for

2015

Practice Paper
for
Test No. 3 (Code-A)

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics

Chemistry Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Cell Structure and Function: Cell theory and
cell as the basic unit of life; Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant
cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell organelles-
structure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum,
Biology Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles; mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro
bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and function);
Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus, Cell division; Cell cycle,
mitosis, meiosis and their significance, Digestion and Absorption, Breathing
and Respiration, Body fluids and Circulation
Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ PHYSICS ]
1. Planets A and B have same average density. Radius 7. For the given composite arrangement of two different
of A is twice that of B. The ratio of acceleration due materials at steady state. The ratio of temperature
to gravity on the surface of A and B is gradient is (symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2
(3) 1:4 (4) 4:1
2. If the area enclosed by earth's orbit in one year
(3.5×107 s) is 7 × 1022 m 2, then find the ratio of
earth's orbital angular momentum to its mass
(1) 4 × 1015 m2/s (2) 3 × 1015 m2/s
(3) 1015 m2/s (4) 2 × 1015 m2/s (1) 5 (2) 2

3. Two particles A and B of equal mass m each are 7

separated by a distance r. If they are executing (3) (4) 1
6
unif orm circular motion due to their mutual
gravitational attraction then orbital speed of B is 8. An ideal gas absorbs Q heat in an isobaric process.
If adiabatic exponent of the gas is , then what
Gm 1 Gm fraction of heat is used to perform work ?
(1) (2)
r 2 r
1  1
(1) (2)
Gm  
Gm 4
(3) (4) 3r
2r
 1
4. A sample of gas follows process represented by (3) (4)
 1  1
PV2 = constant. Bulk modulus for this process is B,
then which of the following graph is correct ?
B B 9. The P-V diagram of 8 g of Helium gas for a certain
process A  B is shown in figure. Heat given to the
(1) (2) body during process A  B is
V V

B B

(3) (4)
V V

5. The molar heat capacity of a monoatomic ideal gas

undergoing process PV1/2 = constant is
(1) 12P0V0 (2) 6P0V0
15 23 (3) 4P0V0 (4) 15P0V0
(1) R (2) R
2 2 10. If a gas is compressed adiabatically, then
(1) The internal energy of the gas increases
7
(3) R (4) Zero (2) The internal energy of the gas decreases
2
(3) The internal energy of the gas does not change
6. Two gases have same initial pressure, volume and
temperature. They expand to the same final volume, (4) Work done by the gas is positive
one adiabatically and the other isothermally 11. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep
(1) The final pressure is greater for isothermal sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1% ?
(Density of sea water = 103 kg/m3, bulk modulus of
(2) The f inal temperature is greater f or the
rubber = 9 × 108 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2)
isothermal process
(1) 18 m (2) 90 m
(3) The work done by the gas is greater for the
isothermal process (3) 180 m (4) 9 m
(4) All of these

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
12. Choose the incorrect statement, regarding the g
assumptions of kinetic theory of gases (3)
2TL
(1) Gas molecules obey Newton’s laws of motion
(4) T × L
(2) Gas molecules travel in a straight line
(3) There is force of attraction between gas 17. 20 g of ice at 0°C mix with 30 g of water at 20°C.
molecules
The final temperature of mixture is (latent heat of ice
(4) Volume of a molecule is neglected in comparison 80 cal/g, specific heat capacity of water 1 cal/g
to volume of gas °C)
13. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a (1) 10°C (2) 0°C
horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube
is P where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, (3) 20°C (4) 5°C
where the pressure is P/2, the velocity of flow is 18. W hen a diatomic gas is allowed to expand at
(= density of water) constant pressure, it does work of 280 J. Total heat
supplied to the gas is equal to
(1) 780 J (2) 880 J
P P (3) 380 J (4) 980 J
(1) v2  (2) v2 
  19. Change in internal energy of the ideal gas in the
process ABC is 30 J. Change in internal energy in
2P 2P the process CDA is
(3) v2  (4) v2 
  P (kPa)
14. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the 200
A B
same material and same length is shown in the
figure. The thickest wire is represented by the line
100
D C
D V (cc)
0 50 150
Load

C
B (1) –40 J (2) –30 J
A
(3) +30 J (4) +40 J
O 20. An ideal gas is undergoing two processes at
Elongation
constant volume V1 and V2 as shown in figure.
Which of the following relation is correct?
(1) OD (2) OC
(3) OB (4) OA P
V1
15. A particle of mass m moving horizontally strikes the
bob of a simple pendulum of mass m and length l.
After the impact, particle sticks to the bob. If the V2
compound mass just completes a vertical circle,
then initial velocity of the particle is
T
mv 2 (1) V1 = V2 (2) V1 > V2
(1) mv2 (2)
2
(3) V1 < V2 (4) V1  V2
mv 2 R
(3) Zero (4) 21. If a body of mass m is sent to a height of from
4 3
16. A liquid film is formed over a frame ABCD as shown in earth's surface, the change in potential energy is (R
figure. Wire CD can slide without friction. The mass to = radius of earth, g = gravitational acceleration at
be hung from CD to keep it in equilibrium is earth surface)
TL A B mgR mgR
(1) (1) (2)
g 3 4
2TL
(2) D C 3mgR
g (3) mgR (4)
L 4

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
22. For the same area of cross-section and for a given
load, the ratio of depression for beam of a square 2 2 22
(3) (4)
cross-section and circular cross-section is 9g 6g

3  27. A tank is filled with water upto height H. There is a

(1) (2) hole of area of cross-section A2 at the bottom of the
 3
tank (A2 <<< A1 = Area of cross-section of the tank).
1 If water is allowed to come out of hole at t = 0,
(3) 1 (4) then time after which water height in tank becomes

