Tshwane University of Technology

Test 1

SUBJECT: RETICULATION DESIGN AND MANAGEMENT

SUBJECT CODE: RDA401T

PAPER NO.: PAPER 1

PAPER DESCRIPTION: OPEN BOOK

DURATION: 2 HOURS

SPECIAL REQUIREMENTS: ()

None ()
Non-programmable pocket calculators ()
Scientific calculators ()
Drawing instruments
Other

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

NUMBER OF PAGES: 7 (Including this page)

ANNEXURES: 2

QUALIFICATION(S):

BTECH: ENGINEERING CIVIL

EXAMINER: MR OOS OJO

MODERATOR: DR. J Wilsenach

TOTAL MARKS: 80
(1a). Calculate the frictional head loss for a commercial steel pipe (new) with 1.4 𝑚 diameter
and a flow rate of 3.3 𝑚3 ⁄𝑠 at 10℃ water.by using

i) Hazen Williams. [4]

ii) Manning’ s equation. [4]

iii) Darcy-Weisbach equation. [4]

Answer:

1 (a) 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑄 = 3.3 𝑚3 ⁄𝑠 , 𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 = 1.4 𝑚, 𝑇℃ = 10℃, 𝐿 = 1000 𝑚

(i) From the table 𝐶𝐻𝑊 = 140, 𝐵 = 0.85, 𝑄 = 3.3 𝑚3 ⁄𝑠 the friction head loss from the
Hazen–Williams is determined as:

ℎ𝑓 = 𝑅𝑄 𝑛

𝐿 7.88 1000 7.88

𝑅 = 𝐶 1.852 𝐷4.87 𝐵1.85 ⟹ 1401.852 1.44.87 [(0.85)1.85 ]
ℎ𝑤

∴ 𝑅 = 0.22

ℎ𝑓 = 0.22(3.3)1.85 = 2.0 𝑚

(ii) From the table 𝑛 = 0.010, 𝐵 = 1, 𝑄 = 3.3 𝑚3 ⁄𝑠 the friction head loss from the
Manning equation is determined as:

ℎ𝑓 = 𝑅𝑄 𝑛

10.29 𝐿𝑛2 10.29 1000×(0.010)2

𝑅= ⟹ [ (1.4)5.33 ] = 0.17
𝐵2 𝐷 5.33 12

ℎ𝑓 = 0.17(3.3)1.85 = 1.85 𝑚

(iii) the friction head loss from the Darcy–Weisbach Equation is determined as:

by applying the Barr approximation equation, friction factor 𝑓, 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑒 = 0.045 𝑚𝑚:

𝑓𝑙
𝑅 = 2𝑔𝐷𝐴2

4 4×3.3
𝑉𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 (𝑚⁄𝑠) = 𝑣 = 𝑄 𝐷2 𝜋 = 1.42 ×3.14 = 2.14 𝑚⁄𝑠
Based on the water temperature, the kinematic viscosity can be calculated using:

497×10−6 497×10−6
𝜈 = (𝑇+42.5)1.5 ⟹ (10+42.5)1.5 = 1.31 × 10−6 𝑚2 ⁄𝑠

the Reynolds number takes the value of:

𝑣𝐷 2.14×1.4
𝑅𝑒 = = 1.31×10−6 = 2287022.901 ≈ 2.29 × 106
𝜈

𝑒 = 𝑅𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ𝑛𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝐻𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 (𝑚𝑚), 𝑒 = 0.045 𝑚𝑚

𝑒⁄ = (0.045⁄1000) = 3.2 × 10−5

𝐷 1.4

1 5.1286 𝑘 5.1286 0.045

= −2𝑙𝑜𝑔 [ 𝑅𝑒 0.89 + 3.7𝐷] = −2𝑙𝑜𝑔 [(2.29×106 )0.89 + 3.7×1400]
√𝑓

𝑓 = 0.0113 ≈ 0.011

(0.045⁄1000)
Using Moody’s diagram, 𝑓 = 0.011 (𝑖. 𝑒 𝑒⁄𝐷 = = 3.2 × 10−5 )
1.4

𝑓𝑙 0.011×1000
𝑅 = 2𝑔𝐷𝐴2 = 1.42
= 0.260
2×9.81×1.4×(𝜋× )
4

ℎ𝑓 = 0.260(3.3)1.85 = 2.367 𝑚

(b). A 50 𝑚𝑚 diameter commercial steel pipe (𝑒 = 0.045 𝑚𝑚) has a length of 100 𝑚. Find
the head loss for water, for the two discharge rates below. Assume that the water has a
kinematic viscosity (𝜈) of 1.518 × 10−6 𝑚2 ⁄𝑠, and that the acceleration of gravity is
9.80665 𝑚2 ⁄𝑠.

