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PAPERS

1 NDA/NA Exam 2017 (II)

The question paper of this exam,conducted by Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC),had 150 objecttive questions in total,divided into
two parts (A and B). Time alloted to solve the questions was 2:30
hours. The exam had been conducted in offline mode. The exam also
had the provision of negative marking for each wrong answer.

2 SSC CGL (Tier-1) Preliminary Exam 2017

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has conducted this exam in

online mode. The question paper had 100 questions in total,
divided into four parts (General Intelligence and Reasoing,
General Awareness,Quantitative Aptitude and English
Comprehension). Each part had 25 questions. Time allotted to
answer the questions was 60 minutes.

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 Exam Date September 10, 2017

NDA/NA Exam 2017 (II)

General Ability Test (Paper-2) of this exam had 150 questions in total. The maximum marks
were 600 for this exam, for each question for which a wrong answer has been given,
one-third of the marks will be deducted as penalty.

Part A
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Each item in this section 7. The decision of the Union government to
consists of a sentence with an underlined wold/words repeal the Urban Land Ceiling Act has been
followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest welcomed by all.
in meaning to the underlined world/words.
a. suppress b. amend
1. The discussion was wound up after a long fruitful c. cancel d. withhold
exchange of view. 3 (c) ‘Repeal’ means ‘cancel’ (a law or Act of
a. postponed b. cut short Parliament) so they both are synonyms.
c. interrupted d. concluded
8. This is his maiden appearance on the screen.
3 (d) ‘Concluded’ will be the nearest in meaning of ‘ wound a. first b. last
up’ as both means finished or completed. c. girlish d. shy
2. He was fully alive to the need for making 3 (a) ‘Maiden’ means being or involving the first
adjustments. attempt or act of its kind so they both are synonyms.
a. concerned about b. worried about
9. At the end of the marathon everybody was
c. aware of d. indifferent about exhausted.
3 (c) ‘aware of’ will be the nearest in meaning of ‘alive to’, if a. weakened
you are alive to something means you are thinking about it or b. honoured
familiar with it.
c. satisfied
3. The police officer tried to intimidate the witness d. tired
but in vain.
3 (d) ‘exhausted’ means ‘very tired’ so they both are
a. inform b. reward c. frighten d. persuade synonyms.
3 (c) ‘frighten’ is the nearest in meaning word ‘intimidate’ 10. He gave me a counterfeit coin.
as both means ‘to threaten’.
a. rare b. fake
4. We must adopt drastic measures to control c. unmatured d. inferior
population growth. 3 (b) ‘fake’ will be the nearest meaning word of
a. simple b. dramatic c. realistic d. severe ‘counterfeit’ as both means a fraudulent imitation of
3 (d) ‘Severe’ is the nearest in meaning word ‘drastic’ as it some thing else.
means likely to have a strong or extreme effect. Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) Each item in this
5. He is extremely meticulous in his approach. section consists of a sentence with an underlined
word/words followed by four options. Select the
a. simple b. careful c. fair d. reasonable
option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined
3 (b) ‘Careful’ is the nearest in meaning word of word/words.
‘meticulous’ as meticulous means showing great attention
to detail. 11. My mother has been working hard for the
last two weeks and she feels run down.
6. The experts’ minute examination brought to light
a. morbid b. energetic
some important clues.
c. exhausted d. emotional
a. quick b. detailed c. superficial d. prolonged
3 (b) ‘run down’ means tired or exhausted, so
3 (b) ‘detailed’ will be the nearest meaning word of ‘minute’ ‘energetic’ will be its opposite in meaning which means
as both means ‘taking the smallest points into full of energy.
consideration’.
12. The President condemned the Act 15. Most of the decisions taken by the 18. They are confident of success.
of violence during the celebration of officer were unjust. a. imprudent b. impatient
the festival. a. serious b. lenient c. diffident d. reluctant
a. reason b. instigation c. correct d. imbecile 3 (c) ‘Confident’ means feeling of self
c. restraint d. sobriety confidence in oneself, while diffident means
3 (c) ‘Unjust’ means not fair or incorrect so
3 (d) ‘Violence’ means behaviour involving modest or shy because of a lack of self-
correct will be its obvious antonym.
physical force intended to hurt, so ‘sobriety’ confidence.
will be opposite meaning which means the 16. He is a loving father and takes 19. We carried on the search for the
state of being calm and sober. great delight in his children. missing person.
13. The students made a generous a. revolt b. dissatisfaction
a. delayed
contribution to the flood relief fund. c. enjoyment d. disgust b. reconsidered
a. niggard b. selfish 3 (d) ‘delight’ means please (someone) c. broke up
c. spendthrift d. indecent greatly while disgust means a feeling of d. called off
strong disapproval aroused by something
3 (a) ‘generous’ means big-hearted and 3 (d) ‘Carried on’ means to continue an
unpleasant or offensive.
helpful while ‘higgard’ means miser or a activity or task while ‘called of’ means to
mean or ungenerous person, so they both 17. He was quite concerned about his decide to stop something that is already
are opposite in meaning. son’s career. happening so they are antonyms.
14. He was just idle by temperament. a. unrelated b. indifferent 20. This TV has many indigenous
a. employed b. occupied c. dispassionate d. carefree components.
c. industrious d. happy a. Indian b. foreign
3 (b) ‘Concerned’ means worried or
3 (c) ‘idle’ means lazy or unemployed while anxious so ‘indifferent’ will be its antonym, c. unnatural d. genuine
‘industrious’ means diligent and hard which means unconcerned or having no 3 (b) ‘indigenous’ means native so ‘foreign’
working so they both are antonyms. particular interest or sympathy. will be the word opposite in meaning.

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) In the following passage, at certain points you are given a choice of four words marked (a), (b), (c)
and (d), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the four. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b), (c) or (d),
relating to this word.
21. 22.
After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month, I had a. hardly taken a. out
b. barely b. away
c. merely c. off
d. rarely d. on
3 (b) 3 (c)
23. 24. 25.
my clothes when I saw Gangu standing a. by a new baby. He was a. jumping with joy. Even Nanda a. could not have
b. near b. bursting b. would
c. with c. dancing c. should
d. at d. singing d. ought
3 (c) 3 (a) 3 (b)
26. 27. 28. 29.
a. experimented such joy a. at getting Krishna. His face had the same a. light that a. comes
b. shown b. in b. glow b. appears
c. felt c. on c. sense c. rises
d. heard d. into d. hope d. shows
3 (c) 3 (a) 3 (b) 3 (b)
30.
on the face of a a. starved man after a full meal.
b. starving
c. hungry
d. satisfied
3 (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been
jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d).
You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
31. The Spirit of man
has slowly and painfully surmounted and his growing intelligence all the obstacles that have come in his way
P Q R
has faced all kinds of dangers
S
a. Q P S R b. S Q P R c. R P Q S d. P R Q S 3 (b)

