NDT Basic Question Paper (700 Q & A)

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer)
Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Code of Ethics
1. The code of ethics is ______upon every person issued a certificate by ASNT as an NDT level III
a. Voluntary b. Optional
c. Binding d. Negotiable
e. Mandatory
Answer: E ()
2. The ultimate purpose served by the code of ethics is to
a. Coerce ASNT NDT level III to stand by good moral principals
b. Safeguard the life, health, property and welfare of public.
c. Maintain integrity and high standards of skills & practices in the profession of NDT
d. Both a & b above
e. Both b & c above
Answer: E ()
3. Which of the following is best concerning a report, statement or testimony made by an NDT level III?
a. subjective b. objective
c. prejudicial d. equivocal
Answer: B ()
4. In a situation when an employer coerces an NDT level III to an act that may be counter to public safety the NDT
level III
a. should look for precautionary benefits b. should apprise proper authority
c. should never sever relations with the employers d. all of the above are the right options
e. both b & c of the above
Answer: E ()
5. Accepting financial favors from equipment suppliers would be charged under the code of ethics with
a. responsibility to public b. Improper conduct
c. unauthorized practice d. conflict of interest
Answer: D ()
6. Where an opportunity for conflict of interests exists, say for e.g. a close kin is a subcontracted under
direct supervision the NDT level III should
a. forthwith disclose the circumstances to the employer
b. make no statement or declaration through maintain a professional attitude
c. be guarded and be extremely critical with work performed by the contracted
d. all of the above are acceptable
Answer: A ()
7. Falsifying academic qualifications exaggeration of responsibility in previous assignments,
misrepresenting pertinent facts in presentations are chargeable under:
a. conflict of interest b. solicitation of employment
c. improper conduct d. unauthorized practice
Answer: B ()
8. Signing off reports / documents on which there is no personnel knowledge exists:
a. is improper conduct b. is a necessity in administrative functions
c. is often required though improper d. is justifiable
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
9. An NDT level III shall serve
a. the employer b. the client
c. the public d. all of the above
Answer: D ()
10. Payment of commission to licensed employment agents is
a. permissible b. a crime
c. unacceptable d. subject to scrutiny by the ethics committee
Answer: A ()
11. As an elected public official an NDT level III shall perform review of work under his / her supervision
a. with a professional altitude
b. with a cursory altitude, as he/she is in the knowledge of issues
c. without disclosing this fact
d. none of the above
Answer: D ()
12. Which of the following is true? an NDT level III shall:
a. issue no public statements b. criticize NDT matters connected to public policy
c. express no opinion on NDT matters d. issue no public statements inspired
Answer: B ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
CP- 189
1. Which of the following is not necessary to a document as part of the individuals NDT
records?
a) Academic qualifications b) Vision examination
c) Levels of certification d) Record of previous experience
Answer: A (CP-189)
2. A trainee has logged the following hours in six months RT= 316 hrs; PT = 214hrs;
MT=180 hrs; UT=154 hrs. At the end of this period he meets minimum experience
requirements for:
a. level I in PT, MT, RT b. level II in PT, MT, level I in RT
c. level II in PT, level I in MT, RT d. both a & b of the above
e. both a & c of the above
Answer: E (CP-189)
3. An examination used to demonstrate an individual's ability in conducting the NDT
methods is called
a. General Theory examination b. Specific Theory examination
c. Practical Examination d. All of the above
Answer: C (CP-189)
4. The contents of documentation of records of certification shall include:
a. At least a certification record, an experience record, a record of previous experience (if
applicable), and a vision examination record.
b. Dates of certification and expiration
c. Signature, printed name, and title of the employer's certifying representative.
d. All of the above
Answer: A (CP-189)
5. The qualification requirement(s) of a 'Trainee' is/are:
A. possess a vision acuity that meets or exceeds the requirements of the standard
B. have skills & knowledge to perform specific calibration directly supervised by an NDT
Level II or NDT Level— III
C. both A & B above
D. none of the above
Answer: C (CP-189)
6. The minimum number of questions in a Level I magnetic particle inspection specific
exam is?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
Answer: B (CP-189)
7. An individual who was certified, has not performed the duties in the method for a
consecutive period of twenty four month his/her certificate shall be
a. revoked
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. suspended
c. terminated
d. with held
Answer: A (CP-189)
8. What is the definition for method?
a. One of the disciplines of NDT, within which various test techniques, may exist
b. One of the NDT techniques, within which various test methods may exist.
c. Technique and method are interchangeable with same meaning
d. Method means the way of working
Answer: A (CP-189)
9. The use of a mass spectrometer for leak testing is considered to be a?
a. Test technique
b. NDT discipline
c. NDT method
d. Test method
Answer: A (CP-189)
10. The procedure for qualification and certification of NDT personnel shall describe which of
the following as minimum requirements for certifying personnel in each NDT method and
the levels of qualification desired?
a. Personnel duties and responsibilities including, designation of principal Level-III if the
employer has more than one NDT Level-III for a specific method.
b. Training, experience and examination requirements, records and documentation
requirements, including control, responsibility, retention period, and recertification
requirements.
c. Both a & b
d. Acceptance criteria
Answer: C (CP-189)
11. Total number of hours in NDT to be eligible to take the Level II radiography exam
(holds Level I) is?
a) 270
b) 400
c) 800
d) 1200
Answer: D (CP-189)
12. The minimum number of questions in a Level II magnetic particle inspection specific exam
is?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
Answer: B (CP-189, Table-1, Page 11/18)
13. Certification that has been revoked may be reinstated by the employer with the
individual successfully undergoing:
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
A. additional training
B. vision examination
C. examinations appropriate to the Level
D. all of the above
E both B & C
Answer: E (CP-189)
14. Which of the following is not a requirement for vision examination?
A. Read Jaeger number 1 at a distance of 12 inches with both eyes
B. Distinguish & differentiate contrast among colors used
C. Be administered at initial certification and annually thereafter for near vision acuity
D. Distinguish and differentiate contrast among shades of gray used
Answer: D (CP-189)
15. Who is responsible for the content of the product technology welding presented as
part of training of NDT personnel?
a) Metallurgist
b) Welding engineer
c) NDT instructor
d) NDT Level III
Answer: D (CP-189)
16. CP189 details the minimum requirements for the qualification and certification of NDT
personnel in how many methods?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
Answer: C (CP-189)
17. Reinstatement of suspended certification shall be determined by?
a. The employer
b. The NDT Level III
c. The outside agency
d. Either the employer or the NDT level III may be correct dependent upon the NDT level
to be reinstated
Answer: D (CP-189)
18. The employer has deemed an individual's conduct has been unethical and his
certification is therefore?
a. Revoked
b. Suspended
c. Terminated
d. Invalidated
Answer: A (CP-189)
19. NDT Level BI personnel shall be recertified by the employer every five years by?
a. Examination
b. ASNT Level III points systems
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
c. Verifying the individuals ASNT NDT Level III is current in each method for which
recertification is sought
d. Written documentation
Answer: C (CP-189)
20. The determination of whether indications are relevant or non-relevant is
a. Evaluation
b. Interpretation
c. Assessment
d. Appraisal
Answer: B (CP-189)
21. The practical exam at Level I the candidate shall demonstrate proficiency in the
applicable NDT method on a minimum of
a. 1 sample for each technique and the test sample shall be representative of the
products that the candidate will encounter in performing the job functions.
b. 2 sample for each method
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above, Level-I does not require practical
Answer: A (CP-189)
22. What shall be done for the practical examination?
a. For practical examinations, questions and answers shall be written
b. For practical examinations, questions and answers need not necessarily be written
c. Observations and results must be documented
d. Both b & c
Answer: D (CP-189)
23. The skills, training, knowledge and experience required for personnel to
properly perform to a specified NDT level is defined as?
a. Qualification
b. Certification
c. Testimonial
d. Proficiency
Answer: A (CP-189)
24. Who shall administer Vision Test?
a. NDT Level-III only
b. Medical Practitioner only
c. Vision examinations shall be administered in accordance with a procedure, and by
personnel, approved by an NDT Level III designated by the employer.
d. All of the above
Answer: C (CP-189)
25. A Level-II individual's vision examination interval exceeds one year, his certification
shall be?
a. Revoked
b. Suspended
c. Terminated
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. Invalidated
Answer: B (CP-189)
26. A determination of the significance of a relevant indication is defined as?
a. Evaluation
b. Interpretation
c. Assessment
d. Appraisal
Answer: A (CP-189)
27. The required training hours to go direct to Level II in penetrant inspection is?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 24
d) 40
Answer: B (CP-189)
28. The number of test techniques listed for leak testing is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: C (CP-189)
29. When an employer deems on individual's conduct has been unethical, the
certification shall be:
a. revoked
b. suspended
c. terminated
d. invalidated
Answer: A (CP-189)
30. In Level-II practical examination the candidate shall demonstrate proficiency in the
applicable NDT method on a minimum of samples
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 10
Answer: B (CP-189)
31. A determination of the significance of a relevant indication is defined as?
a) Evaluation
b) Interpretation
c) Assessment
d) Appraisal
Answer: A (CP-189)
32. The representative of employer who administers the level-III examinations shall:
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. be designated by the employer

b. be certified to NDT Level-III in accordance with SNT-TC-lA
c. posses written testimony from the employer
d. possess an ASNT Level-III certificate
Answer: D (CP-189)
33. Total number of hours in NDT to be eligible to take direct Level II radiography exam is?
a. 400
b. 800
c. 1200
d. 1600
Answer: D (CP-189)
34. Where an employer engages the services of an outside NDT Level-III, the NDT Level-III
A. shall hold a valid endorsement in tile applicable method(s)
B. shall be certified by the employer
C. shall responsible for training and examining of NDT personnel in the methods for
which the NDT Level III is qualified
D. all of the above
E. both A&C
Answer: E (CP-189)
35. Who is responsible for documentation of records of certification?
a. Outside agency
b. NDT Level III
c. NDT Instructor
d. Employer
Answer: D (CP-189)
36. The Individual's certifications shall expire up on:
a. Termination
b. Completion of 3 years for level 1 & 2
c. Suspension
d. Both a & b
Answer: D (CP-189)
37. The required training hours to go direct to Level II in magnetic particle inspection is?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 20
d. 40
Answer: C (CP-189)
38. A company requires and NDT instructor. The person in mind is a graduate of a 2-
year school of science. How many years of NDT experience as an NDT Level II or
equivalent must the individual have attained?
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. 10 years
Answer: C (CP-189)
39. Which of the following is (are) true regarding a practical examination for NDT
level II certified for two techniques in UT?
a. Minimum of two samples to be tested
b. Minimum of one sample per technique and minimum of four samples for the method to be
tested
c. Minimum of 1 sample per technique and a minimum of two samples for the method to be
tested
d. Both b and c
Answer: C (CP-189)
40. Qualification is defined as;
a. An organized and documented program of activities
b. The skills, training, knowledge and experience required for personnel to properly perform
to a specified NDT level
c. Acquired practical experience to carry out the job
d. An individual certified to Level-I or Level-II
Answer: B (CP-189)
41. Appendix B relates to "Training Outlines. The NDT Level-III is empowered to:
a. change the topics as is applicable to his organizational needs
b. modify the amount of time & depth of coverage for each topic & approve the training
outlines
c. both A & B above
Answer: D (CP-189)
42. Where an individual has not performed the duties in the method certified for a
continuous 12 months period, then the certificate shall be
a. suspended
b. revoked
c. reinstated
d. terminated
Answer: A (CP-189)
43. The minimum number of questions in a Level II penetrant inspection specific
exam is?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
Answer: A (CP-189)
44. Which of the following is not necessary to a document as part of the individuals NDT
records?
a. Academic qualifications
b. Vision examination
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
c. Levels of certification
d. Record of previous experience
Answer: A (CP-189)
45. If an individual has not performed the duties in the method for which he is
certified during any consecutive 12-month period his certification shall be?
a. Revoked
b. Suspended
c. Terminated
d. Invalidated
Answer: B (CP-189)
46. The skills, training, knowledge and experience required for personnel to
properly perform to a specified NDT level is defined
as?
a) Qualification
b) Certification
c) Testimonial
d) Proficiency
Answer: A (CP-189)
47. A written practice requires the initial experience to be computed in line with CP 189. If
an individual spends 50h, 50h, 40h, 20h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively in the first calendar
month and 20h, 50h, 40h, 50h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively in the second calendar
month , the credit for the initial experience for these two months will be;
A 70 h, 100h, 80h, 70h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively
B. 160 h, 320 h, 80 h, 160 h m RT, UT, PT, MT respectively
C. 320 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively
D. 160 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively.
E none of the above
Answer: A (CP-189)
48. The skills, knowledge training and experience required to properly perform NDT is called
a. certification
b. qualification
c. proficiency
d. achievement
Answer: B (CP-189)
49. The minimum number of questions in a Level I radiography general theory exam is?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
Answer: D (CP-189)
50. The required training hours to go direct to Level II in penetrant inspection is?
a. 8
b. 16
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
c. 24
d. 40
Answer: B (CP-189)
51. The minimum number of questions in a Level II magnetic particle inspection specific exam
is?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Answer: B (CP-189, Table-1, page 11/18 )
52. Who is responsible for the content of the product technology welding presented as
part of training of NDT personnel?
a. Metallurgist
b. Welding engineer
c. NDT instructor
d. NDT Level III
Answer: D (CP-189)
53. Renewal of NDT Level BI personnel every five years by?
a) Examination
b) ASNT Level III points systems
c) Verifying the individuals ASNT NDT Level DI is current in each method for which
recertification is sought
d) Written documentation
Answer: C (CP-189)
54. The requirements for far distance vision are as follows?
a. Jaeger J1 at not less than 12 inches administered annually
b. Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 inches administered annually
c. Jaeger J1 at not less than 15 inches administered in-annually
d. None of the above
Answer: D (CP-189)
55. How many levels of qualification are defined in CP 189?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Answer: C (CP-189)
56. Assuming necessary organized training is imparted:
a. Mark is eligible to appear for PT level I exam & MT level I exam by end April
b. Jack is eligible to appear for PT level II by end June
c. Jack is eligible to appear for UT level I by end July
d. Both A & B above
e. All of the above are true
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: D (CP-189)
57. The person responsible for content on casting in a training course is
a. a metallurgist
b. NDT Level III
c. An NDT instructor
d. All of the above
Answer: C (CP-189)
58. The practical examination at Level H the candidate shall demonstrate
proficiency in the applicable NDT method on a minimum of
a. At least 1 sample for each technique
b. 2 sample for each method
c. Both of the above
Answer: C (CP-189)
59. Which of the following can be qualified as an `NDT Instructor', providing an NDT
Level—BI designates him/her?
A. An M. S. in mechanical engineering.
B. A B.Sc.; in mathematics with adequate knowledge in the NDT to be taught
C. A 12th standard NDT Level II with 15 years experience
D. both A & B above
E both B & C above
Answer: D (CP-189)
60. The employer's representative who administers the Level III examinations shall
possess?
a) Written testimony from the employer
b) A company Level BI certificate
c) ASNT Level III certification in the method for which the examination is administered
d) Certification that the individual has met the applicable requirements of SNT-TC-1A
Answer: C (CP-189)
61. The practical examination at Level H the candidate shall demonstrate
proficiency in the applicable NDT method on a minimum of samples?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 10
Answer: B (CP-189)
62. The requirements for near distance vision are as follows?
a. Jaeger J1 at not less than 12 inches administered annually
b. Jaeger 12 at not less than 12 inches administered annually
c. Jaeger J1 at not less than 15 inches administered annually
d. Jaeger J1 at not less than 15 inches administered bi-annually
Answer: A (CP-189)
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
63 If an individual has not performed the duties in the method for which he is
certified during any consecutive 12-month period his certification shall be?
a) Revoked
b) Suspended
c) Terminated
d) Invalidated
Answer: B (CP-189)
64. A company requires and NDT instructor. The person in mind has no academic
credentials. How many years of NDT experience as an NDT Level II or equivalent must the
individual have attained?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
Answer: D (CP-189)
65. The employer has deemed an individual's conduct has been unethical and his
certification is therefore?
a) Revoked
b) Suspended
c) Terminated
d) Invalidated
Answer: A (CP-189)
66. Which of the following is necessary to a document as part of the individuals NDT
records?
a. Academic qualifications
b. Vision examination
c. Levels of certification
d. Bollib&c
Answer: D (CP-189)
67. Certifications that have been revoked (level I & level II) shall be reinstated
a. by examinations
b. under no circumstances
c. though initial certification process
d. an one of the above as deemed necessary by the NDT level
Answer: A (CP-189)
68. NDT level BI shall be recertified
a. every three years
b. every five years
c. by examinations
d. bothb &c
e. none of the above
Answer: B (CP-189)
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
69. A company requires and NDT instructor The person in mind has no academic
credentials. How many years of NDT experience as an NDT Level II or equivalent must the
individual have attained?
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
Answer: D (CP-189)
70. Who is responsible for administration and grading?
a. An NDT Level-BI is responsible even he does not have a valid ASNT Level-BI
certificate for that method.
b. The employer is responsible for having an individual possessing a current ASNT
NDT Level-BI certificate to develop, administer, and grade Level III specific and
practical examinations.
c. An NDT Level-III shall be responsible for the administration and grading for NDT L-I
and L-H personnel for those methods in which the NDT Level-HI has a valid ASNT
Level-BI certificate.
d. Bollib&c
Answer: D (CP-189)
71. Which of the following is not necessary to be included in the certification records of a
level II?
a. Educational qualifications
b. vision examination results
c. current copies of examinations
d. record of applicable previous experience.
Answer: A (CP-189)
72. Total number of hours in NDT to be eligible to take the Level H radiography exam
(holds Level I) is?
a. 270
b. 400
c. 800
d. 1200
Answer: D (CP-189)
73 CP189 details the minimum requirements for the qualification and certification of NDT
personnel in how many methods?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
Answer: C (CP-189)
74. By end July, both Mark & Jack are not eligible to appear for Level H in any of the
methods
a. True
b. False
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: B (CP-189)
75. An NDT Level-DI shall have skills and knowledge to:
a. establish techniques
b. interpret codes, standards, and specifications
c. verify adequacy of procedures
d. conduct or direct training for Level I and II.
e. all of the above are required for NDT Level-DI
Answer: E (CP-189)
76. A determination of the significance of a relevant indication is defined as
a. evaluation
b. interpretation
c. judgment
d. decision
Answer: A (CP-189)
77. The required number of training hours t go direct to level II m electromagnetic
testing is:
a. 52 h
b. 80 h
c. 16h
d. 64h
Answer: A (CP-189)
78. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the NDT level III?
a. approve course outline for training
b. approve a procedure for vision examination
c. administer and grade level I practical examinations document certifications in accordance
with the standard
Answer: D (CP-189)
79. An NDT Level — III shall:
A. be an ASNT level — BI with valid endorsement
B. undergo specific examination without exception
C. undergo practical examination without exception
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
Answer: D (CP-189)
80. The employer's representative who administers the Level III examinations shall
possess?
a. Written testimony from the employer
b. A company Level BI certificate
c. An ASNT Level DI certification
d. Certification that the individual has met the applicable requirements of SNT-TC-1A
Answer: C (CP-189)
81. If the employer has more than one NDT Level III for a specific method
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. The employer shall designate one individual as the principal NDT Level III for each such
method
b. Since all have same qualification, the employer shall not designate anybody as
principal NDT Level III for each such method.
c. The employer shall designate all as the principal NDT Level III for each such method
d. None of the above, because only one NDT Level-DI shall be appointed by the employer.
Answer: A (CP-189)
82. The minimum number of questions in a Level I radiography general theory exam
is?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Answer: D (CP-189)
83. Reinstatement of suspended certifications shall be determined by:
a. the employer
b. the NDT Level-BI
c. ASNT
d. customer
e. none of the above
Answer: E (CP-189)
84. A candidate for the post of NDT instructor has no documentary evidence to support
his educational
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
Answer: C (CP-189)
85. An employer's 'Certification Record' may include:
A. level of certification
B. method to which certified& the test technique covered.
C. dates of certifi.c_ation& expiration.
D. dates of suspension& reinstatement
E none of the above
Answer: D (CP-189)
SNT-TC1 A
86. A written practice requires the initial experience to be computed on a 160 h, calendar
month basis. If an individual spends 50 li, 50 11, 40 h, 20 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively
in the first calendar month and 20 h, 50 h, 40 h, 50 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively in the
second calendar month, the credit for the initial experience for these two months will be:
A. 70 h, 100 h, 80 h, 70 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively
B. 160 h, 320 h, 80 h, 160 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
C. 320 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively

D. 160 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively
E none of the above
Answer: A ()
87. If an employer performs NDT to multiple codes, specification and `acceptance:'
standards are it, necessary to include questions relating to each code, specification or,
acceptance standards m this specific' examination?
a. No, the level-BI examiner can select the questions from the code, standard of his choice.
b. Yes, it, is the intent of SNT-TC-1A that the specific examination covers all the
codes, specifications and acceptance criteria applicable to the employers activities
c. May be selected based upon differencing job requirements of individual candidates.
d. Both (b) and (c).
Answer: A ()
88. To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-IA currently applicable?
a. Thermography
b. Tomography
c. Visual testing
Answer: A ()
89. In accordance with SNT-TC-TA 1996 which of the following is true for a level -III?
a. On the basis of demonstrated ability, achievement, experience and education
the employer may waive examination for the level - III individual.
b. The employer may delete the specific examination if the candidate has a valid ASNT
NDT level al certificate in the method' and if documented evidence of experience exists.
c. The employer shall recognize only the ASNT level' BI, certificate holder.
d. All of the above are hue.
Answer: A ()
90. Certifying agency is defined as:-
a. The Employer
b. The Outside Agency
c. The ASNT Level BI
d. Both Employer and the ASNT Level III
Answer: A ()
91. A candidate for re-examination must wait a minimum of:-
a. 20 Days
b. 30 days
c. Receive suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level DI before examination
d. 30 Days and receive suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level BI
before examination
Answer: A ()
92. Outside training services must be in accordance with the employers written
practice and are the responsibility of-
a. NDT Level BI
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. Outside Agency
c. Employer
d. Customer
Answer: A ()
91 Initial experience may be gained simultaneously in two or more methods if the
candidate spends a minimum of of walk time on each method for which certification is sought.
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 33%
d. 50%
Answer: A ()
94. As per SNT-TC-1A is it intended that an employer may use level-III individuals in his
direct employment and also use an outside agency for level-DI services?
a. No, an employer shall use only one agency at a time
b. Yes, both the above and this situation may be used under circumstances as described
in the employers' written practice..
c. Employer utilizing outside agency must not have a level III in his direct employment.
d. ASNT does not permit the use of an outside agency
Answer: A ()
95. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 7011 Recommended Practice for
Electrical Equipment Maintenance, recommends infrared electrical inspections be
conducted when the load is at least %of design maximum_
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 40%
d. 95%
Answer: A ()
96. When applying SNT-TC-1A 1996 Edition in strict accordance with the document, is it
the Level III must be examined?
a. No Certification of all levels of NDT personnel is the responsibility of the employer.
b. No The employer can specify the requirements for a certification route without
examination in the employer's written practice.
c. Bath a and b
d. Yes
Answer: A ()
97. The written practice on qualification& certification of NDT personnel is:
A. best reviewed& approved by the purchaser.
B. best reviewed& approved by ASNT.
C. best reviewed& approved by a panel of independent quality assurance auditors.
D. all of the above
E None of the above
Answer: A ()
98. For NDT Level-BI, the Basic examination is
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. Required for every additional method examination

b. Only once when more than one method examination is taken
c. Not required, only method and specific examination shall be taken
d. Either a or c depends up on written practice
Answer: A ()
99. An NDT Level DI faces a situation where the Health and Safety of the public are not
protected. Which of the following actions shall be taken?
a. Notify the proper authority
b. Refuse to accept responsibility for the design
c. If necessary sever relationship with the employer
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
100. A candidate claims total experience of 210 hours in RT, UT, MT & PT. Out of which he
claims 70 hours experience in RT and 80 hours in UT, 40 hours in MT and 20 hours in
PT. Which of the following methods he is eligible for certification:
a. RT, UT
b. RT, UT, MT
c. RT, UT, MT & PT
Answer: A ()
101. A candidate has worked for 1 year doing thickness measurement using flaw detector.
85 percent of the time spent in thickness measurement and the rest of the time was used to
practice in shear wave testing. Is he eligible for direct level-1I?
a. No, he has to spend 25% of time in shear wave testing
b. Yes, he is eligible for direct level-II
c. He is eligible for level-I only
d. After passing level-I he is eligible for level-II
Answer: A ()
102. Organized training:
A. is required for initial certification.
B. should include examinations as part of it to assess level of comprehension
C. may be required for individuals not passing the re-examinations
D. is meant to impart knowledge& skills necessary for qualification
E all of the above
Answer: A ()
101 The use of employment agencies for securing salaried positions and paying of a
commission is considered?
a. Unacceptable
b. Acceptable
c. Open to ruling of the Ethics Committee
d. A felony
Answer: A ()
104 Mayan employer deviates from the guidelines given in SNT-TC lA to meet his specific
needs?
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. Yes: employer shall modify the guidelines to meet his needs, since it is recognized that
these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employer's circumstances or
applications- .
b. No, these guidelines shall be strictly followed.
c. Yes, certain employer's are permitted to deviate from the guidelines.
d. None of the above.
Answer: A ()
105. Which of the following is (are) not recommended in the 2001 edition?
A. Level II technician should possess skills & knowledge to establish teclmiques.
B. All ASNT Level III holding a valid endorsement may also have to undergo examinations
for certification.
C. Specific examination may be deleted if the candidate (ASNT NDT Level BI) holds a valid
endorsement
D. bona A & B above
E both B & C above
Answer: A ()
106. The requirement for vision examination are as follows:-
a. Jaeger J1 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered armi
b. Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 15 inches administered annually
c. Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered annually
d. Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered bi-annually.
Answer: A ()
107. Which of the following NDT Levels should be qualified to set up and calibrate
equipment and to interpret and evaluate results with respect to applicable codes, standards
and specifications?
a. Level I
b. Level II
c. Level III
d. Level II and Level BI
Answer: A ()
108. Which of the following statements is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-IA?
a. This document is intended as a guideline for employers to establish their own written
practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personnel.
b. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification.
c. SNT-TC-1A was last revised in 1992.
d. All of the above.
Answer: A ()
109. Which of the following statements is true? An NDT Level III shall
a. Issue no public statements
b. Criticize NDT matters connected with public policy
c. Issue no public statements, which are paid for by an interested party
d. Express no opinion on NDT matters
Answer: A ()
110. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the Written Practice?
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. The employer shall establish a written practice.

b. The written practice should describe levels of responsibility.
c. The written practice shall be submitted to clients for acceptability.
d. The written practice shall be maintained on file.
Answer: A ()
111. The following results were obtained as a result of examination: Practical: 90%
General Theory: 68% Specific Theory: 92% What is the composite grade and has the
candidate passed or failed?
a. 83.3% Pass
b. 83.3% Fail
c. 85.5% Pass
d. 85.5% Fail
Answer: A ()
112. Near vision Examination shall be administered by:
a. Representative of NDT Level-DI
b. NDT Level-BI
c. Persoimel as per the employer's written practice, which should include details of
the qualifications required of examiners.
d. Both a & b
Answer: A ()
113. If an outside agency is engaged to provide level-BI service, the:
a. responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer utilizing outside
services.
b. Outside agency may, certify the personnel of the employer utilizing outside services
c. Employer utilizing outside services must have a level-BI in direct employment
d. Employer must obtain prior permission from the customer.
Answer: A ()
114_ Which of the following is common to both SNT-TC-1A and CP-189?
a_ Both SNT-TC-1A and CP-189 are for employer-based certification programs.
b. The employer does have the ability to modify either certification program to meet
specific needs.
c. SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice, CP-189 is a consensus standard that sets
the minimum requirements for a personnel qualification and certification program
d. Both a &b
Answer: A ()
115. May a level-I person who has been Certified in accordance with SNT-TC- 1A1996,
be permitted to evaluate, and sign for final acceptance of NDE examination?
a. No, as per SNT-TC-IA the NOT level-I personnel is required to perform that test only and
is not supposed to evaluate the test results. .
b. Yes, a level-BI personnel may-delegate the powers to level-I for evaluation of test results.
c. Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the level-I person. May perform the above function
provided they are in accordance with written procedures and so documented in the
employer's written practice
d. both (b) and (c)
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
116. To be considered for certification at Level BI a candidate should satisfy which of the
following criteria?
a. Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus one
years experience in NDT.
b. Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus two
years experience in NDT.
c. Three years experience as NDT Level H and one years experience as NDT Level I.
d. Five years experience as NDT Level n
Answer: A ()
117. An employee was issued with a Level-I certification with 3 year validation Two years
after certification he attempts a Level-II examination and fails. What is the status
of his Level I certification?
a. Since a higher level certification was attempted and failed, the existing lower level
certification would be considered valid for the remainder of the certification period
b. Since he failed, his level-1 certification is not valid and must take re-examination.
c. He must take re-examination after 30 days
d. His level-1 certificate is valid for 30 days and within that time frame he has to take re-
examination.
Answer: A ()
118. The code of ethics shall be upon every person issued a certificate by ASNT as an NDT
Level III.
a. Binding
b. Optional
c. Negotiable
d. Mandatory
Answer: A ()
119. An NDT Level BI shall serve which of the following?
a. Employer
b. Client
c. Public
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
120. In preparing for qualification, the training times recommended for level-I in Magnetic
Particle Testing are greater than for level Why?
a. Some NDT methods require more initial training at level I because of differences in
complexity and manipulative skills.
b. Candidates for level-I generally have less formal education than those for level-II.
c. No the candidates should always receive more training for level-I1 regardless of NDT
method.
d. both (a) and (b).
Answer: A ()
121. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement
equipment be qualified and certified?
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. yes, because SNT-TC-1A standard requires that all personnel performing NDT be qualified
and certified.
b. no, because SNT-TC-1A standard on personnel certification does not cover that specific
operation.
c. only if required by industry codes, standards, and specifications.
d. it depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's
customers or client
Answer: A ()
122. It was observed during an audit by purchaser on a supplier that an ASNT NDT Level
III had been certified waiving examinations that were required by the supplier's written
practice. The best option would be:
A. No specific action is required as SNT -TC-1A indicates that an ASNT NDT Level — III
may be certified waiving the examinations.
B. This is a nonconformity against the written practice needs to be resolved with the customer.
C. It is best to amend the relevant portion of the written practice immediately to avoid such non-
conformities.
D. all of the above could be a possible option.
Answer: A ()
121 A person who administered and graded an examination was identified on the
examination and on the certification, and both are signed by the Level BI certifier, does the
Level III need to issue a letter or statement delegating that person as their representative?
a. Yes, the Level-BI certifier has to issue a letter designating that person as their
representative.
b. Need not be, A Level BI's signature on the examination or certification may be accepted as
designation.
c. No, the employer has to issue a letter designating that person as their representative.
Answer: A ()
124 According to SNT-TC-1A 1996 which one of the following statement is correct for a
level II?
a. A graduate in Engineering shall undergo training for forty (40) hours and have work time
experience of nine months to qualify as level - II in UT.
b. A high school graduate shall undergo training for forty (40) hours and have work time
experience of nine (9) months to qualify as level - II in UT.
c. Both the above statements are true.
d. Only (a) is true.
Answer: A ()
125. Color contrast differentiation should be conducted upon initial certification and
then:-
a. Annually
b. At 2 year intervals
c. At 3 year intervals
d. At 5 year intervals
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
126. To be in full compliance with ASNT TC-1A, certification must be based on which of the
following:
a. Training, equipment, and having a certificate
b. Training, experience, and testing
c. Experience with certified training
d. Level I, Level II and Level BI training
Answer: A ()
127. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A it is recommended that a training programme for
qualification and certification purposes should include:
a. Organized training to become thoroughly familiar with `the principles and practices' of the
specified test method related' to the level of certification desired
b. Training applicable to the practices to be used and products to be tested.
c. Sufficient examination to assure that the necessary information has, been
comprehended.
d. All of the above.
e. Only (b) & (c).
Answer: A ()
128. Who is responsible for the designation of representative for the administration and
grading of examinations?
a. The employer's written practice should identify the person
b. When not specifically addressed in the written practice, designation of a
representative becomes wholly the responsibility of the NDT Level III
c. A Level IH's signature on the examination or certification may be accepted as
designation.
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
129. Should the employer's (designated) representative signing for certification, be a
certified Level III examiner in the specific discipline?
a. Yes
b. No, It can be signed by an individual with no certification in that discipline but is a certified
level BI examiner in a different NDT process.
C. Whoever is identified by the employer in their written practice as the designated
representative, may sign the record of certification.
d. Only the certifying agency can sign the certification document
Answer: A ()
130. According to Guidelines for personnel qualification and certification (ASNT TC-
1A) theimograplaers are certified by:
a. ASNT
b. The company from which they received their training
c. Their employer
d. National Certification Board of America (NCBA)
Answer: A ()
131. SNT-TC-1A 2001 is applicable to how many NDT methods?
a. 7
b. 8
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
c. 11
d. 12
Answer: A ()
132. In accordance with SNT-TC-IA 1996, Which of the following statements is not hue?
a. An NDT level-BI shall be responsible for the administration and grading of examinations for
NDT level I & II personnel.
b. The administration and grading of examination may be delegated to a designated
representative of NDT level -DI and so recorded.
c. The percentage weights used in grading are recommended to total 1.0
d. For a level-I & I personnel a composite grade shall be determined by simple
averaging of general, specific& practical examination results.
Answer: A ()
131 The number of questions for Ultrasonic Testing at Level 1 General Theory is:
a. 20
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40
Answer: A ()
134. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70E, Electrical safety for personnel, states
that the "flash hazard" distance for high energy electrical equipment at 440/480V is what
distance from the conductor?
a. 1 foot
b. 20 feet
c. 4 meters
d. 3 feet
Answer: A ()
135. A candidate is required to be examined directly to Level II in PT. How many months
experience must the candidate have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
Answer: A ()
136. An NDT Level Ill who accepts gratuities from equipment suppliers for specifying their
products may be charged under the code of ethics with?
a. Improper conduct
b. Conflict of interest
c. Unauthorized practice
Answer: A ()
137. How many different techniques are identified in leak testing?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. 5
Answer: A ()
138. To be in full compliance with ASNT TC-1A, certification must be based on which of the
following:
a. Training, equipment, and having a certificate
b. Training, experience, and testing
c. Experience with certified training
d. Level I, Level II and Level III training
Answer: A ()
139. As recommended in SNT:-TC-1A the physical examination requirements a
intended to
a. assure natural, corrected, near distance acuity in at least one eye such that the applicant is,
capable of reading a minimum of Jaeger Number 2, on a standard Jaeger Test Clint.
b. Each employer's specific needs.
c. Meet the specific sections ASME code.
d. both (a) and (b)
Answer: A ()
a. yes, because ASNT-SNT-TC1A standard requires that all personnel performing NDT be
qualified and certified.
b. no, because ASNT-SNT-TC1A standard on personnel certification does not cover that
specific operation.
customers or clientele.
Answer: A ()
141. Which of the following is (are) not true with respect to the 2001 edition of SNT-
TC-1A?
A Level-II individuals require higher education& experience in the applicable method than
Level I individuals in the corresponding methods
B. Vision acuity is to be checked with either a Jaeger chart or an Ortho-Rater chart only
C. Recertification of an individual is automatic: and is solely based on his continued
satisfactory performance
D. all of the above
E A & B above
Answer: A ()
142. Any individual examination grade less than 70 percent should be considered a
failing grade?
a. Yes
b. No, if the composite grade is 80% he should be considered as pass
c. The employer has to decide on this
d. Both b and c
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
141 An employer has to test or certify an outside Level III consultant?

a. Yes
b. No, only review the Level-DI consultant's qualification
c. No, the employer has to assure that the examination services are in accordance with
employer's written practice
d. Bothb &c
Answer: A ()
144. Which of the following statements is true with respect to SNT-TC- 1A?
a. This document specifies the requirements for establishment of qualification and
examination program
b. This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and certification
program_
c. This document specifies the requirements for establishment of a qualification and
certification program.
d. This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and examination
program
Answer: A ()
145. In order to qualify for ASNT NDT Level-DI a candidate with a bachelor's degree or
higher is required to have:
a. At least one year of experience in NDT in an assignment comparable to that of a
Level If in the applicable NDT method.
b. The Level 1111 candidate must pass in the Method examination.
c. Successfully complete a Basic Examination covering personnel qualification and
certification documents (Recommended Practice No SNT-TC-1A and ANSI/ASNT
CP-189), material processes and technology, and 10 different NDT methods.
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
146. When canying out practical examination at NDT Level II the minimum
number of samples to be tested is?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: A ()
147. Should personnel that operate optical fibroscope for visual examination be
qualified and certified?
a. Yes, because SNT-TC-1A required that all personnel performing NDT be qualified
and certified.
b. No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation
c. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon
the need of the employer and the need of the employer's customers or clients.
d. only if required by specific codes and standard.
Answer: A ()
148. The employers certification shall be deemed when employment is terminated.
a. Suspended
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. Annulled
c. Nullified
d. Revoked
Answer: A ()
149. What is the key difference between SNT-TC-1A and CP-189?
a. SNT-TC-1A is a consensus standard, CP-189 is a recommended practice
b. SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice, while CP-189 is a consensus standard that sets
the minimum requirements for a personnel qualification and certification program
c. SNT-TC-1A is an employer-based certification programs and CP-189 is a strict standard that
is to be followed.
d. The employer does have the ability to modify either certification program to meet
specific needs in both SNT-TC-1A and CP 189.
Answer: A ()
150. Use of SNT-TC-IA is mandatory when:
a. Their material being tested is for an export contract.
b. It has been specified by the customer.
c. The material being tested by is as per ASME code.
d. Any of the above cases occurred.
Answer: A ()
151. Is the ASNT Level BI certificate endorsement limited to persons tested by ASNT?
a. Yes
b. No, Any body who posses' level-II is also endorsed
c. Employer has to decide regarding this
d. None of the above.
Answer: A ()
152. According to Guidelines for personnel qualification and certification (ASNT
TC-1A) thermographers are certified by:
a. ASNT
b. The company from which they received their training
c. Their employer
d. National Certification Board of America (NCBA)
Answer: A ()
153 The responsibility of each level of certification for determining the acceptability of
material:
a. shall be in accordance with the applicable codes, standards, specification and procedures.
b. should be in accordance with customers' requirements
c. should be described in employers' written practice under all circumstances
d. should be described in employers' written practice only if customer calls for it
Answer: A ()
154. The responsibility for vision examination rests with:
A the qualified representative of the NDT Level-BI
B. the NDT Level III
C. the candidate seeking certification
D. the company's doctor
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
E all of the above

Answer: A ()
155. The American standard for the certification of nondestructive testing personnel
is developed and maintained by:
a. The American Society of Non-Destructive Testing (ASNT).
b. standard committee composed of representatives from industry working under the
auspice of CGSB.
c. Natural Resources US (formally Energy, Mines and Resources) under the
auspice of the American General Standards Board.
d. a cooperative effort between various American regulatory bodies and Natural Resources.
Answer: A ()
156. An employer, on deciding to establish a system for qualification &certifying,NDT
personnel, should:
A have an NDT Level III on his rolls
B. have an ASNT NDT Level III with valid endorsement in all the applicable methods
C. review the recommendations& modify, as necessary, to meet particular needs
D. A & B above
E B & C above
Answer: A ()
157. Which of the following may be ground for a charge of a violation of the code of
ethics?
a. Conviction of a felony
b. Revocation of professional engineers license
c. Suspension of professional engineers license
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
158. For re-qualification of Level I and II NDT personnel, does the individual must keep
continuous records by the hour showing that the individual has continuously spent at
least 25 percent of his work time working in each method to which qualified?
a. No, it is only the initial experience required and not applicable for re-certification.
b. Yes, the individual has to maintain continuous record.
c. No, It is the employer who decides this
d. Re-certification experience is decided by the level-BI
Answer: A ()
159. The number of questions for magnetic particle inspection at Level BI specific theory is:
a. 15
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
Answer: A ()
160. Is it possible to write a written practice to cover both the recommendations in
SNT-TC-1A., and the requirements given in ANSI/ASNT CP-189?
a. No, because SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice and CP 189 is a standard that require
minimum requirements.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. Yes, a written practice can cover both if it meets the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A
c. To write a written practice to meet both SNT-TC-1A recommendations and CP-189
requirements, the minimum requirements of the CP-189 document would have to be met
d. No, It is not permitted.
Answer: A ()
161. An employer faced with the task of developing a written practice per
Recommended Practice No SNT-TC-1A, Personnel Qualification and Certification
in Nondestructive Testing. Which of the following is true as per SNT-TC-IA?
a. A written practice need to be written by a Level BI and approved by the employer
b. The task of developing a WP should be given to the individual who is the most
familiar with the various administrative aspects, which constitute an NDT personnel
qualification and certification program.
c. Regardless of who authors the written practice, it is always the employer who has the final
approval of its contents.
d. Both b & c
Answer: A ()
162. Shall the NDT Level I, who was qualified in accordance with an early edition and
continuing satisfactory performance, be required to take an additional examination
evaluating the practical examination results, until next requalification, if their
written practice stipulates the specific evaluation of acceptance for the NDT Level I?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Level I certification is valid until the expiration date. At that time, the individual should
be recertified according to the employer's guidelines
d. Both a & c
Answer: A ()
163. In accordance with SNT-TC-IA 1996 is it implied that an individual at maximum
could be qualified only 4 methods?
a. Yes, because the individual requires to spend at least 25% of his work time on each method.
b. No, the candidate may be qualified in as many methods as desired. The 25% work time
experience only applies for the initial qualification in each level for each method.
c. The 25% work time experience is not applicable and is not required for; the individual to
remain qualified in particular method at a specific qualification level.
d. both (b) and (c) are true.
Answer: A ()
164. An NDT Level III must be completely in any professional report statement on
testimony.
a. Prejudiced
b. Impersonal
c. Objective
d. Conventional
Answer: A ()
165. Establishing a written practice for the control and administration of NDT personnel,
training, examination & certification:
a. is the sale responsibility of the employer
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. is basically the responsibility of the NDT level III as per SNT-TC-TA

c. shall be as dictated by the customer
d. shall be in accordance with the guidelines given by an appropriate regulatory authority
Answer: A ()
166. An outside agency that provides NDT Level III services could be:
A an individual
B. a company
C. an individual or a company
D. an individual or a company whose services are reviewed & approved by the user
Answer: A ()
167. As a minimum, what should an employer, expect from an outside Level III service
provider?
a. For long time contract the Level III person should review all of current procedures and
personnel, equipment/cahbration records.
b. If the person is employed for just starting to perform nondestructive testing, then
the Level DI should assist the employer in developing all of the necessary documentation
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above, the outside Level-BI should only sign the document
Answer: A ()
168. As per SNT-TC-1A which of the statement is true concerning recertification?
a. recertification level-I & II shall be at least once in three (3) years
b. recertification for level-III shall be at least once in five (5) years.
c. NDT personnel may be reexamined any time at the discretion of the employer and have the
certificate extended or revoked
d. all of the above are tnie
e. Only (a) & (b) are true
Answer: A ()
169. Table 63.1A contains the statement "Credit for experience may be gained
simultaneously in two or more disciplines. The candidate must spend at least 25 percent of
his work time on each discipline for which experience is being claimed. Over what time
period does the term "simultaneously" apply?
a. Table 63.1B shall be followed
b. The employer's written practice should specify the time period over which simultaneous
experience shall be credited
c. Time period does not matte, only the total experience counts.
Answer: A ()
170. The composite grade for general, specific& practical examinations should be:
A. as defined in the employer's written practice
B. simple averaging of test results of general, specific and practical
C. both A & B above
D. None of the above
Answer: A ()
171. In order to Obtain ASNT NDT Level-BI a candidate is required to have:
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. At least one year of experience in NDT in an assignment comparable to that of a

Level II in the applicable NDT method
b. The Level III candidate must pass in the Method examination.
c. Successfully complete a Basic Examination covering personnel qualification and
certification documents (Recommended Practice No SNT-TC-1A and ANSI/ASNT
CP-189), material processes and technology, and 10 different NDT methods.
d. Bothb&c
Answer: A ()
172. Written testimony of qualification is termed:-
a. Documentation
b. Certification
c. Testimonial
d. Authentication
Answer: A ()
171 When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level III how many checkpoints
are necessary to confirm an understanding of NDT variables and the employers procedural
requirements?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
Answer: A ()
174. Is 25% minimum experience work time implies that a candidate can be qualified
maximum of 4 methods?
a. No The candidate may be qualified in as many methods as desired.
b. The 25 percent work time experience only applies to the work time experience required
for initial qualification in each level for each method.
c. The 25 percent is not applicable and is not required for the individual to remain
qualified in a particular method at a specific qualification level.
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
175. A Level-II candidate had Scores of 34, 50, 58 out of a total possible 50, 60, 70 in
general, specific& practical respectively in an examination and failed. All other
requirements being met, which of the following additional scores would have made him
pass the exam?
A 1 in general, 1 in practical
B. 2 in specific
C. 1 in general, 1 in practical& in specific
D. all of the above
R none of the above
Answer: A ()
176. Which of the following statement is not true:
A. SNT-TC-1A is intended for use by any industrial segment.
B. SNT-TC-1A was not generated to satisfy any particular code or specification requirements.
C. SNT=TC-1A was last revised in 1992.
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D. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as strict specification.

Answer: A ()
177. The employer
A should have on his rolls, as a minimum one NDT Level — III for each of the applicable
methods
B. should have on his rolls, as a minimum, one NDT Level — III
C. may purchase NDT Level — III services, as necessary
D. none of the above
Answer: A ()
178. Automatic termination of 'certification is recommended when the certified individual:
a. Temporarily assigned to a different job function.
b. Take a leave of absence greater than ninety (90) days
c. Terminates employment with the employer where certified
d. Achieve a higher level of certification.
Answer: A ()
a. yes, because SNT-TC-1A requires that all personnel performing NDT be qualified
and certified
b. no, because SNT-TC-1A standard on personnel certification does not cover that specific
operation.
customers or clientele.
Answer: A ()
180. Conflict of interest with an employer?
a. Is unacceptable
b. May be acceptable if agreement on compensation can be made
c. Shall be disclosed to the employer
d. Shall not be made known
Answer: A ()
181. An NDT Level III who reviewed work that was performed by himself on behalf of
another employer when an employed public official would be considered?
a. Ethical
b. Improper conduct
c. Conflict of interest
d. Unauthorized practice
Answer: A ()
182. Minimum number of questions for NDT Level-DI is
a. Basic-135, Method-135
b. Basic-55, Method-65
c. Basic-55, Method-55, Specific-20
d. Basic-55, Method-65, Specific-20
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
OTHER NDT METHODS

181 When checking for imperfections on rolled slabs which of the following viewing
techniques will give the sharpest image?
a. Television image from a vidicon
b. Television image from a charged coupled device
c. Photographic image
d. Television image from a vidicon and television image from a charged coupled device
Answer: A ()
184. Which of the following is a characteristic of acoustic emission compared with other
inspection techniques?
a. Detects geometric form of defects
b. Requires stress
c. Less material sensitive
d. More geometry sensitive
Answer: A ()
185. Eddy current testing requires that the material tested be
a. magnetic
b. non-magnetic
n conductive
d. both b and c
Answer: A ()
186. For type-2 exposure devices using a flexible metal drive cable to position the isotope,
the isotope capsule is attached to a
a. zircalloy tube
b. pigtail
n depleted uranium shield
d. quick disconnect coupling
Answer: A ()
187. Which of the following is an advantage of the post-emulsification fluorescent penetrant
process?
a. is very good on rough surfaces such as sand castings.
b. involves fewer operations than with other penetrant processes.
c. can be used on anodized surfaces.
d. can be used to detect wide, shallow defects.
Answer: A ()
188. What water path is needed when using a straight beam transducer with a 4-inch (101
mm) focus to place focal spot at a bond line 17 mm deep in copper? (Velocity in
copper=0.18cm/s and Velocity in water=0.584)
a. 4.12in
b. 2.06in
n 2.06 mm
d. 20.6m
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
189. Which one of the following conditions will affect the rate and the extent a liquid
penetrant will enter cracks, fissures, and other small openings?
A. The hardness of the specimen being tested
B. The surface condition of the specimen being tested
C. The color of the penetrant
D. The conductivity of the specimen being tested
Answer: A ()
190. The measurement of radiant energy in the visible spectrum, based on a standard
observer response, is called:
A photometry.
a spectrometry.
C. geniometry.
D. spectrodiomehy.
Answer: A ()
191. Which of the following faults is more likely to be found in a forged product?
a. Lap
b. Porosity
n Cold shut
d. Shrinkage
n Both lap and porosity
Answer: A ()
192. The simultaneous comparison of a standard lamp and an unknown light source is
called:
A absolute photometry.
B. relative photometry.
C. direct photometry.
D. substitution photometry.
Answer: A ()
193. An indication, in magnetic particle inspection, that is held mechanically and
not magnetically, is known as:
a. a forging burst
b. a non-relevant indication
n a false indication
d. magnetic writing
Answer: A ()
194. Should an isotope camera be found to be leaking radioactive material subsequent
to a wipe test
a. the depleted uranium is to be replaced
b. all exposures since the last wipe test are to be recalled
n the source is to be destroyed
Answer: A ()
195. Which of the following would normally be considered the best fill-factor for eddy
current inspection of straight tubing with an encircling or feed-through coil?
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a. 1.75
b. 095
c. 0.50
d. 025
Answer: A ()
196. Which cells in the human body are most affected by ionizing Radiation?
A. White blood cells.
B. Red blood cells.
C. Plasma cells.
D. Lens of the eye.
Answer: A ()
197. Which of the following would be classed as an in service fault?
a. Shrinkage crack
b. Fatigue crack
c. Grinding crack
d. All could be service faults
Answer: A ()
198. Converting old units to SI units, 100 rads = 1 gray (GY) How many mGys are there in
1 rad?
A. 0.10
B. 1.00
C. 10.00
D. 10090
Answer: A ()
199. Which of the following is an advantage of the pressure change
measurement test method?
a. Requires no special tracer gas
b. Can be used for measuring total leakage rate on either evacuated or pressurized systems
c. Can be used to measure total leakage rate on any size system
d. All of the above apply
Answer: A ()
200. The light from common sources, particularly light from incandescent lamps, is
often compared with light from a theoretical source. This theoretical source is called a:
A gray body
B photometer.
C. blackbody.
D. light comparator.
Answer: A ()
201. When using a camera for visual inspection within an extremely high radiation area
which of the following types would be chosen?
a. Vidicon tube
b. Charged coupled device
c. Metal oxide semi conductor
d. Orthicon tube
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
202. Why do prod tips need to be kept clean and free from contaminants?
a. The contamination reduces the resistance so increasing current flow
b. Clean prod tips have less chance of arcing
c. Clean prods conduct current through scale much better
d. The increase in resistance with dirty prods reduces the current output
e. Both clean prod tips have less chance of arcing and the increase in resistance with
dirty prods reduces the current output
Answer: A ()
203. A tool that uses the wavelength of light as a unit to measure the surface contour is
called:
A surface comparator.
B. metallurgical microscope.
C. interference microscope.
D. polarized microscope
Answer: A ()
204. When thorough demagnetization is to be accomplished by placing the part in a coil
energized with AC of decreasing amperage, the following orientation of the long axis of
the part is most advantageous:
A East-West
B. North-South
C. Irrelevant (no difference)
D. South-West
Answer: A ()
205. An excellent radiograph is obtained under given conditions of exposure with the
film located at a distance of 36 inches from the target of the x-ray tube. If the film is now
placed only 18 inches from the target and all exposure conditions except time are held
constant, the new exposure time will be:
A Unchanged.
B. Longer by approximately 80 percent.
C. Shorter by approximately 55 percent.
D. Only about 25 percent as long as the original exposure time
Answer: A ()
206. During manual fihn processing, the purpose of the stop bath is to:
A change the exposed silver salts to black metallic silver.
B. neutralizes the developer and stop the developing process.
C. eliminate most water spots and streaks.
D. none of the above.
Answer: A ()
207. Ultrasonic waves transmitted into and received from the test material in the
form of repetitive bursts of acoustic energy is called:
A Pulse-echo testing
B. Continuous wave testing
C. Resonance testing
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D. None of the above

Answer: A ()
208. When a sound beam travels from a liquid into a metal through a contoured surface,
the sound beam inside the metal will:
A Have larger beam diameter
B. Have same beam diameter
C. Not be effected by the part geometry
D. Be convergent if the surface is concave, and divergent if the surface is convex
Answer: A ()
209. The principle of solid-state image devices is based on:
A. photoelectric effect and the free electrons that are created in a region of silicon illuminated
by photons.
B. generation of train of electrical pulses that represent light intensities present in an optical
image.
C. the amount of charge in each packet that stays substantially the same.
D. an electron beam that is used to scan a photoconductive target.
Answer: A ()
210. In immersion testing, the near field effects of a transducer may be eliminated by:
A Increasing transducer frequency
B. Use of larger diameter transducer
C. Using an appropriate water path
D. Use of a focused transducer
Answer: A ()
211. The wavelength of an ultrasonic wave is:
A. directly proportional to velocity and frequency.
B. directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional to frequency.
C. inversely proportional to velocity and directly proportional to frequency.
Answer: A ()
212. Radiation particles and photons lose their energy primarily through which of the
following processes?
A Radioactive decay
B. Ionization
C. Atomic absorption
D. Thermionic emission
Answer: A ()
213. Although there may be other reasons for using calcium tungstate screens in industrial
radiography, they are most usually used to:
A Improve definition and resolution in radiographic images.
a Improve contrast in radiographic images.
C. Decrease exposure time
D. Make films respond to multimillion-voltradiation.
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
214. Which of the following parts could NOT be tested by the liquid penetrant method?
A. An iron casting
if An aluminum forging
C. A part made from a porous material
D. A part made from a non-porous material
Answer: A ()
215. The kilovoltage applied to an x-ray tube affects:
A the quality of the beam.
B. the intensity of the beam.
C. both A and B above.
D. neither A nor B above.
Answer: A ()
216. Preventing the decrease of sensitivity close to a wall, which is parallel to the beam
direction, the probe used should be:
A As small as possible
B. Of as low frequency
C. Both A and B above
D. Large and with a frequency as high as possible
Answer: A ()
217. Which of the following is not a basic component of eddy current equipment?
A Amplifier
B. Coil
C. Liquid Couplant
D. Detector
Answer: A ()
a. 1 foot
b. 20 feet
c. 4 meters
d. 3 feet
Answer: A ()
219. Beam divergence is a function of the dimensions of the crystal and the wavelength of the
beam transmitted through a medium, and it:
A. increases if the frequency or crystal diameter is decreased.
fi decreases if the frequency or crystal diameter is decreased.
C. increases if the frequency is increased and crystal diameter decreased.
D. decreases if the frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased.
Answer: A ()
220. A test specimen used as a basis for calibrating test equipment or as a comparison when
evaluating test results is referred to as a:
A Null-balancer.
B. Phase shifter.
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C. Reference standard.
D. High pass filter.
Answer: A ()
221. What metal is the target made of when producing thermal neutrons in a van de graaf
generator?
a. Lithium
b. Beryllium
c. Cobalt
d. Tungsten
Answer: A ()
222. Volume change due to thermal expansion or contraction of a constant volume
system during a pressure change measurement test?
a. Does not affect the leakage rate calculations
b. Is automatically accounted for by the corrections
c. Is not normally significant
d. Has a very significant error on the leakage rate results
Answer: A ()
223. The range of thickness over which densities are obtained that are satisfactory for
interpretation is a measure of the:
A subject contrast of a radiograph.
11 sensitivity of a radiograph.
C. latitude of a radiograph.
D. definition of a radiograph.
Answer: A ()
224 For one person to use prods unaided which of the following would be the most suitable
approach?
a. Hold both prods in one hand with the detaching medium in the other
b. Use the residual technique as the detecting medium can be applied after the magnetizing
force
c. Use a magnetic leech attachment to one prod with the other in one hand and the detecting
medium in the other
d. Prods should not be used by one person due to safety precautions
Answer: A ()
225. The cause for poor image definition could be:
A too short source-to-film distance
11 screens and film not in close contact.
C. iflm graininess.
D. all of the above.
Answer: A ()
226. Filters placed between the x-ray tube and specimen tend to reduce scatter radiation
undercutting the specimen:
A by absorbing the longer wavelength components of the primary beam
11 by absorbing the shorter wavelength components of the primary beam
C. by absorbing backscatter radiation.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
D. decreasing the intensity of the beam_