(i) The discharge (𝑄) is 0.1 𝑙/𝑠. [4]

(ii) The discharge (𝑄) is 50 𝑙/𝑠. [4]

[Total: 20 marks]

Answer:

1 (b). 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝐿 = 100 𝑚, 𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 = 0.05 𝑚, 𝑣 = 1.518 × 10−6 𝑚2 ⁄𝑠 , 𝑒 = 0.045 𝑚𝑚

(i) The discharge (𝑄) is 0.1 𝑙 ⁄𝑠 = 0.0001 𝑚3 ⁄𝑠

 4 4 × 0.0001
𝑉𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 (𝑚⁄𝑠) = 𝑣 = 𝑄 = = 0.0509 𝑚⁄𝑠
𝐷 𝜋 0.052 × 3.14
2

the Reynolds number takes the value of:

𝑣𝐷 0.0509×0.05
𝑅𝑒 = = = 1676.5 < 2000 (𝑙𝑎𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑟 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤)
𝜈 1.518×10−6

64
𝑓 = 𝑅𝑒

𝑓 = 0.03817

𝑓𝑙𝑉 2 0.03817×100×(0.0509)2
ℎ𝑓 = = = 0.010
2𝑔𝐷 2×9.80665×0.05

ℎ𝑓 = 0.010 𝑚

(ii) The discharge (𝑄) is 50 𝑙 ⁄𝑠 = 0.05 𝑚3 ⁄𝑠

4 4 × 0.05
𝑉𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 (𝑚⁄𝑠) = 𝑣 = 𝑄 = = 25.478 𝑚⁄𝑠
𝐷2 𝜋 0.052 × 3.14

the Reynolds number takes the value of:

𝑣𝐷 25.478×0.05
𝑅𝑒 = = = 839196.31 > 2000 (𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑏𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤)
𝜈 1.518×10−6

𝑒 = 𝑅𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ𝑛𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝐻𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 (𝑚𝑚), 𝑒 = 0.045 𝑚𝑚

𝑒⁄ = 0.045 = 0.0009
𝐷 50

1 5.1286 𝑘 5.1286 0.045

= −2𝑙𝑜𝑔 [ 𝑅𝑒 0.89 + 3.7𝐷] = −2𝑙𝑜𝑔 [(8.39×105 )0.89 + 3.7×50]
√𝑓

𝑓 = 0.0196

𝑓𝑙𝑉 2 0.0196×100×(25.478)2
ℎ𝑓 = = = 1297.3766
2𝑔𝐷 2×9.80665×0.05

ℎ𝑓 = 1297.4 𝑚

(2a). A horizontal venturimeter is used to measure the flow of water in a 200 𝑚𝑚 diameter pipe.
The throat diameter of the venturimeter is 80 𝑚𝑚 and the discharge coefficient is 0.85. If
 the pressure difference between the two measurement points is 10 𝑐𝑚 of mercury, calculate
the average velocity in the pipe. Assume the relative density of mercury is 13.6. [10]

Answer:

2 (a). 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑑1 = 0.2 𝑚, 𝑑2 = 0.08 , 𝑚 ∆𝑃 = 10 𝑐𝑚, 𝜌𝑚𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑦 = 13.6, 𝐶𝑑 = 0.85

𝜋𝐷 2 𝜋×0.22
𝐴1 = = = 0.031416 𝑚2
4 4

𝜋𝐷 2 𝜋×0.082
𝐴2 = = = 5.0265 × 10−3 𝑚2
4 4

𝑃1 − 𝑃2 = 13.6 × 1000 × 9.8 × 0.1 = 13341.6 𝑃𝑎

𝑧1 − 𝑧2 = 0

𝑃 −𝑃 13341.6
2𝑔( 1 2 ) 2×9.81×( )
𝑄 = 𝐶𝑑 𝐴1 𝐴2 √ = 0.85 × 0.031416 × 0.0050265√0.0314162 −0.0050265
𝜌𝑔 1000×9.81
𝐴21 −𝐴22 2

𝑄 = 0.02238 𝑚3 ⁄𝑠

𝑄
𝑣 = ⁄𝐴 = 0.02238⁄0.031416 = 0.712 𝑚⁄𝑠.
1

(b). The velocity of the water flowing in the same pipe is also measured using a pitot-static tube
located centrally in the flow. If the height measured on the attached manometer is 60 𝑚𝑚
and the relative density of the manometer fluid is 1.45, determine the velocity of the water.

