STD VIII Neet Book

8th Std JEE
Unit – 1 Rational Numbers

Natural Numbers:
Natural Numbers are counting numbers. We can represent Natural
Numbers indefinitely to the right of 1 on the number line.
Whole Numbers:
Whole Numbers are Natural Numbers including zero. We can represent Whole
Numbers indefinitely to the right of Zero on the number line.
Integers:
Integers are a collection of numbers consisting of all Natural Numbers, their
negatives, and zero. We can represent Integers indefinitely on both sides of
Zero on the number line
Rational Numbers:
𝑃
 Rational number is a number that is expressed in the form , where p and
𝑞
q are integers and q≠ 0.
 In case of a Rational number, the denominator tells us the number of
equal parts into which the first unit has been divided, while the numerator
tells us ‘how many’ of these parts have been considered.
 We can also represent Rational Numbers indefinitely on both sides of
Zero on the number line
There are a finite number of Natural Numbers between any two Natural Numbers.
 Similarly, there are a finite number of Whole numbers between any
two Whole Numbers.
 But there are infinitely many Rational Numbers between any two Rational
Numbers. The idea of mean helps us to find Rational Numbers between
two Rational Numbers.
Objective Questions
𝑝
1.A Number which can be expressed as where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0 is
𝑞
a) Natural number b) whole number.

c) Integer. d) rational number.
Ans: d) rational number.
𝑝
2.A Number of the form is said to be a rational number if
𝑞
a) p and q are integers.

b) p and q are integers and q ≠ 0
c) p and q are integers and p ≠ 0
d) p and q are integers and p ≠ 0 also q≠ 0
Ans: b) p and q are integers and q ≠ 0
3 (−5) −19
3.The numerical expression + = shows that
8 7 56
a) rational numbers are closed under addition.

b) rational numbers are not closed under addition
c) rational numbers are closed under multiplication.
d) addition of rational numbers is not commutative.
Ans: a) rational numbers are closed under addition.
4.Which of the following is not true?
a) rational numbers are closed under addition.
b) rational numbers are closed under subtraction.
c) rational numbers are closed under multiplication.
d) rational numbers are closed under division.
Ans: d) rational numbers are closed under division
3 1 1 −3
5. - + = + ( ) is an example to show that
8 7 7 8
a) addition of rational numbers is commutative.

b) rational numbers are closed under addition.
c) addition of rational number is associative.
d) rational numbers are distributive under addition.
Ans: a) addition of rational numbers is commutative.
6.Which of the following expressions shows that rational numbers are associative
under multiplication.
2 −6 3 2 −6 3 2 −6 3 2 3 −6
a) × ( × )=( × )×5 b) × ( × )= ( × )
3 7 5 3 7 3 7 5 3 5 7
2 −6 3 3 2 −6 2 −6 −6 2 3
c) × ( × )=( × )× d) ( × ) ×= ( 7 × 3) × 5
3 7 5 5 3 7 3 7
2 −6 3 2 −6 3
Ans: a) × ( × )=( × )×5
3 7 5 3 7
7.Zero (0) is
a) the identity for addition of rational numbers.
b) the identity for subtraction of rational numbers.
c) the identity for multiplication of rational numbers.
d) the identity for division of rational numbers.
Ans: a) the identity for addition of rational numbers.
8.One (1) is
a) the identity for addition of rational numbers.
b) the identity for subtraction of rational numbers.
c) the identity for multiplication of rational numbers.
d) the identity for division of rational numbers.
Ans: c) the identity for multiplication of rational numbers.
−7
9.The additive inverse of is
19
−7 7 19 −19
a) b) c) d)
19 19 7 7
7
Ans: b)
19
10.Multiplicative inverse of a negative rational number is

a) a positive rational number. b) a negative rational number.
c) 0 d) 1
Ans: b) a negative rational number.
11.If 𝑥 + 0 = 0 + 𝑥 = 𝑥, which is rational number, then 0 is called
a) identify for addition of rational numbers.
b) additive inverse of 𝑥
c) multiplicative inverse of 𝑥
d) reciprocal of 𝑥.
Ans: a) identify for addition of rational numbers.
8
12.To get the product 1, we should multiply by
21
8 −8 21 −21
a) b) c) d)
21 21 8 8
21
Ans: c)
8
13. –(-x) is same as

1 −1
a) – 𝑥 b) 𝑥 c) d)
𝑥 𝑥
Ans: b) 𝑥
1
14.The multiplicative inverse of -1 is
7
8 −8 7 7
a) b) c) d)
7 7 8 −8
7
Ans: d)
−8
15. If 𝑥 be any rational number the 𝑥 + 0 is equal to

a) 𝑥 b) 0 c) – 𝑥 d) Not defined
Ans: a) 𝑥
16. The reciprocal of 1 is
a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) Not defined
Ans: a) 1
17. The reciprocal of -1 is
Ans: (b) -1
18. The reciprocal of 0 is
Ans: d) Not defined
𝑝
19. The reciprocal of any rational number , where p and q are integers and q≠ 0, is
𝑞
𝑝 𝑞
a) b) 1 c) 0 d)
𝑞 𝑝
𝑞
Ans: (d)
𝑝
20. If y be the reciprocal of rational number 𝑥, then the reciprocal of 𝑦 will be

𝑥 𝑦
a) 𝑥 b) 𝑦 c) d)
𝑦 𝑥
Ans : a) 𝑥
−3 −7
21. The reciprocal of × is
8 13
104 −104 21 −21
a) b) c) d)
21 21 104 104
104
Ans: a)
21
Fill in the blanks type question

5
1.The equivalent of , whose numerator is 45 is ____________.
7
7
2.The equivalent rational number of , whose denominator is 45 is ____________
9
15 35
3.Between the numbers and , the greater number is _______________
20 40
4.Zero has ______________ reciprocal.

5.The numbers __________ and ___________ are their own reciprocal.
2 −4
6.The reciprocal of × ( ) is _____________
5 9
7.(213 × 657)-1 = 213-1 × _______________
8.The negative of 1 is ____________
−5
9. is _____________ than -3.
7
10.The negative of a negative rational number is always a _____________ rational

number.
−5
11.The reciprocal of is ____________
7
Unit – 2 Linear Equations in one variable
 Arithmetic expressions are mathematical expressions that are made up of
numbers.
 Algebraic expressions are made up of variables and numbers.
 Algebraic expressions with degree one are called linear expressions.
 All expressions that have degree greater than one are not linear.
 An equation can be defined as a mathematical statement that uses symbols
to express equality between mathematical expressions.
 The expression on the left of the equality sign is the ‘LHS’ of the
equation, while that on the right is its ‘RHS.
 The value for which the LHS and RHS of an equation is called
the Solution of the equation.
 An algebraic equation can be solved by performing mathematical
operations and to both sides of the equation or by transposing a number to
the other side and performing the opposite operation on the number so
transposed.
 A linear equation may have a rational number as its solution.
Application of Linear Equations

 A linear equation in one variable may have variables on both sides of
the equation.
 While solving the linear equations Numbers and Variables can be
transposed from one side of an equation to the other side of the equation.
 Using Linear Equations, we can solve word problems
 For solving a Non-Linear Equation, we have to reduce the Non Linear
Equation into a linear Equation.

Objective Questions:
1. The solution of which of the following equations is neither a fraction nor an
integer.
a. 3x + 2 = 5x + 2 b. 4x – 18 =2
c. 4x + 7 = x + 2 d. 5x – 8 = x + 4
Ans: c
2. The solution of the equation ax + b = 0 is
𝑎
a. 𝑥 = b. x = -b
𝑏
−𝑏 𝑏
c. x = d. 𝑥 =
𝑎 𝑎
Ans: c
3. If 8x – 3 = 25 + 17x then x is
a. a fraction b. an integer
c. a rational number d. cannot be solved
Ans: c
4. The shifting of a number from one side of an equation to other is called
a. Transposition b. Distributivity
c. Communtativity d. Associativity
Ans: a
5𝑥 2𝑥
5. If –4= , then the numerical value of 2x -7 is
3 5
19 13 13
a. b.- c. 0 d.
13 19 19
Ans: b
6. The value of x for which the expressions 3x – 4 and 2x + 1 become equal is
a. -3 b. 0 c. 5 d.1
Ans: c
7. If a and b are positive integers, then the solution of the equation ax = b has to
be always
a. Positive b. negative c. one d. zero
Ans: a
8. Linear equation in one variable has
a. only one variable with any power
b. only one term with a variable
c. only one variable with power 1
d. only constant term
Ans: c
9. Which of the following is a linear expression:
a. x2 +1 b. y + y2 c. 4 d 1 +z
Ans: d
10. A linear equation in one variable has
a. only one solution b. Two solutions
c. More than two solutions d. No solution
Ans: a
1 2
11. Value of S in +S=
3 5
4 1
a. b. c. 10 d. 0\
5 15
Ans: b
−4 3
12. y = - then y =
3 4
3 4 3 4
a. -( )2 b. -( )2 c. -( )2 d. ( )2
4 3 4 3
Ans: c
13. The digit in the tens place of a two-digit number is 3 more than the digit in
the units place. Let the digit at unit’s place be b. Then the number is
a. 11b + 30 b. 10b + 30 c. b + 3 d. 10b + 3
Ans: a
14. Arpita’s present age is thrice of Shilpa. If Shiilpa’s age three years ago was x.
Then Arpita’s present age is
a. 3(x-3) b. 3x + 3 c. 3x-9 d.3(x+3)
Ans: d
15. The sum of three consecutive multiples of 7 is 357. Find the smallest
multiple.
a. 112 b. 126 c. 119 d.116
Ans: a
16.The solution of the equation 3x – 4 = 1 -2x is …………
18
17. The solution of the equation 2y = 5y - is ………..
5
20. 9x - …………….. = -21 has the solution (-2)
21. Three consecutive numbers whose sum is 12 are ……………. ,
………………… and …………
22. On subtracting 8 from x, the result is 2. The value of x is ……………….
𝑥
23. + 30 = 18 has the solution as ……………
5
24. when a number is divided by 8 . The result is -3. The number is
……………………
2 3
25. If x-2 = 5 - x, then x = …………
5 5
26. convert the statement Adding 15 to 4 times x is 39 into an equation
……………..
15 15
27. If -7x = 9 , then -7x = 9 +
8 8
𝑥 7 𝑥 6
28. If +1= , then =
3 15 3 15
29. If 6x = 18, then 18x = 54
𝑥 11
30. If = 15, then x =
11 15
Unit – 3 Understanding Quadrilaterals
A polygon is a simple closed figure made up of only line segments. We can
classify polygons according to the number of sides or vertices.
 The simple polygon we know is a triangle. A triangle has three sides and,
thus, is a three-sided polygon.
 A four-sided polygon is called a quadrilateral.
 A five sided polygon is called a pentagon.
 In this manner, we can obtain a six-sided polygon called a hexagon, a seven-
sided polygon, called a heptagon, and so on.
 If we have an n-sided polygon, it is called an n-gon.
Classification of Polygon
Concave & Convex Polygons:

 We know that each side of a polygon is connected by two consecutive vertices
of the polygon.
 A diagonal is a line segment that connects the non-consecutive vertices of
a polygon.
 If a diagonal lies outside a polygon, then the polygon is called a concave
polygon.
 If all the diagonals lie inside the polygon, then the polygon is said to be
a convex polygon.
Regular & Irregular Polygons:
 A regular polygon is equiangular and equilateral. The
word equiangular means, the interior angles of the polygon are equal to one
another. The word equilateral means, the lengths of the sides are equal to one
another.
 The polygon with unequal sides and unequal angles is called an irregular
polygon.
Angle Sum Property:

 The sum of all interior angles of a polygon is called the angle sum.
 Angle sum of a polygon = (𝑛 − 2) ×180° Where n = number of sides of the
polygon
 At one vertex, we extend a side. This side makes an angle with its consecutive
side. This angle is called the exterior angle. The interior angle and the exterior
angles are adjacent angles. These angles form a linear pair. Hence the sum of
the exterior angles of any polygon is
Angle sum of a polygon = (n−2) × 180°

1. If three angles of a quadrilateral are each equal to 750, the fourth angle is
(a) 1500 (b) 1350 (c) 450 (d) 750
2. For which of the following, diagonals bisect each other?
(a) Square (b) kite (c) Trapezium (d)
Quadrilateral
3. For which of the following figures, all angles are equal?
(a) Rectangle (b) Kite (c) Trapezium (d) Rhombus
4. For which of the following figures, diagonals are perpendicular to each other?
(a) Parallelogram (b) kite (c) Trapezium (d) Rectangle
5. For which of the following figures, diagonals are equal?
(a) Trapezium (b) Rhombus (c) parallelogram (d) Rectangle
6. Which of the following figures satisfy the following properties?
- All sides are congruent.
- All angles are right angles.
- Opposite sides are parallel. R S
P Q
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

7. Which of the following figures satisfy the following property?
R S
P
Q
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

8. Which of the following figures satisfy the following property?
R S
Q
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

9. Which of the following figures do not satisfy any of the following properties?
- All sides are equal
- All angles are right angles
- Opposite sides are parallel
R
S
P Q
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

10.Which of the following properties describe a trapezium?
(a) A pair of opposite sides is parallel.
(b) The diagonals bisect each other.
(c) The diagonals are perpendicular to each other.
(d) The diagonals are eaual.
11.Which of the following is a property of a parallelogram?
(a) Opposite sides are parallel.
(b) The diagonals bisect each other at right angles.
(c) The diagonals are perpendicular to each other.
(d) All angles are equal.
12.What is the maximum number of obtuse angles that a quadrilateral can have?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
13.How many non-overlapping triangles can we make in a n-gon (polygon
having n sides), by joining verticles?
(a) n-1 (b) n-2 (c) n-3 (d) n-4
14.what is the sum of all the angles of a pentagon?
(a) 1800 (b) 3600 (c) 5400 (d) 7200
15.What is the sim of all angle of a hexagon?
(a) 1800 (b) 3600 (c) 5400 (d) 7200
16.If two adjacent angle of a parallelogram are (5x-5)0 and (10x + 35)0, then the
ratio of these angles is
(a) 1:3 (b) 2:3 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:2
17.A Quadrilateral whose opposite sides and all the angle are equal is a
(a) Rectangle (b) parallelogram (c) square (d) rhombus
18.A quadrilateral whose all sides. Diagonals and angles are equal is a
(a) Square (b) trapezium (c) rectangle (d) rhombus
19.How many diagonals does a hexagon have?
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
20.If the adjacent sides of a parallelogram are equal then parallelogram is a
(a) Rectangle (b) trapezium (c) rhombus (d) square
Answer:
1)b 2)a 3)a 4) b 5) d 6) c 7) c 8) a 9)a 10) a
11) a 12) c 13) b 14) c 15) d 16)a 17) a 18) a 19)a 20) a
Fill in the blanks

21.In Quadrilateral Hope, the pairs of opposite sides are ________
22.In Quadrilateral ROPE, the pairs of adjacent angles are_______
23.In Quadrilateral WXYZ, the pairs of opposite angles are_____
24. The diagonals of the quadrilateral DEFG are _____ and _______
25.The sum of all _____ of a quadrilateral is 360°
Unit – 4 Practical Geometry
Quadrilaterals
 Different quadrilaterals can be identify the based on the properties of sides,
diagonals and angles.
 Quadrilaterals are made up of ten parts. However, to construct them, do not
need to know the measurements of all of them.
 In case of special quadrilaterals, like the rectangle, just two measurements, the
lengths of its adjacent sides are enough to construct it.
 A kite can be constructed if the lengths of its distinct adjacent sides and one
diagonal are known.
 Similarly, a square can be constructed with just the length of its side, while a
rhombus can be constructed when the lengths of its diagonals are known.
Steps to Construct a Rectangle:
Step 1: Draw a side of given length CL
Step 2: Draw side LU of given length perpendicular to CL at L.
Step 3: Draw side CE of length equal to LU and perpendicular to CL at C.
Step 4: Draw side UE.
Steps to Construct a Kite:

Step 1: Draw diagonal AY and its perpendicular bisector.
Step 2: Draw sides say AL and AZ of given length.
Step 3: Draw sides LY and YZ.
Constructing a Quadrilateral when four sides and one of its diagonals are given.
Step 1: Construct a triangle ABD.
Step 2: Find point C opposite to the vertex A as follows. With B as the centre and
given radius, draw an arc on the other side of BD.
Similarly, with D as the centre and given radius, draw another arc intersecting the
previous arc. The point of intersection of these arcs is marked as C.
Step 3: join points B and C, and D and C.
Constructing a quadrilateral when lengths of its three sides and two diagonals are
given.
Step 1: Construct a triangle PQR.
Constructing a quadrilateral when lengths of its adjacent sides and three angles are
given.
Step 1: Draw a line segment of EF of given length.
Step 2: Construct a given angle at E.
Step 3: Construct a given angle at F.
Step 4: Locate point G.
Step 5: Locate point H.
Constructing a quadrilateral when lengths of its three sides and two included angles.
Step 1: Draw a line segment MN of given length.
Step 2: Construct a given angle at M.
Step 3: Construct an angle 90° at N.
Step 4: Locate vertices L and O.
Step 5: Join L and O.
Objective Question
1. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal and bisect each other, then the
quadrilateral is a
(a) Rhombus (b) rectangle (c) square (d) parallelgram
2. The sum of all exterior angles of a triangle is
(a) 1800 (b) 3600 (c) 5400 (d) 7200
3. Which of the following is an equiangular and equilateral polygon?
(a) Square (b) Rectangle (c) rhombus (d) Right triangle
4. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1:2:3:4. The smallest angle is
(a) 720 (b) 1440 (c) 360 (d) 180
5. In the trapezium ABCD, the measure of ∠D is
(a) 550 (b) 1150 (c) 1350 (d) 1250
D
C
55°
A 55°
B
6. In a parallelogram PQRS, if ∠ P = 60 , then other three angles are
0
(a) 45o,1350,1200 (b) 60o,1200,1200

(c) 60o,1350,1200 (d) 45o,1350,1350
7. The sum of adjacent angle of a parallelogram is
(a) 1800 (b) 3600 (c) 5400 (d) 7200
8. which of the following can be four interior angles of a quadrilateral ?
(a) 140o,400,200,1600 (b) 270o,1500,300,200
(c) 40o,700,900,600 (d) 110o,400,300,1800
9. The sum of angles of a concave quadrilateral is
(a) more the 3600 (b) less than 3600
(c) equal to 3600 (d) twice of 3600
10.which of the following is not true for an exterior angle of a regular polygon
with n sides?
360
(a) Each exterior angel =
𝑛
(b) Exterior angel = 1800- interior angle

3600
(c) n =
𝑒𝑥𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒
(𝑛−2)𝑥 1800
(d) Each exterior angle =
𝑛
11.PQRS is a trapezium in which PQ|| SR and ∠P = 1300 , ∠ 1100, then ∠ R is
equal to:
(a) 700 (b) 500 (c) 650 (d) 550
12.The number of sides of a regular polygon whose each interior angle is of 135 0
is
(a) 𝜖 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
Answer:
1)b 2)b 3)a 4)c 5)d 6) b 7)a 8)a 9) c 10)d

11) a 12) c
Fill in the blanks:

13.The measure of each angle of a regular pentagon is
14. The name of three-sided regular polygon is
15.The number of diagonals in hexagon is
16. A nonagon has _________ sides.
17.A polygon having 10 sides is known as________
18.A rectangle whose adjacent sides are equal becomes a _______
19.If one diagonal of a rectangle is 6cm long, length of other diagonals is ____
20.Adjacent angles of parallelogram are ______
Unit – 5 Data Handling
Introduction to Data
Data is raw information collected from different sources. Scoring or marks,
measuring height/weight, calculating distance travelled are all data for different
situations. In our day to day life, raw information or data, in terms of quantity or
numbers is used regularly. Below are a few examples.
Graphical data representation

Data is represented graphically so that meaningful and comparative information
can be extracted. It gives clear idea of what data represents.
1. Pictograph - It is a representation in terms of pictures/symbols.
2. Bar Graph - Information is displayed in terms of bars of equal width and equal
gap in between. The heights are proportional to the values they represent.
3. Double Bar Graph - Information is displayed for two sets of data in terms of
bars together. This is used for comparison of data.
Frequency
In a collection of data, the number of times a particular entry is occurring
denotes the frequency of that entry.
A frequency distribution table represents the frequency of each entry in a
collection of data.
Grouping Data
A grouped frequency distribution table represents data for a group instead of
a single value
Histograms
A Histogram is a graphical representation of data like a bar graph with
 class intervals are represented on the horizontal axis.
 no gap between the bars as there is no difference between the class
intervals.
Circle Graph or Pie Chart
 A circle graph or pie chart shows the relationship between a whole and
its parts.
 A circle is divided in sectors.
 Size of each sector is proportional to the activity or information it
represents.
For example, daily routine of a student is represented below.
Chance and Probability

Chance is something that is taken in everyday life. Probability is the study of
chance of occurring of a particular event.
For example,
 Taking raincoat on a cloudy day because there are chances of rain.
 Preparing for a topic in exams because the chance of it coming is more.
 Buying waitlisted train ticket because the chance of it confirming is
high.
Probability of occurrence of an event is defined as - ratio of favorable outcomes
to the total outcomes.
Terms used in Probability
Following are the terms used in Probability.
1. Random experiment - An experiment which can result in a set of
possible outcomes. An outcome is the result of the experiment. Example,
bowler bowling a ball in cricket. It can result in batsman hitting it, wicket, no-
ball, wide etc.
2. Event - Each outcome of an event or a collection of outcomes make an event.

Example, tossing of coin results in getting a Head which is an event. Getting a
tail is also an event.
3. Equally likely outcomes - When the probability of all the outcomes in a
random experiment is almost equal. Example, tossing of coin. It can either
result in heads or tails, so the two outcomes are equally likely.
Linking Chances to Probability
Chances can be converted to probability by finding the chances of occurring of
an event against all the possible outcomes.
Practical usage of probability
 Exit Polls during elections - Here a few voters are asked whom they voted
for and then a probability is predicted to know which party is winning.
 Meteorological Department - Based on wind, clouds, heat etc, they form a

probability for every day’s weather.
1. The height of a rectangle in a histogram shows the
a) Width of the class b) Upper limit of the class
c)Lower limit of the class d) Frequency of the class
2. A geometric representation showing the relationship between a whole and its
parts is a
a) Pie chart b) Histogram c) Bar graph d) pictograph
3. In a pie chart, the total angle at the centre of the circle is
a) 180 b)360 c)270 d)90
4. The range of the data 30,61,55,60,20,26,46,28,56 is
a) 26 b)30 c)41 d)61
5. Which of the following is not a random experiment?
a) Tossing a coin b) Rolling a dice
c) Choosing a card from a deck pf 52 cards.
d) Thowing a stone from a roof of a building.
6. What is the probability of choosing a vowel from the alphabets?
21 5 1 3
a) b) c) d)
26 26 26 26
7. In a school only,3 out of 5 students can participles in a competition. What is
the probability of the students who do not make it to the competition?
a) 0.65 b)0.4 c)0.45 d)0.6
Students of a class voted for their favourite colour and pie chart was prepared
based on the data collected.
Observe the pie chart given below and answer questions 8-10 based on it.
1
8. Which colour received of the votes?
5
a) Red b) Blue c) Green d) Yellow
9.If 400 students voted in all, then how many did vote ‘others’ colour as their
favourite?
a) 6 b)20 c)24 d)40
10.Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion for the given data?
1
a) the students voted for blue colour.
20
b) 𝐺reen is the least popular colour.
c) The number of students who voted for red colour is two times the number of
students who voted yellow colour.
d) Number of students liking together yellow and green colour is approximately
the same as those for red colour.
11.Listed below are the temperature in ℃ for 10 days,-6,-8,0,3,2,0,1,5,4,4. What
is the range of the data?
a) 8 b)13℃ c)10℃ d)12℃
12.Ram put some buttons on the table. There were 4 blue, 7 red, 3 black and 6
white buttons in all. All of a sudden, a cat jumped on the table and knocked
out one button on the floor. What is the probability that the button on the
floor. What is the probability that the button on the floor is blue?
7 3 1 1
a) b) c) d)
20 5 5 4
13.Rahul, Varun and yash are playing a game of spinning a coloured wheel.
Rahul wins if spinner lands on blue and yash wins if it lands on green. Which
of the following spinner should be used to make the game fair?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

a) (i) b) (ii) c) (iii) d) (iv)
14.In a frequency distribution with classes 0-10,10-20 etc., the size of the class
intervals is 10. The lower limit of fourth class is
a) 40 b)50 c)20 d)30
15.A coin is tossed 200 times and head appeared 120 times. The probability of
getting a head in this experiments is
2 3 1 4
a) b) c) d)
5 5 5 5
16.Data collected in a survey shows that 40% of the buyers are interested in
buying a particular brand of toothpaste. The central angle of the sector of the
pie chart representing this information is
a) 120° b)150° c)144° d)40°
17.Monthly salary of a person is Rs.15000. The central angle of the sector
representing his expenses on food and house rent is
a) Rs.5000 b) Rs.2500 c) Rs.6000 d) Rs.9000
18.The following pie chart gives the distribution of constituents
in the human body. The central angle of the sector showing
the distribution of protein and other constituents is
a) 108° b)54° c)30° d)216°
19.Total number of outcomes when a ball is drawn from a bag which contain 3 red,
5 black and 4 blue is
a) 8 b)7 c)9 d) 12
20. A graph showing two sets of data simultaneously is known as
a) Pictograph b) histogram
c) pie chart d)Double bar graph
Answer:
1)d 2)a 3)b 4)c 5)d 6)b 7)b 8)c 9) c 10)d
11)b 12)c 13)d 14)d 15)b 16)c 17)b 18)a 19)d 20)d
Unit – 6 Squares and Square Roots
Properties of Square Numbers
Numbers that can be expressed as the square of a number are called square
numbers or perfect squares.
Numbers that cannot be expressed as the square of another number are not
perfect squares. Since there are infinite natural numbers, there are infinite
numbers of perfect squares.
All perfect squares:
1. Have 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 or 9 in their units place.
2. Never have 2, 3, 7 or 8 in their units place.
The numbers that have 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 or 9 in their units place maybe perfect squares
whereas the numbers that have 2, 3, 7 or 8 in their units place are never perfect
squares.
Square of a number ending with zero(s) contains double the number of zeroes than
the number. All square numbers contain an even number of zeroes.
Odd square numbers are squares of numbers ending with 1, 3, 5, 7 or 9.
Even square numbers are squares of numbers ending with 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8.
Pythagorean triplets
A collection of 3 numbers such that the sum of the square of the smaller 2
numbers is equal to the square of the third number.
Let us take an example: 3, 4, 5
3² + 4² = 5²
9 + 16 = 25
25 = 25
According to the Pythagorean Theorem, in a right angled triangle, the square of
hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the perpendicular and the base.
h² = p² + b²
Estimating Digits in the Square Root
𝑛
If a perfect square is of n-digits, then its square root will have digits if n is even
2
(𝑛+ 1)
or if n is odd.
2
Objective question:
1. 196 is the square of
a) 11 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16
2. Which of the following is a square of an even number?
a) 144 b) 169 c) 441 d) 625
3. A number ending in 9 will have the units place of its square as
a) 3 b) 9 c) 1 d) 6
4. Which of the following will have 4 at the units place?
a) 142 b) 622 c) 272 d) 352
5. How many natural numbers lie between 52 and 62 ?
a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
6. Which of the following cannot be a perfect square?
a) 841 b) 529 c) 198 d) all the above
7. The one’s digit of the cube of 23 is
a) 6 b) 7 c) 3 d) 9
8. A square board has an area of 144 square units. How long is each side of the
board?
a) 11 units b) 12 units c) 13 units d) 14 units
9. Which letter best represents the location of √25 on a number line?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
10. If one member of a Pythagorean triplet is 2m, then the other two members are
a) m, 𝑚2 +1 b) 𝑚2 +1, 𝑚2 -1 c) 𝑚2 , 𝑚2 -1 d) 𝑚2 , m+1
11. The sum of successive odd numbers 1,3,5,7,9,11,13 and 15 is
a) 81 b) 64 c) 49 d) 36
12. The sum of first n odd natural numbers is
a) 2n+1 b) 𝑛2 c) 𝑛2 − 1 d) 𝑛2 + 1
Answer:
1. c 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. b
9. c 10. b 11. b 12.b 13.b 14.a 15. b 16.d
17.b 18.b 19.a 20.d 21.b 22.a 23.c 24.d
Fill in the blanks:

1. There are _____ perfect squares between 1 and 100.
2. There are _____ perfect squares between 1 and 1000.
3. The units digit in the square of 1294 is ______
4. The square of 500 will have ______ zeros.
5. There are _____ natural numbers between 𝑛2 and (𝑛 + 1)2
6. The square root of 24025 will have _____ digits
7. The square of 5.5 is ______
8. The square root of 5.3×5.3 is ______
9. The cube of 100 will have ______ zeroes.
10.1𝑚2 = ______ 𝑐𝑚2
11.1𝑚3 = ______ 𝑐𝑚3
12.Ones digit in the cube of 38 is ______
Unit – 7 Cubes and Cube Roots
Cube:
It is a three-dimensional figure made of six equal square sides.
Cube number or Perfect cubes:

It is a number which is the product of three same numbers.
Example:
Cube number of 2 will be 2 x 2 x 2 = 8. Thus, 8 is a cube number.
Cubes of some natural numbers:
Number Cube Number Cube
1 1x1x1=1 11 11 x 11 x 11 = 1331
2 2x2x2=8 12 12 x 12 x 12 = 1728
3 3 x 3 x 3 = 27 13 13 x 13 x 13 = 2197
4 4 x 4 x 4 = 64 14 14 x 14 x 14 = 2744
5 5 x 5 x 5 = 125 15 15 x 15 x 15 = 3375
6 6 x 6 x 6 = 216 16 16 x 16 x 16 = 4096
7 7 x 7 x 7 = 343 17 17 x 17 x 17 = 4913
8 8 x 8 x 8 = 512 18 18 x 18 x 18 = 5832
9 9 x 9 x 9 = 729 19 19 x 19 x 19 = 6859
10 10 x 10 x 10 = 1000 20 20 x 20 x 20 = 8000
... ... ... ...
Properties of Cube Numbers:

1. The cube of an even number will always be an even number.
Example:
83 = 512, 123 = 1728, etc.
2. The cube of odd number will always be an odd number.

Example:
73 = 343, 193 = 6589, etc.
3. If the cube number have x at its one’s digit or unit’s place then it always end
with the digit as shown in the table below:
Unit’s digit of Last digit of its cube Example
number number
1 1 113 = 1331, 213 = 9261, etc.
2 8 23 = 8, 123 = 1728, 323 = 32768,

etc.
3 7 133 = 2197, 533 = 148877, etc.
4 4 243 = 13824, 743 = 405224, etc.
5 5 153 = 3375, 253 = 15625, etc.
6 6 63 = 216, 263 = 17576,etc.
7 3 173 = 4913, 373 = 50653,etc.
8 2 83 = 512, 183 = 5832, etc.
9 9 193 = 6859, 393 = 59319, etc.
10 20 103 = 1000, 203 = 8000, etc.
Interesting patterns of Cube Number:

1. Addition of consecutive odd numbers will give Cube Number
13 = 1 = 1
23 = 8 = 3+5
33 = 27 = 7 + 9 + 11
43 = 64 = 13 + 15 + 17 + 19
53 = 125 = 21 + 23 + 25 + 27 + 29
2. Cubes and their prime factors-
The prime factors of any cube number will be in pair of 3.
Example:
(i) 43 = 64 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 23 x 23
(ii) 123 = 1728 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 3 = 23 x 23 x 33
Note:
(i) If any prime factor is not in pair of 3, then it will not be a perfect cube.
(ii) Numbers like 1729, 4104, 13832, are known as Hardy – Ramanujan Numbers.
They can be expressed as sum of two cubes in two different ways
Cube Roots:
It is the inverse operation of finding a cube. Symbol ∛ represents a cube-root.
Example:
∛8 = 2, ∛216 = 6, etc.
Methods to find a cube root:
1. Prime factorisation method:
Follow the steps given below to understand this method:
Step 1: Find all the prime factors of given cube number.
Step 2: Make as many group of 3 for all common digit.
Step 3: Replace group of 3 by respective single digit.
Step 4: Product of these single digits will give the cube root.
Objective question:
1. Which of the following numbers is a perfect cube?
a) 243 b) 216 c) 392 d) 8640
2. The hypotenuse of a right triangle with its legs of lengths 3x × 4x is
a) 5x b) 7x c) 16x d) 25x
3. The next two numbers in the number pattern 1,4,9,16,25… are
a) 35,48 b) 36,49 c) 36,48 d) 35,49
2 2 2 2
4. Which among 43 , 67 , 52 , 59 would end with digit 1?
a) 432 b) 672 c) 522 d) 592
5. A perfect square can never have the following digit in its ones place.
a) 1 b) 8 c) 0 d) 6
6. Which of the following numbers is not a perfect cube?
a) 216 b) 567 c) 125 d) 343
3
7. √1000 is equal to
a) 10 b) 100 c) 1 d) none of these
8. If m is the square of a natural number n, then n is
a) The square of m b) greater than m
c) Equal to m d) √𝑚
9. A perfect square number having n digits where n is even will have square
root with
𝑛 𝑛 𝑛+1
a) n+1 digit b) digit c) digit d) digit
2 3 2
10. If m is the cube root of n, then n is
𝑚 3
a) 𝑚3 b) √𝑚 c) d) √𝑚
3
11. The value of √248 + √52 + √144 is

a) 14 b) 12 c) 16 d) 13
12. Given that √4096 = 64, the value of √4096 + √40.96 is
a) 74 b) 60.4 c) 64.4 d) 70.4
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. b
7. a 8. d 9. b 10.a 11.c 12.d
Fill in the blanks:

1. The square of 0.7 is ______
2. The sum of first six odd natural numbers is _______
3. The digit at the ones place of 572 is _______
4. The sides of a right triangle whose hypotenuse is 17cm are _______ and
_______
5. √1.96 = ______
6. (1.2)3 = ______
7. The cube of an odd number is always an ______ number.
8. The cube root of a number x is denoted by ________
9. The least number by which 125 be multiplied to make it a perfect square is
_______
10.The least number by which 72 be multiplied to make it a perfect cube is
_______
11.The least number by which 72 be divided to make it a perfect cube is _______
12.Cube of a number ending in 7 will end in the digit ______
Unit – 8 Comparing Quantities
Ratio:
It is the quantitative relation between two quantities which reflects the relative
size of both the quantities. It is simply the means to compare the quantities.
Example
Suppose in a classroom there are 20 boys and 40 girls. Find the ratio of boys to
girls.
Solution:
The ratio of number of boys to the number of girls will be 20/40.
By using fraction, we can write 20/40 = 1/2.
Thus, the numbers of boys are half the number of girls in the classroom.
In terms of ratio, it is written as 1:2
Percentage:
It is another means to compare the quantities.
Example:
Suppose in a classroom there are 20 boys and 40 girls. Find the percentage of
boys and girls.
Solution:
We know that, 20 students out of total 60 students are boys.
So, we can write 20/60 x 100 = 33.33 % boys are there in classroom.
And the percentage of girls will be 40/60 x 100 = 66.67 %
Thus, the classroom has 33.33 % of boys and 66.67% of girls in classroom.
Finding the Increase or Decrease Percent:
To find the increase or decrease percent, multiply the percentage given by the
actual quantity from which we need to increase or decrease. Then, to the actual
quantity add or subtract the obtained quantity to get the final result.
Example:
The price of certain item A was Rs. 20, 000. Now, some features were added to
it and so the price was increased by 10%. Then find the new price.
Solution:
Multiply the given percentage with the actual quantity. So, in this case we have,
10% ×rs.20,000 = 10/100 × 20,000
= Rs.2,000
now, we will add this amount to actual amount as the price has increased.
Therefore, 20,000 + 2,000 = Rs.22,000 will be the new price.
Estimating Percentages:
The steps to estimate the percentage for finding n percent of x:
(i) Round off values of x and n to numbers whose simplification would be easy.
(ii) Multiply these rounded numbers.
(iii) Divide the multiplied answer by 100.
Example:
Suppose price of an item is Rs 565.90 and a discount of 10% is given on this
item. Calculate the amount needed to be paid.
Solution:
We will round off the price of item Rs.565.90 to its nearest tens which will be
Rs 570
Now, we will multiply the two numbers 570 and 10, so we will have 5700 Rs.
At last, we will divide the answer by 100, so we will get Rs 57.
Thus, the amount that needs to be paid will be 570 - 57 = Rs 513.
Terms related to buying and selling:
1. Cost Price (CP):
The actual amount that a manufacturer spend to produce a product or to provide
the service is known as the cost price.
Example:
Suppose, it costs 30,000 Rs to a car manufacturer to produce a car, then this price
will be known as its cost price.
2. Selling Price (SP):
The price at which a product is sold in the market is known as its selling price.
Example:
Suppose, a car based company sell its car at 33,000 Rs then this price will be
known as its selling price.
3. Profit:
The financial gain that is received on selling a product is known as its profit. In
other words, it is the difference between the selling price and the cost price i.e.
Profit (P) = Selling Price (SP) – Cost Price (CP)
The profit in the percentage form can be expressed as P% = P/CP x 100.
Example:
An item was manufactured at cost of 1000 Rs; but was sold at 1500 Rs. Find the
profit gained on this item.
Solution:
Given, Cost Price (CP) = 1000 Rs; Selling Price (SP) = Rs 1500
Therefore, Profit (P) = CP – SP = 1500 – 1000 = Rs.500
% of Profit = P/CP x 100 = 500/1500 x 100 = 33.33 %
4. Loss:
The financial negative revenue that is received on selling a product is known as
its loss. In other words, it is the opposite of the profit.
Example:
An item was purchased at cost of 1000 Rs; but was sold at 500 Rs. Find the loss
of this item.
Solution:
Given, Cost Price (CP) = 1000 Rs; Selling Price (SP) = Rs 500
Therefore, Loss (L) = CP – SP = 1000 – 500 = Rs. 500
% of Loss = L/CP x 100 = 500/1000 x 100 = 50 %
5. Sales Tax (ST):
It is charge we pay to the government when we purchase items. The price of this
tax is added to the selling price of an item.
Hence, the amount we pay to shopkeeper is then given to the government.
Nowadays, the prices include the tax known as Value Added Tax (VAT).
Example:
A sales tax of 5% is added to an item whose selling price is 500 Rs. Find the bill
amount.
Solution:
The tax required to be paid for the item will be = 5/100 × 500 = Rs 25
Hence, the bill amount will be selling price + tax = Rs 500 + Rs 25 = Rs.525
6. Compound Interest:
It is the interest calculated on both the basic principal as well as the interest
earned till date.
Example:
Ajay borrowed Rs 50,000 for 2 years at an interest of 10% compounded
annually. Find the Compound Interest and the amount to be paid at the end of
two years.
Solution:
Let us denote the principal for the first year by P1. Given, P1 = 50,000.
The simple interest for first year will be = 50,000 x 10/1000 = Rs 500
The total amount at the end of first year will be = Rs50,000 + Rs500 = Rs
50,500
The simple interest for second year will be = 50,500 x 10/1000 = Rs 505
the total amount to be paid at the end of second year will be = Rs 50,500 + Rs
505 = Rs 51,005
Total interest paid = Rs 500 + Rs 505 = Rs 1005
Formula for computing Compound Interest:
A = P (1 + R/100) n
Where, A is the amount
P is the principal amount
R is the rate of interest
n is the number of years.
Rate Compounded Annually or Half Yearly:
When the interest is compounded half yearly rather than yearly, then we say
that the rate is compounded annually or half yearly.
If the interest is compounded half yearly, then we need to calculate the interest
twice. And in this case, time period will get double and the rate will get half.
Example:
Find the compound interest on Rs 10,000 for 2 years at 10% per annum when
compounded half-yearly.
Solution:
P = Rs 10,000; R = 10% per annum = 5% per half - yearly;
n = 2 years = 4 half years.
Amount A = 10,000 x ( 1 + 5/100) 4 = Rs. 12,155
Thus, CI = Rs.12,155 - Rs 10,000 = Rs. 2155
Example:
Find the amount which Ram will get on Rs 5000, if he gave it for 18 months
at 12½ % per annum, interest being compounded half yearly.
Solution:
Given, Principal = 5000 Rs, Rate = 12½ % per annum = 25/4 % per half yearly,
n = 18 months
Here, there will be 3 half years in 8 months.
A = 5000 (1 + (25/4)/100)3 = Rs 6000. Thus, the required amount is Rs 6,000.
Applications of Compound Interest Formula:
There are many practical situations where we are in need to calculate CI. Some of
the examples are given below:
(i) The rate of population growth.
(ii) The rate of growth of bacteria.
1. On what a discount is calculated?
a. s.p. b. m.p. c. marked price d. none of these
2. On which figure the VAT of a product is calculated?
a. s.p. b. c.p. c. market price d. none of these
3. On which of the following percent profit or profit loss is calculated?
a. s,p. b. c.p c. market price d. none of these
4. If an article sold for Rs 100 then there is a gain of Rs 20, which of the following
is the gain percent?
a. 25% b. 22% c. 20% d.16%
5. An article is at 10% more than the CP. If discount of 10% is allowed, then which
of the following is right?
a. 1% gain b. 1% loss c. no gain no loss d. 1.1% loss
6. A building worth Rs a is depreciated by R% per annum. Which of the following
is true?
a. P[1- 5/100] b. P [1+5/100] c. P[(1+5/100)-1] d. P[1-(1-5/100)]
7. If MP of a box is Rs 10 and a discount of 10% is allowed then what should be the
sale price?
a. Rs 10 b. rs 9 c. Rs 11 d. none of these
8. What should be the rate of interest per annum if interest is calculated quarterly?
a. reduced to half b. reduced to one fourth
c. is doubled d. becomes four times
9. What time period is taken when interest is calculated half yearly?
a. twice as much as the number of given years
b. half as much as the number of given years
c. same as the number of given years
d. none of these
10. what should be percentage gain on a product when it is sold for Rs 120 with a
gain of Rs 20.
a. 20% b. 25% c. 22% d. 16.25%
Answer:
1) c 2)a 3)b 4)a 5)b
6)a 7)b 8)b 9)a 10)a
1
11. Convert the given fractional numbers to percent :
8
(a) 13.5 % (b) 11.5 % (c) 12.5 % (d) 9.5 %
Ans: (𝒄)
5
12.Convert the given fractional numbers to percent :
4
(a) 105 % (b) 125 % (c) 115 % (d) 145 %
Ans: (𝒃)
3
40
(a) 7.5 % (b) 8.5 % (c) 3.5 % (d) 4 %
Ans: (𝒂)
2
7
3 4 2 7
(a) 28 (b) 28 (c) 14 (d) 14
7 7 7 2
Ans: (𝒃)
15.Convert the given decimal fractions to per cents 0.65 :
(a) 0.065 % (b) 6.5 % (c) 65 % (d) 0.0065 %
Ans: (c)
(a) 0.21 % (b)0.021 % (c) 210 % (d)21.0 %
Ans: (c)
(a) 0.2 % (b)2.0 % (c)0.002 % (d) 2 %
Ans: (d)
(a) 1235 % (b) 1.235 % (c) 123.5 % (d) 0.1235 %
Ans: (a)
19.Estimate what part of the figure is coloured and
hence find the percent which is coloured.
(a) 35 % (b) 15 % (c) 25 % (d) 30 %
Ans: (c)
20. Estimate what part of the figure is coloured and
hence find the percent which is coloured
(a) 70 % (b) 60 % (c) 50 % (d) 40 %
Ans: (b)
Unit – 9 Algebraic Expressions & Identity
Algebraic Expressions
 An expression having one or more variables is called
an algebraic expression.
 An algebraic expression may or may not contain mathematical operators
like the symbols of addition, subtraction and multiplication.
 The quantities in an algebraic expression - variable, constant or
combinations of both, joined by plus or minus signs, are called its terms.
 The elements whose product forms a term of an algebraic expression are
called the factors of that term. The numerical factor of a term containing
a variable is called the coefficient of the term.
Algebraic expressions that contain only one term are called monomials. Algebraic
expressions that contain only two terms are called binomials. Algebraic
expressions that contain only three terms are called trinomials.
 Algebraic expressions with all variables having whole

number exponents or powers are called polynomials. The expressions in
which the powers of variables are negative or rational numbers
are not polynomials.
 Terms that have the same power of the same variable are called like
terms. Terms that do not contain the same power of the same variable are
called unlike terms.
To add or subtract algebraic expressions:

 Arrange the expressions in separate rows, so that all like terms are one
below the other and all unlike terms are in separate columns.
 Write all terms with their correct positive or negative signs.
 While subtracting, keep in mind how the minus sign between
the expressions changes the signs of the terms of the expression being
subtracted.
Algebraic Identities
 An equation is true for only certain values of the variables and need not be
true for all values of the variables. If it is true for all values of the variables
in it, then it is called an Identity.
 These identities are obtained on multiplying one binomial with another
binomial and are known as Standard Identities.
The product of monomials is equal to the product

of their coefficients multiplied by the product of their variables.
Product of Monomials = Product of Coefficients × Product of Variables.
To multiply polynomials, you have to:

1. Apply the distributive law to reduce the multiplication of
expressions to products of monomials.
2. Add the powers of the variable, if a variable is multiplied with itself.
3. Add the like terms in the product.
Objective questions
1. The product of a monomial and a binomial is a
a) monomial b) binomial c) trinomial d) none of these
2. In a polynomial, the exponents of the variables are always
a) integers b) positive integers
c) non-negative integers d) non-positive integers
3. Which of the following is correct?
a) (𝑎 − 𝑏)2 = 𝑎2 + 2ab - 𝑏 2 b) (𝑎 − 𝑏)2 = 𝑎2 - 2ab + 𝑏 2
c) (𝑎 − 𝑏)2 = 𝑎2 - 𝑏 2 d) (𝑎 + 𝑏)2 = 𝑎2 + 2ab + 𝑏 2
4. The sum of -7pq and 2pq is
a) -9pq b) 9pq c) 5pq d) -5pq
2 2 2 2
5. If we subtract -3𝑥 𝑦 from 𝑥 𝑦 , then we get
a) -4𝑥 2 𝑦 2 b) -2𝑥 2 𝑦 2 c) 2𝑥 2 𝑦 2 d) 4𝑥 2 𝑦 2
6. Like terms as 4𝑚3 𝑛2 is
a) 4𝑚3 𝑛2 b) -6𝑚3 𝑛2 c) 6𝑚3 𝑛2 d) 4𝑚3 𝑛
7. Which of the following is a binomial?
a) 7 × a + a b) 6𝑎2 + 7b + 2c c) 4a × 3b × 2c d) 6(𝑎2 +b)
8. Sum of a-b+ab, b+c-bc and c-a-ac is
a) 2c + ab – ac – bc b) 2c - ab – ac – bc
c) 2c + ab + ac + bc d) 2c – ab + ac + bc
2
9. Product of the following monomials 4p – 7𝑞 – 7pq is
a) 196 𝑝2 𝑞 4 b) 196 p𝑞 4 c) -196 𝑝2 𝑞 4 d) 196 𝑝2 𝑞 3
10. Area of a rectangle with length 4ab and breadth 6𝑏 2 is
a) 24𝑎2 𝑏 2 b) 24a𝑏 3 c) 24a𝑏 2 d) 24ab
11.Volume of a rectangular box (cuboid) with length = 2ab, breadth = 3ac and
height = 2ac is
a) 12𝑎3 𝑏 𝑐 2 b) 12𝑎3 𝑏𝑐 c) 12𝑎2 bc d) 2ab+3ac+2ac
2
12.Product of 6𝑎 -7b+5ab and 2ab is
a) 12𝑎3 𝑏 – 14a𝑏 2 + 10ab b) 12𝑎3 𝑏 - 14 a𝑏 2
c) 6𝑎2 𝑏 𝑐 d) 2ab+3ac+2ac
13. Square of 3x-4y is
a) 9𝑥 2 - 16𝑦 2 b) 6𝑥 2 - 8𝑦 2
c) 9𝑥 2 + 16𝑦 2 + 24xy d) 9𝑥 2 + 16𝑦 2 - 24xy
14. Which of the following are like terms?
a) 5xy𝑧 2 – 3x𝑦 2 z b) -5xy𝑧 2 . 7xy𝑧 2 c) 5xy𝑧 2 . 5𝑥 2 yz d) 5xy𝑧 2 . 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 𝑧 2
−𝑦
15. Coefficient of y in the term is
3
−1 1
a) -1 b) -3 c) d)
3 3
16. 𝑎2 - 𝑏 2 is equal to
a) (𝑎 − 𝑏)2 b) (a-b) (a-b) c) (a+b) (a-b) d) (a+b) (a+b)
2 2
17.Common factor of 17abc, 34a𝑏 , 51𝑎 b is
a)17abc b) 17ab c) 17ac d) 17𝑎2 𝑏 2 c
18. Square of 9x-7xy is
a) 81𝑥 2 +49𝑥 2 𝑦 2 b) 81𝑥 2 - 49𝑥 2 𝑦 2
c) 81𝑥 2 +49𝑥 2 𝑦 2 -126𝑥 2 y d) 81𝑥 2 +49𝑥 2 𝑦 2 -63𝑥 2 y
19. Factorized form of 23xy – 46x + 54y – 108 is
a) (23x+54) (y-2) b) (23x+54y) (y-2)
c) (23x+54y) (-46x-108) d) (23x+54) (y+2)
2
20. Factorized form of 𝑟 -10r+21 is
a) (r-1) (r-4) b) (r-7) (r-3) c) (r-7) (r+3) d) (r+7) (r+3)
2
21. Factorized form of 𝑝 - 17p – 38 is
a) (p-19) (p+2) b) (p-19) (p+2) c) (p+19) (p+2) d) (p+19) (p-2)
2
22. On dividing 57𝑝 qr by 114pq, we get
1 3 1
a) pr b) pr c) pr d) 2pr
4 4 2
23. On dividing p(4𝑝2 -16) by 4p(p-2). We get
a) 2p+4 b) 2p-4 c) p+2 d) p-2
24. The common factor of 3ab and 2cd is
a) 1 b) -1 c) a d) c
2 2
25. An irreducible factor of 24𝑥 𝑦 is
a) 𝑥 2 b) 𝑦 2 c) x d) 24x
2
26. Numbers of factors of (𝑎 + 𝑏) is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
27. The factorized form of 3x-24 is
a) 3x × 24 b) 3(x-8) c) 24(x-3) d) 3(x-12)
2
28.The factors of 𝑥 − 4
a) (x-2),(x-2) b) (x+2),(x-2)
c)(x+2),(x+2) d) (x-4),(x-4)
29.The value of (−27 𝑥 2 𝑦) ÷ (−9𝑥𝑦) is
a) 3xy b)-3xy c) -3x d) 3x
2
30.The value of (2𝑥 + 4) ÷ 2 is
a) 2𝑥 2 + 2 b) 𝑥 2 + 2 c) 𝑥 2 + 4 d) 2𝑥 2 + 4
Fill in the blank:
31. 𝑎(𝑏 + 𝑐) = 𝑎𝑥_____× 𝑎𝑥_____
32.(a-b)_____=𝑎2 − 2𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏 2
33.𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 = (𝑎 + 𝑏)_____
34.(𝑎 − 𝑏)2 + ______ = 𝑎2 − 𝑏 2
35.(𝑎 + 𝑏)2 − 2𝑎𝑏 = _______ + ______
Answer:
1)b 2)b 3)b 4)d 5)d 6)b 7)d 8)a 9)a 10)b
11)a 12)b 13)d 14)b 15) c 16) c 17) b 18) c 19) a 20) b
21) a 22) c 23) c 24) a 25) c 26) c 27) b 28) b 29) d 30) b
Unit – 10 Visualizing Solid Shapes
Three dimensional objects or solids generally have length, breadth and height. Three
dimensional objects look different from different locations or angles.
 A polyhedron is a solid shape bounded by polygons whereas non-

polyhedrons do not have polygon shaped faces.
 Cubes, cuboids, prisms, and pyramids are few examples of polyhedrons.
 Spheres, cones and cylinders are a few examples of non-polyhedrons.
 The polygonal regions forming the polyhedron are known as its faces, two
intersecting faces meet at a line segment called an edge and three edges meet
at a point called the vertex.
 F+V=E+2 is known as Euler’s formula and it holds true for any polyhedron.
Here F stands for faces, V for vertices and E for the edges of the polyhedron.
 A polyhedron is said to be regular if its faces are made up of regular
polygons and the same number of faces meet at each vertex.
 An irregular polyhedron is made of polygons whose sides and angles are not
of equal measure.
 In a convex polyhedron, the line segment joining any two points on the
surface of the polyhedron lies entirely inside or on the polyhedron.
 A polyhedron some of whose plane sections are concave polygons is known
as a concave polyhedron. Concave polygons have at least one interior angle
greater than 180° and has some of its sides bent inward.
 A prism is a polyhedron with parallel congruent polygon bases and sides made
of parallelograms.
 A pyramid is a polyhedron whose base is a polygon of any number of sides
and whose lateral faces are triangles with a common vertex.
 Prisms and pyramids are named after the shape of their base.
 Maps represent the location of a place or object in relation to other places or
objects.
F+V=E+2
1. Which amongst the following is not a polyhedron?
2. Which of the following will not form a polyhedron?

a) 3 triangles b) 2 triangles and 3 parallelogram
c) 8 triangles d) 1 pentagon and 5 triangles
3. Which of the following is a regular polyhedron?
a) Cuboid b) Triangular prism
c) Cube d) Square prism
4. Which of the following is a two Dimensional figure?
a) Rectangle b) Rectangular prism
c) Square pyramid d) Square prism
5. Which of the following 3D shapes does not have a vertex?
a) Pyramid b) Prism c) Cone d) Sphere
6. Solid having only line segments as its edges is a
a) Polyhedron b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Polygon
7. In a solid if F = V = 5, then the number of edges in this shape is
a) 6 b) 4 c) 8 d) 2
8. We have 4 congruent equilateral triangles. What do we need more to make
pyramid?
a) An equilateral triangle
b) A square with same side length as triangle
c) 2 equilateral triangles with side length same as triangle
d) 2 square with side length same as triangle.
9. Side of a square garden is 30 m. If the scale used to draw its picture is 1 cm:
5m, the perimeter of the square in the picture is
a) 20cm b) 24 cm c) 28 cm d) 30 cm
10. The ratio of the number of general stores and that of the ground is
a) 1: 2 b) 2: 1 c) 2: 3 d) 3:2
Answer:
1)c 2) a 3) c 4)a 5) d 6) a 7) c 8) b 9) b 10) d
Fill in the blanks type

1. Square prism is also called a _______.
2. Rectangular prism is also called a _______
3. A pyramid on an n sided polygon has _______ faces.
4. A solid figure with only 1 vertex is a _______.
5. Total number of faces in a pyramid which has eight edges is _______.
6. In a three – dimensional shape, diagonal is a line segment that joins two
vertices that do not lie on the _______ face.
7. A pentagonal prism has _______ faces.
8. If the sum of number of vertices and faces in a polygon.
9. Total number of regular polyhedral is _______
10.A regular polyhedron is solid made up of _______ faces.
Unit – 11 Mensuration
Methods to Find Area of Quadrilaterals and Polygons:
1
 We can find the area of the triangle using the formula × 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒 × ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡.
2
 To find the area of a quadrilateral we will divide the quadrilateral into two
triangles and add the areas of the two triangles.
Triangulation
 The method of dividing a quadrilateral into two triangles to find out its area is
known as triangulation.
 Let ABCD is a quadrilateral. Then
 Area of quadrilateral ABCD
= (Area of ∆ ABD) + (Area of ∆ BCD)
= ½ d (ℎ1 + ℎ2 )
where d is the diagonal and ℎ1 and ℎ2 are the heights of the quadrilateral.
 Area of quadrilateral ABCD= ½ d (ℎ1 + ℎ2 )
 In a parallelogram the diagonal divides it into two triangles. Now
 Area of a Parallelogram = base × height
Rhombus
 In a rhombus diagonals are perpendicular to each other, so we can use the
method of triangulation to find the area of a rhombus.
1
 Area of a Rhombus = 𝑑1 × 𝑑2 ,
2
 where 𝑑1 and 𝑑2 are the lengths of the diagonals.
1
Area of a Rhombus = 𝑑1 × 𝑑2 ,
2
Where 𝑑1 and 𝑑2 are the lengths of the diagonals.
Trapezium
A trapezium has a pair of parallel sides.
𝑎+𝑏
Area of trapezium = h ( )
2
Where h = perpendicular distance between the parallel sides of a trapezium and
a and b are the lengths of the parallel sides.
𝑎+𝑏
Area of trapezium = h ( )
2
Polygon
A polygon is a closed shape that has at least three sides. It is a closed shape
that has at least three sides. Triangles, quadrilaterals, rectangles and squares are
all types of polygons. Moreover, a polygon can be of any shape and can have
any number of sides. There is no specific formula for calculating the area of a
polygon. The best way is to split the polygon into shapes whose area can be
calculated individually.
Surface Area of Solids
Cube: A cube is a three-dimensional figure, a solid made up of six equal
squares called faces.
Cuboid:
A cuboid is a solid made up of six rectangles, called faces. The total area of a
cuboid is the sum of the areas of these faces.
The lateral surface area (LSA) of a cuboid is 2h (l + b), whereas its total
surface area (TSA) is (lb + bh + hl).
Cylinder:
A cylinder is a solid composed of two congruent circles in parallel planes.
The curved surface area (CSA) of a cylindrical pillar is 2πrh, whereas its total
surface area (TSA) is 2πr(r+ h).
Volume of Solids:
 Bodies that occupy space are called solids.
 Solid bodies occur in various shapes, such as cuboid, cube, cylinder and
cone.
 The space occupied by a solid body is called its volume.
 The units for volume are cubic centimeter(cm3), cubic metre(m3) etc.
A cuboid is a solid bounded by six rectangular plane faces.

Consider a cuboid of length, breadth and height , and , respectively. Then:
 Volume of cuboid = lbh cubic units
 Total surface area of cuboid = 2(lb + bh + lh) sq. units
 Lateral surface area of cuboid = Area of 4 walls = 2h(l + b) sq.units
A cube whose length, breadth and height are all equal is called a cube.
Consider a cube of edge a unit. Then:
 Volume of cube = a3 cubic units
 Total surface area of cube = 6a2 sq. units
 Lateral surface area of cube = 4a2 sq. units
A solid bounded by a cylindrical surface and two parallel circular bases at the top
and bottom is called a cylinder.
Consider a cylinder of radius r units and height h units. Then:
 Volume of cylinder
 Total surface area of cylinder
 Lateral surface area of cylinder
The volume of a cylinder is also sometimes known as its capacity.
Objective questions:
1. A cube of side 5 cm is painted on all its faces. If it is sliced into 1 cube
centimeter cubes, how many I cubic centimeter cubes will have exactly one of their
faces painted?
(a) 27 (b) 42 (c) 54 (d) 142
2. A cube of side 4 cm is cut into 1 cm cubes. What is the ratio of the surface areas
of the original cubes and cut-out cubes?
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:3 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:6
3. A circle of maximum possible size is cut from a square sheet of board
subsequently, a square of maximum possible size is cut from the resultant circle.
What will be the area of the final square?
(a) ¾ of original square (b) ½ of original square
(c) ¼ of original square (d) 2/3 of original square
4. what is the area of largest triangle that can be fitted into a rectangle of length l
units and width w units?
(a) lw/2 (b) lw/3 (c) lw/6 (d) lw/4
5. If the height of a cylinder becomes ¼ of the original height and the radius is
doubted then which of the following will be true?
(a) Volume of the cylinder will be doubled.
(b) Volume of the cylinder will remain unchanged.
(c) Volume of the cylinder will be halved.
(d) Volume of the cylinder will be ¼ of the original volume.
6. The volume of a cube is 64cm3. Its surface area is
(a) 16cm2 (b) 64cm2 (c) 96cm2 (d) 128cm2
7. If the radius of a cylinder is tripled but its curved surface area is unchanged, then
its height will be.
(a) tripled (b) constant (c) One sixth (d) one third
8. How many small cubes with edge of 20 cm each can be just accommodated in a
cubical box of 2 m edge?
(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) 10000
9. The volume of a cube whose edge is 3x is
(a) 27x3 (b) 9x3 (c) 6x3 (d) 3x3
10. The area of a parallelogram is 60 cm2 and one of its altitude is 5 cm. The length
of its corresponding side is
(a) 12 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 2 cm
Answer:
1)c 2)c 3) b 4) a 5) b
6) c 7) d 8) c 9)a 10) d
Fill in the blanks:

1. A cube of side 4 cm is painted on all its sides. If it is sliced in 1 cubic cm cubes,
then number of such cubes that will have exactly two of their faces painted
is_________.
2. A cube of side 5 cm is cut into 1 cm cubes. The percentage increase in volume
after such cutting is___________.
3. The surface area of a cuboid formed by joining two cubes of side a face to face
is___________.
4. If the diagonals of a rhombus get doubled, then the area of the rhombus becomes
_____________ its original area.
5. If a cube is fits exactly in a cylinder with height h, then the volume of the cube is
________ and surface area of the cube is ________.
6. The volume of a cylinder becomes ___________ the original volume if its radius
becomes half of the original radius.
7. The curved surface area of a cylinder is reduced by ________ per cent if the
height is half of the original height.
8. The surface area of a cylinder which exactly fits in a cube of side b is _________.
9. The volume of a cylinder which exactly fits in a cube of side a is __________.
10. Opposite faces of a cuboid are __________ in area.
Unit – 12 Exponents and Powers
Exponents
A number that represents how many times the number is multiplied by itself is
known as exponent.
A given number can be expressed in standard as well as usual form. Any number
expressed as a decimal number between 1.0 and 10.0, including 1.0 multiplied by a
power of 10, is said to be in its Standard Form.
1
𝑎−𝑚 = Where, m is a positive integer and𝑎−𝑚 is called the multiplicative
𝑎𝑚
inverse of .
Negative exponents can be used to express very small numbers.
For any non-zero integers a and b we have,
Laws of exponents:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Here m and n are integers.
1. In 2n, n is known as
(a) Base (b) Constant (c) x (d) Variable
2. For a fixed base, if the exponent decreases by 1, the number becomes
(a) One – tenth of the previous number
(b) Ten times of the previous number.
(c) Hundredth of the previous number.
(d) Hundred times of the previous number.
3. 3-2 can be written as
(a) 32 (b) 1/32 (c) 1/3-2 (d) -2/3
4. The value of ¼-2 is
(a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 1/16 (d) 1/8
5. The value of 35÷ 3-6 is
(a) 35 (b) 3-6 (c) 311 (d) 3-11
6. The multiplicative inverse of 10-100 is
(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 10100 (d) 10-100
2
7. The reciprocal of ( )-1 is
5
(a) 2/5 (b) 5/2 (c) -5/2 (d)-2/5
8. If x be any non-zero integer and m , n be negative integers, then xm x xn
is equal to
(a) xm (b) xm+n (c) xn (d) xm-n
9. If y be any non-zero integer they y0 is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) not defined
10. The usual form for 2.03× 10-5
(a) 0.203 (b) 0.00203 (c) 203000 (d) 0.0000203
Answer:
1)c 2) a 3)b 4) a 5) c
6)c 7)a 8)b 9)a 10)d
Fill in the blanks:

1. The multiplicative inverse of 1010 is____________.
2. a3 × a-10 = ___________.
3. 50 = _________.
4. 55 × 5-5 = ________.
1
5. The value of ( 3)2 is equal to ____________.
2
6. The expression for 8-2 as a power with the base 2 is_________.
7. Very small numbers can be expressed in standard form by using
_________exponents.
8. Very large numbers can be expressed in standard form by using
___________exponents.
9. By multiplying (10)5 by (10)-10 we get_____________.
2 −6 2 2
10. [( ) ÷ ( ) 3] 3
×( ) −9
= _________
13 13 13
11. Find the value [4-1 + 3-1 + 6-2]-1
12. [2-1 + 3-1 + 4-1 ]10 = ____________.
1
13. The standard form of ( ) is ________.
100000000
14. The standard form of 12340000 is __________.
15. The usual form of 3.41 × 106 is ________.
16. The usual form of 2.39461 × 106 is _________.
17. If 36 = 6 × 6 = 62 then 1/36 expressed as a power with the base 6 is _______
5
18. By multiplying ( )4 by _________ we get 54.
3
19. 35 ÷ 3-6 can be simplified as _________.
20. The value of 3 × 10-7 is equal to _______.
21. To add the numbers given in standard form, we first convert them into numbers
with ________ exponents.
22. The standard form for 32,50,00,00,000 is _________.
23. The standard form for 0.000000008 is____________.
24. The usual form for 2.3×10-10 is __________.
25. On dividing 85 by ___________ we get 8.
26. On multiplying _____________ by 2-5 we get 25.
27. The value of [ 3-1×4-1]2 is __________.
28. The value of [2-1×3-1]-1 is__________.
29. By solving (6° - 7°) × (6° + 7°) we get ________.
30. The expression for 35 with a negative exponent is__________.
Unit – 13 Direct and Inverse Proportions
In our daily life we come across many situations wherein if there are two quantities,
if one increases the other increase or vice-versa. If one quantity decreases other
quantity decreases.
For any two quantities x and y, if the value of y increases with an increase in the
value of x such thatx/y remains constant, then the two quantities x and y are said
to be in direct proportion. Two quantities x and y in direct proportion are written
as x ∝ y.
Two quantities x and y are in direct proportion, then the ratio between the
corresponding values of x and y is constant. Thus x1/y1 = x2/y2 = x3/y3 and so on.
For any two quantities x and y, if the value of y decreases with an increase in the
value of x such that xy remains constant, the two quantities x and y are said to be
in inverse proportion.
Two quantities x and y in inverse proportion are written as x ∝ 1/y. We can also say
that if two quantities x and y are in inverse proportion, then the product of
corresponding values of x and y is constant, thus, x1y1 = x2y2 = x3y3 and so on.
Objective Questions
1. Both u and v vary directly with each other. When u is 10. V is 15. Which of the
following is not a possible pair of corresponding values of u and v?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 8 and 12 (c) 15 and 20 (d) 25 and 37.5
2. Both x and y vary inversely with each other. When x is 10. Y is 6. Which of the
following is not a possible pair of corresponding values of x and y?
(a) 12 and 5 (b) 15 and 4 (c) 25 and 2.4 (d) 45 and 1.3
3. Assuming land to be uniformly fertile, the area of land and the yield on it vary.
(a) directly with each other.
(b) inversely with each other.
(c) neither directly nor inversely with each other.
(d) sometimes directly and sometimes inversely with each other.
4. The number of teeth and the age of a person vary.
(a) directly with each other.
(b) inversely with each other.
(c) neither directly nor inversely with each other.
(d) sometimes directly and sometimes inversely with each other.
5. which quantities in the previous question vary inversely with each other?
(a) x and y (b) p and q (c) r and s (d) u and v
6. Meenakshee cycles to her school at an average speed of 12km/h and takes 20
minutes to reach her school. If she wants to reach her school in 12 minutes her
average speed should be
20
(a) km/h (b) 16km/h (c) 20km/h (d) 15km/h
3
7. 100 persons had food provision for 24 days. If 20 persons left the place the
provision will last for
96
(a) 30 days (b) days (c) 120 days (d) 40 days
5
8. If two quantities x and y vary directly with each other, then
𝑥
(a) remains constant (b) x – y remains constant.
𝑦
(c) x + y remains constant (d) x × y remains constant.

9. If two quantities p and q vary inversely with each other, then
(a) p/q remains constant (b) p + q remains constant
(c) p × q remains constant (d) p – q remains constant.
10. If the distance travelled by a rickshaw in one hour is 10 km, then the distance
travelled by the same rickshaw with the same speed in one minute is
250 500 500
(a) m (b) m (c) 1000m (d) m
9 9 3
Answer:
1.c 2.d 3.a 4.d 5.d
6. c 7. a 8.a 9.a 10. d
Fill in the blanks:

1. If x = 5y, then x and y vary ____________ with each other.
2. If xy = 10 then x and y vary ___________ with each other.
3. when two quantities x and y are in ______ proportion or vary ________ they are
written as x ∝ y.
4. when two quantities x and y are in __________ proportion or vary ______
They are written as x ∝ 1/y.
5. Both x and y are said to vary _______ with each other if for some positive number
k. xy = k.
6. Two quantities are said to vary _____ with each other if they increase(decrease)
together in such a manner that the ration of their corresponding values remains
constant.
7. Two quantities are said to vary ________ with each other if an increase in one
causes a decrease in the other in such a manner that the product of their
corresponding values remains constant.
8. When the speed remains constant, the distance travelled is ________ proportional
to the time.
9. A car is travelling 48 km in one hour. The distance travelled by the car in 12
minutes is ________.
10. An auto rickshaw takes 3 hours to cover a distance of 36 km. If its speed is
increased by 4km/h, the time taken by it to cover the same distance
is_____________.
Unit – 14 Factorisation
Factors of Algebraic Expressions
 The irreducible factor of an algebraic term is a factor of the term that
cannot be further factorised. An algebraic expression written as
the product of its irreducible factors is called the irreducible form of the
term.
 Expressing an algebraic expression as the product of its factors is called
the factorisation of the expression. This is the factor form of
the expression.
The factors of an algebraic expression may be numbers or algebraic expression. The
basic methods to factorise an algebraic expression are:
o Identifying the common factors
o Regrouping the terms
o Using algebraic identities
The basic identities used to factorise an algebraic expression are:
In case of numbers Division is the inverse operation of multiplication but the same is
applicable for the division of algebraic expressions also. To divide a monomial by a
monomial, first express the numerator and the denominator in their irreducible form,
and then cancel the common factors. To divide a polynomial by a monomial, either
divide each term of the numerator by the denominator or factorise the numerator by
the common factor method. To divide a polynomial by a
polynomial, first factorise the numerator and the denominator by using the
appropriate method and then cancel the common factors.
Division of Algebraic Expression

In case of numbers Division is the inverse operation of multiplication but the
same is applicable for the division of algebraic expressions also.
Division of a monomial by another monomial
To divide a monomial by a monomial, first express the numerator and the
denominator in their irreducible form, and then cancel the common factors.
Division of a polynomial by a monomial
To divide a polynomial by a monomial, either divide each term of the numerator by
the denominator or factorise the numerator by the common factor method.
Division of a polynomial by a polynomial
To divide a polynomial by a polynomial, first factorise the numerator and the
denominator by using the appropriate method and then cancel the common factors.
Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder.
Hint: Division is the inverse operation of multiplication.
2x × (2x+3) = 4x2 + 6x, then
(4x2 + 6x) ÷ 2x = (2x+3)
Objective Questions
1. Which of the following is the common factor of 21 x2y and 35 xy2?
(i) 7 (ii) xy (iii) 7 xy (iv) none of these.
2. Which of the following arc the factors of 1 – x2?
(i) (x + l) (x – l) (ii) (1 – x) (1 + x)
(iii) (1 – x) (1 – x) (iv) (1 + x) (1 + x).
3. Which of the following is the common factor of: 5xy, 3pqr and 40 xyz?
(i) 5 (ii) 0 (iii) xy (iv) 1
4. Which of the following is quotient obtained on dividing –18 xyz2 by –3 xz?
(i) 6 yz (ii) –6 yz (iii) 6 xy2 (iv) 6 xy
5. Which of the following is quotient obtained on dividing (x – b) (x – a) by – (x –
2
a)?
−(𝑥 2 −𝑏)
(i) (x2 – b) (ii) (𝑥−𝑎)
(iii) –(x2 – b) (iv) – (x + a)
6. Which of the following are the factors of a2 + ab + bc + ca
(i) ab – a – b + 1 = (1 – a) (1 – b) (ii) ab – a – b + 1 = (a – 1) (b – 1)
(iii) ab – a – b + 1 = (1 – a) (b – 1) (iv) ab – a – b + 1 = (a – 1) (1 – b)
7. (y – x) (y + x) is equal to which of the following:
(i) y2 – yx (ii) yx – x2 (iii) y2 – x2 (iv) x2 – y2
8. Which of the following are the factors of a2 + ab +bc + ca
(i) (b + c) (c + a) (ii) (a + b) (a + c) (iii) a(a + b + c) (iv) (a + b) (b + c).
9. Which of the following is the factorisation of x3 – x?
(i) x(x – x2) (ii) x[(1+ x) (1 – x)] (iii) x(x2 – x) (iv) x[(x + 1) (x – 1)]
10.Which of the following is equal to x3 – 225x
(i) x(1 – 15x) (1 + 15x) (ii) x(x – 15) (x + 15)
(iii) x(1 – 15x) (1 – 15x) (iv) x(1 + 15x) (1 – 15x).
11. Find the common factors of the given terms 12x,36.
i)13 ii) 12 iii)14 iv)16
12. Find the common factor 2y,22xy
i)3y ii)4y iii)2y iv)5y
13. Factorise the following expression 7x-42
i)7(x-6) ii)7(x-7) iii)7(x-5) iv)7(x-9)
14. Factorise:𝑥 2 + 𝑥𝑦 + 8𝑥 + 8𝑦
i) (x+8)(x+y) ii) (x+𝑋 2 )(x+y)
iii)(x+7)(x+8) iv) (x+3)(x+xy)
15. 10𝑎2 − 15𝑏 2 + 20𝑐 2
i)4(2𝑎2 − 3𝑏 2 + 4𝑐 2 ) ii) 5(2𝑎2 − 3𝑏 2 + 4𝑐 2 )
iii) 4(3𝑎2 + 2𝑏 2 + 4𝑐 2 ) iv) 4(2𝑎2 + 3𝑏 2 − 4𝑐 2 )
16. 𝑎2 + 8𝑎 + 16
i) (𝑎 + 6)2 ii) (𝑎 + 4)2 iii) (𝑎 + 8)2 iv) (𝑎 + 2)2
17. 16𝑥 5 − 144𝑥 3
i) 16𝑥 3 (𝑥 − 3)(𝑥 + 3) ii) 14𝑥 3 (𝑥 − 3)(𝑥 + 3)
iii) 12𝑥 3 (𝑥 − 3)(𝑥 + 3) iv) 18𝑥 3 (𝑥 − 3)(𝑥 + 3)
18. 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥
i) x(ax+b) ii) x(ax-b) iii) x(bx+a) iv) x(ax+a)
19. 49𝑥 2 − 36
i)(7𝑥 − 6)(7𝑥 + 6) ii) (7𝑥 − 6)(7𝑥 − 6)
iii) (7𝑥 + 6)(7𝑥 + 6) iv) (7𝑥 + 6)(7𝑥 − 6)
20. Factorise:𝑞 2 − 10𝑞 + 21
i)(q-3)(q-7) ii)(q-4)(q-3) iii)(q+3)(q+7) iv) (q+5)(q-7)
Answer:
1)iii 2)ii 3)iv 4)i 5)iii
6)ii 7)iii 8)ii 9)iv 10)ii
11) ii 12) iii 13) i 14) i 15) ii
16) ii 17) i 18) i 19) i 20) i
Fill in the blanks
11.The common factor of 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 𝑖𝑠 ______
12. Factorised form of 18mn+10mnp is______
13. Factorised form of 4𝑦 2 − 12𝑦 + 9 is ______
14. The common factor method of factorisation for a polynomial is based on _____
property
3𝑥+3
15. On simplification = ____
3
16. The factorisation of 2x+4y is_______
Unit – 15 Introduction to Graphs
A pictorial representation of two sets of numerical data. The saying, "A picture is
worth a thousand words," is exactly true in case of graphs. The data represented in a
graph is self-explanatory.
Uses of Graphs
Graphs are used for better understanding. For example, using these graphs, the
performance of two batsmen can be compared, performance of two bowlers can also
be observed in a cricket match. Also, in population studies, these graphs are used to
compare the birth and the death rate, and other kinds of data.
Bar Graph
A bar graph is also known as a histogram. A bar graph consists of horizontal or
vertical bars that show the values of one quantity against another. These are useful
when there is a numerical comparison. For example, it compares the performance of
a team across matches in a series.
PIE CHARTS
A circular graph used to represent relative percentages or shares of a total. It looks
like a pie cut into several slices, and hence the name pie chart. Each slice is called a
sector of the chart. A pie chart is used to showcase a whole quantity and the whole
quantity is broken into parts.
LINE GRAPH
A line that joins dots plotted on a graph paper is called a line graph. It is used to
show the variation of a quantity with respect to another. A line graph represents two
pieces of information that are usually related. It is useful when comparisons are
needed. For example, these graphs are used to represent the changes in speed over a
journey.
PLOTTING A GRAPH
To plot a graph on a graph sheet:
 Take a graph paper.
 At the centre of the paper, draw two lines perpendicular to each other.
 Mark the point of intersection of the lines as ‘O.’
The horizontal line is called the X-axis, while the vertical line is called the Y-axis.
The point of intersection of the two axes is called the origin, "O".
Take one quantity along the X-axis and the other along the Y-axis, after choosing
suitable scales for both. For every value along one axis, mark a point matching the
related value on the other axis.
Join the points, and your graph is ready.
SHAPE OF THE GRAPH
Body in uniform motion:
The graph for a body in uniform motion will be straight line making angle
horizontally.
Body at rest:
The speed of a body at rest speed is zero at any point of time. Hence, its graph is a
straight line along the X-axis.
Body in non-uniform motion:
For a body in non-uniform motion, the graph is not a straight line.
Objective Question:
1. (o, y) are the co-ordinates of a point lying on which of the following?
(i) origin (ii) x-axis (iii) y-axis (iv) none of these.
2. The point (3, 2) is nearer to:
(i) x-axis (ii) y-oxis (iii) origin (iv) none of these.
3. The point (–5, 6) is nearer it:
(i) x-axis (ii) y-oxis (iii) origin (iv) none of these.
4. The point (–3, –3) is
(i) nearer to x-axis (ii) y-axis
(iii) near to origin (iv)equidistant from x-axis and y-axis.
5. The point (0, 4) lies on which of the following:
(i) x-axis (ii) y-axis (iii) origin (iv) none of these.
6. The point (–3, 0) lies on which of the following?
(i) x-axis (ii) y-axis (iii) origin (iv) none of these.
7. The points (–3, 2) and (2, –3) represent:
(i) different points (ii) same point (iii) the origin (iv) none of these.
8. By joining (–1, –1), (0, 0) and (3, 3) represent:
(i) a triangle (ii) a curved line
(iii) a straight line passing through origin
(iv) a straight line not passing through origin.
9. By joining (–3, 2), (–3, –3) and (–3, 4), which of the following is obtained?
(i) a triangle (ii) A straight line not passing through origin
(iii) A straight line passing through origin (iv) none of these.
10.Which of the following points lies on y-axis?
(i) (–4, 0) (ii) (4, 0) (iii) (0, –4) (iv) (–4, 4)
Answer:
1) ii 2) i 3)ii 4)vi 5)ii
6) i 7)i 8)iii 9)ii 19)iii
Unit – 16 Playing with numbers
General Form of Numbers
Various types of numbers such as Natural numbers, Whole numbers, Integers,
Rational numbers and the various properties such as closure, associative,
commutative and distributive.
2-digit number
The number in the general form can be written as for example 26 = 2 x 10 + 6.
General Form of a 2-digit Number 10 × a + 1 × b
1. The sum of a 2-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging its
digits is always divisible by 11.
2. The difference between a 2-digit number and the number obtained by
interchanging its digits is always divisible by 9.
Assume ab is a 2-digit number.
• a is the tens digit
• b is the ones digit
ab = 10 × a + 1 × b.
3-digit number
General form of a 3-digit number is 100 × a + 10 × b + 1 × c.
1. The difference between a 3-digit number and a number obtained by reversing
its digits is always divisible by 99.
Assume abc is a 3-digit number, where:
• a is the hundreds digit
• b is the tens digit
• c is the ones digit
abc = 100 × a + 10 × b + 1 × c
Letters for digits
Assume that each letter in a puzzle stands for just one digit and each digit is
represented by a one letter, so it is like cracking a code. Here problems of addition
and multiplication to solving puzzles.
For example, eighty-one will be written as 81 not as 081 or 0081.
Tests of Divisibility
The tests of divisibility with 10, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4, 8, 9 and 11. In this, learn why the
numbers are divisible by 10, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4, 8, 9 and 11.
A number is said to be divisible by another number, when the remainder is zero.
• A number is divisible by 10, if its ones digit is 0.
• A number is divisible by 5, if its ones digit is 0 or 5.
• A number is divisible by 2, if its ones digit is 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8.
• If a number is divisible by 10, then the number is also divisible by 2 and 5.
• A number is divisible by 9, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.
• A number is divisible by 3, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.
• If a number is divisible by 9, then the number is also divisible by 3.
• If a number is divisible by 3, then it may not necessarily be divisible by 9.
• If a number is divisible by 6, then the number is divisible by 2 as well as 3.
• If a number is divisible by 11, then the difference of its digits in odd places and
the sum of its digits in
even places is either 0 or a multiple of 11.
• If a number is divisible by 4, then the number formed by its digits in units and
tens places is divisible by 4.
1. Generalized form of a four-digit number abdc is
(a) 1000a + 100b + 10c + d
(b) 1000a + 100c + 10b + d
(c) 1000a + 100b + 10d + c
(d) a × b × c × d
2. Generalized form of a Two-digit number xy is
(a) x + y (b) 10x + y (c) 10x – y (d) 10y + x
3. The usual form of 1000a + 10b + c is
(a) abc (b) abco (c) aobc (d) aboc
4. Let abc be a three-digit number. Then abc-cba is not visible by
(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 18 (d) 33
5. The sum of all the numbers formed by the digits x,y and z of the number xyz
is divisible by
(a) 11 (b) 33 (c) 37 (d) 74
6. A four – digit number aabb is divisible by 55. Then possible value (s) of
b is /are
(a) 0 and 2 (b) 2 and 5 (c) 0 and 5 (d) 7
7. Let abc be a three-digit number. Then abc + bca + cab is not divisible by
(a) a+b+c (b) 3 (c) 37 (d) 9
8. A four-digit number 4ab5 is divisible by 55. Then the value of b-a is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 5
9. If abc is a three-digit number. Then the number abc – a – b – c is divisible by
(a) 9 (b) 90 (c) 10 (d) 11
10. A six-digit number if formed by repeating a three-digit number. For
example 256256, 678678, etc. Any number of this form is divisible by
(a) 7 only (b) 11 only (c) 13 only (d) 1001.
Answer:
1.c 2.b 3.c 4.c 5.c
6. c 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. d
Fill in the blanks:

1. 3134673 is divisible by 3 and _________.
2. 20×3 is a multiple of 3 if the digit x is _____or ____ or______.
3. 3×5 is a divisible by 9 if the digit x is ________.
4. The sum of two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing the digits
is always divisible by________.
5. The difference of three-digit number and the number obtained by reversing
its digits is always divisible by_________.
6. The difference of three-digit number and the number obtained by putting
the digit in reverse order is always divisible by 9 and ___________.
7. 1×35 is divisible by 9 if x = _______.
8. A four-digit number abcd is divisible by 11, if d + b = ________or________.
9. A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at
the even places is either 0 or divisible by_________.
10. If a 3-digit number abc is divisible by 11. Then ________is either 0 or multiple
of 11.
UNIT – 1
KINEMATICS
1. Mechanics: The branch of physics which deals with the motion of objects in
everyday life is called mechanics.
2. It is divided into, kinematics, Dynamics and statics

i)Kinematics: kinematics which is derived from a Greek word kinema meaning
motion, is a branch of physics, which deals with motion of a body without taking
into account the cause of motion.
ii) Dynamics: Dynamics, which is derived from the Greek word dyna meaning
power, is a branch of physics which deals with the motion of bodies by taking
account the cause of motion (force)
iii) Statics: statics deals with bodies at rest under the effect of different forces.
3. Point Objects:
An object is said to be a point object if its size is very small as compared to
distance travelled by it in the given time interval.
Ex: i) A bus travelling a distance of 100 km can be considered as a point
object. This is Because the size of car is very small as compared to the distance
travelled by it.
ii) A car travelling a distance of 50 km can be considered as a point object.
This is because the size of car is very small as compared to the distance travelled
by it.
4. Reference point: A fixed point or a fixed object with respect to which the given
body changes its position is known as reference point.
5. Rest: A body is said to be at rest if it does not change its position with respect to
the reference point. The objects which remain stationary at a place and do not
change their position are said to be at rest.
Ex: A chair lying in a room is in the state of rest, because it does not charge its
position with respect to the surrounding of the room.
6. Motion: A body is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to the
surrounding with the passage of time. All moving things are said to be in motion.
Ex: A car is changing its position w.r.t trees, houses etc. is in the state of motion.
7. Rest and motion are relative terms: Rest and motion are relative terms. A body
can be at rest as well as in motion at the same time. When we say that a body or
an object is in motion, then it is essential to see whether the body or object
changes its position with respect to other bodies or objects around it or with
respect to any fixed point known as reference point. For example, when a bus
moves on a road, then the bus as well as the passengers sitting in it change their
position with respect to a person standing on a road side. So, the bus and the
passengers sitting in it are in motion with respect to the person standing on the
road side. However, the passengers sitting in the bus do not change their position
with respect to each other. It means, the passengers sitting in a moving bus are
not in motion with respect to each other.
Ex: A person sitting in the compartment of a moving train is in the state of
rest, with respect to the surroundings of compartment. Yet he is in the state of
motion, if he compares himself with surrounding outside the compartment.
Notes: In order to describe the motion of an object we need to keep in mind three
things.
1. The distance of the body from a reference point. This reference point is
called the origin of the motion of the body.
2. The direction of motion of the body.
3. The time of motion.
Terms related to kinematics:
Distance:
The distance travelled by a body is actual length of the path covered by a
moving body irrespective of the direction in which the body travles.
SI unit of distance is metre or CGS unit of distance is centimeter
Distance is a scalar. Dimensional formula= [𝐿]𝑜𝑟[𝑀° 𝐿1 𝑇° ]
Displacement:
When a body moves from one position to another, the shortest distance
between the initial position and final position.
Note:
SI unit of displacement is metre or CGS unit of displacement is centimeter.
It is a vector. Dimensional formula =[L] or [𝑀° 𝐿1 𝑇° ]
1. The displacement of an object in a given interval of time can be positive
zero or negative whereas distance travelled is always positive.
2. Distance is a scalar quantity whereas displacement is a vector quantity.
Displacement (vector notation):
We know distance is the actual path length covered by a moving
particle or body in a given time interval, while displacement is the change
in position vector, i.e., a vector joining initial to final position. If a particle
moves from A to C through a path ABC.
Then distance (∆𝑠) travelled is the actual path length OAB, while the
displacement is ∆𝑟⃗ = 𝑟⃗2 − 𝑟⃗1 .
If a particle moves in a straight line without change in direction, the magnitude of
displacement us equal to the distance travelled otherwise it is always less than it.
Thus |𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡| ≤ distance
WORKSHEET - 1
1. _________ covered by a moving object is the actual length of the path

covered by the object.
a) Distance b) Displacement c) Mass d) Time
2. Distance is a _______ quantity
a) scalar b) vector c) both a & b d) neither a
nor b
3. Distance has _______
a) magnitude b) direction c) both a & b d)
none of these
4. CGS unit of distance is
a) cm b) m c) km d) mm
5. SI unit of distance is
6. _________ is the shortest distance from initial point to final point.
a) distance b) displacement c) mass d) time
7. Displacement is a _________ quantity
a) scalar b) vector c) both a & b d) neither a
nor b
8. Displacement has
a) magnitude b) direction
c) both a & b d) neither a nor b
9. CGS unit of displacement is
10.SI unit of displacement is
11.If a body moves in a circular path and reach back to its initial position then
a) magnitude of displacement = 0 b) distance = 0
c) both a & b are correct d) none of these
12.If the distance covered by a particle is zero, what can you say about its
displacement
a) it may (or) may not be zero b) it cannot be zero
c) it is negative d) it must be zero
13.If the displacement of a particle is zero, distance covered by it
a) it may (or) may not be zero b) must be zero
c) it is negative d) all are true
14.A car travels 10km towards east and then travels 5km towards west. The
total distance travelled by the car is
a) 15km b) 10km c) 5km d) zero
15.In the above problem the displacement of the car is
a) 15km b) 5km east c) 5km west d) zero
16.A man leaves his house at 5:30 a.m for a morning walk and returns at 6:15
a.m. the displacement in this time is
a) 5m b) zero c) 6m d) 7m
17.A particle completes a revolution along a circular path of radius ‘r’. the
distance travelled by the particle is
a) 𝜋r b) 2 𝜋r c) 3 𝜋r d) zero
18.In the above problem the displacement of the particle is
a) 𝜋r b) 2 𝜋r c) 3 𝜋r d) zero
19.A man walks 4m towards east and then 3m towards north and then he
climbs a pole of 12m height. The distance covered by the man is
a) 7m b) 11m c) 13m d) 19m
20.A cyclist moves from O to D along the path as shown the distance covered
by him is
a) 17km b) 20km c) 3km d) 5km
21.A body moves 6m due North, 8m due east and 10m vertically upwards the
distance travelled by the body is
a) 34m b) 10m c) 18m d) 24m
22.A man walks 12m due North, 4m due east then the distance travelled by
him is
a) 16m b) 13m c) 8m d)9m
23.A man walks 8m towards East and then 6m towards north. The distance
travelled by him is
a) 10m b) 14m c) 2m d) zero
24.In the above problem the magnitude of displacement is
a) 10m b) 14m c) 2m d) zero
25.The position of the particle going along a straight line is x = 50 m at 10:30
a.m. and x = 55m at 10:35 a.m. the displacement between 10:30 a.m and
10:35 a.m. is
a) 5m b) zero c) 6m d) 7m
26.A particle completes half a revolution along a circular path of radius ‘r’ the
distance travelled by the particle is
a) 𝜋r b) 2 𝜋r c) 3 𝜋r d) 4 𝜋r
27.A particle moves in a circle of radius ‘r’. after one and half revolutions, the
distance covered by a particle is
a) 2 𝜋r b) 3 𝜋r c) 4 𝜋r d) 𝜋r
28.A boy walks along the square path. ABCDA of side 5m. Then if the boy starts
from A and reaches to C along the path ABC, then the distance travelled by
the boy is
a) 5m b) 10m c) 15m d) 20m

29.If the boy starts A and reaches to D along the path ABCD, then the distance
travelled by the boy is
a) 15m b) 10√2m c) 5√2m d) 10m
30.If the boy starts from A and reaches to A along the path ABCDA, then the
distance travelled by the boy is
a) zero b) 5m c) 10m d) 20m
WORKSHEET – 2:
1. If the distance covered by a particle is zero, what can you say about its
displacement.
1) It may (or) may not be zero 2) It cannot be zero
3) It is negative 4) It must be zero
2. It the displacement of a particle is zero, distance covered by it
1) May (or) may not be zero 2) Must be zero
3) Is negative 4) All are true
3. If a body moves in a circular path and reach back to its initial position then
1) magnitude of displacement is 0 2) distance is 0
3) both (1) and (2) are correct 4) Distance is equal to radius
4. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is
1) Always less than 1 2) Always greater than 1
3) Always equal to 1 4) May be less than 1 or equal to one
5.A body goes 20 km north and then 10 km due east. The displacement of body
from its starting point is
1) 30 km 2)25.2 km 3) 10 km 4)22.36 km
6. A cyclist moves from a certain point X and moves around a circular path of
radius r.
If the cyclist reaches exactly the other side of the point X(i.e., diametrically
opposite point to X). Then, the distance travelled and magnitude of
displacement of cyclist are respectively.
𝜋𝑟
1) 𝜋𝑟, 2𝑟 2) , 2𝜋 3) 2𝜋𝑟, 𝑧𝑒𝑟𝑜 4) r, 2r
2
7. A cyclist moves from a certain point X and moves around a circular path of
radius r.
If the cyclist reaches a point ‘Z’ as shown in the figure, then the distance travelled
and magnitude of displacement of the cyclist are respectively
𝜋𝑟 𝜋𝑟 𝜋𝑟
1) ,2r 2) ,4r 3) ,√2r 4) 2πr, Zero
2 4 2
8. A man walks 4 m towards north then 3 m towards cast and there he climbs a
pole of 12 m height.
1) distance covered by man is 13 m
2) total displacement by man is 13 m
3) distance covered by man is 21 m
4) total displacement by man is 19 m
9. A body is moving along the circumference of a circle of radius ‘R’ and completes
half of the revolution. Then, the ratio of its displacement to distance is
1) π:2 2) 2:1 3) 2:π 4) 1:2
10. A body completes one round of a circle of radius ‘R’ in 20 second. The
displacement of the body after 45 second is
𝑅
1) 2) √2 R 3) 2√𝑅 4)2R
√2
11. A player completes a circular path of radius ‘r’ in 40 s. At the end of 2 minutes
20 seconds, displacement will be
1) 2r 2)2πr 3) 7πr 4) Zero
12. A boy walked along the square path, ABCD of side 5m. Then along the path
ABC, the distance travelled by a boy is
1) 5 m 2) 10 m 3) 10 √2m 4) 5 √2m
13. A boy walks along the square path . PORS of side 2 m. then along the path
RSP, the displacement travelled by a boy is
1) 4 m 2) 6 m 3) 2√2 m 4)2 m
Key :
WORKSHEET – 1
1. a 2. a 3.a 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. b 8.c 9. a 10. b

11. a 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. 2 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. d 20.d
21. d 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. d
WORKSHEET – 2:
1. d 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. b
11. a 12. b 13. c
KINEMATICS
Speed: The distance covered by a body in unit time is called speed.
Mathematical Expression of speed: The speed can be found by dividing the
distance covered by the time in which the distance is covered. i.e.,
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑠
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = ⇒𝑉=
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡
Units of speed: C.G.S unit of speed is centimeter per second (cm/s).

