BIO149 FINAL EXAM Set A

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Hardening of the arteries is also known as

a. atherosclerosis. b. apoptosis. c. abuildosis. d. keritosis. e. all of these.
2. Hydrogenation is a chemical process that
a. turns DNA into lipids. b. turns liquid oil to solid fats. c. turns amino acids into proteins. d. creates stable alternative
energy sources. e. does none of these.
3. Typical fat molecules have ____ tail(s).
a. 1 b. 5 c. 3 d. 2 e. 4
4. A hydrolysis reaction results in
a. bond breakage of a macromolecule. b. formation of a macromolecule. c. nucleic acids being made. d. most
macromolecules. e. lipid molecule creation.

5. The figure above illustrates a ____ reaction that produces two _____ and a ____.
a. condensation; water molecules; polymer b. cleavage; water molecules; monomer c. rearrangement; hydrogen ions;
polymer d. rearrangement; water molecules; polymer e. condensation; hydroxyls; polymer
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the five categories of enzyme catalyzed reactions?
a. functional group transfer b. cleavage c. neutralization d. electron transfer e. condensation
7. Which substances are the most plentiful biological molecules in the biosphere?
a. carbohydrates b. fats c. salts and minerals d. proteins e. nucleic acids
8. The most plentiful sugar in nature is
a. lactose. b. fructose. c. glucose. d. maltose. e. sucrose.
9. Glucose and sugars in DNA and RNA
a. are both components of RNA. b. have the same structural formulas. c. are monosaccharides. d. are the two components
of sucrose. e. have the same number of carbon atoms.
10. Sugars are characterized by all EXCEPT which one of the following functional groups?
a. aldehyde b. ketone c. methyl d. hydroxyl e. carbonyl
11. Which of these components of a tossed salad will pass through the human digestive tract with the least digestion?
a. protein (in the bacon bits) b. cellulose (in the lettuce leaves) c. sugar (in the dressing) d. oil (in the dressing) e. starch
(in the croutons)
12. Chitin is a polysaccharide with ____ atoms attached to the glucose backbone.
a. magnesium b. phosphorus c. potassium d. sulfur e. nitrogen
13. Which of the following does not belong?
a. polysaccharides b. steroids c. phospholipids d. unsaturated fats e. saturated fats
14. In the figure above, the object on which the bee is standing, has a majority of which of the following:
a. amino acids b. carbohydrates c. proteins d. nucleotides e. lipids
15. Like other animals, penguins of the north can keep warm because of layers and patches of ____ in their bodies.
a. phospholipids b. proteins c. sterols d. carbohydrates e. adipose tissue
16. The sixth amino acid in normal hemoglobin is glutamate, but it is replaced by ____ in sickle-cell anemia.
a. threonine b. valine c. proline d. leucine e. histidine
17. Denaturation of proteins may result in all of the following EXCEPT
a. alteration of enzyme activity. b. loss of three-dimensional structure. c. removal of R groups from amino acids.
d. endangerment of a cell's life. e. breakage of hydrogen bonds.
18. Which of the following is NOT found in every nucleotide?
a. a phosphate group b. a single-ring base c. ribose d. a double-ring base e. nitrogen
19. The first cell seen by Robert Hooke using a microscope was a
a. bacterial cell. b. protist cell. c. cork cell. d. sperm cell. e. cell from an insect's eye.
20. One generalization of the cell theory is that
a. cells can arise from nonliving matter. b. all cells have a nucleus. c. the cell is the smallest unit that displays the properties
of life. d. all cells have cell walls. e. all cells are microscopic.
21. Which of the following is(are) an example(s) of prokaryotes?