[6]

Answer:

(b). 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, ℎ = 0.06 𝑚, 𝜌𝑚𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑦 = 1.45.

2𝑔ℎ(𝜌𝑚 −𝜌) 2×9.81×0.06(1450−1000)

𝑣=√ =√ = 0.728 𝑚⁄𝑠
𝜌 1000
(c). Explain why the velocity measured by the pitot-static tube is higher than that measured by
the venturimeter. [4]

[Total: 20 marks]

Answer:

Velocity measured by pitot-tube is velocity at centre of pipe, while venturimeter determines

average velocity across the whole pipe cross section. This value is lower due to the lower velocities
at the walls of the pipe caused by friction.

(3). The discharge of water through a 140℃ bend, shown in fig. 𝑄3, is 30 𝑙 ⁄𝑠. The bend is
lying in the horizontal plane and the diameters at the entrance and exit are 200 𝑚𝑚 and
100 𝑚𝑚 respectively. The pressure measured at the entrance is 100 𝑘𝑁⁄𝑚2 , what is the
magnitude and direction of the force exerted by the water on the bend?

[Total: 20 marks]
 Figure Q3

Answer:

(3). 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑑1 = 0.2 𝑚, 𝑑2 = 0.10 , 𝑚 𝑃 = 100 𝑘𝑁⁄𝑚2

𝜋𝐷2 𝜋 × 0.22
𝐴1 = = = 0.0314 𝑚2
4 4

𝜋𝐷 2 𝜋×0.102
𝐴2 = = = 7.85 × 10−3 𝑚2
4 4

𝑄 = 30⁄1000 = 0.03 𝑚3 ⁄𝑠

𝑄 𝑄
𝑣1 = ⁄𝐴 = 0.03⁄0.0314 = 0.955 𝑚⁄𝑠, 𝑣2 = ⁄𝐴 = 0.03⁄0.00785 = 3.82 𝑚⁄𝑠
1 1

Calculate the total force:

In the 𝑥 − 𝑑𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛: 𝐹𝑇𝑥 = 𝜌𝑄(𝑉2𝑥 − 𝑉1𝑥 ) = 𝜌𝑄(𝑉2 cos 𝜃 − 𝑉1 )

= 1000 × 0.03(3.82 cos 140° − 0.955)

= −116.4 𝑁

In the 𝑦 − 𝑑𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛: 𝐹𝑇𝑦 = 𝜌𝑄(𝑉2𝑦 − 𝑉1𝑦 ) = 𝜌𝑄𝑉2 sin 𝜃

= 1000 × 0.03 × 3.82 sin 140°

 = 73.7 𝑁

Calculate the pressure force:

𝑝 𝑣2 𝑝 𝑣2
Use Bernoulli to calculate force at exit, 𝑝2 ⟹ 𝜌𝑔1 + 2𝑔1 + 𝑧1 = 𝜌𝑔2 + 2𝑔2 + 𝑧2 + ℎ𝑓

the friction loss ℎ𝑓 can be ignored, ℎ𝑓 = 0

As the exit of the pipe is in the horizontal plane 𝑧1 = 𝑧2 so they cancel out.

By continuity, 𝑄 = 𝐴1 . 𝑉1 = 𝐴2 . 𝑉2

𝜌 1000
𝑝2 = 𝑝1 − 2 (𝑣22 − 𝑣12 ) + (𝑧1 − 𝑧2 )𝜌𝑔 = 100000 − (3.822 − 0.9552 ) + 0
2

= 93160.0 𝑁

𝐹𝑝 = 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 𝑎𝑡 1 − 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 𝑎𝑡 2

𝐹𝑃𝑥 = 𝑃1 𝐴1 cos 0 − 𝑃2 𝐴2 cos 𝜃 = 𝑃1 𝐴1 − 𝑃2 𝐴2 cos 140

= 3702 𝑁

𝐹𝑃𝑦 = 𝑃1 𝐴1 sin 0 − 𝑃2 𝐴2 sin 𝜃 = −𝑃2 𝐴2 sin 50°

= −470 𝑁

Calculate the body force (In horizontal plane so no body forces need be considered):

𝐹𝐵𝑥 = 0 𝐹𝐵𝑦 = 0

Calculate the resultant force:

𝐹𝑇𝑥 = 𝐹𝑅𝑥 + 𝐹𝑃𝑥 + 𝐹𝐵𝑥

𝐹𝑇𝑦 = 𝐹𝑅𝑦 + 𝐹𝑃𝑦 + 𝐹𝐵𝑦

𝐹𝑅𝑥 = 𝐹𝑇𝑥 − 𝐹𝑃𝑥 − 𝐹𝐵𝑥 ⟹ −161.4 − 3702 − 0 = −3818 𝑁

𝐹𝑅𝑦 = 𝐹𝑇𝑦 − 𝐹𝑃𝑦 − 𝐹𝐵𝑦 ⟹ −73.7 − 470 − 0 = 543 𝑁

And the resultant force on the fluid is given by:

 2 2
𝐹𝑅 = √𝐹𝑅𝑥 − 𝐹𝑅𝑦 = √(−3818)2 − (543)2 = 3857 𝑁

And the direction of application is:

𝐹𝑅𝑦 543
∅ = tan−1 (𝐹 ) ⟹ tan−1 (−3818) = −8.1°
𝑅𝑥

the force on the bend is the same magnitude but in the opposite direction:

𝑅 = −𝐹𝑅

(4). A supply at 1 serves a pipeline shown in fig. Q4. Determine the diameter of a single
1000 𝑚 long equivalent pipe (𝐶𝐻𝑊 = 100) to replace the series-parallel system. The 𝐶𝐻𝑊
coefficient values for the pipes are: 𝑃𝑖𝑝𝑒 1 = 150; 𝑃𝑖𝑝𝑒 2 = 130; 𝑃𝑖𝑝𝑒 3 = 130.

[Total: 20 marks]

Figure Q4

Answer:

(4). 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑙 = 1000𝑚, 𝑑1 = 0.2 𝑚, 𝑑2 = 0.10 , 𝑚 𝑃 = 100 𝑘𝑁⁄𝑚2

For the series pipe system 1 and 3, the diameter of 1000 𝑚 long equivalent pipe with 𝐶𝐻𝑊 =
100 is given as follows:
Generally:
 𝐿𝑒 𝐿
= ∑ 𝑥 𝐶 1.852𝑥.𝐷4.87
𝐶𝐻𝑊 .𝐷𝑒4.87
1.852
𝐻𝑊 𝑥

1000 1000 600

⟹ 1001.852 × 𝐷4.87 = 1501.852 × 0.44.87 + 1301.852 × 0.24.87 = 193.0627
𝑒

1
1000 4.87
∴ 𝐷𝑒 = (1001.852 × 193.0627) = 0.2433 𝑚

Pipe 2 is a single pipe:

1000 1600
= = 68.4725
1001.852 × 𝐷𝑒4.87 1301.852 × 0.34.87

1
1000 4.87
∴ 𝐷𝑒 = (1001.852 × 68.4725) = 0.3010 𝑚

Now two pipes each 1000 𝑚 long having 𝐶𝐻𝑊 = 100 and diameters 0.2433 𝑚 and 0.3010 𝑚
connected in parallel. The equivalent pipe diameter is given as:
Generally:
𝐶𝐻𝑊𝑒 .𝐷𝑒2.63 𝐶𝐻𝑊𝑥 .𝐷𝑥2.63
= ∑𝑥
𝐿0.54
𝑒 𝐿0.54
𝑥

100 × 𝐷𝑒2.63 100 × 0.24332.63 100 × 0.30102.63

⟹ = +
10000.54 10000.54 10000.54

∴ 𝐷𝑒 = 0.3574 𝑚
ANNEXURE 1: Formula Sheet

(i). Barr approximation equation

1 5.1286 𝑘
= −2𝑙𝑜𝑔 [ 𝑅𝑒 0.89 + 3.7𝐷]
√𝑓

(ii). Darcy–Weisbach frictional head loss equation

𝑓𝑙
ℎ𝑓 = 12.1𝐷5 𝑄 2

(iii). Hazen–Williams frictional head loss equation

10.68𝐿
ℎ𝑓 = 𝐶 1.852 𝐷4.87 𝑄1.852
𝐻𝑊

(iv). Manning frictional head loss equation

10.29𝑁 2 𝐿
ℎ𝑓 = 𝑄2
𝐷 16⁄3

𝐿𝑒 𝐿
(v). Equivalent length 1.852 𝐷 4.87 = ∑ 𝑥 𝐶 1.852𝑥𝐷4.87
𝐶𝐻𝑊 𝑒 𝑒 𝐻𝑊𝑥 𝑥

𝐶𝐻𝑊𝑒 𝐷𝑒2.63 𝐶𝐻𝑊𝑥 𝐷𝑥2.63

(vi). Equivalent diameter = ∑𝑥
𝐿0.54
𝑒 𝐿0.54
𝑥
ANNEXURE 2: