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RATIONALE
FROM 1ST SEMESTER 2018-2019
MIDTERMS
ORATIO SAMPLEXIS
OLFU MD 2020
JCR: GIT, HEPATOBILIARY, and PANCREATIC DISORDERS (7/10)
1) Most common cause of ADHESION BOOK: CHAPTER 54 PAGE 1051
intestinal obstruction in Intestinal Obstruction
pregnancy? Ø In one study, adhesive disease leading to small-
bowel obstruction was the second most common
A. Volvulus cause of an acute abdomen in pregnancy following
B. Carcinoma appendicitis-15 versus 30 percent, respectively.
C. Intussusception Ø Approximately half of cases are due to adhesions
D. adhesion from previous pelvic surgery that includes cesarean
delivery.
Another 25 percent of bowel obstruction cases are
caused by volvulus-sigmoid, cecal, or small bowel.
These have been reported in late pregnancy or early
puerperium.
2) Part of pregnancy that THIRD TRIMESTER BOOK PAGE 1052
mostly likely diagnosed It is indisputable that appendiceal perforation is more
with ruptured appendix? common during later pregnancy. In the studies by
Andersson (200 1) and Ueberrueck (2004), the
A. First trimester incidence of perforation was approximately 8, 1 2, and
B. Second trimester 20 percent in successive trimesters.
C. Third trimester
A. D. Postpartum
3) Crohn's Disease:
A. 3-5% risk of cancer
B. Proctocolectomy is
curative
C. Antineutrophil
cytoplasmic
Antibodies
D. Deep layers of small
and large bowel
2) 36 weeks. Blurring of MgSO4, (check out the ratio for the next question ☺)
vision and headache. BP: Antihypertensive
180/100 mmHg. Cervix drugs, immediately do
long, firm, uneffaced. CS
What is the management?
A. MgSO4,
Antihypertensive
drugs,
immediately do CS
B. MgSO4,
Antihypertensive
drugs,
Betamethasone,
induce labor
C. (n/a)
D. Observe, wait for 37
weeks for lung
maturity
6) In women with chronic Magnesium Sulfate For women with chronic hypertension and superimposed
hypertension and preeclampsia with severe features, magnesium sulfate
superimposed for maternal neuroprophylaxis is recommended (American
College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, 2013)
preeclampsia with severe
Leveno, K. J. (2018). Williams Obstetrics, 25th Edition. McGraw-Hill
features, what is the drug Education. Chapter 50, p. 983
of choice for
neuroprophylaxis?
A. Diazepam
B. Sodium Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Magnesium Sulfate
7) A 21 y/o G1P0 with Frequent sonography Women with well-controlled chronic hypertension who have
chronic hypertension and no complicating factors can generally be expected to have a
superimposed good pregnancy outcome. Because even those with mild
hypertension have a greater risk of superimposed
preeclampsia. What will
preeclampsia and fetal-growth restriction, serial
be the plan for antepartum assessment of fetal well-being is
management? recommended by many. That said, according to the
A. BPS and NST American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (2013),
B. Double dose of with the exception of sonographic fetal-growth
vitamins monitoring, described in Chapter 44 (p. 852), no conclusive
C. Frequent data address either benefit or harm associated with various
antepartum surveillance strategies.
sonography
D. None of the Above Leveno, K. J. (2018). Williams Obstetrics, 25th Edition. McGraw-Hill
Education. Chapter 50, p. 982-983
18) Relative
contraindication in
pregnancy, except:
19 Management of Treatment of healthy For most women with mild to moderate hypertension, the
chronic mild to moderate patients with College recommends that treatment be withheld as long as
hypertension: persistent systolic blood pressure is < 160 mmHg and diastolic blood
>150/100mmHg pressure is < 105 mmHg. Some find it reasonable to begin
antihypertensive treatment in otherwise healthy
pregnant women with persistent systolic pressures >
150 mm Hg or diastolic pressures of 95 to 100 mm Hg or
22. Which differentiates A and B During cervical examination with a frank breech, the
face from breech during fetal ischial tuberosities, sacrum and anus are usually
IE? palpable. In some cases, the anus may be mistaken for
a. Breech and ischial the mouth and ischial tuberosities for the malar
tuberosities in same line eminences. With careful examination, however, the
(Anus and ischial finger encounters muscular resistance with the anus,
tuberosities in straight whereas the hard, less yielding jaws are felt through the
line) mouth. The finger, upon removal from the anus may be
b. Mouth and malar stained with meconium. The mouth and malar
eminences form a triangular shape, whereas the ischial
eminence form a triangle
tuberosities and anus lie in a straight line. (p. 540)
c. Mouth is bigger than
anus
d. A and B
23. Which of the following OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS A transverse lie is usually recognized easily, often by
is not a predisposing inspection alone. The abdomen is unusually wide,
factor to transverse lie? whereas the uterine fundus extends to only slightly
a. Oligohydramnios above the umbilicus. The position of the back is readily
b. Preterm fetus identifiable. When the back is anterior, a hard
c. Tumor previa (Placenta resistance plane extends across the front of the
previa) abdomen. When it is posterior, irregular
25. Which of the following FETAL ASSUMES Spontaneous delivery of a fully developed newborn is
scenario is vaginal “CONDUPLICATO impossible with a persistent transverse lie. If the fetus
delivery possible in CORPORE” is small –usually <800g—and the pelvis is large,
preterm transverse lie? ATTITUDE spontaneous delivery is possible despite
a. Fetal shoulder is forced persistence of the abnormal lie. The fetus is
and accommodated in compressed with the head forced against its abdomen.
large pelvis A portion of the thoracic wall below the shoulder thus
b. Fetal assumes becomes the most dependent part, appearing at the
“conduplicato corpore” vulva. The head and the thorax then pass through the
attitude pelvic cavity at the same time. The fetus, which is
doubled upon itself and thus sometimes referred to as
c. One arm prolapses and is
conduplicato corpore, is expelled. (p. 454)
delivered first followed by
the shoulder
d. None of the above
26. 34 weeks PTL, FHT Mentum anterior is deliverable via vaginal delivery
140/min, 5cm dilation, while mentum posterior presentation via cesarean
+BOW, Station -1, delivery. (p. 451)
mentum presentation
a. Emergency CS
b. Wait, VD
c. Manual rotation and
deliver
d. Observe
A. Complete abruption
B. Partial abruption
C. Complete placenta
previa
D. Low lying placenta
A. 15%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 70%
A. unipaternal trisomy
B. (n/a)
C. Translocation
D. A and B
A. Misoprostol
B. Peripartum
Hysterectomy
C. (n/a)
D. (n/a)
A. Vaginal delivery
B. Forceps delivery
C. Cesarean section
delivery
D. Vacuum delivery
56) 43 y/o G5P4 (4002) REPEAT LOW Cesarean hysterectomies are most commonly
with 2 prior CSD with TRANSVERSE CS with performed to arrest or prevent hemorrhage from
placenta accreta HYSTERECTOMY intractable uterine atony or abnormal placentation.
A. Spontaneous vaginal
delivery with
hysterectomy
B. Repeat low
transverse CS with
hysterectomy
C. Repeat low
transverse CS
D. Classic CS
58) What is given to ANTACID Oral antacids are first-line therapy. If severe
minimize lung injury for symptoms persist, sucralfate (Carafate) is given along
gastric aspiration prior with a proton-pump inhibitor, or an H2-receptor
to CS antagonist. Both classes are generally safe in
A. Prophylactic pregnancy.
antibiotic
B. Antacid
C. Increase IV fluid
D. Sedative
60) To prevent atelectasis DEEP BREATHING After transfer to her room, the woman is assessed at
after CS, which of the least hourly for 4 hours, and thereafter at intervals of 4
following should be hours. Deep breathing and coughing are encouraged to
advised? prevent atelectasis.
A. Early ambulation
B. Deep breathing
62) 30 y/o G605 37 weeks LOW LYING Clearly, the classification of some cases obf previa will
AOG. Frequent uterine PLACENTA PREVIA depend on cervical dilation at the time of assessment
contractions, profuse (Dashe, 2013; Reddy, 2014) . For example, a low-lying
vaginal bleeding, placenta at 2-cm dilation may become a partial placenta
placental edge 5cm from previa at 4-cm dilation because the cervix has opened to
internal os expose the placental edge. Conversely, a placenta previa
A. Placental Abruption that appears to be total before cervical dilation may
B. Partial placental become partial at 4-cm dilation because the cervical
abruption opening now extends beyond the edge of the placenta.
C. Complete placenta Digital palpation in an attempt to ascertain these
previa changing relations between the placental edge and
D. Low lying placenta internal os as the cervix dilates usually causes severe
hemorrhage!
previa
64) 38 y/o, 37 weeks AOG. AMNIOTOMY Vaginal delivery is preferred choice of delivery for dead fetus
Frequent uterine except when mother is bleeding profusely. Amniotomy is done
contraction, moderate for better spiral artery compression to diminish implantation
site bleeding.
vaginal bleeding. No FHT.
BP: 160/110mmHg. What
is the next step?
A. Amniotomy
B. Do cesarean
C. Ultrasound
D. Blood transfusion
25. G101 at 35 weeks, ALL of the ABOVE Gestational age, rather than overt diabetes is likely the most
diagnosed with GDM. significant factor associated with RDS.
Neonate stayed in Leveno, K. J. (2018). Williams Obstetrics, 25th Edition.
McGraw-Hill Education. Chapter 57, p. 1102
nursery due to
Respiratory Distress
The increased incidence of the idiopathic respiratory distress
Syndrome. What is/are syndrome (IRDS) in infants of diabetic mothers may be
the probable cause/s of explained by preterm delivery and asphyxia but the
RDS? metabolic derangement per se may also be responsible for the
A. Indicated Preterm inadequate production of surfactant. Experimental studies of
Delivery the underlying mechanisms in the lungs of fetuses of pregnant
B. Delayed Type II diabetic rats have shown a decreased formation of the two
major surfactant phospholipids disaturated phosphatidyl
pneumocyte choline and phosphatidyl glycerol. In addition, the activities of
maturation key enzymes responsible for the production of these
C. Decreased phospholipids are decreased in the fetal lung tissue.
Surfactant Inadequate utilization of pulmonary glycogen for surfactant
production due to biosynthesis has also been observed. Furthermore,
experimental studies support that other changes than fetal
maternal hyperinsulinaemia are needed to produce a state of disturbed
hyperglycemia surfactant production. In human diabetic pregnancy strict
D. AOTA metabolic control allows the fetal lungs to mature in a near-
normal fashion. The presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in the
amniotic fluid seems to be the best available predictor of lung
maturity in diabetic pregnancy, in which both the
lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio and amniotic fluid cytology may
result in false-positive and false-negative values.
86. Significantly B. Obesity Only pre pregnancy body mass index BMI >25 and
associated with nulliparity were significantly associated with
prolonged pregnancy prolonged pregnancy
a. Diabetes
b. Obesity Williams 24th ed p.863
c. Multiparity
d. Smoking
87. True or False False Laursen and associates (2004) found that maternal but
There is evidence that not paternal, genes influence prolonged pregnancy.
paternal not maternal is
associated in post term
pregnancy
SSM: HEMATOLOGIC DISORDERS (7/10)
Case for Nos. 1-5
1-5 G1P0, 16weeka AOG Hgb 10mg/dl asymptomatic
1. Most common Iron Deficiency Normal values for concentrations of many cellular
diagnosis Anemia elements are listed in the [figure] below. The Centers
A. IDA for Disease Control and Prevention (1998) defined
B. Anemia anemia in iron-supplemented women using a cutoff of
C. Megaloblastic the 5th percentile – 11g/dL in the 1st and 3rd trimesters,
D. Hemolytic and 10.5 g/dL in the second trimester.
A. Oral Iron
B. Iron Dextran
C. Erythropoietin
D. Blood Transfusion
7. Iron (Ferrous Sulfate) 30-60 mg Scott and co-workers (1970 established that as little as
daily requirement for 30mg of elemental iron, supplied as Ferrous gluconate,
pregnant women: sulfate, or fumarate, and taken daily throughout the
latter half of pregnancy, provides sufficient iron to
A. 10-20 mg meet pregnancy requirements and protect preexisting
B. 30-60 mg iron stores.
C. 90-120 mg Pregnant women may benefit from 60 to 100mg of
D. 150-180 mg elemental iron per day if:
• she is large,
• has a multifetal gestation,
• begins supplementation late in pregnancy,
• takes iron regularly, or