The sender of a message should analyze the audience before developing the

message in order to do all but which one of the following?

a. Establish rapport and credibility
b. Address the receiver's needs
c. Simplify the task of organizing the message
d. Assure that perception of reality is the same for everyone

Chapter – 6 quizlet
If you need to convey information that contains good- or neutral-news, you could use
a. letters but not e-mail or voice mail.
b. e-mail but not letters or voice mail.
c. e-mail and letters but not voice mail.
d. e-mail, memos, or voice mail.

As compared to letters, memos and email are channels for sharing information of a
somewhat ____ nature.
Ans : B

The organization of business messages should be organized based on

a. a prediction of the receiver's reaction to the main idea.
b. the deductive sequence.
c. the inductive sequence.
d. a reflection of the writer's mood and personality.

The strategies for structuring effective good- and neutral-news messages

a. follow the inductive sequence.
b. vary dramatically from one company to another.
c. can generally be applied to cultures around the world.
d. are generally consistent among North American audiences.

The steps for the deductive sequence approach for a good-news message are
a. begin with the details, state the main idea, and end on a friendly thought.
b. begin with the main idea, provide details and explanation, and end on a future-
oriented closing thought.
c. start with a friendly thought, provide details, and end with the main idea.
d. none of the above

Email messages and memos differ from letters in that they are
a. written to employees within a company.
b. less formal in tone and formatting.
c. subject to less grammatical scrutiny.
d. more formal in tone.

Mary has a neutral message to deliver to a co-worker. What delivery options would be
the most effective?
a. Letter, email, or telephone
b. Memo, instant messaging, or letter
c. Letter, phone, or in person
d. Memo, email, or phone

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the deductive sequence approach for a
good-news message?
a. The first sentence receives attention since it is in an emphatic position.
b. The good news in the first sentence puts receivers in a good frame of mind.
c. The organization is persuasive and calls for action.
d. The receiver can understand the important idea and move quickly through the
supporting details.

Which of the following is recommended advice when writing an appreciation message?

a. Time the message to arrive two to three weeks following the action or event.
b. Use slight overstatements to communicate your favorable attitude.
c. Avoid specific remarks about the receiver's performance or achievement.
d. Consider sending a copy of the appreciation message to the individual's supervisor.

A sincere apology message to a customer for a serious mistake made would likely be
considered by the customer as
a. a negative news message.
b. an attempt to preserve a relationship.
c. unwelcomed, since a verbal apology is more meaningful.
d. a misdirected communication.
Your staff has worked hard to successfully complete a project for a large advertising
client. Which of the following is the BEST way for you to express thanks to the staff?
a. Thank them at the staff meeting next month.
b. Post a note on the company intranet.
c. Ask your administrative assistant to post a note in the lunchroom.
d. Send an email immediately to all staff.

Ignacio is asking for a refund or a replacement for a recently purchased malfunctioning

DVD player; his request for the refund or replacement would be considered a
a. persuasive claim.
b. complaint.
c. routine claim.
d. negative news message.

Claims related to product warranties, guarantees, or contractual conditions are typically

____ claims.
a. persuasive
b. inductive
c. routine
d. negative news

In writing a routine claim,

a. the message should begin with a request for action.
b. the message should begin with the details and explanation.
c. the message should begin with an expression of appreciation of the business
relationship.
d. none of the above.

Which of the following is NOT good advice for writing a routine claim?
a. Use the direct approach.
b. Use a persuasive, forceful tone.
c. Assume the request will be granted.
d. Avoid an accusatory tone.

You are writing to ABClothes.com to request an exchange for an ordered shirt that was
recently sent to you in an incorrect size; the message you write will be
a. a routine claim.
b. a persuasive request.
c. a negative news message.
d. a goodwill message.

