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1. If ‘L’ is the span of a light suspension bridge, whose, C. 200 𝜋 D. 100

each cable carries total weight (w) and the central Ans. C
dip is ‘y’, the horizontal pull at each support is Sol. For velocity to be maximum in SHM
_________. 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2𝜋𝑓𝐴
A. wL/4y B. wL/8y Where, f is frequency and a is maximum amplitude.
C. wL/2y D. wL/y 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2𝜋 × 10 × 10 = 200𝜋
Ans. B 6. The sum of kinetic and potential energy of a falling
2. The vehicle moving on a level circular path will exert body __________.
pressure such that _________. A. is constant at all points
A. the reaction on the outer wheels will be more B. varies form point to point
B. the reaction on the inner wheels will be more C. is maximum at starting and goes on increasing
C. the reaction on the inner wheels as well as on D. is maximum at starting and goes on decreasing
the outer wheels will be equal Ans. A
D. it depends on the speed Sol. The sum of the PE and KE is the total energy,
Ans. A which is a constant for a body.
Sol. centrifugal force pushes the car outwards. Since 7. If two bodies, one light and other heavy, have equal
the center of mass of the car is above the level of kinetic energy, which on has a greater momentum?
the wheels, it tends to create a moment which A. the heavy body
pushes the outer wheels down and the inner wheels B. the light body
up. Since the outer wheels are being pushed C. both have equal momentum
downwards, the ground exerts a greater normal D. unpredictable
force on the outer wheels. Ans. A
3. Which one of the following laws is not applicable for Sol. 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑏𝑜𝑑𝑦 = 𝑚𝑣
a simple pendulum? Where, m mass of the body and v is the velocity of
A. the time period does not depend on its the body, hence the heavier body will have higher
magnitude momentum.
B. the time period is proportional to its length 8. A bucket of water weighing 10 kg is pulled up from a
C. the time period is proportional to square root of 20 m deep well by a rope weighing 1 kg/m length,
its length then the work done is __________.
D. the time period is inversely proportional to A. 200 kg-m B. 400 kg-m
square root of its acceleration due to gravity C. 500 kg-m D. 600 kg-m
Ans. C Ans. B
𝐿 Sol. Total work done will be sum of work done to
Sol. 𝑇 = 2𝜋√𝑔 where L, length of pendulum and g is pull the bucket and work done required to pull the
local gravity acceleration rope.
4. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum 𝑑𝑊 = (𝑊𝑏𝑢𝑐𝑘𝑒𝑡 + 𝑊𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑒 ) × 𝑑𝑥
__________. 𝑑𝑊 = (10 + 𝑥)𝑑𝑥
A. the mass of its bob should be doubled 20

B. the mass of its bob should be quadrupled 𝑊 = ∫ (10 + 𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 400 𝐾𝑔 − 𝑚

C. its length should be doubled
D. its length should be quadrupled
Ans. D
Sol. Time period of simple pendulum
𝐿 speed
𝑇 = 2𝜋√𝑔 where L, length of pendulum and g is
local gravity acceleration
In order to double the time period it is required to
quadrupled the length of pendulam
5. A body is vibrating at 10 vibrations/second in Simple
Harmonic Motion of 10 cm amplitude. The
maximum velocity in cm/sec can be _________.
A. 100𝜋 B. 50 𝜋
0
9. Which of the following is an example of a body
undergoing translational equilibrium?
A. a body at rest on a table
B. a body travelling in a circular path at a constant
C. a body rotating with constant angular speed
about an axis
D. a body sliding down a frictionless inclined plane
Ans. A
Sol. Translational equilibrium is achieved when
there is no change in body position with respect to
time and space at given instance.