H
23. A vessel contains liquid of density d as shown in
3
figure, the gauge pressure at the point A is

A1  2H 2H  A1  H H
(1) A  g  3g  (2) A  g  3g 
2 
  2 
 

A1  4H 4H  A1  H H
(1) Hdg (2) hdg (3) A  g  3g  (4) A  2g  6g 
2 
  2 
 
(3) (H–h)dg (4) (H–h)dg cos
28. A point isotropic radiating source of power P is kept
24. Two soap bubbles having diameter D1 and D2 in at centre of a spherical shell of radius r and
vacuum, coalesce under isothermal conditions. The thickness t (t <<< r). If coefficient of thermal
diameter of the new bubble is conductivity of material of shell is K then the
temperature difference across the shell is
D1  D2 D12  D22
(1) (2) Pt Pt
2 2 (1) 3 (2)
4r k 4r 3 k
1 Pt P2 t
(3) D12  D22 (4) D12  D22 (3) (4)
2 4r 2k 4r 2k
25. A straight capillary tube is immersed in water and 29. A lake starts freezing when temperature goes below
the water rises to 5cm. If the capillary is bent as 0°C. The time taken to freeze first 2 mm, 4 mm,
shown in figure, then the height of water column will 6 mm, 8 mm are t1, t2, t3 and t4 respectively. Then
be (t2 – t1) : (t3 – t2) : (t4 – t3) is
(1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 4 : 8
(3) 3 : 5 : 7 (4) 1 : 4 : 9
30. Let be the angular speed of rotation of the earth
at which an object kept on equator will f eel
weightless. The ratio of  to the present angular
speed of rotation of the earth is approximately
(1) 5 cm (2) < 5 cm (1) 6 (2) 12
(3) > 5 cm (4) 5 cos  (3) 17 (4) 1
26. A U-tube is rotating with constant angular velocity  31. If the breaking stress of steel is 8 × 108 N/m2 and
about a vertical axis xy as shown. The difference in the density of steel is 8 × 10 3 kg/m 3 then the
the height of liquid column in two vertical limbs is ( greatest length of steel wire that can hang vertically
= density of liquid) without breaking is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 104 m (2) 103 m
(3) 102 m (4) 10 m
32. W ater is flowing through a horizontal tube of
nonuniform cross-section. At a place the radius of
the tube is 1 cm and the velocity of water is
4 m/s. The velocity of water where the radius of the
pipe is 2 cm is
22 22 2 (1) 0.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s
(1) (2)
2g 3g (3) 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
33. The temperature at which oxygen molecules would  5
3
have the same RMS speed as the hydrogen 39. If mole of a monatomic gas     is mixed
2  3
molecules would have at 27°C, is
 7
(1) 4800 K (2) 2400 K with one mole of a diatomic gas     , then the
 5
(3) 1200 K (4) 600 K value of  for the mixture is
34. In a sudden expansion of an ideal diatomic gas, the
pressure P and temperature T are related as PTx, 11 29
(1) (2)
here x is equal to 21 19
(1) 3.5 (2) 2.5 19 11
(3) (4)
29 31
1
(3) (4) 1.4 40. Two mole monatomic gas absorb 50 cal isobarically.
7
The change in internal energy of the gas is
35. The intensity of radiation emitted by the sun has
(1) 30 cal (2) 20 cal
maximum value at a wavelength of 5000 Å and that
emitted by a star is at 3500 Å. Assuming them to (3) 50 cal (4) 10 cal
be black bodies, ratio of absolute temperature of the 41. Terminal velocity of small sized spherical body of
sun and the star is mass m falling vertically in a viscous liquid is v. Find
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.6 terminal velocity when spherical body of mass 8m
made by the same material falling vertically in same
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.4 liquid
36. If a point mass m is placed at the centre of earth (1) v (2) 8v
of mass M and radius R, then the magnitude of (3) 2v (4) 4v
binding energy of the system would be
42. Temperature diff erence between body and
1 GMm 3 GMm surroundings falls from 40°C to 20°C in 10 minute.
(1) (2) Time interval in which the difference will fall from
2 R 4 R
20°C to 5°C is
1 GMm 3 GMm (1) 20 minute (2) 15 minute
(3) (4)
4 R 2 R (3) 10 minute (4) 30 minute
37. Two masses, m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 8 kg at an infinite 43. Temperature of a body increased by 25°C. Its rise of
distance apart are initially at rest. They start
temperature in Fahrenheit scale is
interacting gravitationally. When the separation
between them becomes 1 m, the velocity of m2 will (1) 25 °F (2) 35 °F
be (3) 45 °F (4) 55 °F

G G 44. Two metallic rods of equal length and diameter have

(1) 4 (2) 3
5 5 thermal conductivities 3K and 4K. If they are joined in
series, then the equivalent thermal conductivity of
G G combination is
(3) 2 (4)
5 5
7K
38. Two satellites of equal masses revolve in the same (1) 2K (2)
2
sense around a heavy planet in circular orbit of radii
R and 3R. Which of the following is correct ? 24K
(3) 7K (4)
7
(1) Ratio of period of revolution is 1: 3 3 45. A boat having a length of 3 m and breadth of 2 m is
floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a
(2) Ratio of their velocities is 3 :1 man gets on it. The mass of man is
(3) Ratio of their kinetic energy is 3 : 1 (1) 60 kg (2) 62 kg
(4) All of these (3) 72 kg (4) 128 kg

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. The distance between two nearest neighbours in be isolated because they do not have finite life
body centred cubic lattice of axial length a, is times
3 (3) Reaction mechanisms cannot have more than
(1) a (2) a
2 one intermediate
2 3 (4) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism appear in
(3) a (4) a
2 4 the overall balanced equation for the reaction
47. Which of the following interstitial site is formed when
the three close packed spheres of one layer is put 52. Gaseous N 2 O 5 decomposes according to the
following equation
over three close packed spheres of the second layer,
their positions being inverted w.r.t. each other? 1
N2O5 (g)  2NO2 (g)  O2 (g)
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral 2
(3) Rhombohedral (4) Tetragonal N2 O5
The experimental rate law is  k[N2O5 ] .
48. Which of the following is incorrect? t
At a certain temperature the rate constant is
(1) The coordination number of each type of ions in k = 5 × 10–4 sec–1. In how many seconds will the
CsCl crystal is 8 concentration of N2O5 decrease to one-tenth of its
initial value?
(2) A metal that crystallises in bcc structure has a
coordination number of 12 (1) 2 × 103 s (2) 4.6 × 103 s

(3) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its (3) 2.1 × 102 s (4) 1.4 × 103 s
ions with other unit cells 53. A and B are two dif f erent chemical species
undergoing first order decomposition with rate
(4) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm
constants kA and kB which are in the ratio of 3 : 2
(rNa  95 pm, rCl  181 pm) respectively. If the initial concentration of A and B are
in the ratio of [A]0 : [B]0 = 3 : 2. What would be the
49. The number of atoms in 100 g of a fcc crystal with ratio of [A] : [B] after three half lives of A?
density = 10.0 g/cm3 and cell edge length equal to
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 4
200 pm is
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
(1) 5 × 1024 (2) 5 × 1025
54. 0.9 gm of a hydrocarbon with molecular formula
(3) 6 × 1023 (4) 2 × 1025 H2(CH2)n when dissolved in 180 gm of solvent freezes
at 8.48°C. If freezing point of pure solvent is 9°C,
50. Which of the following is distance between two
then the formula of hydrocarbon (kf = 12)
tetrahedral voids?
(1) C8H6 (2) C8H18
3a a
(1) (2) (3) C8H16 (4) C7H8
2 2
55. Select the correct statement
a (1) Freezing point, boiling point and vapour pressure
(3) (4) All of these
2 are all colligative properties
51. Which of the following statements is true? (2) The freezing point, boiling point and vapour
pressure all decrease when a solute is dissolved
(1) The existence of certain intermediates in a in a solvent
reaction mechanism can sometimes be proven (3) Plots of freezing point depression versus molal
because intermediates can sometimes be concentration for ethyl alcohol, propyl alcohol
trapped and identified and butyl alcohol dissolved in water will all be
linear with different slopes
(2) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism cannot
(4) All are incorrect

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
56. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are 100 62. The equation for one of the half reactions in a lead
and 80 torr respectively. The total pressure of the storage battery is
solution obtained by mixing 2 moles of A and
3 moles of B would be PbO2  4H  SO 4 2  2e  PbSO4  2H2O
(1) 20 torr (2) 36 torr
(3) 88 torr (4) 180 torr What happens to the properties of the electrolyte as
this cell discharge?
57. When you dissolve sugar in a glass containing ice
and water in equilibrium, and assuming that no heat Density pH
enters or leaves the system
(1) Some of the ice should melt and the (1) Increase Increase
temperature of water/ice mixture should increase
(2) Increase Decrease
(2) Some of ice should melt and the temperature of
the water/ice mixture should decrease (3) Decrease Decrease
(3) Some of the water should freeze and the
temperature of the water/ice mixture should (4) Decrease Increase
increase
63. Ionic conductance of H+ and SO4–2 at infinite dilution
(4) Some of the water should freeze and the are x and y s cm 2 eq–1. Hence the equivalent
temperature of the water-ice mixture should conductance of H2SO4 at  dilution is
decrease
58. x mole of KCl and y mole of BaCl 2 are both (1) x + y (2) 2x + y
dissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1 (3) x + 2y (4) x + 0.5y
and k f for water is 1.86 k/molal. W hat is the
observed range of T f if the ratio of x and y is 64. According to adsorption theory of catalysis the
varied? reaction rate increases because
(1) 0.37° to 0.55° (2) 0.185° to 0.93° (1) Adsorption produces heat which increases the
(3) 0.56° to 0.93° (4) 0.37° to 0.93° rate of reaction

59. If a 500 ml brine is electrolysed with a current of (2) In the process of adsorption, the kinetic energy
strength 0.5 A, how many seconds would it take for of the molecules increases
the pH of solution to rise to a value of 9?
(3) The concentration of reactants at the active
(1) 0.965 second (2) 0.663 second centres becomes high due to adsorption
(3) 0.965 minute (4) 0.663 minute (4) The activation energy of the reaction becomes
60. The reaction occurring at the cathode during high due to adsorption
charging of lead storage battery is
65. The volume of gases H 2 , CH 4, CO 2 and NH 3
(1) Pb2+ + 2e–  Pb adsorbed by 1 g of adsorbent at 288 K are in the
(2) Pb2+ + SO42–  PbSO4 order

(3) Pb  Pb2+ + 2e– (1) H2 > CH4 > CO2 > NH3
(4) PbSO4 + 2H2O  2PbO2 + 4H+ + SO42– + 2e– (2) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > H2

61. Given the following information, rank the ‘activity’ of (3) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4
the metals as reducing agents. Cr reacts with NiBr2 (4) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2
and CdBr2, but not with ZnBr2. Cd reacts with NiBr2 66. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric chloride.
but not with ZnBr2 or CrBr3. This is because

(1) Zn > Cr > Cd > Ni (1) The blood starts flowing in opposite direction
(2) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel
(2) Ni > Cr > Cd > Zn
(3) The blood reacts and forms a solid which seals
(3) Zn > Cr > Ni > Cd the blood vessel

(4) Zn > Cd > Cr > Ni (4) The blood is coagulated and thus the blood
vessel is sealed