Answer: A ()
227. Lines of flux are thought to leave a magnet at:
A the North Pole.
B. the South Pole.
C. both north and south poles.
Answer: A ()
228. What is the decibel difference between 2 signals on the display with one at 85% full
screen height and the other at 17% full screen height?
a. 7db
b. 14db
c. 2db
d. 15db
Answer: A ()
229. Which of the following gases is not particularly useful as an infrared tracer gas?
a. Natural gas
b. SF6
c. Nitrous oxide
d. CO2
Answer: A ()
230. In order to detect defects in different directions in a material by magnetic particle
inspection, it is best to use:
A two or more fields in different directions.
a only one field.
C. other probe locations.
D. a high frequency field.
Answer: A ()
231. In an eddy current testing situation, which of the following can provide sources of
noise?
A Instrumentation electronic circuits
B. Nonspecific variations within the test object
C. Electrical interference
D. All of the above
Answer: A ()
232. The reference holes required to produce a 3 mm FBH DAC are:
A Flat-bottomed holes
B. Concave-surface holes
C. Convex-surface holes
D. Conical-shaped holes
Answer: A ()
233. It is possible for a discontinuity smaller than the transducer to produce indications
of fluctuating amplitude as the search unit is moved laterally if testing is being performed in
the:
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
A. Fraunhofer zone
11 Near field
C. Snell field
D. Shadow zone
Answer: A ()
234. If an indication is formed when using the residual method as well as the continuous
method, it is most likely:
A very deep and tight
a very shallow and open to the surface.
C. a relevant indication.
D. a nonrelevant indication.
Answer: A ()
235. Lamb waves can be used to detect:
A Laminar-type defects near the surface of a thin material
a Lack of fusion in the center of a thick weldment
C. Internal voids in diffusion bonds
D. Thickness changes in heavy plate material
Answer: A ()
236. When using an eddy current test system for sorting, it is generally recommended that:
a. all parts other than the part being tested be kept at least 12 inches from the test coil
b. the test coil be kept away from large motors and transformers.
c. the table on which the parts are placed be equipped with a nonmagnetic top.
d. all of the above may be important.
Answer: A ()
237. An excellent radiograph is obtained under given exposure conditions with a tube
current of 5 milli-amperes and an exposure time of 12 minutes. If other conditions are not
changed, what exposure time would be required if the x-ray tube current could be raised to
10 milli-amperes?
A 24 minutes.
B. 12 minutes.
C. 6 minutes.
D. 3 minutes.
Answer: A ()
238. Embrittlement, caused by a physical or chemical change in the metal, is a reduction
in:
A ductility.
B. hardness.
C. hydrogen
Answer: A ()
239. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is called a magnetic discontinuity
is related to a sudden change in:
A inductance.
a resistivity.
C. capacitance.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
D. permeability.
Answer: A ()
240. The lead symbol "B" is attached to the back of the film holder to determine:
A sensitivity.
B. whether excessive backscatter is present.
C. radiographic contrast.
D. density
Answer: A ()
241. An oscillator used in generating time varying current in an ECT instrument usually
supplies currents at frequencies from
a. 1 Hz to 20 kHz
b. 50 Hz to 60 Hz
c. 1 kHz to 2 MHz
d. 0.5 MHz to 4 GHz
Answer: A ()
242. Which of the following radiation types could make some materials radioactive?
A X-rays.
B. Neutron bombardment.
C. Alpha particles.
D. All the above.
Answer: A ()
243. As the pulse length of the excitation voltage is shortened the transmitted pulse
a. frequency spectrum broadens
b. frequency spectrum shortens
c. increases energy output
d. increases penetration ability
Answer: A ()
244. When a body tissue cell is damaged by radiation:
A The cell may lose its ability to reproduce.
B. The cell may die.
C. Damage is caused by knocking an electron out of the orbit of its parent atom_
D. All of the above.
Answer: A ()
245. In radiation heat transfer which of the following material properties is most
important?
a. Density
b. Emissivity
c. Specific heat
d. Diffusivity
Answer: A ()
246. Metal blocks, which contain one or more drilled holes to simulate discontinuities, are
called:
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
A Scrubbers
B. Crystal collimators
C. Single plane angulators
D. Reference blocks
Answer: A ()
247. A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in the electromagnetic
coupling between a test specimen and a probe coil when the distance of separation between
them is varied is:
A if ll factor.
B. edge effect.
C. end effect.
D. lift-off
Answer: A ()
248. When testing by the eddy current method, discontinuities will be most easily detected
when the eddy currents are:
A. coplanar with the major plane of the discontinuity.
B. perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity.
C. parallel to the major plane of the discontinuity.
D. 90 degrees out of phase with the current in the coil.
Answer: A ()
249. Which of the following radioactive isotopes produce thermal neutrons?
a. Iridium 192
b. Californium 252
c. Cobalt 60
d. Caesium 137
Answer: A ()
250. The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibrations travel through the
material is referred to as:
A Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Reproducibility
D. Attenuation
Answer: A ()
251. The quantity (activity) of a radioactive source in which the number of nuclear
disintegrations per second is a standard definition, which directly applies to:
A Sievert (Sv)
B. Gray (Gy)
C. Curie (Ci)
D. Becquerel (Bq)
Answer: A ()
252. If a penetrant test is to be conducted using a visible dye penetrant in pressurized
spray cans, the temperature of the test area should not be lower than:
a. 30(C
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. 15(C
c. 5(C
d. -7(C
Answer: A ()
253. When testing a part with a rough surface; as compared to a similar part with a smooth
surface, one should generally use:
a. a higher frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant
b. a lower frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant
c. a higher frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant
d. a lower frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant
Answer: A ()
254. Which of the following particles or rays have the highest ionizing effect in air?
A Alpha particles
B. Beta particles
C. Neutrons
D. Gamma and X rays
Answer: A ()
255. If a modular equipment has been obtained for a penetrant inspection system
using fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant and wet developer, the dryer should be placed:
A before the emulsifier tank.
B. after the developer tank.
C. before the developer tank.
D. after the wash unit
Answer: A ()
256. Continuous linear discontinuities along the length of a drawn bar would probably be
classified as:
A. stringers
B. seams
C. laps
D. slivers
Answer: A ()
257. 5.669 x 10-8 W/m2 is the value for:
a. Stefan-Boltzmannconstant
b. Wien's constant
c. Coefficient of cooling
d. k value for aluminum oxide
Answer: A ()
258. EMAT applied sound waves are generated within the
a. coil
b. Material
c. liftoff
d. Piezo-electric crystal
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
259. The fillet weld size is based on the:

A effective fillet weld throat.
B. length of fillet weld.
C. theoretical throat.
D. length of fillet weld leg.
Answer: A ()
260. In Ultrasonics, knowledge of the velocity of sound in a given material is necessary in
determining:
a. the specific acoustic impedance of the material.
b. the angle of refraction in the material.
c. the depth of an indication in the material.
d. all of the above
Answer: A ()
261. The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating a
discontinuity is:
A Shear wave
B. Longitudinal wave
C. Surface wave
D. Compression wave
Answer: A ()
262. In a betatron, acceleration of electrons into circular path is achieved by
a. a rotating magnetic field
b. traveling wave guides
c. the Villard doubling circuit
d. venturi tubes
Answer: A ()
263. Because it is frequently supplied as a water-soluble compound, which of the
following is considered to have an additional radiological hazard potential associated
with it?
A. Cobalt-60
11 Thulium-170
C. Indium-192
D. Cesium-137
Answer: A ()
264. Factors, which must be considered when interpreting an indication, are:
A. the direction of the magnetic field.
11 the strength of the leakage field at the indication.
C. the orientation and shape of the indication.
Answer: A ()
265. Unexposed boxes of x-ray film should be stored:
A. flat.
11 on edge or end.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
C. m a pile.
D. it doesn't matter.
Answer: A ()
266. Localized reduction in an area of a bolt that is under overload conditions is
referred to as:
A. sizing.
11 necking down.
C. erosion.
D. elongation.
Answer: A ()
267. Asymmetricalplate waves are
a. faster then shear waves, but slower than compressional waves
b. slower than shear waves
c. as fast as Rayleigh waves.
d. none of the above because Asymmetrical plate waves does not exist in immersion testing.
Answer: A ()
268. The equation describing wavelength in terms of velocity and frequency is:
A. Wavelength = Velocity x Frequency
B. Wavelength = Z (Frequency x Velocity)
C. Wavelength = Velocity / Frequency
D. Wavelength = Frequency + Velocity
Answer: A ()
269. The principal biological effect of infrared radiation is:
A. thermal fatigue.
11 hypothermia.
C. blue hazard.
D. ultraviolet hazard.
Answer: A ()
270. The deterioration of a metal by chemical or electrochemical reaction with its
environment is called:
A. corrosion.
11 erosion.
C. IGSCC.
Answer: A ()
271. The eddy current probe is most simply a
a. coil of copper wire
b. semiconductor
c. capacitor
d. ceramic resistor
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
272. For the highest possible sensitivity when using the continuous method which of the
following application techniques should be used?
a. Apply current whilst applying wet magnetic ink by spray
b. Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink followed by removal whilst current still
flows
c. Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink Stop flow of current whilst removing
d. All the above give the same sensitivity
Answer: A ()
273. The angle of vision and the distance of the eye from the test surface determine the
minimum angular separation of two points resolvable by the eye. This is known as the eye's:
A sensitivity.
fi resolving power.
C. vision power.
fi discrimination.
Answer: A ()
274. The part is an Aluminium forging. Description—the indication is shag), half-moon
shape, NOT deep, and is called a:
A lap.
11 center line porosity.
C. heat-treat crack
fi false indication.
Answer: A ()
275. In film radiography, penetrameters are usually placed:
A. Between the intensifying screen and the film_
B. On the source side of the test object.
C. On the fihn side of the test object.
fi Between the operator and the radiation source.
Answer: A ()
276. An x-ray film having wide latitude also has, by definition:
a. poor definition
b. low contrast
c. high speed
Answer: A ()
277. In order to decrease the effect on conductivity readings due to variations in test
part thickness:
A the test frequency should be increased.
11 the test frequency should be decreased.
C. the fill factor should be decreased.
fi there is no practical method for decreasing this effect.
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
278. The part is a V2" thick Aluminium plate with a Vee weld. Description the
indication appears in an area that is somewhat dish-shaped. The indication extends
out from the center in a spoke formation. The indication is:
A shrinkage.
fi non-relevant.
C. a quench crack
fi a crater crack
Answer: A ()
279. Express 2220 GBqs in TBqs:
A. 0222
B. 2220
C. 2/22
D. 222.0
Answer: A ()
280. Resonance testing equipment generally utilizes:
A Pulsed longitudinal waves
B. Continuous longitudinal waves
C. Pulsed shear waves
fi Continuous shear waves
Answer: A ()
281. Which of the following is a commonly used classification for penetration
A. Post-emulsifiable penetrant
fi Nonferrous penetrant
C. Chemical etch penetrant
fi No aqueous penetrant
Answer: A ()
282. The permeability of a material describes:
A The ease with which it can be magnetized
fi The depth of the magnetic field in the part.
C. The length of time required demagnetizing it
fi The ability to retain the magnetic field.
Answer: A ()
283. When a body tissue cell is damaged by radiation:
A. The cell may lose its ability to reproduce.
B. The cell may die.
C. Damage is caused by knocking an electron out of the orbit of its parent atom_
Answer: A ()
284. A linear indication is observed at a change in section between thin and thick
material. What is the most probable cause for this bleedout?
a. Cold shut
b. Shrink cracks
c. Porosity
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. Hot Tear
e. Both shrink cracks and hot tear
Answer: A ()
285. Which of the following gases is not particularly useful as an infrared tracer
gas?
a. Natural gas
b. SF6
c. Nitrous oxide
d. CO2
Answer: A ()
286. A generally accepted method for removing excess non water-washable penetrant is:
A. Repeatedly dipping the test specimen in a cleaner.
B. Soaking the test specimen in hot detergent water.
C. Blowing the excess penetrant off the surface of the part with compressed air.
D. Wiping and cautiously cleaning the test specimen with a cleaner-dampened cloth.
Answer: A ()
287. Material properties such as specific heat, density, thermal conductivity,
thermal diffisivity and temperature will affect?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Conduction and convection
Answer: A ()
288. Ferromagnetic material is:
A Strongly attracted by a magnet.
B. Capable of being magnetized.
C. Both A and B.
D. Not capable of being magnetized.
Answer: A ()
289. When testing a part with a rough surface, as compared to a similar part with a smooth
surface, one should generally use:
a. a higher frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant
b. a lower frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant
c. a higher frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant
d. a lower frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant
Answer: A ()
290. A large forging is repaired by welding. Magnetic particle inspection of the
repair weld reveals an irregular indication running parallel with the weld passes. It is
located near the center of the bead and starts and ends by turning off slightly from the
axial direction. This indication is indicative of
A inclusions.
B. crater cracks.
C. weld shrinkage cracks.
D. surface checking.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
291. The temperature at which a blackbody must be operated, so that it's output is the
closest approximation to a perfect color match with the output of the selective radiator is
called:
A blackbody temperature.
B. correlated temperature.
C. selective temperature.
D. color temperature.
Answer: A ()
292. The angle of vision and the distance of the eye from the test surface determine the
minimum angular separation of two points resolvable by the eye. This is known as the eye's:
A sensitivity.
fi resolving power.
C. vision power.
D. discrimination.
Answer: A ()
293. Which of the following parts could NOT be tested by the liquid penetrant method?
A An iron casting
fi An aluminum forging
C. A part made from a porous material
D. A part made from a non-porous material
Answer: A ()
294. The principle of solid-state image devices is based on:
A. photoelectric effect and the free electrons that are created in a region of silicon illuminated by
photons.
B. generation of train of electrical pulses that represent light intensities present in an optical
image.
C. the amount of charge in each packet that stays substantially the same.
D. an electron beam that is used to scan a photoconductive target
Answer: A ()
295. Should an isotope camera be found to be leaking radioactive material subsequent to
a wipe test
a. the depleted uranium is to be replaced
b. all exposures since the last wipe test are to be recalled
c. the source is to be destroyed
Answer: A ()
296. Metal blocks, which contain one or more drilled holes to simulate discontinuities, are
called:
A Scrubbers
B. Crystal collimators
C. Single plane angulators
D. Reference blocks
Answer: A ()
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297. Which of the following radiation types could make some materials radioactive?
A X-rays.
B. Neutron bombardment.
C. Alpha particles.
D. All the above.
Answer: A ()
298. The quantity of a radioactive source in which the number of nuclear
disintegrations per second (activity) is one" is a standard definition, which applied to:
A Sievert (Sv)
B. Gray (Gy)
C. Curse (Ci)
D. Becquerel (Bq)
Answer: A ()
299. A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in the electromagnetic
coupling between a test specimen and a probe coil when the distance of separation between
them is varied is:
A ifll factor.
fi edge effect.
C. end effect.
D. ilft-off
Answer: A ()
300. When working with flat-bottomed holes for calibration or evaluation purposes,
what is the relationship between a #6 FBH and a #3 FBH ?
a. 5%
b. 25%
C. 50%
d. 100%
Answer: A ()
301. Which of the following radioactive isotopes produce thermal neutrons?
a. Iridium 192
b. Californium 252
c. Cobalt 60
d. Caesium 137
Answer: A ()
302. In order to detect defects in different directions in a material by magnetic particle
inspection, it is best to use:
A two or more fields in different directions.
a only one field.
C. other probe locations.
D. a high frequency field.
Answer: A ()
303. The part is an Aluminium forging. Description—the indication is sharp, half-moon
shape, NOT deep, and is called a:
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
A lap.
B. centre line porosity.
C. heat-treat crack
D. false indication.
Answer: A ()
304. Express 2220 GBqs in TBqs:
A. 0222
B. 2220
C. 2/22
D. 222.0
Answer: A ()
305. The best method for testing ball bearings is:
A. along one axis using a coil.
B. two shots using a coil at the X and Y-axis.
C. two head shots along the X and Y-axis.
D. induced current shots along X Y, and Z-axis, rotating 360 degrees during each shot
Answer: A ()
306. In which situation is infrared the least appropriate means of measuring a surface
temperature?
a. Monitoring the change in temperature of a fender of a vehicle during a burn test
b. Profiling cross tread temperatures while a vehicle is in motion
c. Observing the temperature distribution of midstream airflow after it has passed
d. through the radiator of an operating vehicle
e. Trending the temperature change of a gas line as it passes over the axle during
Answer: A ()
307. When using a camera for visual inspection within an extremely high radiation area
which of the following types would be chosen?
a. Vidicon tube
b. Charged coupled device
c. Metal oxide semi conductor
d. Orthicon tube
Answer: A ()
308. Subjecting a ferromagnetic material to a magnetising force which reserves in a
polarity whilst at the same time remains the same strength, has what effect?
a. Demagnetisation
b. Magnetisation
c. None of the above
d. Either demagnetisation or magnetization
Answer: A ()
309. Which of the following statements is false?
a. X rays are attenuated more by elements of high atomic number
b. X rays are attenuated more by materials of high density
c. Neutron attenuation are generally attenuated less with increasing atomic number
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. Hydrogen, lithium and boron are not attenuated by thermal neutrons