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10. A boy is swinging on a swing. If another boy sits 1

𝑉𝐾𝐸 = 𝑀𝑉 2
along with him without disturbing his motion, then 2
the time period of wing will __________. Rotational energy associated with circular disc
A. increase B. decrease 1
𝑉𝑅𝐸 = 𝐼𝜔2
C. be doubled D. remain the same 2
1
Ans. D For circular disc I = 2 M𝑅 2 and 𝑉 = 𝑅𝜔
Sol. The swing is behaving like a simple pendulum 𝑅𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 0.5𝑀𝑉 2 1
Hence, 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑡 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦
= 0.5𝑀𝑉 2 +0.25𝑀𝑉 2 = 3
𝐿
𝑇 = 2𝜋√𝑔 15. An object weighs 60 gm in air, 50 gm in water and
𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑐ℎ 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠. 40 gm in oil. Then the specific gravity of the oil will
11. The type of motion when the acceleration is be ______________.
proportional to displacement is called ____. A. 0.25 B. 1
A. translation B. rotational C. 1.5 D. 2
C. gyroscopic D. simple harmonic Ans. D
Ans. D Sol. The relative density of an object is equal to the
Sol. Acceleration in SHM is given by. ratio of its weight in air and the difference of its
𝑎 = 𝜔2 𝑥 weight in air and its weight when the object is
Where x is displacement. submerged in water.
12. The escape velocity of a body on earth D=[(Wa)/(Wa−Ww)]
_____________. From the given data D = [60/(60−50)]
A. increases with the increase of its mass ⇒D=(60/10)
B. decreases with the increase of its mass ⇒D=6
C. remains unchanged with variation of mass Relative density of oil can be calculated as,
D. varies as the square of the change in mass ⇒Relative density of oil = Loss in weigh in oil/ Loss
Ans. C in weigh in water
Sol. Escape velocity of body is given as ⇒Relative density of oil = (60 – 40 )/(60 − 50)
⇒Relative density of oil = 20/10
2𝐺𝑀 ⇒Relative density of oil = 2
𝑉𝑒𝑠𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑒 = √
𝑟 16. The value of coefficient of velocity compared to
Which is independent of mass of given body. coefficient of discharge ________.
13. The velocity of the satellite in an orbit close to A. is less B. is more
earth’s surface depends on _________. C. has no relation D. is the same
A. radius of the orbit only Ans. B
B. acceleration due to gravity only Sol. Coefficient of velocity is varies between 0.98 to
C. square root of product of radius of the orbit and 0.99, and coefficient of discharge is varies between
acceleration due to gravity 0.67 to 0.69.
D. product of radius of the orbit and gravitational 17. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different
constant kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is called
Ans. C ___________.
Sol. Velocity of satellite A. adhesion B. cohesion
C. viscosity D. compressibility
𝐺𝑀 Ans. A
𝑉=√
𝑅 Sol. Adhesion is the attraction of molecules of one
𝐺𝑀 kind for molecules of a different kind, and it can be
𝑔= 2
𝑅 quite strong for water.
Hence, 𝑉 = √𝑔𝑅 18. The depth of water below the spillway and after
14. A circular disc rolls down an inclined plane, the hydraulic jump are 1 m and 6 m respectively. The
fraction of its total energy associated with its head loss will be ____________.
rotation is ______________. A. 1.04 m B. 5 m
A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1.7 m D. 2.05 m
C. 1/4 D. 2/3 Ans. A
Ans. B Sol. Head loss in spillway
Sol. Kinetic energy associated with circular disc
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(𝑌2 −𝑌1 )^2 (6−1)2 25 23. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve
𝐻𝑚 = 4𝑌1 𝑌2
= 4×6×1 = 24 = 1.041
should be __________.
19. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, A. closed
such a substance is known as _____. B. open
A. fluid B. water C. depends on starting condition and flow desired
C. gas D. ideal fluid D. could be either open or closed
Ans. D Ans. B
Sol. Inviscid or ideal flow has no resistance for Sol. To maintain NPSH in axial flow pump it is
relative motion between fluid layers. required to open its delivery valve kept open.
20. Head loss in turbulent flow in a pipe ___________. 24. Equation of continuity results from the principal of
A. varies directly as velocity conservation of _______.
B. varies inversely as square of velocity A. energy B. flow
C. varies approximately as square of velocity C. mass D. momentum
D. depends upon orientation of pipe Ans. C
Ans. C Sol. Equation of continuity is,
Sol. Head loss in turbulent flow is given as, 𝐴𝑉 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
𝑓𝜌𝑣 2 Where A area of of cross section and V is velocity of
ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑑 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 =
2𝐷 fluid, which clearly shows that Equation of
where f friction factor, p density of fluid, v velocity continuity results from the principal of conservation
of fluid, d diameter of pipe. of mass.
21. The force exerted by the jet on fixed plate shown in 25. When a piping system is made up primarily of
the figure below is equal to: friction head and very little of vertical lift, then pipe
characteristic should be ___________.
A. horizontal B. nearly horizontal
C. very steep D. first rise and then fall
Ans. B
Sol.
26. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of
diameter ‘d’ running full is equal to ____.
A. d B. d/3
C. d/2 D. d/4
Ans. D
A. AV2 sin 𝜃 B. pAV2 sin 𝜃 Sol. Hydraulic mean depth is defined as the area of
C. pAV2 cos 𝜃 D. AV2 tan 𝜃 the flow section divided by the top water surface
Ans. B width.
Sol. Force exerted by jet on vertical plate is, 𝜋𝐷 2
𝐹 = 𝜌𝑎𝑉 2 𝐻𝑚 = ÷ 𝜋𝐷
4
Now if plate is inclined at an angle 𝜃 𝐷
𝐻𝑚 =
Then force in the the direction of flow on inclined 4
surface will be 27. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump
𝐹 = 𝜌𝑎𝑉 2 sin 𝜃 from _________.
22. A weir system in which the downstream water level A. the top B. the bottom
of the weir nappe is higher than the crest is called C. the centre D. from sides
___________. Ans. C
A. submerged B. overflowing Sol. In centrifugal pump fluid enter at the center and
C. broad-crested D. cipoletti come out from the periphery of the pump
Ans. A 28. Head loss in a flowing fluid is experienced due to
Sol. The ratio of the downstream and the upstream __________.
water depths above the weir crest is defined as the A. friction at surface
submergence ratio. For above system it will be B. change of direction
submerged. C. change of section of passage
D. obstruction in passage

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A. only A B. only B D. free cylindrical vortex flow

C. only B and C D. A, B, C and D Ans. D
Ans. D Sol. A cylindrical free vortex motion is conceived in a
Sol. Head loss in a flowing fluid is experienced due cylindrical coordinate system with axis z directing
to all the above reason stated. vertically upwards where at each horizontal cross-
29. High specific speed of turbine implies that it is section, there exists a planar free vortex motion
___________. 34. Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic
A. propeller turbine B. Francis turbine ram when _______.
C. Impulse turbine D. Francis turbine or A. when valve closes suddenly
impulse turbine B. supply pipe is long
Ans. A C. supply pipe is short
Sol. Impulse turbines have the lowest ns values, D. ram chamber is large
typically ranging from 1 to 10, a Pelton wheel is Ans. A
typically around 4, Francis turbines fall in the range Sol. When valve is closed suddenly all the flow
of 10 to 100, while Kaplan turbines are at least 100 energy will br converted to pressure energy and
or more. propeller turbine High specific speed of generate maximum impulse in hydraulic ram.
turbine 35. Critical-depth meter is used to measure
30. One dimensional flow is _______. ____________.
A. restricted to flow in a straight line A. discharge in an open channel
B. uniform flow B. hydraulic jump
C. one which neglects changes in a transverse C. depth of flow in channel
direction D. depth of channel
D. the most general flow Ans. A
Ans. C Sol. Critical-depth meter is used to measure
Sol. Term one, two or three dimensional flow refers discharge in open channel.
to the number of space coordinated required to 36. Medium specific speed of a pump implies that it is
describe a flow. _________.
31. Specific speed of a turbine depends upon A. centrifugal pump
_________. B. mixed flow pump
A. speed, power and discharge C. axial flow pump
B. discharge and power D. axial flow pump or centrifugal pump
C speed and head Ans. B
D. speed, power and head Sol. Medium specific speed of a pump implies that it
Ans. D is mixed flow pump as it is used for medium head
Sol. Specific speed of turbine, available.
√𝑃 37. The hydraulic grade line is ____________.
𝑁𝑠 = 𝑁 5 A. always moving up
𝐻4 B. always moving down
32. If a mouthpiece is running full at the outlet, the
C. always above the energy grade line
vacuum at vena-contracta ____________.
D. the velocity head below the energy grade line
A. increases velocity of jet
Ans. D
B. decreases velocity of jet
Sol. Hydraulic grade line is pizeometric head and
C. decreases the discharge
always below the total energy line.
D. decreases the value of coefficient of contraction
38. The ratio of depth of bucket for Pelton Wheel to the
Ans. A
diameter of jet is of the order of ___.
Sol. The vacuum at vena- contracta will result in
A. 1 B. 1.2
pressure drop in that region and leads to increase th
C. 1.5 D. 1.8
velocity of jet.
Ans. B
33. When a fluid flows in concentric circles, it is known
Sol. The ratio of depth of bucket for Pelton Wheel to
as ___________.
the diameter of jet is of the order of 1.2
A. free circular motion
39. The contraction of area for flow through orifice in
B. free rotational motion
tank depends on ________.
C. free spinal vortex flow
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A. shape of orifice Sol. Suction cavitation occurs when the pump