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

67. Gold number is a measure of the 2

c m
2
(1) Protective action by a lyophilic colloidal on c
(1) 2 
(2) m m 
lyophobic colloid 1     1  o 
 m 
(2) Protective action by a lyophobic colloid on
2
lyophilic colloid c m
(3) o o   (4) All of these
(3) Number of milligram of gold in a standard red
m m  m 
gold solution 73. In the equation m  m o
 Ac1/2 , the constant ‘A’’
(4) Number of millimoles of lyophilic solution depends on
(1) Nature of solvent (2) Temperature
68. The possible distance between two tetrahedral voids (3) Type of electrolyte (4) All of these
in CCP unit cell is 74. In the electrochemical cell,
a 3a Cd + Sn+4  Cd+2 + Sn+2
(1) (2) Increase in the concentration of Sn+2
2 2
(1) Increasing the emf of cell
a (2) Decreasing the emf of cell
(3) (4) All of these (3) No change in emf of cell
2
(4) Unpredictable
69. Choose the incorrect match
75. The degree of dissociation of first order reaction is
given by
(1) 1 + e–kt (2) e–kt
–kt
(3) 1 – e (4) ekt
76. The “collodion” solution is
(1) 4% solution of picric acid in ether
(2) 4% solution of starch in alcohol
(3) 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of
alcohol and ether
(1) Freezing point of pure solvent : TQ (4) 4% solution of As2S3 in dilute HCl
(2) Boiling point of pure solvent : TR 77. Which of the following is not a colloidal solution?
(3) Elevation in boiling point : TS– TR (1) Froth (2) Butter
(4) Depression in freezing point : TR – TP (3) Pumice stone (4) Mixture of gases
70. An electrolyte AB undergoes 50% dissociation and 78. In Fe0.93O, the percentage of Fe+3 by number is nearly
50% dimerisation in solution then van’t Hoff factor (i) (1) 15% (2) 10%
would be (3) 20% (4) 25%
(1) 1.25 (2) 1 79. Which of the following is a molecular solid?
(3) 0.90 (4) 1.50 (1) SiC (2) Diamond
71. If ‘i’ is van’t Hoff factor and m is the number of solute (3) AlN (4) I2
particles obtained after the dissociation of 1 molecule 80. The point defect which is shown by AgBr(s) crystals
then degree of dissociation () is given by is/are
(1) Metal excess defect (2) Frenkel defect
i1 (3) Schottky defect (4) Both (2) & (3)
i 1
(1) 1  1 (2) 81. Which of the following graph is correct for an ideal
m m 1 binary liquid solution containing nonvolatile solute?

i1 i 1
(3) (4)
m 1 m 1
72. The degree of dissociation  can be approximated to
the ratio of molar conductivity m at the concentration
Total V.P.
m
c to the limiting molar conductivity om as   o . (1)
m
The dissociation constant for acetic acid can be XA=1 X A=0
represented as XB=0 X B=1

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
86. Consider the f ollowing statements regarding
electrochemical cell
Zn(s)|Zn2(+)(aq) || Cu2(+)(aq)|Cu(s)
I. Electrons move from Zn to Cu
Total V.P.
II. Concentration of Zn2(+) will increase and that of
Cu2(+) will decrease when cell operates
(2)
III. When cell becomes dead, Eocell  0 Choose the
XA=1 XA=0
correct statement(s)
XB=0 XB=1
(1) I, II & III (2) I & III
(3) I & II (4) II & III
87. Match column I to column II
Column-I Column II
Total V.P. a. Osmosis (i) Movement of dispersed
phase particles
towards opposit ely
(3)
charged electrode
XA=1 XA=0 b. Dialysis (ii) Movement of solvent
XB=0 XB=1 particles through SPM
(4) All are correct towards concentrated
solution side
c. Electrophoresis (iii) Colloidal sol formation
d. Peptisation (iv) Purification of colloids
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
82.
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
88. Consider the following EMF diagram for Fe,
Which of the following is correct about van’t Hoff factor
FeO 4    Fe     Fe  
2  2.20V 3  0.77V 2 
of A, B & C?
(1) iA > iB > iC (2) iA < iB < iC o
(3) iA > iB < iC (4) iA = iB = iC the value for EFeO 24  /Fe2   will be
83. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl using Pt (1) 7.37 V (2) 3.685 V
electrode (3) 2.456 V (4) 1.843 V
(1) pH of the solution will decrease
89. Consider the following graph
(2) pH of the solution will increase
(3) pH of the solution will remain constant
(4) pH of solution may increase or decrease
84. Which of the following is intensive property?
(1) Ecell (2) Eocell
(3) Molarity (4) All of these
85. Which of the following graph is correct for Freundlich
adsorption isotherm?

Choose the incorrect statement(s)

