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Roll Number

STATE COUNCIL OF EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING

STATE LEVEL NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION – 2015


Class – X
Part – I
SCHOLASTIC A PTITUDE TEST (SAT)
Time : 90 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES : kq}ƒL¡À]W¥¨Oç j]¡SÇw°¥ :
Read the following instructions before you answer S\Lh|°¥¨V D¾qU IuOfL¢ fOa°OÐf]jV oOÒV
the questions. Answers are to be given in a fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ j]¡SÇw°¥ yèÈU
SEPARATE OMR ANSWER SHEET provided vLp]¨OW. D¾qU j¤SWºfV KqO NkSf|W
inside this booklet. Break the seal and start D¾q¨asLy]¤ BeV. j]¡SÇw¾]jO SwxU oLNfSo
answering the questions once asked to do so. y}¤ fOr¨OvLjOU, D¾qU IuOfOvLjOU kLaOçP.
1. j]°tORa SrL¥ jÒ¡ (KqO Wç]p]¤ KqO
1. Please write your ROLL NUMBER very A¨U oLNfU) v|©oLp] j]°tORa NkSvwj
clearly (only one digit in one block) as given in kNf¾]¤ fÐ]q]¨OÐfO SkLRs IuOfOW.
your Admission Card.
2. CT kq}ƒLkOñW¾]¤ 100 S\Lh|°tOºV.
2. There are 100 questions in this test. The S\Lh|°¥ fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ NkWLqU
questions are arranged in the following order : NWoRÕaO¾]p]q]¨OÐO.
• Questions 1 to 40 belong to Science • 1 oOf¤ 40 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ wLNñ¾]¤
Subjects. j]ÐV.
• Questions 41 to 60 are on Mathematics • 41 oOf¤ 60 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ Ye]f
Subjects. ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
• Questions 61 to 100 are on Social Science. • 61 oOf¤ 100 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ yLoPz|
wLNñ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
3. Select the most suitable answer for each 3. KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jOU D\]foLp D¾qU
question and completely darken the circle f]qR´aO¾V wq]pLp D¾qR¾ yP\]Õ]
corresponding to the correct alternative as ¨OÐ vQ¾U oLNfU fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ
shown below. v]i¾]¤ kP¡¹oLp] WrOÕ]¨OW.

Correct Method Wrong Method wq]pLp q}f] RfãLp q}f]


1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4

4. IŠL S\Lh|°¥¨OU KqO oL¡¨V v}fU.


4. All questions carry ONE MARK each.
5. j|Pj oL¡¨V CŠ. KLSqL wq] D¾q¾]jOU KqO
5. There is no negative mark. Every correct
oL¡¨V v}fU sn]¨OU.
answer will be awarded one mark.
6. j]°tORa SkqV S\Lh| kOñW¾]R£SpL
6. Do not write your name on any part of the D¾q¨asLy]R£SpL KqO nLY¾OU IuOfO
question booklet or on the answer sheet. vL¢ kLa]Š.
Class – X SAT

RE
HE
E
RIT
TW
NO
DO

M-1
Class – X SAT

There are 100 questions in all. For each BRW 100 S\Lh|°¥ DºV. KLSqL S\Lh| ¾]jOU
question four alternative answers are given (1), (2), (3), (4) IÐV AapLtRÕaO¾]p jLsV
marked as (1), (2), (3), (4). From these, find v|f|ñ D¾qU v}fU RWLaO¾]ŸOºV . Avp]¤
the most appropriate answer. The number wq]pLpSfL JãvOU AjOSpL^|oLpSfL Bp
D¾qU WºOk]a]¨OW. CT D¾qR¾ WOr]¨OÐ
denoting this answer is there in the answer
jÒ¡ D¾q¨asLy]¤ AfLfV S\Lh|¾]Rjf]Rq
sheet against the question number concerned.
DºV. CT jÒ¡ Aa°]p vQ¾U j}s ARŠË]¤
Darken the circle with Blue/Black Ball Pen
WrOÕV ox]pOç mL¥ Rk¢ DkSpLY]ˆV
only. Record the answers thus in the OMR
WrOÕ]¨OW. D¾q°¥ ANkWLqU OMR D¾q
answer sheet only. Do not write anything in ¨asLy]¤ oLNfU SqXRÕaO¾OW. S\Lh|°¥
the question booklet except your Roll Number Aa°]p mO¨]R£ Wv¡ Sk^]¤ j]°tORa SrL¥
on the cover page and rough work in the jÒqOU, rlV v¡¨]jO Svº] fÐ]ŸOtt òs¾V
space provided for the purpose. Af]jOtt WOr]ÕOW¥ Ku]RW oRãLÐOU IuOfqOfV.

1. The following animals are examples 1. fLRu fÐ]q]¨OÐ ^ÍO¨¥ SWL¡


for chordates ScãpORa DhLzqe°¥ BeV.
‘Shark, Frog, Pigeon, Cobra, Lion and "NyLvV, fvt, NkLvV, oP¡X¢,
Bat’. y]UzU, v‹L¤'
Select the correct assumption about
oOWt]¤ fÐ]q]¨OÐ DhLzqe
°t]¤ j]ÐOU fLRu krpOÐv
the above animals.
p]Rs wq]pLp AjOoLjU RfqR´
(1) All are cold blooded animals except aO¨OW.
Lion (1) y]UzU Ku]ˆOç IŠL oQY
(2) All are warm blooded animals °tOU w}fq© ^}v]W¥ BeV.
except Frog (2) fvt Ku]ˆOç IŠL oQY°tOU
(3) Shark, Cobra and Frog are cold DxVeq© ^}v]W¥ BeV.
blooded but others are warm (3) NyLvV , oP¡X¢, fvt IÐ]v
w}fq© ^}v]WtOU oãOçv
blooded
DxVe q© ^}v]WtOoLeV.
(4) Shark, Cobra and Bat are cold (4) NyLvV, oP¡X¢, v‹L¤ IÐ}
blooded animals oQY°¥ w}fq© ^}v]WtLeV.
2. fÐ]q]¨OÐvp]¤ j]ÐOU wq]pLp
2. Select correctly matched disease- SqLYU – SqLYLeOvLz] S^Lc]
insect vector pair from the given. RfqR´aO¨OW.
(1) Malaria – Culex Mosquito (1) oSsr]p – W|PsWõV RWLfOWV
(2) rLm}yV – RaaVy] RRlæ
(2) Rabies – Tse – Tse Fly (3) mOSmLe]WV – rLãV læ}
(3) Bubonic Plague – Rat Flea S†YV
(4) Epidemic Typhus – House Fly (4) IÕ]Rco]WVV – CTˆ
RRalyV
M-1 -1- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
3. In plants, seed/bud dormancy is 3. yy|°t]¤ v]¾V/oOWOtU CvpORa
promoted/stimulated by the hormone yOxOkÅ L vò DS¾^]Õ]¨OÐ
(1) Gibberellins SzL¡SoL¦
(2) Auxins (1) Y]‰r]s]¢yV
(2) KLWVy]¢yV
(3) Cytokinins
(3) RRySãLW]j]¢yV
(4) Abscisic acid
(4) AmVy]y]WV By]cV
4. Triple dwarf Mexican varieties of 4. Na]Õ]¥ c~L¡lV IÐ RoWõ]¨¢
wheat were developed by SYLfÒ]jU v]Wy]Õ]RˆaO¾fV
(1) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (1) ScL. IU. IôV. y~Lo] jLg¢
(2) N.E. Borlaug (2) I¢. C. SmL¡SsLYV
(3) Dr. V. Kurien (3) ScL. v]. WOq|¢
(4) Karl Von Frisch (4) WL¥ SvL¦ Nl]xV

