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1. Which of the following laws is applicable for
the behaviour of a perfect gas?
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charle’s law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. All options are correct
Ans. D C. partly elastic
Sol: perfect gas follow
PV = nRT
Which is come from-
1 is no loss of kinetic energy during collisions.
Boyle’s law-P ∝ V , or P1V1 = P2V2
The volume of a given mass of a gas is
inversely related to the pressure exerted on
it at a given temperature and given number
of moles.
• Charle’s lawV ∝ T , or V1/T1 = V2/T2
The volume (V) of a given mass of a gas, at
constant pressure (Pa), is directly
proportional to its temperature (K).
• Gay-Lussac law-P ∝ T, or P1/T1 = P2/T2
For a given mass and constant volume of an
ideal gas, the pressure exerted on the sides
of its container is directly proportional to its
absolute temperature.
2. According to Dalton’s law, the total pressure
of the mixture of gases is equal to ________.
A. greater of the partial pressures of all
B. average of the partial pressures of all
C. sum of the partial pressures of all
D. sum of the partial pressures of all divided
by average molecular weight
Ans. C A. a temperature of -273.16°C
Sol: In a mixture of non-reacting gases, the total
pressure exerted is equal to the sum of the
partial pressures of the individual gases.
Ptotal = ∑ni=1× Pi or
Ptotal = P1 + P2 + ………..+ Pn
Where P1, P2, P3, ….. Pn represent the partial
pressures of each component
Pi = PtotalYi
Yi is mole fraction of single gas in mixture of
gases
3. A closed system is one in which ____.
A. mass does not cross boundaries of the
system, though energy may do so
B. mass crosses the boundary but not the
energy
C. neither mass nor energy crosses the
boundaries of the system
D. both energy and mass cross the
boundaries of the system
1
Ans. A
Sol: closed heat exchanger is suitable example of
closed system.
4. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the
collisions between the molecules are ____.
A. perfectly elastic B. perfectly inelastic
D. partly inelastic
Ans. A
Sol: Perfectly elastic collisions is define as there
Perfectly elastic collisions occur only if some
part of kinetic energy will not change into
other forms like heat or noise.
5. Superheated vapour behaves _________.
A. exactly as gas
B. as steam
C. as ordinary vapor
D. approximately as gas
Ans. D
Sol: A gas refers to a substance that has a single
defined thermodynamic state at room
temperature whereas a vapor refers to a
substance that is a mixture of two phases at
room temperature, namely gaseous and
liquid phase. But when temperature of
vapour increase than gaseous properties in
vapour increase. Like motion of molecule.
6. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e.,
absolute zero pressure can be attained at
____.
B. a temperature of 0°C
C. a temperature of 273°K
D. a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
Ans. A
Sol: P ∝ T , or P = kT
If P = 0, than T = 0K , or T = -273.16 ℃
7. An open system is one in which ____.
A. mass does not cross boundaries of the
system, though energy may do so
B. neither mass nor energy crosses the
boundaries of the system
C. both energy and mass cross the
boundaries of the system
D. mass crosses the boundary but not the
energy
Ans. C
Sol: boiler is a example of open system in which
heat mass both will cross the boundary
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8. Charge in enthalpy of a system is the heat C. does not enable to determine change in
supplied at entropy
A. constant pressure D. All of these
B. constant temperature Ans. D
C. constant volume Sol: → enables to determine change in internal
D. constant entropy energy of the system
Ans. A ∆U = Q – W
Sol: heat supplied to the system at atmospheric → does not help to predict whether the
pressure is consider as enthalpy because system will or not undergo a change
pressure is 1atm. means it does not give any information
9. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum about spontaneity and the direction of the
through an orifice of large dimension, then process.
such a process is called ______. → first law of thermodynamics not give any
A. free expansion idea about entropy
B. hyperbolic expansion 13. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon ___.
C. adiabatic expansion A. properties of the medium/substance used
D. parabolic expansion B. condition of engine
Ans. A C. working condition
Sol: D. temperature range of operation
Ans. D
T
Sol: η = 1 - Tc
h
Where Tc is the absolute temperature of cold
reservoir, Th TC is the absolute temperature
10. When a gas flows through a very long pipe of of hot reservoir
uniform cross section, the flow If temperature of cold reservoir decrease than
approximately efficiency will increase
A. isentropic B. isobaric Or, if temperature of hot reservoir increase
C. isothermal D. adiabatic than efficiency will increase
Ans. C 14. Steam flow through a nozzle is considered as
Sol: Isothermal flow is a model of compressible __________.
fluid flow whereby the flow remains at the A. constant flow
same temperature while flowing in a conduit. B. isothermal flow
In the model, heat transferred through the C. adiabatic flow
walls of the conduit is offset by frictional D. constant volume flow
heating back into the flow. Ans. C
11. When a liquid boils at constant pressure, the Sol: It is assumption in which, when heat energy
following parameter increases convert into kinetic energy through nozzle
A. temperature than there is no loss of heat energy during
B. heat of vaporization energy conversion from flow through a
C. kinetic energy nozzle
D. entropy 15. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a
Ans. D sign of approaching _________.
Sol: during boiling of liquid, randomness of A. fine weather B. rains
molecule increases hence entropy increase C. storm D. cold wave
12. First law of thermodynamics ________. Ans. C
A. enables to determine change in internal Sol: falling of barometer reading show that air
energy of the system pressure is low
B. does not help to predict whether the And wind flow from higher pressure to lower
system will or not undergo a change pressure and storm is a violent disturbance of
the atmosphere with strong winds

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16. It is proposed to make a direct heat-to-work 19. A petrol engine theoretically operates on
converter out of an elementary system which A. constant pressure cycle
absorbs heat while doing isothermal work B. constant volume cycle
exactly equal to the heat absorbed, thereby C. constant temperature cycle
keeping internal energy constant. Such a D. constant entropy cycle
system is Ans. B
A. not possible B. possible Sol: In theoretical petrol engine heat addition
C. not desirable D. commendable occur at constant volume
Ans. A
Sol: according to question
Work = Qabsorb – Qrej. and
Qrej. = 0
Work = Qabsorb
means heat rejection is zero or efficiency of
heat engine is one which is not possible and
contradict second law of thermodynamics
17. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are 20. Two balls of same material and finish have
A. reversible cycle their diameters in the ratio of 2:1 and both are
B. irreversible cycle heated to same temperature and allowed to
C. quasi-static cycles cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball
D. semi-reversible cycles as compared to smaller one will be in the
Ans. A ratio of
Sol: Stirling cycle has two constant volume and A. 1:1 B. 2:1
two constant temperature processes. This C. 1:2 D. 4:1
cycle resembles the Carnot cycle where the Ans. C
Ericsson cycle contains two constant volume Sol: r1/r2 = 2/1
processes instead of two isentropic processes Density of both ball are same
in the Carnot cycle. M1/volume1
Efficiency of both cycle is same and is equal = M2/volume2
4
M1/ π(2r2)3
to carnot cycle. 3
4
18. Ericsson cycle consists of the following four = M2/3π(r2)3
processes M1 = 8M2
dT 𝜎𝐴
A. two isothermals and two isentropics = 𝑚CpT4
dt
B. two isothermals and two constant dT dT 𝜎𝐴 𝜎𝐴
volumes ( dt )1/( dt )2 = (𝑚CpT4)1/(𝑚CpT4)2
C. two isothermals and two constant = m2A1/m1A2
pressures = m24π(2r2)2/8m24π(r2)2
D. two adiabatics and two constant pressures dT dT
( )1/( )2 = 1/2
Ans. C dt dt
21. A ideal gas at 27°C is heated at constant
Sol: Process 2→3 Isothermal compression
pressure till its volume becomes three times.
Process 3→4 Isobaric heat addition
The temperature of gas then will be
Process 4→1 Isothermal expansion
A. 81°C B. 900°C
Process 1→2 Isobaric heat removal
C. 627°C D. 927°C
Ans. C
Sol: PV = nRT
P1 = P2 and V2 = 3V1
nRT1/V1 = nRT2/V2
300/V1 = T2/3V1
T2 = 900K , or
T2 = 627℃
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22. When two gases suddenly mix up with each • The substance must be present in its solid
other then resultant entropy of the system state
will • The temperature must rise high enough to
A. decrease produce a gas
B. increase
Surface temperature of dry ice is -78.5℃ and
C. remain same
triple point pressure is 5.2 atm
D. may increase or decrease depending upon
While at atmospheric condition temperature
the initial conditions of the gases
is 30℃ and pressure is 1 atm
Ans. B
26. Thermal conductivity of non-metal
Sol: entropy is always increases. resultant entropy
amorphous solids with decrease in
of the system is the sum of the entropies of
temperature _________.
the two gases before mixing.
A. increases
23. Which of the following is not an extensive
B. decreases
property
C. remains constant
A. entropy B. enthalpy
D. may increase or decrease depending on
C. internal energy D. density
temperature
Ans. D
Ans. B
Sol: Extensive property depend on the system size
Sol: movement of particle in amorphous solid
or the amount of material in the system.
increase with increase temperature.
Entropy, Enthalpy, Internal energy increase
Therefore thermal conductivity is also
with increase mass of the system but we
increase with increase temperature and vise-
cannot say that density will increase with
versa.
increase with mass and density is intensive
27. Heat transfer in liquid and gases take place
property.
by _____.
24. Element is defined as the _________.
A. conduction
A. substance which cannot be resolved into
B. convection
simpler form
C. radiation
B. element made up of minute and
D. conduction and convection both
chemically indivisible particles
Ans. B
C. smallest quantity of a substance which
Sol: the movement caused within a fluid by the
can exist by itself in chemically recognized
tendency of hotter and therefore less dense
form
material to rise, and colder, denser material
D. smallest known particle
to sink under the influence of gravity, which
Ans. A
consequently results in transfer of heat. In
Sol: Element is a substance that cannot be broken
convection molecule is move instead of
down into simpler components by any non-
vibration in conduction.
nuclear chemical reaction. An element is
28. Temperature of steam at round 540°C can be
uniquely determined by the number of
measure by __________.
protons in the nuclei of its atoms. The
A. thermometer
number of protons in the nucleus of the atom
B. radiation-pyrometer
of an element is known as the atomic number
C. thermistor
of that element. The number of electrons in
D. thermocouple
the atom of a specific element can vary
Ans. D
25. The process of sublimation is found to occur
Sol: A thermocouple is an electrical device
in the case of
consisting of two dissimilar electrical
A. liquid nitrogen B. solid CO2
conductors forming electrical junctions at
C. solid O2 D. steel
differing temperatures. A thermocouple
Ans. B
produces a temperature-dependent voltage as
Sol: conditions necessary for sublimation-
a result of the thermoelectric effect, and this
• The pressure needs to be lower than the voltage can be interpreted to measure
pressure of the triple point temperature.
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29. The amount of heat flow through a body by 32. The property of a fluid which enables it to
conduction is ______. resist tensile stress is known as
A. directly proportional to the surface area of A. compressibility B. surface tension
the body C. cohesion D. adhesion
B. directly proportional to the temperature
Ans. C
difference on the two faces of the body
C. dependent upon the material of the body Sol: the intermolecular attraction between like-
D. All options are correct molecules.
Ans. D 33. When the flow parameters at any given
Sol: Q/t = KA (T2 – T1)/d instant remain same at every point, then flow
Q/t = amount of heat flow is said to be
A = area A. quasi static B. steady state
d = distance between two area C. laminar D. uniform
T2 and T1 temperature of two surface Ans. D
K depend upon meterial Sol: uniform flow is define as flow in which at
30. Unit of thermal diffusivity is every cross section area velocity will be
A. m2/hr B. m2/hr°C same.
2
C. kcal/m hr D. kcal/m.hr
34. An object having 10 kg mass weights 9.81 kg
Ans. A
on a spring balance. The value of ‘g’ at this
Sol: thermal diffusivity is the thermal
conductivity divided by density and specific place is _______.
heat capacity at constant pressure. A. 10 m/sec2 B. 9.81 m/sec2
Thermal conductivity/ density and specific C. 10.2 m/sec2 D. 9.75 m/sec2
heat capacity Ans. A
= (J/hr×m× 𝐾)/(kg/m3)(J/kg× 𝑘) Sol: in case of spring balance both side value will
= m2/hr be same
31. For forward inclined vanes i.e., vanes having Actual mass × gravity=mass by spring × g’
exit angle greater than 90°, which of the
10×9.81 = 9.81× g’
following curves holds good?
g’ = 10m/sec2
35. The figure below shows four curves A, B, C,
D on a plot of viscous shear stress versus
velocity gradient for three fluids, viz..,
Newtonian, non-Newtonian and ideal; and an
ideal solid. For ideal solid, the curve
applicable is:-

A. Curve A
B. Curve B
C. Curve C
D. All options are correct
Ans. C
Sol:

A. A B. B
C. C D. D
Ans. D
Sol: There is no any velocity gradient between the
layer of solid.

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36. The velocity distribution for flow between Ans. D

two fixed parallel plates _________. Sol: One-dimensional flow: All the flow
A. is constant over the cross-section parameters may be expressed as functions of
B. is zero at the plates and increases linearly time and one space coordinate only. E.g. the
to the midplane flow in a pipe is considered one-dimensional
C. varies parabolically across the section when variations of pressure and velocity
D. is zero in middle and increases linearly occur along the length of the pipe, but any
towards the plates variation over the cross-section is assumed
Ans. C negligible.
Sol: 40. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is
greater than adhesion between fluid and
glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped
glass tube will be
A. higher than the surface of liquid
B. the same as the surface of liquid
C. lower than the surface of liquid
37. Choose the correct relationship D. unpredictable
A. specific gravity = gravity x density Ans. C
B. dynamic viscosity = kinematic viscosity x Sol:
density
C. gravity = specific gravity x density
D. kinematic viscosity = dynamic viscosity x
density
Ans. B
Sol: relation between dynamic and kinematic
viscosity is
v=μ/ρ
v is kinematic viscosity
μ is absolute or dynamic viscosity
ρ is density 41. Reynolds number is significant in ____.
38. Select the wrong statement A. supersonics, as with projectiles and jet
A. Viscosity of a fluid is that property which propulsion
determines the amount if its resistance to a B. full immersion or completely enclosed
shearing force flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles
B. Viscosity is due primarily to interaction etc.
between fluid molecules C. simultaneous motion through two fluids
C. Viscosity of liquids decreases with where there us a surface of discontinuity,
increase in temperature gravity force, and wave making effects, as
D. Viscosity of liquids is appreciably with ship’s hulls.
affected by change in pressure D. All options are correct
Ans. D Ans. B
Sol: the viscosity usually depends on its Sol: Option A is significant of Mach number
composition and temperature. for Option B is significant of Reynolds number
compressible fluids, it depends on Option C is significant of froude number
temperature and varies very slowly with 42. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when
pressure. Reynolds number is _______.
39. A one dimensional flow is one which ____. A. less than 2000
A. is uniform flow B. between 2000 and 4000
B. is steady uniform flow C. more than 4000
C. takes place in straight lines D. less than 1000
D. involves zero transverse component of Ans. C
flow
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Sol: for pipe 47. The motion of a fluid is vortex if each particle
Re < 2000 laminar flow of the fluid moves in a circular path with the
2000 < Re < 4000 transition flow speed which ________.
Re > 4000 turbulent flow A. is constant
43. Two forces act at an angle of 120°. If the B. is directly proportional to distance from
greater force is 50 N and their resultant is center
perpendicular to the smaller force, the C. varies as square of distance from center
smaller force is _____N D. varies inversely as the distance from
A. 20 B. 25 center
C. 30 D. 35 Ans. D
Ans. B Sol: 𝜔 = v/r
Sol: 48. Which of the following represents steady
non-uniform flow?
A. flow through an expanding tube at an
increasing rate
B. flow through an expanding tube at
constant rate
C. flow through a long pipe at decreasing
rate
Fs/sin150 = Fg/sin90 D. flow through a long pipe at a constant rate
Fs = 25 N Ans. B
44. In laminar flow through a round tube, the Sol: steady flow is define as flow at any cross
discharge varies ________. section is constant with respect to time and
A. linearly as the viscosity non-uniform flow is define as flow which is
B. inversely as the pressure drop vary one cross section to another cross
C. as the cube of the diameter section.
D. inversely as the viscosity In statement constant rate and expanding
Ans. D tube give an idea about steady flow and non-
Sol: discharge is proportional to velocity and uniform respectly.
velocity is decreases with increases with 49. If the particles of a fluid attain such velocities
viscosity means velocity is inversely that velocities vary from point to point in
proportional to viscosity and also discharge. magnitude and direction, as well as from
45. For frictionless fluid, the contraction instant to instant, the flow is said to be
coefficient for Borda’s mouthpiece is ________.
A. 1 B. 0.5 A. disturbed flow B. turbulent flow
C. 0 D. 0.97 C. turbid flow D. non-uniform flow
Ans. D Ans. B
Sol: the contraction coefficient for Borda’s Sol: flow of a fluid in which its velocity at any
mouthpiece is depend upon practical point varies rapidly in an irregular manner.
experiment and it is always less than one.
46. Bernoulli’s theorem deals with the
conservation of
A. mass B. force
C. momentum D. energy 50. The discharge of broad crested weir is
Ans. D maximum if the head of water on the
Sol: Bernoulli’s theorem is base on conservation downstream side of weir as compared to the
of energy in which if non-compressible and head on the upstream side of the weir is
non-viscous fluid is flowing than sum of _________.
pressure energy , kinetic energy and potential A. one-half B. one-third
energy will be constant at any point in the C. two-third D. three-fourth
flow. Ans. C
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Sol: formula for discharge of broad crested weir Ans. B

is- Sol:
Q = Cd× 𝐿√2g ×( Hh2-h3)0.5
Q is maximum if Hh2-h3 is maximum
d(Hh2-h3)/dh =0
h = (2/3)H
51. Any fluid flow follows _______.
A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. Newton’s law of viscosity
C. Darcy’s equation
D. continuity equation
Ans. D
Sol: → The simple form of Bernoulli's equation is 54. Drag is defined as the force component
valid for incompressible flows. exerted on an immersed object, the
→ Newtonian fluid is a fluid in which the component acting in direction is ____.
viscous stresses arising from its flow, at A. normal to flow direction
every point, are linearly proportional to the B. parallel to flow direction
local strain rate—the rate of change of its C. at resultant angle
deformation over time. D. radial to flow direction
→Darcy's law is an equation that describes Ans. B
the flow of a fluid through a porous medium. Sol: Drag is a force acting opposite to the relative
→ continuity equation is applicable for all motion of any object moving with respect to
type of flow that is product of area and a surrounding fluid.
velocity at any cross section of flow is
constant.
52. A fluid flow taking place continuously round
a curved path about a fixed axis of rotation,
is known as _________.
A. rotational flow B. radial flow 55. According to Darcy’s formula, loss of head
C. circular flow D. vortex flow due to friction in the pipe is
Ans. D Where f = Darcy’s coefficient
Sol: l = length of pipe
v = velocity of liquid flow
d = diameter of pipe
A. 4flv2/2gd B. flv2/gd
C. 2flv2/gd D. 4flv/gd
Ans. A
Sol: in case of flow through pipe head loss due to
friction is hs
P1/𝜌𝑔 + 𝑉12 /2g + Z1 = P2/𝜌𝑔 + 𝑉22 /2g + Z2 + hf
And, hf = 4flv2/2gd
56. Hydraulic gradient is equal to
A. (difference in water surface)/(total length
of channel)
53. Vertical distribution of velocity in an open B. (head loss due to friction)/(total length of
channel for laminar flow can be assumed as channel)
_________. C. (wetted perimeter)/(total length of
A. logarithmic channel)
B. parabolic D. (area od cross-section)/(total length of
C. straight line (constant) channel)
D. hyperbolic Ans. B
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Sol: The hydraulic gradient is a vector 61. In the case of an elastic bar fixed at upper and
gradient between two or more hydraulic head loaded by a falling weight at lower end, the
measurements over the length of the flow shock load produced can be decreased by
path. A. decreasing the cross-section area of bar
Hydraulic gradient = dh/dl B. increasing the cross-section area of bar
= (h2 – h1)/length of channel C. remain unaffected with cross-section area
h2 and h1 is hydraulic head at two point D. would depend upon other factors
57. A liquid jet from a nozzle exposed to Ans. A
atmosphere traverses along _____. Sol: load = weight/ area
A. a straight line B. a circular path Load will be decrease if area increase
62. For a long and narrow cross section (i.e., ratio
C. an elliptical path D. parabolic path
of b/t, breadth b and thickness t above 10) bar
Ans. D subjected to torsion T, the value of maximum
Sol: In this case jet follow projectile motion shear stress will be
which is parabolic. A. T/bt2 B. T/(4bt2)
58. Which of the following represents unsteady C. 2T/bt 2
D. None of these
uniform flow ___________. Ans. D
A. flow through an expanding tube at an Sol: 𝜏 = T/z
increasing rate z is section modulus and z= bt2/(3+1.8× 𝑏)
𝑡
B. flow through an expanding tube at
constant rate z = bt2/3 (approx. equal)
𝜏 = 3T/bt2
C. flow through a long pipe at decreasing
63. Guest’s theory of failure is applicable for
rate
following of materials
D. flow through a long pipe at constant rate
A. brittle B. ductile
Ans. C C. elastic D. plastic
Sol: flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate Ans. B
means velocity at any cross section is Sol: failure will occur in a material if the
decreases with time. maximum shear stress at a point due to a
59. Turbulent flow generally occurs for cases given set of load exceeds the maximum shear
involving _______. stress induced due to a uniaxial load at the
A. very slow motions yield point. Yielding is a starting point of
B. very viscous fluids ductility.
C. very narrow passages 64. If a load W is applied instantaneously on a
D. None of the these bar of cross section A, then the stress induced
Ans. D in the bar in worst case will be
Sol: very slow motions, very viscous fluids and A. W/A
very narrow passages are the case of laminar B. W/2A
flow. C. 2W/A
For Turbulent flow high velocity and less D. (2W/A) x (a factor greater than unity)
viscous fluid required. Ans. C
60. Bernoulli’s theorem is applicable for Sol: sudden applied force on a body is always
equal to the 2 times of a gradually increases
A. streamline flow
force of same value.
B. steady flow
65. The output of a diesel engine can be
C. turbulent flow increased without increasing the engine
D. perfect incompressible fluid flowing in revolution or size in following way.
continuous streams A. by feeding more fuel
Ans. D B. by increasing flywheel size
Sol: Bernoulli’s theorem is applicable for ideal C. by heating incoming air
fluid flow. In which non-compressible and D. by supercharging
non viscous fluid is used. Ans. D
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Sol: supercharging is a process to increases the 70. In skew bevel gears, the axes _________.
mass of fresh air (or density) in diesel engine A. are non-parallel and non-intersecting, and
to burn fuel in proper way to produced more the teeth are curved
amount of work from same input. B. are non-parallel and non-intersecting and
66. Resilience of a bolt may be increased by teeth are straight
A. increasing its length C. intersect, and the teeth are curved and
B. increasing its shank diameter oblique
C. increasing diameter of threaded portion D. intersect, and the teeth are curved and can
D. increasing head size be ground
Ans. B
Ans. A
Sol:
Sol: Resilience is define as strain energy per unit
volume. If length increase compare to
diameter, stress increases therefore resilience
increase.
67. As pump speed increases, its NPSH (net
positive suction head) requirement ____.
A. increases B. decreases
C. remains same D. unpredictable
Ans. A
Sol: NPSH = (ps / ρg + vs2 / 2 g ) - pv / ρg 71. Strain is defined as the ratio of _____.
if pump speed increase (vs2 / 2 g) term A. change in volume to original volume
increases therefore NPSH increases. B. change in length to original length
C. change in cross sectional area to original
68. Wire ropes are used for applications
cross-sectional area
experiencing ____.
D. All options are correct
A. low speeds and low tension
Ans. D
B. low speeds and high tension Sol: → change in volume to original volume is
C. high speeds and low tension called volumetric strain.
D. high speed and high tension → change in length to original length is
Ans. B called longitudinal strain.
Sol: low speed due to fatigue and high tension → change in cross sectional area to original
because elastic limit is more. cross-sectional area is called lateral strain.
69. The part of the tooth between the pitch circle 72. The unit of Young’s modulus is ______.
and dedendum circle is called ____. A. mm/mm B. kg/cm
A. half tooth B. flank C. kg D. Kg/cm2
C. face D. upper tooth Ans. D
Ans. B Sol: E = stress/strain
Sol: The part of the tooth between the pitch circle Strain is dimensionless and unit of stress is
and dedendum circle is called flank kilogram-force per square centimetre.
73. The materials having same elastic properties
in all directions are called:-
A. ideal materials
B. uniform materials
C. isotropic material
D. practical materials
Ans. C
Sol: Isotropic Material is defined as if its
mechanical and thermal properties are the
same in all directions.

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74. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel Ans. D

compared to ultimate compressive stress is Sol: above all option value of elastic limit is more
__________. in steel.
A. same 79. The total elongation produced in a bar of
B. more uniform section hanging vertically
C. less downwards due to its own weight is equal to
D. more or less depending on the other that produced by a weight
factors A. of same magnitude as that of bar and
Ans. B applied at the lower end
Sol: ultimate tensile stress of mild steel is of the B. half the weight of bar applied at the lower
order of 840Mpa. end
Ultimate compressive stress of mild steel is C. half of the square of weight of bar applied
of the the order of 180Mpa. at the lower end
75. The Young’s modulus of a wire is defined as D. one-fourth of weight of bar applied at the
the stress which will increase the length of lower end
wire compared to its original length:-
Ans. B
A. half B. same amount
C. double D. one-fourth Sol: ∆L = WL/2E
Ans. B (elongation due to self weight)
Sol: same amount because Young’s modulus is 80. The property of a material which allows it to
fixed for material. be drawn into a smaller section is called:-
76. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm2 A. plasticity B. ductility
cross-section, maximum load observed was 8 C. elasticity D. malleability
tonnes and area of cross-section at neck was Ans. B
0.5 cm2. Ultimate tensile strength of Sol: Ductility is a physical property of a material
specimen is associated with the ability to be hammered
A. 4 tonnes/cm2 B. 8 tonnes/cm2 thin or stretched into wire without breaking.
2
C. 16 tonnes/cm D. 22 tonnes/cm2 81. Joggled welded joints are used ___.
Ans. B A. where longitudinal shear is present
Sol: Ultimate tensile strength is engineering stress B. where sever loading is encountered and
therefore area will be 1cm2 the upper surface of both pieces must be in
Ultimate tensile strength = 8 tonnes/1cm2 the same plane
77. Which is the false statement about stress- C. to join two pieces of metal in the same
strain method? manner as rivet joint metals
A. It does not exist
D. there is nothing called Jogged welded
B. It is more sensitive to changes in both
joint
metallurgical and mechanical conditions
Ans. B
C. It gives a more accurate picture of the
ductility Sol: joggled welded joints are similar to butt
D. It can be correlated with stress-strain joints
values in other tests like torsion, impact,
combined stress tests etc.,
Ans. A
Sol: Stress–strain analysis is an engineering 82. Plain and butt welds may be used on
discipline that uses many methods to materials upto approximately:-
determine the stresses and strains in materials A. 25 mm thick B. 40 mm thick
and structures subjected to forces. C. 50 mm thick D. 70 mm thick
78. Which of the following materials is most Ans. A
elastic? Sol: if thickness increase extra support is needed
A. rubber B. plastic in case of butt joint.
C. brass D. steel

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83. In arc welding, arc is created between the
electrode and work by:-
A. flow of current
B. voltage
C. material characteristics
D. contact resistance
Ans. D
Sol: if resistance will be less than welding will not
be proper.
84. Plug weld joint is used _________.
A. where longitudinal shear is present
B. where severe loading is encountered and
the upper surfaces of both pieces must be in
the same plane
C. to join two pieces of metal in the same
manner as rivet joint metals
D. there is nothing like plug weld joint
Ans. C
Sol:
85. The type of riveted joint shown in the figure
below is ________.
A. Double riveted lap joint
B. Double riveted butt joint
C. Quadruple riveted lap joint
D. Quadruple riveted butt joint
Ans. B
Soln:
Butt joint The two members to be connected
are placed end to end. Additional plate/plates
provided on either one or both sides, called
cover plates.
If the cover plates are provided on both the
sides of main plates it is called a double cover
butt joint.
86. The main advantage of shell moulding is
that:-
A. a metallic pattern is used
B. the moulds are stronger
C. thin sections can be easily obtained
D. highly complex sections can be easily
obtained
Ans. C
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Sol: thin sections can be easily obtained because
there is no need to remove pattern
87. Strength and permeability of served sand are
related to:-
A. grain size B. clay-content
C. hardness D. moisture content
Ans. D
Sol: →strength is increase with moisture content
→ The moulding sand must be sufficiently
porous to allow the dissolved gases, which
are evolved when the metal freezes or
moisture present or generated within the
moulds to be removed freely when the
moulds are poured. This property of sand is
called porosity or permeability.
88. For grinding operation in which heat
generation must be kept minimum, the
following bond of wheel must be used:-
A. resinoid rubber B. silicate
C. vitrified D. shellac
Ans. B
Sol: Silicate bond releases the abrasive grains
more readily than vitrified bond. Silicate
bonded wheels are well suited for grinding
where heat must be kept to a minimum, such
as grinding edged cutting tools. It is not
suited for heavy-duty grinding. Thin cutoff
wheels are sometimes made with a shellac
bond because it provides fast cool cutting
89. The grit size of the abrasives used in the
grinding wheel is usually specified by the:-
A. hardness number
B. size of the wheel
C. softness or hardness of the abrasive
D. mesh number
Ans. D
Sol: Mesh size is the mesh number and its
relationship to the size of the openings in the
mesh and thus the size of particles that can
pass through these openings.
90. Which abrasive particle would you choose
for grinding tungsten carbide tool inserts?
A. silicon carbide
B. aluminium oxide
C. diamond
D. cubic boron carbide
Ans. C
Sol: tools can be nearly as hard as conventional
abrasives, therefore grinding of tools is done
by super abrasives like diamond and CBN
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91. Free acids in diesel oil for diesel engine lead 94. In hydrostatic bearing, pressure to lubricant
to __________. is supplied by:-
A. production of highly corrosive gases A. external source
corroding the cylinder walls and exhaust B. partially external and partially from
system rotation of journal
C. not supplied by external source
B. excessive engine wear
D. shaft driven pump
C. damaging of both the storage tank and the Ans. A
engine Sol: A hydrostatic bearing employs a positive
D. deposition on engine parts pressure supply that maintains clearance
Ans. C between the rotating and stationary elements.
Sol: free acid is the acidic form of a substance in With a hydrostatically-lubricated bearing, the
which all acidic groups are fully protonated. lubrication is introduced under pressure
between the moving surfaces.
92. Secondary forces in reciprocating mass on The load support is a function of the pressure
engine frame are:- drop across the bearing and the area of fluid
A. of same frequency as of primary forces pressure action.
B. twice the frequency as of primary forces 95. Purpose of using differential gear in
C. four times the frequency as of primary automobile is to:-
forces A. control speed
B. avoid jerks
D. half the frequency as of primary forces C. help in turning
Ans. B D. obtain rear movement
Soln: Ans. C
primary force: reaches its maximum value Sol: Differential gear provide different speed on
of mrω2 twice per revolution but secondary both wheel at time of turning.
force. It reaches its maximum value of mrω2 96. In the figure given below a weight of 20 kg
four times per revolution. is suspended at one end of cord and a weight
93. Partial balancing in locomotives results in:- of 30 kg is suspended at other end of cord
A. hammer blow, variation of tractive effort, passing over a pulley. Neglecting the weight
swaying couple of rope and pulley, tension in cord will be:-
B. least wear
C. most smooth operation
D. better performance of engine
Ans. A
Soln: for partial balancing ,
1:Variation of Tractive force The resultant
unbalanced force due to the cylinders, along A. 30 N B. 20 N
the line of stroke, is known as tractive C. 10 N D. None of these
force. Ans. D
2: The couple has swaying effect about a Sol: for 30 kg
vertical axis, and tends to sway the engine ma = mg – T
alternately in clock wise and anticlockwise 30a = 294.3 – T -A
directions. Hence the couple is known as for 20 kg
swaying couple 20a = T – 196.2
3: The maximum magnitude of the T = 20a + 196.2
unbalanced force along the perpendicular to Put in equation A
the line of stroke is known as Hammer 50a = 294.3 – 196.2
blow. a = 1.962 put in equation A
T = 235.44 N
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97. Isothermal compression though most x = 8cm

efficient, but is not practicable because 99. Which of the following is the unit of
A. it requires a very big cylinder energy?
B. it does not increase pressure much A. Joule B. N-m
C. it is impossible in practice C. Electron volt D. All of these
D. compressor has to run at very slow Ans. D
speed to achieve it Sol: 1N-m = Joule
Ans. D 1eV = 1.6×10-19 Joule
Sol: Isothermal compression is a reversible 100. When a body slides down an inclined
processes. surface, the acceleration (f) of the body is
98. A body weighing 1000 kg falls 8 cm and given by:-
strikes a 500 kg/cm spring. The A. f = g B. f = g sin 𝜃
deformation of spring will be ____cm. C. f = g cos 𝜃 D. f = g tan 𝜃
A. 8 B. 4 Ans. B
C. 16 D. 2 Sol:
Ans. A
Sol: Potential energy of weight is equal to
spring energy after strike
1
mgh = 2Kx2
1
1000×980×(8+x) = 2 ×(500×980)x2
4(8+x) = x2
x2 – 4x – 32 = 0

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