(1) Reaction is exothermic in forward direction i.e.,
H = –ve
(1) (2) (2) Activation energy for forward reaction is x – y
(3) Using catalyst will decrease H value of the re-
action
(4) All of these
90. If r is the radius of tetrahedral void and R is the radius
of sphere forming ccp, then which of the following
relation is correct considering that the ccp structure
(3) (4) is not disrupted?
(1) r = 0.414R (2) r = 0.314R
(3) r = 0.732R (4) r = 0.225R
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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Examine the figure given below and select the part 95. Match the column I with column II
correctly matched with its function/structure Column I Column II
(D) (C) a. Lysosomes (i) Cell inclusions
b. Transosomes (ii) Carotenoids
c. Raphides and cystolith (iii) Triple membrane
bound organelle
d. Chromoplast (iv) Cathepsin
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(A) 96. Disc-shaped structures present on the sides of
centromeres in the chromosomes are called
(1) Satellite (2) Chromatin
(B)
(3) NOR (4) Kinetochores
(1) Part (A) : Ribosome-made up of 30S and 50S
subunits 97. M phase starts with the nuclear div ision,
corresponding to the separation of daughter
(2) Part (C) : RER - principally performs the function chromosomes and usually ends with
of packaging materials
(1) Division of cytoplasm
(3) Part (D) : Nuclear pore - passage through which
movement of RNA takes place in one (2) Telophase
direction only (3) G2 phase
(4) Part (B) : SER - synthesis of steroidal hormones (4) Karyokinesis
92. In plasma membrane, quasi-fluid nature of lipid 98. Stage between the meiosis-I and meiosis-II is
(1) Enables flip-flop movement of proteins (1) Characterised by polymerisation of nucleotides
(2) Is essential for endocytosis only
(2) Short lived than preparatory phase of cell cycle
(3) Enables lateral movement of proteins
(3) Called karyokinesis
(4) Enables flip-flop as well as lateral movements of
proteins (4) Characterised by DNA as well as centriole
93. Which of the following combination is correct? duplication
(1) Xenobiotics – Rough endoplasmic 99. If at the end of meiosis each daughter cell has four
reticulum chromosomes, how many chromosomes would a
(2) Plasma membrane – 52% lipid diploid cell have in G1 phase of cell cycle?
of RBC (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) Mitochondria – Protein synthesis (3) 8 (4) 16
(4) Glyoxysomes – Photorespiration 100. Primary oocyte of the human being contains
94. Which of the following statement for eukaryotic (1) As many chromosomes as sperms
flagellum is correct?
(2) Haploid set of chromosomes
(1) Basal body has nine pairs of doublets of radially
(3) As many chromosomes as ovum
arranged peripheral microtubules
(4) Diploid set of chromosomes
(2) It emerge from a centriole like structure called
101. Which of the following stage is recognised by the
axoneme
dissolution of synaptonemal complex, so the
(3) In axoneme, central tubules are connected by recombined homologous chromosomes will start
bridge separating?
(4) It has a number of microfibrils running parallel to (1) Metaphase II (2) Diakinesis
the long axis (3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

102. Read the following statements (a-c) carefully and find
out the option (1-4) representing the correct
sequence of events in amitotic division.
a. A constriction appears in the cytoplasm.
b. Nucleus of the cell elongates.
(3) Cambium strips develop from pericycle opposite
to protoxylem
(4) A wavy ring of cambium develops
107. a. Annual rings are bands of secondary phloem
and medullary rays.

c. A constriction appears in the nucleus which b. Wood of Cycas has vessels.

gradually deepens and divides the nucleus into c. Conjoint vascular bundles are found in leaves of
two daughter nuclei. sunflower and maize.
(1) c a b (2) b a c Which of above statement(s) is/are correct?
(3) b c a (4) a c b (1) a and b are correct (2) b and c are correct
103. Mark the correct statement (with respect to lateral (3) Only a is correct (4) Only c is correct
meristem) 108. Choose the correct statement
(1) Secondary meristem producing primary (1) Annual rings are formed by the activity of cork
permanent tissues cambium
(2) Intercalary meristem producing secondary (2) Fibres are abundant in secondary xylem and
permanent tissues protophloem
(3) Cylindrical meristem producing the secondary (3) Primary xylem does not show distinction into
tissues protoxylem and metaxylem
(4) Promeristem producing secondary permanent (4) At certain regions, the cork cambium cuts off
tissues parenchymatous cells on the outer side instead
of phellem
104. Match the column I with column II
109. Which of the following is correct statement for
Column I Column II intercalary meristems?
a. Xylem parenchyma (i) Absent in most of the
(1) They lie at tip of root apex
monocots
(2) They lie at base of stem always
b. Sclereids (ii) Long cylindrical tube-
like structure (3) They are short lived and consumed during
primary growth
c. Phloem parenchyma (iii) Food and tannins
d. Vessel (iv) Fruit walls of nuts (4) They are long lived and cause increase in length

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) 110. Girdling experiment cannot be perf ormed in
sugarcane plant because
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Its stem is thin
105. In monocot leaf, mesophyll tissue
(2) Its vascular bundles are arranged in scattered
(1) Is differentiated into palisade and spongy manner
parenchyma
(3) Its stem surface is coated with wax
(2) Is not differentiated into palisade and spongy
parenchyma (4) Phloem is surrounded on all sides by xylem
(3) Possesses some bulliform cells 111. Match the column I with column II
(4) Is made up of parenchyma cells which lack Column I Column II
chloroplasts a. Papain (i) Betula
106. Which of the following occurs first during secondary b. Diffuse porous wood (ii) Quercus
growth in dicot root?
c. Lithocysts (iii) Carica papaya
(1) Primary meristem becomes active present below
phloem d. Ring porous wood (iv) Ficus leaf
(2) Cambium strips are formed secondarily from (1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
conjunctive tissue lying just below each phloem (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
strand

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

112. Match the following a. A – Cellulose, lignin, hemicellulose thickening.

Column I Column II b. Occurs in layers below the epidermis in
a. G1 phase (i) Longest phase of cell cycle dicotyledonous plants