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32. After our school boys had won a well-contested hockey match
so that they might communicate the news of their victory to the headmaster who is a keen sportsman
P Q
they come to school in high spirits and takes a very lively interest in school games
R S
a. Q P S R b. S Q P R c. R P Q S d. P R Q S 3 (c)
33. Even a leisurely game like cricket
demanding grace rather than strength and over the rough tactics of the Australian team that visited England in 1921
P Q
as we saw in the controversy over body-line bowling can cause much ill-will
R S
a. P S R Q b. R S P Q c. S R Q P d. Q P R S 3 (c)

34. Scientists point out of sunspot activity that it is an aftermath that has now reached its peak of the eleven-year cycle
P Q R S
a. R S P Q b. P Q S R c. Q R P S d. Q S P R 3 (c)

35. As the ship streams from San Diego as walls of gray water from a distant storm in the North Pacific
P
making the greener among us miserable with sea sickness rock and toss the ship
Q R
those of us aboard have a personal demonstration of powerful ocean movement
S
a. P Q R S b. S R P Q c. S P R Q d. Q S R P 3 (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read
each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and mark your response to corresponding letter i.e., (a),
(b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
36. An electrical circuit is the complete path traversed by electric current. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 (c) electric current will be followed by the article ‘an’ to make the sentence correct and meaningful.
37. He waved us a by-by as he boarded the train which disappeared into the tunnel. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 (a) bye-bye will be the correct expression to use in place of by-by as ‘bye-bye’ is used to express ‘farewell’.
38. There was great deal that had to be scrapped, that must be scrapped;
(a)
but surely India could not have been what she undoubtedly was,
(b)
and could not have continued a cultured existence for thousands of years. No error
(c) (d)
3 (d)
39. With regard to interior decoration, it is the attention given to the less overt aspects of using space
(a)
that give it life, an identity, a quality that makes it exciting and unusual. No error
(b) (c) (d)
3 (b) ‘gives’ will be used in place of ‘given’ as the subject of sentence is singular for which it is used in the sentence.
40. A small parcel of novels is better than none. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words/group of words given
after the sentence. Select the word or group/words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and mark your response
accordingly.
41. He looks as if he .......... weary.
a. is b. was c. would be d. were
3 (a) ‘is’ will be used in the blank because it shows that the speaker doesn’t know the fact, but ‘is’ open to the possibility that the subject
is indeed weary (tired).