After consideration of a customer's request for a partial product refund due to repeated
repairs, you have determined that you should comply. Which of the following is NOT
part of your effective adjustment message?
a. A fair response to a legitimate request
b. A statement that "the claim is being granted"
c. Resale or sales promotional material
d. An attempt to regain possible lost goodwill

Persuasive requests differ from routine requests in that

a. persuasive arguments need to be presented at the beginning of the message.
b. routine requests require a forceful approach.
c. routine requests begin with details and explanations first.
d. persuasive messages are shorter in length.

Which of the following sentences is a good example of a beginning sentence in a

favorable reply to a routine request?
a. We can definitely assist you in having your regional conference at the Ritz-Carlton.
b. Thank you for your request.
c. Please let us know the number of rooms you require first.
d. I read your request.

Which of the following is NOT recommended when preparing form messages?

a. Add variables to the standard text to tailor the message to the individual.
b. Use pre-produced mailing labels.
c. Use stored paragraphs that are selected according to the situation.
d. Use good quality paper and a high quality printer.

Which of the following are the most frequently used methods of communicating
standard operating procedures and other instructions to employees?
a. Memos and email messages
b. Face-to-face meetings and phone conversations
c. Phone conversations and instant messaging
d. Reports and letters
Which of the following are the most frequently used methods of communicating
standard operating procedures and other instructions to employees?
a. Memos and email messages
b. Face-to-face meetings and phone conversations
c. Phone conversations and instant messaging
d. Reports and letters

A procedural message may be ineffective if it

a. uses active voice and action verbs.
b. numbers each step of the procedure in order of completion.
c. uses a flow chart to show complex procedures.
d. is not pilot tested by colleagues and other employees.

our company has decided to require all employees to wear picture ID badges, starting
next week. Numerous steps are involved to get a photo ID. What would you do to alert
the employees of the requirement?
a. Send the procedural message in an email to all employees.
b. Ask each employee to come in for a meeting with you.
c. Schedule a company-wide meeting to explain the procedure.
d. Send each employee a form letter to his or her home about the requirement.

When writing complex procedures that should be completed in a particular order, which
method is BEST?
a. Put the procedures in bullet format.
b. Number the steps.
c. Prepare a flowchart.
d. None of the above.

Chapter 4

Chantell is the manager of the claims department for a large insurance company. She
has a one-hour meeting with her staff to explain the new claim form which the company
will use next month. This is an example of which type of organizational communication.
Answer : Downward

Tan impact that influences the communication process and helps to determine and
define the nature of the communication that occurs.
A strategic force affecting communication is

Which of the following best describes the common attitude that those from the U.S.,
Canada, and northern Europe have about the concept of time?

Time is money.

Many leading figures in recent corporate scandals were never convicted of a crime.
Which of the following best describes their behavior:
Behavior that is legal, yet unethical.

Which of the following guidelines about overcoming intercultural barriers is NOT

appropriate?
One should help the other person overcome his or her cultural barriers by conforming to
the new culture.

The _____ communication channel is created by management to control individual and

group behavior and to achieve the organization's goals.
Formal

Which of the following is FALSE concerning instant messaging (IM) in official corporate
communication?
Instant messaging overcomes the time barrier for geographically dispersed groups.
In downward communication management attempts to _____ activities within an
organization while the horizontal communication management hopes to _____ them.

control; coordinates
The grapevine in an organization
is typically no more or less accurate than other channels.

Which of the following are NOT barriers to intercultural communication?

Synergy, decentralized decision making, and cross functional

Managers at XYZ Manufacturing Company believe that "the ends justify the means" and
defend certain unethical acts because they are in the best financial interest of the
company. This action BEST typifies which potential cause of unethical behavior?

Excessive emphasis on profits

As one of 11 federal agencies under the Department of Health and Human Services,
the CDC must coordinate its efforts to protect citizens from epidemics with the CIA, the
FBI, and the Department of Homeland Security. Communication with these other
agencies is an example of
horizontal communication

Communication in successful work teams

is affected primarily by trust building and shared leadership.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning teams?

Skills for successful participating in team environments are the same as those for
success in traditional organizations.