a. all bacteria b. all protists c. all algae d. some fungi e. all of these
22. The genetic material of prokaryotes is
a. linear. b. circular. c. single-stranded DNA. d. RNA. e. protected within a double-membrane structure.
23. Which is the correct sequence of polypeptide transport in the secretory pathway?
a. ribosome >>> Golgi bodies >>> ER >>> plasma membrane b. ribosome >>> ER >>> Golgi bodies >>> plasma membrane
c. plasma membrane >>> Golgi bodies >>> ER >>> ribosome d. plasma membrane >>> ER >>> Golgi bodies >>> ribosome
e. Golgi bodies >>> ribosomes >>> ER >>> plasma membrane
24. Which of the following organelles is correctly matched with its function?
a. nucleus; protein synthesis b. Golgi bodies; packaging c. chloroplasts; storage of lipids d. ER; heredity
e. mitochondria; digestion
25. Which of the following terms do NOT at some point characterize eukaryotic chromosomes?
a. condensed b. grainy c. rod-like d. duplicated e. circular
26. The system of tubes and sacs that makes enzymes, proteins, and lipids is(are) the
a. endoplasmic reticulum. b. ribosomes. c. lysosomes. d. Golgi bodies. e. vesicles.
27. Which of the following contain enzymes, are the main organelles of intracellular digestion, and can digest whole cells?
a. peroxisomes b. vesicles c. endoplasmic reticula d. lysosomes e. Golgi bodies
28. The activity of which organelles helps keep the ingestion of all but excessive amounts of ethyl alcohol from being fatal?
a. mitochondria b. peroxisomes c. vesicles d. Golgi bodies e. lysosomes
29. Which of the following are the primary cellular sites for the capture of energy from carbohydrates?
a. ribosomes b. Golgi bodies c. endoplasmic reticula d. mitochondria e. lysosomes
30. Energy stored in which of the following substances is converted by mitochondria to a form usable by the cell?
 a. ATP b. NAD+ c. carbon dioxide d. organic compounds e. water
31. The mitochondrion harnesses the energy of the flow of ____ from its ____ compartment to its ____ compartment to generate
ATP.
a. H2O2; outer; inner b. CO2; outer; inner c. CO2; inner; outer d. H+; inner; outer e. H+; outer; inner
32. Cystic fibrosis
a. causes low grade bacterial infections in the lungs to persist for years. b. is characterized by inadequate chloride and water
movement across epithelial cells. c. is a common, fatal genetic disorder. d. results from a mutation in a specific membrane
transport protein. e. is all of these.
33. The phospholipid molecule represented in the figure above
a. does not contain a phospholipid. b. contains only a hydrophilic segment. c. has a hydrophilic head labeled A and a
hydrophobic tail labeled B. d. contains only a hydrophobic segment. e. has a hydrophobic head labeled B and a hydrophilic
tail labeled A.
34. The relative impermeability of membranes to water-soluble molecules is a result of the
a. presence of cutin and lignin in the membranes. b. presence of large integral membrane proteins. c. nonpolar nature of
water molecules. d. presence of inorganic salt crystals scattered through some membranes. e. presence of phospholipids in
the lipid bilayer.
35. In an attempt to visualize the fluid mosaic model of a membrane, we could describe the ____ as floating in a sea of ____.
a. glycolipids; sterols. b. lipid; protein. c. phospholipids; carbohydrate. d. proteins; lipid. e. fats; water.
36. A transport protein is most analogous to a
a. light switch. b. subway train. c. voice identification device. d. television receiver. e. water pipe.
37. The rate of diffusion through a selectively permeable membrane will be lowest when which of the following is(are) true?
I. Concentration gradients are steep.
II. Temperatures are low.
III. Solutes are small molecules.

