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Purine synthesis:
4
5
Pyrimidine Synthesis:
7
Protein Function
DNA ligase Seals the single strand nick between the nascent
chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand
PROCESS ENZYME
Gluconeogenesis Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
Other Plots
Name Remarks
Eadie Hofstee plot vi versus vi/[S]
Hanes-Woolf plot [S]/vi versus [S]
Hills equation Enzymes with cooperative binding
Dixon plot Determining inhibition constants.
To evaluate the comparative potency of competitive inhibitors.
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Irreversible Inhibitors:
Three types:
• Group specific reagents. E.g. DIPF, acts on chymotrypsin and acetylcholinesterase
• Reactive substrate analogs (also called affinity labels). E.g. TPCK, acts on
chymotrypsin; 3-bromoacetol phosphate, acts on triose phosphate isomerase (TPI)
Seperation of proteins
i. On the basis of solubility: Precipitation by heavy metals, salting out: globulins are
precipitated at half saturation while albumin is precipitated at full saturation with NH4Cl.
ii. On the basis of molecular size:
a. Dialysis
b. Gel filtration chromatography
c. Ultra centrifugation
iii. On the basis of molecular charge:
a. Ion exchange chromatography
b. HPLC
c. Electrophoresis
d. PAGE: seperation is based on sieving effects plus electrophoretic mobility
e. SDS-PAGE:
i. Sodium dodecyl sulphate is a strong detergent
ii. SDS imparts large negative charge to the protein
iii. Proteins are denatured
iv. Denatured proteins assume rod like shape
v. Proteins have similar shapes and charge to mass ratio
vi. Seperation takes place on the basis of molecular mass
f. Isoelectric focussing
iv. On the basis of affinity binding:
a. Affinity chromatography
b. Precipitation by antibodies
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Collagen:
Urea Cycle:
15
Serum levels of alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) are
usually markedly elevated in hepatitis, whereas serum levels of alkaline phosphatase are
elevated in obstructive liver disease.
18
Distribution of Glycosaminoglycans
GAG Sugars Location
Hyaluronic Acid GIcNAc, D-glucuronic Synovial fluid, vitreous humor, loose connective tissue
acid (GlcUA)
Chondroitin Sulphate GaINAc, GlcUA Cartilage, bone, cornea
Keratan Sulphate I GlcNAc, Gal Cornea
Keratan Sulphate II GlcNAc, Gal Loose connective tissue
Heparin D-glucosamine (GlcN), Mast cells
L-iduronic acid (IdUA)
Heparan sulfate GlcN, GlcUA Skin fibroblasts, aortic wall
Dermatan sulfate GalNAc, IdUA, (GlcUA) Wide distribution
MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES
Name Alternative Enzymatic Defect Urinary Metabolites
Designation
Hurler, Scheie, MPS I-H, I-S, α-L-Iduronidase Dermatan sulfate, heparan
Hurler-Scheie I-HS sulfate
Hunter MPS II Iduronate sulfatase Dermatan sulfate, heparan
sulfate
Sanfilippo A MPS III-A Heparan sulfate N-sulfatase Heparan sulfate
(sulfamidase)
Sanfilippo B MPS III-B α-N-Acetylglucosaminidase Heparan sulfate
Sanfilippo C MPS III-C α-Glucosaminide N- Heparan sulfate
acetyltransferase
Sanfilippo D MPS III-D N-Acetylglucosamine 6-sulfatase Heparan sulfate
Morquio A MPS IV-A Galactosamine 6-sulfatase Keratan sulfate,
chondroitin 6-sulfate
Morquio B MPS IV-B β-Galactosidase Keratan sulfate
Fibroblasts, leukocytes, tissues, amniotic fluid cells, or serum can be used for the assay of many
of the above enzymes.
Clinical findings include cloudy corneas, mental retardation, stiff joints, cardiac abnormalities,
hepatosplenomegaly, and short stature.
The term MPS V is no longer used.
The existence of MPS VIII (suspected glucosamine 6-sulfatase deficiency) has not been
confirmed.
At least one case of hyaluronidase deficiency (MPS IX) has been reported.
Glycolysis:
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Rapoport-Luebering shunt:
23
Glycogen Metabolism:
26
Inhibitors of ETC:
Complex I:
Pericidin A
Amobarbital
Amytal
Rotenone
Secobarbital
Chlorpromazine
Guanethidine
Demerol
Complex II:
Malonate
Carboxin
TTFA (2-Thenoyltrifluoroacetone)
Complex III:
BAL
Antimycin A
Phenformin
Complex IV:
Hydrogen sulphide
Carbon monoxide
Cyanide
Azide
Complex V (ATP synthase complex):
Inhibitors of Fo:
Oligomycin
DCCD (Dicyclohexylcarbodiimide)
Venturicidin (also known as Aabomycin)
Inhibitors of F1:
Tentoxin
Efrapeptin
Inhibitors of ATP-ADP translocase:
Atractyloside
Uncouplers:
Exogenous
2,4-Dinitrophenol
Dicumarol
FCCP (carbonyl cyanide-p-trifluorocarbonyl-cyanide methoxyphenyl hydrazone)
Endogenous:
via UCP-1
Thermogenin
Via UCP-3
Thyroxine
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Leptin
Via UCP-4
Essential fatty acid deficiency
Purine nucleotides
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Classification of lipids:
1. SIMPLE LIPIDS: Esters of fatty acids with various alcohols.
a. Fats: Esters of fatty acids with glycerol. Oils are fats in the liquid state.
b. Waxes: Esters of fatty acids with higher molecular weight monohydric alcohols.
2. COMPLEX LIPIDS: Esters of fatty acids containing groups in addition to an alcohol and a fatty
acid.
a. Phospholipids: Lipids containing, in addition to fatty acids and an alcohol, a phosphoric
acid residue. Phospholipids may be regarded as derivatives of phosphatidic acid, in
which the phosphate is esterified with the —OH of a suitable alcohol.
i. Glycerophospholipids: The alcohol is glycerol, examples include:
Phosphatidylcholines (Lecithins):
a. The most abundant phospholipids of the cell membrane.
b. Dipalmitoyl lecithin is a very effective surface-active agent and
a major constituent of the surfactant preventing adherence, due
to surface tension, of the inner surfaces of the lungs. Its absence
from the lungs of premature infants causes respiratory distress
syndrome.
Phosphatidylethanolamine (cephalin):
a. Ethanolamine replaces choline.
b. Also found in cell membranes.
Phosphatidylserine:
a. Also found in cell membranes.
b. Plays a role in apoptosis (programmed cell death).
Phosphatidylinositol:
a. The inositol is present as the stereoisomer, myoinositol.
b. Is a precursor of second messengers.
c. Phosphatidylinositol 4, 5-bisphosphate upon stimulation by a
suitable hormone agonist, is cleaved into diacylglycerol and
inositol tris-phosphate, both of which act as internal signals or
second messengers.
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Cardiolipin:
a. Phosphatidic acid + Phosphatidic acid + Glycerol
(diphosphatidylglycerol).
b. Found only in mitochondria and is essential for the
mitochondrial function.
c. Decreased cardiolipin levels or alterations in its structure or
metabolism cause mitochondrial dysfunction in conditions
including:
i. Aging
ii. Heart failure
iii. Hypothyroidism
iv. Barth syndrome (cardioskeletal myopathy).
Lysophospholipids:
a. Phosphoacylglycerols containing only one acyl radical, for
example, lysophosphatidylcholine (lysolecithin).
b. Found in oxidized lipoproteins and has been implicated in some
of their effects in promoting atherosclerosis.
Plasmalogens:
a. Occur in brain & muscle.
b. Resemble phosphatidylethanolamine but possess an ether link on
the sn-1 carbon instead of the ester link found in acylglycerols.
c. Typically, the alkyl radical is an unsaturated alcohol.
i. Sphingomyelins:
– Found in large quantities in brain and nerve tissue.
– On hydrolysis, the sphingomyelins yield a fatty acid, phosphoric acid,
choline, and, sphingosine.
– No glycerol is present.
Sphingolipidoses:
Ketogenesis:
Fatty acids
W3 family W6 family W7 family W9
Alpha linolenic Gamma linolenic Palmitoleic Oleic
Timnodonic Arachidonic Eladic
Cervonic Linoleic
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Lipoprotein structure:
Urinary Odours:
Questions:
b. miRNA
c. tRNA
d. mRNA
13.Normal role of miRNA is:
a. Regulation of gene expression
b. RNA splicing
c. Initiation of translation
d. DNA confirmational change
14.Introns are excised by:
a. DNAase
b. Helicase
c. snRNA
d. Restriction endonuclease
15.A mutation in the codon which causes a change in the coded amino acid
is known as:
a. Mitogenesis
b. Missense mutation
c. Somatic mutation
d. Recombination
16.HbS has defect in amino acid position:
a. 4 of alpha chain
b. 6 of beta chain
c. 11 of beta chain
d. 12 of alpha chain
17.Which of the following is not a feature of genetic code:
a. Degenerate
b. Ambiguous
c. Nonoverlapping
d. Not punctuated
18.Enzymes involved in formation of RISC complex include all except:
a. Drosha
b. Pasha
c. Dicer
d. Ribozyme
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19.A ten year old child with aggressive behaviour and poor concentration
is brought with presenting complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary
output. Mother gives history of self mutilative behaviour stating that he
tends to mutilate his fingers. Which of the following enzymes is likely to
be deficient in this child?
a. Adenosine deaminase
b. APRTase
c. Acid maltase
d. HGPRTase
20.End product of purine metabolism in non primate mammals is:
a. Uric acid
b. Ammonia
c. Urea
d. Allantoin
21.False regarding gout is:
a. Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
b. Due to increased metabolism of purines
c. Uric acid levels may not be elevated
d. Has a predilection for great toe
22.The gaps between segments of DNA on the lagging strand are sealed by:
a. DNA helicase
b. DNA topoisomerase
c. DNA phosphorylase
d. DNA ligase
23.Ends of chromosome replicated by:
a. Telomerase
b. Restriction endonuclease
c. Photolyase
d. Exonuclease
24.Which enzyme has proof reading function in PCR?
a. Taq polymerase
b. Pfu polymerase
c. T-7 polymerase
d. Bst polymerase
25.Telomerase are not active in:
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a. Germ cells
b. Hematopoeitic cells
c. Cancer cells
d. somatic cells
26.Okazaki fragments are produced during synthesis of:
a. ds DNA
b. ss DNA
c. m RNA
d. t RNA
27.For 1 peptide bond formation, how many high energy phosphates are
required:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
28.All of the following are involved in micro RNA synthesis except:
a. Sasha
b. Pasha
c. Drosha
d. Dicer
29.Double reciprocal plot is
a. Lineweaver Burk plot
b. Edie Hofstee plot
c. Hanes plot
d. Michelis menten equation
30.If Km Increases but Vmax remains same, the type of enzyme inhibition is
a. Competitive
b. Non - competitive
c. Mixed
d. Uncompetitive
31.All are true about isoenzymes except
a. Different Km value
b. Act on different substrate
c. Have different electrophoretic mobility
d. Have different physical properties
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d. citrate
38.Urea cycle occurs in
a. GIT
b. Spleen
c. Kidney
d. liver
39.Sources of nitrogen in urea cycle are:
a. Glutamate and ammonia
b. Arginine and ammonia
c. Aspartate and ammonia
d. Uric acid
40.Urea cycle enzyme is:
a. Glutaminase
b. Asparaginase
c. Glutamate dehydrogenase
d. Arginosuccinate synthetase
41.At physiological pH, carboxy terminal of a peptide is:
a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Neutral
d. Infinitely charged
42.Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for
isoleucine in a protein sequence?
a. Methionine
b. Aspartic acid
c. Valine
d. arginine
43.The amino acid having imino side chain is:
a. Lysine
b. Histidine
c. Tyrosine
d. proline
44.Basic amino acids are all except:
a. Arginine
b. Proline
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c. Lysine
d. Histidine
45.Non essential amino acid is:
a. Tyrosine
b. Phenylalanine
c. Lysine
d. Threonine
46.Amino acid with dissociation constant closest to physiological pH is:
a. Serine
b. Histidine
c. Threonine
d. Proline
47.Amino acid secreted in cystinuria are all except:
a. Ornithine
b. Arginine
c. Histidine
d. Lysine
48.Which of the following is not synthesized from tyrosine:
a. Norepinephrine
b. Melatonin
c. Thyroxine
d. Dopamine
49.Which amino acid does not show post-translational modification?
a. Selenocysteine
b. Triidothyronine
c. Hydroxyproline
d. Hydroxylysine
50.In phenylketonuria the main aim for first line therapy is
a. To replace the deficient product
b. To reduce the substrate for the enzyme
c. Change in confirmation of the enzyme
d. Supplementation of the limiting AA
51.The mode of action of phenylbutyrate in urea cycle defects is by :
a. Decreasing nitrogen absorption
b. Providing extra ATP
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c. ALP
d. Serum bilirubin
59.Conjugation of bilirubin in liver is done by addition of:
a. Acetate
b. Sulphate
c. Methyl group
d. Glucuronic acid
60.Most of the bilirubin in bile is:
a. Alpha bilirubin
b. Beta bilirubin
c. Gamma bilirubin
d. Delta bilirubin
61.In obstructive jaundice, colour of stool is:
a. Green
b. Black
c. Mustard coloured (deep yellow)
d. Clay coloured (pale)
62.In hemoglobin, iron is bound to:
a. Histidine
b. Arginine
c. Proline
d. Aspartic acid
63.Glycolytic enzyme inhibited by fluoride:
a. Glucokinase
b. Hexokinase
c. Enolase
d. Aldolase
64.3 ATP in anaerobic glycolysis occurs with which fuel?:
a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Fructose
d. Galactose
65.Anticoagulant used to estimate glucose from a sample sent from PHC is:
a. NaF
b. EDTA
c. Sodium citrate + EDTA
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d. apoptosis
73.Reducing substance in urine is seen in all except:
a. Lactose intolerance
b. PKU
c. Galactosemia
d. Fanconi’s anemia
74.Which of the following pairs of sugars are both non-reducing?
a. Sucrose & lactose
b. Sucrose & maltose
c. Sucrose and trehalose
d. Sucrose & isomaltose
75.UDP glucose is used for all except:
a. Glycogen synthesis
b. Galactose metabolism
c. Heparin synthesis
d. Sphingolipid synthesis
76.Glucosamines used in the treatment of:
a. Arthritis
b. Niemann Pick Disease
c. Alzheimer’s Disease
d. Cancer
77.Following are the tests done for proteins, sugars and ketones. Which
will be positive in starvation state in urine?
a. PFK-1
b. Pyruvate kinase
c. Glucose 1,6- bisphosphatase
d. Hexokinase
79.Which vitamin is required for glycogen phosphorylase?
a. Vit. B1
b. Vit. B2
c. Vit. B3
d. Vit. B6
80.Rapid source of energy for exercising muscles after 1st minute is
a. Blood glucose
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Stored ATP
d. Stored Phosphocreatine
81.Identify the correct regulatory molecules:
a. A= Glucagon; B= Insulin
b. A= Epinephrine; B= Glucagon
c. A=Epinephrine ; B= Insulin
d. A= Insulin; B= Glucagon
82.True about RAGE is
a. It is a receptor
b. Interacts with glycated end products
c. Plays important role in diabetic complications
d. All of the above
83.A 10 year old boy presents to emergency with a fainting episode during
playing football. Blood examination reveals hypoglycemia, raised levels
of ketone bodies, lactic acid & trigylcerides. On examination, liver &
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a. Fabry’s Disease
b. Gaucher’s Disease
c. Niemann Pick Disease
d. Sandhoff’s Disease
87.Dried blood drop of an infant can be used to know:
a. Blood sugar
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