5. Which plant group is known as 5. "yy|SsLWR¾ Dnp^}v]W¥'


‘amphibians of plant kingdom’ ? IÐr]pRÕaOÐ yy|v]nLY
SofLeV ?
(1) Gymnosperms
(1) ^]USjLyVSkUyV
(2) Bryophyta
(2) NmSpLRRlã
(3) Pteridophyta
(4) Thallophyta (3) Rar]ScLRRlã
(4) fLSsLRRlã
6. The excretory structure has a direct 6. AÐkg¾]Ss¨V Sjq]ŸV mÌ
entry into the alimentary canal. RÕaOÐ v]y¡^jLvpvoLeV
(1) Kidney
(1) vQ¨W¥
(2) Malpighian tubule
(2) oL¤k}^]p¢ jt]WW¥
(3) Contractile vacuole
(3) SljU
(4) Nephridia
(4) RjNl}c]p

7. Identify the group of organisms that 7. kOjqOs×¾] WLe]¨OÐ ^}v]


show regeneration. WtORa WPŸU RfqR´aO¨OW.
(1) Planaria, Amoeba (1) †Sjr]p, Ao}m
(2) Euglena, Paramecium (2) pO…}j, kLqo}y]pU
(3) Planaria, Hydra (3) †Sjr]p, RRzNc
(4) pO…}j, Ao}m
(4) Euglena, Amoeba
M-1 -2-
Class – X SAT
8. ‘Bishnoi Community’ is well known 8. vjyUqƒevOoLp] mÌR՟
for the conservation of forests are "m]xVSeLpV yoPzU' JfV CÍ|¢
seen in which of the given states of yUòLj¾LeOçfV ?
India ? (1) YO^rL¾V
(1) Gujarat (2) SWqtU
(2) Kerala (3) ké]o mUYL¥
(3) West Bengal (4) qL^òL¢
(4) Rajasthan
9. fsSˆLr]Rs èveSWNÎU
ò]f] R\áOÐRfv]Ra ?
9. Where is the centre of hearing located
in brain ? (1) Ryr]mŠU
(1) Cerebellum (2) RocOŠ KmVStLUSYã
(2) Medulla Oblongata (3) RRzSÕLfsLoyV
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Ryr]NmU
(4) Cerebrum 10. fÐ]q]¨OÐvp]¤ j]ÐOU wq]pLp
NkñLvj RfqR´aO¨OW.
10. Select the correct statement from the (a) j|PSoLe]p SqLY¾]jV WLqeU
given. j|OSoLSWL¨yV IÐ mLû}q]p
(a) Pneumonia is caused by a bacteria pLeV
pneumococcus (b) y]l]s]yV IÐfV RRvryV
(b) Syphilis is a sexually transmitted ka¡¾OÐ RRsUY]W^j|
disease caused by virus SqLYoLeV
(c) Typhoid is caused by Salmonella (c) yL¤RoLeŠ RRal] IÐ
typhi, a fungus lUYyLeV RRaSlLp]cV
(d) Hepatitis is a sexually transmitted ka¡¾OÐfV
disease which affects the liver (d) RzÕRRãã]yV IÐ RRsUY]W
(1) (a) and (b)
^j|SqLYU mLi]¨OÐfV Wqt]
RjpLeV
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d) (1) (a) DU (b) DU
(4) (b) and (c) (2) (c) DU (d) DU
(3) (a) DU (d) DU
(4) (b) DU (c) DU
11. Select the wrongly matched pair from
the given. 11. fÐ]q]¨OÐvp]¤ j]ÐOU RfãLp
(1) Chloroplast – Chlorophyll
khS^Lc] RfqR´aO¨OW.
(1) S„LSrL†LðV – S„LSrLl]¤
(2) Elaioplast – Starch (2) IRRsSpL †LðV – AÐ^U
(3) Aleuroplast – Protein (3) As|PSrL †LðV – oLUy|U
(4) Amyloplast – Carbohydrate (4) ARRoSsL †LðV – WL¡SmLRRzSNcãV

M-1 -3- P.T.O.


Class – X SAT
12. Identify the group includes cells of the 12. RRys¾]Rs SWLw°¥ D¥RÕaOÐ
Xylem. WPŸR¾ WRº¾OW.
(1) Seive tubes, Companion cells,
Tracheids (1) y~}vV jLt], yzSWLw°¥,
(2) Companion cells, Tracheids, Na¨}cOW¥
Vessels (2) yzSWLw°¥, Na¨}cOW¥,
(3) Tracheids, Vessels, Xylem RvysOW¥
Parenchyma (3) Na¨}cOW¥, RvysOW¥,
(4) Tracheids, Companion cells, RRysU kLq¢RRWo
Xylem Parenchyma
(4) Na¨}cOW¥, yzSWLw°¥,
RRysU kLq¢RRWo
13. Identify the process that occurs while
viewing distant objects. 13. AWRspOç vñO¨Rt SjL¨O
SÒL¥ yUnv]¨OÐ NkNW]p
(1) Ligaments relax
JRfÐV WRº¾OW.
(2) Focal length decreases (1) yÔLpO¨¥ AppOÐO
(3) Ciliary muscles contract (2) SlL¨¤ hPqU WOrpOÐO
(4) Curvature of lens decreases (3) y}s]pr] Skw]W¥ \OqO°OÐO
(4) Rs¢y]R£ vNWf WOrpOÐO
14. Which among the following is not a 14. RRzSÕLRRfSrLp]c]y¾]R£
characteristic symptom of NkoOX sƒeoŠL¾SffV ?
hypothyroidism ?
(1) DT¡S^LfVkLhjU WOrpOW
(1) Low energy production
(2) wq}qnLqU WPaOW
(2) Increase of body weight
(3) Increased appetite (3) nƒeS¾LaV fLfVkq|U WPaOW
(4) Lethargy (4) S^Ls] R\áL¢ v]oOXf
SfLÐOW.
15. An element M gives two fluorides 15. ‘M’ IÐ KqO oPsWU, MF 4 , MF6
with formulae MF4 and MF6. The most IÐ} qºO læPRRrcOW¥ fqOÐO.
CT oPsW¾]R£ RRzNcc]S£
probable formula of its hydride is fLWL¢ JãvOU WPaOf¤ yLi|f
(1) MH2 (2) MH4 pOç SlL¡oOs JfV ?
(1) MH2 (2) MH4
(3) MH6 (4) M2H3
(3) MH6 (4) M2H3
16. 6 s ymVRx¤ j]r´f]jOSwxU
16. After filling 6s subshell the next
electron goes to the subshell
CsSNûL¦ JfV ymV R xs]Ss
¨LeV SkLWOÐfV ?
(1) 4f (2) 6p (1) 4f (2) 6p
(3) 5d (4) 4d (3) 5d (4) 4d
M-1 -4-
Class – X SAT
17. When a solid melts KqO XqU DqOWOSÒL¥
17.
(a) Temperature increases (a) fLkj]s DpqOÐO
(b) fLkj]s ò]qoLp]q]¨OÐO
(b) Temperature remains the same
(c) fLkU BY]qeU R\áOÐO
(c) Heat is absorbed
(d) fLkU kOr¾O v]aOÐO
(d) Heat is liberated oOWt]¤ j]ÐOU wq]pLp NkñLvj
Select the correct statements from the f]qR´aO¨OW.
above. (1) (b) oLNfU
(2) (a) pOU (d) pOU
(1) (b) only (2) (a) and (d) (3) (a) pOU (c) pOU
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c) (4) (b) pOU (c) pOU
18. YLd HCl&DU XqqPk¾]sOç
18. The gas/gases formed by the reaction KMnO4 &DU fÚ]¤ qLyNkv¡¾jU
between Conc.HCl and solid KMnO4 ja¨OSÒL¥ DºLWOÐ vLfWU/
is/are
vLfW°¥ JfV/Jv ?
(1) H2 oLNfU
(1) H2 only (2) Cl2 only (2) Cl2 oLNfU
(3) H2 and Cl2 (4) H2, Cl2 and O2 (3) H2&DU Cl2- DU
(4) H2, Cl2, O2 IÐ]v
19. The IUPAC name of the alkane C5H12 19. JãvOU WPaOf¤ wLXWtOç C5H12
with maximum branches is IÐ B¤S¨pVR£ IUPAC jLoU
(1) 2, 2 – dimethyl propane (1) 2, 2 – RRcRof]¤ RNkLSÕ¢
(2) 2 – Rof]¤ m|PSŸ¢
(2) 2 – methyl butane
(3) 2 – If]¤ RNkLSÕ¢
(3) 2 – ethyl propane
(4) 1, 2 – RRcRof]¤ RNkLSÕ¢
(4) 1, 2 – dimethyl propane
20. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
NaOH&- R£ 1 SoLtL¡ sLpj] fqOÐfV
20. Which of the following gives 1 molar JfV ? (SoLtL¡ oLyV = 40)
solution of NaOH ? (Molar mass = 40) (a) 4g NaOH 100 mL ^s¾]¤
(a) 4 g NaOH dissolved in 100 mL water sp]Õ]ˆfV
(b) 80 g NaOH 1dm3 ^s¾]¤
(b) 80 g NaOH dissolved in 1dm 3
sp]Õ]ˆfV
water
(c) 2 g NaOH 0.05 L ^s¾]¤
(c) 2 g NaOH dissolved in 0.05 L water sp]Õ]ˆfV
(d) 800 mg NaOH dissolved in 2 mL (d) 800 mg NaOH 2 mL ^s¾]¤
water sp]Õ]ˆfV
wq]pLp NkñLvj f]qR´aO¨OW.
Select the correct alternative. (1) (a) pOU (c) pOU
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (d) (2) (a) pOU (d) pOU
(3) (c) pOU (d) pOU
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
(4) (b) pOU (d) pOU
M-1 -5- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
21. The balanced chemical equation for 21. m|PSŸ¢ KLWõ]^j]¤ W¾OÐf]R£
combustion of butane in oxygen is yo}Wq]ˆ yovLW|oLeV RWLaO
2C4H10 + 13O 2 → 8 CO2 + 10 H2O ¾]q]¨OÐfV
What is the volume of CO2 at STP 2C4H10 + 13O 2 → 8 CO2 + 10 H2O
formed by the combustion of 290 g of 290 gm|PSŸ¢ kP¡¹oLp] W¾O
butane ? SÒL¥ DºLWOÐ CO2&R£ STP&p]Rs
(Molecular mass of butane = 58) v|LkÅU INf ?
(1) 896 L (2) 448 L (m|PSŸR£ SoLt]W|PsL¡ oLyV = 58)