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning privacy?

Technology has made protection of copyright easier.

A supervisor notices that an employee has been late to work for three days this week.
What is the BEST way for the supervisor do to foster open communication?
Meet with employee face-to-face to discuss the lateness.

Organizations that have shifted towards team structure typically believe that the team
process will result in
rewards based on individual effort and team performance.
Differences in educational level, experience, and culture or distractions such as noise,
uncomfortable room temperature, and interruptions are examples of
Interference

In a distributed leadership team environment, the role of the leader is BEST described
as
any member of the team becoming the leader at various times.

Which of the following statements about language translation is FALSE?

People generally resent the simple efforts of a person of another culture to learn a few
common phrases in the new language.

A supervisor on the night shift at a manufacturing plant is told to dump chemicals used
in the refining process rather than dispose of them properly according to safety
regulations. The owner of the company insists that the chemicals are not harmful to the
environment, but the supervisor knows that the dumping is illegal. The supervisor
believes that he will lose his job if he reports the problem to authorities at the
Environment Protection Agency. This is an example of which potential cause of
unethical behavior?
Unwilling to stand for what is right.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning stereotyping?

Stereotyping aids in communication by categorizing cultures into distinct groups that
have similarities.
Jeff receives an email from his boss, Sharon, who is on an international trip. As Jeff
interprets the instructions from the email, he is in the act of
Decoding

In confronting the international problems caused by lack of language training, the MOST
useful advice for North Americans is to
try to acquire second language skills if possible, or at lease learn a few words in the
language of your audience.
Intrapersonal communication occurs when
an individual processes information individually.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of email?
Replace the need for personal conversation.

What term or phrase best describes reliability?

The coefficient alpha is most similar to the split-half method.

10.
How are the coefficient alpha and split-half reliabilities different?

Your Answer:
With coefficient alpha, true-false questions cannot be used.
Correct Answer:
In coefficient alpha the test need not be split in half.

In many ways, split-half and coefficient alpha reliabilities are similar but with coefficient alpha the test
need not be split in two for the reliability to be assessed.

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11.
Which type of reliability is particularly important in performance assessment?

Your Answer:
Equivalent form
Correct Answer:
Interrater

It is important that two independent judges agree that a given performance behavior has or has not
taken place. This is interrater reliability.
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12.
One drawback to interrater reliability is its complexity of calculation.

Your Answer:
True
Correct Answer:
False

In calculating interrater reliability all one needs to know is the number of agreements and the number
of total ratings.

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13.
Describe the concepts and uses of standard error of measurement and confidence bands.
(Questions 13 - 17)

Which is the precept or assumption that the standard error statistic is based upon?

Your Answer:
Unreliable tests are valid.
Correct Answer:
A given test reliability is usually never r=1.00.

It is nearly impossible to have a test reliability at r=1.00 (e.g., a perfect reliability). The difference
from perfect reliability is expressed as error.

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14.
What is a sound assumption leading from the standard error of measurement statistic?

Your Answer:
Standard error and validity are similar concepts.
Correct Answer:
Any student test score contains error.

Since reliabilities are never perfect (r=1.00) all tests possess error. Hence any single test score must
also possess error.

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15.
What is the major assumption of the confidence band?
Your Answer:
Wide confidence bands are better than low confidence bands.
Correct Answer:
The confidence band includes error put around a student's unitary test score.

By placing a confidence band around a student's single score we know what the range of the score
was if error was taken into account.

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16.
When tests from a test battery are used, if ends of confidence bands overlap there are real
differences between the scores.

Your Answer:
True
Correct Answer:
False

True differences exist when the bands on tests from a given test battery do not overlap.

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17.
The standard error of measurement tends to be highest for scores in the middle of a distribution.

Your Answer:
Agree
Correct Answer:
Disagree

The standard error of measurement tends to be largest at both extremes of a distribution of scores.

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18.
Describe the factors that influence reliability measures. (Questions 18 - 21)

Which statement is most true about reliability?