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42. My house is insured .......... theft
and fire.
a. for b. against c. in d. towards
3 (b) ‘insure against something’ is phrase
which means to guard or protect against
something.
43. The result of the prolonged
discussion was
a. disappointment b. disappointing
c. disappointed d. to disappoint
3 (b) ‘disappointing’ is the correct word
tobe filled in the blank as it means failing to
fulfil someone’s hopes or expectations.
44. You are lucky .......... in the 20th
century.
a. by being born b. to have been born
c. for being born d. to have born
3 (b) ‘to have been born’ is the correct
phrase to be filled in the blank to make it
meaningful and correct.
45. Sita is true to
a. word b. her words
c. the words d. words
Part B
51. According to the Travel and
Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI)
2017 released by the World Economic
Forum, among the 136 economies
across the world, India ranked
a. 50th b. 40th c. 30th d. 20th
3 (b) India was ranked 40th among the
136 economies across the world in 2017
Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index
(TTCI) released by the World Economic
Forum (WEF). In this edition of index, India
has jumped 12 places from earlier 52nd
position in 2015. But it lagged behind its
other Asian peers like Japan (4th) and
China (13th).
52. Which one of the following is the
theme of the World Health Day, 2017
celebrated by the World Health
Organisation?
a. Diabetes
b. Food safety
c. Depression : Let’s Talk
d. Ageing and Health
3 (c) World Health Day, celebrated on
April 7 every year to mark the anniversary
of the founding of WHO, provides us with a
unique opportunity to mobilise action
around a specific health topic of concern to
people all over the world. The theme of
2017 World Health Day campaign is
depression.
53. Which one of the following
ministries has launched a new
programme on Interdisciplinary
Cyber Physical Systems (ICPS) to
foster and promote R and D?
3 (b) ‘her words’ is the correct expression
to be used in the sentence, as true to one’s
word is a phrase which means keeping
one’s promise.
46. Years .......... since I saw her last.
a. have passed
b. had passed
c. had been passing
d. have been passing
3 (a) ‘have passed’ is the correct form of
Verb to be in the sentence to make it
meaningful as the sentence shows the
effect of past action in present.
47. When he heard the terrible noise
he asked me what was .......... on.
a. happening b. being
c. getting d. going
3 (d) ‘going on’ means happenings so
going will be used in the sentence to make
it meaningful.
48. Could you lend me some money ?
I am very .......... of cash at the
moment.
a. down b. low c. short d. scarce
a. Ministry of Earth Sciences
b. Ministry of Science and Technology
c. Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting
d. Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy
3 (b) Department of Science and
Technology(DST) has launched a new
programme ‘Interdisciplinary Cyber
Physical Systems (ICPS)’ to foster and
promote R&D in this emerging field of
research. A Cyber Physical System (CPS)
is a mechanism controlled or monitored by
computer-based algorithms, tightly
integrated with internet and its users. It is
an engineered system that are build from
and depend upon, the seamless
integration of computational algorithms
and physical components. In general cyber
means computation, communication and
control that are discrete and logical.
Physical means natural and human-made
systems governed by the laws of physics
and operating in continuous time.
54. Consider the following statements
about the Nagara style of temple
architecture :
1. This style of temples are
commonly found in the areas
between Himalayas and Vindhyas.
2. The most striking feature of this
style is its pyramidal shikhara.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2
c. 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
5
3 (c) ‘short of something’ means not
having enough of something so short will
be used to fill in the blank to make it
meaningful.
49. I saw her when she was standing
the side of the old statue.
a. by
b. at
c. in
d. beyond
3 (b) ‘stand at something’ means to stand
infont of something so ‘at’ will be the
correct preposition to be used here to
make the sentence meaningful and correct.
50. True friends never .......... their
loved ones in adversity.
a. abuse
b. criticise
c. befool
d. desert
3 (d) ‘desert’ means leave which fits in the
context of the sentence, so option (d) is the
corrrect choice to fill in the blank.
3 (a) Nagara style is associated with the
land between the Himalayas and Vindhyas.
The Nagara style has its origin in the
structural temples of the Gupta period,
especially the Dashavtara temple of
Deogarh and the brick temple of
Bhitargaon. It is also called the Rekha
Shikhara. In Nagara style temples, the
structure consists of two buildings, the
main shrine taller and an adjoining shorter
mandapa. The main difference between
these two is the shape of the shikhara.
55. Ashoka’s connection with
Buddhism is evident from which one
of the following edicts?
a. Major Rock Edict 13
b. Rock Edict 6
c. Minor Rock Edict 1
d. Pillar Edict 4
3 (*) The first tangible evidence of
Buddhism is represented by the rock and
pillar edicts of Asoka detailing wide
expansion of Buddhism through the
sponsorship of one of the most powerful
kings of Indian history.
56. The Cabinet Mission Plan for
India envisaged a
a. Federation
b. Confederation
c. Unitary from of government
d. Union of States
3 (d) The mission spent some 3 weeks to
discuss with the leaders of various political
parties, but could not arrive at any agreed
solution. So finally it announced its own
recommendations on May 16, 1946. The
Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed
that there shall be a Union of India which
was to be empowered to deal with the
defense, foreign affairs and
communications. The Cabinet Mission
recommended an undivided India and
turned down the Muslim League’s demand
for a separate Pakistan. The Cabinet
Mission restricted the Communal
representation.
57. The creation of the institution of
Lokpal was first recommended by
a. Law Commission
b. Santhanam Committee
c. Shah Commission
d. Administrative Reforms Commission
3 (d) The Administrative Reforms
Commission (ARC) set-up in 1966
recommended the Constitution of a two-tier
machinery of a Lokpal at the Centre, and
Lokayukts in the States. The ARC while
recommending the Constitution of Lokpal
was convinced that such an institution was
justified not only for removing the sense of
injustice from the minds of adversely
affected citizens, but also necessary to
instill public confidence in the efficiency of
administrative machinery.
58. Which one of the following is a
cause of acid rains?
a. Ozone b. Ammonia
c. Sulphur dioxide d. Carbon monoxide
3 (c) Acid rain is caused by a chemical
reaction that begins when compounds like
sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are
released into the air. These substances
can rise very high into the atmosphere,
where they mix and react with water,
oxygen, and other chemicals to form more
acidic pollutants, known as acid rain.
59. The desirable range of pH for
drinking water is
a. 6. 5 to 8. 5 b. 5. 0 to 6. 5
c. 6. 5 to 7.0 d. 7. 0 to 8. 5
3 (c) The pH of pure water is 7. In general,
water with a pH lower than 7 is considered
acidic, and with a pH greater than 7 is
considered basic. The normal range for pH
in surface water systems is 6.5 to 8.5, and
the pH range for groundwater systems is
between 6 to 8.5.
60. Consider the following reaction :
CH 4 + 2O 2 
→ CO 2 + 2H 2 O
Which of the following about the reaction
given above is/are correct?
1. Carbon is oxidised.
2. Hydrogen is oxidised.
3. Hydrogen is reduced.
4. Carbon is reduced.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
a. Only 1 b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4
3 (a) Addition of oxygen or removal of
hydrogen is called oxidation. The
substance in which oxygen is added is