(3) 224 L (4) 112 L (1) 896 L (2) 448 L


(3) 224 L (4) 112 L

22. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ sLpj]


22. In which of the following solutions
Wt]¤ Jf]¤ Zn h¼V fLuV¾]
displacement reaction will not occur
when a Zn rod is dipped ?
vˆLsLeV BShwqLyNkv¡¾jU
ja¨L¾fV ?
(1) CuSO4 (2) FeSO4
(1) CuSO4 (2) FeSO4
(3) MgSO4 (4) AgNO3
(3) MgSO4 (4) AgNO3

23. The number of covalent bonds in 23. RNkLÕ}¢ IÐ yUpO©¾]¤


propene is WLeRÕaOÐ yzyUSpL^j
(1) 2 double bond, 7 single bond mÌj°¥ INfpLeV ?
(2) 1 double bond, 6 single bond (1) 2 h~]mÌjU, 7 JWmÌjU
(3) 1 double bond, 8 single bond (2) 1 h~]mÌjU, 6 JWmÌjU
(4) 1 double bond, 7 single bond (3) 1 h~]mÌjU, 8 JWmÌjU
(4) 1 h~]mÌjU, 7 JWmÌjU
24. The gaseous products obtained on 24. Pb(NO3)2 IÐ yUpO©U \PaL¨O
heating Pb(NO3)2 SÒL¥ sn]¨OÐ vLfW°¥ JfV ?
(1) NO2 only (2) NO2, O2 Jv ?
(3) PbO, NO2 (4) PbO, NO2, O2 (1) NO2 oLNfU (2) NO2, O2
(3) PbO, NO2 (4) PbO, NO2, O2
25. The number of atoms present in 1 kg
25. KqO W]SsLNYLU …PS¨Ly]¤ Aa°]
glucose
p]q]¨OÐ Bã°tORa I¹U
(1) 8 × 1022 (2) 3.33 × 1024
(1) 8 × 1022 (2) 3.33 × 1024
(3) 8 × 1025 (4) 3.33 × 1021 (3) 8 × 1025 (4) 3.33 × 1021
M-1 -6-
Class – X SAT
26. 2–Acetoxy benzoic acid is commonly 26. 2&AySãLWõ] Rm¢SyLp]WV By]
known as c]R£ yLiLqeoLp] Ar]pRÕ
(1) Analgin
aOÐ SkqV ?
(1) AjL¥^]¢
(2) Novalgin
(2) SjLvL¥^]¢
(3) Paracetamol (3) kLqRyãSoL¥
(4) Aspirin (4) ByVk]q]¢

27. k}q]SpLc]WV Sam]t]Rs KqO


27. The properties which generally NYPÕ]¤ oOWt]¤ j]ÐOU fLSuLŸO
increase from top to bottom in a group RkLfOSv WPaOÐ YOe°tLeV
of the periodic table are (a) CsWVSNaLRjYã]v]ã]
(a) Electronegativity (b) SsLz}p y~nLvU
(b) Metallic character (c) ARpLRReSyx¢ I¢fL¤k]
(c) Ionization enthalpy (d) Bã¾]R£ vsOÕU
(d) Atomic size wq]pLpfV RfqR´aO¨OW.
Select the correct alternative (1) (a) pOU (d) pOU

(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) pOU (c) pOU


(2) (a) and (c) (3) (b) pOU (d) pOU
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (b) pOU (c) pOU
(4) (b) and (c) 28. fLRu fÐ]q]¨OÐ NkñLvjW¥
vLp]ˆO SjL¨], RfãLp NkñLvj
28. Read the following statements and
WRº¾OW.
(1) Nkf}W°¥¨O kWqU pPe]ãO
choose the wrong one.
WtORa SkqV IuOfOSÒL¥ CU…}
(1) While writing the names of units x]Rs vs]p Aƒq°¥ DkSpL
instead of symbols, never use Y]¨L¢ kLa]Š.
capital letters (2) Nkf}W°tORa mzOv\jU
(2) Never use plural form for symbols DkSpLY]¨L¢ kLa]Š.
(3) KqO vLW|¾]R£ AvyLj¾]
(3) Never use full stop or comma sŠLRf, Nkf}W¾]jO SwxU
after a symbol except at the end WO¾V, SWLo fOa°]p \]øU
of a sentence DkSpLY]¨qOfV.
(4) While writing units along with a (4) AtvOWtORa oPs|vOoLp]
value, there must not be any pPe]ãV IuOfOSÒL¥ Avà]a
space between them p]¤ AWsU DºLWqOfV.
M-1 -7- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
29. A stone is thrown vertically up with 29. 20 o}./Ry. Bh| NkSvYS¾LaOWPa]
an initial velocity of 20 m/s. How high sUmoLp] oOWt]Ss¨V Ir]pOÐ
will the stone rise ? KqO WŠV INf Dpq¾]Rs¾OU ?
(1) 20.41 m (2) 10.80 m (1) 20.41 o}ã¡ (2) 10.80 o}ã¡
(3) 9.60 m (4) 20.00 m (3) 9.60 o}ã¡ (4) 20.00 o}ã¡
30. The resultant force acting on a body 30. KqO vñOv]¤ AjOnvRÕaOÐ
is zero. Then the body kq]e]f msU kP^|RoË]¤, B
vñO
(1) is at rest
(1) j]ésLvòp]sLp]q]¨OU
(2) is moving with uniform velocity (2) yo\sj¾]sLp]q]¨OU
(3) is moving with uniform acceleration (3) yof~qe¾]sLp]q]¨OU
(4) (1) and (2) (4) (1) DU (2) DU
31. nPo]p]¤ 60 kg oLyOç KqO vñO
31. A body has a mass of 60 kg on the v]jV \SNÎLkq]fs¾]¤ Dç oLyV
Earth. Its mass on the surface of the INfpLp]q]¨OU ?
moon will be (1) 20 W]SsLNYLU
(2) 60 W]SsLNYLU
(1) 20 kg (2) 60 kg (3) 360 W]SsLNYLU
(4) 10 W]SsLNYLU
(3) 360 kg (4) 10 kg
32. 20 W]SsLNYLU oLyOç KqO vñOv]
32. The diagram below shows the R£So¤ AjOnvRÕaOÐ f]qwV\}j
horizontal forces acting on a body of ms°tLeV \]Nf¾]¤ WLe]ˆ]
mass 20 kg. If the mass starts from
q]¨OÐfV . CT vñO j]ésLv
rest, how far will it travel in the
òp]¤ j]ÐOU kOrRÕaOWpL
ReË]¤ 3 Ry¨£V yopU RWLºV
horizontal direction in 3 S ?
yµq]¨OÐ hPqRoNfpLp]q]¨OU ?