B. size of orifice suction is under a low-pressure/high-vacuum
C. head in tank condition where the liquid turns into a vapor at the
A. only A B. only A and B eye of the pump impeller
C. only A and C D. A, B and C 45. Which of the following pumps is used for pumping
Ans. D viscous fluids?
Sol. The flow of fluid through a contraction A. centrifugal pump
(decrease in pipe diameter) results in an increase in B. screw pump
the velocity and consequently, a pressure drop C. reciprocating pump
greater than the value for the equivalent straight D. jet pump
pipe. Which depend on shape of orifice, size of Ans. B
orifice and head in tank. Sol. screw pump pumps is used for pumping viscous
40. The flow at critical depth in an open channel is fluids
__________. 46. Steel whose elements are used for the purpose of
A. maximum B. minimum modifying the mechanical properties of plain carbon
C. zero D. half of normal flow steel is called ___________.
Ans. A A. Alloy steel B. Invar
Sol. Critical depth is defined as the depth of flow C. Stainless steel D. High speed steel
where energy is at a minimum for a particular Ans. A
discharge. Sol. Alloy steel is a steel that has had small amounts
41. In Kaplan turbine runner, the number of blades is of one or more alloying elements (other than
generally of the order _________. carbon) such as such as manganese, silicon, nickel,
A. 2 – 4 B. 4 – 8 titanium, copper, chromium and aluminum added.
C. 8 – 16 D. 16 – 24 47. Alloy steel containing 36% nickel is called ________.
Ans. B A. Invar B. Stainless steel
Sol Kaplan turbine is mix flow type turbine in which C. High speed steel D. None of these
number of blade varies from 4 to 8. Ans. A
42. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to Sol. Invar is a nickel–iron alloy notable for its
__________. uniquely low coefficient of thermal expansion
A. smoothen flow 48. Carbon steel is __________.
B. reduce acceleration to minimum A. Produced by adding carbon in steel
C. increase pump efficiency B. an alloy of iron and carbon with varying
D. save pump from cavitation quantities of phosphorus and sulphur
Ans. B C. purer than the cast iron
Sol. using air vessel, work is saved by eliminating the D. None of these
work lost in friction during the acceleration and Ans. B
deceleration of the fluid. Sol. Carbon steel, or plain-carbon steel, is
43. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of a metal alloy. It is a combination of two
__________. elements, iron and carbon. Other elements are
A. two cylinders, two rams and a storage device present in quantities too small to affect its
B. a cylinder and a ram properties.
C. two co-axial rams and two cylinders 49. Percentage of carbon in steel is ___________.
D. a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control A. 0.1% to 0.8% B. 0.35% to 0.45%
valve C. 1.8% to 4.2% D. 0.1% to 1.5%
Ans. C Ans. D
Sol. hydraulic intensifier constructed by Sol carbon content in steel,
mechanically connecting two pistons, each working Low carbon steel- upto 0.3%
in a separate cylinder of a different diameter Medium carbon steel-0.3-0.6%
44. Cavitation is caused by ____________. High carbon steel- 0.6-1%
A. high velocity B. high pressure Ultra high carbon steel-upto 1.5%
C. weak material D. low pressure 50. Hardness of steel depends on __________.
Ans. D A. amount of cementite it contains

