MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION: PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

1. If the potential created by a chemical reaction is used to move a current, the cell created is called
a. concentrated cell b. electrolytic cell c. galvanic cell d. mercury cell
2. Which among the following conditions of a system DOES NOT satisfy that U = q
a. when the opposing pressure is constant c. when the volume is constant
b. when the opposing pressure is zero d. if W = 0
3. Genetic information is stored in the structure of the DNA molecule. Which of the following obtains the code for protein
synthesis from DNA and serves as the template for peptide formation?
a. rRNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. DNA
4. What is the most common electron acceptor in the Krebs Cycle?
a. ADP b. NAD c. NADH d. ATP
5. This organelle stores the DNA in the cell
a. vacuole b. chloroplast c. nucleus d. NOTG
6. In the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, the genetic material is complexed with protein and organized into linear structures
called
a. ribosomes b. chloroplast c. nucleus d. centriole
7. To release energy from the energy nutrients such as carbohydrates, fats and proteins, vitamins functions
a. as precursors b. the antioxidants c. as coenzymes d. as modifiers
8. Lysosomes are formed by budding from which cellular organelle?
a. nucleus b. SER c. golgi apparatus d. RER
9. What is the most economical way to produce aluminum metal?
a. recycling aluminum drink cans c. electrolysis of pure molten Al2O3
b. electrolysis of Al2O3 in molten cryolite d. the Alcoa chlorine process
10. Sodium cyanide is an important reagent in the metallurgy of ______.
a. Mg b. Fe c. Cu d. Au
11. Which of the following water contaminants causes methemoglobinemia or “blue baby” syndrome in infants below six
months old?
a. copper b. sulfate c. phosphates d. nitrates
12. The reduction of a ketone produces a(an) ____.
a. primary alcohol b. aldehyde c. secondary alcohol d. tertiary alcohol
13. The conversion of solar energy to chemical energy occurs during
a. glycolysis b. fermentation c. photosynthesis d. respiration
14. All but which of the following are good barriers to invasion by microbes?
a. broken skin b. urine c. eye secretions d. mucous membranes
15. The overlap of the 2p atomic orbitals produces ____ sigma molecular orbitals and ____ pi molecular orbitals.
a. 2,4 b. 2,2 c. 1,2 d. 4,2
16. Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot formula for H2S?

a.
b. c. d.
17. Chemosynthetic bacteria may use which element as a hydrogen donor instead of water?
a. hydrogen chloride b. sulfur c. hydrogen sulfate d. KH2SO4
18. Give the IUPAC name of the product formed from the reaction between isopropyl alcohol and acetyl chloride.
a. methylcyclobutene b. methylcyclobutanol c. ethylcyclopropene d. ethylcyclopropanol
19. Whys is rainwater acidic even when there is no sulfur trioxide present?
a. automobile emissions cause the increase in acidity c. water is always acidic
b. dissolved HCs cause the acidity d. dissolved CO2 causes the acidity
20. In a periodic table:
a. electronegativity decreases from left to right c. electronegativity increases from top to bottom
b. atomic sizes increases from left to right d. atomic size increases from top to bottom
21. Which chemical test is used to detect the presence of amino acids and proteins?
a. Ninhydrin Test b. Molisch Test c. Benedicts Test d. Biuret Test