b. M phase (ii) Synthesis of histone proteins c. Simple permanent tissue

c. S-phase (iii) Cell quiescence d. May contain plastids.
d. G0 phase (iv) Nuclear division e. Dead mechanical tissue.
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (3) a, d and e (4) a, c, d and e
113. Choose the correct option for given diagram
117. In the vicinity of the guard cells few epidermal cells
are specialised in their
(1) Shape and size
(2) Shape and colour
(3) Size and thickening
(4) Colour and secretion
(1) A – Meristematic tissue
118. Choose odd one with respect to innermost layer of
B – Differentiating tissue
cortex in dicot root
(2) A – Shoot apical meristem
B – Axillary bud (1) Single layered
(3) C – Reproductive bud (2) Possesses barrel shaped cells
B – Leaf primordia
(3) Presence of differential thickening
(4) B – Differentiating vascular tissue
A – Root apical meristem (4) Presence of intercellular spaces
114. How many from the given components are associated 119. Choose correct sequence of layers/tissue from outer
with gymnosperm and angiosperm respectively? to towards the inner side in T.S. of dicot stem.
Tracheids, Sieve tube, Sieve cells, Companion (1) Endodermis  Pericycle  Starch sheath
cells, Albuminous cells
(2) Starch sheath  Pericycle  Vascular bundles
(1) 2, 6 (2) 4, 3
(3) Hypodermis  Pericycle  Starch sheath
(3) 3, 3 (4) 6, 2
(4) Cortex  Pith  Vascular bundles
115. Choose the correct position of sclereids in the
120. Activity of cambium is controlled by
sapota, tea, pea, almond respectively.
(1) Physiological and environmental factors
(1) Pulp, leaves, fruit wall, seed coat
(2) Hormonal and external factors
(2) Pericarp, leaves, pulp, fruit wall
(3) Internal and external factors
(3) Pulp, leaves, seed coat, fruit wall
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) Seed coat, leaves, pulp, pericarp
121. During secondary growth in dicot root some part of
116. For the given tissue, choose correct option
vascular cambium originates from the tissue
located_______ the phloem and a portion of
pericycle tissue _____ the protoxylem.
(1) Above, below (2) Below, above
(3) Below, below (4) Above, above

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

122. How many parts are there in bacterial flagellum and (1) A– Central sheath
amongst these, which is the longest portion
C– Intertriplet bridge
respectively?
(2) B– Plasma membrane
(1) Two, hook (2) Two, filament
D– Central microtubule
(3) Three, filament (4) Three, hook
(3) E– Radial spoke
123. Gas vacuole is present in
D– Incomplete microfilament
(1) Blue green algae
(4) B– Central sheath
(2) Purple photosynthetic bacteria
C– Interdoublet bridge
(3) Green photosynthetic bacteria
128. ER  A  Lysosome
(4) More than one option is correct
In the above given schematic representation of
124. Which of the following component of Gram negative
endomembrane system, choose the correct function
bacteria is structurally similar to plants?
associated with organelle labelled as ‘A’.
(1) Cell wall
(1) Post transcription RNA processing
(2) Capsule
(2) Glycosidation of protein
(3) Plastids
(3) Post translation protein modification
(4) Plasma membrane
(4) Glycosylation of lipids
125. Protein synthesised by RER is
129. Which of the following feature is not associated with
(1) Released in luminal compartment centrosome?
(2) Modified in intercellular spaces (1) Pericentriolar material
(3) Secreted without any modification (2) Two cylindrical structures
(4) Processed in lysosome and centrioles (3) Two centriole
126. How many of the given features are associated with (4) Lipid bilayer covering
mitochondria?
130. One very short (p) arm and one very long (q) arm is
found in _______ chromosome.
70S ribosome, divide by multiple fission, Outer (1) Submetacentric (2) Metacentric
and inner membranes have their own specific
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
enzymes, enzymes for protein synthesis, single
circular DNA molecule. 131. Interphase nucleus possesses
(1) Condensed chromatin, nucleolus, nuclear matrix,
(1) Five (2) Three centrioles

(3) Four (4) Two (2) Elaborate nucleoprotein fibres, sub-spherical

nucleoli, stroma
127. Choose the correct labelling for given diagram
(3) Extended nucleoprotein fibre, nucleolus, nuclear
matrix
(4) Condensed chromatin, sub-spherical nucleoli,
matrix

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

132. Choose correct option for the stroma (A) and Choose the option which is correct for the layers
thylakoid (B) labelled as A, B, C, D and E

(1) A–Light reaction (1) A – Serosa

B–Dark reaction B – Longitudinal muscle layer

(2) A–Carbohydrate synthesis C – Circular muscle layer

D – Mucosa
B–Dark reaction
E – Submucosa
(3) A–Protein synthesis
(2) A – Mucosa
B–Light reaction
B – Circular muscle layer
(4) A–Dark reaction
C – Longitudinal muscle layer
B–Protein synthesis
D – Submucosa
133. Food vacuole is formed by fusion of
E – Serosa
(1) Phagosome + Lysosome
(3) A – Serosa
(2) Food vesicle + Ribosome
B – Circular muscle layer
(3) Phagosome + Centrosome
C – Longitudinal muscle layer
(4) Food vesicle + Sphaerosome
D – Submucosa
134. During cell cycle the interval between mitosis and
E – Mucosa
initiation of DNA replication:
(4) A – Serosa
a. Is metabolically active
B – Longitudinal muscle layer
b. Involves cell growth
C – Circular muscle layer
c. Involves centriole duplication
D – Submucosa
d. Involves chromosome replication
E – Mucosa
Choose the correct option
137. All of the following hormones are secreted by
(1) a and b (2) a and c duodenum except
(3) b and c (4) c and d (1) Gastrin (2) Secretin
135. Choose incorrect option with respect to cell cycle (3) GIP (4) Duocrinin
(1) Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase 138. Find the incorrect match with respect to
occurs continuously composition of digestive juices
(2) DNA synthesis occurs during specific stage (1) Gastric juice – Pepsin, erepsin, gastric
(3) Events are not under genetic control lipase
(4) Cell duplicates its genome once (2) Pancreatic juice – Trypsin,
136. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of carboxypeptidases,
transverse section of gut ribonuclease
(3) Succus entericus – Enterokinase, dipeptidase,
A sucrase
(4) Saliva – Lingual lipase, -amylase
C
B 139. Which of the following is not related to Marasmus?
D
E (1) Subcutaneous fat is not preserved
(2) Oedema is absent
(3) Ribs become very prominent
(4) Enlarged fatty liver