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B. amount of carbon it contains 54. Steel which destroys by burning is called

C. contents of alloying elements __________.
D. method of manufacture of steel A. Alloy steel B. Carbon steel
Ans. B C. Silicon steel D. Killed steel
Sol. the hardness of a carbon steel depends on its Ans. D
carbon content Sol. Killed steel is steel that has been completely
51. __________ is added to raise the yield point of low deoxidized by the addition of an agent before
carbon steel. casting
A. Silicon B. Carbon 55. In steel, main alloy causing corrosion resistance is
C. Phosphorous D. Sulphur ________.
Ans. C A. Manganese B. Vanadium
Sol. To increase yield point of low carbon steel C. Chromium D. Cobalt
phosphorous is added as alloying element. Ans. C
52. An alloy steel contains ___________. Sol. Chromium is the most important alloying
A. more than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si element and it gives stainless steels their basic
B. less than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si corrosion resistance. All stainless steels have a Cr
C. more than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si content of at least 10.5% and the corrosion
D. less than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si resistance increases the higher chromium content.
Ans. A Chromium also increases the resistance to oxidation
Sol. Alloy steels are derivative of carbon steels at high temperatures and promotes a ferritic
where some typical elements are added to achieve microstructure
desired property. An iron based steel is consider to 56. The crest diameter of a screw thread is same as
be Alloy steel when manganese is greater than _________.
0.165%,silicon over 0.5% copper over 0.6%. A. major diameter B. minor diameter
53. Alloy steel as compared to carbon steel is more C. pitch diameter D. core diameter
____________. Ans. A
A. tough Sol. Crest, The surface of the thread corresponding
B. b to the major diameter of the screw and the minor
C. fatigue resistance diameter of the nut. So the crest diameter will be
A. only A B. only B equal to major diameter.
C. only C D. None of these 57. The function of a washer it to _________.
Ans. D A. provide cushioning effect
Sol. Alloy steel is a type of steel that has presence of B. provide bearing area
certain other elements apart from iron and carbon. C. absorb shocks and vibrations
Commonly added elements in alloy steel are D. provide smooth surface in place of rough
manganese, silicon, boron, chromium, vanadium surface
and nickel. The quantity of these metals in alloy Ans. B
steel is primarily dependent upon the use of such Sol. washer normally used to distribute the load of
steel. Normally alloy steel is made to get desired a threaded fastener, such as a screw or nut.
physical characteristics in the steel. 58. The rivet head for general purpose shown in the
Carbon steel is also known as plain steel and is an figure below is:
alloy of steel where carbon is the main constituent
and no minimum percentage of other alloying
elements is mentioned. Carbon steel is not stainless
steel as it is classified under alloy steels. As the
name implies, carbon content is increased in the
steel making it harder and stronger through
application of heat treatments. However, addition
of carbon makes the steel less ductile. The A. snap B. pan
weldability of carbon steel is low and higher carbon C. counter sunk D. flat
content also lowers the melting point of the alloy. Ans. C

