(https://www.uaf.edu/irb/faqs/consent-and-assent/)
EXCEPTIONS TO INFORMED CONSENT:
1.When there is no harm involved.
Example: Educational Survey
2.When the identity of the respondents
remains anonymous
3.Part of the company routine
4.Court-mandated
23. In the experiment being conducted by Lara, she would want to assess
the attitude of people towards homosexuality. In the experimental laboratory,
the participants were informed that the study was about measuring one’s
neuroticism level. The participants were also instructed to provide critique
about the video containing homosexual couples. Thus, the nature of the
study was being replaced by a false explanation. Is it ethical?
a. No, the nature of the experiment must always be clear to the participants.
b. No, it will contaminate the performance of the participants.
c. Yes, only if deception has research value that can only be achieved
through the technique or methodology mentioned.
d. Yes, the nature of the experiment must not be known by the participants in
any way possible.
 23. Answer: C.
DECEPTION: An experimental technique wherein the
experimenter compose a cover story that would protect
the nature of the experiment from being guessed by the
participants.
-used only in cases where identification of the
experiment’s nature would compensate the data being
gathered.
24. Ezekiel has been seeing his psychologist for two
years already. In this given span of time, there was no
progress on Ezekiel’s condition. What is the BEST
action that the psychologist must do?
a. Assess the approached being applied and provide
critiques if necessary
b. Talk to the client to further assess the situation
c. Repeat the assessment process.
d. Terminate the case and make referrals if necessary.
 24. Answer: D

• If the patient has achieved very minimal

progress or no progress at all, it is advised to
refer it to a clinician that specialize on the case
of the client.
25. Brent, a recruiter in XYZ company, administered a test on the
applicants as part of the recruitment process. However, he did not
give informed consent to the applicants. Do you think it’s ethical?
a. No, informed consent MUST always be given to the test takers.
b. No, informed consent shall contain the nature of the test so the
test takers will have an awareness about the test.
c. Yes, informed consent is not required when taking tests.
d. Yes because participating in the hiring implies that they have
consented.
25. Answer: D
 EXCEPTIONS TO CONFIDENTIALITY:
1.If the client consented.
2.If it is mandated by the law.
3.If it is need for the continuation of the
treatment.
4.If threat is involved.
26. Joanne conducted a research focused on exploring the lived
experiences of people victimized by high intensity earthquakes
happened on the last 3 years. Thus, Joanne obtained an informed
consent from the participants of her research. However, the
consent was only given in an oral form. Is it ethical?
a. Yes, oral informed consent is allowed.
b. No, informed consent must be done in written form.
c. Yes, as long as the person is well-aware of the risks and benefits
of the research proper.
d. No, researches doesn’t require the participants to give consent if it
minimal harm has been observed.
26. Answer: B.
27. Lyn referred her daughter Beyonce to Marcos Psychological Clinic.
Beyonce has been manifesting some signs of intellectual delay. The
psychologist administered an IQ test wherein the client scored very low.
Beyonce also faces difficulties in terms of daily functioning. All things
considered, Beyonce suffer from Intellectual Disability. Lyn was not convinced
about the results and she requested to see the test protocol. As a
psychometrician, do you think it’s ethical?
a. Yes, because the client must be aware on the nature of the test and how
the test was structured.
b. Yes, because it is their right to see the raw scores.
c. No, psychometricians should only be giving interpretation of the test scores
rather than the raw score itself.
d. No, because consent must first be given by the test publisher.
27. Answer: C.
28. Hanna is a 16 year old adolescent that is currently seeing
her psychologist during weekends. During weekdays, the
psychologist reveals the information provided by Hanna to
her mother. What principle is being violated by the
psychologist?
a. principle of beneficence
b. principle of fidelity
c. principle of integrity
d. principle of nobility
 28. Answer: B.
GENERAL PRINCIPLE DEFINITION
A. BENEFICENCE AND Benefiting others and doing no harm
NONMALEFICENCE
B. FIDELITY AND RESPONSIBILITY No exploitation of others, loyalty and
commitment to professional
relationship
C. INTEGRITY Truthfulness
D. JUSTICE Absence of bias; fairness
E. RESPECT FOR PEOPLE’S Privacy, confidentiality and
RIGHTS AND DIGNITY anonymity, right to self-determination
and cultural respect
29. Gigi, a 9 year old girl, has been subjected to
psychological assessment and was referred by the DSWD.
The girl reported that she eats once a week and had near
death experience due to inadequate necessities in their
house. Based on your observation, she was also
underweight and appears to have minor scars on her right
eye. The case of Gigi is best described as?
a. Child Abuse c. Child Deprivation
b. Child Neglect d. Both A and B
Child Abuse: kapag nananakit/kasabwat sa pananakit yung parents
Child Neglect: Di nabibigyan ng enough care

So bakit walang abuse eh meron syang scars?

Answer: MINOR scars could be accidental.
Sa right side lang meron. We cannot straightforwardly say that it
is a form of abuse if minor scars lang ang present.
29. Answer: B.
30. When we are protecting the information revealed
by the clients, we are pertaining to ________. On
the other hand, when we are protecting the identity
of our clients over the information that they have
revealed, we are pertaining to ________.
a. Confidentiality; anonymity c. Privacy; secrecy
b. Anonymity; privacy d. Secrecy; confidentiality
30. Answer: A.
31. Ada is a newly registered psychometrician. In her
work, she was tasked to administer WAIS. Is this ethical?
a. Yes because Ada has a license already.
b. No, individually-administered intelligence tests are for
Level C practitioners only.
c. Yes because Ada is well-equipped and she knows how
to properly administer WAIS even without supervision.
d. No, unless she will be supervised by a psychologist.
 31. Answer: B
LEVEL A: Achievement tests, Specialized
Aptitude tests
LEVEL B: Group Intelligence and
Personality Test
LEVEL C: Projective Tests and
Individualized Intelligence tests
32. Alisah stole a bag in the mall. When confronted, she revealed
that she has been diagnosed with Kleptomania. You are doubtful
because it seems that Alisah stole it for a reason. Which of the
following will be considered as the BEST action that you must do?
a. Administer a projective test to Alisah since projective tests are not
prone to faking.
b. Administer honesty or integrity test to assure Alisah’s claim.
c. Administer a structured personality test such as MMPI
d. Refuse from administering any form of test since Alisah is not
willing to sign in the informed consent.
 32. Answer: C
MMPI has Impression Management Scales that can detect faking.
Psychological
Testing and
Assessment
33. I. Testing gauge a certain ability or attitude
II. Assessment answers a referral question
III. In assessment, assessor is not the key on the evaluation
process.
IV. Assessment entails a logical problem-solving approach
from different sources of data designed to shed light on a
referral question
a. Only I is true
b. Only I and II are true
c. Only I, II and IV are true
d. Only II, III and IV are true
 33. Answer: C.
Assessment Testing
Definition Gathering & integration of psychology- Process of measuring psychology-
related data for the purpose of making a related variables by means of
psychological evaluation with devices/procedures designed to obtain
accompany of tools. a sample of behavior
Objective To answer a referral question, solve To obtain some gauge, usually
problem or arrive at a decision thru the numerical in nature
use of tools of evaluation
Process Typically individualized Testing may be individualized or group
Role of Evaluator Key in the process of selecting tests as Tester is not key into the process; may
well as in drawing conclusions be substituted
Skill of Evaluator Typically requires an educated selection, Requires technician-like skills
skill in evaluation
Outcome Entail logical problem-solving approach Typically yields a test score
to answer the referral question.
Subtopic: Psychological Statistics
34. The following are in correct match
regarding scales of measurement. Point the
exception.
a. Nominal: DSM IV TR
b. Ordinal: Class honors
c. Interval: Weighing scale
d. Ratio: Speed test
 34. Answer: C
SCALES OF MEASUREMENT
35. ________ is the most commonly used measure
of central tendency; ______ represents the middle
score and __________ is the most frequently
occurring score.
a. mean; median; mode
b. mean; mode; median
c. mode; median; mean
d. median; mode; mean
 35. Answer: A

Measures of
Central Tendency
 MEAN
• Average
• Most COMMONLY used measure
• Affected by extreme values
 MEDIAN
• Midpoint score
• Example: 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6
 MODE
MOST COMMONLY OCCURING SCORE
EXAMPLE: 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 5, 6