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
140. Find the incorrect statement with respect to 145. Given below are the partial pressures (in mmHg) of
saliva/salivary glands oxygen and carbondioxide at different parts involved
(1) Thiocyanate in saliva is antimicrobial in diffusion in comparison to those in atmosphere.
Respiratory Atmospheric Alveoli Body Blood Tissues
(2) Mumps is a viral infection of parotid salivary gas air (deoxyge- (Oxygenated)
glands nated)

(3) Submandibular or submaxillary salivary glands O2 159 B 40 D 40

secrete maximum amount of saliva and provide CO 2 A 40 C 40 45
their secretion by means of Wharton’s duct
Choose the correct option with respect to the values
(4) Secretion of saliva is increased by sympathetic
of partial pressures (in mmHg) marked as A, B, C
nervous system
and D
141. Which of the following functions as true stomach in A B C D
ruminants?
(1) 0.3 104 40 52
(1) Abomasum (2) Rumen
(2) 32 116 45 45
(3) Omasum (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 0.3 104 45 95
142. Consider the following
(4) 32 116 45 95
a. Trypsin
146. Which of the following is an unpaired cartilage of the
b. Carboxypeptidase human larynx?
c. Steapsin (1) Cartilage of santorini
d. Amylopsin (2) Cricoid cartilage
The enzyme/s not initially secreted as zymogen (3) Corniculate cartilage
is/are
(4) Cuneiform cartilage
(1) a only (2) a and b
147. Normal expiration involves
(3) c and d (4) d only
(1) Contraction of diaphragm
143. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
(2) Contraction of abdominal muscles
Emphysema
(3) Relaxation of phrenic muscles
(1) It is a chronic obstructive disease of lungs,
causing irreversible, distension and loss of (4) Contraction of external intercostal muscles
elasticity of alveoli 148. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at
the level of
(2) The alveolar sac remains filled with air even after
expiration (1) 2nd thoracic vertebrae
(3) Bronchodilators, antibiotics and oxygen therapy (2) 5th thoracic vertebrae
are used to treat emphysema. It can be cured (3) 7th thoracic vertebrae
permanently
(4) 10th thoracic vertebrae
(4) Conditions of emphysema are mainly due to 149. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
cigarette smoking Lymph
144. The epithelial lining of alveoli consist of two types of (1) It has more amount of CO2 and wastes as that
cells called as pneumocyte type - I and pneumocyte
in plasma
type - II. Type II pneumocytes
(2) It is a colourless fluid containing abundant
(1) Are columnar epithelial cells
lymphocytes which are responsible for immune
(2) Form the site of gaseous exchange between responses of the body
alveolus and blood
(3) It lacks proteins and RBCs
(3) Constitute about 95% of total number of cells
(4) Like blood, lymph can also clot but slowly
(4) Secrete alveolar fluid and surfactant

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
150. During each cardiac cycle, the SAN generates d. Nucleic acid Nucleases
Nucleotides
action potential which stimulates both atria to
undergo simultaneous contraction. The atrial systole Choose the correct option
increases the flow of blood into the ventricle by about (1) a only (2) a and b only
(1) 60% (2) 30% (3) a, b and c only (4) a, b, c and d
(3) 40% (4) 75% 154. Which gastric gland cells in humans produce factor
151. ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical essential for absorption of B12?
activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. Mark the (1) Peptic cells (2) Mucus neck cells
correct statement regarding specific electrical
activity of the heart (3) Oxyntic cells (4) Chief cells

(1) The contraction of the ventricles start shortly 155. Blood enters into liver through two sources. Which
after S-wave source supplies nutrient rich but deoxygenated blood
from intestine to liver before it is delivered to the
(2) The end of the T-wave marks the end of systemic circulation?
ventricular systole
(1) Hepatic artery (2) Hepatic vein
(3) QRS complex represents the return of ventricles
from excited to normal state (3) Hepatic portal vein (4) Mesenteric artery
156. If the incision is done in the small intestine in which
(4) T-wave represents repolarisation of atria order would the physician encounter the layers from
152. Read the following statements having four blanks A, outside to inside?
B, C and D. a. Mucosa
b. Submucosa
During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out
c. Serosa
approximately A of blood which is called as d. Muscularis externa
B . The first heart sound (lubb) is associated e. Muscularis mucosa
with the closure of C , whereas, the second (1) a - e - b - d - c (2) a - b - d - e - c
heart sound ‘dup’, is associated with closure of (3) c - d - b - e - a (4) b - a - e - d - c
157. Which duodenal glands or cell secretion neutralise
D . gastric acid and protects the lining of the
The correct option for blanks A, B, C and D is duodenum?
A B C D (1) Brunners gland (2) Parietal cells
(3) Paneth cell (4) Oxyntic cells
(1) 5 litres Cardiac AV valves Semilunar
158. W hen there is abnormal f requency of bowel
output valves
mov ement and increased liquidity of f aecal
(2) 5 litres Cardiac Semilunar AV v alv es discharge, reducing the absorption of food it is called
output valves as
(3) 70 ml Stroke Tricuspid Semilunar (1) Diarrhoea (2) Constipation
volume and bicuspid valves (3) Indigestion (4) Vomiting
valves 159. Chymotrypsinogen of pancreatic juice is activated to
(4) 70 ml Cardiac AV Semilunar chymotrypsin by
output valves valves (1) HCl (2) Enterokinase
153. Which of the following reaction/s is/are catalysed by (3) Trypsin (4) Enterocrinin
brush border enzymes? 160. Bohr’s effect promotes ___X___ and Haldane effect
Maltase
__Y___
a. Maltose Glucose + Glucose
(1) X – O2 dissociation Y – CO2 dissociation
Nucleosidases
b. Nucleosides Sugar + Bases (2) X – O2 association Y – CO2 dissociation
c. Amylase (3) X – CO2 association Y – CO2 dissociation
Starch Disaccharides
(4) X – CO2 dissociation Y – O2 dissociation