oxidised.
61. Sunrise in eastern Arunachal
Pradesh would be about how many
hours before the sunrise in western
Gujarat?
a. One hour b. Two hours
c. Three hours d. Four hours
3 (b) The latitudinal and longitudinal extent
of the mainland is about 30°. Despite this
fact, the East-West extent appears to be
smaller than the North-South extent. From
Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a
time lag of two hours. Hence, time along
the standard Meridian of India (82 °30′E)
passing through Mirzapur
(in Uttar Pradesh) is taken as the standard
time for the whole country. The latitudinal
extent influences the duration of the day
and night, as one moves from South to
North.
62. Consider the following States of
India in terms of percentage of forest
area in relation to the total area of the
State :
1. Karnataka
2. Odisha
3. Kerala
4. Andhra Pradesh
Which one of the following is the correct
descending order?
a. 1-2-4-3 b. 3-1-2-4
c. 3-2-1-4 d. 2-3-1-4
3 (c) The Indian State of Forest Report
(ISFR) 2015 states that the majority of the
increase in forest cover has been observed
in open forest category mainly outside
forest areas, followed by Very Dense
Forest. While Open Forest area has
increased by 4744 sq km, which is 9.14%
of the geographical area, the area under
Very Dense Forest has increased by 2404
sq km, which is 2.61% of the geographical
area. The States which covers highest
forest cover is Mizoram (88.93%). Andhra
Pradesh covers 15.25%, Karnataka covers
18.99%, Kerala covers 49.50% and Odisha
covers 32.34%.
63. Which one of the following States
in India has the longest coastline?
a. Odisha b. Tamil Nadu
c. Karnataka d. West Bengal
3 (b) The total coastline of India measures
about 7517 km, which is distributed among
nine coastal States and four Union
Territories; and almost entire coast of India
falls within tropics. The nine coastal States
are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka,
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,
Odisha and West Bengal.Gujarat is
strategically located with largest share in
India’s coastline, followed by Andhra
Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
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64. Which one of the following States
in India has the largest area under
forest cover?
a. Maharashtra b. Chhattisgarh
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Andhra Pradesh
3 (c) The maximum increase in forest
cover has been observed in West Bengal
(3810 sq km) followed by Odisha (1444 sq
km) and Kerala (622 sq km). Madhya
Pradesh has the largest forest cover of
77522 sq km in terms of area in the country
followed by Arunachal Pradesh with forest
cover of 67321 sq km.
65. Which one of the following is not
an igneous rock?
a. Gabbro b. Granite
c. Dolomite d. Basalt
3 (c) Igneous rocks are formed from the
solidification of molten rock material. There
are two basic types
Intrusive igneous rocks crystallise below
Earth's surface, and the slow cooling that
occurs there allows large crystals to form.
Examples of intrusive igneous rocks are
diorite, gabbro, granite, pegmatite, and
peridotite.
Extrusive igneous rocks erupt onto the
surface, where they cool quickly to form
small crystals. Some cool so quickly that
they form an amorphous glass. These
rocks include andesite, basalt, obsidian,
pumice, rhyolite, scoria and tuff.
66. The Coriolis effect is the result of
a. Pressure gradient
b. Earth’s axis of inclination
c. Earth’s rotation
d. Earth’s revolution
3 (c) The key to the Coriolis effect lies in
the Earth’s rotation. The Earth rotates faster
at the Equator than it does at the poles.
This is because the Earth is wider at the
Equator. A point on the Equator has farther
to travel in a day. The actual paths of
winds-and of ocean currents, which are
pushed by wind-are partly a result of the
Coriolis effect.
67. Where is Mekong Delta located?
a. Thailand b. Cambodia
c. Myanmar d. Vietnam
3 (d) The Mekong is the region in
South-western Vietnam where the Mekong
river approaches and empties into the sea
through a network of distributaries. The
Mekong delta region encompasses a large
portion of South-western Vietnam of over
40500 sq km (15600 sq mi). The size of the
area covered by water depends on the
season.
68. Which one of the following pairs
of rivers and tributaries is not
correctly matched?
a. Godavari : Indravati
b. Ganga : Penganga
c. Krishna : Bhima
d. Luni : Sukri
3 (b) A seasonal river, it receives much of
the drainage of the South-West slopes of
the Aravalli Range; the Jowai, Sukri, and
Jojari rivers are its main tributaries. The
principal tributaries joining Krishna are the
Ghataprabha river, Malaprabha river, Bhima
river, Tungabhadra river and Musi river.
Most of this basin comprises rolling and
undulating country, except for the western
border, which is formed by an unbroken line
of the Western Ghats. The course of the
Ganges and its tributaries are Major
left-bank tributaries include Gomti (Gumti),
Ghaghara (Gogra), Gandaki (Gandak), and
Kosi (Kusi); major right-bank tributaries
include Yamuna (Jumna), Son, Punpun and
Damodar. Godavari after passing through
the Nizam Sagar. Left Bank Tributaries of
Godavari are Dharna, Penganga,
Wainganga, Wardha, Pranahita (conveying
the combined waters of Penganga, the
Wardha and Wainganga), Pench, Kanhan,
Sabari, Indravati etc. Right Bank Tributaries:
Pravara, Mula, Manjra, Peddavagu,
Maner etc.
69. Consider the following
characteristics of a tropical cyclone :
1. A warm sea temperature of > 26° C
2. High relative humidity of
atmosphere at a height of > 700 m
3. Atmospheric instability
The above mentioned characteristics
are associate with which one of the
following cycles of its development?
a. Formulation and initial stage
b. Modification stage
c. Full maturity d. Decay
3 (c)
70. In the Mesopotamian records,
which one of the following terms was
used for the Indus Valley (Harappans)?
a. Dilmun b. Meluha
c. Magan d. Failaka
3 (b) The Mesopotamian records from
about 2350 BC onwards refer to trade
relations with Meluha, which was the
ancient name given to the Indus region,
and they also speak of two intermediate
stations called ‘Dilmun’ (identified with
Bahrain on the Persian Gulf) and Makan
(Makran Coast).
71. Who among the following is the
Chairman of interdisciplinary
Committee constituted recently by
the government of India to examine
framework for virtual currencies?
a. Secretary, Department of Financial
Services
b. Special Secretary, Department of
Revenue
c. Special Secretary, Department of
Economic Affairs
d. Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of
India
3 (c)
72. SAMPADA scheme is being
implemented by the Ministry of
a. Finance
b. Housing and Urban Affairs
c. Food Processing Industries
d. Earth Sciences
3 (c) The Union Ministry of Food
Processing is going to launch Scheme for
Agro-Marine Produce Processing and
Development of Agro-Processing Clusters
(SAMPADA ) for food processing sector.
The scheme will integrate current and new
schemes aimed at reducing food wastage
and doubling farmers’ income by 2022. It
will help to create infrastructure for linkage
of entire supply chain.
73. The shortest day length that occurs
in the northern hemisphere is on
a. March 21 b. September 23
c. November 22 d. December 22
3 (d) The shortest day and the longest
night of the year in the northern
hemisphere occur during winter solstice
which is usually observed on December 21
or sometimes on December 22 UTC. In
2016 winter solstice is observed on
December 21, exactly at 10:44 UTC. This is
also the day of the longest day and the
shortest night in the southern hemisphere.
74. The Indian Railways have gone in
for qualitative improvements since
independence. Which of the following
have taken place in recent years?
1. Gauge conversion
2. Track electrification
3. Automatic Signals
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 d. All of these
3 (d) Indian railways have an impressive
record of qualitative improvements. The
major areas of qualitative improvement