BIMODAL DISTRIBUTION:
1,2,2,2,3,4,4,4,5,6
 CHOOSING MEASURES OF CENTRAL
TENDENCY
MEAN BEST CHOICE WHEN THERE ARE
NO EXTREME VALUES
MEDIAN BEST CHOICE WHEN THERE ARE
EXTREME VALUES
MODE BEST FOR IDENTIFYING MOST
CHARACTERISTIC VALUE
36. Joshua administered an achievement test to his
students in Developmental Psychology. His class got a
mean of 45 and most of his students got a low score.
What is the possible explanation in this situation?
a. The mean is higher than the mode
b. The mode is higher than the mean
c. The median is higher than the mean
d. The median is lower than the mode
36. Answer: A
37. ________ refers to the absence of
symmetry while _______ refers to the
steepness of a distribution in its center.
a. Kurtosis; Skewness
b. Skewness; Normal distribution
c. Normal distribution; Skewness
d. Skewness; Kurtosis
37. Answer: D.
38. All of the following are
considered as non linear
transformation EXCEPT:
a. Percentile c. STEN
b. Stanine d. None of the above
 38. Answer: D
LINEAR TRANSFORMATIONS (Normal Distribution)
1. Z score
2. T score
3. Deviation IQ
4. GRE/SAT

NON-LINEAR/NORMALIZED Distribution (Ipinilit sa Bell Curve)

1. Stanine
2. Sten
3. Percentile
39. Demi obtained a z score of 3. As a
psychometrician, you could say that
a. Demi also obtained a T score of 80.
b. Demi could be intellectually gifted.
c. Demi obtained a 99 + Percentile Rank if she
took the NMAT
d. None of the above is incorrect.
39. Answer: D.
40. Regine obtained a GRE score of 400 while
Moira obtained a T score of 60. As a
psychometrician, you could imply that
a. Moira scored higher than Regine
b. Neither of them lies within 68.26% of the
normal distribution
c. Both of them has an equivalent Z score of -3
d. Regine obtained a T score of 41
40. Answer: A
41. Karl obtained a raw score of 30 out of 50 on his psychological
assessment course audit while he had a T score of 60 on his TOP
course audit. As a psychometrician, what can you imply from the
data?
a. Karl did better in the psychological assessment course audit than
in the TOP course audit.
b. Karl did better in the TOP course audit than in the psychological
assessment course audit.
c. Karl performed equally on both exams.
d. Nothing. It cannot be interpreted.
41. Answer: D
42. Mira Badbret obtained a raw score of
70 on her IO quiz. The rest of her
classmates got an average score of 60
with a standard deviation of 2. Thus,
Mira’s Z score is ___.
a. + 5 c. + 4
b. - 5 d. - 4
 42. Answer: A
CONVERTING RAW SCORE TO Z SCORE:

Formula:
Z= RAW SCORE- MEAN
STD. DEVIATION
Formula: R-M
SD
= 70-60
2
= 10
2
= 5
43. Jessica has a Z score of -3.
Therefore, Jessica could obtain
an IQ score of _____.
a. 45 c. 55
b. 50 d. 60
 43. Answer: C.
Conversion of Z score to other standard scores:
Standard Score Mean Standard Dev
Formula:
Z score 0 1
Mean + SD (Z score)
T score 50 10
Stanine 5 2
Sten 5.5 2

IQ 100 1) 15
 FORMULA: M + SD (Z)

= 100 + 15 ( -3 )
= 100 + (-45)
= 55
44. In psychological assessment exam
administered earlier by Professor Aiko, Cheena
got a score of 65, while Samantha got a score of
55. If the standard deviation is 5 and the mean is
45, what would be the average t-score of
Cheena and Samantha?
a. 60 c. 80
b. 70 d. 90
Convert raw score to Z score
Convert Z score to T score
R-M
SD
 Mean: 45 SD= 5

Cheena= 65
Samantha= 55
What is the average T Score?
 1) Convert Raw Score to Z Score
Formula: R-M
SD
Cheena= 65 Samantha= 55
=65- 45 =55-45
5 5

=20 = 10
5 5

Z Score = 4 Z Score = 2
 2) Get the Average of Z Score
Cheena= 4
Samantha= 2

4+2 = 6

6
2

Average Z score= 3
 3) Convert the Z Score to T Score
T Score: Mean of 50 and SD of 10
FORMULA: M + SD (Z)

= 50 + 10 (3)
= 50 + 30
T Score = 80
44. Answer: C
45. Jade took an examination with an item difficulty
index of .81. As a psychometrician, you can imply
that the examination was _____ and the
distribution was said to be ______.
a. Easy, Positively Skewed
b. Easy, Negatively Skewed
c. Difficult, Positively Skewed
d. Difficult, Negatively Skewed
 45. Answer: B.

ITEM DIFFICULTY- Item “easiness”

ITEM DISCRIMINABILITY- capacity of an

item to distinguish high and
low scorers
Item Discriminability: Capacity of the test to separate high
and low scorers. Determines whether the people who have
done well on the ITEM have also done well on the WHOLE
test.

2 Ways:
1. Extreme Group Method: Comparison between excellent
and poor performers.
2. Point Biserial Method: Correlation between the
performance on the item and on the test.
46. Kara scored the mode, Mia scored
the median and Lily Cruz scored the
mean. Assuming that the distribution is
negatively skewed, we can infer that
_____ had the lowest score.
a. Kara c. Lily Cruz
b. Mia d. It cannot be interpreted
46. Answer: C.
47. In her research class, Mae decided to
correlate levels of resiliency and life
satisfaction. After analyzing the data
collected, she discovered that the higher the
level of resiliency, the higher the life
satisfaction. This is an example of _____.
a. Positive correlation c. No correlation
b. Negative correlation d. Regression
47. Answer: A.
 Sample Problem.
Fifi would want to correlate the odor (measured through a rating scale)
and one’s level of intellectual capacity. Afterwards, she obtained a
correlation coefficient of .45. As a psychometrician with a knowledge on
correlation, what could you infer from Fifi’s study?
a. Strong correlation
b. Moderate correlation
c. Weak correlation
d. No correlation
Answer: C.
Correlational Statistics
 CORRELATIONAL STATISTICS
PEARSON PRODUCT MOMENT CORRELATION /
PEARSON R
-Correlates 2 variables in interval/ratio scale format
-created by Karl Pearson

SPEARMAN RHO / RANK-ORDERED

CORRELATION OR SPEARMAN CORRELATION
-Correlates 2 variables in ordinal scale
BISERIAL CORRELATION
-Correlates 1 continuous and 1 artificial
dichotomous data

POINT BISERIAL CORRELATION

-Correlates 1 continuous and 1 true
dichotomous data
TRUE DICHOTOMY
-there are only 2 possible categories
Ex: Sex (Male/Female)

ARTIFICIAL DICHOTOMY
-there are other possibilities in a certain category
Ex: Gender (L/G/B/T/Q; Pass/Fail)
PHI COEFFICIENT
-Correlates 2 dichotomous data: at least 1 true
dichotomy
Ex: Sex and Passing or Failing test

TETRACHORIC CORRELATION
-Correlates 2 dichotomous data: both are artificial
dichotomy
Ex: Quota/ Non Quota and Passing/Failing a test
48. Ashley, a senior student from FEU, would want to see if
there is a correlation between the height and academic
performance. In successful pursuance of her undergraduate
research, what would be the best measure Ashley must
apply?
a. Biserial
b. Point Biserial
c. Pearson r
d. Phi coefficient
 48. Answer: C

Height Academic Performance (GPA)

Ratio Ratio

When correlating two ratio variables, we

use PEARSON R
49. Nadine would like to correlate the grades of her
students to their nationality. What is the most
appropriate measure of correlation?
a. Biserial
b. Point biserial
c. Pearson r
d. Phi coefficient
 49. Answer: A.