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22. Semi-metallic element discovered in 1817 by the Swedish Chemist Baron Jakob Berzelius in a sulfuric acid residue.
a. sulfur b. selenium c. arsenic d. nickel
23. Its common name is cryolite
a. sodium aluminum fluoride b. acetylene c. silicon carbide d. calcium fluoride
24. Some solids can be converted directly to the vapor phase by heating. The process is called ____.
a. fusion b. condensation c. vaporization d. sublimation
25. Which compound will be almost completely deprotonated by NaOH
a. phenol b. ethanol c. water d. acetic acid
26. In the process of ozone depletion, it is the element that gets recycled thus rendering its long lifetime in the atmosphere.
a. carbon b. chlorine c. oxygen d. fluorine
27. Cadmium is mainly emitted from
a. textiles b. electroplating c. printing d. batteries
28. A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents from entering
the clotting process.
a. potassium citrate b. Vitamin K c. sodium ion d. calcium ion
29. Ferromagnetism is due to the large scale alignment of the magnetic moments of
a. atoms b. neutrons c. protons d. electrons
30. Energy is required to break the hydrogen bonds holding the bases together. The pair most difficult to separate is
a. A-T b. C-G c. A-C d. G-T
31. Lindlar’s catalyst is used to make?
a. alkanes from alkynes c. trans-alkenes from alkynes
b. cis-alkenes from alkynes d. alcohols from alkynes
32. Ethanol can be oxidized stepwise. What is the first stable intermediate product when ethanol is oxidized with a mild
oxidation agent?
a. CH3COOH b. CH3CHO c. CH3OCH3 d. CH3CO
33. The standard free energy of formation of HCl(g) at 25 °C is – 22, 770 cal/mole. Calculate the thermodynamic equilibrium
constant for the dissociation of HCl into its elements at 25°C.
a. 2.00 x 10-17 b. 3.02 x 1016 c. 1.89 x 10-17 d. 5.02 x 1016
34. Iridium has a face-centered cubic unit cell with an edge length of 383.3 pm. Calculate the density (g/cm3) of solid iridium.
a. 12.26 b. 22.68 c. 32.88 d. 41.34
35. Suppose you have eaten a piece of chocolate cake which is about 300 nutritional calories. How many 7-in. high steps
must a 150-lb man climb to expend the 300 calories from the cake?
a. 8500 b. 9500 c. 10500 d. 11500
36. A gas mixture consists of 325 mg of methane, 175 mg of argon, and 225 mg of neon. The partial pressure of neon at 300K
is 66.5 Torr. Calculate the volume of the mixture.
a. 32 L b. 3.16 L c. 4.25 L d. 3.75 L
37. Linear inhibition is sometimes called as
a. complete inhibition b. incomplete inhibition c. partial inhibition d. mixed inhibition
38. A fermentation system has a kLa of 3/s and a C*O of 5 ppm of O2. If the bulk liquid is saturated with oxygen then the
oxygen transfer rate will equal
a. 15 mg/L-s b. 5 mg/L-s c. 3 mg/L-s d. 0 mg/L-s
39. The oxygen uptake requirements of a microbial population is characertized by the following parameters: μm = 0.2 h-1
KO = 0.2 mg O2/L YO = 0.5 mg dry weight. mgO2 CO,crit = 0.8 mg/L. The required concentration of cells is 1000
mg/L and the saturation oxygen concentration of the medium is 5.8 mg/L. The required kLa must be greater than:
a. 64 /hr b. 32 /hr c. 16 /hr d. 8 /hr
40. In the "Methode Champenoise," strawberry juice is fermented in a 825-mL wine bottle to produce sparkling wine.
Fermentation of 719 mL aqueous strawberry juice is allowed to take place in the bottle until 12% by volume is ethyl
alcohol. Calculate the pressure of CO2 inside the wine bottle at 29°C? (The density of ethanol is 0.79 g/cm3.)
a. 150 atm b. 250 atm c. 350 atm d. 450 atm
41. A ketogenic amino acid is an amino acid that can be converted into ketone bodies through ketogenesis. In humans, two

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 MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION: PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

amino acids are exclusively ketogenic, one of them is

a. methionine b. phenylalanine c. leucine d. tyrosine
42. A solution of 2.0 g of (+)-glyceraldehyde in 10.0 mL of water was placed in a 100-mm polarimeter tube. Using the sodium
D line, a rotation of 1.74o was observed at 25oC. (+)-glyceraldehyde was then mixed with some quantity of (-)-
glyceraldehyde and the resulting mixture had a specific rotation of +6.9o. What percentage of the mixture was (-)-
glyceraldehyde?
a. 8.7% b. 10.35% c. 20.69% d. 79.31%
43. 1.18One hundred ml of river water sample is analyzed for its chloride content. If the sample required 5.10 ml of 0.0100M
AgNO3 for titration, what is the ppm Cl in the sample?
a. 1.18 b. 3.61 c. 18.08 d. 36.36
44. Five kilograms of Ice at -10°C is heated to melt it into water; then additional heat is added to vaporize the water into
steam. The saturated vapors exit at 100°C. Specific heat of ice is 2.05 KJ/kg-K. specific heat of water is 4.182 Kj/kg-K.
What is the latent heat of fusion of ice at 0°C?
a. 333 b. 1325 c. 3568 d. 1339
45. An Oswald viscometer was calibrated using water at 25 C (=8.9 x 10 Pa-s and density = 1 x 103 kg/m3). The same
0 -4