Answer: A ()
310. If a modular equipment has been obtained for a penetrant inspection system
using fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant and wet developer, the dryer should be placed:
A before the emulsifier tank
B. after the developer tank
C. before the developer tank.
D. after the wash unit p>
Answer: A ()
311. The TOFD principle is based on evaluation of the
a. Diffraction Signals at Crack Edges
b. Amplitude of the echo height
c. Sound attenuation
d. Frequency
Answer: A ()
312. What is the decibel difference between 2 signals on the display with one at 85% full
screen height and the other at 17% full screen height?
a. 7db
b. 14db
c. 2db
d. 15db
Answer: A ()
313. Which of the following techniques has been found to be effective for aiding
penetration in certain instances in commercial application?
A Heating the penetrant.
B. Vibration
C. Vacuum and pressure.
D. Ultrasonic pumping.
Answer: A ()
314. Which of the following faults is more likely to be found in a forged product?
a. Lap
b. Porosity
c. Cold shut
d. Shrinkage
e. Both lap and porosity
Answer: A ()
315. The time it takes to reestablish the electric field intensity required in a G-M counter
after the counter has been paralyzed by ion avalanche is called
a. resolving time
b. dead time
c. quench time
d. dwell time
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
316. Generation of ultrasound waves with EMATs is possible in

a. Electric conductive materials
b. All types of materials
c. Ferromagnetic materials
d. for a and c
Answer: A ()
317. When a sound beam travels from a liquid into a metal through a contoured surface,
the sound beam inside the metal will:
A Have larger beam diameter
B. Have same beam diameter
C. Not be effected by the part geometry
D. Be convergent if the surface is concave, and divergent if the surface is convex
Answer: A ()
318. The light from common sources, particularly light from incandescent lamps, is
often compared with light from a theoretical source. This theoretical source is called a:
A. gray body
B. photometer
C. blackbody.
D. ilght comparator.
Answer: A ()
319. The eddy current probe is most simply a
a. coil of copper wire
b. semiconductor
c. capacitor
d. ceramic resistor
Answer: A ()
320. The lead symbol "B" is attached to the back of the film holder to determine:
A sensitivity.
B. whether excessive backscatter is present.
C. radiographic contrast.
D. density.
Answer: A ()
321. Asymmetrical plate waves are
a. faster then shear waves, but slower than compressional waves
b. slower than shear waves
c. as fast as Rayleigh waves.
d. none of the above because Asymmetrical plate waves does not exist in immersion testing.
Answer: A ()
322. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70B, Recommended Practice for
Electrical Equipment Maintenance, recommends infrared electrical inspections be
conducted when the load is at least % of design maximum_
a. 10%
b. 20%
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c. 40%
d. 95%
Answer: A ()
323. Although there may be other reasons for using calcium tungstate screens in industrial
radiography, they are most usually used to
A Improve definition and resolution in radiographic images.
B. Improve contrast in radiographic images.
C. Decrease exposure time
D. Make films respond to multimillion-volt radiation.
Answer: A ()
324. In an eddy current testing situation, which of the following can provide sources of
noise?
A Instrumentation electronic circuits.
B. Non-specific variations within the test object.
C. Electrical interference.
325. For a given thickness the most effective protection from X or gamma radiation is:
A bricks
B. concrete
C. barium plaster
D. lead
Answer: A ()
326. Factors, which must be considered when interpreting an indication, are:
A the direction of the magnetic field.
B. the strength of the leakage field at the indication.
C. the orientation and shape of the indication.
Answer: A ()
327. When testing by the eddy current method, discontinuities will be most easily detected
when the eddy currents are:
A coplanar with the major plane of the discontinuity.
B. perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity.
C. parallel to the major plane of the discontinuity.
D. 90 degrees out of phase with the current in the coil.
Answer: A ()
328. Lamb waves can be used to detect:
A Laminar-type defects near the surface of a thin material
a Lack of fusion in the center of a thick weldment
C. Internal voids in diffusion bonds
D. Thickness changes in heavy plate material
Answer: A ()
329. The half-life is a useful characteristic of a radioisotope. After six half-lives, the
amount of decaying atoms is reduced to approximately what percent of the amount at
the beginning?
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
A 2 per cent
B. 3 per cent
C. 6 per cent
D. 1 per cent
Answer: A ()
330. Which of the following is classed as ionizing radiation?
A X-rays.
B. Gamma-rays.
C. Alpha particles.
D. All the above.
Answer: A ()
331. 5.669 x 10 8 W/m2 is the vakic fix:
iii Vrtecon-Relt.anaaneefistat4
b. Wiens coir,tant
c. Coefficient of cooling
41--k-Aialue-for-gui4inuna-Gxiclg
Answer: A ()
332. The cause for poor image definition eould bc:
A. too short course to film distance.
R screens and film not in elosc contact.
C. iflm grainincr.c
D. all of thc above.
Answer: A ()
333. The part is an Aluminium casting with a very complex design_ In one section a flat
area having a thickness of 1/8" exists. In the centre of this area is a round section, 2"
thick and 1" in diameter. Linear indications about half the distance around the base where
the thin section is joined are referred as:
A dross.
B. hot tear.
C. micro shrinkage.
D. porosity.
Answer: A ()
334. In film radiography, penetrameters are usually placed:
A Between the intensifying screen and the fihn
B. On the source side of the test object.
C. On the filin side of the test object.
D. Between the operator and the radiation source.
Answer: A ()
335. The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibrations travel through the material
is referred to as:
A Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Reproducibility
D. Attenuation
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
336. Localized reduction in an area of a bolt that is under overload conditions
A sizing.
B. necking down.
C. erosion
D. elongation.
Answer: A ()
337. Which of the following particles or rays have the highest ionizing effect in air?
A Alpha particles
B. Beta particles
C. Neutrons
D. Gamma and X rays
Answer: A ()
338. Thulium-170 emits which of the following gamma-ray energies?
A 1.33 and 1.17 MeV
a 0.084 and 0.052 MeV
C. 0.310 and 0.470 MeV
D. 0.110 and 0.150 MeV
Answer: A ()
339. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is called a magnetic discontinuity
is related to a sudden change in:
A inductance.
B. resistivity.
C. capacitance.
D. permeability.
Answer: A ()
340. Electrostatic or Van de Graff generators have their advantage in that they
a. operate in the 1 to 2 MeV region
b. have relatively small focal spots
c. have reasonably high output
d. all of the above
Answer: A ()
341. The following is a definition, A flaw which exceeds the minimum acceptability level.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Discontinuity
b. Indication
c. Defect
d. Crack
Answer: A ()
342. The principal biological effect of infrared radiation is:
A thermal fatigue.
B. hypothermia.
C. blue hazard.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
D. ultraviolet hazard.
Answer: A ()
343. Converting old units to SI units, 140 rads = 1 gray (Gy). How many mGys are there in
1 rad?
A 0.10
B. 1.00
C. 10.00
D. 100.00
Answer: A ()
344. When referring to ASME XI to what type of inspection does VT-2 relate?
a. Mechanical and structural conditions
k Leakage from pressure retaining components
c. Presence of surface corrosion
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
345. In immersion testing, the near field effects of a transducer may be eliminated by:
A Increasing transducer frequency
B. Use of larger diameter transducer
C. Using an appropriate water path
D. Use of a focused transducer
Answer: A ()
346. Radiation particles and photons lose their energy primarily through which of the
following processes?
A Radioactive decay
B. Ionization
C. Atomic absorption
D. Thermionic emission
Answer: A ()
347. The range of thickness over which densities are obtained that are satisfactory for
interpretation is a measure of the:
A subject contrast of a radiograph.
B. sensitivity of a radiograph.
C. latitude of a radiograph_
D. definition of a radiograph.
Answer: A ()
348. The ratio of the response or amplitude from signals of interest to the response or
amplitude of indications that contain no useful information for the test being conducted is
referred to as:
A Poisson's ratio.
R Signal-to-noise ratio.
C. The conductivity-to-permeability ratio.
D. The reactance-to-resistance ratio.
Answer: A ()
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349. The simultaneous comparison of a standard lamp and an unknown light source is
called:
A absolute photometry.
B. relative photometry.
C. direct photometry.
D. substitution photometry.
Answer: A ()
A. Null-baianrer.
B. Phase shifter.
Answer: A ()
351. Eddy current testing requires that the material tested be
a. magnetic
b. non-magnetic
c. conductive
d. both b and c
Answer: A ()
352. The measurement of radiant energy in the visible spectrum, based on a standard
observer response, is called:
A photometry.
B. spectrometry.
C. geniometry.
D. spectrodiomeny.
Answer: A ()
353. When checking for imperfections on rolled slabs which of the following viewing
techniques will give the sharpest image?
a. Television image from a vidicon
b. Television image from a charged coupled device
c. Photographic image
d. Television image from a vidicon and television image from a charged coupled device
Answer: A ()
354 Embrittlement, caused by a physical or chemical change in the metal, is a reduction
in:
A. ductility-
B. hardness.
C. hydrogen
Answer: A ()
355 The kilovoltage applied to an x-ray tube affects:
A the quality of the beam.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
fi the intensity of the beam.

C. both A and B above.
D. neither A nor B above.
Answer: A ()
356. Which of the following is a characteristic of acoustic emission compared with other
inspection techniques?
a. Detects geometric form of defects
b. Requires stress
c. Less material sensitive
d. More geometry sensitive
Answer: A ()
357. The ratio of the response or amplitude from signals of interest to the response or
amplitude of indications that contain no useful information for the test being conducted is
referred to as:
A Poisson's ratio.
B. Signal-to-noise ratio.
C. The conductivity-to-penneabilityratio.
D. The reactance-to-resistanceratio.
Answer: A ()
358. Which of the following is not a basic component of eddy current equipment?
A Amplifier
B. Coil
C. Liquid Couplant
D. Detector
Answer: A ()
359. Because it is frequently supplied as a water-soluble compound, which of
the following is considered to have an additional radiological hazard potential
associated with it?
A Cobalt-60
B. Thulium-170
C. Iridium-192
D. Cesium-137
Answer: A ()
360. Why do prod tips need to be kept clean and free from contaminants?
a. The contamination reduces the resistance so increasing current flow
b. Clean prod tips have less chance of arcing
c. Clean prods conduct current through scale much better
d. The increase in resistance with dirty prods reduces the current output
e. Both clean prod tips have less chance of arcing and the increase in resistance
Answer: A ()
361. The wavelength of an ultrasonic wave is:
A. directly proportional to velocity and frequency.
B. directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional to frequency.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
C. inversely proportional to velocity and directly proportional to frequency.

Answer: A ()
362. Which one of the following conditions will affect the rate and the extent a liquid
penetrant will enter cracks, fissures, and other small openings?
A The hardness of the specimen being tested
11 The surface condition of the specimen being tested
C. The color of the penetrant
D. The conductivity of the specimen being tested
Answer: A ()
363. What metal is the target made of when producing thermal neutrons in a van de graaf
generator?
a. Lithium
b. Beryllium
c. Cobalt
& Tungsten
Answer: A ()
A Null-balancer.
B. Phase shifter.
Answer: A ()
365. Resonance testing equipment generally utilizes:
A Pulsed longitudinal waves
B. Continuous longitudinal waves
C. Pulsed shear waves
D. Continuous shear waves
Answer: A ()
366. Which of the following would be classed as an in service fault?
a. Shrinkage crack
b. Fatigue crack
c. Grinding crack
& All could be service faults
Answer: A ()
367. EMAT applied sound waves are generated within the
a. coil
b. Material
c. liftoff
& Piezo-electric crystal
Answer: A ()
368. The retentivity of a material describes:
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
A The ease with which it can be magnetized.

B. The depth of the magnetic field in the pat
C. The length of time required demagnetizing it
D. The ability to retain the magnetic field.
Answer: A ()
369. An excellent radiograph is obtained under given conditions of exposure with the
film located at a distance of 36 inches from the target of the x-ray tube. If the film is now
placed only 18 inches from the target, and all exposure conditions except time are held
constant, the new exposure time will be:
A. Unchanged.
B. Longer by approximately 80 percent.
C. Shorter by approximately 55 percent.
D. Only about 25 percent as long as the original exposure time
Answer: A ()
370. In order to decrease the effect on conductivity readings due to variations in test part
thickness:
A the test frequency should be increased.
fi the test frequency should be decreased.
C. the fill factor should be decreased.
fi there is no practical method for decreasing this effect
Answer: A ()
371. The fillet weld size is based on the:
A effective fillet weld throat
11 length of fillet weld.
C. theoretical throat.
fi length of fillet weld leg.
Answer: A ()
a. 1 foot
b. 20 feet
c. 4 meters
d. 3 feet
Answer: A ()
373. The inverse square law as applied to radiation protection states that:
A radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the time spent near the focal spot
fi radiation intensity varies proportionally with distance from the focal spot
C. radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the distance from the radiation
source
fi none of the above
Answer: A ()
374 Filters placed between the x-ray tube and specimen tend to reduce scatter radiation
undercutting the specimen:
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
A. by absorbing the longer wavelength components of the primary beam_

fi by absorbing the shorter wavelength components of the primary beam_
C. by absorbing backscatter radiation.
fi decreasing the intensity of the beam_
Answer: A ()
375. A tool that uses the wavelength of light as a unit to measure the surface contour is
called:
A surface comparator.
fi metallurgical microscope.
C. interference microscope.
fi polarized microscope.
Answer: A ()
376. Wien's Law predicts what?
a. The maxiimuntemperature at a given wavelength
b. The peak wavelength emitted by a blackbody at a given temperature
c. The range of wavelengths emitted by a surface at a given temperature
d. The quantity of heat energy radiated by an object at a given temperature
Answer: A ()
377. During manual film processing, the purpose of the stop bath is to:
A change the exposed silver salts to black metallic silver.
11 neutralizes the developer and stop the developing process.
C. eliminate most water spots and streaks.
fi none of the above.
Answer: A ()
378. For the highest possible sensitivity when using the continuous method which of the
following application techniques should be used?
a. Apply current whilst applying wet magnetic ink by spray
b. Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink followed by removal whilst
c. current still flows
d. Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink Stop flow of current whilst
e. removing
Answer: A ()
379. Which of the following is a commonly used classification for penetration?
A. Post-emulsifiablepenetrant
11 Nonferrous penetrant
C. Chemical etch penetrant
D. Nonaqueous penetrant
Answer: A ()
380. If an indication is formed when using the residual method as well as the continuous
method, it is most likely:
A very deep and tight
11 very shallow and open to the surface.
C. a relevant indication.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
D. a nonrelevant indication.
Answer: A ()
381. Why are magnetic particles available in different colors?
A For color contrast with the part surface.
11 To enhance the detection of indications.
C. For both A and B.
D. Different colors are used with different magnetic flux values.
Answer: A ()
382. What water path is needed when using a straight beam transducer with a 4-inch (101
mm) focus to place focal spot at a bond line 17 mm deep in copper? (Velocity in
copper=0.18cm/s and Velocity in water=0.584)
a. 4.12in
b. 2.06in
c. 2.06 mm
d. 20.6m
Answer: A ()
383. These are the most common probes used for Air Force NDI applications.
a. Reflective
b. Differential
c. Absolute
d. Surface
Answer: A ()
384. The purpose of the is to increase the radiation striking the film or to decrease the
scatter radiation reaching the fihn.
A Filter
11 Diaphram
C. Screen
D. Penetrameter
Answer: A ()
385. When performing the concentration check for fluorescent particles, the reading for
particles settled at the bottom of the centrifuge tube should be?
a. 40-45%
b. 100 mike
c. 12-2.4 m1/100 ml
d. 0.1-0.4 m1/100 ml
Answer: A ()
386. Resonance testing methods are used for:
a. determining Poisson's ratio
b. lfaw detection
c. thickness testing
d. all of the above
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
387. Thermo luminescent Dosimeters (TLDs) are worn where?

a. Between the neck and waist
b. Inside your pocket
c. Outside of the lead apron
d. Any of the above
Answer: A ()
388. When dealing with the automatic film processor, most film or equipment problems
can be traced back to
A Poor lubrication of racks and rollers
11 Burned out or under rated flues
C. An inappropriate maintenace schedule
D. Dirt in the equipment
Answer: A ()
389. Instrument frequencies in the range of to are generally suitable for crack
detection.
a. 50 to 5,000 Hz
b. 500 to 50,000 Hz
c. 5MHz to 500 MHz
d. 50MHz to 5,000MHz
Answer: A ()
390. When hand processing film, the recommended development time is minutes at o F.
A 10 mumutes at 68
fi 5 minutes at 65
C. 5 minutes at 68
fi 8 minutes at 65
Answer: A ()
391. There are many general requirements that must be met in order to x-ray in an
unshielded facility. For instance, there must be at least one fully certified radiographer
present and enough monitors and assistants on hand to prevent unauthorized access to the
radiation area In addition to personnel requirements, certain equipment must be
available for use at the site Which statement below is NOT an equipment requirement?
a. Two survey meters authorized by AS 455 and calibrated within the past 180 days
b. Inverse Square Law calculation chart and calculator
c. X-ray interlock assembly
d. Radiation warning beacon
Answer: A ()
392. At what energy level does pair production occur?
a. 1.02 MeV
b. 1.02 Kv
c. 120 MeV
d. 120 Kv
Answer: A ()
391 Nucleons may also be referred to as
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. subatomic building blocks

b. atomic mass units
c. protons and neutrons
d. neutrons and electrons
Answer: A ()
394 One line of magnetic force is called a
a. Maxwell
b. Gauss Line
c. Flux Line
d. Magnetograph
Answer: A ()
395. The ease with which a metal or metallic part can be magnetized is called
a. Retentivity
b. Permeability
c. Hysteresis
d. Coercive Force
Answer: A ()
396. Fluorescent penetrant indications should be inspected under:
a. lfuorescent light
b. any light
c. black light
d. neon light
Answer: A ()
397. Bending of a sound wave upon entering a new medium is explained by:
a. Krautkramer's law
b. Snells's law
c. Boyle's law
d. Hooke's law
Answer: A ()
398. The symbol for magnetic field intensity is H and the unit of measure is the
a. Gauss
b. Oersted
c. Dyne
d. Maxwell
Answer: A ()
399. Film should never be stored in an area that exceeds % humidity.
A 50%
B. 65%
C. 75%
D. 77%
Answer: A ()
400. The effective magnetic field induced by a coil
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. is dependent upon the strength of the magnetizing force employed

b. increases as resistance decreases
c. extends from 6 to 9 inches on either side of the coil
d. all of the above
Answer: A ()
401. Shear (transverse) waves have a velocity of about that of longitudinal
(compressional) wave in the same material.
a. 115
b. V2
c. 9/10
d. 1/3
Answer: A ()
402. Which is NOT an advantage of alternating current (AC) equipment?
a. Easily finds subsurface defects
b. Peak amperages are obtained
c. AC equipment is usually lower in cost
d. Better adapted for portable applications
Answer: A ()
401 Under no circumstance should you take conductivity measurements if
a. the temperature between the test part and the standards differ by 10° Fahrenheit or more
b. part temperature is less than 68°degrees Fahrenheit
c. part temperature has not stabilized for at least ten minutes.
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
404 The method whereby sound is transmitted through a plate from a transmitter on one
side to a receiver on the other:
a. is used to characterize flaws
b. is called an intensity method
c. is used to determine flaw depth
d. all of the above
Answer: A ()
405. is the rate at which electrons pass a given point in a conductor.
a. resistance
b. current
c. voltage
d. amperage
Answer: A ()
406. The length of the near zone is not dependent upon which of the following?
a. The diameter of the transducer
b. The frequency of the transducer
c. The velocity of sound in the test material
d. The relative acoustic impedance of the coupling medium
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
407. As voltage increases current
a. increases
b. decreases
c. resistance decreases
d. amperage increases
Answer: A ()
408. This silver recovery method is the most inexpensive and when used as directed,
recovers 99% of the available silver.
a. Metallic replacement
b. Chemical precipitaion
c. Electrolysis
d. Metallic Extraction
Answer: A ()
409. When the Sonic BondMaster has been out of service for an extended period, you
should
a. Accomplish all process control checks
b. Allow a 30 minute warm-up prior to use
c. Send the unit to PMEL for calibration
d. Perform a visual and electrical inspection prior to use
Answer: A ()
410. Two basic types of plate (Lamb) waves exist. These are the:
a. synnnetricaland dilational.
b. syrametticaland asymmetrical.
c. asymmetricaland rotational.
d. perpendicular and normal.
Answer: A ()
411. The intensity of the fluorescent hght emitted depends upon?
A The type of compound used to make the fluorescent screen.
fi The intensity of the incident radiation
C. The background intensity of the lead screens in place
D. All of the above
Answer: A ()
412. As frequency increases in ultrasonic testing the angle of beam divergence of a given
diameter crystal:
a. decreases
b. remains constant
c. increases
d. varies uniformly through each wavelength
Answer: A ()
413. How are X-rays produced in a tubehead?
a. High speed electrons are stopped by the target material in the anode
b. High speed electrons are stopped by the target material in the cathode
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c. Random disintegration of a radioisotope