Grades Nationality (Filipino/Foreign)

Ratio Artificial Dichotomy

Ratio (Continuous) + Artificial Dichotomous data

= Use BISERIAL CORRELATION
50. Kiara administered an aptitude test to the applicants of the ABC
company. Most applicants had failed the test. Kiara would like to
know the reason why most applicants failed the qualifying test. He
correlates the test status (pass or fail) and the educational
attainment (finished college or didn’t finished college). What
statistical tool would be best measure the said correlation?
a. Biserial
b. Point biserial
c. Tetrachoric
d. Phi coefficient
 50. Answer: C.
Pass/Fail Finished/Not Finished in College
Artificial Dichotomy Artificial Dichotomy

Artificial + Artificial = TETRACHORIC CORRELATION

REGRESSION
ANALYSIS
51. Jessica wants to see if her client’s IQ score
and Interview score will predict the program he will
take in his college. Jessica will more likely use
____.
a. Multiple linear regression
b. Multinomial regression
c. Logistic Regression
d. Linear Regression
 51. Answer: B
MEASURES OF PREDICTION (REGRESSION)
LOGISTIC REGRESSION
Predictor: 1 continuous Criterion: Nominal
(Interview score) School Program

MULTINOMIAL REGRESSION
Predictor: 2 or more continuous Criterion: Nominal
( IQ and Interview Score) School Program
SIMPLE LINEAR REGRESSION
Predictor: 1 continuous Criterion: Continuous
(Interview Score) (GPA)

MULTIPLE LINEAR REGRESSION

Predictor: 2 or more continuous Criterion: Continuous
Score A GPA
Score B
 REGRESSION
Predictor (X) - serves as the
independent variable

Predicted (Y) - serves as the

dependent variable
Linear Regression: used
when predicting one variable
from another.
REGRESSION LINE -
best fitting straight line
through a set of points in
a scatter plot
MULTIPLE REGRESSION
• statistical technique in predicting one
variable from a series of predictors
• used to assess three or more variables
• used in factor analysis
• used for CONTINUOUS DATA only
 FACTOR ANALYSIS
• applied when studying different variable that seems
interrelated with each other.
• FACTORS/PRINCIPAL COMPONENTS: umbrella
term
• FACTOR LOADING: the correlations between the
specific variables and the broad/umbrella factor;
depicted through beta weights.
 META ANALYSIS
•a statistical technique which involves
a process of combining the
information across studies in order to
produce single estimate.
 EFFECT SIZE
•the estimate of the strength of
relationship or size of differences.
•evaluated through correlation
coefficient
52._______ measures the accuracy of
prediction.
a. Standard error of measurement
b. Standard error of estimate
c. Standard deviation
d. Regression line
52. Answer: B
53. Regression guides the statisticians to examine the
direction of prediction between the predictor and the
criterion variable. When the correlation between the
predictor variable and the criterion variable is high, we
could say that ________.
a. The standard error of estimate is high
b. The standard error of estimate is low
c. The standard error of sample is high
d. No interpretation can be made
 53. Answer: B.

Example:
Correlation of Predictor and Criterion: .95
Standard Error of Estimate: .05

(The higher the correlation/regression value, the

lower the error)
54. Aileen wants to study the effect of eating
on time to the cognitive efficiency of college
students. Which design is best to use?
a. correlational design c. experimental design
b. linear regression d. quasi experiment
 54. Answer: C

EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN:
The only design that can imply
cause-and-effect relationship.
55. Weyne got a t score of 80 on his exam
while Ina got a z score of 2.5. Which of
following statements is TRUE?
a. Weyne got a higher score than Ina
b. Ina got a higher score than Weyne
c. Ina and Weyne got the same score
d. The data cannot be interpreted.
55. Answer: A
56. Morisette, a registered psychometrician, was tasked to administer a
parametric test to a randomly selected samples. In administering such,
Morisette must be aware of the differences between parametric and non-
parametric measures. All of the following are true about the differences
between the two EXCEPT:
a. Non parametric are made for the samples while Parametric are for the
population.
b. Homogenous data: Parametric; Heterogenous data: Non parametric
c. Skewed distribution are usually measured by either Parametric or Non
parametric measure
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
56. Answer: C
57. The following are some of the assumptions about
psychological testing and assessment. Point the exception.
a. Psychological traits and states do not exist
b. Test-related behavior predicts non test-related behavior
c. Psychological traits and states can be quantified and
measure
d. Tests and other measurement techniques have strengths
and weaknesses
 57. Answer: A

Some Assumptions About

Psychological Testing and
Assessment
Assumption 1: Psychological Traits and States Exist
Trait: any distinguishable, relatively
enduring way in which one individual
varies from another
States: distinguish one person from
another but are relatively less enduring
 Assumption 2: Psychological Traits and States
Can Be Quantified and Measured
Cumulative scoring: test score is presumed to
represent the strength of the targeted ability or trait or
state
The more the test-taker responds in a particular
direction (as keyed by test manual) the higher the
test-taker is presumed to possess the targeted trait or
ability
Assumption 3: Test-Related Behavior Predicts Non-
Test-Related Behavior
➢Obtained behavior is usually used to predict future
behavior
➢Could also be used to postdict behavior to aid in the
understanding of behavior that has already taken
place
➢Tools of assessment, such as a diary, or case history
data, might be of great value in such an evaluation
Assumption 4: Tests and Other Measurement Techniques
Have Strengths and Weaknesses
Competent test users understand a lot about the tests they
use
➢How it was developed
➢Circumstances under which it is appropriate to administer
the test
➢How test should be administered and to whom
➢How results should be interpreted
➢Understand and appreciating limitations for tests they use
 Assumption 5: Various Sources of Error Are Part of
the Assessment Process
Everyday error= mistakes and miscalculations
Assessment error= a long-standing assumption that factors
other than what a test attempts to measure will influence
performance on a test
Error variance: component of a test score attributable to
sources other than the trait or ability measured
Assessee could also be a sources of error variance
 Assumption 6: Testing and Assessment Can Be
Conducted in a Fair and Unbiased Manner
Court challenged to various tests and testing programs have
sensitized test developers and users to the societal demand for
fair tests used in a fair manner
Publishers strive to develop instruments that are fair when used
in strict accordance with guidelines in the test manual
o Fairness related problems/questions:
Culture is different from people whom the test was intended for
Politics
 Assumption 7: Testing and
Assessment Benefit Society
•Many critical decisions are
based on testing and
assessment procedures
58. Kelly is a graduate student in Marcos University. She was
tasked to analyze how reliability works. She found out that there
are different theories related to a test’s reliability, and one of them is
classical test theory. The following statements about CTT are
correct EXCEPT:
a. Also called as True Score Model
b. Based on an assumption that person's observed or obtained
score on a test is the sum of a true score (error-free score) and an
error score.
c. Considered as the most widely used/accepted model.
d. None of the above
 58. Answer: D

X=T + E
X- Observed score
T- True score
E- Error
Classical Test Theory (True Score Model)
• assumes that each person has a true score that would be
obtained if there were no errors in measurements.
• all obtained scores are a combination of true score and error
• a tool becomes reliable when there is a greater proportion of
the total variance attributed to the true variance attributed to
the true variance than error variance
• RANDOM ERROR: affects the score more significantly than
systematic error.
 TWO TYPES OF ERROR:
Systematic Error: errors due to characteristic of the tool and
measurement process
- ( all are affected , thus it doesn’t affect the consistency of
scores)
Random Error: errors because of pure chance errors that are
momentary (moods, feelings, distractions in the environment,
fluctuations in psychological state)
-not all are affected, thus it does affect the consistency of
scores)
 Sources of
Error Variance
 1. ITEM CONSTRUCTION
• - item/ content sampling - variation of items within and
between text
• - Problem: content sampled on a test and the way item
is constructed
• - Challenge/ Goal: maximize the proportion of total
variance & true variance. Minimize the proportion of
total variance
 2. SUBJECT VARIABLES
1.Test Anxiety: anxiety based on the test performance (worry,
emotionality, lack of self-confidence)
2.Illness: Diseases (physical and psychological) that could influence
the test taking behavior and performance.
3.Hormones: Women during menstruation are advised to skip testing
due to imbalance of hormones that could affect their mood cycles
4.Motivation: test takers that have low motivation (occupational
requirement) tend to produce unreliable results. Hindi
seseryosohin.
 3. TEST ADMINISTRATION
• Test Environment: room temp, lighting, ventilation and noise
• Test Taker Variables:
• - emotional problems, physical discomfort, lack of sleep, effects of
drugs/medication
• - wrong shading
• - misreading the test item
• - formal learning experiences, casual life experiences, therapy,
illnesses, changes in mood or mental state
 OTHER THEORIES:
DOMAIN SAMPLING MODEL- Covers the WHOLE
DOMAIN: Equally represented kada domain
GENERALIZABILITY THEORY- Different
situations, different scores
ITEM RESPONSE THEORY/LATENT TRAIT
THEORY- a person with X ability will be able to
perform at a level of Y.
Generalizability Theory – Cronbach
- Modification of domain sampling
method
- Assumption: nag-iiba ang test score
dahil iba iba ang testing situation
 CTT GT
Variability in Score: Error Ibang test
situation

True score Universal Score

 Uni A Uni B Uni C Uni D
Uni Score 10 15 2 13

(different universe, different universe scores)