viscometer was used at -1930C to determine the viscosity (in Pa-s) of liquid air (density = 0.92 x 103 kg/m3). Assuming
that the time ratio of water to liquid air is 0.193 and neglecting volume changes, find the abovementioned quantity.
a. 4.30 x 10-3 b. 2.15 x 10-3 c. 1.6 x 10-3 d. 2.19 x 10-3
46. Two adiabatic tanks contain air at different temperatures and pressures and are connected by a valve. Tank A holds 3 ft 3
of air at 5000R and 100 psia and tank B holds 2 lbm of air at 750 0R and 50 psia. The valve is opened and the pressure and
temperature reach equilibrium values. What are these values?
a. 323.50R, 60.7 psia b. 423.50R, 45.6 psia c. 638.10R, 45.6 psia d. 638.10R, 60.7 psia
47. Assume the following, the ionization potential of C3 = 3.89 eV, h = 6.63 x 10-34/sec and C3 metal is sensitive to real light
of 700 nm. What number of electrons that can be removed from metallic cesium with the energy required to remove one
electron from an isolated cesium atom
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7
48. A liquid is observed to boil at 120°C under a pressure of 725 mmHg. Its heat of vaporization is 8200 cal/mol. Calculate the
normal boiling point of the liquid.
a. 98 oC b. 100 oC c. 118 oC d. 115 oC
0
49. The water sample from a sewage plant had a 20-day BOD of 400 mg/L at 20 C. What was the expected 5-day demand?
a. 404 ppm b. 304 ppm c. 276 ppm d. 196 ppm
50. At a specified temperature, a solution of eugenol, C10H12O2, if ethanol has a freezing point of -116.58oC and a vapor
pressure of 41.50 torr. If pure ethanol has a freezing point of -114.6oC and a Kf of 1.20oC/m, what would its vapor
pressure (torr) be at the specified temperature?
a. 40.6 b. 44.6 c. 46.4 d. 48.6
51. At a certain temperature, 2.00-L sample of O2 was collected over water at a total pressure of 785 torr. When the O 2 was
dried, the gas had a volume of 1.94 L at 785 torr while temperature was kept constant. Calculate the vapor pressure of
water at this temperature.
a. 20 torr b. 22 torr c. 24 torr d. 26 torr
52. The single largest use of phosphoric acid is in the production of fertilizer. How many grams of phosphoric acid (with
excess NH3) are required to produce 800 g of (NH4)2HPO4, a common fertilizer?
a. 1186 g b. 686 g c. 593 g d. 391 g
53. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cell
a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 1/2 d. 1/3
54. The time taken for a certain volume of gas to steam through a small hole was 1.44 minutes. Under exactly the same
condition equal volume of oxygen took 1.80 minutes to pass. The approximate density of the gas relative to oxygen
(ρoxygen = 1.43 g/L) is:

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 MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION: PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

a. 2.23 b. 1.79 c. 0.92 d. 0.60

55. Zinc in a 565.75 mg sample of a foot powder was titrated with 27.27 ml of 0.01690 EDTA. Calculate the %Zn in the
sample.
a. 5.33% b. 10.65% c. 12.0% d. 15.5%
56. The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of
a. alkaloids b. coenzymes c. hormones d. proteins
57. These devices are used to break or cut solids to a size that can be returned to the waste water without danger of clogging
pipes or devices.
a. bar screens b. communitors c. grit chamber d. clarifiers
58. Law/Decree issued in 1990 governing the control of toxic substances and hazardous nuclear wastes.
a. RA 984 b. PD 1152 c. RA 6969 d. PD 1151
59. 2.48 g of silver metal is deposited when a constant current of 1.50 A is passed through an electrolytic cell containing 0.10
M solution of silver nitrate. The cell contains a silver anode and a platinum cathode. Calculate the time of the current
flow to obtain this deposit?
a. 14 min b. 25 min c. 37 min d. 48 min
60. Common name of organic compound in bee stings.
a. methanoic acid b. formic acid c. ethanoic acid d. acetic acid
61. What is the [Cl-] when 1.50 g of NaCl is dissolved in enough water to make 1000 mL of solution?
a. 0.0150 M b. 0.0390 M c. 0.0256 M d. 0.390 M
62. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
63. This law states a fixed amount of gas under isobaric conditions the absolute temperature is directly proportional to its
volume.
a. Boyle’s Law b. Amagat’s Law c. Avogadros Law d. Charles Law
64. In how many days will a 12-gram sample of decay, leaving a total of 1.5 grams of the original isotope? (The half-life of
131
53 I is 8.07 days).
a. 8 b. 16 c. 20 d. 24
65. The rate of effusion of a particular gas was measured to be 24.0 mL/min. Under the same conditions the rate of effusion
of pure methane gas is 47.8 mL/min. Calculate the molar mass of the unknown gas.
a. 44 b. 56.1 c. 63.7 d. 72
o
66. For nitrogen gas at 227 C. Calculate the mean velocity.
a. 545 m/s b. 615 m/s c. 667 m/s d. 700 m/s
67. At a rate of 5000 cm3/s, an unknown gas flows through a 3-mm diameter capillary tube. The pressure head under which
the gas flows is 0.95 atm. Calculate the length of the tube if the gas viscosity is 400 μP.
a. 75.68 cm b. 85.65 cm c. 95.68 cm d. 105.68 cm
68. A 0.12 g sample of calcite is treated with 36.82 ml of 0.08132 HCl and the excess is found to require 6.2 ml of 0.09677 N
NaOH for back titration. Calculate the percentage purity of calcite.
a. 99.8% b. 98.3% c. 89.3% d. 99.2%
69. Consider two reaction vessels A and B, where [A]o = [B]o at t=0. A and B decompose by 1st order reaction with reaction
constants of 4.50 x 10-4 s-1 and 3.70 x 10-3 s-1 respectively. Calculate the time that must pass to reach the condition such
that [A]t = 6.58 [B]t.
a. 394 s b. 453 s c. 580 s d. 637 s
70. 0.180 g of metal upon reaction with excess hydrochloric acid produced 24.6 ml of hydrogen gas at 27 0C and 1
atmospheric pressure. What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
a. 36 b. 45 c. 90 d. 180
71. A 347.5 mg sample of meat was analyzed for its nitrogen content. Upon digestion, the ammonia liberated was colleted in
150 mL of 0.6 M H3BO3 solution. The resulting solution was titrated with 45.5 mL of 0.0122 MHCl using mixed indicator.
Determine the percentage of protein in the sample using 6.25 as factor for meat products.
a. 1.12% b. 2.24% c. 13.98% d. 27.96%