(1) 4.5 m (2) 6.75 m (1) 4.5 m (2) 6.75 m


(3) 9.00 m (4) 25.5 m
(3) 9.00 m (4) 25.5 m
33. fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ JfLeV
33. Bernoulli’s theorem is used in the
m¡ePs] ff~U AjOyq]ˆV j]¡o]
construction of
¨RÕaOÐfV ?
(1) Ball bearings (1) SmL¥ Rmpr]UYOW¥
(2) Screw gauge (2) NØP SY^V
(3) Aircraft wings (3) v]oLjˆ]rWOW¥
(4) Spectrometer (4) Ry×WVSNaL o}ã¡
M-1 -8-
Class – X SAT
34. The graph given below gives the 34. KqO y]Uk]¥ Rk¢cOs¾]jV yop
displacement of a pendulum bob with ¾]jjOyq]ˆV òLjLÍq¾]jV
respect to time. What is the length of vqOÐ oLãoLeV \]Nf¾]¤ fÐ]
the pendulum ? q]¨OÐfV . Rk¢cOs¾]R£ j}tU
[Hint T = 2π l INfpLeV ?
g
T – Time period of oscillation of the [yP\j T = 2 π l
g
pendulum
T – y]Uk]¥ Rk¢cOs¾]R£
l – Length of the pendulum k}q]cV
g – Acceleration due to gravity]
l – y]Uk]¥ Rk¢cOs¾]R£ j}tU
g – nPYOqOf~U oPsoOç f~qeU]

òLjLÍqeU
( o}ã¡) yopU
(S)

(1) 0.74 m
(2) 1.5 m
(1) 0.74 o}ã¡ (2) 1.5 o}ã¡
(3) 2.2 m (3) 2.2 o}ã¡ (4) 3 o}ã¡
(4) 3m
35. fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ JfOkWqe°t]
sLeV qPk}Wq]¨RÕaOÐ Nkf] m]UmU
35. In which of the following situations, IŠLpVSÕLuOU o]g|pOU j]v¡ÐfO
the image formed is always erect and oLp]q]¨OÐfV ?
virtual ? (1) yofs h¡ÕeU, SWL¦RvWõV
h¡ÕeU
(1) Plane mirror and convex mirror (2) yofs h¡ÕeU, SWL¦RvWõV
(2) Plane mirror and convex lens
Rs¢yV
(3) SWL¦RvWõV h¡ÕeU,
(3) Convex mirror and concave mirror SWL¦SWvV h¡ÕeU
(4) yofs h¡ÕeU, SWL¦SWvV
(4) Plane mirror and concave mirror h¡ÕeU
36. 2015 BSZLx]¨OÐfV
36. 2015 is celebrated as the
(1) AÍLqLNì BSkƒ]WfL
(1) International year of relativity v¡xoLp]
(2) NkWLw¾]R£ AÍLqLNì
(2) International year of light v¡xoLp]
(3) RRvh|Of]pORa AÍLqLNì
(3) International year of electricity
v¡xoLp]
(4) International year of sound (4) wý¾]R£ AÍLqLNì
v¡xoLp]
M-1 -9- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT

37. The number of electrons required to 37. KqO WPStLU \L¡²V DºL¨OvL¢
produce 1C charge is Bvw|oLp CsSNûLeOWtORa
(1) 1 I¹U
(2) 1.6 × 1019 (1) 1 (2) 1.6 × 1019
(3) 6.25 × 1018 (3) 6.25 × 1018 (4) CRfLÐOoŠ
(4) None of the above
38. \]Nf°¥ kq]SwLi]ˆV WLÍ]W
38. Analyse the figures and find the poles
NiOv°¥ WRº¾OW.
of the magnet.

(1) I = N, II = N, III = N, IV = S
(1) I = N, II = N, III = N, IV = S
(2) I = S, II = S, III = N, IV = S
(2) I = S, II = S, III = N, IV = S (3) I = S, II = S, III = S, IV = N
(3) I = S, II = S, III = S, IV = N (4) I = N, II = N, III = S, IV = N
(4) I = N, II = N, III = S, IV = N

39. How long does a 60 W bulb take to 39. 0.72 pPe]ãV RRvh|OSfL¡²U
consume an energy of 0.72 units ? R\svu]¨OÐf]jV KqO 60 vLŸV
m¥mV INf yopU IaO¨OU ?
(1) 1 h (2) 6 h
(1) 1 oe]¨P¡
(3) 12 h (4) 120 h (2) 6 oe]¨P¡
(3) 12 oe]¨P¡
40. The frequency of ac is 60 Hz. The (4) 120 oe]¨P¡
direction of electric current in the 40. ac pORa BvQ¾] 60 Rz¡aV y V
armature coil of the ac generator BReË]¤ ac ^jSrã]R£ B¡
changes _____times in one second. Soˆ¡ SWLp]s]R£ RRvh|Of
(1) 60 NkvLz¾]R£ h]w KqO Ry¨£]¤
(2) 120 _____________ fve oLrOÐO
(1) 60 (2) 120
(3) 30
(3) 30 (4) 15
(4) 15

M-1 -10-
Class – X SAT

41. What is the remainder got if 4 + 42 + ...410 41. 4 + 42 + ...+ 410 IÐ fOWRp 10
is divided by 10 ? RWLºO zq]ˆL¤ W]ŸOÐ w]ìU
IÍLeV ?
(1) 0
(1) 0
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 4
(3) 4
(4) 6
(4) 6

42. What number do we get on 42. 1002 – 992 + 982 – 972 + .... + 22 – 12
simplifying 1002 – 992 + 982 – 972 sZPWq]ˆL¤ W]ŸOÐ yUX|
+...+22 – 12 ? IÍLeV ?
(1) 4975 (1) 4975
(2) 5000
(2) 5000
(3) 5025
(3) 5025
(4) 5050
(4) 5050

43. A third of a vessel is filled with water. 43. KqO kLNf¾]¤ oPÐ]RsLqO nLYU
When one more litre was poured in, it RvçU DºV. KqO s]ã¡ WPa] Ku]ˆ
became half full. How many more SÕL¥ AfO kWOf] j]r´O. Cj]
litres are needed to fill it ? INf s]ã¡ WPa] Ku]ˆL¤ oOuOv¢
j]rpOU ?
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4

44. 0.111...&R£ v¡YoPsU IÍLeV ?


44. What is the square root of 0.111... ?

(1) 0.101010... (1) 0.101010...

(2) 0.010101... (2) 0.010101...

(3) 0.1111... (3) 0.1111...


(4) 0.3333... (4) 0.3333...
M-1 -11- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
45. The figure shows a square with its 45. KqO oŸNf]SWLevOU KqO yo\
vertices on the sides of a right triangle. fOqvOU BeV \]Nf¾]¤ yo\fOq
¾]R£ oPsWRtŠLU Nf]SWLe¾]
jW¾]R£ vw°t]sLeV.

What is the length of a side of the yo\fOq¾]R£ KqO vw¾]R£


square ? j}tU INf Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?
1
(1) 1 (2) 1 1
2 (1) 1 (2) 12
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

46. The length and breadth of a rectangle 46. KqO \fOq¾]R£ j}tvOU v}f]pOU
are in the ratio 3 : 2 and its area is 3 : 2 IРAUwm̾]sLeV.
216 square metres. What is its Af]R£ kqÕtvV , 216 \fOq
perimeter ? èo}ã¡. Af]R£ \OãtvV INf
(1) 360 (2) 180 o}ãrLeV ?
(3) 60 (4) 30
(1) 360 (2) 180
(3) 60 (4) 30
47. The sum of four consecutive terms of 47. KqO yoLÍqSèe]p]Rs fOa¡ˆ
an arithmetic sequence is 44. The pLp jLsO kh°tORa fOW 44.
third number among these is 14. What
is the first number ?
Cvp]Rs oPÐLoR¾ yUX| 14.
(1) 2 (2) 4
Bh|R¾ yUX| IÍLeV ?
(3) 6 (4) 8 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8

48. The sum of the first n terms of an 48. KqO yoLÍqSèe]pORa Bh|R¾
arithmetic sequence is n2 + 3n. What n kh°tORa fOW n2 + 3n. Af]R£
is its nth term ? n&LU khU IÍLeV ?
(1) 2n + 3 (2) 2n + 2 (1) 2n + 3 (2) 2n + 2
(3) 2n + 1 (4) 2n (3) 2n + 1 (4) 2n

M-1 -12-
Class – X SAT
49. A square and a rectangle have the 49. KqO yo\fOq¾]jOU KqO \fOq
same perimeter and the length of the ¾]jOU KSq \OãtvLeV . \fOq
rectangle is 1 metre more than its ¾]R£ j}tU v}f]Rp¨L¥ 1 o}ã¡
breadth. The area of the square is
WPaOfsLeV . yo\fOq ¾]R£
kqÕtvV , \fOq¾]R£ kqÕt
(1) 1 square metre more v]Rj¨L¥
(2) 1 square metre less (1) 1 \fOqèo}ã¡ WPaOfsLeV
1 (2) 1 \fOqèo}ã¡ WOrvLeV
(3) square metres more
4 1
1 (3) \fOqèo}ã¡ WPaOfsLeV
4
(4) square metres less
4 1
(4) \fOqèo}ã¡ WOrvLeV
4
50. AaO¾aO¾ qºO KãyUX|WtORa
50. The product of two consecutive odd
YOejlsU 899 . AvpORa fOW
numbers is 899. What is their sum ?
IÍLeV ?
(1) 40 (2) 50 (1) 40 (2) 50

(3) 60 (4) 70 (3) 60 (4) 70

51. Appu’s mother is eight times his age.


51. AÕOv]R£ AÚpORa NkLpU
AÕOv]R£ NkLp¾]R£ IŸO
After ten years, she would be three oa°LeV . k¾O v¡xU Wu]pO
times his age. How old is Appu now ? SÒL¥, AÚpORa vpôV AÕO
v]R£ vpô]R£ oPÐO oa°LWOU.
(1) 6 (2) 5
AÕOv]jV CSÕLRtNf vpôLp] ?
(3) 4 (4) 3 (1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 3

52. KqO yUX|pORapOU Af]R£ v|O¤


52. The sum of a number and its 1
1 NWo¾]R£pOU fOW 3 . yUX|
reciprocal is 3 . What is the sum of 2
2 pORapOU v|OfV N Wo¾]R£pOU
the squares of the number and v¡Y°tORa fOW IÍLeV ?
reciprocal ?
1 1 1 1
(1) 14 (2) 12 (1) 14 (2) 12
4 4 4 4
1 1 1 1
(3) 10 (4) 8 (3) 10 (4) 8
4 4 4 4

M-1 -13- P.T.O.


Class – X SAT

53. The figure below shows two squares 53. qºO yo\fOq°¥ S\¡¾Ovˆ
joined together. \]NfoLeV \OvRa WLe]ˆ]q]
¨OÐfV.

The difference in their areas is 20


square metres and the difference in CvpORa kqÕtvOWtORa v|f|LyU
sides is 2 metres. What is the total 20 \fOqèo}ãrOU, vw°tORa
area in square metres ? v|f|LyU 2 o}ãrOU BeV. BRW
(1) 34 (2) 52 kqÕtvV INf \fOqèo}ãrLeV ?
(3) 74 (4) 100
(1) 34 (2) 52
(3) 74 (4) 100
54. An interior angle of a regular polygon
is 140°. How many sides does it 54. KqO yomzOnO^¾]R£ AW
have ? S¨L¦140 ° BeV. Af]RjNf vw
(1) 7 (2) 8 °tOºV ?
(3) 9 (4) 10 (1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10
55. The figure below is drawn by dividing 55. 3 Ry£}o}ã¡ vwoLp KqO yo\
a square of side 3 centimeters into fOq¾]Rj KÒfO fOs| yo\fOq
nine equal squares and drawing °tLp] nLY]ˆV Avp]¤ \]sf]R£
quarter circles centered on some of oPsW¥ SWNÎoLp] kLhvQ¾°¥
the corners of these squares. vqˆfLeV \vORapOç \]NfU.

1
cm 1
cm

cm
cm
1

What is area of the shaded part in \]Nf¾]Rs WrOÕ]ˆ nLY¾]R£


square centimetres ? kqÕtvV INf \fOqèRy£]o}ã
(1) 4 π (2) 8 π
rLeV ?
(1) 4 π (2) 8 π
(3) 4 (4) 8 (3) 4 (4) 8

M-1 -14-
Class – X SAT
22 22
56. The rational number is an 56. IÐ n]ÐyUX| π IÐ An]
7 7
approximate value of the irrational ÐW yUX|pORa INf hwLUw
number π , correct to how many òLjU vRq WQf|oLp JW
decimal places ? Shwv]spLeV ?
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 3
(3) 3
(4) 4
(4) 4

57. The figure shows the distance


57. KqO vQ¾\Lk¾]R£ Aã°¥
between the ends and height of a
fÚ]sOç AWsvOU, Af]R£
DpqvOoLeV \]Nf¾]¤ WLe]ˆ]
circular arc.
q]¨OÐfV.

What is the diameter of the circle in


centimetres ? vQ¾¾]R£ v|LyU INf
(1) 5 (2) 4 Ry£}o}ãrLeV ?
(3) 2 (4) 2.5 (1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 2.5
58. Triangle is drawn by joining three 58 \]Nf¾]¤ KqO S„L¨]Rs yP\]
numbers on a clock as below. W¥ SpL^]Õ]ˆV KqO Nf]SWLeU
11 12 1
vqˆ]q]¨OÐO.
10 2
11 12 1
9 3
10 2
8 4 9 3
7 5
6
8 4
7 5
6
What is the largest angle in this
triangle ? CT Nf]SWLe¾]Rs JãvOU
(1) 45° vs]p SWLe]R£ AtvV INf
pLeV ?
(2) 60°
(1) 45° (2) 60°
(3) 75°
(3) 75° (4) 90°
(4) 90°
M-1 -15- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
59. In the picture below, AB and AC are 59. \]Nf¾]¤ AB, AC vQ¾¾]Rs
chords of the circle and OP and OQ `LeOWtOU,OP, OQ CvàO yoL
are radii parallel to them
ÍqoLp Bq°tOoLeV.

What fraction of the arc BRC is the


BRC IÐ \Lk¾]R£ INf
arc PRQ ?
nLYoLeV PRQ IÐ \LkU ?
1
(1) 1
4 (1)
4
1
(2) 1
3 (2)
3
1
(3) 1
2 (3)
2
2
(4) 2
3 (4)
3

60. In the figure below, O is the center of 60. \]Nf¾]¤ O vQ¾SWNÎvOU A, B, C


the circle and A, B, C are points on it vQ¾¾]Rs m]ÎO¨tOoLeV.

How much is ∠BAC + ∠OBC ? ∠BAC + ∠OBC INf c]NY]pLeV ?


(1) 45° (1) 45°
(2) 60° (2) 60°
(3) 75° (3) 75°
(4) 90° (4) 90°
M-1 -16-
Class – X SAT
61. The slogan ‘No taxation without 61. "NkLf]j]i|p]ŠLRf j]WOf]p]Š'
representation’ is related to which IÐ oONhLvLW|U fLRu j¤W]p]
among the following event ? q]¨OÐ JfO yUnvOoLp] mÌ
(1) French Revolution R՟]q]¨OÐO ?
(2) Russian Revolution (1) NlµO v]†vU

(3) Chinese Revolution (2) rx|¢ v]†vU

(4) American war of Independence (3) RR\j}yV v]†vU


(4) ASoq]¨¢ y~LfNÍ| yoqU

62. Identify the factor not related with the 62. CÍ|¢ jLxe¤ SWL¦NYy]R£
Lahore Session of the Indian National 1929 &Rs sLSzL¡ ySÚtjvO
Congress in 1929. oLp] mÌo]ŠL¾fV WRº¾OW.
(1) Poorna Swaraj (1) kP¡ey~qL^V

(2) January 26 as independence day (2) ^jOvq] 26 y~fNÍ|h]jU

(3) Salt Satyagraha (3) DÕV yf|LNYzU

(4) Jallian Walabagh Massacre (4) ^Ls]p¢ vLsLmLYV WPŸR¨Ls

63. Which among the following place in 63. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ SWqt¾]¤
Kerala is the site of the discovery of ozLw]sLpOY Avw]ì°¥ WRº
Megalithic relics ? ¾]p òsSofV ?
(1) Kovalam (1) SWLvtU

(2) Purakkat (2) kOr¨LaV


(3) Kadalundi (3) WasOº]
(4) Marayur (4) orpP¡

64. The first cotton textile mill in Bombay 64. Bh|R¾ kqO¾] fOe]o]¤
was established in
SmLURmp]¤ òLk]¨R՟
v¡xU
(1) 1856 (1) 1856
(2) 1854 (2) 1854
(3) 1858
(3) 1858
(4) 1860
(4) 1860
M-1 -17- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
65. Consider the following statements 65. \OvRa fÐ]ŸOç NkñLvjW¥
and identify the correct response from kq]SwLi]ˆV AjOSpL^|oLp
the options given thereafter Nkf]WqeU WRº¾OW.
Statement I : There were paucity of NkñLvj I : YOkÅWLsZŸ¾]jO
gold coin after the Gupta Age. SwxU y~¡¹ jLep°¥¨V
Statement II : It indicates decline of hT¡sn|U Sjq]ŸO.
trade and decay of towns. NkñLvj II : CfV vLe]^|¾]R£
(1) Statement I is false and Ai:kfjR¾pOU jYq°tORa
Statement II is true fW¡ˆSppOU yP\]Õ]¨OÐO.
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II (1) NkñLvj I RfãOU NkñLvj II
is false wq]pOoLeV
(2) NkñLvj I wq]pOU NkñLvj II
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II
RfãOoLeV
are true, and Statement II is the
(3) NkñLvj I DU II DU wq]pOU
correct explanation of Statement I
NkñLvj II NkñLvj I R£
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II wq]pLp v]wh}WqevOoLeV
are true but Statement II is not the
(4) NkñLvj I DU kñLvj II DU
correct explanation of Statement I
wq]pLeV. IÐL¤ kñLvj II
NkñLvj I R£ wq]pLp v]wh}
66. Name the king of England who signed WqeoŠ
the ‘petition of rights’. 66. "Rkã}x¢ KLlV RRrãVyV' IÐ
NkoLe¾]¤ KÕOvˆ CU…º]Rs
(1) Charles I
qL^LvV
(2) James I (1) \L¥yV KÐLo¢
(3) Charles II (2) ^p]UyV KÐLo¢

(4) James II (3) \L¥yV qºLo¢


(4) ^p]UyV qºLo¢
67. Who among the following was the
67. fLRuÕrpOÐf]¤ BqLp]qOÐO
volunteer captain of the Guruvayur
YOqOvLpP¡ yf|LNYz¾]R£
Satyagraha ?
SvLt£]p¡ W|LkV㢠?
(1) K. Kelappan (1) RW. SWtÕ¢
(2) A. K. Gopalan (2) I. RW. SYLkLs¢
(3) T. K. Madhavan (3) a]. RW. oLiv¢
(4) P. Krishna Pillai (4) k]. WQxVe k]ç
M-1 -18-
Class – X SAT
68. Some events of the Indian National 68. CÍ|¢ Shw}p NkòLjvOoLp]
Movement are given below. Arrange mÌR՟ \]s yUnv°¥ fLRu
fÐ]q]¨OÐO. Av wq]pLp WLs
them in correct chronological order.
YejL NWo¾]RsuOfOW.
a. Swadeshi Movement a. y~Shw] NkòLjU
b. Quit India Movement b. W~]ã]Í| NkòLjU
c. Non-Cooperation Movement c. j]ôzWqe NkòLjU
d. Civil Disobedience Movement d. y]v]¤ j]po sUZj
NkòLjU
(1) d b c a
(1) d b c a
(2) a c d b
(2) a c d b
(3) d c a b
(3) d c a b
(4) d a c b (4) d a c b

69. Who remarked that ‘when France


69. "NlL¢yV fOÚ]pL¤ mL¨]pOç
sneezes the rest of Europe Catches pOSrLÕ]jLRW ^sShLxU k]a]¨OU'.
Cold’ ? IÐn]NkLpR՟fLqV ?
(1) Napoleon (2) Matternich (1) RjSÕLt]p¢ (2) RoSã¡e]¨V
(3) Rousseau (4) Voltaire
(3) rPSôL (4) SvL¥Ÿp¡
70. Where did king Ashoka erect the Pillar 70. y~fNÍ nLqf¾]R£ Shw}p
from which the national emblem of \]øU IaO¾]ŸOç ñUnU ASwLW
independent India is taken \NWv¡¾] Iv]RapLeV òLk]
(1) Gandhara ˆfV ?
(2) Kamboja (1) YLÌLqU
(2) WSÒL^U
(3) Kalinga
(3) Ws]UYU
(4) Saranath (4) yLqjLgV

71. Anchuvannam and Manigramam 71. AµOv¹U, oe]NYLoU IÐ]v


stand for IÍ]Rj yP\]Õ]¨OÐO ?
(1) Ancient Village Administration (1) NkL\}jNYLo nqeU
(2) Religious groups (2) of yUZ°¥
(3) Trade guilds (3) Wˆva yUZ°¥
(4) Temple trustees (4) SƒNfkLsW¡
M-1 -19- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
72. What is the historical importance of 72. 1453 I. c]. pORa \q]Nf
the year 1453 A.D. ? NkLiLj|U IÍLeV ?
(1) Columbus reached on the Eastern (1) RWLtUmyV ASoq]¨pORa
Coast of America W]uS¨ f}qR¾¾]
(2) Turks captured Constantinople (2) fO¡¨]W¥ SWL¦ðL£]SjLÕ]¥
(3) Barthlomio Diaz reached on the k]a]ˆa¨]
Southern tip of Africa (3) m¡¾SsLo]SpL cpyV BNl]
(4) John Cabet discovered Newfound ¨pORa RfS¨ oOjÒ]Rs¾]
land (4) S^L¦ WLmŸV j|PlTºVsL£V
WRº¾]
73. The Chinese-traveller Fa-hien visited 73. RR\j}yV yµLq]pLp lLz]pL¢
India during the reign of CÍ| yΡw]ˆfV BqORa nqe
(1) Chandra Gupta I WLs¾LeV ?
(2) Samudra Gupta (1) \NÎYOkÅ¢ KÐLo¢
(2) yoONhYOkŢ
(3) Chandra Gupta II
(3) \NÎYOkÅ¢ qºLo¢
(4) Buddha Gupta
(4) mOÈYOkÅ¢
74. Match the List I with List II and select 74. kŸ]W I, kŸ]W II IÐ]v kq]SwL
the correct response from the options i]ˆV wq]pLp] NWoRÕaO¾OW.
given thereafter. kŸ]W I kŸ]W II
List I List II i. v]Š|U Sv¡cVyVv¡¾V a. ^¡o]p¤
i. William Wordsworth a. Germial ii. \L¥yV c]¨¢yV b. ^p]¢ Ip¡
ii. Charles Dickens b. Jane Eyre iii. xL¡RsãV SNmLº] c. a]S£¦
iii. Charlotte Bronte c. Twintern Bm]
Abbey iv. Io]s] SyLt d. Kt]v¡ a~]ðV
iv. Emile Zola d. Oliver Twist (1) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
(1) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c (2) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(2) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d (3) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
(3) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a (4) i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c
(4) i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c
75. SWqt¾]Rs JfO ^]Šp]sLeV
75. Edakkal Caves is located in which Ia¨¤ YOzW¥ ò]f] R\áO
district of Kerala ? ÐfV ?
(1) Kozhikode (1) SWLu]S¨LaV
(2) Idukki (2) CaO¨]
(3) Palakkad (3) kLs¨LaV
(4) Wayanad (4) vpjLaV
M-1 -20-
Class – X SAT
76. In which state is the Bomdila pass 76. SmLUc]sL \OqU JfV yUòLj
situated ? ¾]sLeV ò]f]R\áOÐfV ?
(1) Sikkim (1) y]¨]U
(2) Jammu and Kashmir (2) ^ÚOWLwÜ}¡
(3) Arunachal Pradesh (3) AqOeL\¤ NkShwV
(4) ByLU
(4) Assam
77. Src]SpL fqUY°tORa h}¡ZhPq
77. Day time is ideal for long distance NkSƒke¾]jV kW¤ yopoLeV
radio transmission. Why ? AjOSpL^|U. IÍORWLºV ?
(1) Ionosphere is active during day (1) ApSeLó]p¡ kW¤ yop¾V
JRr y^}voLeV
(2) Ultraviolet rays reach with great (2) kW¤yop¾V A¥NaLvpsãV
intensity during day qwÜ]W¥ w©]pLp] I¾OÐO
(3) KLSyL¦ vLfWU JRr
(3) Increased production of Ozone
DºLWOÐO
(4) Pollution will be more during (4) qLNf]WLs°t]¤ os]j}WqeU
night WPaOfsLeV