Universe Score: 100 Generalizable / Reliable

Observed Score: 98 Lesser error

59. Marsha, a psychometrician at XYZ Assessment
Services, communicated a high expectation to the test-
takers. Eventually, the test-takers were able to obtain
somewhat higher scores as expected by Marsha. What
phenomenon is evident in the situation?
a. Drift
b. Golem Effect
c. Rosenthal Effect
d. Hawthorne Effect
59. Answer: C
Behavioral
Assessment
(Notable
Errors)
REACTIVITY/HAWTHORNE
EFFECT:
•increased in performance
efficiency when being
observed or evaluated.
 DRIFT
•decrease in
performance due to
time lapses.
CONTRAST EFFECT
•observer rates behavior of a
person in relation with the
previous person being
evaluated.
ROSENTHAL EFFECT
•the test administrator’s
expected results influence
the actual result of the test.
 GOLEM EFFECT
•negative expectations leads
to decreased performance.
 Rating Errors
intentional or unintentional errors due to misuse of
a rating scale
 HALO EFFECT
• Proposed by Thorndike. Tendency to give
ratee a higher rating than he / she objectively
deserves because of the rater’s failure to
discriminate among conceptually distinct and
potentially independent aspects of a ratee’s
behavior.
GENEROSITY / LENIENCY ERROR
•Tendency to give high rating
to all.
•False Positive Error
SEVERITY ERROR
•Overly critical evaluation.
•False Negative Error
CENTRAL TENDENCY ERROR
•Reluctance in giving extremely
positive and negative evaluation.
Ratings clustered in the middle.
GENERAL STANDOUTISHNESS
•People judge based on one
outstanding characteristic.
60. Item response theory assumes that
___________.
a. a person with X ability will be able to perform at a
level of Y.
b. error is always present in measurement
c. scores varies according to situations
d. the higher the scores, the more reliable the test
60. Answer: A
61. A professor announced that there will be a quiz on the coming
week and students shall prepare from chapters 1 to 10. The items
on the examination covers the chapters mentioned wherein each
chapter contains 10 questions each. Also, it assumes that the
higher the number of items, the higher the reliability of the test.
Thus, this situation follows what model of reliability?
a. inter-item model
b. generalizability model
c. domain sampling model
d. content-sufficient model
61. Answer: C
62. Maurice, a test developer, created an item pool for her newly
conceptualized “Eating Disorder Vulnerability Scale”. The intended norm was
G9 hs students to 4th year college students from Metro Manila. The item
undergone test try-out to the targeted representative sample and was
analyzed by SMEs. The SMEs analyzed potential bias to the test through
conducting interview to the initial test takers and they found that there are
items that indeed contain bias. The interview conducted by the SMEs is called
as _____; while the item bias is an example of _______.
a. Bias-Screening Interview; Systematic Error
b. Specificity Interview; Random Error
c. Sensitivity Interview; Systematic Error
d. Fairness Interview; Random Error
62. Answer: C
63. Cristoff conducted a study using experimental design. He
assigned 20 males to the experimental group and 20
females in the control group. By analyzing the result of his
study, he noticed that the data were uneven due to
sampling error he committed. This error committed by the
experimenter is termed as ______.
a. Standard Error of Estimate
b. Standard Error of Measurement
c. Standard Error of the Mean
d. Standard Error of Sample

TYPE OF STANDARD ERROR
Standard Error of Measurement
Standard Error of Estimate
Standard Error of the Mean
Standard Error of the Difference
63. Answer: C
DEFINITION
A statistic used to estimate the extent
to which an observed score deviates
from a true score
In regression, an estimate of the degree
of error involved in predicting the value
of one variable from another
A measure of sampling error
A statistic used to estimate how large a
difference between two scores should
be before the difference is considered
statistically significant
 Standard Error of Measurement
o Observed score deviates from a
true score

0s and Ts (Huge discrepancy) = Error

 Standard Error of Estimate (Regression)
R2 = .64/ 64% (coefficient of determination)
36% (error/coefficient of alienation)

o Measure of Accuracy of Predicted

Is X really attributed to X?
High reliability = Lower SEE
 Standard Error of the Mean
o Error sa sampling
 Standard Error of the
Difference

Score A Score B
75/100 74/100
Is 75 & 74 statistically significant?
64. Shawn, a newly registered psychometrician, is
currently working on the psychometric properties of his
“Pagkamagalang Scale”. He administered the test to its
target population twice, with 6 months interval. This is
an example of what type of reliability?
a. Parallel forms reliability
b. Test retest reliability
c. Pretest post design
d. Split half reliability
64. Answer: B
Reliability
Consistency of Results
Standard Error of
Measurement
Standard Error of Measurement
- higher reliability, lower error
- tool used to estimate or infer
the extent to which an observed
score denotes from a true score
Reliability- consistency of scores of the first
test administration and the second test
administration using same test, equivalent
items or under other variable examining
condition.

Charles Spearman- postulated the reliability

concept.
 1. TEST RETEST RELIABILITY
• Established by comparing the scores obtained from two
successive measurements of the same individuals and
calculating correlation between the two sets of scores.
• Also called as Time Sampling Reliability since the source of
error is the time interval between the first and the second
administration.
• Used when measuring stable traits (Ex: IQ)
• Error Variance: indicates the random fluctuations of
performance from one test session to another.
Disadvantages of Test Retest Reliability
• CARRY OVER EFFECT- happens when the
first testing session affects the results of the
second testing session.
• PRACTICE EFFECT- a type of carry over
effect wherein the scores on the second test
administration are higher because of
familiarity.
If the correlation of first and second administration is low, it
might be due to:
1. Poor reliability
2. Major changes in the state of the subjects in between the
first and second administration
3. A combination of poor reliability and major changes.

Thus, a low correlation of the scores of first and second test

session doesn’t automatically imply that the test is unreliable.
It might be due to other interfering factors.
 TIME INTERVALS
Short Time Interval: Carry over
effects
Long Time Interval: Various
factors that can significantly
change the state of the test-taker.
 To increase reliability:
1.Add more items
2.Clear test instructions
3.Clear scoring mechanisms
2. PARALLEL FORMS RELIABILITY
• Established when at least two different versions of the test yield almost the
same score.
• Also called as Item Sampling Reliability / Alternate Forms Reliability since it
compares two equivalent forms of test to check if they measure the same
trait.
• The correlation obtained from the two scores coming from the two
equivalent forms represents the reliability of the test.
• Error Variance: random fluctuations of the ITEMS, not because of TIME.
• NOTE: Same number of item, content, difficulty level, instructions, time
limits, illustrative examples.
Disadvantages of Parallel Forms
Reliability

•Time consuming
•Burdensome
 3. INTERNAL CONSISTENCY
• Used when tests are administered
ONCE.
• Consistency of items within the test.
• Each items on the test measures THE
SAME construct.
Measures of
Internal
Consistency
A. SPLIT-HALF RELIABILITY
• Also called as ODD-EVEN RELIABILITY
• splitting the items on a test in half, computing a separate
score for each half, then calculating the degree of consistency
between the two scores.
• Reliability is expected to decrease when the items are
lowered. To estimate reliability for both halves, you should use
SPEARMAN BROWN FORMULA to correct the correlation of
the test.
SPEARMAN BROWN FORMULA
• a measure which estimate the
possible correlation coefficient
between the two halves of the test if
each half would be equivalent in
length of the whole test and have
EQUAL variances.
B. KUDER RICHARDSON 20 (KR20) and KR 21
• KUDER RICHARDSON 20 (KR20): a statistical
measure to calculate the test reliability which contains
dichotomous items with varying levels of difficulty.

• KUDER RICHARDSON 21 (KR21): a statistical

measure to calculate the test reliability which contains
dichotomous items with same level of difficulty.
 C. CRONBACH’S ALPHA
•also called as coefficient alpha
•used for UNEQUAL VARIANCES
•average of all split halves
• polytomous format
 4. INTERRATER RELIABILITY
• degree of agreement among different raters which
evaluates the same behavior.
• uses KAPPA STATISTICS (for nominal scales)

Types of Kappa Statistic:

a. Cohen’s Kappa: 2 raters
b. Fleiss’ Kappa: 3 or more raters
 Acceptable reliability
Basic Research: .70-.90
Clinical Setting: .90-.95
65. Kylie wants to establish the reliability of her newly
conceptualized test named “Pagkamaarteng Pilipino Scale”.
She made two versions of the scale, with same level of
difficulty, same number of items and same domain covered.
This is an example of what type of reliability?
a. Parallel forms reliability
b. Test retest reliability
c. Inter-rater reliability
d. Split half reliability
65. Answer: A
66. Mayeth created a 100 item test. She decided to
separate the test into two parts. The first version will be
covering items number 1 to 50. The second version will
be covering items number 51 to 100. This split half
technique is in conflict if the test is in _______.
a. Equal-difficulty format
b. Unequal-difficulty format
c. Omnibus spiral format
d. Nothing, the test could be considered as reliable.
 66. Answer: C

OMNIBUS SPIRAL FORMAT:

QUESTIONS ARE ARRANGED
FROM EASY TO DIFFICULY .
67. Clarisse wants to study the life experiences of selected
prostitutes in Metro Manila. In successful attainment of the
required numbers of respondents, Clarisse asked her
respondents if they could give her referrals that are willing to
participate in the study. The situation above is a clear
example of?
a. purposive sampling
b. random sampling
c. snowball sampling
d. convenient sampling
67. Answer: C.
 Different
Sampling
Techniques
Types of Probability Sampling:
Simple Random
Systematic
Stratified
Cluster
SIMPLE RANDOM SAMPLING
Each subject has an equal chance of
being selected
MOST COMMON and BEST KIND of
sampling
EX: Fishbowl Technique
SYSTEMATIC/INTERVAL
SAMPLING
Chosen based on number
EX: Every 3rd person selected
STRATIFIED RANDOM SAMPLING
Depends on the proportion
Note: There should be a
representative each
stratum/proportion.
CLUSTER SAMPLING
Used when the population is too
large
Choose small group or segment
in the population
Types of Nonprobability Sampling
Quota sampling
Purposive sampling
Snowball sampling
Dimensional sampling
 QUOTA SAMPLING
-Sets and fills a particular
quota number even if it’s
not randomly selected
PURPOSIVE SAMPLING /
SELECTIVE / JUDGMENTAL
SAMPLING
The researcher deliberately
selects subjects to be included in
the study
SNOWBALL SAMPLING OR
NETWORK SAMPLING
Based on recommendation,
suggestion or referral.
CONVENIENCE SAMPLING
Also called as accidental, incidental
or conventional sampling
Selecting a subject because he or she
is AVAILABLE
Worst sampling strategy
68. Aly is assigned to compute for the
inter-rater reliability of a newly created
test. What statistics must be used by Aly
if raters are only three?
a. Kappa Statistics c. Fleiss Kappa
b. Cohen’s Kappa d. Pearson R
68. Answer: C
69. Arthur created a personality inventory. He used cronbach alpha
as an estimate of reliability. In doing so, he obtained an estimate of
-.50. As a psychometrician, what can you derive from this reliability
index?
a. Its acceptable for as long as it will be supported by other
reliability estimate.
b. Negative sign indicates the degree to which the reliability
approves or disapproves with other studies.
c. Supply it with validity studies to further strengthen the claim.
d. Try to diagnose the index and recompute again.
 69. Answer: D.

Coefficient Alpha only range

from 0 to 1
70. Kiara, a graduate student from Marcos University, wants to create a test that
measures one’s creative ability. She named this test as Pagkamalikhaing Pilipino Scale.
She operationally defined creativity as someone’s capacity to think of fresh and
innovative ideas, plans and actions that deviates from the usual ways of people. To add,
the construct “creativity” involves several facets such as openness to ideas, innovative
skills, imaginative thinking and originality of ideas. Kiara believes that people would
score high in particular facets but not on others. As a psychometrician that has a
knowledge on psychometric properties, you could say that ________.
a. Pagkamalikhaing Pilipino Scale would obtain high internal consistency.
b. Pagkamalikhaing Pilipino Scale would obtain low internal consistency.
c. Pagkamalikhaing Pilipino Scale could be applied in the clinical setting if it obtained a
reliability index of .85
d. None, the information above is not sufficient.
 70. Answer: B

Unidimensional Multidimensional
Variables Variables
High Internal Low Internal
Consistency Consistency
71. Elaine wants to establish the reliability of her newly created test
named Pagkamarupok Scale. She postulated that the quality of
being “marupok” involves falling in love with someone in a short
span of time. Elaine added that the construct mentioned would
change over time. What is the BEST form of reliability Elaine
should apply?
a. Test Retest Reliability
b. Parallel Forms Reliability
c. Predictive Reliability
d. Internal Consistency measures
71. Answer: D
Example of Dynamic Characteristics
• Anxiety (situation-dependent)
 Example of Static Characteristics
• Intelligence and Personality
72. Kyla was referred to Marcos Psychological Clinic
because she manifested pathological behaviors linked to
depression. The resident psychometrician in the clinic
administered a psychodiagnostic test to obtain an objective
data that supports the behavioral observations. Kyla’s test
scores on the psychodiagnostic test were obtained at about
the same time as the criterion measures are acquired. The
situation above is a clear example of what type of validity?
a. Logical validity c. Content Validity
b. Predictive validity d. Concurrent Validity
72. Answer: D
Validity
Is this test appropriate?
VALIDITY: Degree to which the test
measures what it supposed to measure.
VALIDATION: The process of gathering and
evaluating evidence about validity.
LOCAL VALIDATION STUDIES: Applied
when test are altered in some ways such as
format, language or content
 1. FACE VALIDITY
• considered as the simplest and least scientific
form of validity.
• focuses on the appearance; the test seems
related to the construct being measured.
• affects the MOTIVATION of the test takers.
• involves legal considerations.
 2. CONTENT VALIDITY
• the test covers representative topics.
(representation of conceptual domain)
• A panel of experts inspects and reviews
the item and rate them in terms of its
representativeness and appropriateness.
(expert judgment)
• CONSTRUCT UNDERREPRESENTATION: Failure to
include other facets covered by the domain (Example:
Numerical ability test which only covers mathematical
operations such as addition, subtraction and
multiplication but no division will have poor content
validity)
• CONSTRUCT IRRELEVANT VARIANCE: A
phenomenon where a test score is deemed affected by
unrelated factors such as illness, test anxiety, reading
speed)
3. CRITERION-RELATED VALIDITY
• Tells how well a test corresponds with a particular criterion
• CRITERION: standard against which a test or a test score is
evaluated.

CHARACTERISTICS OF A CRITERION:
a) Relevant
b) Reliable and Valid
c) Uncontaminated
Criterion Contamination: happens when a criterion measure has
been based on predictor measures. Test Results are used as both
criterion and predictor.
(Example: Criterion: Depressed patients. You will use the patients
used in the criterion measure as the predictor.)
Example: You are making a test about inmates’ level of aggression
and you gathered information from the inmates, guards and other
staffs to be used as a CRITERION.
Criterion Contamination happens when you ask the guards to
rate each inmate again (PREDICTOR) to check the validity of
the test.
TYPES OF CRITERION-RELATED
VALIDITY
CONCURRENT VALIDITY- both test scores
and the criterion are obtained at the present.
PREDICTIVE VALIDITY- test scores may be
obtained at one time and the criterion
measure may be obtained in the future.
 4. CONSTRUCT VALIDITY
CONSTRUCT: unobservable; presupposed
traits; informed scientific idea developed or
hypothesized to describe or explain
behavior.
Good construct validity: if there is an
existing psychological theory which can
support what the test items are measuring.
• To establish construct validity: apply logical
analysis and empirical data (check past
research and theories and see how the
researchers measure that
variable/construct)
• Proving a theory through evidences and
statistical analysis.
EVIDENCES OF CONSTRUCT VALIDITY
1. Test is homogenous, measuring single construct
2. Test scores increases or decreases as a function of age, passage of time,
or experimental manipulation (Ex: Construct: Intelligence, increase as we
age)
3. Pre test and post test difference
4. Test scores differs from groups (METHOD OF CONTRASTED GROUPS)
Use T Test
5. Test scores correlate with scores on other test in accordance to what is
predicted
A. CONVERGENT EVIDENCE: related
construct (EX: Conscientiousness and
Organization skills)
B. DISCRIMINANT/DIVERGENT
EVIDENCE (EX: Marital Satisfaction and
Social Desirability)
FACTOR ANALYSIS- used when obtaining
both convergent and divergent validity
Exploratory Factor Analysis: looking for
factors (inductive method)
Confirmatory Factor Analysis: does the
hypothetical model fits the actual data?
(deductive method)
5. INCREMENTAL VALIDITY
•extent to which additional
predictors explain something not
yet explained by the predictors in
use.
•“added value”
RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN
RELIABILITY AND VALIDITY
• Reliability is a prerequisite for validity
• A test can be reliable but not valid
• When a test is invalid, it cannot be
reliable
73. In establishing criterion validity, Gian used ________
which generalize the results of studies conducted on a
particular job to the same job at another organization.
This technique is called
a. Concurrent Validity
b. Predictive Validity
c. Validity Generalization
d. Synthetic Validity
 73. Answer: C.
Validity Generalization: test scores from one org can be applied to
another org.
Synthetic Validity: different job, same component (CSR,
Receptionist)
Single-group validity means that a test is valid for one group
(usually whites) but is invalid (that is, has zero validity) for other
groups (typically members of minority groups).
Differential validity refers to a situation where a test is predictive
for all groups but to different degrees.
74. Vince administered Arithmetic Aptitude Test to 4th year college
students at Far Eastern University. After the test administration was
done, most students reported that they have lost the motivation
answering the questions because the items seemed not related to
one’s numerical ability. Therefore we could infer that the test has poor
________.
a. Content validity
b. Test retest reliability
c. Face validity
d. Construct validity
74. Answer: C
75. Professor Marcos administered a final exam to the 4th
year psychology students of University of Santo Tomas. After
the administration of the test, the students were ranting
online because the test only covered the last chapter of the
entire textbook. Therefore, we could infer that the test has
poor _____.
a. Construct validity
b. Content validity
c. Inter rater validity
d. Criterion-related validity
75. Answer: B
76. Althea would want to establish the validity of her newly
conceptualized test called “Critical thinking ability test” tailored to
be taken by 1st year college students. To establish its validity, she
would want to compare the score of the test takers on the scale
she will make to their GPA. As a psychometrician, you could say
that the type of validity that Althea would want to apply is called
______.
a. Construct validity
b. Content validity
c. Predictive validity
d. Concurrent validity
76. Answer: C
77. Bea is currently establishing the construct validity of
her test called “Pagkamasipag scale”. She wants to
correlate it with a established test that purports to
measure someone’s level of conscientiousness. Thus,
Bea is establishing ______.
a. Divergent validity
b. Discriminant validity
c. Convergent validity
d. Both A and B
77. Answer: C.
78. Janella, a newly registered psychometrician, was
tasked to administer a test to 3rd year high school
students. Also, she was advised to anchor the
interpretation of the test to the normal developmental
path of the test takers, not necessarily based on their
grade level. Which universal norms should Janella
refer to?
a. ordinal scales c. age norms
b. grade norms d. none of the above
Age Norms ( Not Universal ) – Different mental
age