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72. A sample of steel weighing 1.50 g was analyzed for Ni by the cyanide volumetric method. In the titration of the properly
prepared solution, 12.00 mL KCN (0.0140 g per milliliter) and 0.65 mL of AgNO3 (0.0125 g per milliliter) were used.
Calculate the percentage of Ni present.
a. 1.42% b. 2.42 % c. 3.42% d. 4.24%
73. Glycine is the smallest of the 20 amino acids found in proteins. At which pH will its structure have an overall charge of –1.
a. pH 1 b. pH 2.2 c. pH 9.6 d. pH 12
74. Brown spots in fabrics will be caused by washing with water containing large amount of
a. iodine b. bromine c. zinc d. iron
75. A 4.971-g sample containing the mineral tellurite was dissolved and then treated with 50.00 mL of 0.03114 M K 2Cr2O7:
3 TeO2 + Cr2O72- + 8 H+ → 3 H2TeO4 + 2 Cr3+ + H2O
When the reaction is complete, the excess Cr2O72- required a 10.05-mL back-titration with 0.1135 M Fe2+. Calculate the
percentage of TeO2 in the sample.
a. 9.14% b. 13.17% c. 17.78% d. 21.98%
76. Exposure to gamma or X – ray radiation equal to a unit quantity of electrical charge produced in air. This measure is
purely physical quantity, has nothing to do with absorption or effect of the radiation.
a. Sievert b. Roentgen c. REM d. Gray
77. Which of the following is the most efficient for removal of very finely divided suspended solids and colloidal matter from
the polluted water stream?
a. sedimentation tank b. mechanical flocculation c. circular clarifier d. chemical coagulation
78. The portion of the rainfall that flows on the ground surface is
a. yield b. water table c. spring d. run-off
79. Fireproofing material which is now banned due to slow disintegration that produces pollution.
a. carpet b. vinyl floors c. asbestos d. aerosol cans
80. Secondary treatment method using both microbial activity and facilitated aeration processes
a. activated sludge b. RBC c. trickling filter d. oxidation ditch
81. This organelle is found in animal cells and is used in cell division; the spindle fibers attach to it.
a. ribosome b. centriole c. nucleus d. chloroplast
82. Classical noncompetitive inhibition is obtained only under conditions
a. slow equilibrium b. rapid equilibrium c. moderate equilibrium d. non-equilibrium
83. What is the most common electron acceptor in Krebs Cycle?
a. ADP b. ATP c. NADH d. NAD
84. The steroid adrenaline is produced in glands located above the:
a. gall bladder b. kidney c. pancreas d. spleen
85. The chemical family that steroids belong to
a. ester b. terpenoid c. alkaloid d. amino
86. The dilution rate, D is defined as(where F = volumetric flow rate, VR = total volume of culture in the reactor and μ specific
growth rate)
a. F/VR b. VR/F c. μ/F d. F/μ
87. This organelle stores the DNA in the cell.
a. vacuole b. chloroplast c. nucleus d. NOTA
88. How many ATP's will be produced by the metabolism of a single molecule of glutamate in the Krebs Cycle?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
89. The number of baffles in a standard stirred tank bioreactor is
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
90. To measure the amount of glocuamylase in a crude enzyme preparation, 1 mL of the crude enzyme preparation
containing 8 mg protein is added to 9 mL of a 4.44% starch solution. Initial rate experiments show that the reaction
produces 6 mole of glucose/mL-min. What is the specific activity of the crude enzyme preparation?
a. 0.75 U b. 0.75 IU c. 6 U d. 6 IU

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 MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION: PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

91. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

a. cellobiose b. sucrose c. lactose d. maltose
92. An enzyme is assayed at an initial substrate concentration of 2 x 10 -5M. In 6 minute, half of the substrate is used. The Km
for the substrate is 2 x 10-3 M. The value of k in minute is
a. 0.115 b. 0.093 c. 0.042 d. 0.963
93. Ethanol is produced in a bioreactor at a rate of 50,000 L/h. If the dilution rate is 0.5, what is the volume (liter) of the
fermenter?
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 100,000 d. 125,000
94. For an enzyme that displays Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity (as a fraction of V max) observed at [S] = 2 KM
will be
a. 0.66 b. 0.33 c. 0.91 d. 0.09
95. Ingested glucose is phosphorylated in the liver by both hexokinase and glucokinase. Hexokinase has a K m for glucose of
about 1 x 10-5 M and glucokinase has a Km for glucose of about 1.5 x 10-2 M. The glucose concentration available to liver
cells is approximately equal to the concentration in the blood, and this value is about 0.75 x 10 -2 M. Assuming that the
ATP concentration and other factors are optimal, the velocity of the glucokinase reaction will be about.
a. 0.75 Vmax b. 0.66 Vmax c. 0.33 Vmax d. 0.25 Vmax
96. Which of the following alkanes is gas at room temperature?
a. octane b. propane c. eicosane d. undecane
97. An ester that gives an orange flavor is octyl ethanoate, its common name is:
a. octyl captylate b. ethyl caprylate c. ethyl octanoate d. octyl acetate
98. Acid derivative with two moles of carboxylic acid combine
a. acid anhydride b. acid amide c. acid halide d. esters
99. Common name of 2-methyl propanoic acid
a. butyric acid b. valeric acid c. isobutyric acid d. isovaleric acid
100. A supermoon is the coincidence of a Full moon or a New moon with the closest approach the Moon makes to the Earth
on its elliptical orbit, resulting in the largest apparent size of the lunar disk as seen from Earth. Technically, it is known as
a. the pirate-syzygy of the Earth–Sun–Moon system c. the pirate-syzygy of the Earth–Moon–Sun system
b. the perigee-syzygy of the Earth–Moon–Sun system d. the perigee-syzygy of the Earth–Sun–Moon system

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