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
161. Following is the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation 165. During expiration, how many barriers CO2 cross in
curve. Mark the conditions in which that curve will the course of journey from capillaries to alveoli?
shift from A to B. (1) One (2) Two
Percentage saturation of haemoglobin (3) Three (4) Six
166. Occupational lung disease is characterised by
(1) Collapsing of alveoli
(2) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in the upper part of
lungs
(3) Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity
(4) Excessive secretion of mucus in alveoli
167. Which chamber of heart has thickest wall?
Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg) (1) Right atrium (2) Left atrium
a. Increase in BPG. (3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle
b. Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide. 168. If the blood flow in the wall of heart is inadequate
due to obstruction of coronary artery. In ECG the ST
c. Low temperature. segment is depressed which disorder is the person
is suffering from
d. Increase in pH, blood becomes more alkaline.
(1) Myocardial ischaemia
(1) a, b (2) b, c (2) Angina pectoris
(3) c, d (4) a, d (3) Heart failure
162. Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the alveoli and tissues (4) Myocardial infraction
occur by diffusion. Rate of diffusion is dependent on 169. Which of the following are thread like tendons of
a. The partial pressure gradients of O2 (pO2) and papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid
and bicuspid valve?
CO2 (pCO2).
(1) Trabeculae carneae
b. Solubility of gases.
(2) Columnae carneae
c. Thickness of the diffusion surface.
(3) Chordae tendinae
Choose the correct option (4) Moderator band
(1) a only (2) a and b 170. In a normal ECG, wav es of def lection are
represented by symbol PQRST. Which of these
(3) b only (4) a, b and c waves have tallest upward deflection?
163. Which centre of respiration is primarily meant to (1) P wave (2) Q wave
limit inspiration and can moderate the functions of
(3) T wave (4) R wave
the respiratory rhythm centre?
171. In double circulation, there is a complete separation
(1) Apneustic centre of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. In this case
part of blood enters to lungs for oxygenation. Blood
(2) Pneumotaxic centre will return to heart from lungs in
(3) Dorsal respiratory group (1) Right ventricle (2) Left ventricle
(4) Ventral respiratory group (3) Right auricle (4) Left atrium
164. In which of the following disease, alveolar walls are 172. Which of the following statement is correct ?
damaged alveoli remain filled with air even after (1) Sinoatrial node is known as heart of heart
expiration and there is no permanent cure for the
(2) The disorder in the SA node is known as Stokes
disease? - Adam syndrome
(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema (3) The purkinje fibres have highest resting potential
(3) Pneumonia (4) Bronchitis (4) The fall in the blood pressure causes stroke

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-A All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
173. The intrapulmonary pressure becomes negative with (3) Volume of thorax is increased
respect to atmospheric pressure during
(4) Ribs and sternum are raised
(1) Normal quiet inspiration only
177. In the following table of secretory products of the
(2) Normal quiet expiration only stomach, choose the incorrect option.
(3) Normal quiet inspiration and forced inspiration
(4) Forced inspiration and expiration
174. If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your
left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass
through all of the following, except
a. The pulmonary vein
b. An alveolus
c. The right atrium
d. The right ventricle
e. The trachea
(1) a and d (2) c and d 178. Which of the following is not a matching pair?
(3) Only a (4) Only b (1) Kupffer cells – Phagocytic cells in liver
175. The air from outside moves into the lungs when (2) Peyer’s patches – Lymphoid tissue in ileum
(1) Pulmonary volume decreases and intrapulmonary (3) Haustra – Outpouchings in wall of
pressure increases colon
(2) Pulmonary volume increases and intrapulmonary
pressure decreases (4) Villi – Present in colon
to maximise absorption of
(3) Diaphragm becomes more arched due to water, minerals and
relaxation of phrenic muscles
vitamins
(4) Ribs and sternum move downward and inward
179. The upper surf ace of the tongue has small
176. Which of the following statements is true regarding projections called papillae which bear taste buds.
the given figure?
Which of the following taste papillae are largest in
size and present on the posterior side of tongue?
(1) Foliate (2) Fungiform
(3) Vallate (4) Filiform
180. Choose the set of enzymes which are functional in
alkaline medium?
(1) Lipase, aminopeptidase, rennin
(2) Ptyalin, pepsin, trypsin
(3) Amylopsin, lipase, carboxypeptidase
(4) DNase, rennin, chymotrypsin
(1) Diaphragm is contracted
(2) Diaphragm is relaxed

  

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 ANSWERS OF AIATS PRACTICE PAPER - 3
2015
CODE-A
1. (1) 37. (3) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (4) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (3) 39. (2) 75. (3) 111. (4) 147. (3)
4. (4) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (4) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (4) 45. (1) 81. (3) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (4) 154. (3)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (4) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (4) 121. (2) 157. (1)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (1)
15. (1) 51. (1) 87. (2) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (4) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (4) 125. (1) 161. (1)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (4) 126. (3) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (4) 127. (4) 163. (2)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (3) 164. (2)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (3)
22. (1) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (3) 59. (1) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (4) 132. (3) 168. (1)
25. (1) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (1) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (2) 134. (1) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (1) 100. (4) 136. (4) 172. (1)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (3) 66. (4) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (3)
31. (1) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (4) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (2) 141. (1) 177. (4)
34. (1) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (4) 107. (4) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (4) 108. (4) 144. (4) 180. (3)