Grade Norms (Not Universal ) – Different

chronological age; problems with acceleration
and delay in attending to school.
78. Answer: A
Let’s talk about
Norms!!!!!!!!!!!
Norm Related Testing and Assessment
o Method of evaluation and a way of
deriving means from test scores by evaluating
individual test-taker’s score and comparing it
to other scores of a group of test takers.
o To know one’s standing/ranking relative to
a comparison group
o
NORM
Test performance data of a
particular group of test takers that
are designed to use as a reference
sa pagevaluate/interpret ng
scores.
 Norming
-Process of deriving
means
 RACE NORMING
-Process of norming on the
basis of race or ethnic group
(establishing different cut-off
scores for ethnic)
Sampling to
Develop
Norms
 TEST STANDARDIZATION
❖Process of administering a test to a
representative sample of test-takers to
establish norms
❖Specified procedures for administering and
scoring typically including the normative data
a. Stratified Sampling
Proportion
If random: Stratified Random
Sampling
b. Purposive Sampling
Select some sample because we
believe it to be representative of the
population criteria
c. Convenience/ Incidental
Sampling
Most convenient
Available
Developing Norms
of a Standardized
Test
1. Obtain a Sample
• Standard set of
instructions and
conditions
2. Data and Analysis
• Descriptive statistics (measure of central
tendency & variability)
• Precise description of the standardized
sample (dapat kung sino yung nasa
standardization sample, representative sila
ng future test takers)
Standardization Sample –
original standardization sample
Normative Sample – revised
target population; administration of
test to a new normative sample
Type of
Norms
A. PERCENTILE
• Expression of the percentage of people whose
score on a test or measure falls below a particular
raw score
• 80th Percentile – you are better than the 80% of
the test takers who fall below the 80TH percentile
• Ranking, conveys info about your relative position
within the distribution of scores.
 Percentage Correct

𝑟𝑎𝑤 𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒
= 𝑥 100
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑠

Issue: normal distribution (halos lahat nasa gitna)

*Big difference pero tabi tabi sila, tas Small difference

pero layo layo sila.
•
B. AGE NORMS
- Age equivalent scores
• “Mental Age”
• C Age: 10 Mental Age:10
• Compared sa same age people
• Issue: Acceleration
• Yes, same MA but key aspects (social and developmental
psych) are not the same yet.
C. GRADE NORMS
•expressed in decimals (from aug to
may)
• Disadvantage: pang nag-aaral
lang; walang pake sa items
administered; Di pwede sa adults na
nagbalik sa school.
D. NATIONAL NORMS
•Nationally representative
or each region in a
country is well-
represented.
 E. SUBGROUP NORMS
• Test of self-esteem of gay people:
Norms: gay people
Given Norms:
Homosexual
- Lesbian
- Gay
- Bisexual
- Transgender
 F. LOCAL NORMS
• The test will only be valid to that particular
locale or group of subjects/norms.
• Ex: Board exam for psychometricians. (Valid
only for psychometrician board exam takers,
not for engineering students)
• Similar with Single-Group Validity
 NORM REFERENCED TEST
•Your score -> compared
to -> average score of
test takers on the same
test
 NORM REFERENCED TEST
•When applied, we can
detect/recognize brilliance
and superior abilities
CRITERION-REFERENCED TEST
• Your score -> compared to -> criteria: passing is 75%

• * Regardless of other test taker’s performance

• * It varies depending on the organization’s cut-off
• * Also called as Domain/Content Referenced
• * e.g Mastery Test/Licensure Exams
Issues on Criterion-
Referenced Testing
1. What if unattainable yung criteria?

Normative = 75 is the highest

Average was 60
Cut-off score of 80 was
not good
2. Is a cut-off score really
discriminating?
Passing: 75
Is 74.8% very significant
sa 75 na score?
Note: all performances are
normative, nilagyan lang
ng dichotomy (pass/fail sa
criterion reference)
 LET’S TALK
ABOUT UTILITY
ANALYSIS!
•Utility – usefulness or practical
value of testing to improve
efficiency, training and
intervention.
OTHER FACTORS
AFFECTING
UTILITY:
• A. Psychometric Soundness (RV)
• - test scores tell us the utility of the test.
• - a tests have utility if their use in a particular
situations help us to make better decisions. (cost-
efficient)
• - if the selection ratio is very high, halos hired lahat.
• - not all valid tests are outrightly useful test.
• B. Costs
• - disadvantages, losses, expenses in both
economic and non-economic terms.
• - funds for test purchase, supply blank test
protocols, computerized test processing,
scoring and interpretation from the publisher of
some service etc.
• - instrument that turns out to be ineffective
• C. Benefits
• - does the benefit justifies the cost?
• - profit, gains and advantages.
• Economic:
• Good selection test in hiring: higher productivity,
• lesser sayang na PERA
•
• Non-Economic:
• Higher quality and quantity of worker’s
Performance.
• Lower time need for training; no. of accidents;
• Lower turnovers,
• Utility Analysis
• - family of techniques that entail a cost-
benefit analysis designed to yield into
relevant to a decision about the
usefulness/practical value of assessment.
• - cost benefit analysis
How is Utility
Analysis
Conducted?
ABA MALAY KO?! CHARET!
•A. Expectancy Data
•- test taker’s scores lies within an
interval (passing, acceptable or
failing) of scores on a criterion
measure.
Taylor Russell Tables
• - provides an estimate of the extent to which
inclusion of a particular test in the selection
system will improve selection. (Incremental validity)
• EX: May 80% chance na magiging successful ang
bagong empleyado na ito sa work nya (thru the use
of the newly added test tapos mag refer sa taylor
russel)
• Best used if konti or mababa ang selection ratio
 Three Variables to consider:
1. Test’s validity
2. Selection ratio- no. of people na iha hire mo at no. of applicants
50 positions/persons to be hired
100 applicants
= .50
3. Base ratio- percentage of people HIRED under EXISTING SYSTEM for a
particular position.
20 (considered successful)
25 (hired employees)
= .80
LOW SELECTION RATIO=
KOKONTI ANG IHA HIRE NA
APPLICANTS
 Limitations of Taylor Russell
1. Dapat linear ang relationship ni predictor (test) and criterion (rating of
performance on the job)
- Poor rating sa JOB PERFORMANCE PERO ang TAAS ng score sa
test.

2. Mahirap mag set ng cut score kung sino ba talaga ang SUCCESSFUL
sa HINDI SUCCESSFUL.
At dahil jan, nagkaroon ng
 NAYLOR SHINE TABLES
• - provide an indication of the difference in
average criterion scores for selected group
and original group.
 TAYLOR RUSSELL NAYLOR SHINE

INCREASE BASE RATIO DECREASE SELECTION

RATIO
(THRU INCREASING A
CRITERION MEASURE: Para
mas sure tayo na successful
talaga)
• Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser Formula
• - used to calculate a dollar amount of a utility
gain resulting from the use of a particular
selection instrument under specific condition.
• Utility Gain – estimate of benefit using a
particular test/ selection method.
(Monetary)
• Productivity Gain – estimated increase
in work output (Non Monetary)
 DECISION THEORY
• Provides guidelines for setting optimal cut off scores
• High Selection Ratio / Low cut score = FALSE POSITIVE
• Low Selection Ratio / High Cut score = FALSE NEGATIVE
SOME PRACTICAL
CONSIDERATIONS
1. Pool of Job Applicants

Low qualification
High qualification (unique skill/ attended more trainings)

NOTE: TOP PERFORMERS ON THE TEST probably the

least likely of all applicants to be actually hired.
(PINAG AAGAWAN SYA NG DIFF EMPLOYERS)
2. Complexity of the Job
•- the more complex the job, the
more people differ on how well or
poorly they do that job
3. Cut Score in Use
•- reference point derived as a result
of a judgement and used to divide a
set of data into 2 or more
classifications they derive.
 2 Types of Cut Off Scores
A. Relative Cut Score
- norm-referenced cut score
- top 10% may A

B. Fixed Cut Score

- absolute score
- 95 – A
Multiple Cut Score: use of 2/more cut scores with
reference to one predictor for the purpose of
categorizing test takers.

A B C D E F
94-100 87-93 79-86 72-79 65-71 Below60
• Multiple Hurdle/ Multistage
• - several predictors
• - cut score is in place for each predictor used
• More sophisticated but more cost-efficient than multiple
cut score
EX: BEAUTY PAGEANT (May different stages. Per stage,
ibang criterion)
-Pre Pageant, Interview, Swimsuit, Evening, Q and A
Compensatory Model of Selection
- higher score on english can compensate
lower score in math
- post-hire training
- different weighs per predictor (higher weigh
don sa mas important)
- stats used: multiple regression
Method of Setting Cut Scores
1. Angoff Method (CTT)
•- interrater reliability of SMEs (Ano
ba ang least minimum competence
na dapat meron ang isang applicant
para maging successful?)
2. Known Groups Method/ Method of Contrasting
Group

Students who Passed and Students who Failed

(Kung ano yung nagdidiscriminate sa two groups na ito,
yun ang magiging basis for setting a cut score)
(Issue: Gaano ka-pass? Gaano ka-fail?)
3. IRT-Based Methods
• - bago ka makapass, dapat above
minimum level of difficulty. (Minimum
level of difficulty is being determined by
experts)
A. Item-Tapping Method
for licensure exam
arrangement of items in histogram (sama sama sa
column yung equivalent items)
-difficulty level- consensus of experts if what difficulty
level ang question na dapat masagot ni test taker
para masabing may minimum competence sya to be
licensed)
B. Bookmark Method
Training kung ano ba ang required for minimal
competencies to pass
Book of items (ascending order of difficulty)
BOOKMARK SERVES AS A CUT SCORE
Issue: training of experts, floor/ceiling effect, length
of item booklets.
 4. OTHER METHODS
Method of Predictive Yield
- Uses a normal distribution
*Decision – theoretic approach
* By R.L Thorndike
* Norm-referenced method
* depends sa no. of positions to be filled, likelihood na iaccept
yung job & distribution of applicant scores
- Discrimination Analysis (Discriminant Function Analysis)
*relation ng 2 identified variable -→ 2 naturally occuring groups

Score: 85

Successful: 75 and above Unsuccessful: 74.8 Below

TERMS TO REMEMBER:
• Hit Rate – correct classification
• Miss Rate – incorrect classification
• False Positive – na hire tas mali
• False Negative – di nahire pero
qualified
79. Which of the following is the proper arrangement when it comes
to test development process?
a. Test conceptualization, test construction, test try out, test revision,
item analysis
b. Test conceptualization, test construction, item analysis, test
revision, test norming
c. Test conceptualization, test construction, validity and reliability,
test publishing
d. Test conceptualization, test construction, test try out, item
analysis, test revision
 79. Answer: D

1.Test Conceptualization
2.Test Construction
3.Test Try out
4.Item Analysis
5.Test Revision
 80. Central limit theorem assumes that
______.
a. small sample leads to a normal distribution
b. large sample leads to skewed distribution
c. small sample do not lead to a skewed
distribution
d. large sample leads to a normal distribution
80. Answer: D
81. ___________ is a method of evaluation and a way
of deriving meaning from test scores by evaluating
individual test-takers score and comparing it to scores
of a group of test takers.
a. Criterion-referenced testing
b. Normally-distributed testing
c. Comparison technique
d. Norm-referenced testing
 81. Answer: D.

NORM REFERENCED: Compares

to others (Norm)
CRITERION REFERENCED:
Compares to a Criterion (Score)
82. Ashley is currently making her own test of aggression. Her target
population are women above 20 years old who are currently married
and are previously convicted due to any form of criminal act. In
addition, she is also working on a test that requires the same
demographics. As a psychometrician with a knowledge on test
norming, which of the following type/kind of norming should Ashley
use?
a. Local norms
b. Subgroup norms
c. Co-norming
d. Cross-validation strategies
82. Answer: C.
83. Alex, a newly registered psychometrician, was assigned
to be part of test development team in the assessment
center that he was working in. They developed a test called
Pagkamalanding Pilipino Scale (PPS) specifically normed in
Tingloy, Batangas. However, the said test needs to be
applied in the Manila population. What specific process Alex
and his test development team must undergo?
a. Co-norming c. Cross validation
b. Co-validation d. Subgroup norming
 83. Answer: C
CROSS VALIDATION:Valid na sa Batangas pero gusto mo I try yung test
sa other population (Manila)- Validity Shrinkage
CO-VALIDATION: Different tests, one population (VALIDITY PURPOSES)
Marcos Self-Esteem Scale
Marcos Fidelity Scale
MALALANDI
(Population)

Marcos Life Satisfaction Scale

CO-NORMING: Different tests, one population (NORMING PURPOSES)
WAIS IV Same Population
WMS IV
SUBGROUP NORMS: Specific group
84. King took an NMAT exam and he obtained a percentile of
85. As a psychometrician, what would be the BEST
interpretation for this?
a. King performed better than the 85% of the test takers who
fall below 85th percentile
b. King performed weaker than the 85% of the test takers
who fall above 85th percentile
c. King outperformed the remaining 15% of the nmat takers.
d. Nothing. It cannot be interpreted
 84. Answer: A
Percentile: indicates the value below which
a given percentage of observations in a
group of observations falls.

Example: 20 THPercentile. You are better

than the 20% of the test takers.
85. Completion item, essay item and short
answer item are all under what type of item
format?
a. Selected-response format
b. Constructed-response format
c. Matching item format
d. Multiple choice format
85. Answer: B.
Item Format
• variables such as the
form, plan, structure,
arrangement and
layout of individual
test items.
 Selected Response Format
•test taker selects a response from a set of
alternative responses
• includes multiple choice, true-false, and matching
Constructed Response Format
•Test taker supplies or creates the correct answer
• includes completion item, short answer, essay,
enumeration, identification and fill in the blanks.
 Sample Quiz
In what format is
Thematic Apperception
Test?
 How about
Rorschach
Inkblot test?
 How about the
licensure
examination for
psychometricians?
How about SSCT???
86. Miguel took an IQ test. He discovered that
whenever he answers the questions correctly, he will
be redirected to questions that have a higher level of
difficulty. The ability of the computer to tailor the
content and order of presentation of items on the
basis of responses to previous items is called as?
a. Item response analysis c. Item branching
b. Item difficulty coherenced. Item-analysis technique
 86. Answer: C