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59. The key shown in the figure below is: A. only A B. only B and C
C. only C D. None of these
Ans. D
Sol. Antifriction bearings are commonly made with
hardened rolling elements (balls and rollers) and
races.
A. Lewis key B. Kennedy key 65. In V-belt drive, belt touches __________.
C. Pin key D. Barth key A. at bottom
Ans. D B. at sides only
Sol shown key is barth key C. both at bottom and sides
60. Fibrous fracture occurs in ___________. D. could touch anywhere
A. ductile material B. brittle material Ans. B
C. elastic material D. hard material Sol. For the V belt to be effective, the belt or cable
Ans. A will need to be in contact with the sides of the
Sol. A gray and amorphous fracture that results groove, but not the base of the groove so the
when a metal is sufficiently ductile for the crystals friction will be only on the sides.
to elongate before fracture occurs. When a fibrous 66. In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper
fracture is obtained in an impact test, it may be of outer raceway is _______.
regarded as definite evidence of toughness of the A. 5° B. 8°
metal. C. 15° D. 25°
61. For tight leakage joints, following type of thread is Ans. D
best suited ________. Sol. In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of
A. metric taper of outer raceway is 25°
B. buttress 67. Basic shaft is one _____.
C. NPT (National Pipe Threads) A. whose upper deviation is zero
D. acme B. whose lower deviation is zero
Ans. C C. whose lower as well as upper deviations are
Sol. NPT (National Pipe Threads) can provide an zero
effective seal for pipes D. does not exist
transporting liquids, gases, steam, Ans. A
and hydraulic fluid Sol. Basic Size: It is the size with reference to which
62. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when upper or lower limits of size are defined. In case of
making a _______. shaft its upper deviation is zero
A. butt weld B. fillet weld 68. Allen bolts are ___________.
C. sleeve weld D. socket weld A. self-locking bolts
Ans. A B. designed for shock load
Sol. metal ring used inside a butt-welded joint to C. used in aircraft application
reinforce the joint and to prevent weld metal from D. provided with hexagonal depression in head
entering the pipe at the joint Ans. D
63. Which of the following pipe joints would be suitable Sol. a bolt with a hexagonal socket in its head that is
for pipes carrying steam? designed to be used with an Allen wrench
A. flanged B. threaded 69. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 60%,
C. bell and spigot D. expansion then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch of
Ans. D rivets is ___________.
Sol. Expansion joint is used in pipe joint that would A. 0.2 B. 0.33
carrying steam as it will get cool or warm while in C. 0.4 D. 0.5
running condition. Ans. C
64. Antifriction bearings are:- Sol. Tearing efficiency of rivet
A. Sleeve bearings (𝑝 − 𝑑) ∗ 𝑡 ∗ 𝜎
B. Hydrodynamic bearings = = 0.6
𝑝∗𝑡∗𝜎
C. Thin lubricated bearings Solving above
D. Ball and roller bearings

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𝑑 will increases. But the upper limit of temperature is

= 0.33
𝑝 limited to material property, hence the only
70. A rived joint may fail due to :- favorable condition is to decrease the lower
A. Shearing of the rivet temperature.
B. Shearing off the plate at an edge 75. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric,
C. Crushing of the rivet isochoric and adiabatic processes are ____.
A. only A B. only B A. static processes
C. only C D. Any of A or B or C B. dynamic processes
Ans. D C. quasi-static processes
Sol. Rivet may fail all the above reason stated. D. stable processes
71. The same volume of all gases would represent their Ans. C
__________. Sol. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric,
A. densities isochoric and adiabatic processes are quasi-static
B. specific weights processes
C. molecular weights 76. Total heat of a substance is also known as
D. gas characteristics constants ___________.
Ans. C A. internal energyB. entropy
Sol. The same volume of all gases would represent C. thermal capacity D. enthalpy
their molecular weight. Ans. D
72. Extensive property of a system is one whose value Sol. Total heat of a substance is also known as its
_________. enthalpy.
A. depends on the mass of the system, like volume 77. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at
B. does not depend on the mass of the system, like ______________.
temperature, pressure etc. A. constant pressure
C. is not dependent on the path followed but on B. constant volume
the state C. constant temperature
D. is dependent on the path followed and not on D. constant enthalpy
the state Ans. C
Ans. A Sol. Carnot cycle include
Sol. Extensive property of a system is one which Two isentropic (compression and expansion)
depends on the mass of the system, like volume Two isothermal (heat addition and heat rejection)
73. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas 78. Change of entropy depends upon ________.
molecules _______. A. change of mass
A. increases B. change of temperature
B. decreases C. change of specific heats
C. remains constant D. change of heat
D. may increase/decrease depending on the Ans. D
properties of gas ∆𝑄
Sol.change in entropy, ∆𝑆 =
𝑇
Ans. C 79. Compressed air coming out from a punctured
Sol. Internal energy of system is only function of its football _________.
temperature. In isothermal process temperature A. becomes hotter
does not change and its internal energy remain B. becomes cooler
constant. C. remains at the same temperature
74. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of D. may become hotter or cooler depending upon
Carnot engine is to _________. the humidity of the surrounding air
A. increase higher temperature Ans. B
B. decrease higher temperature Sol.. the gas inside the football will go under free
C. increase lower temperature expansion and it will expend on expanse of its
D. decrease lower temperature internal energy hence its temperature will get cool
Ans. D down.
Sol. As the temperature difference increase 80. The ratio of actual cycle efficiency to that of ideal
between the sink the efficiency of cannot engine cycle efficiency is called __________.
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A. effectiveness B. work ratio 85. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature

C. efficiency ratio D. isentropic efficiency and density, in thermodynamic co-ordinates are
Ans. C ___________.
Sol. ratio of actual cycle efficiency to that of ideal A. path functions B. point functions
cycle efficiency is called efficiency ratio C. cyclic functionsD. real functions
81. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible Ans. B
cycle? Sol Properties of substances like pressure,
A. Carnot temperature and density are intensive property and
B. Ericsson independent of mass. Which depend only on state
C. Stirling of the system hence these are point function.
D. Joule 86. The refrigeration plants are charged by refrigerants
A. only A B. only A and B from the cylinder at the _________.
C. only C D. None of these A. suction of compressor
Ans. D B. crank case of compressor
Sol. The above cycle are reversible cycle. C. evaporator
82. A system will be thermodynamic equilibrium only if D. receiver
it is in __________. Ans. D
A. Thermal equilibrium Sol. the refrigerant used in the refer plant gets
B. Mechanical equilibrium consumed or is reduced in quantity because of
C. Chemical equilibrium leakage in the system. Reduction in quantity of
A. only A B. only B refrigerant may lead to troubles in the plant. When
C. only C D. A, B and C the above mentioned problems occur, it indicates
Ans. D that the plant has to be charged with the
Sol. A system is said to be in equilibrium when refrigerant. charged by refrigerants from the
system has achieve all the four equilibrium as given cylinder at the receiver.
below 87. Which of the following refrigerant characteristics
Thermal equilibrium, change constantly during the cooling cycle?
Mechanical equilibrium, A. pressure and phase
Chemical equilibrium B. temperature and pressure
No phase change. C. phase and flow
83. Two gases A and B with their molecular weights 28 D. flow and pressure
and 44 respectively, expand at constant pressures Ans. B
through the same temperature range. The ratio of Sol. During cooling cycle in refrigerant system
quantity of work done by the two gases (A:B) is temperature and pressure
___________. 88. Moisture in a refrigerant system is removed by
A. 7:11 B. 11:7 ________.
C. 4:11 D. 7:4 A. Driers
Ans. B B. Filter driers
Sol. The work done by gas is inversely proportional C. Desiccants
to its molecular mass. A. only A B. only B
𝑊𝐴 𝑀 44 11 C. only C D. A, B and c
𝑊
= 𝑀𝐵 = 28 = 7
𝑏 𝐴
Ans. B
84. Davis steering gear consists of __________.
Sol. Moisture in a refrigerant system is removed by
A. Sliding pairs B. Turning pairs
filter driers to avoid entry of moisture content in
C. Rolling pairs D. Higher pairs
compressor.
Ans. A
89. The most suitable refrigerant for a commercial ice
Sol. Davis steering system or Davis steering gear is
plant is ________.
the most used power steering system. Almost all
A. Brine B. NH3
cars are installed with the power steering system.
C. Freon D. Air
This is a type of side pivot steering mechanism
Ans. B
which has only sliding pair system.
Sol. NH3 has some excellent property llike,
Penetrating odour, soluble in water.