Answer: A ()
414. If a penetrant test is to be conducted using a visible dye penetrant in pressurized
spray cans, the temperature of the test area should not be lower than:
a. 30EC
b. 15EC
c. SEC
d. -7EC
Answer: A ()
415. The key to an effective through-transmission inspection is?
a. Proper frequency selection
b. Proper couplant application
c. Transducer alignment
d. Wave mode selection
Answer: A ()
416. An advantage of is that they can be heated and reformed into different shapes.
a. Thermoplastics
b. Thermosets
c. Polymers
d. Ceramics
Answer: A ()
417. Unless you are using low-level radiation, what should you do with the survey meter?
a. Adjust the selector switch to the 3mrlhr position
b. Adjust the selector switch to the 300mr/hr position
c. Remove the end cap from the unit
d. Leave the end cap on the unit
Answer: A ()
418. The half skip distance on a 16mm thick plate with a 70E probe is:
a. 24nnn
b. 33nnn
c. 44mm
d. 64mm
Answer: A ()
419. Waste oil may be stored in the lab, but must not exceed
a. 2 Gallons
b. 5 Gallons
c. 10 Gallons
d. 50 Gallons
Answer: A ()
420. is defined as how well the transducer can single out two or more defects and display
them as separate signals on the CRT.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. Verticle Linearity
b. Horizontal Linearity
c. Sensitivity
d. Resolution
Answer: A ()
421. Which of the following is NOT helpful with the interpretation of film when
searching for Foreign Object Debris (FOD) in an aircraft.
A An experiencedNDl person
B. Consultations with other aircraft maintainers
C. A technique chart
D. The previous x-rays of the same area on the same plane.
Answer: A ()
422. Cobalt-60 is reported to have a half life of 5.3 years. By how much should exposure
time be increased (over that used initially to produce excellent radiographs when the
cobalt-60 source was new) when the source is two years old?
a. no change in exposure time is needed.
b. exposure time should be about 11% longer.
c. exposure time should be about 37% longer.
d. exposure time should be from 62 to 100% longer.
Answer: A ()
423 Magnetic particles used in the Air Force are commercial products, carefully selected
for optimum performance based on being the proper size, having ideal retentivity, and
a. high sensitivity
b. high contrast
c. cost efficiency
d. good magnetic permeability
Answer: A ()
424 If fluorescent penetrant is applied after an acid precleaning treatment:
a. the penetrant should dwell for twice the time specified
b. marking of the test piece may be evident
c. a decrease in brilliance of the penetrant may occur
d. an increase in brilliance of the penetrant may occur
Answer: A ()
425. The is the simplest structure that uses an adhesive application.
a. Lap joint
b. Honeycomb sandwich
c. Doubler
d. Lamina
Answer: A ()
426. Measured in ohms, is an opposition to either AC or DC current.
a. Impedance
b. Resistance
c. Inductive Reactance
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. Reluctance
Answer: A ()
427. A five turn rigid coil is used to test a 180 mm long by 30 mm diameter bar. If the
`I(' value is 22000, the minimum current is:
a. 73.3 amps RMS
b. 51.8 amps RMS
c. 733 amps RMS
d. 518 amps RMS
Answer: A ()
428. The amount of magnetizing force necessary to reduce flux density to zero in a saturated
ferromagnetic material is called
a. Hysteresis
b. Coercive Force
c. Permeability
d. Retentivity
Answer: A ()
429. is a term used to describe a distortion on a radiograph not being in direct line with the
x-ray beam_
A Layover
B. Penumbral shadow
C. Casting
D. Triangulation
Answer: A ()
430. Which is NOT an advantage of the Wet Magnetic Particle Method?
a. Capable of detecting defects entirely below the surface of a Part
b. Most sensitive for finding very fine surface cracks
c. Magnetic particles have better mobility in a liquid suspension
d. Solution is easily recovered and reused
Answer: A ()
431. (Sin al) (C2) = (Sin a2) Cl) is a form of:
a. Krautkramer's law
b. Snell's law
c. Boyle's law
d. Hooke's law
Answer: A ()
432. The magnetic field is strongest when:
a. the magnetising voltage is flowing
b. the magnetising current is flowing
c. the material exhibits high coercive forces
d. the magnetising current is not flowing
Answer: A ()
433. A Lissajous orbit that has a long elliptical (cigar shape) appearance is an indication of
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. unbalance.
b. misalignment
c. an oil whirl.
d. a rub event.
Answer: A ()
434. The sharpness of the outline in the image of the radiograph is a measure of:
a. subject contrast.
b. radiographic definition.
c. radiographic contrast
d. iflm contrast.
Answer: A ()
435. When conducting a penetrant test, spherical indications on the surface of a part
could be indicative of
a. fatigue cracks
b. porosity
c. weld laps
d. hot tears
Answer: A ()
436. The presence of small traces of halogen vapors in the halogen diode detector:
a. increases the emission of negative ions.
b. decreases the emission of positive ions.
c. increases the emission of positive ions.
d. decreases the emission of negative ions.
Answer: A ()
437. When radiographing to the 2-2T quality level, an ASTM penetrameter for 2.5-
in. steel has a thickness of
a. 0.5 in_
b. 2.5 mils.
c. 5 mils.
d. 50 mils.
Answer: A ()
438. A torr is defined as:
a. 14.7 psia.
b. 1 mm of Hg.
c. 11760 of a standard atmosphere.
d. 760 mmof Hg.
Answer: A ()
439. The dimension indicated on the sketch of a micrometer is:
a. 0.128 in
b. 0235 in
c. 0.126 in
d. 0328 in
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
440. Most leaks detected during a halogen sniffer test could have been detected and usually
can be verified by:
a. a bubble leak test
b. an ultrasonic examination.
c. a visual examination.
d. a pressure change test.
Answer: A ()
441. When testing a bar with an UD ratio of four in a ten-turn coil, the required current
would be:
a. 45,000 A
is unknown; more information is needed.
c. 18,000 A
d. 1,125 A.
Answer: A ()
442. The number of times the acoustic emission signal exceeds a preset threshold during any
selected portion of a test is called the:
a. acoustic emission response.
is acoustic emission count
c. acoustic emission count rate.
d. acoustic emission energy.
e. none of the above.
Answer: A ()
443. As a visual examiner, you shall have your eyes checked at least:
a. every 3 months.
is every 6 months
c. every year.
d. every 3 years.
Answer: A ()
444. The impedance of an eddy current test coil will increase if the:
a. test frequency increases.
is inductive reactance of the coil decreases.
c. inductance of the coil decreases.
d. resistance of the coil decreases.
Answer: A ()
445. Which of these cracks may appear as an irregular, checked, or scattered pattern of
fine lines usually caused by local overheating?
a. fatigue cracks
is grinding cracks
c. crater cracks
d. HAZ cracks
Answer: A ()
446. The vibration amplitude is really a response that is:
a. inversely proportional to the dynamic resistance in the system.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
si proportional to the amount of displacement in the signal.

c. not related at all to the dynamic forces in the system_
d. meaningless unless it has been initially taken in acceleration units.
Answer: A ()
447. If a copper conductor is placed through a ferrous cylinder and a current is passed
through the conductor, then the magnetic field (flux density) in the cylinder will be:
a. the same intensity and pattern as in the conductor.
si greater than in the conductor
c. less than in the conductor.
d. the same regardless of its proximity to the cylinder wall.
Answer: A ()
448. One set of internal dry bulb temperature data for a pressure change leakage rate test
is: (TI + T2 -h T3)13 = 71.87 1F (T4 + T5)/2 = 7232 IF (T6 -F T7)/2 = 72.68 IF (T8 -h T9 +
T10)/3 = 73.07 IF For each of these four sections of this system, the respective
weighting factors are 027, 0.18, 022 and 0.31 The mean absolute dry bulb temperature of
system air for this test data point is:
a. 532.53 1R.
si 345.53 1K
c. 532.48 1R.
d. 532.48 1K
Answer: A ()
449. The helium mass spectrometer detector-probe pressure-test technique is:
a. a quantitative test.
si a qualitative test
c. a semiautomatic test
d. none of the above.
Answer: A ()
450. When a system's internal dry bulb's internal temperature and, in turn, total
pressure, increase during a pressure change leakage-rate test, the water vapor pressure in
the system under test would normally:
a. increase.
si remain the same.
c. decrease.
d. oscillate.
Answer: A ()
PROCESS TECHNOLOGY
451. Which of the following is not a characteristic of plaster mold casting?
a. Only non-ferrous metals are cast in plaster molds.
si The mold materials can be reused.
c. A uniform structure in the casting is obtained because of slow cooling.
d. Plaster molds are well-suited to the use of chills, which permit close control of thermal
gradients in the molds.
Answer: A ()
452. Galvanizing is a process of applying to iron and steel products a protective layer of
Page 75 of 113
Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. tin and tin compounds.

si zinc and zinc compounds.
c_ aluminum and aluminum compounds.
d. copper and copper compounds.
Answer: A ()
453. Wrought products invariably exhibit:
a. high susceptibility to corrosion.
si lower strength than their cast counterparts.
c. directional properties.
d. poor weldability.
Answer: A ()
454. Crater cracks may take the form of a single crack or star-shaped cracks and will
usually be found:
A. By magnetic particle techniques since crater cracks are always subsurface.
B. Anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted.
C. In the natural crater formed between the two plates in a typical fillet weld.
D. In the root area of a multiple pass weld where the weld metal failed to flow completely into
the root opening.
Answer: A ()
455. In 'open die' forging, the top and bottom dies are called, respectively:
a. tup and anvil
si cope and drag
c. head and foot
d. hammer and anvil
Answer: A ()
456. A discontinuity that occurs during the casting of molten metal which may be
caused by the splashing, surging, interrupted pouring, or the meeting of two streams
of metal coming from different directions is called:
A A burst.
B. A cold shut.
C. Flaking.
D. A blow hole.
Answer: A ()
457. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types?
a. Shallow, deep, and intermittent
si Longitudinal, transverse, and crater
c. Laminar, through, and oblique
d. Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent
Answer: A ()
458. A casting discontinuity which is caused by gas release or the evaporation of
moisture during solidification is:
a. microslarinkage
si porosity
c. porous segregation
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d. hydrogen induced porosity

Answer: A ()
459. Which of the following product forms is generally selected for high strength and
controlled property directionality?
a. Castings
b. Extrusions
c. Hot-rolled flat stock
d. Forgings
Answer: A ()
460. Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all:
a. have the same strength characteristics.
b. utilize a process where only the filler metal is actually melted.
c. are fusion-type weldments.
d. utilise liquid penetrant inspection to reveal porosity within the joint
Answer: A ()
461. Splashes of hydraulic fluid in the eyes must be treated by:
a. immediately going to the nearest hospital
b. immediately irrigating the eyes thoroughly with cold clean water
c. gently dabbing the eyes with a clean tissue
d. gently wiping the eyes with a clean damp tissue
Answer: A ()
462. The welding process most widely used because of its versatility is:
a. gas metal-arc welding.
b. shielded metal-arc welding.
c. gas tungsten-arc welding.
d. submerged-arc welding.
Answer: A ()
463. Hydrogen cracking, due to the break down of water molecules creating hydrogen
which dissolves in the weld metal and RAZ; is most likely to occur in which of the following
welding processes?
a. TIG
b. MEG
c. sub-arc
d. MMA
Answer: A ()
464. Gross worm hole porosity which breaks the surface of a submerged arc weld is most
likely caused by:
a. damp flux
b. poor current connection
c. work oxide fihus
d. variation in joint fit-up
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
466. The welding process which would be chosen for its rapid deposition rates,
high welding speeds and deep penetration quality joints is:
a. electroslag
b. manual metal arc
c. submerged arc
d. TIG
Answer: A ()
467. Which of the following is a discontinuity which might be found in sand castings?
A A Incomplete penetration.
11 Undercut
C. Pipe.
D. Shrinkage.
Answer: A ()
468. The failure of turbine blades at the junction of the blade and larger section where it
will be attached to the rotor; can often be ascribed to cyclical stresses which are
concentrated in this region. The failure mechanism is called:
a. stress rupture
b. intergranular fretting corrosion
c. fatigue
d. hot tearing
Answer: A ()
469. The hardenability of a steel can be tested by the:
a. Iominy test.
b. Impact test.
c. Rockwell test
d. Tensile test.
Answer: A ()
470. Tapping is a cutting operation which produces:
a. holes in sheet metal.
b. threads in a hole (inside threads).
c. threads on a solid shaft (outside threads).
d. both b) and c).
Answer: A ()
471. Killed steel is steel that has been:
a. demagnetized
b. D.C. magnetized
c. deoxidized
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d. quenched in oil
Answer: A ()
472. A definite break in the material caused by excessive working of the metal during the
forging, rolling or extruding operation is called a:
a. cold shut
b. seam.
c. burst
d. hot tear.
Answer: A ()
473. In its original shape porosity would appear:
a. elongated.
b. irregular.
c. round or nearly round.
d. all of the above.
Answer: A ()
474. For the preparation of metal surfaces for adhesive bonding:
a. a two-step cleaning method is used for each type of metal or alloy
b. all surfaces are usually prepared in the same way no matter what the material is
c. different metals may be prepared using any one of several different multi-step methods
specific to eacls
d. vapour degreasing is usually sufficient since the surface preparation is not critical.
Answer: A ()
475. Discontinuities in plate, sheet, or strip caused by pipe, inclusions or blowholes in the
original ingot which after rolling are usually flat and parallel to the outside, are called:
a. S PA mc
b. laminations.
c. cracks.
d. laps.
Answer: A ()
476. Which of the following should not be in the list?
a. ingot
b. bloom
c. billet
d. slab
Answer: A ()
477. What effect is caused by a surface notch on a part in service, where local overstressing
starts?
a. A stress concentration effect
b. A stress dilution effect
c. A stress reduction effect
d. None of the above answers
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
478. Which of the following statements is true of plastics following initial polymerisation?
a. thermoplastics soften when reheated
b. thermosetting plastics do soften when reheated but also char and deteriorate
c. all plastics are synthetic and contain no natural materials
d. all of the above are true
Answer: A ()
479. A hole produced during the solidification of metal due to escaping gases is called:
A A burst.
11 A cold shut.
C. A flaking.
D. A blow hole.
Answer: A ()
480. A slag inclusion can result from which of the following?
A. Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from the electrode in the gas Itungsten arc process.
B. Insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a multipass weldment
C. Excessive undercut on intermediate passes in a multipass weldment.
D. B and C above.
Answer: A ()
481. Metal forming such as rolling results in:
a. plastic flow of the metal.
b. elongation of existing defects perpendicular to the rolling direction.
c. directional properties which are always beneficial for secondary forming operations.
d. the flattening out of defects which makes them more easily detectable by most NDT
methods.
Answer: A ()
482. Which of the following discontinuities could be classifed as a primary processing
or inherent discontinuity often found in wrought material?
a. Fatigue crack
b. Stress-corrosion crack
c. Porosity
d. Machining tear
Answer: A ()
483. Which of the following welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode with the arc
maintained in an atmosphere of inert gas?
A. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding.
11 Submerged Are Welding.
C. Gas Metal Arc Welding.
D. Electroslag Welding.
Answer: A ()
484. Wrought products invariably exhibit:
a. high susceptibility to corrosion.
b. lower strength than their cast counterparts.
c. directional properties.
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d. poor weldability.
Answer: A ()
485. Small, isolated indications, of high density and irregular. angular form, on a
radiograph of a sand cast aluminium component are most likely due to:
a. porosity or gas pores
b. shrinkage sponge
c. hot tears
d. inclusion
Answer: A ()
486. Design engineers are responsible for establishing the function, appearance, quality
and cost of a product. Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which of the following
is true?
a. designers, by their training and education, are sufficiently well informed about NDT
that they are able to formulate NDT procedures and acceptance criteria
b. when NDT appears necessary in a design, the designer should select the NDT method
and technique to be used after reference to NDT handbooks
c. designers should depend solely on NDT personnel to establish defect acceptance
criteria
d. none of the above is true
Answer: A ()
487. Discontinuities which originate in the cast ingot can often be reduced by a
process which closes and welds the voids, as well as breaking up inclusions. This process is:
a. machining
b. welding
c. forging
d. cold extrusion
Answer: A ()
488. The heat treatment process which is employed to give a soft ductile product, by
recrystallisation of the material, is termed:
a. tempering
b. hardening
c. stress relieving
d. annealing
Answer: A ()
489. Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert
atmosphere in the vicinity of the weld:
A. Argon, helium and carbon dioxide.
11 Neon, tritium and helium.
C. Sulphur dioxide, argon and oxygen.
D. Argon, nitrogen and hydrogen.
Answer: A ()
490. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types?
a. Shallow, deep, and intermittent
b. Longitudinal, transverse, and crater
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c. Laminar, through, and oblique

d. Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent
Answer: A ()
491. In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often can be completed in a series
of draws, each successively deeper. What process performed between draws might
effectively reduce the number of draws required?
a. Recrystallization
b. Pickling
c. Etching
d. Hardening heat treatment
Answer: A ()
492. Which of the following will not be found in a TIG welded joint?
a. porosity
b. slag
c. crater cracking
d. incomplete penetration
Answer: A ()
493. Which of the following techniques is often used to speed-up the steel-making process?
a. Adding large amounts of carbon to the molten metal.
b. Reducing the amount of scrap steel that is often added to the molten metal.
c. Adding oxygen to the molten metal.
d. Converting the old open-hearth furnaces into electric furnaces.
Answer: A ()
494. Heat treatment of steel may be done to:
a. remove stresses induced by cold working.
b. decrease hardness and increase ductility.
c. change or modify its magnetic properties.
d. accomplish any of the above.
Answer: A ()
495. Poor forging temperature or too great a reduction in section can give rise to rupturing
of the material, this is called a:
a. lap
b. seam
c. burst
d. inclusion
Answer: A ()
496. Which of the following gauges and measuring instruments is capable of the
greatest accuracy of measurements?
a. Air gauge
b. Steel scale (ruler)
c. Vernier caliper
d. Vernier micrometer
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
497. A cause of gas porosity in welds is:

a. welding at too low a temperature.
b. improper cleaning or preheating of the plates to be welded.
c. the use of insufficient filler metal.
d. restriction of the movement of the material dining heating or welding.
Answer: A ()
498. In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often can be completed in a series
of draws, each successively deeper. What process performed between draws might
effectively reduce the number of draws required?
b. Pickling
c. Etching
d. Hardening heat treatment
Answer: A ()
499. Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all:
a. have the same strength characteristics.
b. utilize a process where only the filler metal is actually melted.
c. are fusion-type weldments.
d. utilize liquid penetrant inspection to reveal porosity within the joint
Answer: A ()
a. Castings
b. Extrusions
d. Forgings
Answer: A ()
501. Which of the following properties of a material can be used to predict the deflection
of a certain size beam under known loads?
a. Tensile strength
b. Elastic limit
c. Younges modules
d. Ductility
Answer: A ()
502. A flaw that is deemed to be unacceptable standards is called?
a. A discontinuity
b. A defect
c. An indication
d. A blemish
Answer: A ()
501 Which of the following is classed as a Physical property?
a. Density
b. Conductivity
c. Melting point
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. All of the above