Item Branching: The items

presented are dependent
whether your answer on the
previous answer is correct or
not.
87. The higher the score, the higher the test
taker on the trait measured. This assumption
pertains to what type of scoring an item?
a. Class scoring
b. Ipsative scoring
c. Percentage correct
d. Cumulative model
87. Answer: D
 Ways of
Scoring
Psychological
Tests
 1. Cumulative Model
• The higher the score, the
more that the construct
measured is present to
that person.
• Example: The higher the
score on intelligence test,
the more intelligent the
person may be.
2. Categorical Scoring
• When the pattern of
responses is present to the
test taker, it denotes that the
test taker is under the
category provided.
• Ex: DSM
 3. Ipsative Scoring
• Assessment against yourself
or your personal best.
• Comparison of your scores to
your own scores on the
previous test.
88. Chris decided to administer EPPS to one his
clients. After the test was accomplished, the scores
obtained were compared from the other scales
under the same test. This is an example of
_______.
a. ipsative scoring
b. comparative scoring
c. self-comparative scoring
d. within-test scoring
88. Answer: A
89. Jem administered an achievement
test to Grade 1 students intended to be
taken by Grade 6 students. Which of the
following choices is MOST likely to
happen?
a. Ceiling Effect c. John Henry Effect
b. Floor Effect d. Horn Effect
89. Answer: B
 Ceiling Effect
•Lahat mataas scores
kaya hindi mo na alam
kung sino ba talaga
high scorers
 Floor Effect
• Lahat mababa scores
so hindi mo na ma
identify kung sino ba
talaga ang low
scorers
 Halo Effect
• Focuses only on the
positive
• Neglects other negative
information that might
disconfirm one’s beliefs
 Horn Effect
• Focuses only on the negative.
• Neglects other positive
information towards the person
and generalizes or
catastrophizes one’s negative
impression to different facets of
that person.
90. The following are the characteristics of
the Guttman scale. Point the exception.
a. Unidimensional in nature
b. Deterministic model
c. Reproducible questions are added
d. Nominal nature of data
90. Answer: D
Guttman Scale
and its
Characteristics
What is Guttman Scale?
• Also termed as cumulative scaling or
scalogram analysis
• Statements are presented in an ordinal
manner, so if a person agrees with an item
implies that the person also agrees with the
less extreme items.
• Could be used as a measure of interest
Characteristics of a Guttman Scale
1.Unidimensional- only one construct
2.Deterministic- automatically agrees to
lower-order items
3.Reproducible- validity of the items
4.Ordinal- hierarchical in nature
 Example
1.It is okay to slap a person in his or her
face.
2.It is okay to punch a person.
3.It is okay to rape a person.
4.It is okay to kill a person.
91. David, a newly registered psychometrician, administered
test battery to his client. Included in the test battery are tests
of personality, achievement, intelligence and aptitude. The
following tests administered by David measures his client’s
maximal performance. Point the exception.
a. Personality test
b. Achievement test
c. Intelligence test
d. Aptitude test
 91. Answer: A

Typical: Ano yung usual nya?

(Personality/Interest: No right or wrong
answers)
Maximal: Ano yung super best nya?
(Achievement/Aptitude Tests: With right or
wrong answers)
92. Irah decided to incorporate Likert scale in her
newly created helping-behavior scale. According
to several studies and test users, which of the
following would be the BEST number of options in
Likert Scale that should be applied by Irah?
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6
92. Answer: C
93. Madyll, a licensed psychometrician, administered MMPI
to Jeremy, his client. Upon reviewing the data, there are 20
data points under ? scale. What could be the best
interpretation that Madyll should provide?
a. Nothing. 20 is an acceptable count, unless it will exceed
into 40.
b. Jeremy might have difficulty reading the items.
c. 30 points below are considered acceptable.
d. Both B and C are correct
 93. Answer: D

30 is acceptable. Above 30 is not.

94. Frances wants to assess his client using
statistically based tools. What approach Frances
should apply?
a. Empirical approach
b. Clinical approach
c. Actuarial approach
d. Mechanical approach
94. Answer: C
Actuarial Assessment
• An approach to
evaluation characterized
by the application of
empirically
demonstrated statistical
rules as a determining
factor in the assessor’s
judgment and actions.
 Clinical Assessment
• In clinical practice,
applying a clinician’s own
training and clinical
experience as a
determining factor in
clinician’s judgment and
actions.
 Mechanical Assessment
• Application of statistically
based tools on especially
computer devices when
analyzing numerical
inputs.
• Ex: SPSS
Psychological
Tests
95. This is a measure used to assess
normal individual personality.
a. CPI
b. MCMI
c. MPI
d. CBCL
 95. Answer: A

CALIFORNIA PSYCHOLOGICAL
INVENTORY
• Created by Harrison G. Gough
• Assess normal personality
 MILLON CLINICAL MULTIAXIAL
INVENTORY
•Assess pathological human
personality.
•Not as exhaustive as MMPI
 MCMI VS MMPI
The MCMI publisher appears to emphasize that
the MCMI and MMPI-2 measure different
characteristics and the MCMI is shorter to
administer to patients. Whereas the MMPI
measures a broad range of psychopathology,
the MCMI has its premier focus on the
assessment of personality disorders.
 Child Behavior Checklist
• The Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL) was a parent-report
questionnaire on which the child was rated on various
behavioral and emotional problems.
• developed by Thomas M. Achenbach
• most widely-used standardized measures in child
psychology for evaluating maladaptive behavioral and
emotional problems in preschool subjects aged 2 to 3 or
in subjects between the ages of 4 and 18.
96. If someone wants to know his abilities, self-
perceptions and vocational interest, what test
should you use?
a. SDS
b. FJAS
c. FF-NPQ
d. None of the above
 96. Answer: A
SELF-DIRECTED SEARCH
• Career assessment and exploration tool
that matches your aspirations, activities
and talents to the career choices and
educational opportunities that fit you best.
FLEISHMAN JOB ANALYSIS SURVEY
•Job analysis instrument for the
description of jobs and tasks in
respect to required skills and
abilities.
 FIVE FACTOR NONVERBAL
PERSONALITY QUESTIONNAIRE
• A 60 item nonverbal measure of normal adult personality
in counselling, research and business setting.
• Useful for cross-cultural comparisons and for those who
have language barriers or reading difficulties.
• Related to Murray’s psychogenic needs, the scales of the
Personality research Form (PRF) and the Big 5 of Mccrae
and Costa
PERSONALITY RESEARCH FORM
• used to study assertiveness training, consumer behavior,
decision-making, emotional development, employee attitudes,
job performance, leadership style, and risk taking behavior.
• assesses normal adult personality in selection or counseling
contexts, conduct research requiring comprehensive coverage of
personality traits, assist with guidance and career counseling, and
develop greater self-awareness and understanding of human
behavior and motivation.
97. What projective method is considered as
the MOST susceptible to faking?
a. Inkblot test
b. Sentence completion test
c. Figure drawing test
d. Auditory apperceptive tests
97. Answer: B
A psychometrician from EFG Assessment Services was
tasked to assess the personality of a new client, Cynthia.
Cynthia, diagnosed with coronary heart disease, seek help
from the assessment center to identify whether she belongs
to Type A or Type B personality. As a psychometrician, what
do you think would be the most appropriate measure that
would satisfy Cynthia’s concern?
a. JAS c. SB5
b. CRS-R d. WAIS
98. Answer A
 JENKINS ACTIVITY SURVEY
-used to identify people with Type A Personality
characterized by extreme competitiveness,
aggressiveness, impatience, restlessness, being
challenged with time pressure and has striving for
achievement
-Type A personality is a type of personality that is most
at risk for people with coronary heart disease
EDWARDS PERSONAL PREFERENCE SCHEDULE
-a forced choice, objective and non projective
personality inventory which measures the
rating of individuals in fifteen normal needs
and motives postulated by Murray
(psychogenic needs)
-used in educational and research setting
COMA RECOVERY SCALE-REVISED
-used in assisting with differential diagnosis,
assessment and treatment planning for people
with disturbance in consciousness
-differentiates people in coma (complete
unconsciousness) and people with minimal
consciousness
 BENDER VISUAL MOTOR GESTALT
-used to identify potential brain damage and
intellectual disabilities
- a rapid and efficient measure of perceptual-motor and
cognitive development in children
-test takers are tasked to copy a drawing on a separate
blank sheet of paper (measures how they would
organize visual stimuli into configural wholes)
ROSENBERG SELF-ESTEEM SCALE
-measures global feelings of
self-worth using 10 statements
rated in 4-point Likert Scale
 PEABODY PICTURE VOCABULARY TEST
-designed to measure receptive
vocabulary achievement and verbal
ability
-assesses cognitive development and
potential for linguistics
VINELAND ADAPTIVE BEHAVIOR SCALE
-used in assessing handicapped and non-
handicapped individuals in terms of their
personal and social functioning
-focuses on 4 domains namely daily living
skills, communication, motor skills and
socialization
 CENTER FOR
EPIDEMIOLOGICALSTUDIES:
DEPRESSION
Construct: Depressive symptoms
-20-item measure that asks caregivers to rate how
often over the past week they experienced
symptoms associated with depression, such as
restless sleep, poor appetite, and feeling lonely.
99. Kira wants to create a lgbt-acceptance scale which
measures the degree of positive perception towards the
lgbt community. As a psychometrician, what kind of
scale/test will you suggest to Kira?
a. Guttman scale
b. Likert scale
c. CBCL
d. Either A or B
99. Answer: D
100. Mary, 7 year old daughter of Mr and Ms. Dela Cruz,
has been manifesting some signs of intellectual disability. As
a psychometrician, which test could be MOST appropriately
applied if you want to identify if Mary has potential brain
damage and intellectual disability?
a. Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales
b. Thematic Apperception Test
c. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
d. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
100. Answer: D
Thank you for
listening!!!