78. Which among the following 78. \OvRa jä]p]ŸOçvp]¤ wq]pLp


NkñLvjW¥ JRfŠLU ?
statements is true ?
a. o]pL¢crOW¥ jh]pORa
a. Meanders are formed in the
Dkq]ZŸ¾]¤ qPkU RWLçOÐO
upper course of a river
b. o]pL¢crOWStLajOmÌ]ˆV
b. Potholes and waterfalls are SkLŸVSzLtOWtOU RvçˆLŸ
formed in association with °tOU qPkU RWLçOÐO
meanders
c. jh]pORa KuO¨]R£ SvYf
c. Meanders are formed in regions WOrpOÐ Ca°t]sLeV o]pL¢
where velocity of river decreases crOW¥ qPkU RWLçOÐfV
d. Meanders are formed when the d. jh]pORa KuO¨]R£ SvYf
velocity of river increases WPaOSÒL¥ o]pL¢crOW¥ qPkU
RWLçOÐO
(1) a, b and c are correct
(1) a, b, c IÐ]v wq]pLeV
(2) a and c are correct
(3) only b is correct (2) a, c IÐ]v wq]pLeV

(4) only c is correct (3) b oLNfU wq]pLeV


(4) c oLNfU wq]pLeV
M-1 -21- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
79. Choose the correct order of countries 79. yPSq|Lhp¾]R£ Aa]òLj¾]¤
on the basis of sunrise. qL^|°tORa wq]pLp NWoSofV ?
(1) Japan, India, China, Pakistan, (1) ^ÕL¢, CÍ|, RR\j,
Oman kLW]òL¢, KoL¢
(2) RR\j, ^ÕL¢, CÍ|,
(2) China, Japan, India, Pakistan,
Oman
kLW]òL¢, KoL¢
(3) KoL¢, CÍ|, RR\j, kLW]òL¢,
(3) Oman, India, China, Pakistan, ^ÕL¢
Japan (4) ^ÕL¢, RR\j, CÍ|,
(4) Japan, China, India, Pakistan, kLW]òL¢, KoL¢
Oman
80. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
80. Which among the following is an k¡‹fLvQf k}bnPo]¨V DhLzqe
example for intermontane plateau ? oLeV
(1) Colorado Plateau (1) RWLtrLScL k}bnPo]
(2) South African Plateau (2) RfS¨ BNl]¨¢ k}bnPo]
(3) Tibetan Plateau (3) a]mãV k}bnPo]
(4) Deccan Plateau (4) c¨L¢ k}bnPo]

81. Norway experiences severe winter 81. Wb]joLp RRwf|vOU, feOÕOç


and cool summer. Which among the
Svj¤WLsvOU AjOnvRÕaOÐ
following factors is mainly
qL^|oLeV SjL¡Sv. Cf]jV WLqe
responsible for this ?
oLp NkiLj ZaWSofV ?
(1) Latitudinal position (1) AƒLUw}p òLjU
(2) Nearness to sea (2) yoONhyLo}k|U
(3) Ocean Currents
(3) ^sNkvLz°¥
(4) Winds
(4) WLãOW¥

82. In which of the Himalayan ranges is 82. WLwÜ}¡ fLuVvq ò]f]R\áOÐfV


the Kashmir Valley situated ? z]oLsp¢ k¡‹f j]qWt]¤
Jf]sLeV ?
(1) The Himadri
(1) z]oLNh]
(2) The Himachal (2) z]oL\¤
(3) The Pirpanjal (3) k}¡kµ¤
(4) The Siwaliks (4) y]vLs]WV
M-1 -22-
Class – X SAT
83. Choose the correct statements from 83. jä]p]ŸOçvp]¤ wq]pLp NkñLv
the following. jW¥ JRfLR¨pLeV ?
a. China type climate is a. Rf¨V W]u¨V BNl]¨p]¤
experienced in South Eastern RR\j RRaÕV WLsLvò AjOn
vRÕaOÐO.
Africa
b. W]t]o¢^LSqL BNl]¨p]Rs
b. Mt. Kilimanjaro is the highest JãvOU DpqoOç RWLaOoOa]
peak in Africa pLeV.
c. Certain parts of Africa experience c. BNl]¨pORa \]s nLY°t]¤
Mediterranean climate Roc]ãSrj]p¢ WLsLvò
d. Kalgoorlie gold mine is in Africa AjOnvRÕaOÐO.
(1) a and d are correct d. WL¤YP¡s] y~¡¹Xj] BNl]
¨p]sLeV.
(2) b, c and d are correct
(1) a, d IÐ]v wq]pLeV
(3) a, b and c are correct (2) b, c, d IÐ]v wq]pLeV
(4) a, c and d are correct (3) a, b, c IÐ]v wq]pLeV
(4) a, c, d IÐ]v wq]pLeV
84. What will be the time at New Delhi,
when it is 9.30 p.m. in Tokyo (135° E) ?
84. SaLSW|L ( 135° W]u¨V) p]¤ qLNf]
9.30 Bp]q]¨OSÒL¥ j|Pc¤z]
(1) 5.30 p.m. (2) 6.30 p.m. p]Rs yopRoNf ?
(3) 6.00 a.m. (4) 6.00 p.m. (1) 5.30 p.m (2) 6.30 p.m
(3) 6 .00 a.m. (4) 6.00 p.m
85. Identify the type of rainfall illustrated 85. \]Nf}Wq]ˆ]q]¨OÐfV JfV fqU
below. ouRppLReÐV f]q]ˆr]pOW.

(1) Orographic Rainfall (1) RRws vQì]


(2) Convectional Rainfall (2) yUvzj vQì]
(3) Cyclonic Rainfall (3) \NWvLf vQì]
(4) Frontal Rainfall (4) vLfoOX vQì]
M-1 -23- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
86. Maximum temperature and minimum 86. KqO h]vyR¾ WPa]p fLkj]spOU
temperature of a day is recorded at WOr´ fLkj]spOU We¨L¨O
(1) 12 night and 12 noon
ÐfV JRfLR¨ yop°t]sLeV ?
(1) qLNf] 12 jOU Dˆ 12 jOU
(2) 1 p.m. and 3 a.m.
(3) 6 a.m. and 6 p.m. (2) 1 p.m. jOU 3 a.m. jOU

(4) 2 p.m. and 5 a.m. (3) 6 a.m. jOU 6 p.m. jOU


(4) 2 p.m. jOU 5 a.m. jOU
87. If the layers of the earth are arranged 87. nTokLt]WRt yLNÎfpORa
in order from high density to low Aa]òLj¾]¤ NWo}Wq]ˆL¤
density, the correct sequence is wq]pLp AvSqLze NWoSofV ?
(1) Inner Core – Crust – Outer Core (1) AW¨LÒV – nPvsV¨U –
– Mantle kOr¨LÒV – oL£]¤
(2) Mantle – Inner Core – Outer Core
– Crust
(2) oL£]¤ – AW¨LÒV –
kOr¨LÒV – nPvsV¨U
(3) Inner Core – Outer Core – Mantle
Crust (3) AWWLÒV – kOr¨LÒV –
(4) Crust – Mantle – Outer Core –
oL£]¤ – nPvåU
Inner Core (4) nPvåU – oL£]¤ – kOr¨LÒV
– AW¨LÒV
88. ‘Barkhans’ are formed due to 88. m¡¨jOW¥ qPkURWLçOÐfV
(1) River deposition JfV NkNW]pp]sPRapLeV ?
(1) jh} j]SƒkeU
(2) Wind deposition
(2) WLã]R£ j]SƒkeU
(3) Glacier deposition
(3) z]oLj]pORa j]SƒkeU
(4) Wave deposition (4) f]qoLspORa j]SƒkeU

89. qºV WqWRt fÚ]¤ mÌ]Õ]¨OÐ


89. A narrow strip of land connecting two CaO°]p nPnLYR¾ IÍO Skq]¤
land masses is called Ar]pRÕaOÐO ?
(1) Bay (1) D¥¨a¤
(2) Gulf (2) Y¥lV
(3) Isthmus (3) CñOoyV
(4) Strait (4) Was]aO¨V

M-1 -24-
Class – X SAT
90. Nepal Himalayas lie between 90. SjÕL¥ z]oLspU JRfLR¨
jh]W¥¨]ap]sLeV ò]f] R\áO
(1) Indus and Sutlej rivers
ÐfV ?
(2) Sutlej and Kali rivers (1) y]ÌO, yfVs^V jh]W¥
(3) Tista and Brahmaputra rivers (2) yfVs^V, WLt] jh]W¥
(4) Kali and Tista rivers (3) f]ñ, NmùkONf jh]W¥
(4) WLt], f]ñ jh]W¥

91. Which of the following is not a feature 91. \OvRa S\¡¾]q]¨OÐf]¤


of democracy ? ^jLi]kf|¾]R£ yv]Swxf
AŠL¾fV ?
(1) Independent and impartial
judicial system (1) j]xVkƒvOU y~fNÍvOoLp
j}f]j|Lp v|vò
(2) Rule of law
(2) j]povLuV\
(3) Unlimited powers of government (3) Yv¦Ro£]jV kq]i]p]ŠL¾
(4) Periodic elections Ai]WLqU
(4) j]é]f CaSvtp]¤ ja¨OÐ
RfqR´aOÕV
92. Kyoto protocol is related to 92. SW|LSŸL SNkLSŸLSWL¥ IÍO
oLp] mÌR՟]q]¨OÐO ?
(1) Environmental Protection
(1) kq]ò]f] yUqƒeU
(2) Climatic change
(2) WLsLvòL v|f]pLjU
(3) Sustainable Development (3) yOò]q v]WyjU
(4) Earth Summit (4) nTo DˆSWLa]

93. Nkf|ƒ ^jLi]kf| oL¡Y°¥


93. Find out the state in which direct
NkSpLY¾]sOç qLNìU JRfÐV
democratic devices are in force.
WRº¾OW.
(1) India
(1) CÍ|
(2) Switzerland (2) y~]ãVy¡s£V
(3) Britain (3) Nm]Ÿ¢
(4) Ireland (4) Ap¡sºV

M-1 -25- P.T.O.


Class – X SAT

94. Which of the following commission is 94. \OvRa S\¡¾]q]¨OÐf]¤


chaired by retired chief justice of the r]RŸp¡ R\pÅ CÍ|¢ yONk}U
Supreme Court of India ? SWLaf] \}lV ^ð]yV AÈ|ƒ
(1) National Commission for Women jLWOÐ WÚ}x¢ JfV ?
(2) National Minority Commission (1) Shw}p vj]fL WÚ}x¢
(3) National Commission for
(2) Shw}p j|Pjkƒ WÚ}x¢
Scheduled Caste
(4) National Human Rights
(3) Shw}p kŸ]W ^Lf] WÚ}x¢
Commission (4) Shw}p ojOx|LvWLw
WÚ}x¢

95. Which of the following is not true with 95. pPSrLk|¢ pPe]pjOoLp]
respect to European Union ? mÌR՟ RfãLp]ŸOç vñO
JfV ?
(1) Common Constitution
(1) RkLfO nqeZaj
(2) Common Market
(2) RkLfO v]ke]
(3) Common Currency
(3) RkLfO jLepU
(4) Common Laws on Financial
transactions
(4) ijWLq| CakLaOW¥¨V RkLfO
j]poU

96. 2015 &Rs Sv¥cV RcvsÕVRo£V


96. The World Development Report 2015
is titled as
r]SÕL¡Ÿ]R£ fsR¨ŸV

(1) Sustainable development and


(1) yOò]q v]WyjvOU hLq]Nh|vOU
poverty (2) oLjv v]nvSwx] v]WyjU
(2) Human Resource Development (3) v]WyjU y~LfNÍ|U IÐ
j]sp]¤
(3) Development as freedom
(4) ojôV, yoPzU, RkqOoLãU
(4) Mind, Society and Behaviour

M-1 -26-
Class – X SAT

97. Identify the states in the descending 97. ^jyLNÎfpORa AvSqLze


order of density of population. NWo¾]¤ yUòLj°Rt f]q]ˆ
r]pOW.
(1) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh,
Kerala, Bihar (1) ozLqLNì, oÈ|NkShwV, SWqtU,
m}zL¡
(2) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala,
(2) m}zL¡, ké]omUYL¥, SWqtU,
Uttar Pradesh
D¾¡NkShwV
(3) Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, (3) SWqtU, D¾¡NkShwV , ké]o
West Bengal, Tamil Nadu mUYL¥, fo]¥jLaV
(4) West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, (4) ké]o mUYL¥, m}zL¡,
Uttar Pradesh SWqtU, D¾¡NkShwV

98. ‘Economic Survey’ of India is 98. CÍ|pORa "yLÒ¾]W y¡Sv'


published by
Nky]È]Wq]¨OÐfV
(1) Reserve Bank of India (1) r]y¡‹V mLËV KLlV C¢c|
(2) Ministry of statistics and programme (2) ò]f] v]vqWe¨OU kÈf]
implementation jaÕ]sL¨sOU oNÍLspU
(3) Ministry of industry and commerce (3) v|vyLp vLe]^| oNÍLspU
(4) Ministry of finance (4) ijWLq| oNÍLspU

99. The variable which does not influence 99. vLjv v]Wyj yP\]WpORa
the value of HDI ? oPs|R¾ y~Li}j]¨L¾ \qU
JfV ?
(1) Infant mortality rate
(1) w]wOoqe j]q¨V
(2) GDP
(2) ^]. c]. k].
(3) Density of population
(3) ^jyLNÎf
(4) Population size
(4) ^jyUX|L vs]ÕU

100. Identify the financial year included in 100. JRfË]sOU KqO kµvÃq
any of the five year plan. kÈf]p]¤ D¥RÕaOÐ yLÒ
¾]W v¡xU f]q]ˆr]pOW.
(1) 1967-68
(1) 1967-68
(2) 1971-72
(2) 1971-72
(3) 1979-80 (3) 1979-80
(4) 1991-92 (4) 1991-92
_______________

M-1 -27- P.T.O.


Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -28-
Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -29- P.T.O.


Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -30-