S.I unit of speed is metre per second (m/s). It is a scalar. Its dimension formula=
[𝑀° 𝐿1 𝑇 −1 ]
Bigger unit of speed is km/hr. The relation between km/hr and m/s is
1𝑘𝑚 1000𝑚 5
1𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ = = = 𝑚/𝑠
1ℎ𝑟 3600𝑠 18
1𝑘𝑚 5 18
∴ = 𝑚⁄𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 1𝑚⁄𝑠 = 𝑘𝑚⁄ℎ𝑟
ℎ𝑟 18 5
1. Types of speed:
Uniform speed: If a body covers equal distance in equal intervals of time
(however small the time intervals may be), then the body is said to have
uniform speed or constant speed.
Note: If the ratio of distance travelled and time taken by a moving body is
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
constant, i.e., = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 then we say that the body is moving
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
with uniform speed.
Non-uniform speed:
If a body covers unequal distance in equal intervals of time (however small
the time intervals may be), then the body is said to have non uniform speed
or variable speed.
Note: If the ratio of distance travelled and time taken by a moving body is
not constant, ie., ≠ 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 then we say that the body is moving
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
with variable speed.
Average speed and instantaneous speed:

Average speed: When the body is moving with non-uniform speed, then we
calculate its average speed by dividing the total distance covered by the
total time taken to cover the distance.
𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒅𝒊𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝒄𝒐𝒗𝒆𝒓𝒆𝒅
∴ 𝒂𝒗𝒆𝒓𝒂𝒈𝒆 𝒔𝒑𝒆𝒆𝒅 =
𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆 𝒕𝒂𝒌𝒆𝒏 𝒕𝒐 𝒄𝒐𝒗𝒆𝒓 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒅𝒊𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒄𝒆
∆𝑠
𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔 =
∆𝑡
Instantaneous Speed:
The speed of the particle at a particular stand (or) point is called instantaneous
speed.
Let ∆s be the distance travelled in the time interval t to t +∆t. The average speed
∆𝑠
in this time interval is 𝑉𝑎𝑣 =
∆𝑡
The instantaneous speed at a time t is defined as

∆𝑠 𝑑𝑠
𝑉𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑡 = lim =
∆𝑡 →0 ∆𝑡 𝑑𝑡
Where s is the distance travelled in time t. speed is defined at a particular instant.

𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒅𝒊𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒗𝒆𝒍𝒍𝒆𝒅
𝑽𝒂𝒗𝒈 =
𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆 𝒕𝒂𝒌𝒆𝒏
If a body travels a distance 𝑆1 in time 𝑡1 , 𝑆2 in time 𝑡2 , 𝑆3 in time 𝑡3 then the

average speed is
𝐒𝟏 + 𝐒𝟐 + 𝐒𝟑
𝐕𝐚𝐯𝐠 =
𝐭 𝟏 + 𝐭 𝟐 +𝐭 𝟑
If an object travels distances 𝑆1 , 𝑆2 , 𝑆3 etc. with speeds 𝑉1 , 𝑉2 , 𝑉3 respectively in

the same direction. Then
𝑺 + 𝑺𝟐 + 𝑺𝟑
Average speed = 𝑺𝟏𝟏 𝑺𝟐 𝑺
+ + 𝟑
𝑽𝟏 𝑽𝟐 𝑽𝟑
If an object travels first half of the total journey with a speed 𝑉1 and next half with
a speed 𝑉2 then its average is
𝑺+𝑺 𝟐𝑺 𝟐 𝟐𝑽𝟏 𝑽𝟐
𝑽𝒂𝒗𝒈 = 𝑺 𝑺 = 𝑺 𝑺 = 𝟏 𝟏 =
+ + + 𝑽𝟏 +𝑽𝟐
𝑽𝟏 𝑽𝟐 𝑽𝟏 𝑽𝟐 𝑽𝟏 𝑽𝟐
If a body travels first 1/3rd of the distance with a speed 𝑉1 and second 1/3 of the
distance with a speed 𝑉2 and last 1/3 rd of the distance with a speed 𝑉3 then the
average speed
𝑺 𝑺 𝑺
+ +
𝑽𝒂𝒗𝒈 = 𝑺
𝟑 𝟑 𝟑
𝑺 𝑺
+ +
𝟑𝑽𝟏 𝟑𝑽𝟐 𝟑𝑽𝟑
𝟑𝑽𝟏 𝑽𝟐 𝑽𝟑
𝑽𝒂𝒗𝒈 =
𝑽𝟏 𝑽𝟐 +𝑽𝟐 𝑽𝟑 +𝑽𝟑 𝑽𝟏
If an object travels with speeds 𝑉1 , 𝑉2 , 𝑉3 etc., during time intervals 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 , 𝑡3 etc.,
𝑉1 𝑡1 +𝑉2 𝑡2 +𝑉3 𝑡3 +⋯
Then its average speed =
𝑡1 +𝑡2 +𝑡3 +⋯
If 𝑡1 = 𝑡2 = 𝑡3 = ….= t, then
𝑉1 𝑡+𝑉2 𝑡+𝑉3 𝑡+⋯ 𝑉1 +𝑉2 +⋯
𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔 = =
𝑛𝑡 𝑛
i.e. The average speed is equal to the arithmetic mean of individual speeds.
The actual path length traversed by a body is called distance.
WORKSHEET – 3
1. __________ of an object that is moving is a quantity that tells us how fast it is
moving
a) distance b) displacement c) speed d) all of these
2. _________ of an object is equal to the distance travelled by it in a short time
interval divided by the time interval
a) distance b) speed c) displacement d) all of these
3. _________ of an object is equal to the distance covered by it per unit time
a) distance b) displacement c) speed d) all of these
4. If a body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, then the body is said
to be moving with the (however the small time intervals may be)
a) non uniform speed b) uniform speed
c) instantaneous speed d) none of these
5. A body moves with a uniform speed,
a) if it covers, equal distances in equal intervals of time however small the time
intervals may be
b) if it covers, unequal distances in equal intervals of time in specified direction
c) if it covers, equal displacements in equal intervals of time but not in a specified
direction
d) if it covers, unequal distances in equal intervals of time but not in a specified
direction
6. If an object does not cover equal distances in equal time intervals its speed is
called
a) non-uniform speed b) uniform speed
c) average speed d) none of these
7. An object with no movement at all times has __________ speed
a) zero b) high c) uniform d) we cant say
8. The rate at which an object cover distance is called
a) speed b) distance c) displacement d) rest
9. Speed is a ________ quantity
a) scalar b) vector
c) fundamental physical d) none of these
10.Speed =
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
a) b) c) distance×time d) distance + time
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
11.15 m/s = ________ km/hr
a) 45 b) 54 c) 34 d) 24
12.A person starts moving along the perimeter of a square ABCD of side 2mat
time t = 0s. If he starts from point A and returns back to the same point after 4
sec, his speed in the given time interval is _________ m/s.
a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 2
13.A train moving with uniform speed covers a distance of 120m in 2s. Speed of
train is
a) 6m/s b) 60m/s c) 600m/s d) 6000m/s
14.A scooter travels 10m in every 5 seconds, they speed of the scooter is
a) 4m/s b) 3m/s c) 2m/s d) 1m/s
15.A train take 3 hours to travel from Agra to Delhi with a uniform speed of
70km/h the distance between two cities
a) 120km b) 220km c) 210km d)160km
16.A body covers equal distance in equal intervals of time however small the time
intervals may be. The change in speed in time ‘t’ is equal to
a) zero b) increases c) decreases d) velocity
17.The distance covered by a jogger with an average speed of 2.5 m/s in 1.5 hr is
a) 13.5 km b) 13km c) 10km d) 15km
18.A man walks for 1 minute with a speed 1m/s then what is the distance covered
a) 60m b) 20m c) 1m d)10
19.A man runs for 2 minutes and covers a distance 360m then what is the speed is
m/s
a) 1m/s b) 3m/s c) 5m/s d) 7m/s
20.A car covers 20km with a uniform speed 10km/h then what is the time taken
a) 1hr b) 3hr c) 4hr d) 2hr
21.A man walks for 1 minute with a speed of 1m/s and he runs for the next
minute with a speed of 3m/s along a straight track the total distance covered
a) 60m b) 180m c) 240m d) 360m
22.A train is 100m long and is moving with a speed of 72kmph. The time taken by
the train to cross a pole in the stations
a) 2sec b) 3sec c) 4sec d) 5sec
23.A car covers 60km with a uniform speed of 120kmph and the next 60km with a
uniform speed of 80kmph the total time taken by the car is
a) 75min b) 60min c) 55min d) 80min
24.A train runs past a telegraph pole in 15s with a speed of 10m/s then what is
the length of the train?
a) 150m b) 120m c) 1.5m d) 75m
25.A particle moves through a distance of 8m due east and then 6m north in 14s
then what is the speed of the particle?
a) 1m/s b) 2m/s c) 4m/s d) 8m/s
26.1 km/h =
5 500
a) m/s b) cm/s c) 10 m/s d) 8m/s
18 18
27. Column – I Column – II
a) units of speed p) covers equal distances in
equal intervals of time
b) formula for speed q) km/h
c) a body moving with uniform speed r)
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
d) a body moving with non-uniform velocity s) covers unequal distances in equal
intervals of time
WORKSHEET – 4
1. A scooterist covers a distance of 3 kilometres in 5 minutes. Calculate his speed
in kilometres per hour (km/h)
1) 28 2) 36 3) 42 5) 78
2. A person makes one lap around a 400 m circular track in 50 s. The average
speed of the person is
1) 4 ms-1 2) 8 ms-1 3) 16 ms-1 4) 0 ms-1
3. If a body covers first half of its journey with uniform speed v1 and the second of
the journey with uniform speed v2 then the average speed is
2𝑣1 𝑣2 𝑣1 𝑣2
1) v1+v2 2) 3) 4) 𝑣1 𝑣2
𝑣1 𝑣2 𝑣1 𝑣2
4. A horse runs a distance of 1200 m in 3 min and 20 s. The speed of the horse in
m/s is __________
1) 6 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 5 m/s 4) 10 m/s
5. SI unit of speed is
1) m/s 2) cm/s 3) cm/sec2 4) m/ sec2
6. CGS unit of speed is
1) m/s 2) cm/s 3) cm/sec2 4) m/ sec2
7. 1 km/hr =
5 18 6 10
1) m/s 2) m/s 3) m/s 4) m/s
18 5 10 18
8. 1 m/sec =
5 18 6 10
1) km/hr 2) km/hr 3) km/hr 4) km/hr
18 5 10 18
9. Total distance covered in total time taken is termed as

1) instantaneous speed 2) average speed
3) uniform speed 4) variable speed
10. symbol for speed is
1) v 2) c 3) s 4) t
Key:
Worksheet – 3:
1) 3 2) 2 3) 3 4) 2 5) 1 6) 1 7) 1 8) 1 9) 1
10) 1 11) 2 12) 4 13) 2 14) 3 15) 3 16) 1 17) 1 18) 1
19) 2 20) 4 21) 3 22) 4 23) 1 24) 1 25) 1 26) 1 27) a-q;
b-r; c-
p; d-s
Worksheet – 4:
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4)1 5) 1 6) 2 7)1 8)2 9) 2 10) 1
KINEMATICS
Velocity :
The rate of change of displacement is called velocity.
𝑑𝑥
𝑉̅ =
𝑑𝑡
Mathematical Expression of velocity:

velocity of a body can be found by dividing the displacement with time.
𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠̅
i.e., Velocity = (or) 𝑉̅ =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 𝑡
Units of Velocity:
C.G.S unit of velocity is centimeter per second (cm /s).
S.I unit of velocity is meter per second (m/s). It is a vector its Dimension
formula = [M0L1T-1]
Note:
The units of velocity is the same as the units of speed. However, in case of
velocity the direction is specified.
Types of velocity:
Uniform velocity:
We observe that the car covers equal distances in equal intervals of time specified
direction.
Here we say that the car is said to be moving with uniform velocity.
Note: A body has uniform velocity only if:
i) It it covers equal displacements in equal intervals of time
ii) Its direction of motion remains the same.
Non Uniform Velocity:
Observe a car moving on a straight road:

We observe that the care covers unequal displacements in equal intervals of time
[ or equal displacements in unequal intervals of time (however small these
intervals may by)]
Here we say that the car is said to be moving with non-uniform velocity or
variable velocity.
Average Velocity:
When the body moves with non-uniform velocity, then we calculate its velocity by
dividing the total displacement by the total time taken.
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
Average velocity =
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
∆𝑠̅
Mathematically , ̅̅̅̅
𝑉𝑎𝑣 =
∆𝑡
Note:
When a particle moves with different velocities 𝑉 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

1 , 𝑉2 , 𝑉3 etc., in different time
internals ∆𝑡1, ∆𝑡2, ∆𝑡3 etc. respectively , its average velocity over the total time of
motion can be given as
𝑁𝑒𝑡 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 ∆𝑠̅ ∆𝑠̅̅̅+∆𝑠
1 ̅̅̅+∆𝑠
2 ̅̅̅+⋯
3
𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔 = = =
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡1 +∆𝑡2 +∆𝑡3 +⋯
Where the displacement of the particle during time interval ∆𝑡1 + ∆𝑡2 etc. are
given as
∆𝑠̅̅̅+∆𝑠
̅̅̅+∆𝑠
̅̅̅+⋯
𝑠̅1 = 𝑣
̅̅̅∆𝑡 𝑣2 ∆𝑡2 etc., ⇒ ̅̅̅̅̅̅
1 1 , 𝑠̅2 = ̅̅̅ 𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔 = 1 2 3
∆𝑡1 +∆𝑡2 +∆𝑡3 +⋯
∆𝑡
⇒ 𝑣̅ avg= ∑𝑖=𝑛 ̅ 𝑖
𝑖=1 𝑉𝑖 ∑𝑖=𝑛 ∆𝑡𝑖
𝑖=1
Instantaneous Velocity :
∆𝑠̅ ∆𝑠̅
Instantaneous velocity 𝑣̅ = lim ⇒ 𝑣̅ =
∆𝑡→0 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡
 Instantaneous speed is equal to the magnitude of instantaneous velocity.

Acceleration:
 The increase in velocity per unit time is called acceleration.
 The decrease in velocity per unit time is called deceleration or retardation.
 Negative acceleration is called Retardation or Deceleration.
Mathematical Expression of Acceleration:
 ∴ 𝑹𝒂𝒕𝒆 𝒐𝒇 𝒄𝒉𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒆 𝒐𝒇 𝒗𝒆𝒍𝒐𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒚 =
𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒄𝒉𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒆 𝒊𝒏 𝒗𝒆𝒍𝒐𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒚 ̅
𝒅𝒗 𝒅𝟐 𝒙
 = =
𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆 𝒓𝒆𝒒𝒖𝒊𝒓𝒆𝒅 𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝒄𝒉𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒆 𝒅𝒕 𝒅𝒕𝟐
𝐶ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
 i.e., Acceleration =
 In the above case the acceleration of the car is 20km/hr. It means that for
every one hour the increase in velocity is 20km/hr.
Unit of Acceleration: C.G.S unit of acceleration is cms-2.
 S.I unit of acceleration is ms-2.
 It is a vector and It’s Dimension Formula = [M0L-1T-2]
Uniform acceleration:
 An object is said to be moving with uniform acceleration if its velocity
changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time
Variable acceleration:
 When the change in velocity in each unit of time is not constant, then the
body is said to be moving with variable acceleration. In this case, the
motion is said to as non – uniformly accelerated motion.
Average Acceleration:
 Suppose the velocity of a particle at time t2 is 𝑣̅̅̅1 and at time t2 is ̅̅̅.
𝑣2 The
change produced in time interval t1 to t2 is 𝑣
̅̅̅2 − 𝑣 ̅̅̅1 . we defined the
average acceleration ̅̅̅̅̅
𝑎𝑎𝑣 as the change in velocity divided by the time
interval.
̅̅̅
𝑉2 − ̅̅̅
𝑉1
 Thus, 𝑎̅av =
𝑡2 −𝑡1
 Again the average acceleration depends only on the velocities at time t1
and t2. How the velocity changed in between t1 and t2 is not important in
defining the average acceleration.
Instantaneous Acceleration:
 Instantaneous acceleration of a particle at time t is defined as
∆𝑣̅ ⃗⃗
𝑑𝑣
 𝑎̅ = lim =
∆𝑡→0 ∆𝑡 𝑑𝑡
 Where ∆𝑣̅ is the change in velocity between the time t and t + ∆𝑡. At time t
⃗⃗
∆𝑣
the velocity is 𝑣̅ and at a time t +∆𝑡 it becomes 𝑣⃗ + ∆𝑣⃗ . is the average
∆𝑡
acceleration of the particle in the interval ∆𝑡. As ∆𝑡 approaches zero, this
average acceleration becomes the instantaneous acceleration.
WORKSHEET – 5
1. Velocity is a ____________ quantity.
1) Scalar 2) Vector 3) Fundamental 4) None of these
2. Velocity =
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒
1) 2) 3) 4)
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
3. SI unit of velocity
1) m/s 2) cm/s 3) cm.s 4) km/h
4. CGS unit of velocity
1) km/h 2) cm/s 3) m/s 4) km/s
5. Among the following which is not a unit of velocity
1) cm/s 2) m/s 3) km/h 4) m.s
6. An object is having zero displacement then its velocity is ____________
1) uniform 2) non uniform3) zero 4) we can’t say
7. The units of velocity as same as ____________
1) distance 2) speed 3) displacement 4) time
8. A body is moving in a straight line path then which of the following are same
1) speed and velocity 2) displacement and speed
3) speed and distance 4) velocity and displacement
9. If a body covers equal displacements in equal intervals of time is called
____________
(however small the time intervals may be)
1) uniform speed 2) uniform velocity
3) non uniform velocity 4) non uniform speed
10. Among the following which will be not changes if a body is moving with
uniform velocity
1) magnitude 2) direction 3) both (1) and (2) 4) neither (1) nor (2)
WORKSHEET – 6:
1. 30 m/s = ____________ km/h
1) 54 2) 90 3) 108 4) 24
2. A body is moving with 72 km/h, then the velocity in m/s
1) 20 2) 30 3) 40 4) 10
3. A person starts moving along the circumference of a circle with 6 m/s, finally he
reaches his initial position then the velocity of person
1) 6m/s 2) 60m/s 3) 600m/s 4) zero
4. If train moving with uniform velocity covers a distance of 100m west in 2s.
Velocity of train is
1) 50m/s 2) 500m/s 3) 100m/s 4) 10m/s
5. A vehicle travels 15m east in 2 seconds, then velocity of the vehicle is
1) 2m/s 2) 5m/s 3) 7.5 m/s 4) zero
6. A man walks for 5 minutes with a velocity of 1m/s then what is the
displacement covered
1) 50m 2) 300m 3) 100m 4) 30m
7. A car covers 10m with a uniform velocity 10m/s then what is the time taken
1) 2 sec 2) 1 hr 3) 1 sec 4) 1 min
8. A bus travels in a specified direction for 3 minutes, has covered a distance of
180m then what is the velocity of bus?
1) 2m/s 2) 3m/s 3) 1 m/s 4) 8m/s
9. A body is moving with a uniform velocity of 10m/s the velocity after 10s
1) 100m/s 2) 10m/s 3) 1000m/s 4) 0.10m/s
10. What is the velocity of a car that travels 100 meters west in 2.5 seconds
1) 20m/s 2) 30m/s 3) 25m/s 4) 40m/s
11. A bus travelling 79km/h how far does the bus travel 2 hour?
1) 158km 2) 128km 3) 160km 4) 118km
12. A girl scout troop covered 6.0 kilometer south in 1.5 hours what was the
troop’s velocity
1) 1kmph 2) 3kmph 3) 4mph 4) 10kmph
13. what is the velocity of the particle whose initial position and final positions is
same?
1) zero 2) <zero 3) >zero 4) none of these
14. In two seconds a particle goes from a point A to another point B moving in a
semicircle of radius two meters as shown in figure. The velocity of the particle is
1) 1 m/s 2) 2 m/s 3) π m/s 4) 2π m/s

15. A body travels 100m towards east and then travels 25m towards west. The
displacement of the body is
1) 75m west 2) 75m east 3) 125m west 4)
100m west
16. A body is moving along a circular path and completes and rotation in ‘t’
seconds its velocity
𝑟 𝜋𝑟 2𝜋𝑟
1) 0 2) 3) 4)
𝑡 𝑡 𝑡
17. In the adjoining figure, a particle starting from A travelled 6cm to B and then
to C. For this journey it takes 6s. Then velocity is
1) 1 cm/ s 2) 2 cm/ s 3) 3cm/ s 4) 4cm/ s

18. If the velocity of the particle is uniform then the path of the particle must be a
1) parabola 2) straight line 3) ellipse 4) circle
The rate of change of displacement is called velocity.
19. A cockroach moves along circle of radius 1m again it reaches to its initial
position in 10 sec then it velocity
1) zero m/s 2) 2m/s 3) 4m/s 4) 5m/s
20. An aeroplane travelling a distance of 500km in 1 hour then what is the velocity
of aeroplace
1) 200 km/s 2) 300 km/h 3) 500 km/h 4) 700
km/h
21. A motor cycle is running at a constant speed along the circular path of radius r
in ‘t’ sec then what is the velocity of motor cycle if it covers half of total path
2𝑟 𝑟 4𝑟 𝑟
1) 2) 3) 4)
𝑡 𝑡 𝑡 2𝑡
WORKSHEET – 7
1. The rate of change of velocity is called
a) acceleration b) velocity c) speed d) distance
2. Rate of change of velocity =
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
a) b)
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
c) change in velocity d) speed

3. SI unit of acceleration
a) m/𝑠 2 b) cm/𝑠 2 c) km/ℎ2 d) km/𝑠 2
4. CGS unit of acceleration
a) m/𝑠 2 b) cm/𝑠 2 c) km/ℎ2 d) km/𝑠 2
5. Which of the following is not a unit of acceleration
a) m/𝑠 2 b) cm/𝑠 2 c) km/ℎ2 d) 𝑚2 /𝑠 2
6. Increase in velocity per unit time is called
a) acceleration b) retardation c) velocity d) displacement
7. If a particle is in uniform velocity along its straight line then its acceleration
is
a) zero b) increases c) decreases d) constant
8. The uniform rate of decrease of velocity of a moving body is called
a) acceleration b) deacceleration c) retardation d) both (2) and (3)
9. If a body undergoes equal changes in velocity in equal intervals of time,
however small the time intervals may be, then the body is said to be
moving with
a) uniform acceleration b) uniform speed
c) uniform velocity d) none of these
10.A boy is walking in the morning suddenly he started running then boy is
a) accelerated b) retarded
c) deaccelerated d) uniform velocity
11.If a body have initial velocity of 10.0 m/s and it attains a velocity of 20 m/s
in 5 seconds then its acceleration is __________ m/𝑠 2
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
12.A body has an acceleration of -3m/𝑠 2 . What is its retardation
a) 3 m/𝑠 2 b) 4 m/𝑠 2 c) 0.5 m/𝑠 2 d) 5 m/𝑠 2
13.When a car is travelling at an initial velocity of 10m/s applies brakes and
brings the car to rest in 5 seconds then what is acceleration?
a) - 2 m/𝑠 2 b) 2 m/𝑠 2 c) 3 m/𝑠 2 d) -3 m/𝑠 2
14.A body is moving with initial velocity 5m/s after 2 seconds it attains a
velocity 15m/s then its acceleration is
a) 1 m/𝑠 2 b) 3 m/𝑠 2 c) 5 m/𝑠 2 d) 7 m/𝑠 2
15.A body is moving with an acceleration 2 m/𝑠 2 then what is the change in
velocity in 2sec
a) 1 m/s b) 2 m/s c) 3 m/s d) 4 m/𝑠 2
16.If a body attains a velocity 4m/s from rest with an acceleration 1 m/𝑠 2 then
what is the time taken
a) 1 sec b) 2 sec c) 3 sec d) 4 sec
17.If a person is travelling in a bus with a velocity 10m/s after 10 sec his
velocity is 10 m/s then his acceleration is __________ m/𝑠 2
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) -1
18.If a person is walking with 2m/s velocity and he suddenly stops in 1 sec then
his
a) acceleration is –ve b) acceleration is +ve
c) acceleration is 0 m/𝑠 2 d) acceleration is +2 m/𝑠 2
19.A car driver is driving with initial velocity 2m/s after 2 seconds velocity car
become 12m/s then what is his acceleration
a) 5 m/𝑠 2 b) 8 m/𝑠 2 c) 10 m/𝑠 2 d) 11 m/𝑠 2
20.If a body is moving with a uniform velocity 20m/s then his acceleration is
a) 0 m/𝑠 2 b) 1 m/𝑠 2 c) 8 m/𝑠 2 d) 11 m/𝑠 2
21.1 m/𝑠 2 = ____________ cm/𝑠 2
a) 100 b) 10 c) 1000 d) 0.1
22.A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin if the coin falls in his hand, the
train must be moving with
a) an acceleration b) a retardation
c) an uniform velocity d) non uniform velocity
23.If the acceleration of particle is the same every instant in a given time
interval, then its acceleration is called _________ in that interval of time
a) uniform speed b) non uniform acceleration
c) uniform acceleration d) non uniform speed
24.If a scooter acquires a velocity of 36 km/h in 10s just after its starts, then
the acceleration of scooter is
a) 3 m/𝑠 2 b) 2 m/𝑠 2 c) 1 m/𝑠 2 d) 0.5 m/𝑠 2
25.A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10 m/s and moves with a uniform
acceleration. It attains a velocity of 30 m/s in 5 sec. the time taken by the
particle from here onwards to acquire a velocity of 60m/s is
a) 4.5 sec b) 5.5 sec c) 6.5 sec d) 7.5 sec
26.The velocity of a body moving along a straight line with a constant
acceleration is 10m/s. After 5 sec at a particular instant its velocity is 40m/s
then its acceleration is
a) 15 m/ 𝑠 2 b) 5 m/ 𝑠 2 c) 6 m/ 𝑠 2 d) 8 m/ 𝑠 2
27.Acceleration of a body is positive when
a) velocity of a body increases with time
b) velocity of a body decrease with time
c) velocity of a body constant with time
d) velocity may increase or decrease with time
28.Acceleration of a body is negative when
29.Acceleration of a body is zero when
WORKSHEET – 8
1. The numerical value of the ratio of average velocity to average speed is
1)always less than one 2) always equal to one
3) always more than one 4) equal to or less than one.
2. A body moving at a uniform velocity of 2 m/s will have.
1) uniform acceleration 2) non uniform acceleration
3) zero acceleration 4) none of these
3. Which of the following decreases in motion along a straight line with constant
retardation.
1)speed 2) acceleration
3) displacement 4) none of the above
4. If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in equal intervals of time
the velocity vector.
1) remains constant 2) changes in magnitude
3) changes in direction 4) changes both in magnitude and direction
5.The acceleration of a body has the direction of
1) displacement 2) velocity
3) change in velocity 4) none of these
6. If the distance between the sun and the earth is 1.5 x 1011 m and velocity of
light is 3 x 108 m/s, then the time taken by a light ray to reach the earth from the
sun is
1)500 s 2) 500 minute 3) 50 s 4) 5 x 103 s
7. A body is moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s . Then the velocity of the
body after 10 sec is
1) 30 m/s 2) 20 m/s 3) 10 m/s 4) 5 m/s
8. A car travels a distance of 250 km from Hyderabad to Guntur in 5 hours, the
velocity of the car this journey is
1) 40 Kmph 2) 50 kmph 3) 60 kmph 4) 70 kmph
9. Statement I: Acceleration of a body can change its direction without any
change in direction of velocity
Statement II: Direction of acceleration is same as that of direction of change in
velocity vector.
1) If statement I is true, statement II is true,
2) If statement I is true, Statement II is false,
3) If statement I is true, statement II is false
4) If statement I is false, statement II is true
10. A body moves with a velocity of 3m/s due east and then turns due north to
travel with the same velocity. If the total time of travel is 6s, the acceleration of
the body is
1
1) √3 m/s2 towards north west 2) m/s2 towards north west
√2
3) √2 m/s2 towards north east 4) all the above

11. Given the distance between earth and sun is 1.6 x 108 km and velocity of light
is 4 x 105 km/sec. The time taken for sunlight to reach the earth is
1) 400 s 2) 700 s 3) 500 s 4) 600
Key –:
Worksheet – 5:
1. b 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. d
Worksheet – 6:
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. b
10. d 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. b
19. a 20. a 21. a
Worksheet – 7:
1. a 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. a
11. b 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. a
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. c
Worksheet – 8:
1) 4 2) 3 3)1 4)3 5)3 6)1 7)3 8)2 9) 4 10) 2 11)3

KINEMATICS
1. First equation of motion: (velocity – time relation)

The first equation of motion is v = u + at. It gives the velocity acquired by a
body in time t.
Derivation:
Consider a body having initial velocity ‘u’. Suppose it is subjected to a
uniform acceleration ‘a’ so that after time ‘t’ its final velocity becomes ‘v’. Now,
from the definition of acceleration we know that:
𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦−𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
Acceleration = or Acceleration =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
𝑣−𝑢
So, a = ⟹ at = v-u ⟹ v = u + at
𝑡
Where v = Final velocity of the body

u = Initial velocity of the body
a = Acceleration
t = Time taken
by paying due attention to the sign of acceleration, this equation can also be
applied to the problems of uniform retardation. In this case a will be replaced by –
a.
2. Second Equation of Motion (displacement – time relation)
1
The second equation of motion is: s = ut + at 2 .
2
It gives the displacement of the body in time t.

Derivation:
Suppose a body has an initial velocity ‘u’ and a uniform acceleration ‘a’ for time ‘t’
so that its final velocity becomes ‘v’.
Let the displacement of the body in this time be ‘s’. The displacement of the
moving body in time ‘t’ can be found out by considering its average velocity. Since
the initial velocity of the body is ‘u’ and its final velocity is ‘v’, the average velocity
is given by:
Initial velocity + Final velocity u + v
Average velocity = =
2 2
Also, Displacement = Average velocity × Time
(u+v)
So, s = ×t (1)
2
From the first equation of motion we have, v = u + at. Substituting this value of v
in equation (1), we get
(u+u+at)×t (2u+at)×t 2ut+at2 1
s= or s = or s = or s = ut + at 2
2 2 2 2
Where s = displacement of the body in time t , u = Initial velocity of the body

a = Acceleration
3.Third Equation of motion: Velocity – Displacement relation
The third equation of motion is : v 2 − u2 = 2as. It gives the velocity acquired by a
body in displacement s.
Derivation:
Suppose a body has an initial velocity ‘u’ and a uniform acceleration ‘a’ for time ‘t’
so that its final velocity becomes ‘v’.
Let the displacement of the body in this time be ‘s’. The displacement of the
moving body in time ‘t’ can be found out by considering its average velocity.
Since the initial velocity of the body is ‘u’ and its final velocity is ‘v’, the average
velocity is given by:
Initial velocity + Final velocity u + v
Average velocity = =
2 2
(u+v)
Also, Displacement = Average velocity × Time. So, s = ×t (1)
2
And from the first equation of motion we have: v = u + at or at = v - u or t =

v−u u+v v−u (v2 −u2 )
Putting this value of t in equation (1), we get: s = × = ⟹
a 2 a 2a
v 2 − u2 = 2as where v = Final velocity, u = Initial velocity, a = Acceleration, s =
displacement
This equation gives us the velocity acquired by a body in displacement s.
Distance travelled in nth second
1
S = ut + at 2 , where u = initial velocity, at time = 0
2
If Sn and Sn-1 are the distance of the particle in n and n –1 seconds, then distance
of the particle in nth second is, Snth = Sn – Sn–1
1 1
Sn = ut + an2 Sn–1 = u(n-1) + a(n − 1)2 Now Snth Now Snth = Sn – Sn–1
2 2
1 1 1
= (un + an2 ) – (u(n − 1) + a(n − 1)2 ) = (un + an2 ) − (un − u +
2 2 2
a
(n2 + 1 − 2n))
2
1 an2 a
= (un + an2 ) – (un − u + + − an)
2 2 2
1 an2 a a 1
= un + an2 − un + u – − + an = u + an − = u + a (n − ) = u +
2 2 2 2 2
2n−1
a( )
2
a a
Snth = u + (2n − 1) Note: If a body starts from rest, u = 0 Snth = (2n − 1)
2 2
In case of non-uniform acceleration, we have

ds
1) v = ⟹ ds = vdt ⟹ s = ∫ vdt
dt
ds
2) a= ⟹ dv = adt ⟹ v = ∫ adt
dt
dv ds
3) a = ×
dt ds
ds dv dv dv
⟹a= × ⟹v ∴a= v
dt dt ds ds
WORKSHEET - 9
1. Which of the following equation gives the relation for velocity – time.
1 a
1) v = u + at 2) s = ut + at 2 3) v 2 − u2 = 2as 4) Sn = u + (2n − 1)
2 2
2. Which of the following equation gives the relation for displacement - time.
1 a
2 2
3. Which of the following equation gives the relation for displacement -
velocity.
1 a
2 2
4. Distance travelled in nth second of uniformly accelerated motion is
1 a
2 2
5. In case of non-uniform acceleration, displacement covered by a body is
given by
1) v = ∫ s dt 2) s = ∫ v dt 3) a = ∫ s dt 4) s = ∫ a dt
6. In case of non-uniform acceleration, acceleration covered by a body is given
by
dv ds
1) a = 2) a = 3) a = ∫ v dt 4) 4m/s2
dt dt
7. In case of non-uniform acceleration, velocity of the body is given by
dv ds
1) v = ∫ s dt 2) v = 3) v = 4) v = ∫ v dt
dt dt
8. If a body has initial velocity ‘u’ and a uniform acceleration ‘a’ for a time ‘t’.
So that final velocity becomes ‘v’. Then average velocity of the body is
u+v u+v u−v u2 +v2
1) ( ) 2) ( )t 3) ( )t 4) ( )
2 2 2 2
9. If a body has initial velocity ‘u’ and a uniform acceleration ‘a’ for a time ‘t’.
So that final velocity becomes ‘v’. Then displacement of the body is
u+v u+v u+v u−v
1) ( ) 2) ( )t 3) ( )t 4) ( )t
2 2 3 2
10.The distance covered by a moving body is directly proportional to the
square of the time. The acceleration of the body is
1) increasing 2) decreasing 3) zero 4) constant
11.If a body starts from rest and it acquires a velocity 20m/s in 15sec. Then
acceleration of the body is
1 4 3
1) m/s2 2) m/s2 3) m/s2 4) 4 m/s2
2 3 4
12.If a car travelling at 10m/s and acquires a velocity of 30m/s in 5 sec. Then
acceleration of the car is
1
1) m/s2 2) 2 m/s2 3) 2.5 m/s2 4) 4 m/s2
4
13.An object undergoes an accelerations of 8 m/s2 starting from rest. Find the
distance travelled in one second.
1) 2m 2) 4m 3) 3m 4) 5m
14.A racing car has uniform acceleration of 4 m/s2 . What distance will it cover
in 10seconds after the start?
1) 100m 2) 300m 3) 200m 4) 400m
15.A car moving with a speed of 15m/s can a stopped by applying brakes, after
travelling a distance of 3m. The retardation of car is
1) 37.5 m/s2 2) 47.5 m/s2 3) 57.5 m/s2 4) 67.5 m/s2
16.If a body having an initial velocity of 10m/s, moves with a uniform
acceleration of 10 m/s2 then the final velocity when it covers a distance of
3m is
1) 12.64m/s 2) 14.2m/s 3) 13.25m/s 4) 15.25 m/s
17.If Displacement of a body is given by s = t 2 + 1, find velocity of body at t =
2sec
1) 10 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 15 m/s 4) 30 m/s
2
18.If velocity of a body is given by v = 2t + 3, find acceleration of body at t =
1sec
1) 1 m/s2 2) 2 m/s2 3) 3 m/s2 4) 4 m/s2
19.If a bike is travelling with 30m/s and it’s uniform acceleration is 4 m/s2.
Then velocity acquired by the bike in 6sec is
1) 10 m/s 2) 54 m/s 3) 12 m/s 4) 16m/s
20.A bus moving with a speed of 6m/s can be stopped by applying brakes,
after travelling a distance of 3m, then acceleration of the bus is
1) – 6 m/s2 2) 6 m/s2 3) 2 m/s2 4) 3 m/s2
Key:
Worksheet – 9:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 2 6) 1 7) 3 8) 1 9) 2 10) 4
11) 2 12) 4 13) 2 14) 3 15) 1 16) 1 17) 2 18) 4 19) 2 20) 1
KINEMATICS
Synopsis - 5
Equations of motion for a body moving with uniform acceleration are:
1 a
a) v = u + at b) ut + at 2 c) v 2 − u2 = 2as d) sn = u + (2n − 1)
2 2
Where u = initial velocity, v = final velocity. a = acceleration, t = total

time, s = displacement and sn = displacement in nth second.
1. Motion due to gravity : Motion due to gravity can be studied as:
a) Freely falling body b) Body projected vertically upwards
c) Projectile motion. (will be discussed later)
Freely falling body: Whenever a body is falling freely (no initial force is
applied) then u = 0. The equations for a freely falling body are
1
a) v = gt b) s(or)h = gt 2 c) v 2 = 2gh ⟹ v = √2gh
2
g
d) sn = u + (2n–1)
2
WORKSHEET-10
1. A boy is running towards east with a velocity of 10m/s. He suddenly turns

towards north. Then at that place acceleration due to gravity is
1) Increases 2) Decreases 3) Remains same 4) zero
2. A 1000kg and 10kg objects are dropped from the same height, then the
ratio of acceleration of fall of two bodies is
1) 1: 1 2) 100: 1 3) 1: 100 4) 10: 1
3. A huge rock and stone are dropped from same height, then [neglecting the
air resistance]
1. Both reaches the ground at the same time
2. Huge rock takes more time than a stone
3. Stone takes more time than a huge rock
4. They reach the ground with different velocity
4. The direction of acceleration due to gravity is always
1. Towards the centre of earth 2. Along the tangent of earth
3. Along the chord of earth 4. Away from the surface of earth
5. The dimensional formula for ‘g’ is
1. (M 0 L2 M 2 ) 2. (M 0 LT −2 ) 3. (M 0 L0 T 2 ) 4. (MLT −2 )
6. If a body is falling freely under the acceleration due to gravity, the final
velocity of the body when it reaches the ground is directly proportional to
1. Time taken by the body 2. Square of time taken by the body
3. Cube of time taken by the body 4. Independent on time
7. If a body is falling freely then the acceleration due to gravity is taken as ___.
1 equal 2 negative 3 positive 4 infinity
8. For a freely falling body, initial velocity is ___
1 zero 2 infinite 3 non zero 4 one
9. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of
a building. Then which is correct among these? [neglecting the air
resistance]
1. Larger stone hits the ground earlier.
2. Smaller stone hits the ground earlier.
3. Velocity of the stones are independent on the mass
4. None of these.
10.A body, freely falling under gravity will have uniform
1. speed 2 velocity 3 momentum 4 acceleration
11.If a body is dropped freely from a height of 20m, then velocity of the body
on reaching to the ground is [g = 10m/s2 ]
1. 20m/s 2. 100m/s 3. 150m/s 4. 200m/s
12.If a body is dropped freely from a height of 20m, then the time taken by the
body to reach the ground is
1. 2 sec 2. √2 sec 3. √10 sec 4. 10 sec
13.If a body is dropped freely, then what is velocity of the body after ‘2’ sec [g
= 1m/s2 ]
1. 10m/s 2. 20 m/s 3. 15 m/s 4. 200 m/s
14.A stone is dropped freely from the top of the tower and reaches the ground
in 3s. Then the height of the tower is (g = 9.8m/s2 )
1. 18.6m 2. 39.2m 3. 44.1m 4. 98m
15.The distance moved by a freely falling body (starting from rest) during the
1st, 2nd and 3rd …nth second of its motion are proportional to
1) (n-1) 2) (2n-1) 3) (n2-1) 4) (2n-1)/n2
16. For a freely falling body, match the following
Column-I Column-II
2h
a) Velocity of the body on reaching the ground is 1) √
g
b) Distance travelled by the body is in ‘t’ sec is 2) gt
1
c) Velocity of the body after a time ‘t’ sec is 3) gt 2
2
d) Time (t) taken by a body t0 reach the ground is 4) √2gh
5) 2g
Key :
Worksheet – 10:
1) 3 2) 1 3) 1 4) 1 5) 2 6) 1 7) 3 8) 1
9) 3 10) 4 11) 1 12) 1 13) 2 14) 4 15) 2 16) a-4;

b-3; c-2;
d-1
KINEMATICS
Body projected vertically upwards:
Whenever body is projected vertically upwards, then a = –g. The equations of
motion for a body projected vertically upwards are:
1
a) v = u − gt b) s or h = ut − gt 2
2
g
c) v 2 − u2 = −2gh d) sn = u − (2n − 1)
2
Whenever a body is projected vertically upwards: velocity becomes zero at the

highest point
i) Maximum height :
The vertical distance travelled by a body before its velocity becomes zero is called
maximum height reached by the body.
If a body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity ‘u’, the maximum height
u2
(h) reached by the body is h = . Where g = acceleration due to gravity.
2g
ii) Time of ascent : Time taken by the body to reach the highest point is called
u
time of ascent (ta) and is given by ta =
g
iii) Time of descent : Time taken by the body to travel from the maximum height
u
to the ground is called time of descent (td) is given by td = .
g
In the absence of air resistance, time of ascent is equal to time of descent.
iv). Time of flight: The total time spent by the body in air is called time of flight (t)
u u 2u
is given by t = t a + t d = + = .
g g g
Note: If ‘u’ is the velocity with which a body is projected vertically upwards and ‘v’
is the velocity with which the body reaches the point of projection, then v = u.
1
Vertical projection of an object from a tower: h = −ut + gt 2 or h = gt 2 − ut
2
Sign convention: Normally we take vertically upward direction positive (and

downward negative) and horizontally rightwards positive (or leftwards negative)
(a) Sign convention for motion in vertical direction