Answer: A ()
504. Solid solubility is NOT affected by?
a. Crystal structure
b. Atom size
c. Ionic charge
d. Chemical difference between solute and solvent atoms
Answer: A ()
505. Which of the following is not a form of case hardening?
a. Sphernidizing
b. Carburizing
c. Flame hardening
d. Nitriding
Answer: A ()
506. Products of oxidation are termed?
a. Skull
b. Non metallic inclusions
c. Exogenous inclusions
d. Indigenous inclusions
Answer: A ()
507. When a metal is very brittle which test is used to replace the tensile test?
a. The shear test
b. The transverse rupture test
c. The compression test
d. The endurance test
Answer: A ()
508. A method of increasing the yield from an ingot is?
a. Fitting an 'hot top'
b. Use of an insulating insert
c. Increasing casting temperature
d. Both fitting an 'hot top' and use of an insulating insert
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
509. Which of the following can be determined on an unetched microspecimen?
a. Crystal structure
b. Degree of decarburization
c. Grain size
d. Presence of non metallic inclusions
Answer: A ()
510. The bonding process giving very high efficiency is?
a. Fusion bonding
b. Pressure bonding
c. Flow bonding
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d. Atomic bonding
Answer: A ()
511. Planes of weakness in an ingot can be controlled by?
a. Mould design
b. Casting at high temperatures
c. Casting at low temperatures
d. Fitting an hot top
Answer: A ()
512. Calculate the factor of safety given that a materials has a working stress of 15, 000 lbs
per square inch and an elastic limit of 60, 000 lbs per square inch?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Answer: A ()
513. Ingot corner segregation can be minimized by the use of
a. Low pouring speeds and low casting temperatures
b. High pouring speeds and high casting temperatures
c. High pouring speeds and low casting temperatures
d. Low pouring speeds and high casting temperatures
Answer: A ()
514. Of the following, which is considered the most important structural non-ferrous metal?
a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Tin
d. Aluminium
Answer: A ()
515. Which point on the iron carbon diagram is the eutectoid point?
a. Point B
b. Point C
c. Paint D
d. Paint E
Answer: A ()
516. The fundamental difference between macro examination and micro examination is?
a. Micro examination can be regarded as the overall picture
b. Macro examination is the detailed structure
c. Micro structure examination are conducted at higher magnification
d. Macro examination are conducted at higher magnification
Answer: A ()
517. Which of the following impact tests are used to determine transition
temperatures?
a. IZOD
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b. Charpy
c. Hounsfield tensometer
d. Both Charpy and Hounsefield tensometer
Answer: A ()
518. As the carbon equivalent increases the?
a. Preheat temperature increases
b. Preheat temperature decreases
c. Hardness of the weld decreases
d. Hardenability decreases
Answer: A ()
519. Impact forging is more commonly known as
a. Open die forging
b. Drop forging
c. Closed die
d. Rotary swaging
Answer: A ()
520. Which of the following metals can be magnetized?
a. Martensitic stainless
b. Ferritic stainless
c. Austemfic stainless
d. Martensitic stainless and Femtic stainless
e. None of the above
Answer: A ()
521. Which of the following discontinuities could be classified as a primary processing
or inherent discontinuity often found in wrought material?
a. Fatigue crack
b. Stress-corrosion crack
c. Porosity
d. Machining tear
Answer: A ()
522. Stringers are a type of discontinuity sometimes found in:
a. weldments.
b. castings.
c. forgings.
Answer: A ()
523. Segregation is associated with serious metallurgical defects including?
a. Non-metallic inclusions
b. Shrinkage cavities
c. Hydrogen cracks
d. Non metallic inclusions and shrinkage cavities
e. Non metallic inclusions, shrinkage cavities and hydrogen cracks are correct
Answer: A ()
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524. Rolled mild steel sheet that is held for some time at room temperature will result
in the carbon and nitrogen atoms to diffuse and lock the dislocations. This is known as?
a. Stain ageing
b. Precipitation hardening
c. Work hardening
d. Precipitation ageing
Answer: A ()
525. Consider a time temperature transformation diagram. Which of the following
structures is last to form?
& Coarse Pearlite
b. Upper bainite
c. Low bainite
d. Martensite
Answer: A ()
526. Which of the following metals forms a thin impervious film of oxide that resists
oxidation?
a. Iron
b. Molybdenum
c. Aluminium
d. Magnesium
Answer: A ()
527. Which of the following would be considered to be viewing aids when carrying out
metallography?
a. Microscope
b. Baroscope
c. Fiber optics
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
528. At which temperature does pure iron become non magnetic?
a. Al
b. A2
c. A3
d. A4
Answer: A ()
529. Which of the following is a crystal lattice that has nine atoms, eight at each corner
and one centrally between them?
a. Hexagonal close packing
b. Body centered cubic
c. Face centered cubic
d. Body centered tetragonal
Answer: A ()
530. What effect is caused by a surface notch on a part in service, where local overstressing
starts?
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a. A stress concentration effect

b. A stress dilution effect
c. A stress reduction effect
d. None of the above answers
Answer: A ()
531. Shrinkage grooves located in the weld root of pipe work are considered to be?
a. Lack of root fusion
b. Root concavity
c. Burn through
d. Root undercut
Answer: A ()
532. Tool and die steels are classed as?
a. Low carbon steels
b. Medium carbon steels
c. High carbon steels
d. Alloy steels
Answer: A ()
533. A heat treatment process that requires a material to be heated above its critical
temperature for some period of time for carbon to unite in solid solution with iron in the
gamma or F.C.C. lattice is known as?
a. Spherodizing
b. Annealing
c. Austentitization
d. Normalizing
Answer: A ()
534. Failure by corrosion fatigue is generally?
a. Brittle failure
b. Cleavage failure
c. Intergranular
d. Transgranular
Answer: A ()
535. Which of the following is classified as an inert gas?
a. Hydrogen
b. Helium
c. Oxygen
d. All of the above
e. Hydrogen and helium only
Answer: A ()
536. What term is used to define the change of state directly from solid to gas?
a. Crystallization
b. Vaporization
c. Sublimation
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Answer: A ()
537. Cementite has the chemical formulae?
a. FeC
b. Fe2C
c. Fe3C
d. FeC3
Answer: A ()
538. What is the approximate carbon content of Pig iron?
a. 1-2%
b. 2-3%
c. 3-4%
d. 4-5%
Answer: A ()
539. A cause of gas porosity in welds is:
a. welding at too low a temperature.
b. improper cleaning or preheating of the plates to be welded.
c. the use of insufficient filler metal
d. restriction of the movement of the material during heating or welding
Answer: A ()
540. Which of the following is a Notched Bar test?
a. Tensile impact test
b. Chaipy test
c. hod test
d. Charpy test and Izod test
e. All the above
Answer: A ()
541. Mill work covers many products. Which below would be classed as a mill product?
a. Pipe
b. Tube
c. Casting
d. Pipe and tube
e. None of the above
Answer: A ()
542. What is required to form a fusion bond?
a. Melting of parent metals
b. A filler rod
c. Pressure
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
543. Multiple cooling rates can have adverse affects on weld areas. What can be done to
offset this problem?
a. Use different alloy rods to control temperature
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. Using a pre-heat
c. Use different alloy rods to control temperature and using a pre-heat
d. Nothing can be done to offset the problem
Answer: A ()
544 The hardenability of a steel can be tested by the:
a. Iominy test.
b. Impact test.
c. Rockwell test
d. Tensile test.
Answer: A ()
545. Stretcher stains are?
a. Surface marks
b. Luder lines
c. Grain boundary deformation
d. Both surface marks and luder lines are correct
Answer: A ()
546. Secondary pipe of an ingot is?
a. Considered more detrimental than primary pipe
b. Free from oxide and so opposite walls can be welded together during the rolling
process
c. Suspect to cracking if the ingot is stressed
d. Both free from oxide and so opposite walls can be welded together during the rolling
process and suspect to cracking if the ingot is stressed
Answer: A ()
547. An alloy steel is steel containing one or more?
a. Elements
b. Atoms
c. Mixtures
d. Components
Answer: A ()
548. What materials are required for reinforced plastic molding?
a. Filler
b. Resin
c. Wood Shavings
d. Filler and Resin
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
549. Season cracking is a form of intergranular corrosion that occurs in which of the
following metals?
a. Chromium
b. 7.int-
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c. Brass
d. Copper
Answer: A ()
550. Which of the following is classed as a chemical property?
a. Electrical conductivity
b. Thermal conductivity
c Corrosion resistance
d. Machine resistance
Answer: A ()
551. Flow bonding is a particular type of bond, which listed below would be classed as a
flow bond?
a. Fusion welding
b. Braze welding
c. Metal arc welding
Answer: A ()
552. Sulphur printing is used to determine the degree of segregation in steel and uses
photographic film dipped into a solution of?
a. 3% nitric acid
b. 3% hydrochloric acid
c. 3% sulphuric acid
d. 3% acetic acid
Answer: A ()
553. Which materials can best be anodized?
a. Steel
b. Copper
c. Aluminium
d. Brass
Answer: A ()
554. Where gas is used as a shield for the welding process the gas is commonly?
a. Argon
b. Helium
c. Hydrogen
d. Argon and Helium
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
555. Manufacturing is a term used generally to describe the of a bulk material.
a. Designing
b. Production
c. Shape changing
d. Casting
Answer: A ()
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556. The load carrying ability of an engineering structure can be reduced below the
tensile strength of the material if it contains stress concentrations. This recognition led
to the concept of a material property called?
a. Crack opening displacement
b. Linear elastic fracture mectorices
c. Notch toughness
d. Yield stress
Answer: A ()
557. The letters N/C in machine work stand for?
a. Numerical control
b. Number cycle
c. Numerical cutting
d. Number counting
Answer: A ()
558. The superficial Rockwell test is carried out on materials that?
a. Only allow very small surface blemishes
b. Are very ductile
c. Have very large surface areas
Answer: A ()
559. Which of the following materials exhibits better compressive strength than tensile
strength?
a. Cast iron
b. Concrete
c. Wood
d. Concrete and wood
e. All the above
Answer: A ()
560. Which of the following is required - in theory - for two perfectly matched faces?
a. Atomic cleanliness
b. Atomic closeness
c. Pressure
d. Atomic cleanliness and atomic pressure
e. All the above
Answer: A ()
561. Loads that are most likely to cause failure are?
a. Single direction
b. Multi directional
c. Duo directional
d. Phase orientated
Answer: A ()
562. What material is usually used in injection molding?
a. Thermosetting plastics
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. Thermoplastics
c. Ceramics
d. Powder metals
Answer: A ()
563. Tapping is a cutting operation which produces:
a. holes in sheet metal.
b. threads in a hole (inside threads).
c. threads on a solid shaft (outside threads).
d. both b and c.
Answer: A ()
564. If a material is loaded until its elastic limit is exceeded, what condition will occur?
a. The material may fracture
b. The material may be work hardened
c. The material will show no harmful effects
d. The material may fracture and the material may be work hardened
Answer: A ()
565. The letters EDM stands for?
a. Electronic digital meter
b. Electra discharge motor
c. Electrical discharge machinery
d. Electra dispensing machine
Answer: A ()
566. Of these methods listed below which will eliminate the need for an ingot?
a. Hot rolling
b. Continuous casting
c. Extrusion
Answer: A ()
567. Which of the following is NOT a form of hardness test? Top of Form 1
a. Brinell
b. Jominy
c. Rockwell
d. Vickers
Answer: A ()
568. Welding electrode coatings provides
a. A shield for the arc against the atmosphere
b. Added heat input
c. Additional stresses to the weld
Answer: A ()
569. Which of the following could be considered a discontinuity?
a. Crack
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b. Change of section
c. Drilled holed
d. All the above
Answer: A ()
570. Which weld process has a non-consumable electrode?
a. Manual metal arc
b. Metal inert gas
c. Tungsten inert gas
d. Manual metal arc and metal inert gas
Answer: A ()
571. Sulphur printing is used to determine the degree of segregation in steel and uses
photographic film dipped into a solution of?
a. 3% nitric acid
b. 3% hydrochloric acid
c. 3% sulphuric acid
d. 3% acetic acid
Answer: A ()
572. A concave depression formed at the top of an ingot on cooling is termed?
a. Concavity
b. Primary pipe
c. Secondary pipe
d. Solidification shrinkage
Answer: A ()
573. Which of the following manufacturing processes is the most economical method of
producing complex shapes?
a. Casting
b. Forging
c. Rolling
d. Welding
Answer: A ()
574. How might a weld arc be shielded from oxidation?
a. Flux powders
b. Welding rod coatings
c. Inert gases
d. Welding rod coatings and inert gases
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
575. When a change of wall thickness is required in a casting what would give the best
design results?
a. Sudden section change
b. Small radii
c. Large radii
d. All of the above
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
576. Which of the following alloying additions are used to produce tool and die steels?
a. Nickel
b. Chromium
c. Manganese
d. All of the above
e. Both Chromium and Manganese
Answer: A ()
577. Elements with completed outer electron shells are?
a. Highly reactive
b. Inert
c. Metallic in nature
d. High melting point materials
Answer: A ()
578. Fracture mechanics is used to?
a. Determine critical defect size
b. Select material type
c. Determine important regions to inspect
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
579. Heating to just below AC, and holding at this temperature for several hours is
termed?
a. Spheroidizing
b. Process annealing
c. Normalizing Anneal
d. Both Spheroidizing and process annealing are correct
Answer: A ()
580. Which of the following metallic structures exhibits good ductility and high electrical
conductivity?
a. Body centered cubic
b. Face centered cubic
c. Hexagonal close packed
d. Tetragonal
Answer: A ()
581. Improved properties can be achieved by?
a. Cold rolling
b. Hot rolling
c. Extrusion
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
582. Practically all steel is made with the use of?
a. Hydrogen
is Oxygen
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c. Nitrogen
d. Helium
Answer: A ()
583. During the bending process what stresses are produced within the material?
a. Compressive
b. Shear
c. Tensile
d. Compressive and Tensile
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
584. Which of the following may be considered as a flat product of the steel mill?
a. Sheet
b. Plate
c. Strip
d. Sheet and Strip
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
585. NDT is generally not rained out on cast irons because?
a. Cast iron is inherently free from major defects
is Due to the high carbon content cast iron can withstand high tensile stresses
c. It is generally used in applications where the loads are principally comprehensive
d. The low cost of cast iron cannot justify the high cost of NDT
Answer: A ()
586. To what angle should a bend test be normally bent?
a. 180 degrees
b. 150 degrees
c. 90 degrees
Answer: A ()
587. The upper half of a flask is called?
a. A drag
is A cope
c. A draft
d. A mould
Answer: A ()
588. A typical application of powder metallurgy parts is?
a. Cutting tools
b. Castings for human implants
c. Extrusion of thin sections
d. Metal fabrication of minute welds
Answer: A ()
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589. Where holes or cavities are required in the finished casting a is used in the molding
stage?
a. Chill
b. Ingate
c. Riser
d. Core
Answer: A ()
590. Electra plated surfaces are usually quite thin. Which common NDT method is used to
measure the plate thickness?
a. MT
b. UT
c. ET
d. PT
Answer: A ()
591. One type of forging operation uses?
a. Rolling
b. Casting
c. Open dies
d. Extrusion
Answer: A ()
592. Abrasive finishing could be classified by which of the following methods?
a. Wire brush
is Polishing
c. Buffing
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
593 Which of the following structures is considered to be tetragonal?
a. Austenite
is Ferrite
c. Pearlite
d. Martensite
Answer: A ()
594. Shrinkage occurring in the casting process can be divided into how many stages?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: A ()
595. Which is the main alloying element with respect to stainless steel?
a. Nickel
is Chromium
c. Carbon
d. Molybdenum
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
Answer: A ()
596. Angular distortion may occur in a weld when?
a. Restraints are used
b. Multi-pass welds are used
c. Single pass welds are used
d. Multiple welds and single pass welds are used
Answer: A ()
597. Which of the following is not a characteristic of plaster mold casting?
a. Only non-ferrous metals are cast in plaster molds.
b. The mold materials can be reused.
c. A uniform structure in the casting is obtained because of slow cooling.
d. Plaster molds are well-suited to the use of chills, which permit close control of thermal
gradients in the molds.
Answer: A ()
598. The first crystals to form on solidification of a liquid metal are?
a. Columnar grains
b. Equiaxed crystals
c. Chill crystals
d. Solidification crystals
Answer: A ()
599. Wells outside the normal finished casting are there to allow for?
a. Gas evolution
is Sand erosion
c. Shrinkage
d. Airlocks
Answer: A ()
600. To join two metals which of the following is essential?
a. Atomic closeness
is Atomic cleanliness
c. Melting
d. Atomic closeness and cleanliness
e. All the above
Answer: A ()
601. A non-destructive test is usually classified as a?
a. Indirect test
is Direct test
c. Destructive test
d. Indirect and direct test
Answer: A ()
602. One of the major drawbacks of magnesium alloys is?
a. Poor corrosion resistance
is Notch sensitivity
c. High density
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. More expensive than using beryllium, which exhibits similar properties