Your Answer:
Adding assessment tasks only raises reliability in the area of achievement testing.
Correct Answer:
Adding the number of assessment tasks usually raises the reliability.

In general, the more assessment tasks included, the more reliable the assessment will be.

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19.
A teacher gives a 100-item test to 30 students and the total range of scores (the spread) of the
distribution is only ten points. Which statement is most true?

Your Answer:
The degree of reliability depends on the test's validity.
Correct Answer:
The test will probably lack strong reliability.

The greater the range or spread of scores in a distribution the greater the reliability of the
assessment.

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20.
Why might an assessment of creativity be less reliable than a test that measures ability to divide
two-digit numbers with remainders?

Your Answer:
Math is taught in school, creativity is not.
Correct Answer:
Measuring creativity is more subjective than math assessment.

Raters or observers can more likely agree on whether division items were correctly or incorrectly
calculated than on the degree of creativity demonstrated. Hence, assessing math is more objective
than assessing creativity.

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21.
An educator assesses the reliability of his teacher-made, highly speeded test using the split-half
method and finds it to be r=.88. On what basis should he be cautious in accepting this high level of
reliability?

Your Answer:
He failed to use equivalent forms.
Correct Answer:
The split-half reliability method usually shows artificially high reliability on tests where speed is a
factor.

Because it looks at odd vs. even response of the same test, split-half reliability can yield a spuriously
high reliability coefficient, especially on tests where speed is a factor.

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22.
Describe reliability of fixed performance outcomes. (Questions 22 - 26)
What type of assessment would measure fixed performance outcomes?

Your Answer:
Norm-referenced
Correct Answer:
Criterion referenced

Tests that measure whether or not a student has met fixed performance standards is mastery level,
criterion-referenced testing.

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23.
Why might fixed performance assessment have relatively low reliabilities?

Your Answer:
They usually use the split-half method of assessing reliability.
Correct Answer:
They usually have a low range or spread of scores in the distribution.

Fixed performance tests usually have a small range or spread of scores in the distribution. Low
ranges or small spreads lead to lower reliabilities.

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24.
Which use of test results requires higher reliability?

Your Answer:
Obtaining a driver's permit
Correct Answer:
Deciding eligibility for special education

The more serious and critical the use of the test results, the higher the reliability of that assessment
should be. Eligibility for special education is the most serious of the four alternatives listed.

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25.
A teacher is using an assessment to decide whether students should be promoted or retained in
school. Why is it critical that this assessment have high reliability?

Your Answer:
The decision may upset parents.
Correct Answer:
The decision will be difficult to change or reverse.

The more difficult the probability of reversing a decision, the more critical it is that the assessment
possesses high reliability.

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26.
Describe the issues related to the usability of tests. (Questions 26 - 30)

Which statement is most true about the ease of usability of tests?

Your Answer:
Separate tests for each grade level should be sold.
Correct Answer:
The lower the number of subtests, the easier it is to use.

Usually, the fewer subtests contained in an assessment, the easier the test's usability.

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27.
What is most true about the reliability of assessments?

Your Answer:
Tests should be timed in order to possess high reliability.
Correct Answer:
Long tests have more questions and are probably more reliable.

All things being equal, longer tests tend to be more reliable than tests that ask fewer questions.

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28.
Standardized tests should only be machine scored and interpreted by trained and licensed "off-site"
personnel.

Your Answer:
False

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29.
If a standardized test is going to be administered to the same students more than once, which
statement is most true?

Your Answer:
It should use the split-half method of assessing reliability.
Correct Answer:
There should be equivalent forms available.
In order to avoid practice effects or having students remember past test items, a test given more
than once should possess equivalent forms.

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30.
Probably the first thing that a school system should look at in choosing a test for students in the
district is cost.

Your Answer:
True
Correct Answer:
False

While cost is certainly important, tests should be chosen on the basis of their quality, validity, and
reliability.