during the recent years are gauge
conversion, rolling stock, track
electrification, automatic signalling,
introduction of fast trams and amenities
and facilities for rail users.
75. In India, maximum rainfall is
received from
a. Western Disturbances
b. North-East Monsoon
c. South-West Monsoon
d. Retreating Monsoon
3 (c)
76. Which set of the following
biosphere reserves in India is
included in the World Network of
Biosphere Reserves?
a. Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Panchmarhi
and Simlipal
b. Gulf of Mannar, Kanchanjunga,
Nokrek and Seshachalam
7
c. Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and
Panna
d. Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and
Seshachalam
3 (a) Ten of the eighteen biosphere
reserves are a part of the World Network of
Biosphere Reserves, based on the
UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB)
Programme list.
77. Which of the following
statements about magnetite ore of
iron is/are correct?
1. It is known as black ore.
2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure
iron.
3. It possesses magnetic properties.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. Only 1 b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 d. All of these
3 (d) Magnetite in known as black ore. It
contains 60% to 70% of pure iron.
Magnetite (Fe 3 O 4 ) ore possesses
magnetic properties.
78. Which one of the following
vitamins has a role in blood clotting?
a. Vitamin-A b. Vitamin-D
c. Vitamin-E d. Vitamin-K
3 (d) Vitamin-K plays on essential role in
clotting of blood. It act as a cofactor for the
enzyme to bind with calcium ions required
for activation of coagulation factors such
as prothrombin.
79. The term ‘Probiotic’ is applied to
a. organic food b. antacid
c. antibiotic
d. live microbial food supplement
3 (d) The term ‘Probiotic’ is applied to live
microbial food supplement . These are the
live micro-organism which provide health
benefits when consumed.
80. Which one of the following
microbes causes acidification and
curding of milk?
a. Lactic Acid Bacillus
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3 (a) Lactic Acid Bacillus causes
acidification and curdling of milk. If
ferments lactose to lactic acid and other
end products.
81. Who among the following shared
the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with
Francis Crick and James Watson for
their discoveries concerning the
molecular structure of nucleic acids?
a. Erwin Chargaff
b. Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins
c. Rosalind Franklin
d. Phoebus Levene
3 (b) The Nobel Prize in Physiology or
Medicine 1962 was awarded jointly to
Francis Harry Compton Crick, James
Dewey Watson and Maurice Hugh
Frederick Wilkins, for their discoveries
concerning the molecular structure of
nucleic acids and its significance for
information transfer in living material.
82. Water boils at a lower temperature
at high altitudes, because
a. the air pressure is less
b. outside temperature is less
c. latent heat is less
d. None of the above
3 (a) High-altitude cooking is the opposite
of pressure cooking in that the boiling point
of water is lower at higher altitudes due to
the decreased atmospheric pressure. This
may require an increase in cooking times
or temperature and alterations of recipe
ingredients.
83. Concave mirror is used in
headlights of vehicles, because it
a. focuses light from the bulb onto
nearby vehicles
b. sends parallel rays
c. fits well into the shape of the
headlight
d. is cheaper than other mirrors
3 (b) When a lighted bulb is placed at the
focus of concave reflector, then reflector
are used in vehicle headlights to send
parallel rays because it allows light be
focused as single beam and give mirror.
84. If some object is weighed when
submerged in water, what will
happen to its weight compared to its
weight in air?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain exactly the same
d. Increase or decrease cannot be
predicted
3 (b) Weight of object will decrease as
compared to its weight in air. This is
because by Archimedes’ principal, if an
object is immersed in a fluid, it experiences
an apparent loss of weight which is equal
to the weight of fluid displaced.
85. Light year is a measure of
a. time
b. distance
c. total amount of light falling on the
Earth in a year
d. average intensity of light falling on
the Earth in a year
3 (b) The light-year is a unit of length used
to express astronomical distances. It is
about 9.47 quadrillion metres or 5.9 trillion
miles. As defined by the International
Astronomical Union (IAU), a light-year is
the distance that light travels in vacuum in
one Julian year (365.25 days).
86. Which one of the following was
set as a target of average growth of
GDP of India over the plan period
2012-17 by the Approach Paper to the
Twelfth Five Year Plan?
a. 7% b. 8% c. 9% d. 10%
3 (b) 12th Five Year Plan 2012-17 as per
the draft document released by the
Planning Commission aims at a growth
rate of 8%. This is the revised rate as
compared to the initial approach paper.
87. Which one of the following is not
a subject that has been devolved to
the Panchayati Raj Institutions by the
11th Schedule of the Constitution of
India?
a. Non-conventional energy resources
b. Roads
c. Higher education
d. Libraries
3 (c)
88. Who among the following used
the term Industrial Revolution for the
first time in English to describe the
changes that occurred in the British
industrial development between 1760
and 1820?
a. Friedrich Engels
b. Eric Hobsbawm
c. Arnold Toynbee
d. Georges Michelet
3 (c) The term ‘Industrial Revolution’ was
coined by Auguste Blanqui, a French
economist, in 1837 to denote the economic
and social changes arising out of the
transition from industries carried in the
homes with simple instruments, to
industries in factories with power-driven
machinery in Britain, but it came into vogue
when Arnold Toynbee, the great historian,
used it in 1882.
89. Who among the following is the
author of the book ‘The Indian
Struggle, 1920-34’?
a. Maulana Abul Kalam
b. Jayprakash Narayan
c. Subhash Chandra Bose
d. Manabendra Nath Roy
3 (c) The Indian Struggle, (1920–42) is a
two-part book by the Indian nationalist
leader Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose that
covers the 1920–42 history of the Indian
independence movement to end British
imperial rule over India. Banned in India by
the British colonial government, The Indian
Struggle was published in the country only
in 1948 after India became independent.
The book analyses a period of the Indian
independence struggle from the
Non-cooperation and Khilafat movements
of the early 1920s to the Quit India and
Azad Hind movements of the early 1940s.
8
90. Which one of the following about
the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is
not correct?
a. Its centre was Maharashtra.
b. Its main participants were students.
c. It opposed the levy of tariff on imports.
d. It publicly burnt foreign clothes.
3 (d)
91. Which one of the following
associations was founded in London
by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?
a. The Bengal British India Society
b. The East India Association
c. The British Indian Association
d. The Madras Native Association
3 (b) In 1867 Dadabhai Naoroji also
helped to establish the East India
Association, one of the predecessor
organisations of the Indian National
Congress with the aim of putting across
the Indian point of view before the British
public. The association was instrumental in
counter-acting the propaganda by the
Ethnological Society of London which, in its
session in 1866, had tried to prove the
inferiority of the Asians to the Europeans.
92. Mariana Trench is located in the
ocean floor of
a. Southern Atlantic Ocean
b. Western Pacific Ocean
c. Eastern Pacific Ocean
d. Northern Atlantic Ocean
3 (b) The Mariana Trench or Marianas
Trench is the deepest part of the world's
oceans. It is located in the western Pacific
Ocean, an average of 200 km (124 mi) to
the East of the Mariana Islands, in the
Western Pacific East of Philippines.
93. Taklamakan Desert is situated in
a. Western Asia
b. Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa
c. South America
d. Central Asia
3 (d) Takla Makan Desert is a great desert
of Central Asia and one of the largest
sandy deserts in the world. The Takla
Makan occupies the central part of the
Tarim Basin in the Uygur Autonomous
Region of Xinjiang (western China). The
desert area extends about 600 mi (960 km)
from West to East, and it has a maximum
width of some 260 mi (420 km) and a total
area of approximately 123550 sq mi
(320000 sq km).
94. Rudraprayag is situated at the
confluence of rivers Alakananda and
a. Bhagirathi b. Mandakini
c. Nandakini d. Dhauliganga
3 (b) Rudraprayag is a town and a
municipality in Rudraprayag district in the
Indian State of Uttarakhand. Rudraprayag
is one of the Panch Prayag (five
confluences) of Alaknanda river, the point
of confluence of rivers Alaknanda and
Mandakini. Kedarnath, a Hindu holy town is
located 86 km from Rudraprayag.
95. Arrange the following Indian
cities according to their locations
from West to East :
1. Bilaspur 2. Jodhpur
3. Bhopal 4. Ranchi
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
a. 3-2-1-4 b. 2-3-1-4
c. 4-1-2-3 d. 2-1-3-4
3 (b)
96. The Kashmir region receives
additional amount of precipitation
during the winter brought by
a. South-West Monsoon
b. Western Disturbances
c. Retreating Monsoon
d. Temperate Cyclone
3 (b) A western disturbance approaching
India will bring fresh bout of rainfall and
snowfall in the northern part of the country.
This is good news for tourists visiting
Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal
Pradesh where a thick blanket of snow will
greet them. However, due to possibility of
landslides the Jammu-Srinagar highway
can witness disruptions from January 28 to
30. Besides, some high-altitude villages in
Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal
Pradesh may be cut-off due to heavy
snowfall.
97. Which part of India has the
Kalakot tertiary coal field?
a. Brahmaputra river basin of Assam
b. Damodar river basin of Jharkhand
and West Bengal
c. Himalayan mountain region
d. Cardamom hills in Kerala
3 (c) These coal deposits also belong to
the Eocene period with their occurrence in
Punch, Riasi and Udhampur districts.
Important coalfields include Kalakot,
Mohogala, Metka (western Chenab region),
Ladda and Saugar Marg (eastern Chenab
region, Himalayan mountain region). The
coal has low percentage of fixed carbon
and high moisture content. It is highly
friable and pyrites. Recently anthracite coal
has been discovered in the Riasi area of
Jammu, but its mining is economically not
viable.
98. Tendons through which muscles
are connected to bones are tightly
compacted bundles of which one of
the following long fibrous protein?
a. Fibrin b. Collagen
c. Elastin d. Cellulose
3 (b) Tendons are made up of long fibrous
protein called collagen. These are inelastic
fibres of great tensile strength.
99. Which one of the following is 3 (d) Step-up transformer increases voltage
the scientific name of the causal from primary to secondary. Number of turns
in secondary winding is more than that of
organism elephantiasis? primary winding.
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Culex pipiens 104. Which one among the following
c. Wuchereria bancrofiti waves carries the maximum energy per
d. Fasciola hepatica photon?
a. X-rays b. Radio waves
3 (c) Wuchereria bancrofti is a human
c. Light waves d. Microwaves
parasitic roundworm which causes
elephantiasis. It is carried from person to 3 (a) X-rays carry the maximum energy per
person by mosquitoes. photon. Thus, it is used by diagnostic centre
for imaging our teeth and bones.
100. Melanin is the natural pigment
that gives colour to human skin, 105. How much CO 2 is produced on
hair and the iris provides protection heating of 1 kg of carbon?
against 11 3 4 3
a. kg b. kg c. kg d. kg
a. Ultraviolet radiation 3 11 3 4
b. Infrared radiation
3 (a) C + O 2 → CO 2
c. X-ray radiation
12 g of C on heating produces = 44 g of CO 2
d. Short wave radio radiation 12 44
or kg of C produces = kg of CO 2
3 (a) Melanin provides protection 1000 1000
against Ultraviolet radiations. It acts as ∴ 1 kg of C produces
effective absorbent of light and dissipate 44 1000
over 99.9% of absorbed or radiation. = × kg of CO 2
1000 12
101. Which one of the following =
11
kg
statements about a satellite orbiting 3
around the Earth is correct?
106. Zinc is used to protect iron form
a. Satellite is kept in orbit by remote
corrosion because zinc is
control from ground station.
a. more electropositive than iron
b. Satellite is kept in orbit by
b. cheaper than iron
retro-rocket and solar energy keeps
c. a bluish white metal
it moving around the Earth.
d. a good conductor of heat and electricity
c. Satellite requires energy from solar
panels and solid fuels for orbiting. 3 (a) Zinc metal is used to protect iron from
corrosion because zinc is more
d. Satellite does not required any
electropositive than iron. The process of
energy for orbiting.
coating the iron surface by zinc is called
3 (d) Satellite does not requires any galvanisation. Zinc metal present on the
energy for orbiting. It requires energy to surface of iron forms a thin protective layer of
be transferred to its orbit only. basic zinc carbonate due to the reaction
between zinc, oxygen, CO 2 and moisture in
102. Which one of the following air. Since, standard redcuction potential of
statements about energy is correct? zinc is less than iron, hence iron will not
a. Energy can be created as well as undergo corrosion.
destroyed.
107. Which one of the following gases
b. Energy can be created but not is placed second in respect of
destroyed.
abundance in the Earth’s atmosphere?
c. Energy can neither be created nor
a. Oxygen b. Hydrogen
destroyed.
c. Nitrogen d. Carbon dioxide
d. Energy cannot be created but can
be destroyed. 3 (a) In Earth’s atmosphere nitrogen is most
abundant while oxygen is the second most
3 (c) Energy can neither be created nor abundant.
destroyed. This statement is stated in
the first law of thermodynamics which is 108. Which one of the following is a
also known as Law of Conservation of chemical change?
Energy. Energy can only be transferred a. Cutting of hair
from one form to another. b. Graying of hair naturally
103. Step-up transformers are used c. Swelling of resin in water
for d. Cutting of fruit
a. increasing electrical power 3 (b) Cutting of hair, swelling of resin in
b. decreasing electrical power water and cutting of fruit are physical change
c. decreasing voltage as these processes involves only change in
d. increasing voltage size. Graying of hair naturally is an example
of chemical change.
9
109. Which one among the following
chemicals is used as washing soda?
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Calcium bicarbonate
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Sodium bicarbonate
3 (c) Sodium carbonate (Na 2 CO 3 .1OH 2 O)
is used as washing soda.
110. Why is potassium permanganate
used for purifying drinking water?
a. It kills germs
b. It dissolves the impurities
c. It is a reducting agent
d. It is an oxidising agent
3 (d) Potassium permanganate (KMnO 4 )
is a strong oxidising agent and is used for
purifying water and treat stinking wells.
111. Consider the following
movements :
1. Moplah Rebellion
2. Bardoli Satyagraha
3. Champaran Satyagraha
4. Salt Satyagraha
Which one of the following is the correct
chronological order of the above ascending
order?
a. 1-3-4-2 b. 3-1-2-4
c. 2-3-1-4 d. 4-2-1-3
3 (b) The Moplah Rebellion or the Malabar
Rebellion was an extended version of the
Khilafat Movement in Kerala in 1921. The
Bardoli satyagraha of 1928, in the State of
Gujarat, India during the period of the
British Raj, was a major episode of civil
disobedience and revolt in the Indian
Independence movement. The Champaran
Satyagraha of 1916, in the Champaran
district of Bihar, (India) during the period of
the British Raj, was the first Satyagraha
movement inspired by Mohandas Gandhi
and a major revolt in the Indian
Independence movement. The Salt March,
also known as the Dandi March and the
Dandi Satyagraha, was an act of
Non-violent Civil Disobedience in Colonial
India initiated by Mohandas Karamchand
Gandhi to produce salt from the seawater
in the coastal village of Dandi.
112. Which one of the following
travelogues has given an insight on the
reign of Muhammed-bin-Tughlaq?
a. Ibn Battuta’s Rihla
b. Francois Bernier’s Travels in the Mogul
Empire
c. Niccolao Manucci’s Storia do Mogor
d. Tavernier’s Travels in India
3 (a) The important work is left by Ibn
Battuta. Ibn Battuta has discussed his
travels and incursions in contemporary
Islamic world and documented them in
Rihla. He was appointed as Qazi by
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq and was also
appointed ambassador to China. Ibn
Battuta gives details about the later part of
his rule. Portrait of Muhammad-bin-
Tughlaq in Batutta’s words, “his gateway is
never free from a beggar whom he has
relived and never free from a corpse, he
has slain”.
113. Which one of the following was
not a Chishti Sufi saint?
a. Khwaja Moinuddin
b. Baba Fariduddin Gani-i-Shakar
c. Nizamuddin Auliya
d. Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya
3 (d)
114. In April, 2017, India celebrated
100 years of Mahatma Gandhi’s
a. Satyagraha in Kheda
b. Dandi March
c. Satyagraha in Champaran
d. Return from South Africa
3 (c)
115. A rainbow is produced due to
which one of the following
phenomena?
a. Dispersion of light
b. Interference of light
c. Diffraction of light
d. Scattering of light by atmospheric
dust
3 (a) A rainbow is a natural phenomenon
caused by reflection, refraction and
dispersion of light in water droplets after
rain. This results into a spectrum of light
appearing in the sky.
116. Bats detect obstacles in their
path by receiving the reflected
a. Infrasonic waves b. Ultrasonic waves
c. Radio waves d. Microwaves
3 (b) Bats emit ultrasonic waves, when
these wave hit something they reflected
back and received by them, helping them
to navigate in dark also.
117. The statement that ‘heat cannot
flow by itself from a body at a lower
temperature to a body at a higher
temperature’, is known as
a. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. First law of thermodynamics
c. Second law of thermodynamics
d. Third law of thermodynamics
3 (c) It is impossible for a cyclic process to
transfer heat from a body at lower
temperature to one at a higher temperature
without converting some heat to work. This
is the statement of second law of
thermodynamics.
118. Which one of the following
waves does not belong to the category
of the other three?
a. X-rays b. Microwaves
c. Radio waves d. Sound waves
10
3 (d) Sound waves are longitudinal waves
and it requires material medium to
propagate while X-rays. Microwaves and
radiowaves are electromagnetic waves and
they don’t require any material medium to
propagate.
119. Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
a. Human eye is a refracting system
containing a diverging lens.
b. The retina of the human eye contains
millions of light sensitive cells, called
Rods and Cones, which convert the
light into electrical messages.
c. Every image that is focused on the
retina is upside down.
d. We need both eyes to judge the
relative positions of objects
accurately.
3 (a) Human eye is an optical instrument.
It reacts to light to provide a three
dimensional moving image.
120. Which one of the following
statements is not corect?
a. Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected,
refracted or absorbed.
b. Ultrasonic waves are used to detect
the presence of defects like cracks,
porsity, etc. in the internal structure
of common structure materials.
c. Ultrasonic waves can be used for
making holes in very hard materials
like diamond.
d. Ultrasonic waves cannot travel
through vacuum.
3 (a) The statement ‘ultrasonic waves
cannot get reflected, refracted or
absorbed’ is not correct as bats navigate
in dark with the help of reflection of
ultrasonic wave.
121. The principal use of hydrofluoric
acid is
a. in etching glass
b. as a bleaching agent
c. as an extremely strong oxidising agent
d. in the preparation of strong organic
fluorine compounds
3 (a) The principal use of hydrofluoric acid
is in etching glass.
122. The species that has the same
35
number of electrons as Cl is
17
32 34 + 40 + 35
a. S b. S c. Ar d. S 2−
16 16 18 16
3 (c) Number of electrons = Number of
protons = Atomic number.
A
Mass number
X Symbol
Z
Atomic number
35
Cl → Number of electrons = 17.
17
32
S → Number of electrons = 16.
16
34 +
S → Number of electrons = 16 − 1 = 15
16
40 +
Ar → Number of electrons = 18 − 1 = 17
18
35 2 −
S → Number of electrons = 16 + 2 = 18
16
35 40 +
∴ Cl and Ar has the same number of
17 18
electrons.
123. The compound C 6H12O 4 contains
a. 22 atoms per mole
b. twice the mass percent of H as
compared to the mass percent of C
c. six times the mass percent of C as
compared to the mass percent of H
d. thrice the mass percent of H as
compared to the mass percent of O
3 (c) Molar mass of C in C 6 H12 O 4
= 6 × 12 = 72
Molar mass of H in C 6 H12 O 4 = 1 × 12 = 12
∴ Mass percent of C is six times as
compared to the mass percent of H.
124. The proposition ‘equal volumes of
different gases contain equal numbers
of molecules at the same temperature
and pressure’ is known as
a. Avogadro’s hypothesis
b. Gay-Lussac’s hypothesis
c. Planck’s hypothesis
d. Kirchhoff’s theory
3 (b) According to Gay-Lussac’s law ‘the
volume of gas at constant temperature and
pressure is proportional to the number of
moles or molecules of gas present.’
V ∝ n (moles)
∝ n N o (molecules)
125. Which one of the following
statements about the Ilbert Bill is
correct?
a. It proposed that the Indian
magistrates would try Europeans in
criminal cases.
b. It allowed Indians to file criminal
cases against Europeans.
c. It authorised Indian ICS officers to
try Europeans in courts.
d. It was an agitation led by Ilbert in
support of the nationalists.
3 (a) Ilbert Bill was passed during the
viceroyship of Lord Ripon in 1883-84. As
per this bill, Indian magistrate could
preside over the trial of Englishmen,
European and Anglo-Indians. Introduction
of the bill led to intense opposition in Britain
and this growing bitterness led to formation
of Indian National Congress.
126. Who among the following can
attend the meetings of both Houses of
Parliament while not being a member
of either House?
a. The Solicitor General of India
b. The Vice-President of India
c. The Comptroller and Auditor General
of India
d. The Attorney General of India
3 (d) The AGI (Attorney General of India) is
the only person under the Indian system
who can take part in the proceedings of the
Parliament or any parliamentary committee,
but cannot vote. He has the right to speak
and to take part in the proceedings of both
the Houses of Parliament or their joint
sittings and in any committee of the
Parliament of which he may be named a
member, but without the right to vote.
127. Who among the following was
believed to be a leader of the Sanyasis
and Fakirs conspiring against the
British in 1857?
a. Mangal Pandey b. Bahadur Shah II
c. Queen Zeenat Mahal
d. Nana Sahib
3 (b) The Sanyasis and Fakirs revolted
against British from 1763 to 1800 AD due
to the prohibition imposed on their
piligrimage by the East India Company’s
officials. The central leadership comprised
of rebel council headed by emperor
Bahadur Shah Jafar. Though Bahadur
Shah Jafar’s wife Jeenat Mahal tried to
conspire with English, but she was not the
part of central leadership.
128. Who among the following was
the founder of the Avadh Kingdom in
the 18th century?
a. Murshid Quli Khan b. Saadat Khan
c. Alivardi Khan d. Sarfaraz Khan
3 (b) The Nawab of Awadh was the title of
the rulers who governed the State of
Awadh (anglicised as Oudh) in North India
during the 18th and 19th centuries. The
Nawabs of Awadh belonged to a dynasty
of Persian origin from Nishapur (Iran). In