(b) Sign convention for motion in horizontal direction
Velocity on reaching the ground:
When a body is dropped from a height h, its initial velocity is zero. Let the final
velocity on reaching the ground be v. For a freely falling body,
v 2 − u2 = 2gh, but u = 0 therefore, v 2 − 0 = 2gh or v
= √2gh _________(10)
Further, in case of a body thrown upwards, we have for initial velocity.
u = √2gh _________ (11)

Comparing equation (10) and (11), we conclude that the velocity of the body
falling from height h, on reaching the ground is equal to the velocity with which it
is projected vertically upwards to reach the same height h.
The upwards velocity at any point in its flight is the same as its downward velocity
at that point.
Body projected vertically up from the top of a tower
1. If a body is projected vertically up from the top of a tower of height ‘h’ with
velocity ‘u’.
1
a) Displacement after time t is S = ut − gt 2
2
1
b) If it reaches the ground after time t, then −h = ut − gt 2
2
c) Its velocity on reaching the ground is √u2 + 2gh
u2
d) Its maximum height above the ground is {h + ( )}
2g
WORKSHEET- 11
1. When a body projected vertically upwards its velocity is at the highest point
is ______.
1) Non-zero 2) infinite 3) zero 4) one
2. The Time of flight is equal to the sum of _______.
1) time of ascent and velocity 2) time of ascent and time of descent
3) time of ascent and velocity 4) time of ascent and maximum height
3. The velocity with a body is thrown upwards is ______ to the velocity with
which the body reaches the ground.
1) equal 2) double 3) three times equal 4) four times equal
4. If a body is thrown up then acceleration due to gravity is taken as ______.
1) equal 2) negative 3) positive 4) infinity
5. When a body is projected vertically upwards, its velocity is
1) Increases 2) Decreases 3) Remains same 4) Can’t say
6. When a body is projected vertically upwards, the direction of acceleration is
1) Upwards 2) downwards 3) Both 1 & 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
7. A body projected vertically up and after some time it reaches the point of
projection. In this case
1) Distance travelled and it’s displacement both are zero
2) Distance travelled is zero but displacement
3) Distance travelled = Displacement
4) Distance travelled is not zero but displacement is zero
8. A body is projected vertically up from the ground on reaching the greatest
height
1) It’s velocity is zero and acceleration is not zero
2) It’s velocity is not zero and acceleration is zero
3) Both velocity and acceleration is not zero
4) Both velocity and acceleration is zero
9. A body is projected up from the ground, Distance travelled by it in the last
second of its upward journey is
1) More if the initial velocity is more 2) More if the initial
velocity is less
3) Independent of the initial velocity 4) can’t say
10.At the maximum height of a body thrown vertically up
1) Velocity is not zero but acceleration is zero.
2) Acceleration is not zero but velocity is zero.
3) Both acceleration and velocity is zero.
4) Both acceleration and velocity are not zero.
11.A stone is projected vertically upwards with a velocity 10m/s. Find the
maximum height reached by the body. (take g = 10m/s2.)
1) 5m 2) 10m 3) 15m 4) 20m
12.A body is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a maximum height of 5m.
The velocity with which the body was thrown upwards is (take g =
10m/s2 )
1) 15m/s 2) 10m/s 3) 20m/s 4) 40 m/s
13.A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 9.8 m/s. The total
time for which the body will remain in the air is _____ (take g = 9.8m/s2)
1) 2 sec 2) 3 sec 3) 1 sec 4) 0.5 sec
14.A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 19.6 m/s , its time
of ascent is = ______ (g = 9.8m/s2)
1) 3 sec 2) 4 sec 3) 2 sec 4) 1sec
15.A ball thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity 1.4 m/s returns 2 s.
The total displacement of the ball is
1) 22.4 cm 2) zero 3) 44.8 m 4) 33.6m
16.A body is projected vertically up with a speed of 20m/s. The displacement
of it in 3 sec is
1) 5 m 2) 15 m 3) 20 m 4) 25 m
17.If a body projected vertically upwards, Then match the following:
Column-I Column-II
2u2
a) Maximum height reached by the body 1)
g
u
b) Time of ascent 2)
g
2u
c) Time of descent 3)
g
u2
d) Time of flight 4)
2g
5) depends on the initial velocity
Key :
Worksheet – 11:
1. 3 2. 2 3. 1 4. 2 5. 2 6. 2 7. 4 8. 1 9. 1
10. 2 11. 1 12. 2 13. 1 14. 3 15. 2 16. 2 17. a-4,5; b-

2,5; c-2,5; d-
3,5
UNIT - 2
NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION
Isaac Newton (a 17 th century scientist) put forth a variety of laws that explain
why objects move (or don’t move) as they do. These three laws have become
known as Newton’s three laws of motion.
Inertia;
 It is the inability of a body to change its state of rest or of uniform motion
or its direction by itself/
 Mass is a measure of inertia in translator motion
 Heavier the mass, larger the inertia and vice – versa.
Types of inertia:
There are three types of inertia.
i. Inertia of rest
ii. Inertia of motion and
iii. Inertia of direction
Inertia of rest: It is ability of a body to change its state of rest by itself
EX: when a bus is at rest and starts suddenly moving forward the
passengers inside it will fall back.
Inertia of motion: It is the inability of a body to change its state of
Uniform motion by itself/
Ex: passengers in a moving bus all forward, when brakes are
Suddenly
Inertia of direction: It is the inability of a body to change its
Direction of motion by itself.
Ex: when a bus takes a turn, passengers in it experience an
Outward force.
 A person sitting in a moving train, throws a coin vertically upwards, then
i. It falls behind him, if the train is accelerating
ii. It falls in front of him, it the train is retarding
iii. It falls into the hand of the person, if the train is moving with uniform
velocity.
iv. It falls into the hand of the person it the train is at rest.
Newton’s first law (law of inertia)
 Everybody continues to be in its state of rest (or) uniform motion in a
straight line unless it is acted upon by a net external force to change its
state
 It defines inertia, force and mechanical equilibrium.
 If the net external force on an object is zero, then acceleration of object is
zero.
Linear momentum:
 Linear momentum is the product of the mass of a body and its velocity.𝑝⃗ =
𝑚𝑣⃗
 Linear momentum is a vector, It has the same direction as the direction of
velocity of the body. SI unit: kg ms-1 , CGS unit: g cm s-1
 Dimensional formula; [MLT-1]
Change in momentum of a body in different cases:
Consider a body of mass m moving with velocity 𝑣 ⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑖 and momentum 𝑝⃗⃗⃗⃗.
𝑖 Due to a
collision (or) due to the action of a force on it suppose its velocity changes to ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑣𝑓
and momentum changes to ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝑝𝑓 in a small time interval ∆𝑡.
Change in momentum of body =∆𝑝⃗=𝑝
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑓 − 𝑝
⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑖
Where pi = initial momentum pf = final momentum ∆𝑝⃗=m𝑣
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗-m𝑣
𝑓 ⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑖
|∆𝑝⃗| =|𝑝
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑓 − 𝑝
⃗⃗⃗⃗|=
𝑖 √𝑝𝑓2 + 𝑝𝑖2 − 2𝑝𝑓 𝑝𝑖 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑞 where q = angle between 𝑝⃗𝑓 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑝⃗𝑖
Newton’s second law:

 The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the
resultant (or) net external force acting on the body and takes places along
the direction of force.
⃗⃗−𝑚𝑢
𝑚𝑣 ⃗⃗ 𝑚(𝑣
⃗⃗−𝑢
⃗⃗)
𝑓⃗ = =
𝑡 𝑡
 Force is a vector and the acceleration produced in the body is in the

direction of net force.
 SI unit: newton (N). CGS unit:dyne
 One newton = 105 dyne.
 Dimensional formulae = = [MLT-2]
Gravitational units of force:
kilogram weight (kg wt) and gram weight (g wt)
1 kg .wt = 9.8 N, 1 gm.wt = 980 dyne.
Newton’s third law:
 For every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction
 Action and reaction do not act on the same body and they act on different
bodies at same instant of time.
 Action and reaction, known as pair of forces, are equal in magnitude and
opposite in directions acting on different bodies in interaction. So they
never cancel each other.
Examples:
 When we walk on a road we push the road backwards and road applies
equal (in magnitude) and opposite force on us, so that we can move
forward.
 When we swim on water we push water backward and water applies equal
(in magnitude) and opposite force on us, so that we can move forward.
WORKSHEET –1
1. The behavior of a body under zero resultant force is given by
1) First law of motion 2) second law of motion
3) Third law of motion 4) Law of gravitation
2. you move forward when your car suddenly comes to a halt and you are thrown
backward when your car rapidly accelerates. Which law of Newton’s is involved in
these?
1) third law 2) second law 3) first law 4) law of gravitation
3. you are thrown outer side when your car suddenly takes a turn. Which law of
newton is involved in this?
1) third law 2) second law 3) first law 4) law of gravitation
4. An object is thrown vertically upward with some velocity. If gravity is turned off
at the instant the object reaches the maximum height, what happens?
1. the object continues to move in a straight line
2. the object will be at rest
3. the object falls back with uniform velocity
4. the object falls back with uniform acceleration
5. which of the following is the most significant law of motion given by Newton?
1) first law of motion 2) second law of motion
3) third law of motion 4) Zeroth law of motion
6. The quantity of motion of a body is best represented by
1) its mass 2) its speed 3) its velocity 4) its linear momentum
7. A certain particle undergoes erratic motion. At every point in its motion
direction of the particle’s momentum is always
1) the same as the direction of its velocity
2) the same as the direction of its acceleration
3) the same as the direction of its net force
4) the same as the direction of its kinetic energy
8. To keep a particle moving with constant velocity on a frictionless surface an
external force
1) should act continuously 2) should be a variable force
3) not necessary 4) should act opposite to the direction of motion
9. If action force acting on a body is gravitational in nature, then reaction force
1) may be a contact force 2) may be gravitational force
3) may be a gravitational or contact force 4) may be a force of any origin
10. Action and reaction can never balance out because
1) they are equal but not opposite always
2) they are unequal in magnitude even though opposite in direction
3) though they are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction they act on
different bodies
4) they are unequal in magnitudes
11. You hold a rubber ball in your hand. The newton’s third law companion force
to the force of gravity on the ball is the force exerted by the
1) ball on the earth 2) ball on the hand
3) hand on the ball 4) earth on the ball
12. A constant force (F) is applied on a stationary particle of mass ‘m’ . The
velocity attained by the particle in a certain displacement will be proportional to
1
1) m 2) 1/m 3) √𝑚 4)
√𝑚
13. A constant force (F) is applied on a stationary particle of mass ‘m’ . The
velocity attained by the particle in a certain interval of time will be proportional to
1
1) m 2) 1/m 3) √𝑚 4)
√𝑚
14. A force produces an acceleration of ai in a body and the same force produces
an acceleration of a2 in another body. If the two bodies are combined and the
same force is applied on the combination, the acceleration produced in it is
𝑎1 +𝑎2 𝑎1 𝑎2
1)a1+a2 2) 3 4) √𝑎1 𝑎2
𝑎1 𝑎2 𝑎1 +𝑎2
15. n balls each of mass m impinge elastically in each second on a surface with
velocity u. the average force experienced by the surface will be
1) mnu 2)2mnu 3) 4mnu 4) mnu/2
16. A ball reaches a racket at 60 m/s along +X direction, and leaves the racket in
the opposite direction with the same speed. Assuming that the mass of the ball as
50 gm and the contact time is 0.02 second, the force exerted by the racket or the
ball is
1) 300N along + X direction 2) 300 N along – X direction
3) 3,00,000 N along+ X 4) 3,00,000 N along – X direction
Direction
17. ‘p’ and ‘Q’ horizontally push in the same direction a 1200 kg crate. ‘p’ pushes
with a force of 500 newton with a force of 300 newton. If a frictional force
provides 200 newton of resistance, what is the acceleration of the crate?
1) 1.3m/s2 2)1.0m/s2 3) 0.75 m/s2 4) o.5 m/s2
18. A ball of mass ‘m’ moves normal to a wall with a velocity ‘u’ and rebounds
with a velocity ‘v’. The change in momentum of the ball during the rebounding is
1) m(u+v) towards the wall 2) m(u-v) towards the wall
3) m (u+v) away from the wall 4) m (u-v) away from the wall.
19. If a force if 250N acts on a body, the momentum required is 125kgms1. The
period for which the force acts on the body is
1) 0.1 s 2) 0.3 s 3) 0.5 s 4)0.2 s
20. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms-1. The man
holding it can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can
he fire per second at the most?
1) one 2)Three 3)Two 4)Four
21. A truck of mass 500 kg is moving with constant speed 10 ms-1. If sand is
dropped into the truck at the constant rate
10kg/min, the force required to maintain the motion with constant velocity is
3 5 7 5
1) N 2) 𝑁 3) 𝑁 4) 𝑁
2 4 5 3
22. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800ms-1. To give
an upward acceleration of 20 ms-2. The amount of gas ejected per second to
support the needed thrust is (g=10ms-2)
1) 127.5 kg s-1 2) 137.5 kg s-1 3) 187.5 kg s-1 4) 185.5 kg s-1
23. A 0.2 kg object at rest is subjected to a force (0.3𝑖̂-0.4𝑗̂) N. what is its velocity
vector after 6 sec
1) (9𝑖̂-12𝑗̂) 2) (8𝑖̂-16𝑗̂) 3) (12𝑖̂-9𝑗̂) 4) (16𝑖̂-8𝑗̂)
Key :
WORKSHEET –1
1. 1 2. 3 3. 3 4. 2 5. 2 6. 4 7. 1 8. 3 9. 2 10. 3 11. 1 12. 4
13. 1 14. 3 15. 2 16. 2 17. 4 18. 3 19. 3 20. 2 21. 4 22. 3 23. 1
1. Types of forces: There are basically three forces which are commonly
encountered in mechanics
(a) Field forces (non-contact forces): These are the forces in which contact
between two objects is not necessary. Gravitational force between two
bodies and electrostatic force between two charges are two examples of
field forces. Weight (W=mg) of a body comes in this category.
Weight: The gravitational force of attraction of the earth acting on a
body is known as its weight. Near the surface of the earth it is the
product of mass of the body M and gravitational acceleration g, thus
weight w= Mg and acts vertically downward.
(b) Contact forces: Two bodies is contact exert equal and opposite forces on
each other. If the contact is frictionless the contact force is
perpendicular to the common surface and known as normal reaction.
If however, the objects are in rough contact and move (or have a
tendency to move) relative to each other without losing contact then
frictional force arise which oppose such motion. Again each object
exerts a frictional force on the other an the two forces are equal and
opposite. This force is perpendicular to normal reaction. Thus. The
contact force (f) between two objects is made up of two forces.
i) Normal reaction (N) ii) Force of friction (f)
Normal reaction/force: Normal force acts perpendicular to the surfaces in
contact when one body tries to press on the surface of the second body. In this
way second body tries to push away the first body.
 When the body lies on a horizontal surface N=mg
When
The body lies on a inclined surface, N=mg cosθ.
(c) Attachment to Another body (strings, ropes, springs):
Tension (T) in a string and spring force (F=KX) come in this group.
Tension: when a body is connected through a string or rope a force may
act on the body by the string or rope due to the tendency of extension.
This force is called tension. While pulling a bucket of water from wll, you
exert upward force on bucket through tension only. Tension acts at, all
contact points between body and rope/ string along the length of the
string to the either side of contact point. If some force is applied on
string/rope Tension in the string / rope become equal to applied force at
the point.
To find the direction of tension, remember this point “Tension force
always pulls a body”
For example:
2. Spring force: consider a light spring tied to a vertical wall, which is being pulled
to right and the final elongation of spring is X and at that moment force
applied is, say F.
What is the force applied by spring on strectching agent?
Applying III rd law of newton you easily say that spring also applied force F
on stretching agent. Ideal spring follows Hooke’s law which say that force
applied by spring on bodies connected to it is proportional to extension or
compression (change over nature length) and is always opposite to
extension or compression.
So 𝑓 ̅ ∝ −𝑥̅ , 𝑓 ̅ = −𝑘𝑥̅ ; where k is a constant that is characteristic of the
spring known as spring constant or force constant.
3. Frictional force: when surface of a body slides over surface of another body,
each body exerts a force known as frictional force.
Consider two wooden blocks A and B being rubbed against each other.
In the diagram, A is being moved to the right while B is being moved

leftward. In order to see more clearly which forces act on A and which on B,
a second diagram is drawn is showing a space between the blocks but they
are still supposed to be in contact.
In fig. the two normal each of magnitude N are perpendicular to the surface of
contact between the blocks and the two frictional forces each of magnitude f act
along that surface each in a direction opposing the motion of the block upon
which it acts. The two forces normal reaction and frictional force are always
mutually perpendicular to each other. Hence F= √𝑁 2 + 𝑓 2
FREE BODY DIAGRAM

No system . natural or man made. Consists of a single body alone or is
complete in itself. A single body or a part of the system can. However, be isolated
from the rest by apppropirately accounting for its effect on the remaining system.
A free body diagram (FBD) consists of a diagrammatic representation of a single
body of a subsystem of bodies isolated from its surroundings showing all the
forces acting on it.
Consider, for example , a book lying on a horizontal surface.
The following examples show the free body diagrams of different bodies
N
Some more examples:

i) A block is placed on a table and the table is kept on earth. Assuming no
other body in the universe exerts any force on the system, make the
FBD of block and table.
𝐦𝟏
𝐦𝟏 g 𝐍 𝟏
ii) A block of mass M is suspended from the ceiling by means of a uniform
string of mass m. find the tension in the stiring at points A,B and C, B is
the midpoint of string. Also find the tensions A,B andC if the mass of
string is negligible or it is massless.
Tension at any point will be weight of the part below it.

Now if the string is massless., m=0 then TA=TB=TC= Mg . so in a massless string
tension is the same at every point.
iii) Find the tension in the massless string connected to the block
accelerating upward.
Net force
Fnet =T=mg Now apply Fnet=ma⟹ 𝑇 − 𝑚𝑔 = 𝑚𝑎 ⟹ 𝑇 = 𝑚𝑔 + 𝑚𝑎 = 𝑚(𝑔 +
𝑎)
Note; If ‘a’ is downward, then replace a with –a; we get T=m(g-a)
In free fall a=g then T=0
To draw the free body diagram of anybody keep in mind the following points.
1. We have to represent weight for every body. (if we assume pulleys are
massless then we will not represent weight)
2. Observe whether the body is in contact with the other body (surface0. If it
is in contact with any surface then we have to represent normal reaction
force and frictional force[if any].
3. If there is any string attached with the body then we have to represent
tension force.
WORKSHEET-2
1. Weight of an object is always directed
1)Vertically downwards 2) vertically upwards
3)Parallel to the surface 4) inclined
2. whenever two surfaces are in contact, they press (0r push) each other by a
force called
1) non-contact force 2) contact force
3) gravitational force 4) Magnetic force
3. The component of the contact force perpendicular to the surface is called
1) normal reaction 2) frictional force
3) weight 4) speed
4. which of the following are catogorised into contact forces
1) frictional force 2) Tension forces as applied through strings
3) force exerted during collision 4) All of these
5. The magnitude of non- contact forces
1) Depends on distance of separation
2) Decreases with increase in separation
3) increases with increase in separation
4) Both (1) and (2)
6. Which of the following are catogorised into non-contact forces
1) Gravitational force 2) Frictional force
3) Normal force 4) All of these
7. The component of the contact force along the surface (or parallel) in contact is
called.
1) normal reaction 2) frictional force
3) weight 4) speed
8. The number of normal forces acting on a body depends on
1) number of points or surfaces of contact
2) mass of body
3) colour of the body
4) both (1) and (2)
9. The free body diagram of the freely falling body (neglecting air resistance)
1) 2)
3) 4)
10. A book lying on a smooth horizontal table. Then the free body diagram of the
book.
1) 2)
3) 4)
11. A book moving on a rough horizontal table. Then the free body diagram of the
book (f is frictional force)
1) 2)
3) 4)
12. Tension force always a body

1) pushes 2) pulls 3)sometimes pushes, some times pulls
4) Don’t pull or Don’t push
13. The free body diagram of a block ‘m’ is
1) 2)
3) 4)
14. the free body diagram of a block ‘m’ is
1) 2)
3) 4)
15. A Free diagram is a
1) Diagrammatic representation of a single body or a sub-system of bodies
showing all the force acting on it.
2) Diagrammatic representation of a single body or a sub-system of bodies
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) 4) Neither (1) nor (2)
16.In free body diagram
1) The object of interest is isolated from its surroundings
2) Interactions between the object and the surroundings are represented in
terms of forces.
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Neither (1) and (2)
17.A book kept on the table, FBD of the book consists of forces indicating
1) Weight of the object 2) Normal force exerted by
3)Normal force exerted by the book 4) Both (1) and (2)
18. Whenever two surfaces are in contact, they press (or push) each other by a
force
1) contact force 2) reaction force
3) normal force 4) all of these
19.Tension across massless pulley or frictionless pulley remains
1) Zero 2) constant 3) unequal 4) none of these
20.The weight of an object can be written as
1) mg 2) ma 3) both (1) and (2) 4) Neither (1) nor (2)
21.A book kept on the table. FBD of the book consists of forces indicating
1) weight of the object 2) Normal force exerted by the table
3) both (1) and (2) 4) neither (1) nor (2)
22.The tension in the rope when they become slack
1) Maximum 2) minimum 3) Zero 4) can’t say
23.Force applied by spring on bodies connected to it is proportional to extension
or compression and is always opposite to extension or compression, this law is
called
1) Hooke’s law 2) Newton’s law 3) Gravitational law 4) None of these
24.When a body is connected through a string or rope a force may act on the
body by the string or rope due to he tendency of extension, this force is called.
1) frictional force 2) Magnetic force
3) Electrostatic force 4) Tension force
Key :
WORKSHEET –2
1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4 5) 4 6) 1 7) 2 8) 1
9) 1 10) 3 11) 4 12) 2 13) 1 14) 2 15) 1 16) 3
17) 4 18) 4 19) 2 20) 1 21) 3 22) 3 23) 1 24) 4
Friction:
1. Friction: According to Newton’s first law of motion, a body continues to be
in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line unless an external
force acts on it. This means, a ball rolled on the ground must continue to
move forever unless stopped by some force. Our common experience is that
a ball rolled on the ground gradually slows down and finally stops even when
no one has stopped it. Then, why does a rolling ball stop after moving
through a certain distance? The rolling ball stops after covering a certain
distance due to the force of friction acting between the ball and the ground.
Thus, the force which opposes the relative of the body over another is
called force of friction.
Note:
i) The force of friction is always parallel to the two surfaces.
ii) Normal reaction and frictional force always perpendicular to each other.
Normal reaction(R):
It is the force acting normal to the surface of the body in outward direction.
Or When a body rest on a surface or slides on a surface, the force exerted by
the surface on the body normal to the surface is known as normal reaction.
2. Cause of friction:
Friction is due to the irregularities (interlocking) of the two surfaces in
contact.
3. Factors on which frictional force depends:
i. The nature of two surfaces in contact with each other.
ii. Normal force with the surfaces are being presses together.
Note:
The force of friction does not depend upon the area of the surfaces in
contact.
4. Effects of Friction:
i. Friction opposes motion: If we roll a ball on open ground it moves for
a while, slows down and then stops due to frictional force.
ii. Friction produces heat: Rub your palms together for a few seconds.
They become warm. The friction between the palms produces heat.
iii. Friction causes wear and tear: If we look at the soles of our old shoes
and compare then with our new pair of shoes we will find that the old
ones are worn out. When we walk, the soles wear out due to friction
between the ground and the shoes. Similarly, the tyres of cycles and
automobiles wear out due to friction.
5. Advantages of friction:
(Why is friction a necessity):
Some advantages of friction are:
i. Nails and screws hold the wooden boards together due to friction.
ii. Power is transmitted from motor to a machine by a friction belt.
iii. The friction between our feet and the ground helps us to walk on the
ground without slipping and falling.
iv. The friction between the road and the surface of the tyre permits safe
driving.
v. We are able to write on paper board because of the friction between
the pen/pencil and the paper.
vi. The moving vehicles such as bicycles, cars etc., are able to move on
the road because of friction between the tyres and the road surface.
vii. It is force of friction which saves us from impact of meteors coming
from the space. When a meteor enters the earth’s atmosphere, the
force of friction between the meteor and air generates enough heat
such that it burns before reaching ground.
6. Disadvantages of friction: (Why is friction considered wasteful):
i. Friction between various part of machines leads to a loss of energy.
Therefore, friction reduces the efficiency of machines.
ii. Friction causes wear and tear of moving machine parts.
iii. Friction between rotating parts of a machine produces heat and
causes damage.
Thus friction is an evil. From advantages and disadvantages of friction.
It is clear that friction is necessary and at the same time it is an evil.
“Hence friction is a necessary evil.”
7. Methods of reducing (minimizing) the friction:
The friction between two surfaces can be reduced by the following methods.
i. Friction can be reduced by polishing or smoothing the surface.
ii. Friction is reduced in machines by applying oil or grease on the moving
parts.
iii. Friction can be reduced by using the ball bearings.
iv. Aeroplanes and automobiles are streamlined in their shape in order to
decrease air or water friction.
Ex: Rocket, car, ships, missiles, aeroplanes and automobiles have special shapes.
Birds and fish have streamlined bodies.
Note: Pointed shaped bodies is called streamlined.
v. Friction can be reduced by applying soap solution to the rough
surfaces.
vi. Friction can also be reduced by applying powder to the rough surfaces.
Graphite powder is used in machines to reduce friction.
Ex: When a small quantity of powder is applied to the wooden carom board the
surface of carom board becomes smooth and hence the friction between
carom board and the coins gets reduced.
8. Methods of increasing friction:

In certain situations, we need to increase friction, inspite of fact it consumed
more energy. Following examples will illustrate the statement.
i. Tyres of all kinds of vehicles are provided with keep grooves, so as to
increase friction. This prevents the vehicle from skidding on wet roads
and sharp turns.
ii. The soles of shoes of athletes and mountaineers are provided with
spikes and grooves. The spikes increase friction and prevent slipping.
iii. Industrial belts are provided with rough surfaces so as to increase
friction. This prevents the belt from slipping over moving iron pulleys.
iv. Grinding stones of flour mills have rough surface. This increases
friction and help in fine grinding of the grain.
v. Soles of our shoes must have grooves.
1. Types of friction:
The force of friction is of three kinds:
1. Static friction
2. Limiting friction
3. Kinetic friction (Dynamic friction)
Kinetic friction is again of two types : (a) Sliding friction and (b) Rolling
friction
Static friction:(fs)
Static friction is the force of friction acting on the body when it is rest position
inspite of the fact that some force is being applies on it.
Note:
i. Frictional force increases with the increases external force, in case of
static friction.
ii. Static friction always equal to applied force.
iii. Static frictional force is a self-adjusting one. It can adjust not only in
magnitude but also in direction.
Limiting friction:
The maximum value of the static friction is called limiting friction. (or)
The maximum frictional force when the body is ready to start is called
limiting frictional force.
Kinetic friction (fk):

The force of friction which opposes when the body in motion on the surface
of another body. Or
When one body moves over the other, the force of friction acting between
the two surfaces is called kinetic friction.
a) Sliding friction:
The force of friction which comes into play between two surfaces
when one tends to slide over the other is called sliding friction.
b) Rolling friction: (fr)
Force of friction which comes into play between two surfaces, while
one is rolling over other is called rolling friction.
Laws of limiting friction:
1. The direction of force of friction is always opposite to the direction of

motion.
2. The force of limiting friction depends upon the nature and state of polish of
the two surface in contact.
3. The magnitude of limiting friction ‘F’ is directly proportional to the
magnitude of the normal reaction R between the two surface in contact, i.e.,
𝐹∝𝑅 or 𝐹 = 𝜇𝑅
Where 𝜇 = co-efficient of friction.
4. The magnitude of the limiting friction between two surfaces is independent
of the area and shape of the surfaces in contact so long as the normal
reaction remains the same.
1. Coefficient of friction:
We know that frictional force is directly proportional to the normal reaction
R between the surfaces in contact.
Frictional force ∝ normal reaction.
𝑓 𝑓𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒
i.e., f ∝ R⟹ 𝜇= =
𝑅 𝑛𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
Where 𝜇 is constant, called coefficient of friction.
There are three types of coefficient of friction.
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑓𝑠
i. Coefficient of limiting friction(𝜇s)= =
𝑛𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑅
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑘𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑓𝑘
ii. Coefficient of kinetic friction (𝜇k)= =
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑜𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑓𝑟
iii. Coefficient of rolling friction (𝜇r)= =
f= 𝜇R= 𝜇mg [∴ R=mg]
2. Factors on which coefficient of friction depends:

Coefficient of friction depends on
i) Nature of the surfaces in contact. ii) It dependson temperature.
WORKSHEET-1
1. Normal reaction acting normal to the surface of the body in __________

direction.
1) Inward 2) Outward 3) Parallel to surface 4) None
2. The force of friction is always parallel to the two_________
1) Objects 2) Forces 3) Surfaces 4) Directions
3. Static friction is always equal to
1) Mass 2) Weight
3) Normal reaction 4) Applied force
4. Generally co-efficient of friction is

1) Equal to one 2) Less than one
2) 3) Greater than one 4) Zero
5. The magnitude of limiting friction between two surfaces is independent of
the
1) Area of the surface in contact 2) Nature of the surface
3) State of polish of the surface 4) Normal reaction
6. A force which acts at the surfaces of contact, when one body is made to slide
upon another body is known as
1) Frictional force 2) Mechanical force
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Neither (1) nor (2)
7. Force of friction increases with the
1) Increase in the weight of a body 2) Decrease in weight of a body
3) No change in weight 4) None of these
8. Force of friction can
1) Oppose the motion of a body 2) Produce heat
3) Produce wear and tear 4) all the above
9. Friction due to these two surfaces in contact
1) Irregularities 2) Interlockings 3) Either 4) Neither
10.The force of friction always acts in this direction
1) Parallel to the surfaces in contact
2) Perpendicular to the surfaces in contact
3) In the direction of applied force
4) All the above
WORKSHEET-2
1. The force which opposes the relative motion of a body over another is called
1) Force of friction is always 2) Electrostatic force
3) In the direction of applied force 4) None of these
2. The force of friction is always
1) Parallel to the two surfaces 2) Perpendicular to the two surfaces
3) In the direction of applied force 4) None
3. In order to increase friction between two bodies
1) Their surfaces of should be more
2) The weight of the body should be more
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) None of these
4. The bodies of fast moving vehicles are streamlined so that
1) They look nice 2) Friction due to air or water
decrease
3) They cannot cut through air or water 4) None of these
5. Frictional force between two surface in contact is due to
1) Adhesive forces between the molecules
2) Cohesive forces between the molecules
3) Repulsive forces between the molecules
4) Both 2 and 3
6. The rolling frictional force varies
1) Inversely as the radius of the roller
2) Directly as the radius of the roller
3) Inversely as the magnitude of rolling frictional coefficient
4) Directly as the magnitude of rolling frictional coefficient
7. If the external force applied in the horizontal direction on a block which is on
a table is balanced by the frictional force. Then such friction is called
1) Maximum friction 2) Sliding friction
3) Static friction 4) Rolling friction
8. With increase of temperature, friction
1) Increase 2) Decrease
3) Remains unchanged 4) May increase or decrease
9. The maximum value of static friction is called
1) Limiting friction 2) Static friction 3) Kinetic friction 4) Rolling
friction
10. The friction acting on the body when the body is in motion is called
1) Static friction 2) Dynamic friction 3) Limiting friction 4) None of
these
11. Force of limiting friction for a body and a surface

1) Decrease if the surface is inclined
2) Increases if the surface is inclined
3) Remains the same whether the surface is inclined on horizontal
4) None of these
12. A good lubricant must be
1) Highly viscous 2) Low viscous
3) Volatile in nature 4) Highly viscous and low volatile in
nature
13. If the normal force is doubled, coefficient of friction is
1) Halved 2) Doubled 3) Not changed 4) Zero
14.While walking on one ice one should take small steps to avoid slipping. Here
smaller steps ensure
1) Larger friction 2) Smaller friction
3) Larger normal reaction 4) Smaller normal reaction
15. A car and a truck use similar tyres. If they are moving at the same initial
speed, the minimum stopping distance
1) Is smaller for the car 2) Is smaller for the truck
3) Is the same for both 4) Depends on colour of the truck or
car
16.Which is a suitable method to decrease friction?
1) Ball bearing 2) Lubrication
3) Polishing 4) All of the above
17. A Force of 100 g wt. is required to pull a body weighing 1 kg over ice. What
is the co-efficient of friction? [g=9.8m/s2]
1) 0.01 2) 0.1 3) 1 4) 10
18. A body of mass 10kg is on a rough horizontal surface. If the coefficient of
kinetic friction between the surfaces in contact is 0.3, the force which can
kept it moving with uniform velocity is
1) 9.8 N 2) 19.6 N 3) 29.4 N 4) 39.2 N
-1
19. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a velocity 10ms on a rough horizontal
surface is stopped after a distance of 10m. Then frictional force acting o it is
1) 25 N 2) 50 N 3) 100 N 4) 200 N
20. A force of 20 kg wt is required to just slide a wooden box weighing 50 kg
over ice then coefficient of static friction between the surfaces in contact is
1) 0.2 2) 0.4 3) 0.8 4) 0.1
21)
Column-I Column-II
a) Disadvantages of 1) Irregularities of the two surface in

friction contact
b) Advantages of friction 2) Wear and tear
c) Cause of friction 3) Heat production
d) Static frictional force 4) Safe driving
5) Self-adjusting force
22)
Column-I Column-II
a) Static friction 1) Constant for a given pair of surfaces
b) Limiting 2) Independent of area of contact

friction
c) Kinetic friction 3) Self adjusting

d) Rolling friction 4) Has the least magnitude for a given normal
reaction
Key :
WORKSHEET-1
1-1 2-3 3-4 4-2 5-1 6-1 7-1 8-4 9-3 10-1
WORKSHEET-2
1-1 2-1 3-2 4-2 5-1 6-1 7-3 8-2 9-1 10-2
11-1 12-2 13-3 14-2 15-1 16-4 17-2 18-3 19-1 20-2
21. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-5 22. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
UNIT – 3
FLUID PRESSURE
Thrust:
When a body is placed on a surface, the weight of the body acts downward and
the force exerted by the body on the surface is equal to the weight of the body.
The total force exerted by the body perpendicular to the surface is known as
thrust.
Example:
Consider a rectangular block of mass 2 kg lying on the ground. The thrust on the
surface of the ground due the block
= weight of the black
=mg = 2 kg x 9.8 ms-2
= 19.6 kg ms-2
= 19.6 N
Units of thrust: since thrust is a type of force its units are same as that of the
force.
S.I unit of thrust = Newton (N)
C.G.S unit of thrust = dyne
Pressure:
Thrust acting over a unit area of the surface is called pressure
(or)
Normal force acting per unit area of the surface is called the pressure
𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 (0𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑢𝑠𝑡)

Mathematically, pressure =
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎
If P is the pressure, F is the force (perpendicular) and A is the area of contact, then
𝐹
P=
𝐴
Note:
i) Pressure is directly proportional to the thrust i.e., the more the thrust ,
the move is the pressure. (provided area is same)
ii) Pressure is inversely proportional to the area of cross-section i.e., the
less the area of cross section, the more is the pressure (provided thrust
is same)
iii) Pressure is a scalar quantity.
Units of pressure:
𝐹 𝑁
As p = ; so in S.I system the unit of pressure = or pascal
𝐴 𝑚2
𝑑𝑦𝑛𝑒
In C.G.S system the unit of pressure =
𝑐𝑚2
Note: (1) N/m2 is called pascal in honour of French physicist blaise pascal.
Other unit of pressure:
1. Other unit of pressure is bar or atmosphere
1 bar – 105 N/m2 = 105 pascals = 105 pa
2. L millibar = 102 N.m2 - 105 pa
2.Applications of pressure:
1) Animals like camels walk easily in deserts as compared to horses or donkeys
because they have broad feet. Broad feet exert less pressure on sandy ground
2) A heavy truck is fitted with six to eight wheels. This increase the area of contact
on which their weight acts and hence reduces their pressure on the ground.
3) The strikers use flat and long skies to slide on the snow because the larger the
area of cross-section, the less is the pressure on the snow.
Hence, a skier can easily slide over snow without sinking his feet in the
ground.
It is for the same reason that sledges are never provided with wheels because the
wheels increase pressure on snow.
4)The cutting edge of knives, blades and axes are sharpened. As the cutting
sharpened, the area of contact decreases and hence pressure exerted by it
increases. Thus, they can easily penetrate a given surface.
5) foundations of high-rise buildings are kept wide so that they wide so that they
exert less pressure on the ground and do not sink in due to the extremely high
pressure of the building.
𝑇ℎ𝑟𝑢𝑠𝑡
1. Mathematically pressure =
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎
2. pressure ∝ thrust (provided area is same)

1
3. pressure ∝ (provided thrust is same)
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎
ACTIVITY
Drop a pencil vertically on your palm with its sharpened lead pointing
downwards. Repeat with the back of the pencil pointing down. The sharp point
will hurt more than the blunt end. This is because in the first case the force acts
over a very small area, which is equal to that of the tip of the lead. In the second
case the force acts on a larger area.
Pressure in fluids:
Fluid: A substance which can flow from one point to another is called fluid. Since
liquids and gases can flow, so they are known as fluids
A fluid exerts three types of pressure
1) Downward pressure
2) Upward pressure
3) Lateral pressure
1. Consider a vessel (v) containing some water of weight (w), say 500 gm. wt.
Let the area of its base (A) be 100cm2. this shows that liquids exert
downward pressure.
2. Take a long cylindrical vessel containing water and punch a hole (H) on its
wall as shown in the above figure. The water comes out with a speed and
falls at distance this proves that liquid has lateral pressure.
3. Take a foot ball and immerse it in water in a vessel (v) and leave it. The ball
immediately comes up and floats on water. This shows that water (or fluid)
exerts pressure in the upward direction.
Upward pressure action on football immersed in water.