a. II and III b. I only c. I and III d. I, II, and III e. II only

38. Oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other small nonpolar molecules cross the plasma membrane through the process(es) of
a. endocytosis and exocytosis. b. facilitated diffusion. c. diffusion. d. osmosis. e. active transport.

39. Which of these three mechanisms illustrates facilitated diffusion?

a. A b. B c. C d. both A and B e. none of these

40. This illustration shows the mechanism of

a. bulk flow. b. simple diffusion. c. facilitated diffusion. d. an active transporter. e. endocytosis.
41. The carrier molecules used in active transport are
a. ATP molecules. b. carbohydrates. c. lipids. d. calcium ions in the calcium pump. e. proteins.
42. The action of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is
 a. phagocytosis. b. pinocytosis. c. endocytosis. d. exocytosis. e. phagocytosis and endocytosis.
43. Which statement is true?
a. The concentration of the solute is greater in an isotonic solution than in a hypertonic solution. b. The concentration of the
solvent is greater in a hypertonic solution than in an isotonic solution. c. The movement of solvent occurs from a hypotonic
solution to an isotonic solution. d. The net movement from an isotonic to a hypotonic solution involves the movement of
solute molecules only. e. Osmosis involves only hypertonic solutions.
44. The enzyme responsible for breaking down alcohol is
a. hydroxyl alcoholgenase. b. alcohol dehydrogenase. c. transmethylogenase. d. alcohol methylase. e. alcohol
polyphosphorylase.
45. The second law of thermodynamics holds that
a. energy of one form is converted to a less concentrated form whenever energy is transformed or transferred. b. energy can be
neither created nor destroyed. c. entropy decreases with time. d. matter can be neither created nor destroyed. e. none of
these is true.
46. The most common form of low-quality energy released in energy conversions is
a. metabolic. b. electricity. c. heat. d. light. e. entropy.
47. CO2 and H2O will not form glucose on their own because
a. neither CO2 nor H2O contain sufficient energy. b. H2O does not contain sufficient energy. c. the bonds of CO2 and H2O
are too stable to be broken without an input of energy. d. the concentration of CO2 is too low in the atmosphere. e. CO2 does
not contain sufficient energy.
48. ATP contains
a. alanine. b. arginine. c. glucose. d. ribose. e. tyrosine.
49. Enzyme activity may be affected by
a. metabolic conditions in the cell. b. feedback inhibition. c. the presence of chemicals that fit into allosteric sites.
d. temperature. e. all of these.
50. Which of the following are accessory pigments in plant photosynthesis?
a. carotenoids b. anthocyanins c. chlorophyll b d. xanthophylls e. all of these
51. Photosystems are mainly
a. enzymes for splitting water. b. electron transport systems. c. sugar assembly sites. d. light-trapping molecules.
e. clusters of ATP molecules.
52. An important electron and hydrogen acceptor in the noncyclic pathway is
a. H2O. b. glucose. c. ADP. d. O2. e. NADP+.
53. The aerobic respiration process ends in what area of the eukaryotic cell?
a. photosynthetic b. the Krebs cycle c. cytoplasm d. mitochondria e. gap junction
54. During the third stage of aerobic respiration, electrons and hydrogen ions released by the reactions of the first two stages are
picked up by
a. NAD and FAD. b. iron and glucose. c. none of these. d. photosynthetic enzymes and ATP. e. CO2 and H2O
55. Aerobes use ____ as the final electron acceptor.
a. NAD+ b. oxygen c. hydrogen d. carbon e. H2O
56. Which of the following has the greatest total energy?
a. NADPH b. glucose c. ATP d. cAMP e. ADP
57. The correct operational sequence of the three processes listed below is
I. glycolysis
II. electron transport chain
III. Krebs cycle

a. I >>> III >>> II. b. I >>> II >>> III. c. III >>> I >>> II. d. II >>> III >>> I. e. II >>> I >>> III.
58. Glycolysis requires the input of how many ATPs to cause the breakdown of glucose?
a. two ATP b. three ATP c. one ATP molecule must be taken away from glucose d. one ATP molecule e. four ATP
59. Substrate-level phosphorylation transfers phosphate groups from
a. ATP. b. the Krebs cycle. c. substrate. d. coenzyme. e. the electron transfer chain.
60. How many ATP molecules (net yield) are produced per molecule of glucose degraded during glycolysis?
a. 1 b. 4 c. 38 d. 36 e. 2
61. The end product of glycolysis is
a. acetyl-CoA. b. acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate. c. oxaloacetate. d. pyruvate. e. citrate.
62. Under anaerobic conditions, muscle cells produce
a. citrate. b. acetaldehyde. c. ethyl alcohol. d. pyruvate. e. lactate.
63. Fermentation
a. may occur in a muscle under anaerobic conditions. b. is restricted to yeasts. c. produces more ATP than is liberated in the
hydrogen transfer series. d. breaks down glucose in reaction with oxygen. e. does none of these.
64. The unique feature of HeLa cells that make them important for research is that
a. they are like stem cells. b. they are immortal cells and will grow in culture. c. they are limited in growth cycles. d. they
are identical to all other human cells. e. all of these make them important.
65. Division of eukaryotic cells into two identical cells is called
a. meiosis. b. mitosis. c. asexual reproduction. d. growth. e. all of these.
66. Chromosomes and genes are replicated during
a. prophase. b. anaphase. c. telophase. d. interphase. e. metaphase.
67. Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?
I. metaphase
II. telophase
III. prophase
IV. anaphase

a. III, IV, I, II b. III, I, IV, II c. IV, I, III, II d. I, III, IV, II e. I, II, III, IV
68. The spread of a cancer from one site to others in the body is known as
a. remission. b. both a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. c. metastasis. d. a benign tumor. e. a malignant tumor.
69. A cancer-producing chemical is a(n)
a. pathogen. b. teratogen. c. oncogene. d. carcinogen. e. mutagen.
70. Dolly the cloned sheep was conceived by inserting
a. a nucleus from a sperm cell into an unfertilized egg. b. two nuclei from body cells into an enucleated egg cell. c. a nucleus
from a body cell into an unfertilized egg. d. a nucleus from an egg cell into an unfertilized egg. e. a nucleus from a body cell
into an enucleated egg cell.
71. Which of the following mammals have been successfully cloned?
a. pigs and cattle b. mice and rabbits c. goats and mules d. horses and cats e. all of these
72. Bacteriophages are
a. viruses that infect bacteria. b. viruses that infect eukaryotic cells. c. virus-eating bacteria. d. large bacteria.
e. pathogenic bacteria.
73. Hydrogen bonding is strongest between
a. adenine and guanine. b. uracil and thymine. c. cytocine and guanine. d. adenine and thymine. e. guanine and uracil.
74. The building blocks of nucleic acids are
a. pentose sugars. b. nitrogenous bases. c. phosphate groups. d. nucleotides. e. amino acids.
75. In the spiral staircase model of DNA, the handrails are
 a. covalent bonds. b. nucleotide base pairs. c. phosphate and deoxyribose groups. d. hydrogen bonds. e. composed of
all of these.
76. DNA replication is
a. semiconservative. b. progressive. c. redundant. d. conservative. e. repetitive.
77. DNA polymerase assembles new strands
a. in a 3' to 5' direction building the first half of a strand and a 5' to 3' direction building the second half of a strand. b. in a 5' to
3' direction building one strand and a 3' to 5' direction building the other stand. c. in a 5' to 3' direction only. d. in a 3' to 5'
direction on the "old" 3' to 5' strand. e. in a 5' to 3' direction building the first half of a strand and a 3' to 5' direction building the
second half of a strand.
78. After three replications of a single DNA molecule, what percent of the resulting molecules contain one strand of the "original"
DNA?
a. 100 percent b. 0 percent c. 75 percent d. 50 percent e. 25 percent
79. The function of helicase enzymes is to
a. fragment old DNA that is no longer of use to the cell. b. rewind the two DNA molecules after replication. c. seal new
short stretches of nucleotides into one continuous strand. d. break hydrogen bonds and unwind the two strands of the DNA
molecule prior to replication. e. remove bases that might have been inserted incorrectly.
80. DNA polymerases
a. catalyze hydrogen bonding. b. assemble new strands in a specific direction. c. add new nucleotides to a strand. d. are
enzymes. e. are all of these.
81. The primary function of DNA ligase is to
a. remove bases that might be inserted incorrectly. b. attach free nucleotides to the growing chain. c. cut the two strands of
the DNA molecule prior to replication. d. seal new short stretches of nucleotides into one continuous strand. e. fragment old
DNA that is no longer of use to the cell.
82. A linear stretch of DNA that specifies the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called a(n)
a. intron. b. codon. c. enzyme. d. gene. e. messenger.
83. The DNA molecule usually is made up of how many strands?
a. 6 b. 2 c. 3 d. 12 e. 1
84. ____ molecules carry protein-assembly instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
a. Transfer RNA b. Messenger RNA c. Template DNA d. Ribosomal RNA e. All of these
85. The changing of a business letter from shorthand to typewritten copy is analogous to
a. replication of DNA. b. protein synthesis. c. transcription of DNA. d. translation of mRNA. e. deciphering the
genetic code.
86. Transcription starts at a region of DNA called a(n)
a. activator. b. transcriber. c. promoter. d. sequencer. e. terminator.
87. The portion of the DNA molecule that is translated is composed of
a. exons and transcriptons. b. transcriptons. c. introns. d. exons. e. anticodons.
 The following questions refer to the genetic code table above.