1724, Nawab Saadat Khan established the
Oudh State.
129. Who among the following was
the founder of the Young Bengal
Movement?
a. Henry Vivian Derozio
b. David Hare
c. Dwarkanath Tagore
d. Prasanna Kumar Tagore
3 (a) Young Bengal movement was
launched by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
(1809-31), who had come to Calcutta in
1826 and was appointed in the Hindu
College as a teacher of English literature
and History. Besides this he edited
Hesperus and Calcutta Literary Gazette.
He was connected with India Gazette
as well.
11
130. Which one of the following
statements about the Quit Indian
Movement is not correct?
a. It broke out in August, 1942.
b. Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on
strike for more than three months.
c. Muslim League and Hindu
Mahasabha actively participated in
the movement.
d. Communist Party did not support the
movement.
3 (c) Hindu nationalist parties like the
Hindu Mahasabha openly opposed the call
for the Quit India movement and boycotted
it officially. The Muslim League opposed
the Quit India Movement as it was of the
view that if the British left India in its current
State, Muslims as a minority would be
oppressed by the Hindu majority. The
Communist Party of India was banned at
that time by the British government. In
order to get the ban lifted, as well as to
assist the Soviet Union in its war against
Nazi Germany, it supported the British War
effort, despite support for Quit India by
many industrial workers. In response the
British lifted the ban on the party.
131. Who among the following is the
winner of the Singapore Open
Superseries Badminton Men’s Singles
title 2017?
a. Kidambi Srikanth b. Lin Dan
c. B. Sai Praneeth d. Kento Momota
3 (c) The 2017 Singapore Super Series
was the fourth Super Series tournament of
the 2017 BWF Super Series. The
tournament takes place in Singapore City,
(Singapore) from April 11–16, 2017 with a
total purse of $350000. B. Sai Praneeth
won the Singapore Super Series 2017.
132. Koradi Thermal Power Station is
located in
a. Nagpur b. Raipur
c. Mumbai d. Secunderabad
3 (a)
133. Which one of the following is
the theme of the International Day
for Monuments and Sites (World
Heritage Day) 2017?
a. The Heritage of Sport
b. Cultural Heritage and Sustainable
Tourism
c. Past and Present Heritage
d. Heritage and Science
3 (b)
134. In April, 2017, the USA dropped
MOAB (Massive Ordinance Air Blast
popularly known as the Mother of All
Bombs) in the suspected hideouts of
militants in which one of the
following countries?
a. Iran b. Syria
c. Afghanistan d. Somalia
3 (c) The USA dropped the ‘mother of all d. The centripetal acceleration causes 3 (b) Distance of Earth from Sun = 150
bombs’ , the most powerful conventional the object to slow down. million km, speed of light = 3 × 10 5 km/s
bomb in the American arsenal, on an 150 million km
Islamic State cave complex in Afghanistan. 3 (a) For a uniform circular motion, the Thus time =
sharper the curve and the greater your 3 × 15 km / sec
The strike was the first combat use of what
is formally named the GBU-43/B Massive speed. = 8 m in 20 sec
Ordinance Air Blast. 139. The force acting on a particle of 144. Radioactivity is measured by
135. Intake of which one of the mass m moving along the x-axis is a. GM Counter b. Polarimeter
following food components should be given by F (x) = Ax 2 − Bx. Which one c. Calorimeter d. Colorimeter
minimised by patients having Gouty of the following is the potential
3 (a)
Arthritis due to elevated serum uric energy of the particle?
acid level? x 2
145. The mirrors used as rear-view
a. 2Ax − B b. − (2Ax − 3B)
a. Food fibres b. Nucleic acids 6 mirrors in vehicles are
c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates c. Ax 3 − Bx 2 d. Zero a. concave b. convex
c. cylindrical d. plane
3 (b) Gouty Arthritis is a disease due to 3 (b) U( x ) = −
x
f ( x ) dx + U( x 0 )
defect in purine (a component of nucleic ∫ x0 3 (b) Rear view mirrors are convex mirror
acid) metaboslim that causes an excess of (For one dimension motion) because these mirrors provide a wider
uric acid and its salts (urates). The uric viewing angle than a plane mirror.
x 2  Ax 3 Bx 2 
acid level is raised in the blood. When = − ∫ ( Ax − Bx ) + U( x 0 ) = −  −
cyrstals of uric acid salts (e.g. sodium
0
 3 2  146. Which one of the following
urate) assumulate in the joint, it causes waves is used for detecting forgery in
 2 Ax 3 − 3Bx 2  x2
Gouty Arthritis. Intake of nucleic acids rich =−  = − 6 [2 A z − 3B] currency notes?
food will promote the disease. So, the  6  a. Ultraviolet waves b. Infrared waves
patients of Gouty Arthritis are c. Radio waves d. Microwaves
recommended to take such food that are
low in nucleic acids components. Food 140. The symbol of SI unit of 3 (a) Ultraviolet waves are used for
inductance is H. It stands for detecting forgery in currency notes.
fibres, lipid and carbohydrates rich food
are taken is normal balanced diet. a. Holm b. Halogen c. Henry d. Hertz 147. The majority charge carriers in a
136. Which one of the following 3 (c) H stands for Henry. Here 1 Henry is p-type semiconductor are
statements about microbes is not equal to one kilogram meter squared per a. free electrons
second squared per ampere squared i.e., b. conduction electrons
correct?
∴ 1 H = 1 kgm 2 s −2 A −2 c. ions
a. They are used in sewage treatment
plants. d. holes
141. In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a
b. They are used in industrial fermenters feather of sparrow bird and a mango 3 (d) Silicon and germanium doped with
for the production of beverages. electron deficit impurities are called p-type
are dropped simultaneously from the
semiconductors. When S ior Ge is doped
c. No antibiotic has been obtained from same height. The time taken by them with group 13 elements like B or Al which
any microbe. to reach the bottom is t1 , t2 and t3 contains only 3 valence electrons in the
d. They are used to get many bioactive respectively. In this situation, we will place of fourth electron, a hole is created.
molecules for the treatment of observe that This is called electron hole or electron
diseases. a. t1 > t2 > t3 b. t1 > t3 > t2 vacancy.
3 (c) c. t3 > t1 > t2 d. t1 = t2 = t3 148. The ionisation energy of
137. Golden rice is a hydrogen atom in the ground state is
3 (d) We know that
genetically-modified crop plant where a. 13. 6 Me V b. 13. 6 eV
V = u + gt ,
the incorporated gene is meant for V −u c. 13. 6 Joule d. Zero
biosynthesis of t =
g 3 (b) The ionisation energy of hydrogen
a. Omega-3 fatty acids b. Vitamin-A atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV.
c. Vitamin-B d. Vitamin-C Where V = 0, u and g are same in all the
three conditions. 149. When pure water boils
3 (b)
So, t 1 = t 2 = t 3 (as there is zero air vigorously, the bubbles that rise to
138. An object moves in a circular resistance) the surface are composed primarily of
path with a constant speed. Which 142. Electron emission from a a. air
one of the following statements is metallic surface by application of light b. hydrogen
correct? is knwon as c. hydrogen and oxygen
a. The centripetal acceleration of the d. water vapour
a. Thermionic emission
object is smaller for a gentle curve b. Photoelectric emission 3 (d) When pure water boils, the bubbles
(i.e., curve of larger radius) than that c. High field emission that rise to the surface are composed
for a sharp curve (i.e., curve of primarily of water vapour.
d. Autoelectronic emission
smaller radius).
3 (b)
150. Which compound, when
b. The centripetal acceleration is greater
dissolved in water, conducts
for a gentle curve than that for a 143. How long does light take to electricity and forms a basic solution?
sharp curve. reach the Earth from the Sun? a. HCl b. CH 3 COOH
c. The centripetal acceleration is the a. About 4 minutes b. About 8 minutes
same for both, the gentle and sharp c. CH 3 OH d. NaoH
c. About 24 minutes d. About 24 hours
curves. 3 (d)

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