Mathematical expression for pressure in fluids:
Consider a beaker filled with a liquid of density d. Now imagine a cylindrical

column of the liquid of height h and cross- sectional area A.
The force acting on the base of this imaginary cylindrical column of liquid is equal
to the weight of the liquid contained in this column of liquid.
i.e., F = weight of liquid in cylindrical column of liquid F= mg…………………..(1)
Now, mass of liquid in the cyclinder column of liquid
m=volume of cylindrical column x density of liquid
= Area of cross section x length of cylindrical column x density of liquid
∴ weight of liquid in cyclindrical column of liquid = mg = Ah d g
Putting this value in equation (1) we get F = Ah d g
𝐹 𝐴ℎ 𝑑 𝑔
∴ pressure exerted by liquid at depth ‘h’ p= = ⟹p=hdg
𝐴 𝐴
Laws of liquid pressure:

Following are the laws of liquid pressure;
1) Pressure at a point inside the liquid increases with the depth from the free
surface of the liquid
2) Pressure at a point inside the liquid at a given depth increases with the
increase in the increase in the density of the liquid.
3) Pressure is same in all directions, about a given point within the liquid
4) Pressure is same at all points in a horizontal plane at a given depth in a
stationary liquid
5) A liquid seeks its own level.
WORKSHEET-1
1. The total force exerted by the body perpendicular to the surface is called.
1) Pressure 2) Thrust 3) Area 4) Volume
2. S.I unit of thrust
1) Newton 2) dyne 3) Kgm/s 4) g cm/s2
3. C.G.S unit of thrust
1) Newton 2) dyne 3) kgm/s 4)g. cm/s2
4. Thrust is a ________ 2quantity
1) Scalar 2) Vector 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Neither (1) nor (2)
5. The force exerted by air on a unit surface area is called
1) Pressure 2) Thrust 3) force 4) mass
6. SI unit of pressure is
1) Pascal 2) newton 3) watt 4) joule
7. C.G.S unit of pressure
1) N/m2 2) pascal 3) dyne/cm2 4) both (1) and(2)
8. Pressure is a
1) Scalar quantity 2) vector quantity
3)Both (1) and (2) 4) neither (1) nor (2)
9. The water is floating with a force is 40 N and pressure on the fluid is 4N/m2
. Then the force of water acted on the area is
1) 8m2 2) 9 m2 3) 10m2 4)12m2
10. Pressure exerted by a body on a surface is
1) Thrust x area 2) thrust m2 area
3) area ÷ thrust 4) thrust ÷ volume
11. With the increase in the weight of an object the pressure
1) increases 2) Decreases
3) Is not affected 4) None of these
12. with the increase in the weight of an object the pressure
1) Increase 2) Decreases
3) Is not affected 4) None of these
13. column – 1 column-2
a) S.I system the unit of pressure 1) 105 Pa
𝑁
b) C.G.S system the unit of pressure 2)
𝑚2
𝑑𝑦𝑛𝑒
c) 1 bar 3)
𝑐𝑚2
d) 1 millibar 4) 102 N/m2

5) 102 Pa
14. The ratio of the S.I unit of pressure to the C.G.s unit of pressure is _____
Key:
FP worksheet - 1
1) 2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 2 5) 1 6) 1 7) 3
8) 2 9) 3 10) 2 11) 2 12) 1 13) a-2; b-3; c-1; 14) 10

d-4,5
Transmission of pressure in liquids: (PASCAL’S LAW)

This law is also known as “ the principle of transmission of fluid pressure”.
This law states that “the pressure exerted at any point in an enclosed and
incompressible liquid is transmitted equality in all direction.”
Example:
Take a round bottom flask with a number of narrow openings on its sides.
Provided with an air-tight piston in its mouth. Fill it to the brim with water. Now
push the piston down. Water will come out in jets with equal force from all the
openings. This shows that the pressure exerted at one point is transmitted equally
in all directions.
Transmission of pressure in a liquid

Explanation:
Consider a vessel full of water and filled with air tight piston in different positions
as shown in the diagram.
Let the piston at A free be pushed down with a force F1 , pressure P on the piston
is
𝐹1
P=
𝑎1
Where ‘a1’ is the area of cross- section of piston at A. it will be observed that to
hold pistons at B,C,D and E respectively. This indicates that pressure is
transmitted equally in all directions as stated by pascal’s law.
Application of pascal’s law
Pascal’s law is used to multiply force in machines such as the hydraulic press or
Bramah press, hydraulic lift and hydraulic brake.
Principle of a Hydraulic machine: (Hydraulic press or Bramah press)
Hydraulic press works on the principle of pascal’s law.
Construction:
It consists of two cylindrical vessels X and Y of different cross sections. Let the
cross sectional area of X be ‘A1’ and that Y be ‘A2’
The vessels contain a liquid. The vessel X is provided with water tight piston M.
the vessel X has smaller diameter than vessel Y. the vessel Y is provided with
watertight piston N. r and R are the radil of vessel X and vessel Y respectively. Let
the area of cross. Section of vessel x with a smaller diameter be A1 and that of
vessel Y be A2 . so A2 >A1
A weight is placed on piston M of the vessel X. it exerts a force F1
𝐹1
Therefore , the pressure applied on piston M in the downward direction is .
𝐴1
According to pascal’s law, the pressure exerted on the piston M is transmitted by

the liquid to the piston N.
𝐹1
∴ The upward pressure exerted on the piston N is
𝐴1
Hence, the upward force (F2) exerted on piston N is

F2 pressure on the piston N x Area [since force = pressure x area]
𝐹 𝐹2 𝐴2
F2 = 1 xA2 (or) =
𝐴1 𝐹1 𝐴1
Since A2> 𝐴1 therefore F2>F1

Thus a small force F1 applied on the smaller piston M can be used to exert a large
force F2 on the bigger piston N. This is the principle of a hydraulic machine.
Note: Applying the principle of hydraulic machines, we get:
𝐿𝑜𝑎𝑑
Mechanical advantage = MA =
𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑡
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑟 𝑝𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑛 𝜋𝑅 2 𝑅 2

= = =
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑟 𝑝𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑛 𝜋𝑟 2 𝑟 2
(𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑟 𝑝𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑛)2

MA = (𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠
𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑟 𝑝𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑛)2
Note:
i) Larger piston is generally referred as press plunger
ii) Smaller piston is referred as pump plunger
Uses of hydraulic press:
1. It is used for compressing the cotton bales and straw.
2. It is used for extracting oil from oil seeds.
3. It is used for punching holes in metals.
4. It is used for giving specific shapes to metal sheets.
5. It is used for servicing automobiles in service stations.
Atmosphere pressure:
The whole Earth is surrounded by a blanker of air known as the atmosphere
extends up to a height of about 1600 km. The weight of all the layers of air exerts
a force on the surface of the Earth. The force exerted on unit area of the earth’s
surface due to the atmosphere is called atmosphere pressure.
Standard atmosphere pressure:
The normal or the standard pressure is the average of the atmosphere at sea
level at 273 K and is expressed as a pressure of one atmosphere (1 atm).
It is found that 1 atm pressure can balance a column of mercury 0.76 m high. Thus
slightly greater than the atmosphere pressure.
We are not aware of this because the blood in our body exerts a pressure which is
slightly greater than the atmospheric pressure.
We can express it in pascal as:
0.76m Hg pressure = 0.76 x 13600 x 9.8 = 105 Pa (approximately)
(since density or mercury = 13600 kgm-3 and g = 9.8 ms-2).
Thus 1 atm = 0.76 m hg = 10 5 pa
Note:
If the atmospheric pressure (P0) acting on the free surface of liquid is also taken
into account, then total pressure in a liquid at a depth h = Atmospheric pressure +
pressure due to liquid column = P0=hdg
Measurement of atmosphere pressure:
The instrument used to measure the atmosphere pressure is called Barometer. It
was constructed by Torricelli in 1643
Construction of simple barometer:
It consists of a glass tune with a narrow uniform bore and of length 100 cm
It is closed at one end. The tube is carefully filled with perfectly pure and dry
mercury so that no air bubbles are left inside the tube.
Thumb is placed tightly on the open end of the tube and then it is inverted in a
bowl containing mercury.
The thumb is removed from the open end, under the surface of mercury in the
bowl.
It is observed that some mercury flows down. Thereby creating an empty space
which is commonly called Torricellian vacuum.
It is found that at the sea level. The vertical height of mercury supported in the
tube is 7 cm above the mercury level in the bowl.
When and equilibrium is established we can say that pressure exerted by 76 cm
vertical height of mercury column is equal to the pressure exerted by the air
column at the surface of mercury in the bowl.
In other words, the air exerts as much pressure as is exerted by 76 cm of vertical
height of mercury column.
WORKSHEET-2
1.Pressure exerted by a standing liquid due to its weight is called
1) Atmosphere pressure 2) pressure
3)Hydrostatic pressure 4) Lateral pressure
2.If the total pressure inside a base of liquid tank is 3 atm. Then calculate the
pressure due to water column in tank. [atmospheric pressure = 1 atm]
1) 1 atm 2) 2 atm 3) 3 atm 4) o.5 atm
3.Oil can be extracted from the oil seeds using a device called
1) simple machine 2) Hydraulic machine
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Neither (1) nor (2)
4. Hydraulic lift works on the principle of
1) charle’s law 2) Boyle’s law 3) Newton’s law 4) pascal’s law
5. The __________ exerted at any point in an enclosed and incompressible
liquid is transmitted equality is all directions.
1) pressure 2) Temperature 3) area 4) force
6. Pascal’s law is used to multiply force in machines such as
1) Hydraulic law 2) Bramah press 3) Hydraulic lift 4) all of these
7. Two cylinders provided with pistons are connected as shown in the figure.
The area of cross section (i) is ‘a’ and of (ii) is ‘A; . The force exerted in (i) is ‘f’ and
in (ii) 9s ‘f’ then
𝑓 𝐹 𝑓 𝐹 𝑓 𝐹
1) = 2) > 3) < 4) None of these
𝑎 𝐴 𝑎 𝐴 𝑎 𝐴
8.If the atmosphere pressure (P0) acting on the free surface of liquid is also taken
into account the total pressure in a liquid at a depth ‘h’ is
1) Atmospheric pressure + pressure due to liquid column
2) Atmospheric pressure - pressure due to liquid column
3) Atmospheric pressure x pressure due to liquid column
4) Atmospheric pressure / pressure due to liquid column
9. The liquid used in Barometer is
1) Mercury 2) Kerosene 3) water 4) Alcohol
10. The value of atmospheric pressure on the surface of earth at sea level is nearly
Take density of mercury = 13600kg/m3 , density of water = 100 kg/m3
1) 105 Pa 1) 103 Pa 1) 101 Pa 1) 104 Pa
11. Standard atmospheric pressure is
1) 76 x 13.6 x 980 cm of mercury column
2) 76 dyne cm-2
3) 76 x 13.6 cm of water column
4) 76 x 980 dyne cm-2
12.In diagram below the area of cross section of the pistons A and B are 8 cm and
320 cm2 respectively then the thrust on the piston at B is
1) 160 kgf 2) 150 kgf 3) 140 kgf 4) 130 kgf

Key:
Worksheet – 2:
1) 3 2) 2 3) 2 4) 4 5) 1 6) 4 7) 1
8) 1 9) 1 10) 1 11) 2 12) 1
OPTICS
REFLECTION OF LIGHT AT PLANE SURFACES
Introduction:
Nature has endowed the human eye (retina) with the sensitivity to detect
electromagnetic waves within a small range of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Electromagnetic radiation (wavelength from 400 nm to 750 nm) is called light. It is
mainly through light and the sense of vision.
Light travels along straight line with enormous speed. The speed of light in
vacuum is the highest speed attainable in nature. The speed of light in vacuum is c
= 2.99792458× 108 𝑚𝑠 −1
The wavelength of light is very small compared to the size of ordinary objects that
we encounter commonly (generally of the order of few cm or larger). A light wave
can be considered to travel from one point to another, along a straight line joining
them. The path is called a ray of light, and a bundle of such rays constitutes a
beam of light.
Fermat’s principle states that “light travels between two points along the path
that requires the least time, as compared to other nearby paths’’.
The phenomena of reflection, refraction and dispersion of light are explained
using the ray picture of light. We shall study the image formation by plane and
spherical reflection and refracting surfaces, using the basic laws of reflection and
refraction. The construction and working of some important optical instructions,
including the human eye are also explained.
Reflection of light:
When a light ray strikes the boundary of two media such as air and glass, a part of
light is turned back into the same medium. This is called reflection of light.
In case of reflection at the point of incidence ‘O’, the angle between incident ray
and normal to the reflecting surface is called the angle of incidence (i). the angle
between reflected ray and normal to the reflecting surface is called angle of
reflection (r). The plane containing incident ray and normal is called plane of
incidence.
Laws of reflection:
The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the reflecting surface at the
point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection ∠i = ∠r
Types of reflections:
Regular reflection:
When the reflection takes place from a perfect smooth plane surface, then the
reflection is called regular reflection (or) specular reflection. In this case, a parallel
beam of light incident will remain parallel even after reflection as shown in the
figure.
In case of regular reflection, the reflected light ray has large intensity in one
direction and negligibly small intensity in other direction. Regular reflection of
light is useful in determining the property of mirror.
Diffused reflection:
If the reflecting surface is rough (or uneven), parallel beam of light is reflected in
random directions. This kind of reflection is called diffused reflection.
As shown in the above figure if the reflecting surface is rough, the normal at
different points will be in different directions, so the rays that are parallel before
reflection will be reflected in random directions.
Important points regarding reflection:
Laws of reflection are valid for all reflecting surfaces either plane or curved.
If a light ray is incident normally on a reflecting surface, after reflection it retraces

its path i.e., if ∠i = 0 then ∠r = 0
In case of reflection of light frequency, wavelength and speed does not change.
But the intensity of light on reflection will decreases.
If the reflection of light takes place from a denser medium, there is a phase
change of 𝜋 rad.
If 𝐼̂, 𝑁
̂ and 𝑅̂ are vectors of any magnitude along incident ray, the normal and the
reflected ray respectively then
𝑅̂ .(𝐼̂ × 𝑁
̂) = 𝑁
̂ .(𝐼̂ × 𝑅̂ ) = 𝐼̂. (𝑁
̂ × 𝑅̂ ) = 0. This is because incident ray, reflected ray
and the normal at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
Vector form of law of reflection:
If 𝑒̂1 is unit vector along the incident ray 𝑒̂2 is the unit vector along the reflected
ray 𝑛̂ is the unit vector along the normal then, 𝑒̂2 = 𝑒̂1 – 2(𝑒̂1 . 𝑛̂) 𝑛̂
Deviation of a ray due to reflection:
The angle between the direction of incident ray and reflected light ray is called
the angle of deviation (𝛿).
From the above figure 𝛿 = 𝜋 – (i+r) but i = r

Hence angle of deviation in the case of reflection is 𝛿 = 𝜋 – 2i
By keeping the incident ray fixed, the mirror is rotated by an angle ‘𝜃′ about an
axis on the plane of mirror, the reflected ray is rotated through an angle ‘2 𝜃′.
Reflection from plane surface

 When you look into a plane mirror, you see an image of yourself that has
three properties.
 The image is up right.
 The image is the same size as you are
 The image is located as far behind the mirror as you are in front of it. This is
shown in the figure.
 A plane mirror always form virtual image to a real object and vice versa and
the line joining object and image is perpendicular plane mirror as shown in
the figure.
The graph between (v) and the object distance (u) for a plane mirror is a
straight line as shown in figure.
The ratio of image height to the object height is called lateral magnification
(m). Thus in case of plane mirror ‘m’ is equal to one.
 The principle of reversibility states that rays retrace their path when their
direction is reversed. In accordance with the principle of reversibility object
and image positions are interchangeable. The points corresponding to
object and image are called conjugate points.
This is illustrated in figure.
 A mirror whatever may be the size, it forms the complete image of the
object lying in front of it. Large mirror gives more bright image than a
smaller one. It is seen that the size of reflector much larger than the
wavelength of the incident light otherwise the light will be scattered in all
directions.
 The angle between directions of incident ray and reflected or refracted ray
is called deviation (𝛿).
A plane mirror deviates the incident light through angle 𝛿 = 180 – 2i where
‘i’ is the angle of incidence. The deviation is maximum for normal incidence,
hence 𝛿𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 180°.
It is noted that, generally anti-clockwise deviation is taken as positive and

clockwise deviation as negative.
 Every object has its own field of view for the given mirror. The field of view
is the region between the extreme reflected rays and depends on the
location of the object in front of the mirror. If our eye lies in the field of
view, then only we can see the image of the object otherwise not. This is
illustrated in figure.
A plane mirror produces front-back reversal rather than left-right reversal.

It must be kept in mind that the mirror produces the reversal effect in the
direction perpendicular to plane of the mirror. The figure (a) shows that the
right handed co-ordinate system is converted into left handed co-ordinate
system
i.e., the image formed by a plane mirror left is turned into right and vice
versa with respect to object as shown in figure(b).
When the object moves in front of stationary mirror, the relative speed
between object and its image along the plane of the mirror is zero and in
perpendicular to plane of mirror relative speed is twice that of the object
speed.
(𝑉𝐼𝑂 )𝑦 = 0 and (𝑉𝐼𝑂 )𝑦 = 2𝑉𝑥
 If an object moves towards (or away from) a plane mirror at speed v, the
image will also approach (or recede) at the same speed v, and the relative
velocity of image with respect to object will be 2v as shown in figure. If the
mirror moved towards (or away from) the object with speed 2v, as shown
in figure.
a) a person of height ‘h’ can see this full image in a mirror of minimum
ℎ
length l =
2
b) a person standing at the centre of room looking towards a plane mirror
hung on a wall, can the whole height of the wall behind him if the length
of the mirror is equal to one-third the height of the wall.
 The minimum width of a plane mirror required for a person to see the
complete width of his face is (D-d)/2, where, D is the width of his face and d
is the distance between his two eyes.
1 1 (𝐷+𝑑)
𝑀𝑀1 = [D - (D-d)] 𝑀𝑀1 = ----(i) and
2 2 4
(𝐷+𝑑) (3𝐷−𝑑)
𝑀𝑀2 = D - 𝑀𝑀2 = D - ----(ii)
4 4
(2𝐷−2𝑑)
Width of the mirror = 𝑀1 𝑀2 = 𝑀 𝑀2 - 𝑀𝑀1 = {From (i) and (ii)}
4
2(𝐷−𝑑) (𝐷−𝑑)
= =
4 2
 If two plane mirrors inclined to each other at an angle 𝜃, the number of

images of a point object formed are determined as follows
360
 If is even number (say m) Number of images formed n = (m-1), for all
𝜃
positions of objects in between the mirrors.
360
 If is odd integer (say m) Number of images formed n = m, for all
𝜃
positions of objects is not on the bisector of mirrors. n = (m-1), if the object
is on the bisector of mirrors.
360
 If is a fraction (say m). The number of images formed will be equal to its
𝜃
integer part i.e., n = [m].
Ex: if m = 4.3, the total number of images n = [4.3] = 4
360 Position of the Number of images (n)
m=
𝜃
object
Even Anywhere m-1
Odd Symmetric m-1
Asymmetric M
Fraction Anywhere [m]
 All the images lie on a circle whose radius is equal to the distance between
the object ‘O’ and the point of intersection of mirrors C. If 𝜃 is less more
number of images on circle with large radius.
 If the objects is placed in between two parallel mirrors 𝜃 = 0°, the number
of images formed is infinite but of decreasing intensity in according with I∝
𝑟 −2 .
 If ‘𝜃’ is given n is unique but if ‘n’ is given 𝜃 is not unique. Since same
number of images can be formed for different 𝜃.
 The number of images seen may be different from number of images
formed and depends on the position of the observer relative to object and
mirror.
 When a light ray vector incident on a mirror, only the component vector
which is parallel to normal of the mirror changes its sign without change of
its magnitude on reflection. It is noted that a mirror can reflects entire
energy incident on it, hence the magnitude of reflected vector is same as
that of incident vector. Incident vector corresponding to an object and
reflected vector corresponds to an image. This vector may be position,
velocity or acceleration.
Example: If a plane mirror lies on x-z plane, a light vector 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ - 4𝑘̂ on
reflection becomes 2𝑖̂ - 3𝑗̂ - 4𝑘̂ .
Worksheet – 1
1. Consider the following diagram.
Which one of the angles (A,B,C,D) is the angle of incidence? __________ which
one of the angles is the angle of reflection? ____________
a) A,B b) B,C c) A,D d) A,C
2. As the angle of incidence is increased for a ray incident on a reflecting surface,
the angle between the incident and reflected rays ultimately approaches what
value?
a) zero b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180
degrees
3. A ray of light is incident towards a plane mirror at an angle of 30-degrees with
the mirror surface. What will be the angle of reflection?
a) 60° b) 70° c) 80° d)90°

4. If two plane mirrors are inclined at angle 𝜃 to each other as shown, then angle
of deviation of incident ray is
a) 360 - 2𝜃 b) 360 + 2𝜃 c) 180 - 2𝜃 d) 180 + 2𝜃

5. which of the following best describes the image formed by a plane mirror?
a) virtual, inverted and enlarged b) real, inverted and reduced
c) virtual, upright and the same size as object d) real, upright and the same
size as object
6. If you stand three feet in front of a plane mirror, how far away would you see
yourself in the mirror?
a) 1.5 ft b) 3.0 ft c) 6.0 ft d) 12.0 ft
7. When the image of an object is seen in a plane mirror, the distance from the
mirror to the image depends on _____.
a) The wavelength of light used for viewing.
b) The distance from the object to the mirror.
c) The distance of both the observer and the object to the mirror
d) All of these.
8. If a man wishes to use a plane mirror on a wall to view both his head and his
feet as he stands in front of the mirror, the required length of the mirror
______.
a) is equal to the height of the man.
b) is equal to one half the height of the man.
c) depends on the distance the man stands from the mirror.
d) depends on both the height of the man and the distance from the man to
the mirror.
9. When an object is placed between two parallel mirrors, then number of
images formed are
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) infinite
10.Two plane mirrors are attached to form a dual mirror system with an
adjustable angle. As the angle between the mirrors increases, the number of
images _____.
a) increase b) decreases c) remains the same d) all of
these
WORKSHEET - 2
1. A small object is placed 10cm infront of a plane mirror. If you stand behind the
object 30cm from the mirror and looks at its image, the distance focused for
your eye will be
a) 60 cm b) 20 cm c) 40 cm d) 80 cm
2. Fig. shows a plane mirror onto which a light ray is incident. If the incidenting
light ray is turned by 10° and the mirror by 20° as shown, then the angle
turned by the reflected ray is
a) 30° clockwise b) 30° anti clockwise

c) 50° clockwise d) 50° anti clockwise
3. If a plane mirror is rotated in its own plane through an angle of 20° keeping the
incident ray direction fixed, then the angle through which the reflected ray
turns is
a) 40° b) 0° c) 20° d) 10°
4. Two plane mirrors are at 45° to each other. If an object is placed between
them, then the number of images will be.
a) 5 b) 9 c) 7 d) 8
5. A ray reflected successively from two plane mirrors inclined at a certain angle
undergoes a deviation of 300°. The number of observable images
a) 60 b) 12 c) 11 d) 5
6. The ray of light is incident at 50° on the middle of one of the two mirrors
arranged at an angle of 60° between them. The ray then touches the second
mirror, get reflected back to the first mirror, making an angle of incidence of
a) 50° b) 60° c) 70° d) 80°
7. Two vertical plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60° with each other. A
ray of light travelling horizontally is reflected first from one mirror and then
from the other mirror, then the resultant deviation is
a) 60° b) 120° c) 180° d) 240°
8. An object moves with 5 m/s towards right while the mirror moves 1 m/s
towards the left as shown. Then the velocity of image.
a) 7 m/s towards left b) 7 m/s towards right
c) 5 m/s towards right d) 5 m/s towards left
Matrix match type:
9. An object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors inclined at an
angle θ and if n is number of images seen then
Column – 1 Column – 2
a) θ = 60° p) n = 7
b) θ = 45° q) n = 3
c) θ = 90° r) n = 5
d) θ = 20° s) n = 9
t) n = 17
10.An incident ray makes an angle 35° with the surface of a plane mirror. Then
Column – 1 Column – 2
a) Angle of incidence is p) 45°
b) Angle of reflection is q) 25°
c) Glancing angle of incidence r) 35°
d) Glancing angle of reflection s) 55°
t) 65°
Key :
Worksheet – 1
1. b 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. c
6. c 7. b 8. b 9. d 10. b
Worksheet – 2
1. c 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. c
6. c 7. d 8. a 9. a-r; b-p; 10. a-s; b-s; c-r;
c-q; d-t d-r
Reflection of light at curved surfaces

Mirrors:
A smooth, highly polished reflecting surface is called a mirror. One surface of
the mirror is made opaque by silvering followed by a thin coat of red lead
oxide paint. There are two types of mirrors.
Plane mirrors:
A highly polished plane surface is called a plane mirror.
Spherical mirrors:
A mirror in which the reflecting surface is curved is called a spherical mirror.
In spherical mirrors the polished reflecting surface is a part of a hollow sphere

of glass. Depending upon the nature of the reflecting surface of the mirror,
spherical mirrors are of two types.
Different types of spherical mirrors:
Concave mirror:
A spherical mirror whose inner hollow surface is the reflecting surface is called
a concave mirror.
Convex mirror:
A spherical mirror whose outer surface is the reflecting surface is called a
convex mirror.
Different types of spherical mirrors

Terms related to spherical mirrors:
→ Aperture: The width (distance) of the spherical mirror from which reflection
can take place is called its aperture. It is denoted by 𝑀𝑀′
→ Pole: The centre of a spherical mirror is called its pole. It is denoted by P.
→Centre of curvature: The geometric centre of the hollow sphere of which the
spherical mirror is a part is called the centre of curvature of the spherical mirror.
It is denoted by C.
→Radius of curvature: The radius of the hollow sphere of which the spherical
mirror is a part is called the radius of curvature of the spherical mirror. In other
words, the distance between the pole and centre of curvature of the spherical
mirror (PC) is called its radius of curvature. It is denoted by r.
→Principal axis: The straight line passing through the centre of curvature and the
pole of a spherical mirror is called its principal axis (PX)
→Focus: If a beam of light parallel to the principal axis falls on a concave mirror,
all the rays after reflection meet at a point. This point is called the focus (F) of the
concave mirror.
If a beam of light parallel to the principal axis falls on a convex mirror, all the rays
after reflection diverge. If the reflected rays are extended backwards, they appear
to come from a point on the principal axis. This point is called the focus of the
convex mirror.
Focal length: The distance between the pole (P) and focus (F) is called the focal
length (f). it is denoted by f.
∴ f = PF
Note: By sign convention, for concave mirror f = – ve and for convex mirror f = +
ve
DIFFERENCE BETWEEN CONCAVE MIRROR AND CONVEX MIRROR
CONCAVE MIRROR CONVEX MIRROR
Reflection takes place at the Reflection takes place at the
concave surface (or bent in convex surface (or bulging out
surface) surface)
A parallel beam of light falling A parallel beam of light falling on
on this mirror converges at a this mirror appears to diverges
point after reflection from a point after reflection
It is a converging mirror It is a diverging mirror
It has a real focus It has a virtual focus
Concave Mirror As Converging Mirror:

Consider two rays of light AB and DE travelling parallel to the principal axis of a
concave mirror, meeting the surface of mirror at point B and E respectively. C is
the centre of curvature of the mirror. Join CB and CE. CB and CE are
perpendiculars to the surfaces of mirror at point B and E, because any line drawn
the centre of a sphere to its circumference is always at right angles to the
circumference.
Thus, ∠ABC and ∠DEC are the angle of incidence. Applying laws of reflection,
makes ∠CBF and ∠CEF, such that the reflected rays meet at point F on the
principal axis. Then, point F is the principal focus.
It is found that all the rays coming parallel t principal axis meet at point F. in a way
the rays converge at a single point. Thus, concave mirror acts as a converging
mirror.
Conclusion:
1. Any ray of light travelling parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror,
after reflection passes through the principal focus of the mirror.
2. A ray of light which first passes through principal focus, after reflection, will
travel parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror.
3. A ray of light which first passes through the centre of a curvature of
concave mirror, after reflection will retrace its path. It is because the ray
strikes the mirror surface at right angles.
Convex Mirror As Diverging Mirror:
Consider a convex mirror, having centre of curvature at point C, such that AB and
ED are the two rays of light, travelling parallel to the principal axis, meeting the
mirror surface at point B and D respectively. Join CB and CD and produce them
forward to G and L respectively. Such that BG and DL act as normal at the points
of incidence B and D respectively.
Draw reflected ray BK and DH, such that the angle of incidence is equal to the
angle of reflection. Produce BK and DH backward. It is seen that these rays meet
the principal axis at point F. This point is called principal focus of the convex
mirror.
It is found that all rays coming parallel to principal axis, after reflection, appear to
meet at point F when extend in backward. In other words, the reflected ray
appear to diverge out from point F. Hence, convex mirror is called a diverging
mirror.
Conclusion:
1. Any ray of light travelling parallel to principal axis of a convex mirror, after
reflection appears to diverge from the principal focus of the convex mirror.
2. Any ray of light which travels along principal focus of a convex mirror, after
reflection from it, will travel parallel to the principal axis.
3. Any ray of light which travels along centre of curvature of a convex mirror,
after reflection from it, retraces its path. It is because, it strikes the mirror
at right angle.
Relation between focal length(f) and radius of curvature (R):
Consider a spherical mirror, such that ‘C’ is its centre of curvature. AB is a ray of
light, incident at point B and is travelling parallel to principal axis. After reflection
this ray is reflected along BD, cutting principal axis at point F (In case of convex
mirror BD is produced backward), which is the principal focus of spherical mirror.
For convex mirror: (Figure – a)

∠i = ∠r (By the laws of reflection)
But, ∠i = ∠1 (Pair of corresponding angles)
And, ∠r = ∠2 (Pair of vertically opposite angle)
∴ ∠1 = ∠2
∴ CF = BF -------(i)
If the point B is very close to the point P, i.e., the linear aperture of the mirror is
very small then; (i.e., only for parallel axis)
BF = PF --------(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii); CF = PF, where PF = f
Also, PC = CF + PF ⟹ PC = PF + PF (∴ PF = CF)
𝑅
⟹ PC = 2PF ∴ R = 2f or f =
2
For concave mirror: (Figure –b)

∠i = ∠r (By the laws of reflection)
But, ∠i = ∠1 (Pair of alternate angles)
∴ ∠1 = ∠r
Now, In ∆CFB, ∠1 = ∠r ∴ CF = FB
If the point B is very close to the point P, i.e., the linear aperture of the mirror is
very small then; FB = PF. CF = PF, where PF = f
Also, PC = CF + PF ⟹ PC = PF + PF
∴R=f+f (∴PF = CF)
𝑅
R = 2f or f =
2
Thus, we can say that focal length of spherical mirror is half of its radius of
curvature or
Principal focus of a spherical mirror lies midway, between the pole and centre of
curvature of that mirror.
Images formed by a concave mirror for different positions of the object:
Position of the object Position of the image Nature and size of the
image
At infinity At the focus (F) Real, inverted and very
small (highly diminished)
Beyond the centre of Between the focus (F) Real, inverted and
curvature (C) and centre of diminished
curvature (C)
At the centre of At the centre of Real, inverted, same size as
curvature (C) curvature (C) the object
Between the centre of Beyond the centre of Real, inverted, bigger than
curvature (C) and curvature (C) the object (magnified)
focus (F)
At the focus (F) At infinity Real, inverted and enlarged
(highly magnified)
Between the focus (F) Behind the mirror Virtual, erect and enlarged
and pole (P) (magnified)
Images formed by a convex mirror for different position of the object

Position of the object Position of the image Nature and size of the
image
Between the focus (F) Behind the mirror Virtual, erect and
and infinity between P and F diminished
At the focus (F) Behind the mirror at a Virtual, erect and
distance of f/2 from diminished
the pole
Between the focus (F) Behind the mirror Virtual, erect and
and the pole (P) between P and F diminished
At infinity Behind the mirror at Virtual, erect and highly
the focus (F) diminished (point size)
Mirror formula – Relation Between Focal Length, Object Distance And Image
Distance of Mirror:
Definition: The equation relating the object distance, the image distance and
focal length of the mirror is called the mirror formula.
Spherical mirror formula: It is a relation between object distance ‘u’ image
1 1 1
distance ‘v’ and focal length of ‘f’ of a spherical mirror. The relation is + = .
𝑢 𝑣 𝑓
Derivation:
Mirror Formula for Concave Mirrors:
Description: The diagram shows the principal section of a concave mirror M
forming a real and inverted image 𝐴′ 𝐵′ of a real and erect object AB. The object is
beyond C, while the image is between F and C.
Calculation
Here, object distance (measure from P to A)
PA = –u (object on the left of the mirror)
Image distance (measured from P to A)
P𝐴′ = –v (image on the left of the mirror)
Focal length (measured from P to F)
PF = –f (focus on the left of the mirror)
In similar ∆s 𝐴′ 𝐵′ F and NXF
𝐴′ 𝐵′ 𝐹𝐴′ 𝐴′ 𝑃 − 𝐹𝑃
= = (for mirror of small aperture N is near P, FN = FP)
𝑁𝑋 𝐹𝑁 𝐹𝑃
Putting values, with proper sign

𝐴′ 𝐵′ −𝑣−(−𝑓) 𝑣−𝑓
= = ----(1)
𝑁𝑋 −𝑓 𝑓
In similar triangle 𝐴′ 𝐵′ P and ABP (∠𝐴′ 𝑃𝐵′ = ∠ABP)

𝐴′ 𝐵′ 𝐴′ 𝐵′
But since, NX = AB =
𝑁𝑋 𝐴𝐵
𝑣−𝑓 𝑣
Hence, from equation (1) and (2), =
𝑓 𝑢
Cross-multiplying 𝑣𝑢 − 𝑢𝑓 = 𝑣𝑓
Transposing, −𝑣𝑓 − 𝑢𝑓 = −𝑢𝑣
1 1 1 2 𝑅
Changing sign and dividing by 𝑢𝑣𝑓, we get + = = as f =
𝑢 𝑣 𝑓 𝑅 2
Note: Mirror formula same for both concave and convex mirror
Linear magnification:
Definition: The ratio of the size of the image, as formed by reflection from the
mirror to the size of the object, is called linear magnification produced by the
mirror. It is represented by the symbol m. If I be the size of the image and O be
the size of the object.
𝐼
Then m =
𝑂
If we represent size of the object by ℎ1 and size of the image by ℎ2

ℎ2
Then, I = ℎ2 and O = ℎ1 Hence, m =
ℎ1
Expression:
(i) For concave mirror forming real image
I = 𝐴′ 𝐵′ = – ℎ2 (inverted image, O = AB = + ℎ1 (erect object)
ℎ2 𝐴′ 𝐵′
Then m = − =− , In similar ∆𝑠𝐴′ 𝐵′ 𝑃 and ABP
ℎ1 𝐴𝐵
𝐴′ 𝐵′ 𝑃𝐴′ 𝑃𝐴′ −𝑣 𝑣
= Then, m = – =– i.e., m = −
𝐴𝐵 𝑃𝐴 𝑃𝐴 −𝑢 𝑢
(ii) For convex mirror forming virtual image
I = 𝐴′ 𝐵′ = +ℎ1 (erect image)
O = AB = +ℎ1 (erect image)
Ray diagram for a convex mirror which mostly forms a virtual image
ℎ2 𝐴′ 𝐵′
Then, m = =− , In similar ∆s 𝐴′ 𝐵′ 𝑃 and ABP
ℎ1 𝐴𝐵
𝐴′ 𝐵′ 𝑃𝐴′ 𝑃𝐴′ +𝑣 𝑣
= Then, m = − =– i.e., m = –
𝐴𝐵 𝑃𝐴 𝑃𝐴 −𝑢 𝑢
It is same as for a concave mirror.

Hence, we conclude that, the linear magnification produced by a mirror is equal
to the ratio of the image distance to the object distance with a minus sign.
Note: For a real image u and v, both are negative, hence m is negative.
For a virtual image u is negative, v is positive, hence m is positive.
Area magnification: It is the ratio of the area of the image to the area of the
object. It is also called superficial or surface magnification.
𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑣2
Area magnification = =
𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑢2
Sign convention for spherical mirrors:

1. All ray diagrams are drawn with the incident light travelling from left to
right.
2. All distance are measured from the pole of the mirror.
3. The distance measured in the same direction as that of the incident light
are taken as positive.
4. The distance measured in the direction opposite to the direction of the
incident light are taken as negative.
5. Distance measured upward and normal to the axis are taken as positive and
those measured perpendicularly downwards as negative.
Note:
(i) On the basis of above sign convention, the focal length as well as radius of
curvature of a convex mirror are positive and that of a concave mirror are
negative.
(ii) For a convex mirror the image distance v is positive and the object distance
u is negative.
(iii) For a concave mirror the value of u is always negative but the value
of v is negative when the image formed is real and is positive when the image is
virtual.
Or
Following sign convention is used for measuring various distance in the ray
diagrams of spherical mirrors.
(i) All distance are measured from the pole of the mirror.
(ii) Distance measured in the direction of the incident ray are positive.
(iii) Distance measured in the direction opposite to that of the incident
rays are negative.
(iv) Distance measured above the principal axis are positive i.e., height of
an object and of an erect image are positive.
(v) Distance measured below the principal axis are negative, i.e., height of a
real inverted image is negative.
This sign convention for a concave and a convex mirror are shown below in the
table
Sign convention for spherical mirrors

Conclusions from the sign convention
For concave mirror For convex mirror
Distance of the object u is Distance of the object u is
negative negative
Distance of the real image v is Distance of the virtual image v is
negative negative
Distance of the virtual image v is Focal length f is
positive positive
Focal length f is Radius of curvature R is
negative negative
Radius of curvature R is Height of the object O is
negative positive
Height of the object O is Height of the inverted(erect)image I
positive is positive
Height of the inverted(erect)image
I is negative
Height of the erect (virtual) image I
is positive
WORKSHEET – 3
1. A spherical mirror whose inner hollow surface is the reflecting surface is
called
1) Concave mirror 2) Convex mirror
3) Plane mirror 4) None of these
2. The centre of the spherical mirror is called
1) Focus 2) Pole 3) Centre of curvature 4) None of these
3. Any ray of light travelling parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror,
after reflection passes through
1) Pole of mirror 2) Focus of mirror
3) Centre of curvature of mirror 4) In between pole and focus
of mirror
4. Virtual effect and enlarged image will be formed by a concave mirror when
object is place in between
1) Infinity and centre of curvature 2) Focus and centre of
curvature
3) Pole and focus 4) At centre of curvature
5. When object is place between centre of curvature (c) and focus (f) of a
concave mirror the nature and site of the image is
1) Real, inverted and very small
2) Real, inverted, same site of object
3) Real, inverted and bigger than the object
4) Virtual, erect and enlarged
6. Real, inverted and same site as the object, image will be formed by concave
mirror, when the object is at
1) Centre of curvature 2) Focus
3) Between focus and pole 4) Beyond centre of curvature
7. All distances in case of spherical mirrors are measured from
1) Focus of mirror 2) Centre of curvature of mirror
3) Principal axis 4) Pole of mirror
8. On the basis of sign convention, the focal length as well as radius of
curvature of a convex mirror is
1) Positive 2) Negative
3) Positive or negative 4) None of these
9. The ratio of area of the image to the area of the object is called
1) Magnification 2) Linear magnification
3) Superficial magnification 4) None of these
10.On the basis of sign convention, the focal length as well as radius of
curvature of a concave mirror is
1) Positive 2) Negative
3) Both 4) None of these
11.The image formed by a convex mirror of real object is larger than the
object.
1) When u < 2f 2) When u > 2f
3) For all values of u 4) For no values of u
12.The diameter of spherical mirror in which reflection takes place is called
1) Radius of curvature 2) Centre of curvature
3) Linear aperture 4) Focal length
1 𝑡ℎ
13.When a convex mirror of focal length ‘f’ produces an image ( ) of the
𝑛
size of the object, then distance of the object from the mirror is
𝑓
1) 2) (n+1)f 3) (n –1)f 4) fn
𝑛
14.A ray deviates 90° after suffering reflection from a mirror. The angle of
incidence is
1) 90° 2) 30° 3) 45° 4) 60°
15.An object is placed at a distance 2f from the pole of a convex mirror of focal
length f. the linear magnification is
1 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4) 1
3 3 4
16.The image of an object placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length
12 cm is formed at a point which is 10cm more distant from the mirror that
the object. The magnification of the image is
1) 1.5 2) 2 3) 2.5 4) 3
17.A 5cm long object is placed at 30cm infront of a convex mirror of radius of
curvature 40cm. the size of the image is ______ cm.
Key :
WORKSHEET – 3
1. 1 2. 2 3. 2 4. 3 5. 3 6. 1 7. 4 8. 1 9. 3
10. 2 11. 12. 3 13. 3 14. 3 15. 1 16. 1 17. 2
UNIT - 5
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
ELECTRIC CURRENT AND POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE
INTRODUCTION TO ELECTRIC CURRENT:
We know that when we switch on the fans at homes, schools etc., they run.
Computers, transistors, radios, television, electric trains etc. also run when they
are switched on. Similarly, at night when we switch on the bulbs, tube lights etc.
they glow. All these things are possible because of Electricity.
Electricity is a form of energy. The flow of electricity is called electric
current. Electric current is nothing but flow of electrons in a conductor.
Sources of electric current:
The substance which produce electric current is called a source of electric
current.
Based on supply of electric current, sources are classified into two types: They are
a) Small source of electric current
b) Big source of electric current
a) Small source of electric current:

When the electric supply fails at night, we immediately look for a torch
placed nearby. When we press its switch ON. Its bulb glows up. The small sources
of electric current are called Cells. Cells are used to operate the torch.
Cells are also used to operate small devices like transistors, radios, bicycle
lamps, small tape recorders, cameras etc.,
b) Big sources of electric current:
The electric current used in our homes for running fans; refrigerators;
heaters etc. is of very large magnitude. Similarly, the energy used in factories,
electric trains etc. is of very very large magnitude. Cells cannot provide this
energy. For producing a large amount of energy big power houses are
constructed.
Electric Circuits:
We know the flow of electricity is known as current or electric current. An
electric current can flow only when there is a closed path for it to travel along.
The path along which an electric current can flow is called an electric circuit. The
cell, the bulb and the connecting wires are all part of the circuit.
When the bulb glows, we say that an electric current is flowing round the
closed circuit. If there is any break in the wires or in the filament of the bulb, the
circuit is broken and the bulb does not glow.
Direction of Current:
The electric current always flows from the Positive teriminal to the negative
terminal of the cell in the circuit, as shown in the diagram: This is called
conventional current. Modern concept is that electrons flow from lower potential
to higher potential. This will be made clear to you in higher classes.
Conventional Current:
Observe the following spheres A and B.
We observe sphere A has positive charges and sphere B has equal number
of negative charges. These charges are static in nature, i.e., they do not flow
(“ Static” means rest). Here we say, the positively charged sphere A is said to be at
higher potential and negatively charged sphere B is said to be at lower potential.
If spheres A and B are now connected by a copper wire, then positive charges
flow from sphere A to the sphere B.
Copper wire
Thus, due to the flow of charge through wire, current is produced. This current is
known as conventional current.
Conventional current flows from the positively charged body (body at
higher potential) to the negatively charged body (body at lower potential).
Electronic current:
After the discovery of atom and subatomic particles like protons and
electrons, scientists came to know that positive charge (proton) resides within the
nucleus of an atom and incapable of moving. Only electrons are capable of
moving.
In fact when sphere A is connected to sphere B, the excess electrons on
sphere B will flow toward the sphere A, which has deficiency of electrons.
Thus, due to the flow of electrons through wire, current is produced. This
current is known as electronic current.
Electronic current (real current) flows from the negatively charged body
(body at lower potential) to the positively charged body (body at higher
potential).
It is customary, however, not to use the flow of electrons when discussing circuits.
Instead, the so – called conventional current is used.
All substances ae made up of atoms, which have charged particles called
electrons and protons. The electricity in all forms is due to the flow of charged
particles (electrons) in an orderly fashion.
Types of Current:
Electric current is of two types:
i) Direct current and
ii) Alternating current
i) Direct Current:
When a current flows in the circuit in one particular direction and does not
changes its magnitude and direction for any duration of time, it is said to be direct
current(D.C)
Example:
The current produced by the cells and storage battery is direct current.
ii) Alternating Current :
When a current changes its magnitude and direction after fixed interval of
time. (i.e, it flows both ways) ina particular circuit, it is said to be alternating
current or AC.
Example:
The current produced by emergency generators or in hydroelectric power
houses is alternating current. It has a frequency of 50Hz . i.e., it change its
direction 50 times in a second in an electric circuit.
Quantity of electric charge:
The number of electrons which move from higher potential to lower
potential is called quantity of electric charge. It represents the total amount of
electricity which flows through a conductor. It is denoted by the letter (Q).
Unit of electric charge:
The S.I unit of electric charge is coulomb (C).
Definition of coulomb:
The quantity of electric charge which will deposit 0.00118 g of silver on the
cathode, when passed through silver nitrate solution is called one coulomb.
It has been found that when 6.25 x 1018 electrons flow through a conductor
the charge is equivalent to one coulomb.
Magnitude of charge on an electron:
Charge on 6.25 x 1018 electrons = 1C
1
∴ Charge on one electron = C = 1.6 x 10- 19 C
6.25 ×1018
Electric current :
The rate of flow of charge in certain time in an electric circuit is called
electric current. It is denoted by the letter ‘I’;
Mathematical expression for current:
If Q is the charge (in coulombs) an electric, which flows through a
conductor in time ‘t’ (in seconds), such that I is the current, then:
𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒 𝑄
Electric current (I) = =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡
Units of electric current:

The S.I unit of electric current is Ampere (A)
The Bigger units of current : Kilo ampere (Ka) = 103 A
: Mega ampere (MA) = 106A
The Smaller units of current: Milli ampere (mA) = 10-3 A
Micro ampere ( 𝜇 A) = 10-6 A
Definition of ampere:
When one coulomb charge flows through an electric circuit in one second,
then the current flowing through circuit is said to be one ampere.
Ammeter:
A device which is used to measure current in an electrical circuit. The figure
shows an Ammeter.
Relation between current, number of electrons flowing through an electric
circuit and time,
We know, I = Q / t
If ‘n’ electrons flow through a circuit and the charge on each electron is e- , then
total charge passed, Q = ne-
𝑛𝑒 −
` I= ( ∵ Q = ne -1)
𝑡
Electrical Potential:
Analogy F we know water flows from higher level to lower level due to
difference in levels.
Similarly, the conventional electric current flows from higher potential to

lower potential just as water flows from higher level to lower level. But electrons
flows from lower potential to higher potential. (We will learn more about these in
higher class)
If current flows from point A to point B in a wire, we can say that A is at
Higher potential and B is at lower potential or there is a potential difference
between A and B.
Electric Potential :
When electric charges move through a conductor, an electric field is set up
in the conductor. This electric field interacts with electric charges and hence,
some energy is spent in moving the electric charges in the forward direction. The
measure of energy spent is called electric potential or
The amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to a
given point in an electric field is known as electric potential.
Units of electric potential:
The S.I unit of electric potential is measured in volts.
Definition of Volt:
When one coulomb electric charge ( 6.25 x 1018 electrons) is brought from
infinity to a given point in an electric field, such that work done is one joule, then
electric potential at that point is one volt.
Note:
Our earth is covered with water. The water evaporates daily in the order of
millions of tones. However, the level of sea water remains constant. It is because
the same amount of water which flows back to the sea from one or other sources,
Similarly the earth can be regard as a sea of electrons, protons and
neutrons, In which the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons so
that earth, on the whole, is electrically neutral. If by some means we take out a
few billions of electrons from the earth, it does not get positively charged.
Because the electrons taken out may form an extremely tiny fraction of the
total number of electrons. If a few billions of electrons are put into the earth it
will not get negatively charged. Thus, the earth is considered to be at zero
potential under all situations.
Introduction to Potential difference:
If an electric charge is already in an electric field at some point, then work
has to be done to more it to some other point in the same electric field. The
measure of the work done in moving the charge from one point to another point
in an electric field is called potential difference.
Definition of Potential difference:
The amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point
to another point in an electric field is called potential difference.
Expression for Potential difference:
If Q units of charge are moved from one point to another point, such that
W is the work done and V is the potential difference, then work done in moving Q
units of charge = W
Work done in moving one unit of charge = W / Q
But work done in moving one unit of charge = Potential difference = V
𝑊
∴𝑉
𝑄
𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒
i.e., Potential difference =
𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒
Unit of Potential difference:

The S.I unit of potential difference is volt.
Definition of volt:
When one joule of work is done in moving one coulomb charge, from one
point to another point in an electric field, then potential difference between
these points is one volt.
1 𝐽𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒
V= = 1 volt
1 𝐶𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏
Voltmeter:
A device which is used to measure voltage in an electrical circuit.
The figure shows voltmeter.
A cell has two terminals. The positive terminal ( +) is at a higher potential and
negative terminal (-) at lower potential.
When these terminals are connected by a metal wire, current flows from the
positive terminal to the negative terminal in the wire. (Since, metal wire a good
conductor of electricity)
Electric Circuit:
The path along which electric current flows is called a electric circuit.
Closed circuit:
When the path of an electric current which starts from one terminal of the
cell, ends at the other terminal of the cell, without any break, then such a circuit is
called closed circuit.
The figure shows a closed circuit.
Open circuit:
When the path of an electric current which starting from one terminal of
cell is broken at some points, then such a circuit a circuit is called open circuit.
The figure shows a open circuit.
Elements of circuit:
Components such as bulb, wire, cell, battery, ammeter, resistor, voltmeter
switches are elements of a circuit.
While drawing a circuit it is very difficult to draw pictures of these elements.
Therefore, we use symbols to represent the elements of circuit which are shown
below:
Elements Symbols
Cell
Battery
Resistor
Switch
Lamp
Ammeter
Galvanometer
Voltmeter
Note:
Galvano meter is a device which is used to detect very small currents.
Switch:
Once the circuit is complete, the bulb starts glowing. The only way you can
turn off the bulb is by disconnecting one of the wires. A more convenient thing to
do would be to use a switch. Switches come in various shapes and size.
A switch is a device used for opening(braking) and closing an electric circuit.
It has two terminals, to which wires can be connected. The electric appliances are
connected to the electric wires through a tiny device called switch. When we
want to use any electrical appliance we put the switch in the ON position. When
we want that appliance should stop working we put the switch in th OFF position.
In the ON position the electric current flows through appliance. In the OFF
position electric current does not flow through the appliance.
When the switch is ON, a metal strip (usually inside the switch ) closes the
circuit and allows the current to flow through it.
When the switch is turned OFF, the metal strip moves away, and opens the
circuit at the terminals.
Torch:
When the electric supply fails at night we use torch. The inside of a torch is
as shown in the figure.
When we close (ON) the switch, the circuit gets completed and the bulb lights up.
WORKSHEET – I
1. Example of power consumer:
a. Cell b. capacitor c. bulb d. none of these
2.Example of power source:
a. cell b. Bulb c. Resistance d. Rheostat
3.The electric current always flows from the …… terminal to the …….. terminal
of the cell.
a. Positive, negative b. negative, positive
c. Positive, Positive d. negative, negative
4. The conventional electric current flows from
a. higher potential to lower potential
b. lower potential to higher potential
c. higher potential to higher potential
d. lower potential to lower potential
5.The direction of conventional electric current is
a. is opposite to the direction of flow of electrons
b. is same as that of direction of flow of electrons
c. has no direction
d. can’t say
6.The direction of electronic current is
a. is opposite to the direction of flow of electrons
b. is same as that of direction of flow of electrons
c. has no direction
d. can’t say
7. The current produced by the cells and storage battery is
a. Alternating current b. Direct current
c. Both (1) & (2) d. Neither (1) nor (2)
8. The current produced in hydroelectric power houses is
a. Alternating current b. Direct current
c. Both (1) & (2) d. Neither (1) nor (2)
9. The unit of electric current is
a. Volt b. Coulomb c. Ampere d. Ohm
10. Which of the following is used to make or break the electric circuit?
a. Tap – key b. Cell c. Battery d. Ammeter
11.The rate of flow of charge in an electrical circuit is called …………
a.electric current b. electrical potential
c. resistance d. electric field
12.The potential difference is defined as
𝑞 𝑤
a. b. c. q x t d. w x q
𝑡 𝑞
13. A charge of 1000C flows through a conductor for 3 min and 20s. Find the
magnitude of current flowing through conductor.
a. 2A b. 5A c.8A d. 10A
14. The amount of work done by cell of emf 1.5 volts in moving a charge of
10coloumb is
a. 15J b. 20J c.1.2J D. 18J
15.An aluminum conductor is carrying a current of 1A. How may electrons per
second are crossing the cross section of the conductor.
a. 5X108 b. 5.6 X 1018 c.6 x1018 d. 6.25 x 1018
Matrix – Match Type:
p. tap key
q. plug key
r. bulb key
s. bulb does not glow

t. current does not flow
17. If 8 X 104 coulomb of charge passes through a point in 2 second, then
current is …….. x 104 ampere.
18. The current flowing through a conductor if 1 million electrons are crossing
in 1 millisecond through a cross section of it is …..
19. If 10 J of work is to be done in moving a charge of – 200C from point A to
point B, then the potential difference is …….
Key:
Worksheet – I:
1. c 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. c 10.
a
11. a 12. b 13. b 14. a 15. d 16. a-s,t; b- 17. 4 18. 19. -
r; c-p; d-q 1.6× 0.05
10−14 Volt
(OHM’S LAW, FACTORS AFFECTING RESISTANCE)
Relation between potential difference and current:
Ohm ‘s Law:
George Simon ohm conducted many experiments to find the relation
between current and potential difference for a conductor. He found that, “For
constant conditions of pressure and temperature the current passing through a
conductor varies directly as the electrical potential across its ends”.
i.e., v 𝛼 I or V = IR.
The constant of proportionality R is called the resistance of the conductor.
Definition of Electrical Resistance:
The obstruction offered to the flow of current by the wire is called its
electrical resistance.
Units of Electrical resistances:
S.I unit of electrical resistance is Ohm (symbol Ω ).
Definition of 1 Ohm:
The resistance of a conductor is said to be one Ohm if a current of one
ampere flows through it when the potential difference across it is one volt.
Resistance and Resistor:
F when current flows through a conductor, the molecules / atoms of the
conductor will oppose the relative motion of electrons which results in heat. Now,
we say resistance has been developed in the conductor opposing the flow of the
current.
The opposition to the flow of current is known as resistance. Every conductor
opposes the flow of electric current. Tungsten offers high resistance.
The S.I unit of resistance is Ohm.
An electric device which offers some resistance to the flow of current is known as
resistor.
Factors affecting the resistance of a conductor:
The resistance of a wire depends on
i) The material of the conductor:
The resistance of a conductor depends on the number of collision
which the electrons moving through it suffer with the atoms of the wire. In
different materials, the arrangement of atoms is different. Therefore, the
resistance of a conductor depends on its material.
Good conductors of electricity offer less resistance.
ii) The length of the conductor:

The number of collisions suffered by the moving electrons will be
more if they have to travel a longer distance in the conductor,
therefore, a longer conductor offers more resistance than a short
conductor.
iii) The area of cross section of the conductor:

In a thick conductor, electrons get larger area of cross secion to flow
than in a thin conductor, therefore, a thick conductor offers a less
resistance.
iv) The temperature of the conductor :

If the temperature of the conductor increases, atoms in it vibrate
more violently.
As a result, the number of collisions increases and hence the
resistance of wire increase with the increase in temperature.
1. Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length and inversely
proportional to its area of cross section.
𝑙 𝜌𝑙
R𝛼 ⇒𝑅
𝐴 𝐴
Where 𝜌 is known as resistivity (or) specific resistance.
Units of resistivity : ohm – m.
1
2. The reciprocal of resistance is known as consuctance (G) . G =
𝑅
Units of G : siemen (or) ohm-1 (or) mho
3. The reciprocal of specific resistance is known is specific conductance (or)
1
conductivity . 𝜎 =
𝜌
WORKSHEET – 2
1. For a constant conditions of pressure temperature, if electric potential
across ends of a conductor increases then.
a. The current passing through a conductor increases
b. The current passing through a conductor decreases
c. The current passing through a conductor remains change
d. Both (1) & (2)
2. The symbol of unit of electric resistance is
a. 𝛾 b.𝜎 c.𝛽 d.Ω
3. If the length of a conductor increases
a. The resistance of a conductor increases
b. The resistance of a conductor decreases
c. The resistance of a conductor remains constant
d. Both (1) & (2)
4. If the area of a conductor increase
c. The resistance of a conductor increases
d. Both (1) & (2)
5. When the temperature of a conductor increase
c. The resistance of a conductor remains constant
d. Both (1) & (2)
6. If ‘x’ is a length of a conductor, ‘y’ is the area of cross section of a conductor
and ‘p’ is resistivity then the resistance of a conductor is equal to
𝐴 𝐴𝜌 𝜌𝑙 𝜌𝑙 2
a. b. c. d.
𝑝𝑙 𝑙 𝐴 𝐴
7.Unit of resistivity is ……
a. ampere b. volts c. ohm d. ohm – meter
8. The resistance of a wire of length 100 cm and of uniform area of cross –
section 0.02. cm2, is found to be 2Ω. Calculate specific resistance of wire.
a. 2 x 10-4Ωcm b. 4 x 10-4Ωcm c. 5 x 10-4Ωcm d. 8 x 10-4Ωcm
9.What should be the length of nichrome wire of resistance 5.6Ω, if the length
or similar wire is 80cm and its resistance is 4.2Ω?
a. 106.67 cm b. 216.4 cm c.304.6 cm d.100cm
10. Find the resistance of copper coil of total wire – length 10m and area of
cross – section
a. 0.11Ω b. 0.17Ω c.2.3Ω d.3Ω
11.Matrix – Match Type:
Column – I column – II
a. resistance p. iR
b. potential difference (V) q. ohm – meter
c. resistivity r. length of conductor
d. conductivity s. area of cross – section of conductor
t. reciprocal of resistivity
12. Resistance of a wire change by ………. Times when the length of wire is
increased by 4 time and area by 2 times.
13. The length of a conductor is doubled and its radius is halves, its resistance is
………
14. A wire 50 cm long and 1 mm2 in cross section carries a current of 4A when
connected to a 2V battery. Then the resistivity of the wire is ……..
Key:
Worksheet –2:
1. a 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. d
8. b 9. a 10. b 11. a-r,s; b- 12. 2 13. 8 14. 10-6Ωcm

p; c-q; d-t times of
its initial
value
Unit 2.11 – Combination of resistors:

Unit 2.11.1 - Series combination
(i) Current ‘I’ is same through all resistances

(ii) Total potential difference V= 𝑉1 + 𝑉2 + 𝑉3
(iii) 𝑉1 : 𝑉2 : 𝑉3 = 𝑅1 : 𝑅2 : 𝑅3 ( V = iR, V𝛼R)
(𝑖𝑣) 𝑅𝑒𝑓𝑓 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3
(v) If n wires each having resistance R are connected in series, equivalent or
effective resistance 𝑅𝑒𝑓𝑓 = nR
(vi) Equivalent resistance is more than the highest resistance in the series
combination.
(vii) When two resistors R1 and R2 are connected in series then
𝑅1 𝑅2
𝑉1 = 𝑉𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 [ ] ; 𝑉2 = 𝑉𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 [ ]
𝑅1 + 𝑅2 𝑅1 + 𝑅2
𝑉
𝐼 =
𝑅1 + 𝑅2
(viii) Hence, the equivalent resistance of series combination is greater than

the greatest resistance in the combination.
Unit 2.11.2 - Parallel combination
(i) Potential difference ‘V’ is same across the
ends of any wire.
(ii) In parallel combination, current is divided
in the inverse ratio of their resistances.
1 1 1
(iii) 𝑖1 : 𝑖2 : 𝑖3 = : :
𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
𝑉 1
∴(I= ⟹i∝ )
𝑅 𝑅
(iv) Total current i=𝑖1 + 𝑖2 + 𝑖3

1 1 1 1
= + +
𝑅𝑒𝑓𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
𝑅
(𝑣) If n wires each having resistance R are connected in parallel, 𝑅𝑒𝑓𝑓 =
𝑛
(vi) Equivalent resistance is less than that of least resistance in the parallel
combination.
Notes:
1. The equivalent resistance of a parallel combination of resistances is less
than the individual resistance.
2. If n resistors, each of resistance R be connected in parallel, then
1 1 1 1 𝑛 𝑅 𝑅
= + + + ⋯ … . . 𝑛 terms = or 𝑅𝑝 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅𝑝 = Hence,
𝑅𝑝 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 𝑛 𝑛
resistance decreases in parallel combination.
1
3. In parallel combination, effective area of cross –section increases. As R 𝛼 ,
𝐴
resistance decreases in parallel combination.
1 1 1 𝑅1 +𝑅2 𝑅1 𝑅2
4. For two resistors in parallel, = + = 𝑜𝑟 𝑅𝑝 =
𝑅𝑝 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅1 +𝑅2
𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
For three in parallel, 𝑅𝑝 =
𝑅1 𝑅2 +𝑅2 𝑅3 +𝑅3 𝑅1
5. Voltmeter is always connected in parallel to the two points across which
the potential difference is to be measured. A voltmeter has a high
resistance so that it takes a negligible current from the circuit.
WORKSHEET – 3:
1. The resistors are connected in series, in order to
a. Decreases the resistance of the circuit
b. Increases the resistance of the circuit
c. Increase the current in the circuit
d. Both (1) and (2)
2. In series combination of resistors,
a. Current through all the resistors is same
b. Current through all the resistors is different
c. Potential through all the resistors is same
d. Both (1) and (2)
3. In series combination of resistors.
a. potential difference across a resistor is proportional to it’s resistance
b. potential difference across a resistor is inversely proportional to it’s
resistance
c. Potential difference across a resistor is proportional to it’s square resistance
d. Potential difference across a resistor is inversely proportional to it’s square
resistance
4. The resistors are connected in parallel in order to
a. decrease the resistance of the circuit
b. increased the resistance of the circuit
c. decrease the current in the circuit
d. Both (1) and (3)
5. In parallel combination of resistors.
a. current through all the resistors is same
b. current through all the resistors is different
c. potential through all the resistors is same
d. Both (2) and (3)
6. The equivalent resistance, when three resistors, 2Ω, 3Ωand 4Ω are
connected in series is
a. 9Ω b. 10Ω c. 15Ω d. 30Ω
7. The equivalent resistance, when three resistors 2Ω, 4Ω and 6Ω are
connected in parallel is
11 12 12 13
1. Ω b. Ω c. Ω d. Ω
12 11 13 12
8. Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B
1.2Ω b. 8Ω c. 10Ω d. 16 Ω
9. Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B.
1.2Ω b. 8Ω c. 10Ω d. 1.6 Ω
10. A wire of 36 Ω resistance is cut into ‘n’ equal pieces and are joined parallel
the effective resistance is 1Ω. The value of ‘n’ is
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
a. two different resistances are in p. current in each resistance is
series same
𝑅1 𝑅2
b. two different resistances are in parallel q. R =
𝑅1 +𝑅2
c. If ‘n’ resistors of each of resistance R

be connected in parallel, then equivalent r. R = R1+ R2
resistances ( R eq) is
d. ratio of equivalent resistances of s. n2
equal resistances in series to
parallel is
𝑅
t.
𝑛
12. The effective resistance between A and B in the figure shown below is ……. Ω
13. When resistors are connected in ……… , potential difference across each
resistor is different and is proportional to the resistance.
14. When resistros are connected in …………… currents in the resistors are in the
Ratio of reciprocals of the resistances.
15. Column – I Column –II
a. p. Series
b. q. parallel
c. r. 60Ω
d. s. 110Ω
10
t. Ω
3
key:
Worksheet – 3:
1. b 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. c
9. d 10. b 11. a-p,r; 12. 1 13. series 14. 15. a-0,r;

b-q; c-t; parallel b-q; c-p,s;
d-s d-q,t
UNIT - 6
SOUND
Sound
Sound is a form of energy which emitted by a vibrating body that travels in the
form of waves and causes the sensation of hearing . sound cannot travel through
vacuum.
Production of sound
We hear many sounds every day such as the sound of our school bell. An alarm
clock, a barking dog and so on. We talk and communicate with others by
producing sounds. Sound is produced when a body vibrates (moves back and
forth rapidly) .In other words Sound is produced by vibrating bodies.
Note:
Vibrations of the bodies produces sound so vibrations are the causes of sound.
The following experiments demonstrate this fact.
EXPERIMENT:
AIM: To demonstrate that sound is produced by a vibrating body.
Aid: Tuning fork. Rubber pad. It produces sound. If you took at the prongs of the
tuning fork closely, they look hazy because they are vibrating, suspend the table
tennis ball with the thread tied to the stand. Bring the prong of the vibrating
tuning fork near the ball.
Observation: The ball jumps to – and – fro. This shows that the prongs of the
tuning fork are vibrating.
Result: Every source of sound is a vibrating body.
Sound need a material medium to travel:
The substance through which sound travels is called a medium. The medium can
be a solid substance, a liquid or a gas.
Solids, liquids and gases are called material media. Sound needs a material
medium like solid, liquid or gas to travel.
In other words, sound can travel through solids, liquids and gases but it cannot
travel through vacuum (or empty space). Sound waves are called mechanical
waves because they need a material medium (like solid, liquid or gas) for their
propagation.
Note:
Sound travels about 15 times faster in steel than in air.
EXPERIMENT:
Aim: To demonstrate that sound requires a medium for propagation.
Aids: Electric bell. Glass bell jar. Vacuum pump. Battery
Method: place the electric bell inside the glass bell jar and connect it to a battery.
When the circuit is closed. You can hear the belt ring. The jar contains air and
sound travels through this air.
Now, remove the air from the jar with help of the vacuum pump connected
to the belt jar. As the air is taken out. The loudness of the sound slowly decreases
until the sound becomes too faint. Finally you cannot hear the bell even though
the hammer of the bell is seen striking the gong as before.
Allow air to enter the jar gradually. You will hear the sound slowly
increasing.
Result: sound cannot propagate in the absence of a material medium like solid,
liquid or gas.
The speed of sound: sound takes some time to travel from the sound producing
body to our ears.
The speed of sound tells us the rate at which sound travels from the sound travels
from the sound producing body to our ears.
Speed of sound in different media: The speed of sound is different in different
media. The speed of sound is more in solids. Less in liquids and least is gases
(since solids are much more elastic than liquids and gases). The speed of sound is
nearly 5100 m/s in steel. 1450 m/s in water and 330 m/s in air at 00c.
Mathematical formula for speed of sound:
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑
1. Speed of sound =
𝛾𝑃
2. Laplace’s formula for velocity of sound, v = √
𝜌
𝑐𝑝 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑎𝑡 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒

Where 𝛾 = =
𝑐𝑣 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑎𝑡 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒
P = Pressure of the medium 𝜌 = density of the medium.

Factors affecting the speed of sound in air or in a gas:
i) Density
ii) Temperature
iii) Humidity
iv) Direction of wind
1
1.Effect of density: as v ∝ i.e
√𝜌
The speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of
the medium
Ex: The density of oxygen is 16 times the density of hydrogen, therefore the speed
of sound in hydrogen is four times the speed of sound in oxygen.
2.Effect of temperature: The speed of sound increases with the increase in
temperature of a gas.
It is found that the velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the
square root of its absolute temperature i. e.,
v∝ √𝑇 . The reason is that with the increase in temperature there is a

decrease in the density and consequently. The speed of sound increases.
The speed of sound in air increases by about 0.6 m/s (or 60 cm per second)
for each degree Celsius rise in temperature i.e vt = V0+0.06 t
Ex: speed of sound in dry still air at 00c is 330 m/s. At 250c , the speed of
sound in dry still air will be V25 = V0 + 0.6t = 330+0.6 x 25 = 345 m/s.
3.Effect of humidity: The speed of sound increases with the increase in humidity.
Vapour reduces the density of air i.e density of moist air< Density of dry air
therefore. Velocity of sound in moist air > velocity of sound in dry air.
1
[since v ∝ ]
√𝜌
Hence, the velocity of sound in moist air is greater than the velocity of sound in
dry air, that is why sound travels faster on a rainy day than on a dry day.
4.Effect of wind: The speed of sound increase or decreases according to the
direction of wind.
(i) If the wind blows in the same direction in which the sound travels, the velocity
of sound increases i.e velocity of sound = velocity of sound in still air +velocity of
wind
i.e v = vs+vw
(ii) if the wind blows in the opposite direction in which the sound travels, the
velocity of sound decreases i.e velocity of sound= velocity of sound in still air –
velocity of wind.
i.e v = vs-vw
Factors which do not affect the speed of sound in air:
There is no effect on the speed of sound in air due to the following factors.
i) Change in frequency
ii) Change in amplitude
iii) Change in pressure
iv) Change in factors like phase, loudness, pitch, quality of sound etc.
Effect of pressure:
𝛾𝑃
We know, v =√
𝜌
Thus, if the temperature of a gas remains constant, a change in pressure of the

gas remains constant, a change in pressure of the gas changes its density in the
same ratio i.e if pressure P of the gas is doubled. The volume becomes half, so
density (m/v) gets doubled. So P/𝜌 remains unchanged.
Consequently , the velocity of sound is independent of the pressure of the gas
provided the temperature remains constant.
Comparison of speed of sound with speed of light:
The speed of ligh t in air is 3 x 108 ms-1 which is about a million times larger as
compared to the speed of sound in air i.e 330 ms-1 at 00c.
Apart from this, the speed of light decreases in a denser medium (speed of
light in water is 2.25x108 ms-1 ). While the speed of sound is more in solids, less in
liquids and still less in gases (speed of sound in steel is nearly 5100 ms-1, in water
is nearly 1450 ms-1 and in air is nearly 330 ms-1).
Lightning is seen much earlier than the thunder is heard:
In thundering , the light is seen much earlier than the sound of thunder is
heard although they are produced.
Simultaneously, as light takes almost negligible time in comparison to
sound in reaching us from the thunder.
WORKSHEET-1
1.In which of following the speed of sound is more?
1) Gas 2) Water 3) Iron 4) kerosene
2.If the distance travelled by sound is X, time taken is Y, then the speed of the
sound is
𝑋 𝑌 𝑥2
1) 2)XY 3) 4)
𝑦 𝑋 𝑦2
3.If the density of medium increases then the speed of the sound
1) decreases 2) increases
3) remain same 4) both (1) and (2)
4. If the temperature of a gas increases then the speed of sound
5. If the humidity decreases the speed of sound
6. In which of the following the speed of sound is more?
1) In dry air 2) in most air
7. If the velocity of wind is vw, velocity of sound in still air is vs, then the velocity of
sound if the wind blows in the same direction in which the sound travels is
𝑉𝑠 𝑉𝑤
1) Vs+Vw 2) Vs-Vw 3) 4)
𝑉𝑤 𝑉𝑠
8. If the velocity of wind is Vw, velocity of sound in still ari is Vs, then the velocity
off sound if the wind blows in the opposite direction in which the sound travels is
𝑉𝑠 𝑉𝑤
1) Vs+Vw 2) Vs-Vw 3) 4)
𝑉𝑤 𝑉𝑠
9. The speed of sound in air does not effect due to

1) change in frequency 2) change in amplitude
3) change in pressure 4) all of these
10. sound travels about times faster in steel than in air
1) 5 2) 10 3)15 4)20
11. vibrating bodies produce
1) light 2)heat 3)Sound 4)none of these
12. sound cannot travel through
1) vacuum 2)Liquids 3)solids 4) gases.
13. The instrument used in the laboratory to produce sound of fixed frequency is
1) simple pendulum 2) tuning fork
3) thermometer 4) meter scale
14. The speed of sound in steel in nearby m/s at 00c
1) 0 2) 330 3)1450 4) 5100
15.The speed of sound in water in nearly _________ m/s at 00c
1) 0 2) 330 3)1450 4) 5100
16. The velocity of sound in vacuum is m/s
1) 0 2) 330 3)1450 4) 5100
17. sound waves are
1) Transverse 2) longitudinal 3) stationary4) Both (1) and (2)
18. The speed of sound in hydrogen is times the speed of sound in oxygen
1) 2 2) 4 3) 8 4) 16
19. The velocity of sound in dry still air at 250c is nearly m/s
1) 0 2) 330 3) 345 4)1450
20. The speed of light in air is m/s
1) 3 2)3 X 10-5 4) 3X108 3X1010
21.The speed of light in water is m/s
1) 3 X 108 2) 2.25 X 108
3)2 X 108 4) 2.25 x1010
22.The speed of light in glass is m/s
1) 3 X 108 2) 2.25 X 108
3)2 X 108 4) 2.25 x1010
23. The reciprocal of wave length is called
1) wave velocity 2) wave number
3)wave density 4) Both 1 and 2
24. The speed of sound in medium depends on
1) The elastic property but not on the intertial property
2) The inertia property but not on the elastic property
3) The elastic property as well as the intertia property
4) Neither the elastic property not the inertia property
25. The speed of sound in medium doesn’t not change with the change of
of the wave
1) frequency 2) wave length 3) pressure 4) Density
26. The velocity of sound in not affected by change in
1) Temperature 2) Medium 3) pressure 4) wave length
27.Formula for speed of sound
1) Distance travelled by sound x time taken
2) Distance travelled by sound / time taken
3) Distance travelled by sound – time taken
4) Distance travelled by sound + time taken
28. The speed of sound in air 00c is approximately
1) 330 m/s 2) 1450 m/s 3) 5100 m/s 4) 3x 108 m/s
29. Velocity of sound in air at the given temperature
1) Decreases with increase in pressure
2) may increase or decrease with pressure
3) is independent of the variation in pressure
4) varies directly as the square root of pressure
30. If the temperature of atmosphere is increased the following character of
sound waves is effected.
1) amplitude 2) frequency3) velocity 4) wavelength
31. The velocity of sound
1) directly proportional to absolute temperature
2) directly proportional to square root of absolute temperature
3) Inversely proportional to absolute temperature
4) Inversely proportional to square root of absolute temperature
32. Among the following velocity of sound depend in a gaseous medium
1) Intensity of sound 2) amplitude and frequency of sound
3) Density of elasticity of medium 4) wavelength of sound
33.During thunder storm, the flash of lightning is seen before the thunder is heard
because,
1) sound travels much faster than light.
2) Light travels much faster than sound
3) Both sound and light have equal speed
4) none of these.
34. If Vg, Vl,and Vs represent the speed of sound in a gas, liquid and solid
respectively, then
1) Vg> 𝑣𝑙 > 𝑣𝑠 2) Vs> 𝑣𝑙 > 𝑣𝑔
3) Vl> 𝑣𝑠 > 𝑣𝑔 4) Vg> 𝑣𝑠 > 𝑣𝑙
35. Velocity of sound is highest in the case of

1) solids 2) Liquids
3) Gasses 4) Vacuum
36. column – I column – II
a) Density decreases 1) speed of sound increases
b) temperature increases 2) speed of sound decreases
c) Humidity decreases 3) no effect
d) effect of wind 4) based on direction of wind
5) based on speed of wind
Key :
WORKSHEET-1
1) 3 2) 1 3) 1 4) 2 5) 1 6) 2 7) 1 8) 2 9) 4 10) 3 11) 3 12) 1
13) 2 14) 4 15) 3 16) 1 17) 2 18) 2 19) 3 20) 3 21) 2 22) 3 23) 2 24) 3
25) 1 26) 3 27) 2 28) 1 29) 3 30) 3 31) 2 32) 3 33) 2 34) 2 35) 1 36) a-1;
b-1; c-
2;d-4
SOUND
Reflection of sound:
The bouncing back of sound when it strikes a hard surface is called the reflection
of sound.
Echo:
It is a common experience that when we shout infront of a high mountain or a
deep valley or a wall or in a big empty hall. We hear our sound back after a few
seconds. This is known as echo. An echo is simply a reflected sound.
Thus, the sound heard after reflection from a rigid obstacle is called an echo.
The repetition of sound caused by the reflection of sound waves is called an echo.
Minimum distance of hear an echo:
The human ear can hear two sounds separately only if they reach the ear after an
interval of 1/10th of a second. This is a natural feature of the human ear. If we
take the speed of sound roughly as 340 m/s, the distance travelled by sound in
1/10th of reflected sound if we are at a distance of 17 m or more from the
reflecting surface. This results in hearing the reflected wave known as echo.
Calculation of minimum distance to hear an echo:
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑
We know that: Speed =
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
Speed of sound = 340 m/s (in air)

1
Time taken = 𝑠 (persistence of hearing)
10
(time gap between the original sound and its echo)

Distance travelled = ?: Now, putting these values in the above formula, we get:
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑 1
340 m/s = 1 . Distance travelled = 340 x = 34 meters.
𝑠 10
10
Thus, the distance travelled by sound in going from us (the source of sound) to
the sound reflecting surface (wall), and then coming back to us should be 34
metres. So our distance from the sound reflecting surface (like a wall, etc) to hear
an echo should be half of 34 metres which is 34/2 = 17 metres. From this, we
conclude that the minimum distance from a sound reflecting surface (like wall,
etc) to hear an echo is 17
Relation between speed of sound, time of hearing echo and distance from
reflecting body.
If t is the time in which an echo is heard, d is the distance between the source of
sound and the reflecting body, and v is the speed of sound, then the total
distance travelled by the sound is 2d.
S = source of sound
d = Distance between source of sound and reflecting body.
O = Observer
∴ In the time t seconds. Distance travelled by sound = 2d
2𝑑
Hence, in time 1 second. Distance travelled by sound =
𝑡
But, distance travelled by sound in 1 second, = speed of sound

2𝑑 2𝑑 𝑣𝑥𝑡
∴ v= or t = or d =
𝑡 𝑣 2
Conditions for the formation of an echo:

1. The minimum distance between the source of sound and the reflecting
body should be 17 meters.
2. The wavelength of sound should be less than the height of the reflecting
body.
3. The intensity of sound should should be sufficient, so that it can be heard
after reflection.
Reverberation:
If a sound is made in a big hall, the sound waves are reflected from the
walls, ceiling and floor of the hall, and produce manu echoes. The echo time
however, so short that the many echoes overlap with the original sound. Due to
this original sound seems to be prolonged and lasts for a longer time. In other
words, a sound made in a bit hall persists (on lasts) for a longer time.
The repeated multiple reflection of sound in any big enclosed space is
called reverberation.
(or)
The persistence of sound in a big hall due to repeated reflection from the
walls ceiling and floor of the hall is called reverberation. Thunder that follows
lightning flash during a storm is an excellent example of reverberatory or multiple
echoes. Reverberations are also produced in a closed room.
Note: To reduce the reverberation to almost zero level, the walls and the ceiling
of the hall are covered with sound absorbing materials, such as rough plaster,
fibre board or loose woolen or cotton cloth.
Application of echo:
SONAR: (sound Navigation and Ranging):
The reflection of sound can be used for measuring the depth of a sea at a certain
place. The instrument used for this purpose is called SONAR which is carried in a
ship.
SONAR is a device which is used to find the depth of a sea or to locate underwater
objects like enemy’s submarine, shoals of fish.
A sonar apparatus consists of two parts.

(i) Transmitter (for emitting ultrasonic waves), and
(ii) Receiver cum recorder (for receiving reflected ultrasonic waves)
Now, suppose a sonar device is attached to the underside of a ship and we want
to find the depth of the sea (below the ship). To do this, the transmitter of sonar
is made to emit ultrasonic waves. The ultrasonic waves travelling down the
seawater, strike the bottom of the sea and are reflected back to the ship to the
ship in the form of echo. The receiver cum recorder receives the echo and
measures the time taken (t) by the ultrasonic waves to travel from the ship to the
bottom of the sea, and back to the ship. We can calculate the depth of the sea by
using the formula.
2 𝑥 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 (𝑑) 𝑣𝑤 𝑥𝑡
Velocity of sound (in water ), Vw = ⟹𝑑=
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 (𝑡) 2
Now a days all these calculations are done by the computers attached to the
sonar. The machine is also equipped to construct the shape of the obstacle (like
enemy submarine, iceberg, etc.) on the screen of the cathode tube.
Ultrasonic waves (sounds having frequency greater than 20,000 Hz) are used in
sonar.because,
1. Ultrasonic waves have a very high frequency due to which they can
penetrate deep in sea water without being absorbed.
2. Ultrasonic waves cannot be confused with other noises. Such as the noise
of engines of ship. It is because the ultrasonic waves are not perceived by
human ear.
Use of echoes by animals in nature:
Bats and dolphins produce ultrasonic waves. They detect the presence of an
obstacles or enemy by hearing the echo of these sounds. This process is known as
sound ranging. Because of this bats can fly in the dark without colliding with other
objects.
Classification of sound waves on the basis of frequency:
In the basis of frequency sounds are classified into three categories. They are
1) Infrasonic sound
2) Ultrasonic sound
3) Sonic sound (Audible sound)
Infrasonic sound (subsonic):
If the frequency of vibrating body is less than 20 HZ , its vibrations then the sound
produced by it is called infrasonic sound.
(OR)
If a body is vibrating with frequency of less than 20 HZ, its vibrations cannot be
perceived by the human ear. These vibrations are called infrasonics or infrasonic
vibrations,
Special features of infrasonic:
i) Infrasonic waves are produce during earth quakes or storms.
ii) Type of waves produced by a pendulim are infrasonic waves, because
the frequency of a pendulum is less than 20 HZ.
iii) Elephants communicates through infrasonic waves.
Infrasonic sounds (or vibrations) cannot be heard by human beings.
2.Ultrasonic sound (ultrasound):
If the frequency of vibrating body is greater than 20,000 Hz then the sound
produced by it is called Ultrasonic sound.
(OR)
If a body is vibrating with frequency of more than 20,000 HZ . its vibrations cannot
be perceived by the human ear. These vibrations are called infrasonics or
infrasonic vibrations.
Ex: some animals like dogs and bats can hear ultrasonic sounds.
Special features of ultrasonic:
1. Dolphins communicate by emitting ultrasonic sound waves.
2. Bats do not have eyesight. But still they can catch the prey? Bats locate its
prey by emitting ultrasonic sound and sensing the echo (reflection of sound
from an obstacle) of ultrasonic sound from its prey.
3. Dogs can perceived both ultrasonic and infrasonic waves.
4. Children under the age of five years can hear ultrasonic sounds of
frequency upto 25,000 hertz. (as people grow older, their ears become less
sensitive to sounds of higher frequencies.
Application of ultrasound:
1. With the technological advancement in medical science, ultrasound is used
by the doctors as in diagnostic tool for diagnosis of different diseases.
(i) Ultrasound sent through brain cures a mental patient
(ii) Ultrasonic vibrations are used in relieving pain in joints and
muscles.
2. Investigation of structure of matter.
3. Detection of flows (cracks) in metals.
4. Harmful insects are killed by exposing them to ultrasound.
5. Ultra sonic sound waves are used to clean delicate objects such as jewelry
and watches.
6. It is used in sonar to measure the depth of sea (or ocean) and to local
underwater objects like submarines and sea- rocks.
7. Ultrasound is used to break kidney stones into fine grains.
3. Sonic sound (Audible sound):
Sound will be audible, if the frequency of the vibrating body is greater than 20 HZ
and less than 20,000 HZ. These are known as frequency limits of audibility or
audible frequency range of sonic vibrations or audio vibrations.
The human voice can produce sounds with a frequency between 60 Hertz and
13,00 hertz . This means we can hear sound of many more frequencies that we
can produce therefore for human ears, the sudible range of frequencies is from
20 HZ to 20,000 HZ.
EX: Musical sound is an example of audible sound.
WORKSHEET - 2
1.The Bouncing back of sound when it’s the strike a hard surface is called
1) Reflection of sound 2) Refraction of sound
3) diffraction of sound 4) Polarization of sound
2.The sound heard after reflection from a rigid obstacle is called an
1) echo 2) refraction
3) reverberatary echoes 4) polarization of sound
3.The human ear can hear two sounds separately only if they reach the ear after
an interval of of a sound.
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
20 30 40 10
4. The minimum distance between the source of sound and the reflecting body
should be
1) 5 m 2) 10 m 3) 13 m 4) 17 m
5. If y is the time in which an echo is heard, x is the distance between the source
of sound and the reflecting body then the speed of sound is
𝑋 2𝑋 3𝑋 4𝑋
1) 2) 3) 4)
𝑌 𝑌 𝑌 𝑌
6. which device is used to locate underwater objects like enemy’s submarine ,

shoals of fish
1) SONAR 2) RADAR 3) Barometers 4) Speedometer
7. The persistence of sound in a big hall due to repeated reflection from the walls
ceiling and floor of the hall is called
1) reverberation 2) intensity 3) sonar 4) reflection
8. To reduce the reverberation to zero level, the wall and the ceiling of the hall
are covered with
1) rough plaster 2) fiberboard 3) loose woolen 4) all of these
9. which principle is used in SONAR?
1) reflection of sound 2) refraction of sound
10. A SONAR apparatus consists of
1) Transmitter 2) receiver cum recorder
11. In SONAR which types of waves are used?
1) ultrasonic waves 2) infrasonic
3) sonic waves 4) all of these
12. If the frequency of vibrating body is less than 20 HZ, then the sound produced
by it is called
1) ultrasonic sound 2) infrasonic
3) sonic sound 4) all of these
13. Cannot be heard by human being
1) infrasonic sound 2) sonic sound
14. If the frequency of vibrating body is greater than 20,000 HZ the sound
produce of by it is called
1) ultrasonic sound 2) infrasonic sound
3) sonic sound 4) all of these
15. which of the following living being can hear ultrasonic sound
1) dog 2) bat 3) man 4) both (1) and (2)
16. which of the following frequencies are audible?
1) 15 HZ 2) 30,000 HZ 3)25,000HZ 4) 20000 HZ
17. waves are produced during earth quackes or stroms.
1)sonic 2) subsonic 3) ultrasonic 4)supersonic
18. children under the age of years can hear ultra sonic sounds of
frequency upto 25,000 HZ.
1) 5 2) 8 3)10 4)12
18. are used to investigate the structure of matter
1) infra sonic 2) super sonic 3) ultra sonic 4) sonic
sound
20. Musical sound is an example of
1) Infra sonic 2) sonicsound 3) ultrasonic 4) supersonic
21.Relation between speed of sound (V), time of hearing echo (t) , and distance
between source of sound and reflecting body (d) is
𝑣𝑡 𝑣
1) d = vt 2) d = 3) d = 2vt 4) d =
2 𝑡
22. A boy stands 166 m in front of a building and then blows a whistle. Its time
interval when he hears an echo (take speed of sound = 332 m/s)
1) 1 sec 2) 4 sec 3) 8 sec 4) 3 sec
23. Irregular and non-periodic vibrations produces
1) Musical sound 2) Noise
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
24. A girl stands 10 m infront of a wall and blows a whistle, then the time interval
when she hears an echo is (v = 340 m/s) where V is speed of sound in air
1) It is not possible to hear an echo
1 2 1
2) sec 3) sec 4) sec
17 17 34
25. A man stands 170 m infront of cliff and blow a whistle then the time interval
when he hears an echo is (speed of sound = 340 m/s)
1
1) 4 sec 2) 2 sec 3) 1 sec 4) sec
2
26. The audible frequency range is