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Harmless in concentration up to 1/30. A. ineffective refrigeration

Non flammable, explosive. B. high power consumption
Very efficient refrigerant. C. freezing automatic regulating valve
Attacks copper. D. corrosion of whole system
Ammonia has excellent environmental credentials, Ans. C
no ODP and no GWP. Sol. Free water can freeze in ice crystals inside the
90. Fittings in ammonia absorption refrigeration system dispenser and in the evaporator tubes systems that
are made of ________. operate below the freezing point of water. This
A. Cast steel or forgings B. Copper reaction is called freeze-up.
C. Brass D. Aluminium 96. Efficiency of the Carnot engine is given as 80%. If
Ans. A the cycle direction be reversed, what will be the
Sol. Fittings in ammonia absorption refrigeration value of coefficient of performance of reversed
system are made of Cast steel or forgings because it Carnot cycle?
attack other metal and corroded it A. 1.25 B. 0.8
91. Lithium bromide in vapour absorption refrigeration C. 0.5 D. 0.25
system is used as ___________. Ans. D
A. refrigerant 1 1
Sol. 𝐶𝑂𝑃𝐻𝑃 = =
𝑛𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑛𝑜𝑡 0.80
B. cooling substance
𝐶𝑂𝑃𝑅 = 𝐶𝑂𝑃𝐻𝑃 − 1
C. auxiliary refrigerant 1 1
D. absorbent 𝐶𝑂𝑃𝑅 = 0.80 − 1 = 4 = 0.25
Ans. D 97. During sensible cooling process __________.
Sol. Lithium bromide in vapour absorption A. specific humidity remains constant
refrigeration system is used as absorbent. B. specific humidity increases
92. The condenser and evaporator tubes in a Freon C. specific humidity decreases
refrigeration plant are made of ____. D. specific humidity is unpredictable
A. steel B. copper Ans. A
C. brass D. aluminium Sol. Sensible heat is the heat (energy) in the air due
Ans. B to the temperature of the air and the latent heat is
Sol. Feron does not have corrosion effect on copper the heat (energy) in the air due to the moisture of
so the component of Freon refrigeration system is the air. So for sensible cooling no change in
made of copper. moisture content hence specific humidity remain
93. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant.
constant ________. 98. On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines
A. pressure lines B. temperature lines are _________.
C. total heat lines D. entropy lines A. horizontal
Ans. C B. vertical
Sol. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show C. straight inclined sloping downward to the right
constant total heat lines. D. curved
94. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the Ans. C
refrigerant effect to the __________. Sol.
A. Heat of compression
B. Work done by compression
C. Enthalpy increase in compressor
A. only A B. only B
C. only C D. A, B and C
Ans. D
𝐷𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑡
𝐶𝑂𝑃 = 𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑦𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑚
Work input the system include heat of compression,
work done by compression and enthalpy increase in
compression.
95. Moisture in Freon refrigeration system causes
_________.
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In above fig. the wet bulb temperature is shown as
dotted line. Which is straight inclined sloping
downward to the right
99. If air is heated without changing its moisture
content, the dew point will ___________.
A. increase B. decrease
C. remain the same D. unpredictable
Ans. C
Sol. The dew point temperature is the temperature
to which the air must be cooled before dew or frost
begins to form. The dew point temperature is also a
measure of the amount of water vapor in the
current air mass. The higher the dew point, the
more water vapor there is in the air. knowing the
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dew point gives an idea of how moist or dry the air
is.
100. Air is normally dehumidified by __________.
A. injecting water B. passing steam
C. heating D. cooling
Ans. D
Sol. The process in which the air is cooled sensibly
and at the same time the moisture is removed from
it is called as cooling and dehumidification process.
Cooling and dehumidification process is obtained
when the air at the given dry bulb and dew point
(DP) temperature is cooled below the dew point
temperature