88. The genetic code STOP codons are

a. UAU, AAU, and GAU. b. CAA, AGA, and AUG. c. UAA, UAG, and UGA. d. AUG, UGA, and CAC. e. all of
these.
89. The first amino acid of a new polypeptide chain is
a. phenylalanine. b. methionine. c. AUG. d. cysteine. e. variable.
90. A gene mutation
a. may arise spontaneously. b. may be caused by environmental agents. c. is a change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA.
d. can occur in any organism. e. is described by all of these.
91. Frameshift mutations may involve
a. substitution of amino acids. b. addition or deletion of one or more base pairs. c. substitution of codons. d. substitution
of nucleotides. e. none of these.
92. Small circular molecules of "extra" DNA in bacteria
a. are plasmids. b. are eventually degraded. c. result from the activity of restriction enzymes. d. are DNA fragments from
their main chromosome. e. are none of these.
93. cDNA
 a. is produced from mRNA. b. begins as a hybrid molecule with an mRNA. c. does not contain introns. d. production
utilizes reverse transcriptase. e. fits all of these descriptions.
94. A collection of host cells that house different cloned fragments of DNA is a
a. genomic library. b. plasmid library. c. transcribed DNA library. d. cDNA library. e. gene library.
95. Nucleic acid hybridization is the pairing between
a. mRNA and cDNA. b. mRNA and DNA. c. DNA or RNA from more than one source. d. cDNA and DNA. e. mRNA
and tRNA.
96. Probes for cloned genes use
a. specific enzymes that lyse all the cells except those that have incorporated the genes. b. complementary nucleotide
sequences tagged with a detectable label. c. specific antibodies that kill all the cells except those that have incorporated the
genes. d. certain bacteria that glow when they take up the genes. e. all of these.
97. For polymerase chain reaction to occur,
a. the DNA must remain double stranded. b. isolated DNA molecules must be primed. c. a sticky end must be available for
the ligase enzyme to function. d. all DNA fragments must be identical. e. all of these must occur.
98. Thermus aquaticus was important in the development of PCR in that it provided the necessary
a. DNA polymerase. b. DNA template. c. reverse transcriptase. d. primers. e. DNA ligase.

99. In the above DNA fingerprinting gel, which individual matches the semen (lane 8) collected after the rape?
a. the boyfriend b. suspect I c. suspect II d. bad reading because it matches the female cells e. none of these
100. Genetic engineering started with
a. fungi. b. bacteria. c. animals. d. plants. e. viruses.
BIO149 FINAL EXAM Set A
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. E
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. E
13. A
14. E
15. E
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. C
21. A
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. E
26. A
27. D
28. B
29. D
30. D
31. E
32. E
33. C
34. E
35. D
36. B
37. E
38. C
39. B
40. E
41. E
42. E
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. C
47. C
48. D
49. E
50. E
51. D
52. E
53. D
54. A
55. B
56. B
57. A
58. A
59. C
60. E
61. D
62. E
63. A
64. B
65. B
66. D
67. B
68. C
69. D
70. E
71. E
72. A
73. C
74. D
75. C
76. A
77. C
78. E
79. D
80. E
81. D
82. D
83. B
84. B
85. C
86. C
87. D
88. C
89. B
90. E
91. B
92. A
93. E
94. E
95. C
96. B
 97. B
98. A
99. B
100. B