Answer: A ()
603. The temperature at which bonds between atoms are broken and the atoms are free to
move from their fixed positions is known as?
a. Liquidation temperature
is Latent heat of fusion
c. Melting paint
d. Freezing point
Answer: A ()
604 Which of the following is classified as a non-ferrous light alloy?
a. Beryllium base
b. Zinc base
c. Tin base
d. Copper base
Answer: A ()
605. A definite break in the material caused by excessive working of the metal during the
forging, rolling or extruding operation is called a:
a. cold shut.
b. seam.
c. burst.
d. hot tear.
Answer: A ()
606. It is generally understood that the principal alloying elements of brass are?
a. Copper and tin
b. Copper and zinc
c. Bronze and tin
d. Tin and zinc
Answer: A ()
607. Which of the following must be considered when choosing an engineering material
for a particular application?
a. Cost
b. Loading
c. Mechanical properties
d. Inspection costs
e. Any of the above
Answer: A ()
608. A stress caused by forces at an angle to the plane is known as a?
a. Comprehensive stress
b. Tensile stress
c. Normal stress
d. Shear stress
Answer: A ()
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609. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important factor to consider in making quality

weldments because:
a. some metals, such as aluminum, have a low conductivity which results in weld defects
due to localized heat build up.
b. some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high conductivity which results in lack of fusion
defects as the heat is quickly removed from the weld zone.
c. in some metals, such as aluminum, very high temperature gradients are produced, causing
stresses during cooling.
Answer: A ()
610. Heat treatment of steel may be done to:
a. remove stresses induced by cold working.
b. decrease hardness and increase ductility.
c. change or modify its magnetic properties.
d. accomplish any of the above.
Answer: A ()
611. Cold cracks are formed in steel castings?
a. As a result of large contraction stresses
b. With carbon contents greater than 0.1%
c. By alloying additions that hinder the formation of Maatensite
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
612. Which welding process takes place in a vacuum?
a. Plasma arc welding
b. Electron beam welding
c. Friction welding
d. Explosion welding
Answer: A ()
613. Which extrusion process uses less pressure due to lower build-ups of friction
container and billet?
a. Direct hot walking
b. Indirect cold working
c. Indirect hot working
d. Direct cold working
Answer: A ()
614. Of the following metals which is most susceptible to corrosion by seawater?
a. Gold
b. Copper
c. Zinc
d. Lead
Answer: A ()
615. The bottom part of the flask is known as the?
a. Cope
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b. Bottom board
c. Drag
d. Runner
Answer: A ()
616. Mutual attraction of positive and negative ions results in?
a. Ionic bonds
b. Covalent bond
c. Metallic bond
d. Van der waals bonds
Answer: A ()
617. Which of the following welding processes is most prone to lack of fusion type defects?
a. Manual metal arc
b. Submerged arc
c. Electroslag
d. Oxy gas welding
Answer: A ()
618. Fixed gauges are used?
a. Only on single purpose applications
b. To measure internal bores
c. Shape relationships
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
619. Which of the following has an essentially rectangular cross-section?
a. Bar
b. Bloom
c. Slab
d. Billet
Answer: A ()
620. When using basic symbols for NDT what letters are used to denote liquid penetrant
testing?
a. LPT
b. EFT
c. PT
d. RPT
Answer: A ()
621. Wormholes and blowholes greater than 1.5mm diameter are formed by?
a. The carbon monoxide mechanism
b. The water vapor mechanism
c. Both carbon monoxide and vapor mechanisms
d. Airlocks
Answer: A ()
622. Which of the following is classed as permanent deformation?
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a. Twinning
b. Rotational deformation
c. Slip
d. Twinning and Slip
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
623. Which of the following will affect the result of a tensile test?
a. Size of test piece
b. Orientation of test piece
c. Method of machining
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
624 Hardenability increases as?
a. Alloying elements increase
b. Carbon equivalent increases
c. Rate of cooling increases
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
625. Excessive reinforcement of a butt weld may cause?
a. Stress raiser
b. Fatigue
c. Misalignment
d. Both stress raiser and fatigue are correct
Answer: A ()
626. The melting point of the parent plate and its subsequent removal by the force of the
welding process is known as?
a. Misalignment
b. Lack of penetration
c. Undercut
d. Inadequate Capping
Answer: A ()
627. The carbon content of high carbon steel is?
a. 6-25 points of carbon
b. 25-50 points of carbon
c. 50-160 points of carbon
d. Over 160 points of carbon
Answer: A ()
a. Castings
b. Extrusions
d. Forgings
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Answer: A ()
629. Killed steel is steel that has been:
a. demagnetized
b. D.C. magnetized
c. deoxidized
d. quenched in oil
Answer: A ()
630. In explosive forming?
a. Gun powder is used
b. High explosive is used
c. Slow burning propellants are used
d. High explosive and slow burning propellants are used
Answer: A ()
631. Which of the following must be avoided to avoid cracking in a weldment?
a. Stress
b. Martensite
c. Hydrogen
d. All of the above
e. Martensite and hydrogen
Answer: A ()
632. In steels that do not exhibit yield points; the stress at which plastic deformation begins
corresponding to a small permanent strain is termed?
a. Elastic limit
b. Transition point
c. Proof stress
d. Younges modulus
Answer: A ()
633. Bonding of the metal powders into a solid mass during solid phase sintering is usually
achieved by:
a. fusion.
b. diffusion.
c. interlocking.
Answer: A ()
634. Internal stress is associated with?
a. High temperature gradients and rapid cooling
b. Low temperature gradients and rapid cooling
c. High temperature gradients and slow cooling
d. Low temperature gradients and slow cooling
Answer: A ()
635. Explosion welding is generally used to join?
a. Two or more metals of different composition
b. Butt welds
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
c. Very think titanium sheeting

d. Plastics
Answer: A ()
636. The casting process which produces bar is known as?
a. Centrifugal casting
b. Last wax process
c. Continuous casting
d. Plaster mold casting
Answer: A ()
637. What do the letters AISI?
a. American Institute of Steel Industries
b. American Iron and Steel Industries
c. American Industries of Steel Institutes
d. American Iron and Steel Institute
Answer: A ()
638. In modern manufacturing industries which of the following factors are
considered?
a. Markets
b. Product life
c. Design
d. Manufacturing process
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
639. The examination of a fracture surface is considered to be?
a. Macro examination
b. Micro examination
c. Macro etching
d. Metallography
Answer: A ()
640. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is almost exclusively die-cast?
a. Aluminium
b. Copper
c. Magnesium
d. Zinc
Answer: A ()
641. segregation is associated with serious metallurgical defects including?
a. Secondary pipe
b. Non metallic inclusions
c. Skull
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
642. One of the effects of alloying is termed?
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. Coring
b. Dendritic growth
c. Homogenous structure
d. Inter-dendritic growth
Answer: A ()
643. Which of the following solid inclusion is most likely in TIG weld?
a. Slag
b. Flux
c. Tungsten
d. Oxide
Answer: C ()
644. Austenitic stainless steel most typically contains?
a. 18% Chromium8% Nickel
b. 15% Chromium10% Nickel
c. 10% Chromium15% Nickel
d. 8% Chroraium18% Nickel
Answer: A ()
645. Equilibrium diagrams are plot of
a. TemperatureV Time
b. CompositionV Time
c. TemperatureV Composition
d. Solid CompositionV Liquid Composition
Answer: A ()
646. Spot welding is commonly used in which of the following applications?
a. Car manufacturing
b. Seam welding
c. Shipbuilding
d. Fabrication yards
Answer: A ()
647. Galvanizing is a process of applying to iron and steel products a protective layer of
a. tin and tin compounds.
b. zinc and zinc compounds.
c. aluminum and aluminum compounds.
d. copper and copper compounds.
Answer: A ()
648. Cavities elongated in the direction of which gas is escaping are termed?
a. Pores
b. Wormholes
c. Pipes
d. Wormholes and Pipes are correct
Answer: A ()
649. In its original shape porosity would appear:
a. elongated.
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b. irregular.
c. round or nearly round.
Answer: A ()
650. Which of the following is classed as a manufacturing process?
a. Casting
b. Welding
c. Machining
d. Rolling
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
651. A bonding process where only very small amount of the base metal is used is called?
a. Fusion bonding
b. Pressure bonding
c. Flow bonding
d. Cold bonding
Answer: A ()
652. Which two NDT methods are usually used to inspect Magnesium components?
a. Radiography and penetrant
b. Radiography and magnetic particle
c. Ultrasonic and magnetic particle
d. Ultrasonic and penetrant
Answer: A ()
653. Thennoplasting can be?
a. Melted down and re-used without loss of properties
b. Softened by heat
c. Will char when heated
d. Melted down and re-used without loss of properties and softened by heat
Answer: A ()
654. The fundamental difference between macro examination and micro examination is?
a. Micro examination can be regarded as the overall picture
b. Macro examination is the detailed structure
c. Micro structure examination are conducted at higher magnification
d. Macro examination are conducted at higher magnification
Answer: A ()
655. The ultimate strength of material is?
a. Lower than the breaking strength for ductile materials
b. Lower than the rupture strength for ductile materials
c. The same as the breaking strength for brittle materials
Answer: A ()
656. Automatic welding under a flux is more commonly known as?
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. TIG welding
b. Manual metal arc welding
c. Submerged arc welding
d. Stick welding
Answer: A ()
657. Which NDT method can be used to give general sorting of Aluminium alloys?
a. UT
b. MT
c. RT
d. ET
Answer: A ()
658. Precipitation hardening is most commonly carried out on which of the following
materials?
a. Carbon steel
b. Lead
c. Copper
d. Aluminium
Answer: A ()
659. Pipe and tube may be manufactured using which technique?
a. Extruding
b. Rolling
c. Resistance welding
d. Extruding and Rolling
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
660. The incubation period for hairline cracks if generally considered to be of the order of
from the time the forging first cools below 100 degrees Celsius?
a. 24 hours
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
Answer: A ()
661. Which of the following is a hole making operation?
a. Splitting
b. Parting
c. Blanking
d. Notching
Answer: A ()
662. Which of the following metals has very little ductility?
a. Copper
b. Steel
c. Iron
d. Aluminium
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Answer: A ()
663. Which of the following processes could be performed using oxyacetylene
equipment?
a. Flame cutting
b. Brazing
c. Soldering
d. Brazing and Soldering
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
664. The shearing operation has many forms - names - of those listed below which is a
shearing operation?
a. Bending
b. Drawing
c. Forming
d. Parting
Answer: A ()
665. Which metal is most used in electrical work, wiring, etc?
a. Copper
b. Brass
c. Aluminium
d. Steel
Answer: A ()
666. The casting process, which gives improved material density towards the outside of,
the mold is?
a. Centrifugal casting
b. Investment casting
c. Continuous casting
d. Permanent mold casting
Answer: A ()
667. Which of the following metals is the most noble?
a. Chromium
b. Aluminium
c. Platinum
d. Zinc
Answer: A ()
668. Annealing will achieve which of the following properties?
a. Increase ductility and decrease hardness
b. Increase ductility and increase hardness
c. Decrease ductility and increase hardness
d. Decrease ductility and decrease hardness
Answer: A ()
669. Point B on the iron carbon diagram is the?
a. Peritectic point
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
b. Peritectoid point
c. Eutectic point
d. Eutectoid point
Answer: A ()
670. Which welding process is generally used to weld the ends of heavy round bars or tubes?
a. Ultrasonic welding
b. Electroslag welding
c. Plasma arc welding
d. Friction welding
Answer: A ()
671. Which of the following would be considered to be viewing aids when carrying out
metallography?
a. Microscope
b. Boroscope
c. Fibre optics
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
672. Which of the following is NOT a form of hardness test?
a. Brinell
b. Jommy
c. Rockwell
d. Vickers
Answer: A ()
673. When using gas metal are welding what range of filler wire diameter is available?
a. 0.1-0.5mm
b. 0.5-3nun
c. 0.1-30mm
d. 0.5-10mm
Answer: A ()
674. Which of these defects can be found in fusion welds?
a. Porosity
b. Slag
c. Cracks
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
675. A process used to decrease hardness, increase ductility and occasionally improve
machinability of high carbon steels is called?
a. Annealing
b. Austenitization
c. Spheroidizing
d. Stress relieving
Answer: A ()
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
676. An advantage of the shore sclerescope over other methods of hardness testing is?
a. Portability
b. No damage to surface of item being hardness tested
c. Accuracy and repeatability on soft materials
d. Both portability and no damage to surface of item being hardness tested
Answer: A ()
677. Which of the following is not a service defect?
a. forging crack
b. fatigue crack
c. stress-corrosion crack
d. intergranular corrosion
Answer: A ()
678. Internal forces acting upon imaginary planes cutting the body being loaded are?
a. Stresses
b. Pressures
c. Strain
d. Fatigues
Answer: A ()
679. Which of the following could affect the properties of an engineering material?
a. Composition
b. Heat treated condition
c. Crystal structure
d. Composition and heat-treated condition
e. Composition, heat treated condition and crystal structure
Answer: A ()
680. Where an unacceptable condition occurs in a material, due to local variations in
material continuity the term given specifically to this is?
a. A discontinuity
b. A flaw
c. A defect
d. Any of the above
Answer: A ()
681. Pattern makers shrinkage occurs in?
a. Liquid state of casting
b. Solidification state of casting
c. Solid state of casting
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
682. After solidification of a casting, the internal granular structure consists of three
layers - outer, intermediate and central. The central layer consists of
a. a mixture of large and small grains with random shape and orientation.
b. large columnar grains.
c. large equiaxed grains.
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. small equiaxed grains with random shape and orientation_

Answer: A ()
683 Which of the following should not be in the list?
a. ingot
b. bloom
c. billet
d. slab
Answer: A ()
684. Low temperature heating giving rise to small-scale readjustments in the position of
the atoms is known as?
b. Recovery
c. Grain growth
d. Annealing
Answer: A ()
685. The principal NDT method to locate internal discontinuities in forgings is?
a. UT
b. RT
c. ET
d. MT
Answer: A ()
686. In the machining process metal is removed in the form of
a. Swarf
b. Chips
c. Fillings
d. Turnings
Answer: A ()
Answer: A ()
688. Why is it advisable to leave final inspection of a weld until well after welding has
finished?
a. Because the welds will be too hot to test
b. Due to the possibility of distortion
c. Due to the possibility of post weld cracking
d. All of the above
Answer: A ()
689. When carrying out a tensile test the maximumload to fracture is 3.2 tons and the test
piece is 0.5 inches diameter. What is the tensile strength?
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
a. 6.4 tons per square inch

b. 4.07 tons per square inch
c. 1629 tons per square inch
d. 8.80 tons per square inch
Answer: A ()
690. A property of a fine grain material is that it will?
a. Machine more easily than coarse grain
b. Case harden more easily than coarse grain
c. Have higher strength than coarse grain
d. All the above
Answer: A ()
691. Reshaping of a material whilst in a plastic or semi-solid form is called?
a. Casting
b. Rolling
c. Extrusion
d. All of the above
e. Rolling and Extrusion
Answer: A ()
692. Fatigue failure may initiate from?
a. An area of corrosion
b. An internal flaw
c. A surface notch
d. All the above
Answer: A ()
693. Metal forming such as rolling results in:
a. plastic flow of the metal.
b. elongation of existing defects perpendicular to the rolling direction.
c. directional properties which are always beneficial for secondary forming operations.
d. the flattening out of defects which makes them more easily detectable by most NDT
methods.
Answer: A ()
694. Which of the following is an advantage of the continuous casting process?
a. Removes the requirement for ingots
b. Reduces wastage of material
c. Can produce intricate cross sections
d. Removes the requirement for ingots and reduces wastage of material
e. All of the above
Answer: A ()
695. Which of the following statements is 'rile with regard to a galvenic cell?
a. The more positive cathodic metals are protected
b. The more negative cathodic metals are protected
c. The more positive anodic metals suffer corrosion
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Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________
d. The more negative abodic metals are protected

Answer: A ()
696. Which of the following does not create porosity when welding?
a. Contamination of parent metal surfaces
b. Use of powerful deoxidants
c. Excessive dampness in consumables
d. Inadequate removal of hydrated oxide films
Answer: A ()
697. Galvanising is the process of coating inm with which of the following metals?
a. Tin
b. Zinc
c. Copper
d. Gold
Answer: A ()
698. Processing is one or more steps that change Products?
a. Shape
b. Properties
c. Chemical analysis
d. Shape and Properties
e. All the above
Answer: A ()
699 Which of the following statements is true?
a. Weld decay is a form of Intercrystalline cracking
b. Weld decay is reduced by decreasing carbon content
c. Weld decay is reduced by additions of niobium
d. Weld decay is reduced by sub-critical annealing
Answer: A ()
700. Wrought zinc and its alloys have very little NDT inspection on them, when a material
is plated with zinc it is known as?
a. Anodizing
b. Wrapping
c. Galvanizing
d. Flashing
Answer: A ()
Page 113 of 113

NDT Basic Question Paper (700 Q & A)

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer)

Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________

a. be designated by the employer

C. 320 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively

a. Required for every additional method examination

a. The employer shall establish a written practice.

141 An employer has to test or certify an outside Level III consultant?

E all of the above

b. is basically the responsibility of the NDT level III as per SNT-TC-TA

a. At least one year of experience in NDT in an assignment comparable to that of a

D. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as strict specification.

OTHER NDT METHODS

D. None of the above

D. decreasing the intensity of the beam_

259. The fillet weld size is based on the:

d. Hydrogen, lithium and boron are not attenuated by thermal neutrons

316. Generation of ultrasound waves with EMATs is possible in

fi the intensity of the beam.

C. inversely proportional to velocity and directly proportional to frequency.

A The ease with which it can be magnetized.

A. by absorbing the longer wavelength components of the primary beam_

387. Thermo luminescent Dosimeters (TLDs) are worn where?

a. subatomic building blocks

a. is dependent upon the strength of the magnetizing force employed

c. Random disintegration of a radioisotope

si proportional to the amount of displacement in the signal.

a. tin and tin compounds.

d. hydrogen induced porosity

c. Laminar, through, and oblique

497. A cause of gas porosity in welds is:

d. All of the above

a. A stress concentration effect

d. More expensive than using beryllium, which exhibits similar properties

609. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important factor to consider in making quality

Page 102 of 113

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c. Very think titanium sheeting

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Page 106 of 113

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d. small equiaxed grains with random shape and orientation_

Page 111 of 113

a. 6.4 tons per square inch

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d. The more negative abodic metals are protected

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