1) 10 HZ – 100 HZ 2) 20 HZ- 20 KHZ
3) 20 KHz-200kHz 4) 20 MHz-200 MHz
27. A man can hear one of the following sound having frequency
1) 10 hertz 2) 400 Hertz 3) 21,000hertz 4)30 KHZ
28. infrasonic frequency range is
1) below 20 HZ 2) 20 hz to 20 kHz
3) above 20kHz 4) no limit
29. Ultrasonic frequency range is
1) below 20 Hz 2) 20 Hz to 20 Hz to 20 kHz
3) above 20 kHz 4) no limit
30. are used to clean delicate objects such as jewellary watches
1) Infra sonic 2) Ultra sonic
3) Audible 4) super sonic
31. A boy stands 80 m in front of a high wall and then blows a whistle then the
time interval when he hears an echo is (speed of sound= 340 m/s)
1) 0.37 s 2) 0.57 s 3)0.47 s 4) 0.17 s
32. which one of the following material will reflect sound better?
1) thermocole 2) curtain made from cloth
3) steel 4) paper
33. Column-1 column – II
a) Persistance of human ear 1) Reverberation
b) repetition of sound caused by 2) echo
reflection of sound waves
c) conditions form the formation of 3) minimum distance
an echo between source and
reflecting body should be
17 m
d) Multiple reflections of sound 4) wave length of sound
should be taken height of reflecting
body.
5)reflected sound reaches back to the
ear in less than 1/10 sec.
d) a) Bat 1) Infrasonic sound
b) Man 2) Ultrasonic sound
c)Dog 3) Audible sound
Dolphin 4) supersonic sound
Key :
WORKSHEET – 2
1) 1 2) 1 3) 4 4) 4 5) 2 6) 1 7) 1
8) 4 9) 1 10) 3 11) 1 12) 2 13) 1 14) 1
15) 4 16) 4 17) 2 18) 1 19) 3 20) 2 21) 2
22) 1 23) 2 24) 1 25) 3 26) 2 27) 2 28) 1
29) 3 30) 2 31) 3 32) 3 33) a-5; b-2; 34) a-2; b-3;
c-3,4; d-1 c-1,2,3
Language of Chemistry
Synopsis-I
Definition
A Symbol represents short form of an element. The scientist who suggested a method of
representing elements using the English letters (capitals as well as small) is J.J. Berzelius.
A symbol is defined as an abbreviation or short hand sign for the full name of an element.
Signification of a symbol:
Quantitative meaning:
A symbol represents a specific element. A symbol represents one atom of an element. For
example, O stands for oxygen, N stands for nitrogen.
Quantitative meaning: A symbol represents the mass of element, equal to its Quantitatively it
represents.
i) One atom of an element,
ii) The number of part by weight (Atomic weight) of an element.
iii) One-gram atom of an element.
For example, the symbol O represents
i) One atom of oxygen.
ii) 16 parts by weight of oxygen.
iii) One-gram atom of oxygen i.e., 16 grams
Guidelines to write the symbols
1. For some of the elements the first letter of its English name is used as symbol to represent
that element in short form. Only capital letters are used.
2. When the names of the two elements start with the same letter, the second letter or a
prominent letter is added to the first letter. When two letters are used the first letter is in
capital and the second letter is always a small one.
3. For some elements, the symbols are taken from their latin names.
Atomic number Name of the element Symbol
1 Hydrogen H
2 Helium He
3 Lithium Li
4 Beryllium Be
5 Boron B
6 Carbon C
7 Nitrogen N
8 Oxygen O
9 Fluorine F
10 Neon Ne
11 Sodium Na
12 Magnesium Mg
13 Aluminium Al
14 Silicon Si
15 Phosphorous P
16 Sulphur S
17 Chlorine Cl
18 Argon Ar
19 Potassium K
20 Calcium Ca
21 Scandium Sc
22 Titanium Ti
23 Vanadium V
24 Chromium Cr
25 Manganese Mn
26 Iron Fe
27 Cobalt Co
28 Nickel Ni
29 Copper Cu
30 Zinc Zn
31 Gallium Ga`
32 Germanium Ge
33 Arsenic As
34 Selenium Se
35 Bromine Br
36 Krypton Kr
37 Rubdium Rb
38 Strontium Sr
39 Yttrium Y
40 Zirconium Zr
The most influential scientist in the world of chemistry was John Jakob Berzilius. He, together
with John Dalton and Antoine Lavoisier, is considered a father of modern chemistry. He
developed the modern system of chemical rotation, elements were given simple written
notation-such as O for oxygen, or Fe for Iron-with proportions noted by numbers. Berzilius is
also credited with identifying the chemical elements silicon, selenium, thorium and cerium.
WORKSHEERT-1
1. A short form representation of an elements is:
1) Valency 2) Symbol 3) Formulae 4) Ion
2. The symbol quantitatively represents:
1) One atom of element
2) The number of parts by weight (atomic weight) of an element.
3) One gram atom of an element
4) All the above
3. ‘Yttrium’ symbol is:
1) A 2) B 3) Y 4) C
4. Symbol for gold and mercury respectively are:
1) Au, Hg 2) Go, Me 3) G, M 4) Ge, Mo
5. The valency of lightest metal (Li) is:
1) One 2) Two 3) Zero 4) All
6. ‘O’ stands for the symbol of:
1) Osmium 2) Oxygen 3) Aluminium 4) Aurum
7. Symbol of curium is
1) Cm 2) Cu 3) Cr 4) Ci
8. One gram atom of oxygen is
1) 8 2) 16 3) 32 4) 64
9. The symbol of ‘Sodium’
1) S 2) Na 3) So 4) Nt
10. Symbol of Argon
1) Ar 2) Au 3) N 4) O
11. A symbol represents one atom of an.
1) Molecule 2) Atom 3) Compound 4) Element
12. “Kr: is symbol of ...........
1) Potassium 2) Krypton 3) Calcium 4) Carbon
13. Atomic number of ‘Rubidium’..
1) 32 2) 27 3) 37 4) 36
14. Symbol for gold and platinum respectively are:
1) Au, Hg 2) Go, Me 3) Au, At 4) Au, Pt
15. “Se” stands for.......
1) Sulphur 2) Stronium 3) Selenium 4) Scandium
16. Atomic number of oxygen is...
1) 10 2) 8 3) 9 4) 5
JEE MAINS
Single correct choice type:
1. The scientist who suggested a method of representing elements using the English letters
(Capital as well as small) is:
1) Lavoisier 2) J. J. Berzelius 3) Robert Boyle 4) Rutherford
2. The symbol for the element:
1) As 2) At 3) Ai 4) An
3. Symbol ‘S’ stands for the element:
1) Strontium 2) Silicon 3) Sulphur 4) Selenium
4. The symbols for the elements selenium and silicon respectively are:
1) Si and Se 2) S and Si 3) Se and Si 4) S and SI
5. The Latin names for the elements ‘Copper” and ‘Silver” are respectively
1) Cuprum, Argentum 2) Argentum, Cuprum
3) Cuprum, Sulphur 4) Calcium, Sodium
6. The symbol for Germenium is
1) Ga 2) Ge 3) Zn 4) Dy
7. Latin name of “Sodium” .........
1) Natrium 2) Wolfram 3) Kalium 4) Stansium
8. Latin name of “Potassium”
1) Krypton 2) Kalium 3) Phosphorous 4) Sodium
LEVEL - 2
9. The symbol for Nobelium is:
1) N 2) Na 3) No 4) Ni
10. The symbol for Aluminium is:
1) At 2) Am 3) Al 4) As
11. A symbol represents the mass of ………….
1) compound 2) Molecule 3) Element 4) Atom
12. Symbol for Nickel
1) Ni 2) N 3) Nb 4) Mo
13. ‘La’ is symbol for ……………….
1) Lutetium 2) Lanthanum 3) Indium 4) Lawrensium
14. When the names of the two elements start with same letter, the second letter is added to
the ……………..
1) 3rd letter
2) 2nd letter
3) 1st letter
4) 4th letter
15. The symbol for Fluorine is:
1) F 2) Fe 3) Fr 4) Fi
16. Which of the following is correct for ‘O’ element?
1) The symbol ‘O’ represents 8 parts by weight
2) It represents one atom of carbon
3) One gram atom of oxygen is 16 grams.
4) The atomic number of oxygen is 16.
17. The symbol of an element is Hg. Identify the name of the element.
1) Gold 2) Mercury 3) Hafnium 4) Holmium
18. Identify the correct statement /s:
1) A symbol is defined as an abbreviation or shorthand sign for the full name of an element.
2) the method of naming the substance is called chemical nomenclature.
3) The representation of the substance with the help of symbol is called chemical notation.
4) All the above
19. The element named after the scientist name?
1) Nobelium 2) Calcium 3) Yttrium 4) Oxygen
20. Symbol “Pr” stands for ……………..
1) Praseodynium 2) Platinum 3) Potassium 4) Plumbum
21. When two letters are used the first letter is in capital and the second is always a ……………
1) small ones 2) bigger ones 3) medium ones 4) none of these
22. The atomic number of the element is 47. The name and symbol of the element is:
1) Cadmium, Cd 2) Argon, Ar 3) Silver, Ag 4) Iron, Fe
23. The atomic number of the element is 34. The name and symbol of the element is
1) Sulphur, S 2) Scandium, Sc 3) Selinium, Se 4) Calcium, Ca
24. For some elements the symbols are taken from their ………….
1) French names 2) Latin names 3) Indian names 4) None of these
JEE ADVANCED
LEVEL – 1
Multi Correct Choice Type:
25. Identify the correct statements.
1) The symbol for an element represents the element either in pure state or in combined state.
2) A symbol represents one atom of that element.
3) An atom is the smallest particle of an element.
4) None are correct
26. The elements named after the name of the countries are
1) Californium 2) Ruthenium 3) Amercium 4) Selenium
27. Which symbol is correct for cerium?
1) Ca 2) Cr 3) Cu 4) Ce
28. The element Mendeleevium named after the name of the scientist is
1) Alfred Nobel 2) Mendeleev 3) Madam Curie 4) Enrico fermi
Statement Type:
29. Statement I: Symbol of cobalt is Co but not CO, CO represents a molecule of carbon
monoxide.
Statement II: The first letter of the symbol is always capital while the second one is always small
for certain elements symbols.
1. Both statements I and II are correct
2. Both statement I and II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
Comprehension Type:
A symbol represents short form of an element. The scientist J.J.Berzelius suggested a method of
representing elements using the english letters.
A symbol represents a specific element and one atom of an element.
30. Identify the correct symbols for the following elements.
A) Chromium
B) Germanium
C) Cobalt
D) Molybdenum
A B C D
1) C Ge CO Mb
2) Cr Co Ge Mo
3) Co Ge Cl Mo
4) Cr Ge Co Mo
31. The correct symbols for the elements Beryllium, Strontium, Zinc and Manganese are:
Beryllium Strontium Zinc Manganese
1. Be Sr Zc Mg
2. Be Sr Zi Mn
3. Be Sr Zn Mn
4. Br St Zn Mn
32. The symbol for Zirconium is:
1) Zn 2) Zr 3) Sr 4) Ar
Elements Symbols
a) Rubidium 1) Pd
b) Palladium 2) Ra
c) Molybdenum 3) Rb
d) Radium 4) Mo
a) Gold 1) Au
b) Osmium 2) Te
c) Tellurium 3) nd
d) Neodynium 4) Os
5) Nd
Integer Answer type
35. Atomic no. of fluorine
Multi correct choice type:
36. Which one of the following is correct statement?
1) The symbol for Rhodium is RH.
2) The atomic number of chlorine is 17.
3) The symbol for krypton is kr.
4) The symbol for Boron is B.
37. Which of the following is correct for “Xenon”......
1) The Symbol is “Xe” 2) Atomic No is ‘54’
3) Atomic no is 45 4) The symbol is “Ge”
Statement Type:
38. Statement I: For some elements, the first letter of its English name is used as symbol to
represent that element in short form in capital letter as symbol.
Statement II: When teo letters are used, the first letter letter is in capital form and the second
letter is always a small one.
1) Both statement I and II are correct.
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
Comprehension type:
39. A student has written the following symbols:
Symbol-1 : NA
Symbol-2 : K
Symbol-3 : Fe
Symbol-4 : Ag
Symbol-5 : Hg
Identify the correct option/s:
1) Symbol-1 is correct
2) Symbol -2 and 3 are incorrect
3) Symbol-2 and 4 are incorrect.
4) Symbol-2,3,4 and 5 are correct.
40. Identify the symbols for the following element.
i) Curium ii) Einsterinium iii) Fermium
(i) (ii) (iii)
1) Js Nh I
2) Cm Es Fm
3) Mh Lg Cs
4) Mg Xh Ws
41. Give Symbol for the following elements.
A) Berkelium B) Californium C) Polonium D) American
Matrix Match Type:
42. Column -I Column-II
Element Symbols
a) Sodium 1) Cu
b) Copper 2) Fe
c) Potassium 3) Na
d) Iron 4) K
5) P
43. Column-I Column-II
Names Atomic No
a) Magnesium 1) 17
b) Chlorine 2) 12
c) Silicon 3) 14
d) Neon 4) 11
5) 10
Integer Answer Type:
44. Sum of digits of atomic Number of scandium.
Single Correct Choice Type:
45. Which the following is correct?
1) Rubidium -Rb
2) Bromine -Bo
3) Silver -S
4) Tin -Ti
Statement Type
Statement I: The symbol for Potassium is K:
Statement II: The symbol for Yttrium is Y:
1) Both statements I and II are correct.
4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
47. A student has written the following symbols:
1) Symbol-1 : MN
2) Symbol-2 : Ca
3) Symbol-3 : PB
4) Symbol-4 : Cr
5) Symbol-5 : AL
Identify the correct option/s:
2) Symbol-2 and 3 are incorrect
3) Symbol-2 and 4 are correct
48. Identify the symbol for the following elements.
A) Terbium B) Antimony C) Barium D) Holmium
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1) Ho Ba Sb Tb
2) Tb Sb Ba Ho
3) Ba Sb Ho Tb
4) Tb Ho Ba Sb
Comprehension Type:
A student has written the following symbols:
Symbols-1 : Mg
Symbols-2 : Fe
Symbols-3 : Ag
Symbols-4 : Au
Symbols-5 : HG
50. Identify the correct option/s:
1) Symbol-1 is correct 2) Symbol-2 is correct
3) Symbol-1,2,3,4 are correct 4) Symbol-1,2,3,4,5 are correct
51. Identify the symbols for the following elements
1) i) Aurum ii) Ferrum iii) Magnesium
Mg Xh Ws
Au Fe Mg
Ag Mg Hg
52. Identify the symbols of silver
1) Hg 2) Ag 3) Au 4) None
Matrix Match Type:
53. Col-I Col-II
At. No. Symbol
a) 101 1) Rf
b) 102 2) Md
c) 103 3) Lr
d) 104 4) Bh
54. Col-I Col-II
Element Symbols
a) Aluminium 1) Al
b) Neon 2) Ne
c) Zinc 3) Zn
d) Selenium 4) Se
5) So
55. Sum of digits of Atomic number of Aluminium
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6
Worksheet-1 key
CUQ:
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 1 5) 1 6) 2 7) 1
8) 2 9) 2 10) 1 11) 4 12) 2 13) 3 14) 4
15) 3 16) 2
Mains and advanced:
1) 2 2) 2 3) 3 4) 3 5) 1 6) 2 7) 1
8) 2 9) 3 10) 3 11) 3 12) 1 13) 2 14) 3
15) 1 16) 3 17) 2 18) 4 19) 1
20) 1 21) 1 22) 3 23) 3 24) 2 25) 1,2,3
26) 1,2,3 27) 4 28) 2 29) 1 30) 4 31) 3 32) 2
33) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 34) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-5 35) 9 36) 2,3,4 37) 1,2
38) 1 39)4 40) 2 41) 3 42) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
43) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-5 44) 3 45) 1 46) 1 47) 3 48) 4
49) 2 50) 3 51) 2 52) 2 53) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
54) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 55) 2
Synopsis -2
Symbols for elements:
Elements are represented by symbols. Symbols are used for conveniences and for easy learning.
Short hand notation of an element is called symbol.
Symbols of elements with single letter:

first letter (in capital) only used.
Element symbols
Hydrogen H
Oxygen O
Nitrogen N
Carbon C
Fluorine F
Sulphur S
Phosphorus P
Iodine I
Symbols of elements with two letter:

First letter is capital and second letter is always small.
Symbols of elements are derived from their latin names
Element Symbol
Aluminium Al
Bromine Br
Calcium Ca
Chlorine Cl
Barium Ba
Helium He
Magnesium Mg
Manganese Mn
Nickel Ni
Platinum Pt
Silicon Si
Zinc Zn
Some elements are named after the scientist
Element Scientist name Symbol
Curium Madam Curie Cm
Einsteinium Albert Einstein Es
Fermium Enrico Fermi Fm
Nobelium Alfred Nobel No
Mendelevium Mendeleev Md
Bohrium Neils Bohr Bh
Rutherford Rutherford Rf
Some elements are named after the countries and laboratories

Element Country and labortaory Symbol
Berkelium City of Berkely Bk
Californium University of California Cf
Polonium Poland Po
Americium America Am
Ruthenium Russia Md
Germanium Germany Ge
Some elements are named after the Planets

Element Name of the Planet Symbol
Uranium Uranus U
Neptunium Neptune Np
Plutonium Pluto Pu
Objective question:
1. The process by which a solid changes to liquid by absorbing heat, is called.
1) Boiling 2) Vapourisation 3) Melting 4) Heating
2. The solid state, formed from the gaseous state on cooling is called.
1) Sublimate 2) Filtrate 3) Sediment 4) Sublime
3. Which of the following is an element?
1) Sodium chloride 2) Carbondioxide 3) Oxygen 4) All of these
4. The symbol for Flourine is:
1) H 2) O 3) S 4) F
5. The symbol for chlorine is:
1) Br 2) Al 3) Cl 4) Ca
6. The latin name for Tungsten is:
1) Calcium 2) Ferrum 3) Stibium 4) Wolfram
7. Name the element which is named after the name of the planet is:
1) Berkelium 2) Madam curie 3) Hydragyrum 4) Uranium
8. Which of the following is a pure substance?
1) Milk 2) Honey 3) Cheese 4) Iron
9. If we divide a pure substance, then ultimately there can be a small cluster which can exist
independently and yet retain all the properties of the chemical substance is called.
1)An atom 2) A molecule 3) An element 4) None of these
10. A solid change to liquid by absorbing heat is
1) Boiling 2) Vapourisation 3) Evaporation 4) Melting
11. Matter changes from one state to another state by changing
1) Temperature 2) Pressure 3) Volume 4) Both 1 and 2
12. Symbol of Neptunim is _______
1) Np 2) Ne 3) No 4) N2
13. Latin name of Iron is ______
1) Ferrous 2) Ferric 3) Ferrum 4) Ferrome
14. Latin name of potassium sis _______
1) Natrium 2) Argentum 3) Kalium 4) Aurum
15.The process in which a gas is converted to a liquid by giving out heat is:
1) Liquefaction 2) Condensation 3) Boiling 4) Both 1 and 2
16.The process, by which a liquid gets converted to a solid known as:
1) Solidifacation 2) Freezing 3) Boiling 4) Both 1 and 2
17. Symbol of Ruthenium is ________
1) Re 2) Ru 3) Rm 4) Rt
18. Berkelium named after country _______
1) City of Berkely 2) Poland 3) Russia 4) Germany
19.Which one of the following are inter convertible?
1) Matter 2) Energy 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
20. The temperature at which a gas is covered to a liquid is known as
1)Condensation point 2) Freezing point 3) Melting point 4) Boiling point
21. The temperature at which a liquid changes to a solid is known as
1) Condensation point 2) Freezing point 3) Melting point 4) Boiling point
22. Statement I: The substance containing particles of only one kind are called “pure
substances”.
Statement II: An element cannot be broken down into simple substance, by any Physical or
chemical means.
4) Statement I Is incorrect and statement II is correct.
23. Matrix Match Type:
Column-I Column – II
a) Pure substances 1) Element
b) Platinum 2) Ag
c) Sliver 3) Iron, silver, oxygen, etc.,
d) Calcium 4) Ca
e) Pt
24. Statement Type:
Statement I: The gaseous from of solid is called sublime.
Statement II: The solid state formed from the gaseous state on cooling is called sublimate.
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
25. Statement I: Ammonium chloride on heating directly change to gaseous state.
Statement II: Some solids on heating, directly change into gaseous state, without changing
into liquid state in Sublimation process.
2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
Column – I Column- II
Element Symbol
a) Hydrogen 1) Al
b) Aluminium 2) Ca
c) Calcium 3) F
d) Fluorine 4) H
e) He
27. Column-I Column – II
Element Country and Laboratory
a) Californium 1) Germany
b) Polonium 2) Russia
c) Americium 3) University of California
d) Ruthenium 4) Poland
e) America
Column I Column –II
Elements Symbols
a) Beryllium 1) Li
b) Argon 2) F
c) Lithium 3) P
d) Fluorine 4) Ar
e) Be
29.MATCH:
Column – I Column – II
a) Mercury 1) Ferrum
b) Lead 2) Aurum
c) Tin 3) Plumbum
d) Iron 4) Hydrargyrum
e) Stannum
1.3 2.1 3.3 4.4 5.3 6.4 7.4 8.4 9.3 10.4
11.4 12.1 13.3 14.3 15.4 16.4 17.2 18.1 19.3 20.1
21.2 22.1 23.a- 24.1 25.1 26) a-4,b- 27.a- 28.a- 29.a-4,b-
1,2,3,4,5;b- 1,c-2,d-3 3,b- 5,b- 3,c-5,d-3
1,5;c-1,2;d- 4,c- 4,c-
1,4 5,d-2 1,d-2
Synopsis-3
VALENCY
Definition:
The combining capacity of an element is called its valency.
Significance of valency:
It is given by the number of hydrogen (or chlorine) atoms that combine with or displaced
from a compound by one atom of the element.
Name of the cation Symbol of the cation Charge

Hydrogen H+ +1
Lithium Li+ +1
Sodium Na+ +1
Potassium K+ +1
Rubidium Rb+ +1
Radical: Atom or group of atoms with charge is known as radical or ion.

Beryllium Be2+ +2
Magnesium Mg 2+ +2
Calcium Ca2+ +2
Strontium Sr 2+ +2
Barium Ba2+ +2
Radium Ra2+ +2
Worksheet-3
1.The combining capacity of an element is called:
1) Symbol 2) Valency 3) Formula 4) Atomicity
2. Mercury is:
1) Liquid metal 2) Solid 3) Gas 4) All of these
3. The valency of (Ag + ) is:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
4. The valency of potassium (K) is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
5. The valency of cuprous (or) copper (I) is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
6. The valency of strontium (Sr +2 ) is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
7. The valency of Chromium (Cr +2 ) is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
8. The valency of stannous (or) Tin(II) is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
9. The valency of platinum (or) Platinic (IV) is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
10. The valency of Arsenic (V) or AS +5 is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 5
JEE MAINS
1. Single Correct Choice Type:
1. The valency of inert gas is:
1) Zero 2) One 3) Three 4) Two
2. The number of electrons, lost, gained or shared with one atom of the element in order to
acquire stable configuration of nearest noble gas element is called:
1) Valency 2) Atomicity 3) Molecularity 4) None of these
3. An atom (or) a group of atoms which can exist independently with charge(s) is called:
1) Ion 2) Molecule 3) Compound 4) Substance
4. Radicals are formed by the loss of electron, such radicals are called......
1) Anions 2) Cations 3) Compounds 4) Molecules
5. One atom of nitrogen combines with three atoms of hydrogen to form--------
1) NH4 2) NO2 3) NH3 4) CO2
6. The valency of Gold (or) Au(I) is.......
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
7. Magnesium ion is........
1) Monovalent2) Bivalent 3) Trivalent 4) Tetravalent
8. The valency of Ca is.........
1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1
9. Radicals are formed by the gain of electrons, such radicals are called.
10. The valency Al is:
1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 0
11. The valency of cobaltous
1) Co(II) 2) Co(I) 3) Co(III) 4) B+3
12. Cadmium ion is..........
1) Monovalent 2) Bivalent 3) Trivalent 4) Tetravalent
13. Nickel ion is.......
14. Plumbous (or) Lead (II) is_____
15. The valency of Zn is:
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
16. The valency of N is:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
17. The symbol used for representation of Ferric ion is______
1) Fe+2 2) Fe+ 3) Fe+3 4) Fe+4
18. The symbol used for representation of Rubidium ion is______
1) Rb+2 2) Cd+2 3) Rb+ 4) NH4+
19. The symbol used for representation of Radium ion is________
1) Rb+2 2) Cd+2 3) Rb+ 4) NH4+
20. In methane, valency of carbon is_______
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
21. The valency of sodium is:
1) +2 2) +4 3) +3 4) +1
22. In c2 H4 the valency of carbon is________
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
23. What is the valency of Iron is FeCl2
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
24. What is the valency of copper in CuCl2
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
25. When one atom of Aluminium combines with three atoms of chlorine. The compound
formed here is_______
1) AlCl2 2) AlCl4 3) AlCl3 4) Al2 ((SO4 )3
26. One atom of Zn combines with one atom of oxygen to form
1) MgO 2) BeO 3) ZnO 4) CaO
27. In C2 H2 the valency of carbon is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
28. Calcium ion is:
1) Monovalent 2) Bivalent 3) Trivalent 4) Both 2 and 3
29. The chemical formula of methane is_____
1) C2 H6 2) CH2 3) C2 H2 4) C2 H4
30. Sulphate ion is______
31. Peroxide ion is______
JEE ADVANCED
32. Which of the following form monovalent ions?
1) Lithium 2) Sodium 3) Potassium 4) Barium
33. Which of the following form monovalent ions?
1) Beryllium 2) Magnesium 3) Calcium 4) Barium
34. Oxide ion is_______
Statement Type:
36. Statement I: Iron and chlorine Combine to form FeCl2 , FeCl3 .
Statement II: The valency of iron in this compounds are 2& 3
37. Statement I: Ammonium is a monovalent ion co5
Statement II: Carbonate is a divalent ion
1) Both statements I and II is correct.
Comprehension Type:
The combining capacity of an element is called its valency. It is given by the
Number of hydrogen or chlorine atoms that combine with or displaced from a
Compound by one atom of the element.
38. The Valencies of N,C,H,S in NH3 ,CCl4 , HCl and H2 S are respectively
1) 4,3,2,1 2) 1,2,3,4 3) 3,4,1,2 4) 4,1,3,2
39. Identify divalent ion from the following.
A) Beryllium B) Hydrogen C) Sodium D) Chlorine
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only D
40. Which of the following statement is correct?
1) The combining capacity of an element is called its valency
2) The valency of sodium is 2
3) Oxygen Valency and charge is +2 4) None
Matrix Match Type:
a) Na 1) bivalent
b) Mg 2) Penta and trivalent
c) Ca 3) Trivalent
d) Al 4) Monovalent
5) Hexavalent
42. The Valency of Sulphur in SF6 is_______.
43. In which of the following compounds valency of metal is 2?
1) FeCl2 2) FeCl3 3) CaO 4) NaCl
44. Which of the following elements are belong to Zero group elements?
1) Beryllium 2) Strontium 3) Radium 4) Barium
Statement Type:
46. Statement I: In Methane the valency of carbon is 4.
Statement II: In Carbond dioxide the valency carbon is 1.
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is correct.
47. Statement I: The valency of Antimonous is +3
Statement II: The valency of chromium is +3
48. Statement I: Potassium exhibit +2 is the valency
Statement II: Magnesium exhibit +3 is the valency
Matrix Match Type:
a) Monovalent positive ion 1) Ca+2 ,Mg +2
b) Bivalent positive ion 2) K + , H +
c) Trivalent positive ion 3) H2 O, NH3
d) Neutral molecule 4) Fe+3, Al+3
5) Pb+4
a) Calcium 1) Monovalent electro positive ion
b) Aluminium 2) Bivalent electro negative ion
c) Oxygen 3) Bivalent electro positive ion
d) Rubidium 4) Trivalent electro positive ion
5) Pentavelent electro positive ion
Name of the cation Symbol of the cation
a) Beryllium 1) Sr +2
b) Magnesium 2) Mg +2
c) Calcium 3) Be+2
d) Strontium 4) Ca+2
Name of the cation Symbol of the cation
a) Aluminium 1) Sr 2+
b) Cadimum 2) Zn+2
c) Zinc 3) Al+3
d) Strontium 4) Cd2+
5) Ni+2
Comprehension Type:
A group of atoms which retain its identity in series of chemical reactions is called
radical
53. i) Cations are called _______
ii) Anions are called ________
(i) (ii)
1) acidic radicals basic radicals
2) basic radicals acidic radicals
3) acidic acidic
4) basic basic
54. Potossium can exhibit:
1) Monovalent 2) Bivalent 3) Trivalent 4) Both 1 and 3
55. Which of the following exhibit +2 valency?
1) Na 2) Mg 3) Al 4) H
Worksheet-3 key
CUQ:
1) 2 2) 1 3) 1 4) 1 5) 1 6) 2 7) 2
8) 2 9) 4 10) 4
Mains and advanced:
1) 1 2) 1 3) 1 4) 2 5) 3 6) 1 7) 2
8) 2 9) 1 10) 1 11) 3 12) 2 13) 2 14) 2
15) 3 16) 3 17) 3 18) 3 19) 3 20) 4 21) 4
22) 2 23) 2 24) 4 25) 3 26) 3 27) 4 28) 2
29) 2 30) 2 31) 2 32) 1,2,3 33) 1,2,3,4, 34) 2
35) 1,2,3 36) 1 37) 1 38) 3 39) 1 40) 1
41)a-4, b-1, c-1, d-3 42) 6 43) 1,3 44) 1,2,3,4 45) 1,2,3,4 46) 3
47) 1 48) 3 47) 1 48) 3 49) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
50) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 51) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 52) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-5
53) 2 54) 1 55) 2

Synopsis-4
Concept of variable valency:

 When an element exhibits more than one valency, it is said to exhibit variable valency.
 The reason for variable valency in certain metals is that, depending upon the
experimental conditions, an atom of the metal loses more electrons that are present in
its outermost shell (valence shell), i.e., it loses some electrons from the shell next to
outermost shell. Thus, it exhibits variable valency.
How to name an element with variable valency?
 If an element exhibits two different positive valencies, then suffix- ous is attached at the
end of the name of the metal for lower valency and suffix- ic is attached at the end of the
name of the metal for higher valency.
Some examples:
Metal Name and lower Name and higher valency
valency
Iron(Ferrum) Ferrous Fe2+ or Fe (II) Ferrous Fe3+ or Fe (III)
Copper(Cuprum) Cuprous Cu+ or Cu (I) Cuprous Cu2+ or Cu (II)
Silver(Argentum) Argentous Ag + or Ag(I) Argentous Ag 2+ or Ag(II)
Mercury Mercurous Hg + or Hg(I) Mercurous Hg 2+ or Hg(II)
Types of ions:
Ions are two types depending upon the nature of the charge carried by them. They are Electro
positive ions or cations and Electronegative ions or anion.
Electro positive ions:
The ion having positive charge on it is known as electropositive and it is also known as cations.
EX: Ca2+ , K + , Na+
Monovalent electropositive ions:
Name of cation Symbol of the cation Charge
Copper Cu+ Cuprous or Copper(I) +1
Silver Ag+ +1
Gold Au+ Aurous or gold (I) +1
Mercury Hg +1 Mercurous or Mercury(I) +1
Ammonium NH4+ +1
Phosphonium PH𝟒+ +1
Divalent electropositive ions:

Copper Cu2+ Cupric or copper (II) +2
Mercury Hg 2+ Mercuric of Mercury (II) +2
Iron Fe2+ Ferrous or Iron (II) +2
Chromium Cr 2+ Chromous +2
Cobalt Co2+ cobaltous of Cobalt (II) +2
Nickel Ni2+ +2
Manganese Mn2+ Manganous or Manganese +2
(II)
Cadmium Cd2+ +2
Zinc Zn2+ +2
Lead Pb2+ Plumbous or lead (II) +2
Tin Sn2+ Stannous or Tin (II) +2
Trivalent electropositive ions:
Iron Fe3+ F rric or Iron (III) +3
Manganese Mn3+ Manganic or Manganese +3
Aluminium Al3+ +3
Gold Au3+ Auric or gold(III) +3
Antimony Sb3+ Antimonous or +3
Antimony(III)
Arsenic As 3+ Arsenous or Arsenic (III) +3
Chromium Cr 3+ +3
Cobalt Co3+ Cobaltic or Cobalt (III) +3
Boron B3+ +3
1. The valency of inert gas is:
1) Zero 2) One 3) Three 4) Two
2. The number of electrons, lost, gained or shared with one atom of the element in order to
acquire stable configuration of nearest noble gas element is called:
1) Valency 2) Atomicity 3) Molecularity 4) None of these
3. An atom (or) a group of atoms which can exist independently with charge (s) is called:
1) Ion 2) Molecule 3) Compound 4) Substance
4. Radicals are formed by the loss of electron, such radicals are called ___
5. One atom of Nitrogen combines with three atoms of hydrogen to form ____
1) NH4 2) NO2 3) NH3 4) CO2
6. The valency of Gold (or) Au (I) is ____
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
7. Magnesium ion is _____
8. The valency of Ca is ____
1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1
9. Radicals are formed by the gain of electrons, such radicals are called:
10. The valency Al is:
1) 3 2) 2 3)1 4) 0
11. The valency of cobaltous
1) CO(II) 2) CO(I) 3) CO(III) 4) B+3
12. Cadmium ion is ______
13. Nickel ion is ______
14. Plumbous (or) Lead (II) is ____
15. The valency of Zn is:
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
16. The valency of N is:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
17. The symbol used for representation of Ferric ion is ____
1) Fe+2 2) Fe+ 3) Fe+3 4) Fe+4
18. Sn+4 is
19. The charge of Manganous cation is:
1) +1 2) +2 3) +3 4) +
20. The symbol of ammonium ion is:
1) NH3+ 2) NH4+ 3) NH5+ 4) NH3+
21. Water molecule is
1) Basic radicals 2) Acidic radicals 3) Neutral 4) all
22. Ferrous ion is:
23. Plumbic ion is:
24. Aluminium ions is:
1) Tetravalent 2) Bivalent 3) Trivalent 4) Monovalent
25. Zinc ion is:
1) Tetravalent 2) Trivalent 3) Monovalent 4) Bivalent
26. Stannous ion is:
1) Sn+2 2) Sn+1 3) Sn+3 4) Sn+4
27. Which of the following are monovalent electropositive ions?
1) Sodium 2) Potassium 3) Barium 4) All the above
28. Which or the following are divalent electropositive ions?
1) Magnesium 2) Zinc 3) Barium 4) All the above
29. Lower valency ends with suffix ____
1) Ous 2) ie 3) ide 4) ate
30. Higher valency ends with suffix ____
1) Ous 2) ie 3) ide 4) ate
31. If an element exhibits two different positive valencies, therefore it is called as _____
1) Compound 2) Molecule 3) Variable valenecy 4) Atom
32. An atom of the _____ loses electrons that are present in its outermost shell
1) Non metal 2) Metalloids 3) Metal 4) Carbon
Answers:
1. 1 2.1 3.1 4.2 5.3 6.1 7.2 8.2 9.1 10.3
11.3 12.2 13.2 14.2 15.2 16.3 17.3 18.3 19.2 20.2
21.3 22.2 23.4 24.3 25.4 26.1 27.4 28.4 29.1 30.2
31.3 32.3
Synopsis -5
ELECTRONEGATIVE IONS
The ion having a negative charge on it is known as electro negative and also known as
anion.
EX: Cl− ,O2− , SO2−
4
Monovalent electronegative ions
Name of the anion Symbol Charge

Acetate CH3 COO− or C2 H3 O2− -1
Formate HCOO− or CHO−
2 -1
Bicarbonate or HCO−
3 -1
Hydrogen Carbonate
Bisulphate HSO−
4 -1
Bisulphite or HCO−
3 -1
Hydrogen Sulphite
Hydrogen Sulphide or HS- -1
Bisulphide
Fluoride F- -1
Chloride Cl- -1
Bromide Br − -1
Iodide I- -1
Hypochlorite ClO- -1
Iodate IO3− -1
Nitrite NO−
2 -1
Nitrate NO−
3 -1
Cyanide CN − -1
Permanganate MnO−
4 -1
Hydride H− -1
Hydroxide OH − -1
Superoxide O−
2 -1
Divalent electronegative ions
Carbonate CO2−
3 -2
Chromate CrO2−
4 -2
Dichromate Cr2 O2−
7 -2
Manganate MnO2−
4 -2
Sulphide S 2− -2
Sulphite SO2−
3 -2
Sulphate SO2−
4 -2
Oxide O2− -2
Peroxide O2−
2 -2
Trivalent electronegative ions

Trivalent AlO3−
3 -3
Aluminate
Boride B3− -3
Borate BO3−
3 -3
Nitride N3− -3
Phosphide P 3− -3
Phosphide PO3−
3 -3
Phosphate PO3−
4 -3
Tetravalent electronegative ions
Name of anion Symbol Charge
Carbide C4− -4
WORKSHEET-5
1. The ions with negative charge are called:
1) Anions 2) Electronegative ions 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Cations
2. The charge of superoxide is:
1) -1 2) -2 3) -3 4) 0
3. The charge of boride is:
1) -1 2) -2 3) -3 4) 0
4. The charge of chromate and dichromate is:
1) -2, -2 2) -1, -1 3) -3, -3 4) 0, 0
5. The charge of carbide is:
1) -4 2) 4 3) -2 4)
6. The charge of hypochlorite ion is:
1) -1 2) -2 3) -3 4) -4
7. S −2 is:
1) Sulphate 2) Sulphide 3) Sulphite 4) Sulphurous
8. PO3−
4 is:
1) Phosphide 2) Phosphite 3) Phosphate 4) All the above

9. C4− is:
1) Chloride 2) Chlorate 3) Chlorite 4) Carbide
10. The symbol of fluoride is
1) I − 2) F − 3) Cl− 4) Br −
11. Charge of I −
1) -2 2) -3 3) -1 4) 0
12. Charge of cyanide
1) -1 2) -3 3) -2 4) -4
13. Identify the hydride Ion is
1) H2 2) H + 3) H − 4) H2+
14. Identify the Hydroxide Ion is
1) OH −2 2) OH − 3) O−
2 4) H2 O+
15. Charge of formate ion is
1) -2 2) -3 3) -1 4) -4
16. Symbol of formate ion is
1) HCOOH 2) HCOO− 3) HCOO+ 4) HCOO−2
17. Charge of Bromide Ion is
1) -1 2) -3 3) 2 4) 0
18. The symbol of Bromide Ion is
1) Br −2 2) Br + 3) Br − 4) Br2
19. The symbol of cyanide ion is
1) HCOOH 2) HCOO− 3) CN− 4) CN+
20. The charge of Bisulphide is
1) HS − 2) HS −2 3) H2 S 4) S −2
JEE MAINS
1. Identify Phosphide Ion:
1) PO−3
4 2) P 4− 3) P 3− 4) PO4−
3
2. Super oxide ion is:

1) O2−
2 2) O−2 3) O−
2 4) O2
3. Choose the trivalent anions from the following:
i) Aluminate ii) Dichromate iii) Bromide iv) Boride
1) i, ii, iii 2) (i), (iv) 3) I, iiii 4) I, ii, iii, iv
4. Cyanide ion is represented as:
1) CN− 2) SNC− 3) SN− 4) None
5. The charge of Hypobromide ion is
1) 2 2) -2 3) -1 4) 1
6. The charge of Perchlorate ion is
1) 2 2) -1 3) 1 4) -2
7. The charge of Bisulphide
1) -1 2) 1 3) 2 4) -2
8. IO−
3 is
1) Iodide 2) Iodate 3) Iodine 4) Iodite

9. Cl− is
1) Bromide 2) Chloride 3) Fluride 4) Hydride
10. The charge of Nitrite is
1) -1 2) -2 3) 2 4) 1
11. The charge of H2 PO−
4 is
1) +1 2) +2 3) -2 4) -1
12. Permangnate Ion is
1) Mn2 O−2
4 2) MnO−
4 3) Mn2 O−3
4 4) Mn2 O−
4
13. Cynate is
1) CNO 2) CNO− 3) CNO+2 4) CNO−2
14. SO−2
3 is
1) Sulphate 2) Sulphide 3) Sulphite 4) Sulphonate

15. S2 O−2
3 is
1) Perdi sulphite 2) Thiosulphide 3) Sulphite 4) Sulphate

16. Carbonate and bicarbonate ions are respectively:
1) CO3− −
2 and HCO2 2) HCO− 3−
2 and CO2
3) HCO− 2−
3 and CO3 4) CO2− −
3 and HCO3
17. Which of the following is hydroxide ions?

1) H + 2) OH − 3) OH + 4) H −
18. The charge of SCN is
1) 1 2) -1 3) 2 4) 2
19. The charge of C2 O2−
4 is
1) -2 2) -3 3) 2 4) +3
20. SnO−2
2 is
1) Stannate 2) Stannum 3) Stannite 4) Stanicate

21. SnO2−
3 is
1) Silicate 2) Silicate 3) Silicete 4) Silicon

22. B4 O7−2 is
1) Tetraborite 2) Tetraborate 3) Tetrabromite 4) Tetra bromine
23. The charge of PbO−2
2 is
1) 2 2) -2 3) +2 4) -1
24. SnO−2
3 is
1) Stannate 2) Stannite 3) Stannic oxide 4) Stannum

25.The charge of HPO−2
3 is
1) 1 2) -2 3) +2 4) -3
26. O2−2 is
1) Oxide 2) Peroxide 3) Superoxide 4) Oxygen
27. The chloride and nitrate ions are respectively
1) Cl− and NO−
3 2) Cl2− and NO−
4
3) Cl+ and NO−

3 4) Cl− and NO+
3
28. Sulphite and sulphate ions are respectively:

1) SO− −
3 and SO4 2) SO− −
4 and SO3
3) SO2− 2−
3 and SO4 4) SO2− 2−
4 and SO3
29. The charge of Arsenide

1) As +3 2) -3 3) +3 4) 2
30. The symbol of Arsenide
1) As +3 2) As −3 3) As−2 4) As+
31. The charge of Borate
1) 3 2) -3 3) +2 4) -2
32. The charge of Boride is
1) +3 2) -2 3) -3 4) +1
33. The charge of phosphate
1) 1 2) -3 3) +2 4) -2
34. The symbol of Nitride
1) N+3 2) N−3 3) N2+ 4) N−2
35. The charge of Aluminate
1) -3 2) +3 3) 2 4) -2
36. The charge of Arsenate
1) 3 2) -3 3) +2 4) -2
37. ASO−3
3 is
1) Arsenate 2) Arsenite 3) Arsenic 4) Arsenide

1) 3 2) -3 3) 2 4) +2
1) 1 2) 2 3) -3 4) +4
40. Ferricyanide is
1) [Fe(CN)6 ]−3 Iron (III) 2) ) [Fe(CN)6 ]−3 Iron (II)
3) ) [Fe(CN)6 ]−2 Iron (III) 4) ) [Fe(CN)6 ]− Iron (III)
41. The valency of PO−3
4 ion is:
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 0
42. Choose the correct order of formula for the given radicals:
a) Nitrite b) Nitride c) Nitrate
a b c
1) N3− NO−
3 NO−
2
2) NO−
2 NO−
3 N 3−
3) NO−
2 N3− NO−
3
4) N3− NO−
2 NO−
3
43. The charge of Pyroantimonate (Sb2 O−4

7 )
1) 4 2) -4 3) +2 4) +1
44. P2 O−4
7 is
1) Pyrophosphite 2) Pyrophosphate
3) Pyroxide 4) Pyrophosphinate
45. Ferrocyanide is
1) [Fe(CN)6 ]−4 Iron (I) 2) [Fe(CN)6 ]−4 Iron (II)
3) [Fe(CN)6 ]−4 Iron (IV) 4) [Fe(CN)6 ]−4 Iron (II)
Worksheet -5 key
CUQ:
1) 3 2) 1 3) 3 4) 1 5) 1 6) 1 7) 2
8) 3 9) 4 10) 2 11) 3 12) 1 13) 3 14) 2
15) 3 16) 2 17) 1 18) 3 19) 3 20) 1
Mains and advanced:
1) 3 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 5) 3 6) 2 7) 1
8) 2 9) 2 10) 1 11) 4 12) 2 13) 2 14) 3
15) 2 16) 4 17) 2 18) 2 19) 1 20) 3 21) 2
22) 2 23) 2 24) 1 25) 2 26) 2 27) 1 28) 3
29) 2 30) 2 31) 2 32) 3 33) 2 34) 2 35) 1
36) 2 37) 2 38) 2 39) 40) 1 41) 2 42) 3
44) 2 45) 2
Synopsis-6
FORMULA
Definition:
The representation of a molecule of a substance (element or compound) in terms of
symbols and subscript numbers is known as the formula.
Example: H2 is the formula of hydrogen.
HCl is the formula of hydrochloric acid.
Significance of a formula
 Like the symbols, a formula has also qualitative as well as quantitative significance.
Qualitative significance:
 Qualitatively, it represents:
 The number of the substance.
 The names of the various elements present in the substance.
Quantitative significance:
 Quantitatively, it represents:
 One molecule of the substance.
 The actual number of atoms of each element present in one molecule of the substance.
 The number of parts by weight of the substance (molecular weight).
 The number of parts by weight of each element.
For example: The formula of CaCO3 has two significances.
a) Qualitative significance: Qualitatively, it represents.
 Calcium carbonate.
 It contains calcium, carbon and Oxygen as the elements.
b) Quantitative significance: Quantitatively it represents.
 One molecule of calcium carbonate
 One molecule of calcium carbonate is made up of one atom of calcium, one atom of
carbon and three atoms of oxygens.
 One mole of calcium carbonate.
 100 parts by weight of calcium carbonate (atomic weights: Ca-40, C-12, O-16)
 40 parts by weight of calcium, 12 parts by weight of carbon and 48 parts by weight of
oxygen.
Method to write a formula from the knowledge of valency:
(CRISS- CROSS METHOD)
To write a formula, follow the steps given below. This method of writing formula is
called criss -cross method.
Step-1: Write the symbol of positive ion or the radical to the left and for the negative ion or
radical to the right.
Step-2: Put the valency number of each radical or the ion on its top right. Divide the valency
numbers by highest common factor, if any, to get simple ration. Now ignore the (+) and (-)
symbols. Interchange the valency numbers of radicals or ions.
Step-3 Shift the valency numbers to lower right side of radical or ion. If the radical receives a
number more than1, enclose it within brackets. Do not enclose ions within brackets.
Examples:
1.Write the formula of aluminium sulphate.
Step-1: Writing the symbols of ions. Al+3 SO−2
4
Step-2: Ignore the charges Al3 (SO4 )2

Step-3: Simple Ration Al3 (SO4 )2
Step-4 and 5: Criss – cross
3 2
Al (SO4 )
= Al2 (SO4 )3
 The formula is Al2 (SO4 )3

1.Formula of calcium chloride:
Step-1: Ca2 Cl1
Step-1: Ca Cl2
 The formula is CaCl2
3.Formula of sodium chloride:
Step-1: Na𝟏 Cl𝟏

Step-1: Na𝟏 Cl𝟏
 The formula of sodium chloride is NaCl
 Oil of Vitriol is H2 SO4
Objective question:
1.The formula of aluminium sulphate is:
1)Al(SO4 )3 2) Al2 (SO4 )3 3) Al3 (SO3 )3 4) Al2 S3
2.The chemical formula of Washing soda (sodium carbonate deca hydrate) is:
1)Na2 CO3 . 7H2 O 2) Na2 CO3 . H2 O 3) Na2 CO3 . 10H2 O 4) Na2 CO3
3.The molecular formula of glauber ’s salt is
1)MgSO4 .7H2 O 2) Na2 CO3 .10H2 O 3) FeSO4 .7H2 O 4) Na3 PO4 .10H2 O
4.The number of chlorine atoms present in calcium chloride:
1)1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
5.The formula for mercurous chloride is
1)HgCl2 2) Hg 2 Cl2 3) HgCl3 4) All the above
6.NaCl is:
1)Sodium chloride 2) Sodium hypochloride
3) Nitrogen chloride 4) None of the
7.𝐍𝐚𝟐 𝐂𝐎𝟑 represents:
1)One Molecule of sodium carbonate 2) Two atoms of sodium
3)106 rts by weight of sodium carbonate 4) All the above
8.The formula of Ammonium carbonate is
1)(NH4 )2 CO3 2) NH4 CO2 3) NH4 CO3 4) NH4 Cl
9.Oil of Vitriol is
1)HNO3 2) HCl 3) H2 sO4 4) CH3 COOH
10.Number of calcium atoms present in 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐎𝟑
1)2 2) 1 3) 3 4) 4
11.A formula has:
1)Qualitative significance only 2) Quantitative significance only
3)Both qualitative and quantitative significance 4) None of these
12.What is the formula of hydrochloric acid
1)HCl 2) H2 3) Cl2 4) H2 sO4
13.The symbolic representation of actual number of atoms in molecule is called:
1)Valency 2) Formula 3) Both 1 & 2 4) Ion
14.The chemical formula of water is:
1)H2 O2 2) H2 O 3) O2 4) H2
15.Chemical formula for calcium sulphate is Ca𝐒𝐎𝟒 . The formula for ferric sulphate will be:
1)Fe2 (P2 O7 )3 2) Fe4 P3O14 3) Fe2 (SO4 )3 4) Fe4 PO4
16.The chemical formula of plaster of paris is
1 .1
1)CaSO4 . 2H2 O 2) CaSO4 . 2 H2 O 3) CaSO4 .3H2 O 4) CaSO3 2 H2 O
17.The chemical formula of Gypsum is

1
1)CaSO4 . 2H2 O 2) MgSO4 .2H2 O 3) CaSO4 . 2 H2 O 4) MgSO4 .7H2 O
18.The chemical formula of Epsom’s salt is:

1) MgSO4 .10H2 O 2) MgSO4 .7H2 O 3) 2CaSO4 . H2 O 4) Na2 SO4 . 10H2 O
19.Which of the following is not the correct formula?
1)H2 S 2) NaHSO4 3) SiO2 4) NaCl2
20.Correct representation of Ferric Chloride
1)FeCl3 2) Fe3 Cl 3) FeCl2 4) Fe2 Cl
21.Chemical formula of smelling salt
1)NH4 Cl 2) CaCO3 3) (NH4 )2 CO3 4) Nacl
22.𝐍𝐚𝟑 𝐏𝐎𝟒 represents
1) One atom of ′P′ 2) 4 atoms of oxygen 3) 3 atoms of sodium 4) All of these
23.Sodium phosphate has the chemical formula
1)Na2 P2 O7 2) Na3 PO4 3) Na4 P2 O7 4) Na3 PO3
24.Correct Formula of a trivalent metal nitride is:
1)M3 N2 2) M3 N3 3) MN 4) Both 2 and
𝟐𝟓. 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐎𝟑 𝐪𝐮𝐚𝐧𝐭𝐢𝐭𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐲 𝐫𝐞𝐩𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐞𝐧𝐭𝐬
1)One molecule of calcium carbonate 2) One atom of calcium carbonate
3)40 arts by weight of CaO 4) All are correct
26.Chemical formula of sodium bi carbonate
1)Na2 CO3 2) NaHCO3 3) NaHCO2 4) Na(HCO3 )2
27.The molecular formula of Green vitriol
1)FeSO4 . 7H2 O 2) FeSO4 3) FeSO4 . 5H2 O 4) FeSO4 . H2 O
28.Chemical formula of Calcium bicarbonate
1)CaCO3 2) Ca(HCO3 )2 3) Ca2 CO3 4) Ca3 (CO3 )2
30.A metal M forms a compound 𝐌𝟐 𝐇𝐏𝐎𝟒 . What will be the formula of the metal sulphate?
1)M2 SO4 2) M2 (SO4 )3 3) MSO4 4) M(SO4 )3
31.Number of water molecules present in blue vitriol
1)5 2) 7 3) 2 4) 1
Answers:
1. 2 2. 3 3. 2 4. 2 5. 2 6. 1 7. 4 8. 1 9. 3 10. 2
11. 3 12. 1 13. 2 14. 2 15. 3 16. 2 17. 1 18. 2 19. 4 20. 1
21. 3 22. 4 23. 2 24. 3 25. 1 26. 2 27. 1 28. 2 29. 1 30. 1
Synopsis-7
Naming chemical compounds from their formula
Usually the elements present in a compound are named in order of symbols appearing in
formula. Following rules are applied in naming a compound.
Rule 1: if a compounds contains only two elements (binary compounds) such that one of them
is metal, the metal is named first. Non-metallic part is given a suffix ‘ide’ at the end.
Example
i) Compounds of sodium and chlorine is sodium chloride (Nacl)
ii) Compound of magnesium and nitrogen is magnesium nitride (Mg 3 N2 )
iii) Compound of aluminium and oxygen is aluminium oxide (Al2 O3 )
iv) Compound of calcium and sulphur is calcium sulphide
Rule 2: The compound containing two non-metals are named by using Greek prefix prefix like
mono, di, tri, tetra, penta, which denotes the number of atoms present in the compound.
Examples:
(i) Co stands for carbon monoxide.
(ii) CO2 stands for carbon dioxide.
(iii) NO2 stands for nitrogen dioxide.
(iv) PCl5 stands for phosphorous pentachloride.
(v) SO3 stands for sulphur trioxide.
Rule 3: compounds containing three elements (tertiary compounds), one of which oxygen, are
named with suffix-ate at the end, provided there is only one such compounds. If there are two
compounds, the one with more oxygen is named with suffixate ending end one with less
oxygen is named with-ite ending.
Example:
(i) (a) NaNO3 sodium nitrate (b) NaNO2 sodium nitrite
(iii) (a) CaSO4 calcium sulphate (d) CaSO3 calcium sulphite
Rule 4: If in a compound oxygen is less than the oxygen present in a compound ending with ite,
then it is given the prefix hypo-in the beginning and if oxygen present in a compound ending
with-ate is more, then it is given the prefix per-in the beginning.
Example:
(i) (a) NaNO3 sodium nitrate (b) NaNO2 sodium nitrite
(ii) (a) CaSO4 calcium sulphate (c) CaSO3 calcium sulphate
Rule 4: If in a compound oxygen is less than the oxygen present in a compound ending with ite,
then it is given the prefix hypo-in the beginning and if oxygen present in a compound ending
with-ate is more, then it is given the prefix per-in the beginning.
Example:
(i) “KClO is named potassium hypo-chlorite as it contains less oxygen than potassium chlorite
KClO2 .
(ii) KClO4 is named potassium per-chlorate as it contains more oxygen than potassium chlorate
(KClO3 ).
Cl− (Chloride), ClO− (Hypo chloride)
ClO2− (Chloride), ClO3− (Chloride), ClO4− (Per Chlorate).
Naming of Acids
(a) The names of binary acids (acids containing hydrogen and one more element) are given by
adding prefix hydro-and suffix-ic to the name of second element.
Examples:
(i) Acid of hydrogen and chloride is (HCl) hydrochloric acid,
(ii) Acid of hydrogen and fluorine is (HF) hydrofluoric acid.
(b) The names of acids containing radicals or polyatomic groups are given on the basis of
second element, but prefix hydro-is not used.
Example:
(i) H2 SO4 Sulphuric acid
(ii) H2 CO3 Carbonic acid
(iii) H2 SO3 Sulphurous acid [-ous is used because of less number of oxygen atoms.]
Naming of Bases
Bases containing-OH radical are named as hydroxides, after the name of metal
Example:
(i) NaOH Sodium hydroxide
(ii) NH4 OH Ammonium hydroxide.
Trivial names or common Names
There are certain names of compounds which do not follow any systematic rule. Such names
are called trivial names or common names. Chemists have not considered wise to replace these
names by systematic names as they are widely understood by the common man.
Example:
(i) Common name for nitrogen trihydride is ammonia [NH3 ]
(ii) Common name for sodium chloride is table salt [NaCl]
(iii) Common name for hydrogen hydride is water [H2 O]
WORKSHEET-7
1. In a binary compound, the non-metallic part is given a suffix at the end;
1) Ate 2) Ite 3) Ide 4) All of these
2. The chemical formula of potassium hypochloride is:
1) KClO 2) KClO2 3) KClO3 4) KClO4
3. The chemical formula of potassium per-chlorate is:
1) KClO 2) KClO2 3) KClO3 4) KClO4
4. The formula of carbon acid is:
1) H2 CO3 2) H2 SO3 3) HNO3 4) H2 SO4
5. Common name of hydrogen hydride is
1) water 2) Ammonia 3) Table salt 4) Hydrogen peroxide
6. H2 SO3 is:
1) Sulphuric acid 2) Dihydrogen sulphate
3) Hydrogen sulphide 4) Sulphurous acid
7. NaOH is:
1) Sodium oxide 2) Sodium hydride
3) Sodium hydroxide 4) Sodium peroxide
8. Phosphorous pentachloride is:
1) PCl5 2) PCl3 3) PCl 4) All the above
9. The suffix used for non-metal part in a compound is
1) ide 2) Ium 3) ate 4) None of these
10. Prefix tetra denotes number of atoms in the compound
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1
11. SO3 stands for
1) Sulphur dioxide 2) Sulphur trioxide
3) Sulphur oxide 4) Sulphur pentaoxide
JEE MAINS
1. The present in a compound are named in order of symbols appearing in formula.
1) Compounds 2) Elements 3) Mixtures 4) Both 1 and 3
2. In a binary compounds, metallic part is given a suffix as?
1) ate 2) ite 3) ide 4) None
3. In a binary compounds, metal ion is:
1) Named second 2) Cannot be named
3) Named first with the metal name 4) Both 1 and 2
4. What is the name of NaNo3 tertiary compound?
1) Sodium nitrite 2) Sodium nitride
3) Sodium nitrate 4) None
5. Chemical formula of sulphur hexafluoride
1) SF6 2) SF8 3) PCl5 4) PCl3
6. Compounds containing three elements are called
1) Tertiary compounds 2) Binary compounds
3) Quarternary compound 4) None of these
7. The compound with more oxygens is named with suffix
1) ite 2) ide 3) ate 4) ium
8. The compound with less oxygens is named with suffix
1) ite 2) ide 3) ium 4) ate
9. What is the prefix, if oxygen is less than the oxygen present in a compound?
1) Per 2) Hypo 3) Hyper 4) All
10. If oxygen present in a compound ending with-ate, contains more oxygen than is
1) Hypo 2) Hyper 3) Hyper
11. Chemical formula of hypophosphoric acid is
1) H4 P4 O4 2) H4 P2 O6 3) H4 P2 O7 4) H4 S2 O2
12. Acid of hydrogen and chlorine is called
1) Hydrogen chloride 2) Hydrogen bromide
3) Hydro chloric acid 4) Hydrogen fluoride
13. The names of acids containing radicals or poly atomic groups are given on the basis of
element
1) First 2) Second 3) Third 4) Fourth
14. The prefix and surffix is binary acids containing hydrogen and non metal like halogen
respectively are:
1) Hydro and ic 2) ic and hydro
3) ate, ite 4) ite, ate
15. Chemical formula of hydro fluoric acid
1) HF2 2) HF 3) Hf 4) H2 F
16. What is the common name of sodium bi carbonate
1) Soda ash 2) Washing soda 3) Baking soda 4) Soda
17. In naming bases-OH radicals are named as hydroxides, after the nameof:
1) Metal 2) Non-metal 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
18. Bases contain radical
1) OH − 2) OH + 3) H + 4) H −
19. Name of H + radicals is
1) Hydroxide 2) Hydronium 3) Ammonium 4) Hydride
20. The names of compounds which do not follow any systermatic rule called:
1) Trivial names 2) common names
3) Chemical names 4) Both 1 and 2
21. Name of OH − radical is
1) Hydrogen 2) Ammonium 3) Hydride 4) Hydroxide
22. Chemical formula of perchloric acid
1) HClO4 2) HClO2 3) HCCO3 4) HCl
JEE ADVANCED
23. The compounds containing three element called:
1) Tertiary compounds 2) Priminary compounds
3) Penta compounds 4) Binary compounds
Statement type:
24. statement I: The compounds of magnesium nitrogen is magnesium nitride.
Statement II: Potassium hypo chloride is KClO.
Comprehension type
Usually the element present in a compound are named in order of symbols appearing in
formula.
25. The chemical formula of magnesium nitride is:
1) MgN3 2) Mg 2 N3 3) Mg 3 N2 4) MgNO3
26. The chemical formula of aluminium oxide is:
1) Al2 O3 2) Al(OH)2 3) Al3 O2 4) AlO3
27. The compound of calcium and sulphur is:
1) Calcium sulphate 2) Calcium sulphate
3) Calcium hydroxide 4) Calcium sulphide
28. Chemical formula of aluminium hydroxide is
1) Al2 O2 2) Al2 (HO)3 3) Al(OH)3 4) Al(OH)3
29. Which of the following are acids?
1) HCl 2) HNO3 3) H2 SO4 4) NaOH
Matrix Match Type:
a) Ammonia 1) Sodium chloride
b) Table salt 2) Hydrogen hydroxide
c) Water 3) Nitrogen trihydride
d) Carbonic acid 4) H2 CO3
5) Calcium chloride
a) Periodic acid 1) HCIO3
b) Chloric acid 2) HCIO2
c) Chlorons acid 3) HCIO4
d) Per chloric acid 4) HCIO3
5) HCIO4
32. How many molecules of magnesium chloride is formed when 1 volume of magnesium is
react with two volumes of hydrogen chloride?
33. Which of the following is are correct statement?
1. The chemical formula of the compound calcium sulphate is CaSO4
2. The chemical formula of the compound sodium nitrate is NaNO3
3. The chemical formula of the compound sulphate acid is H2 SO4
4. The chemical formula of the compound ammonium hydroxide is NH4 OH
34. Chemical formula of magnesium hydroxide
1) MgOH 2) Mg(OH)2 3) MgO 4) Mg 2 OH
Statement type:
35. Statement I: PCl5 stands for phosphorous penta chloride.
Statement II: SO3 stands for sulphur trioxide.
36. What are the possible names of KOH
1) Caustic potash 2) Potassium hydroxide
3) Potassium oxide 4) Sodium hydroxide
37. Chemical formula of carbonic acid
1) H2 CO3 2) H3 CO3 3) HSO4 4) H2 O
Matrix Match type:
38.Column-I Column-II
a) Potassium chlorite 1) CO
b) Sulphuric acid 2) NaOH
c) Sodium hydroxide 3) KClO2
d) Carbon monoxide 4) H2 SO4
5) H2 SO3
Comprehension type:
There are certain names of compounds which do not follow any systematic rule. Such names
are called trivial names or common names.
39. What is the trivial name of sodium chloride?
1) Ammonia 2) Table salt 3) Baking salt 4) Water
40. What is the common names of nitrogen trihydride?
1) Ammonia 2) Nitrogen hydroxide
3) Hydrogen nitrite 4) Cannot be named
41. Water is:
1) Hydrogen hydride 2) Hydride hydrogen
3) hydrogen halide 4) Hydrogen hydroxide
Worksheet-7 key
CUQ:
1) 3 2) 1 3) 4 4) 1 5) 1 6) 4 7) 3
8) 1 9) 1 10) 3 11) 2
Mains and advanced:
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 3 5) 1 6) 1 7) 3
8) 1 9) 2 10) 3 11) 2 12) 3 13) 2 14) 1
15) 2 16) 3 17) 1 18) 1 19) 2 20) 4 21) 4
22) 1 23) 1 24) 3 25) 3 26) 1 27) 4 28) 3
29) 1,2,3 30) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 31) a-5, b-1, c-2, d-3 32) 1
33) 1,2,3,4 34) 1 35) 1 36) 1,2 37) 1 38) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
39) 2 40) 1 41) 4
Synopsis – 8
Chemical equations
Definition: The chemical equation is a statement that describes a chemical change in terms of
symbols and formula.
Terms related to chemical equation
Reactants: The substance/substances which take part in a chemical reaction are called
reactants.
Products: The substances formed as a result of chemical reaction are called products.
The products are always written on the right hand side in a chemical equation.
A chemical equation consists of formulae of reactants connected by plus sign (+) and an arrow
(→) is read “to yield” or “to form”. It also shown the direction in which reaction is
predominant.
Explanation of a chemical equation: The term “equation” is used, because in a chemical
equation the atoms are neither created nor destroyed. Thus, the number of atoms of each
element on the right hand side of an equation must be equal to number of atoms of each
element on the left hand side of an equation.
What is a unbalanced chemical equation?
A chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element is not same on the side of
reactants and products is called unbalanced equation.
Example: KNO3 → KNO2 + O2
What is a balanced chemical equation?
A chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element is same on the side of
reactants and products is called balanced equation.
Example: 2KNO2 → 2KNO2 +O2
Methods to balance a chemical equation
Pre-requisites to be known to balance a chemical equation: Whether or not a chemical
reaction takes place between two chemical substances.
One must know all the reactants and the products formed during a chemical change.
One must know the correct symbols and formulae of all the reactants and products.
How to balance a chemical equation (Hit and trial method) : Following steps may be helpful in
balancing a chemical equation by this method:
(i) select the biggest formula and balance the same kinds of atoms in it on both sides of the
arrow.
(ii) If the above step fails, then select the element which occurs at the minimum number of
places and this element is balanced first. The element which occurs at the maximum number of
places is balanced last of all.
(iii) In case the elementary gases like hydrogen, oxygen, etc., appear, the equation is balanced
by keeping these gases in the atomic state.
(iv) Atoms of the elementary gases are balanced last of all.
(v) The balanced equation in the atomic state is changed in the molecular form.
Example: Balance the following skeleton equation.
Mg + CO2 → MgO + C
Solution:
Rewritting Mg + CO2 → MgO + C
No. of. Mg atoms 1 1
No. of. C atoms 1 1
No. of. O atoms 2 1
We see the number of Mg atoms and C atoms on both sides are equal. The number of oxygen
atoms on product side is 1 and on the reactant side is 2. To make oxygen atoms equal, multiply
MgO by 2. We get,
Mg + CO2 → MgO + C
Now, to make Mg atoms equal on both sides, multiply Mg of L.H.S. by two. Thus, each kind of
atoms on both sides of the equation are equal.
Thus, the balanced equation is 2Mg + CO2 → 2MgO + C
Information conveyed by a balanced chemical equation:
A chemical equation conveys the following information:
It tells us which substances react among themselves and which are formed as a result of the
reaction.
For example, the equation Ca(OH)2 + 2HCL → CaCL2 + 2H2O tells us that calcium hydroxide
reacts with hydrochloric acid to form calcium chloride and water.
It tells us about the relative number of atoms and molecules of the reactants and the products.
For example, the equation Mg + 2HCL → MgCL2 + H2 reveals that I atom of magnesium reacts
with 2 molecules of hydrogen chloride to form 1 molecule of magnesium chloride and 1
molecule of hydrogen.
It gives us the ratio of the masses of the reactants and products. It gives us the volume ration
of gaseous reactants and products.
Limitations of a balanced chemical equation
1. It does not give information about the physical state of reactants and products.
For example, the equation given below does not tell whether the substances involved in
chemical reaction are in solids, liquids or gaseous state.
CaCO3 + 2HCL → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
How is the above limitation overcome in a balanced equation?
This difficulty is overcome by putting symbols like(s) for solids, (l) for liquids and (g) for gases.
For chemicals. Which react in solution form, a symbol (aq) is used.
Following examples will illustrate the point:
(i) CaCO3(s) + 2HCL(aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
(ii) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
(iii) 2Pb(NO3)2 (s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
2. A balanced chemical equation does not tell whether a chemical reaction will come to
completion or not.
3. A balanced chemical equation does not tell anything about the speed of a chemical reaction.
For example, the reaction between silver nitrate solution and sodium chloride solution
completes in few seconds. However, decomposition of lead nitrate crystals takes place in few
minutes.
4. A balanced chemical equation does not tell about the physical conditions which bring about
the chemical reaction, e.g., it does not tell whether heat energy, light energy, pressure, catalyst,
etc., are required for a chemical reaction or not.
How is above limitation overcome in a balanced equation?
The problem is partly solved by writing the conditions of reaction on the arrow head as
illustrated by a balanced equation.
Fe−Mo
N(g) + 3H(g) ⇔ 2NH3(g)
900 atoms − 450℃
From the above equation we can say that I volume of nitrogen gas, reacts with 3 volumes of
hydrogen gas, under a pressure of 900 atmospheres, at a temperature 450℃, in presence of
catalyst iron containing molybdenum, when a reversible reaction takes place, with the
formation of 2 volumes of ammonia gas.
5. A balanced chemical equation does not tell about changes such as precipitations, change in
color, evolution of heat, light and sound energy during the chemical change.
WORKSHEET-8
1. A balanced chemical equation does not tell about changes such as
1) precipitation 2) change in color
3) Evolution of heat, light and sound energy’s 4) All of these
2. The substances which take part in a chemical reaction are called:
1) Reactants 2) Products 3) Both 4) Catalyst
3. The substances formed as a result of chemical reaction are called:
1) Reactants 2) Products 3) Both 4) Catalyst
4. A chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element is same on the side of
reactants and products in called:
1) Balanced equation 2) Unbalanced equation
3) Both 4) Neither 1 nor 2
5. CaCO3 + 2HCl→
1) CaCl2 2) CO2 3) H2O 4) All
6. A balanced chemical equation does not tell about:
1) speed of the reactions 2) Completion of the reaction
3) Physical state and conditions 4) All the above
7. C6H6 +O2 → CO2 +H2O. Co-efficient of products are respectively
1) 6,3 2) 3,6 3) 5,2 4) 2,5
8. Un-balanced equation is also called as
1) balanced equation 2) skeleton equation
3) Stoichiometric equation 4) Both 1 and 3
JEE MAINS
1.The chemical equation is a statement that describes a chemical change in terms of
____________ and _____________.
1) Reactants and products 2) Elements and products
3) Symbols and Formulae 4) All
2. In a chemical reaction the atoms are neither______ nor _________
1) Created, Destroyed 2) Elements and products
3) Symbols and Formula 4) All
3. The substance which take part in a chemical reaction are called______
1) Reactants 2) Products 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
4. The substances formed as a result of chemical change during a chemical reaction are called
____________
1) Created, Destroyed 2) Products
3) Symbols and Formula 4) All
5. Mg + HClO3 → Mg(ClO3)2 + H2O + HCl
Co-efficient of Reactants respectively are
1) 3,7 2) 7,3 3) 2,7 4) 3,4
6. FeS2 + O2 → Fe2O3 + SO2
Sum of co-efficient of Reactants and Products
1) 8 2) 9 3) 10 4) 25
7. The sign of an arrow(→) is read “_________”.
1) To yield 2) To form 3) Both 1 and 2 4) To Destroy
8. aFe + bN2O→ cN2 + dFe3 O4
Identify a,b,c and d
1) 3,4,1,4 2) 3,4,4,1 3) 3,1,4,3 4) 4,4,3,1
9. what are the co-efficient of reactants and Products in the given equation
AS2O3 +(a)SnCl2 + (b) HCl → (c)SnCl4 +(d)As+(e) H2O
1) a-3, b-6, c-3, d-2, e-3 2) a-3, b-6, c-3, d-3, e-2
3) a-3, b-3, c-6, d-3, e-2 4) a-6, b-3, c-3, d-2, e-3
10. Except _______ and ________ gases, the remaining atoms are balanced first
1)Nitrogen, Oxygen 2) Balanced equation
3) Hydrogen, Nitrogen 4) Nitrogen, Carbon
11. Chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element is not same on the side of
reactants and products is called
1) skeleton equation 2) Balanced equation
3) Stoichiometric equation 4) Both 2 and 3
12. Ca3(PO4)2 + SiO2 → P2O2 + CaSiO3
Number of moles of calcium silicate formed.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
13. What are W, X,Y,Z in the given equal
(w) CaOCl2 +(x)NH3 → (y)CaCl2 + (z)H2O + N2
1) w-2, x-3, y-3, z-3 2) w-3, x-2, y-3, z-3
3) w-1, x-2, y-2, z-3 4) w-2, x-3, y-1, z-0
14. The chemical substances which are shown with upward arrow mark in the chemical reaction
are _______
1) Precipitate 2) Sublimate 3) Gas 4) Filtrate
15. __________decomposes on heating to form potassium nitrate and oxygen
1) Potassium nitrite 2) Potassium Hypo nitrite
3) Potassium nitrite 4) Potassium nitrate
16. An atomic equation is one in which the elementary gases are expressed in the_______
1) molecular form 2) compound form 3) atomic form 4) none of these
17. N2+3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 is an example of _________ equation
1) irreversible 2) reversible 3) non-reversible 4) all of these
18. Ca3(PO4)2 +SiO2 +C→ CaSiO3 + P+ CO sum of co-efficient of Reactants and products.
1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 19
19. Like symbols and formulae, all chemical equations have both _____ and
__________ significance.
1) Qualitative, Qualitative 2) Quantitative, Quantitative
3) Qualitative, Quantitative 4) all of these
20. which of the following are non-elementary gases
1) Hydrogen 2) Oxygen 3) Nitrogen 4) carbon dioxide
JEE ADVANCED
The above reaction is a balanced one with corrected limitations. Identify the correct
limitations.
1) Physical states of reactants.
2) Number of atoms and molecules.
3) Symbols and formulae of all the substances.
4) Physical conditions of a reactions on the arrow.
Statement type:
22. statement I: A balanced chemical equation does not tell about the all physical conditions of
a reactions.
Statement II: A balanced chemical equation tells about only some physical conditions like
light, heat energy and pressure but not of catalyst of a reactions.
3) statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
4) statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
Comprehension Type:
23. which of the following is true regarding the amount of substances involved and formed in
the following reaction?
△
CaCO → CaO + CO2
CaCO3 CaO CO2
1) 50g 20g 22g
2) 100g 28g 22g
3) 100g 56g 22g
4) 100g 56g 44g
24. Which of the following is true about the following reaction?
1) 8 atoms of reactants react to give 8 atoms of products.
2) 4 molecules of reactants react to give two molecules of product.
3) 34 grams of reactants react to give two molecules of product.
4) All the above.
25. Which of the following is practically correct about the following equation:
2CO +O2 ⟶ 2CO2
1) 2 molecules of CO react with 1 molecule of O2 to form 2 molecules of CO2.
2) 1 molecule of CO2 is formed by the combination of 1 molecule of CO and ½ molecule of O 2.
3) 56 grams of CO reacts with 32 grams of O2 to form 88 grams of CO2.
4) All of these.
Matrix Match Type:
a) Mg + 2HCl 1) MgO + C
b) 2Mg + CO2 2) CaCl2 + H2O
c) Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl 3) CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
d) CaCO3 + 2HCl 4) MgO + HCl
27. 2KClO3 ⟶ 2KCl + 3O2
The number of ‘K’ atoms present in the above equation in total are_______
28. Which of the following are in correct about the following equation
2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3
1) 4 moles of SO2 react with 2 moles of Oxygen to form 2 moles of SO3
2) 2 molecules of SO2 reacts with one molecule of Oxygen to from 2 molecules of SO3
3) 2 molecules of SO2 reacts with 2 molecules of O2 and form 2 molecules of SO3
4) 128 grams of SO2 reacts with 32 grams of O2 to form 163 grams of SO3
29. Which of the following are in correct about the following equation
2 SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3
1) 4 moles SO2 reacts with 2 moles of oxygen to from 2 moles of SO3
2) 2 moles SO2 reacts with 1 molecules of oxygen to form 2 molecules of SO3
3) 2 molecules of SO2 reacts with 2 molecules of oxygen and form 2 molecules of SO3
4) 128 grams of Sulphur dioxide with 32 grams of oxygen to from 163 grams of SO 3
30. which of the following is true about the following reaction
2H2 + O ⟶ 2H2O
1) Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water.
2) 4 grams of hydrogen combines with 32 grams of O2 to form 36 grams of water.
3) 2 molecules of H2 reacts with one molecule of O2 to form 2 molecules of H2O
4) 2 moles of O2 reacts with one mole H2to form 2 moles H2O
Matrix Match Type:
31. column – I column-II
a) Mg + H2 SO4 1) NaNO3 + AgCl
b) NaCl + AgNO3 2) MgS + H2O
c) MgCO3 + H2SO4 3) MgSO4 + H2
d) 2Na + 2H2O 4) 2NaOH + H2
5) MgSO4 + CO2 + H2O
Multi correct Choice Type:
32. select the balanced chemical equation
a) 2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2 b) 3Fe + 4N2O→ 4N + Fe3O4
c) 2Al2O3 + 9C → Al4O3 + 6CO d) 2KCIO3 + 3S → 2KCl + 3SO2
33. Identify the balanced equation of the following
1) H2 + Cl2 → 2Hcl 2) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
3) 2CO + O2 → 2CO2 4) Fe + S → FeS
Statement Type:
34. statement I Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2 is a balanced equation
Statement II the number of atoms in the reactants is equal to the number of atoms in the
products
3) statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
4) statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
Multi correct choice Type:
35. which of the following is correct balanced equation?
1) Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O 2) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
3) 2H2S + SO2 → 2H2O + 3S 4) 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O
36. Skeleton Equation
NH3 + Na → NaNH2 + H2
Sum of co-efficient of Reactants and products
1) 4 2) 7 3) 5 4) 2
Cr(OH)3 + Na2O2 → NaCrO4 + H2O + NaOH
Sum of co-efficient of Reactants and Products
1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 13
CuFeS2 + O2 → Cu2S + FeS + SO2
aFeS + bO2 → cFeO + dSO2
Identify a b c d
1) 2,3,2,2 2) 2,2,3,2 3)3,2,2,2 4)2,3,4,2
Matrix Match Type:
40. column – I Column-II
a) The substance which take part 1) Products
in chemical reaction
b) The substance formed as a result 2) Balanced equation
of chemical reaction
c) A chemical equation in which 3) CaCl2 + H2O
number of atoms of each element
is same on the side of reactants
and products 4) Reactants
d) Ca (OH)2 + 2HCl 5) CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
comprehension Type:
Example: 2KNO3 ⟶ 2KNO2 + O2
41. which of the following is not true for a balanced chemical equation?
1) A balanced chemical equation gives information about physical states of all reacting
substances.
2) A balanced equation gives information about the number of atoms of all substances
involved in the reaction.
3) Both 1 and 2.
4) None of these.
Which of the following statements is not true?

1) One molecule of nitrogen and three molecules of hydrogen combine to form two molecules
of ammonia at same conditions of temperature and pressure.
2) 28 grams of nitrogen and 6 grams of hydrogen combine to form 34 grams of ammonia.
3) One grams of nitrogen and three grams of hydrogen combine to form two grams of
ammonia.
4) Both 1 and 2.
43. 2Mg + O2 → 2MgOWhich of the following statements is not true?
1) One molecule of magnesium and two molecules of oxygen combine to form two molecules
of magnesium oxide.
2) 28 grams of magnesium and 6 grams of oxygen combine to form 34 grams of magnesium
oxide.
3) 48 grams of magnesium and 32 grams of oxygen combine to form 80 grams of magnesium
oxide.
4) Both 1 and 2.
44. 2KClO3→ 2KCl + 3O2. Which of the following statement is not true?
1) 245 grams of KClO3 gives 149 grams of KCl and 96 grams of O2.
2) 245 grams of KCl gives 149 grams of KClO3 and 96 grams of O2.
3) 96 grams of Oxygen is formed from 149 grams of KCLO3, in the above reaction.
4) 149 grams of KCl gives 245 grams O2 is formed from 96 grams os KClO3.
Worksheet-8 key
CUQ:
1) 4 2) 1 3) 2 4) 1 5) 4 6) 4 7) 3
8) 4
Mains and Advanced:
1) 3 2) 1 3) 1 4) 2 5) 1 6) 4 7) 3
8) 2 9) 1 10) 2 11) 1 12) 3 13) 2 14) 3
15) 4 16) 2 17) 2 18) 4 19) 3 20) 4 21) 1,4
22) 3 23) 4 24) 4 25) 4 26) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-4 27) 4
28) 1,3 29) 1,3 30) 1,2,3 31) a-3, b-1, c-5, d-4 32) 1,2,3,4
33) 1,2,3,4 34) 1 35) 1,2,3,4 36) 2 37) 2 38) 3 39) 1
40) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3 41) 1 42) 1 43) 4 44) 2,3,4
Synopsis - 9
Chemical reactions
Definition of a chemical change: A change in which new substances are formed and which
cannot be reversed by reversing the conditions is called a chemical change.
Characteristics of a chemical change: New substances are formed and identify of the original
substance is lost.
Properties of the substance before and after the change are different. Original properties
disappear and new properties are observed. Change is brought permanently and change is
irreversible.
Examples of a chemical change: Burning of paper is a chemical change. Burning of wood is a
chemical change.
Rusting of iron is a chemical change. Burning of magnesium ribbon is a chemical change.
Souring of milk is a chemical change.
Chemical combination reactions
A chemical reaction in which two or more elements or compounds combine to form a single
substance as a product is known as a combination reaction.
The combination reaction in which a compound is formed from the combination of its
constituent element is known as synthesis reactions.
i) Two elements react to form a new product.
Example: Magnesium and oxygen combine, when heated, to form magnesium oxide:
combination
2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
Magnesium oxygen Magnesium oxide
ii) Two compounds react to form a new product.
Example: calcium oxide (lime or quicklime) reacts vigorously with water to form calcium
hydroxide (slaked lime):
combination
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(s)
Calcium Oxide water Calcium hydroxide
(lime or quick lime) (slaked lime)
iii) An element reacts with a compound to form a new product.
Example: Carbon monoxide reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide:
combination
2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)
Carbon monoxide Oxygen Carbon dioxide
In this reaction, carbon monoxide compound reacts with oxygen element to form a new
compound, carbon dioxide. So, this is a combination reaction.
Chemical decomposition reactions
A chemical reaction in which a single chemical compound decomposes or splits up into two or
more simpler substances (elements or compounds) is known as decomposition reaction.
i) A compound decomposes into two elements
example: When electric current is passed through acidified water, it decomposes to give
hydrogen gas and oxygen gas. This reaction can be represented as:
Heat
2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)
(Decompination)
Water Hydrogen Oxygen
ii) A chemical compound decomposes into one element and one compound.
Example: Sodium nitrate on strong heating decomposes to sodium nitrite and oxygen.
Heat
2NaNO3 → 2NaNO2 + O2
Sodium nitrate sodium nitrite Oxygen
iii) A chemical compound decomposes into two compounds:
Example 1: Which calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to give calcium oxide and
carbon dioxide.
Heat
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(Decompination)
Calcium carbonate Calcium oxide carbon dioxide
(Lime stone) (lime)
WORK SHEET-9
1. 2Mg(s) + 𝑂2(g) → 2MgO(s). This reaction is an example of:
1) Chemical combination 2) Chemical Decomposition
3) Chemical Displacement 4) Chemical Replacement reaction
Heat
2. 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g); This is an example of:
1) Chemical Combination 2) Chemical Decomposition
3) chemical Displacement 4) Chemical Replacement reaction
3. The chemical combination reactions also known as:
1) Analysis reactions 2) Decomposition reactions
3) Catalytic reactions 4) Synthesis reactions.
4. On heating, Calcium carbonate decomposes to give _________ number of products.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
5. The chemical reaction in which a single chemical compound decomposes or splits up in two
or more products is known as:
1) Chemical Combination 2) chemical Double Decomposition
3) Chemical Displacement 4) Chemical Decomposition reaction
Heat
6. 2NaNO3(l) → 2NaNO2 + O2(g); This is an example of:
1) Chemical Decomposition 2) Chemical Combination
3) Chemical Displacement 4) Chemical Replacement reaction
Heat
7. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2. This is an example of
1) Chemical combination 2) Chemical Displacement
3) Chemical Displacement 4) Chemical Replacement
8. Burning of wood is what type of change?
1) Physical 2) Chemical 3) Periodic 4) Irreversible
JEE MAINS
∆
1. 2Al(OH)3(s) → A𝑙2 O3(s) + 3𝐻2 O(g)
Which of the following statements is true for the above reaction?
1) A compound decomposes to form two elements.
2) A compound decomposes to form two new compounds.
3) A compound decomposes to form two compounds and elements.
4) A compound decomposes to form another compound and an element.
2. The combination reactions may involve in the combination of:
1) Elements with another element 2) Compounds with another compound.
3) Element with a compound 4) All the above.
3. Which of the following reactions illustrates a chemical combination between an element and
a compound?
∆
1) 2HgO(s) → 2Hf(l) + O2 (g) 2) 2Kl+ 𝐶𝑙2(𝑔) → 2KCl(aq) + 𝐼1(𝑠)
3) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) 4) Both 2 and 3
∆
4. 2Pb3O4(s) → 6PbO(s) + O2(g) illustrates a:
1) Chemical Combination 2) Chemical de combination
3) Chemical displacement 4) Chemical double decomposition
5. Which of the following is correct for the given reaction
combination
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
1) A compound combining with an element to form two compounds.
2) An element combining with another element to form a compound.
3) An element combining with another compound to form new element
4) All the above are correct.
6. Identify the decomposition reactions from the following
1) FeSO4 → Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3 2) KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
Heat
3) Fe2 (SO4)3 → Fe2O3 + 3SO3 4) All the above
Worksheet-9
CUQ:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 2 5) 4 6) 1 7) 3
8) 2
Mains and Advanced:
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2 5) 2 6) 4
7) 2 8) 4 9) 3 10) 4 11) 3 12) 2
13) 2 14) 2 15) 4 16) 1,2,3,4 17) 4 18) 2
19) 1 20) 2 21) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 22) 1 23) 3
24) 1 25) 3 26) a-1, b-5, c-3, d-2
Synopsis-10
Chemical displacement reactions
When more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from its aqueous salt
solution, the chemical reaction is called chemical displacement.
Following is the list of metals in the order of their decreasing chemical reactivities:
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > [H] > Cu > Hg > (F > Cl > Br > I)
AB + C → CB + A [Representation of chemical displacement]
Example: When a strip of zinc metal is placed in copper sulphate solution. Then zinc sulphate
solution and copper are obtained:
CuSO4 (aq) ZnSO4 (aq)
Zn (s) Cu (s)
Copper sulphate + → Zinc sulphate +
Zinc Copper
(Blue solution) (Colourless solution)
Example: When a piece of magnesium metal is placed in copper sulphate solution, then
magnesium sulphate solution and copper metal are formed:
CuSO4 (aq) MgSO4 (aq)
Mg (s) Cu (s)
Copper sulphate + → Magnesium sulphate +
Magnesium Copper
(Blue solution) (Colourless solution)
Chemical double displacement reactions
A chemical reaction, in which two compounda in their aqueous solution react by exchanging
their radicals, is called chemical double – decomposition or chemical double- displacement.
In case, one of the two products is insoluble in water, the reaction is commonly called
precipitation reaction.
Example: When silver nitrate solution is added to sodium chloride solution, then a white
precipitate of silver of silver chloride is formed along with sodium nitrate solution.
AgCl (s)
AgNO3 (aq) NaCl (aq) NaNO3
+ → Silver chloride +
Silver nitrate Sodium chloride Sodium nitrate
(White ppt)
In case, both the products are soluble, i. e., one of the product is a soluble salt and the other is
water, such a reaction is called neutralization reaction.
Neutralization reaction takes place between acids and bases/alkalis
A+ B− + C+ D− → A+ D− + C+ B_
The reaction between acids and bases to form salts and water are also double displacement
reactions. For example, sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid react to form sodium chloride
and water:
NaOH (aq) HCl (aq) NaCL (aq) H O(l)
+ → + 3
Sodium hydroxide Hydrochloric acid Sodium chloride Water
Ink generally contain more than one dye. Several dyes of different
colours are mixed to produce the required shade.
WORKSHEET -10
1.AgNO3 + NaCl → P + NaNO3 . What is ‘P’?
1) AgCl- White precipitate 2) AgCl- Red precipitate
3) ) AgCl- Pink precipitate 4) AgCl- Blue precipitate
2. CuSO4 (aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) This equation is an example of:
3) Chemical Decomposiyion 4) All the above
4. CuSO4 (aq) + Zn(s) → A + Cu (s) Identify ‘A’
1)CuS 2)ZnS 3)ZnSO4 4) ZnSO3
5. (A+ B− ) + (C+ D− ) → (A+ D− ) + (C+ B− ) represents
3) Chemical Double Displacement 4) All the above
6. Chemical Double Displacement Reaction are:
1) Precipitation reactions 2) Neutralisation Reactions
3) Chemical Decomposition 4) Both 1 and 2
7. When more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from the aqueous salt solution is
called
1) Chemical decomposition 2) Chemical combination
3) Chemical displacement 4) Chemical neutralization
JEE MAINS
1. When a piece of magnesium metal is placed in copper sulphate solution. The products
formed are
1) MgSO4 , Cu 2) MgS, Cu 3) MgSO4 , CuS 4) Mgs, CuS
2. Study the following reaction:
ZnO+2HNO3 (dil) →Zn(NO3 )2 +2H2 O
Which of the following reactions is true for the above reaction.
1) It is a precipitative reaction 2) it is a double decomposition reaction
3) It is a combination reaction 4) It is a catalytic reaction
3. In case one of the two products is insoluble in water the reaction is commonly called
1) Precipitation reaction 2) neutralization reaction
3) Decomposition reaction 4) Combination reaction
4. Chemical double displacement is also called:
1) Chemical decomposition 2) Chemical displacement
3) Chemical double decomposition 4) All the above
5. The double displacement reaction in which one of the products is insoluble in water is called:
1) Precipitation 2) Neutralisation
3) Combination 4) Decombination
6. In a chemical reaction if both products are soluble i.e., one of the product is soluble salt and
the other is water such a reaction is called
1) Decomposition reaction 2) Combination reaction
3) Precipitation reaction 4) Neutralisation reaction
7. The double displacement reaction in which h one of the products is soluble salts and the
other is water, is called:
1) Combination 2) Precipitation
3) Neutralisation 4) Dissociation
8. 2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3 )2 +2Ag, in this reaction,
1) Copper displaces silver 2) Silver displaces copper
3) Nitrogen displaces copper 3) Silver displaces nitrogen
9. ZnSO4 + Mg → MgSO4 + Zn
Which of the following is correct for above reactions
1) Zn displaced by Mg 2) Zn displace Mg
3) Mg displaced by Zn 4) Mg cannot displaces Zn
10. Neutralisation reactions are also called as
1) Disproportion reaction 2) Double displacement reaction
3) Decomposition reaction 4) Chemical combination reaction
JEE ADVANCED
1. (A+ B− ) → (C+ D− ) + (A+ D− ) + (C+ B− ) represents:
1) Chemical displacement
2) Chemical double displacement reaction.
3) Chemical double decomposition reaction.
4) Chemical combination.
Statement Type:
1. Statement I: When more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from its aqueous salt
solution, the chemical reaction is called chemical combination.
Statement II: A chemical reaction, in which two compounds in their aqueous solution react by
exchanging their radicals, is called chemical double decomposition.
3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
Comprehension Type:
When more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from its aqueous salt solution, the
chemical reaction is called chemical displacement. A chemical reaction, in which two
compounds in their aqueous solution react by exchanging their radicals, is called chemical
double-decomposition or chemical double displacement.
1. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through copper sulphide solution, the then a black
precipitate of copper sulphide is formed along with sulphuric is formed along with sulphuric
acid solution it is an example of:
1) A displacement reaction between a compound and an element.
2) A double displacement reaction between a compound and an element.
3) A double decomposition reaction between two compounds.
4) A combination between an element and a compound.
2. A teacher performed the following experiment in the class. He took ammonium hydroxide
solution and added to aluminum chloride solution. What is the conclusion from the above
experiment?
1) A black precipitate aluminium hydroxide is formed.
2) A white ppt of aluminium hydroxide is formed along with ammonium chloride solution.
3) A red precipitate of aluminium hydroxide alone is formed.
4) A white precipitate ammonium chloride is formed.
3. Which of the following statements ae corrects for given reaction. PbCl2 + Ca → CaCl2 + Pb
1) ‘Ca cannot displaces ‘Pb’ 2) ‘Ca can displaces ‘Pb’
3) ‘Pb’ cannot displaced by ‘Ca’ 4) ‘Pb’can be displaced by ‘Ca’
1. In chemical double displacement reaction how many compounds react to each other?
1. Which of the following are neutralization reactions
1) CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu 2) 2NaOH+H2 SO4 → Na2 SO4 + 2H2 O
3) CaCO3 → CaCO3 + CO2 4) CuCl2 + 2Pb → PbCl2 + Cu
2. In precipitation reactions which of the following are observed?
1) Precipitate is not formed 2) Precipitate is formed
3) Precipitate is soluble in water 3) Precipitate is insoluble in water
3. Colour of BaSO4 precipitate which is formed in
BaCl2 + H2 SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl reaction
1) Red 2) Blue 3) White 4) Pink
Worksheet 10
CUQ:
1) 1 2) 3 3) 1 4) 3 5) 3 6) 4 7) 3
Mains and advanced:
1) 1 2) 1 3) 2 4) 1 5) 2 6) 1 7) 3
8) 1 9) 4 10) 3 11) 1 12) 2 13) 2 14) 4
15) 3 16) 2 17) 3 18) 1 19) 2 20) 2,3 21) 4
22) 3 23) 3 24) 2 25) 2,4 26) 2 27) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-2
28) 2 29) 1,2 30) 2,4 31) 2 32) 1 33) 3 34) 2,4
35) 3 36) a-4, b-5, c-2, d-1
Synopsis-1
MOLE CONCEPT
ATOMIC WEIGHT (or) ATOMIC MASS
1
The modern standard to the determination of atomic weight is carbon – 12. Weight of 12
atom of carbon – 12 is called atomic mass unit (amu).
Today amu has been replaced by ‘U’ which is known as unified mass.
1
1 amu = weight of 12 atom of carbon – 12
= 1.66 x 10−24 gram = 1.66 x 10−27 kg.
1
 The number of times of an atom of an element is heavier than 12 atom of carbon – 12 is
called atomic weight or atomic mass.
𝐰𝐞𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭 𝐨𝐟 𝐨𝐧𝐞 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐚𝐧 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭
Atomic weight = 𝟏
𝐰𝐞𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭 𝐨𝐟 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐜𝐚𝐫𝐛𝐨𝐧−𝟏𝟐
𝟏𝟐
Examples:
1) Atomic weight of nitrogen = 14 2) Atomic weight of oxygen = 16
 Atomic mass of an element is the average mass of all the naturally existing isotopes of
an element.
𝐑.𝐀 (𝟏) 𝐗 𝐌.𝐍𝐨+𝐑.𝐀 (𝟐) 𝐗 𝐌.𝐍𝐨
Atomic mass = 𝐑.𝐀 (𝟏)+𝐑.𝐀 (𝟐)
Where R.A = Relative abundance
M. No = Mass number
GRAM ATOMIC WEIGHT OR GRAM ATOM
 The atomic weight of an element expressed in grams is called gram atomic weight or gram
atom.
ATOMIC NUMBER
Atomic number Name of the element Symbol Atomic Weight

1 Hydrogen H 1
2 Helium He 4
3 Lithium Li 7
4 Beryllium Be 9
5 Boron B 11
6 Carbon C 12
7 Nitrogen N 14
8 Oxygen O 16
9 Fluorine F 19
10 Neon Ne 20
11 Sodium Na 23
12 Magnesium Mg 24
13 Aluminium Al 27
14 Silicon Si 28
15 Phosphorus P 31
16 Sulphur S 32
17 Chlorine Cl 35.5
18 Argon Ar 40
19 Potassium K 39
20 Calcium Ca 40
Examples:
 Gram atomic weight of nitrogen = 14 gram
 Gram atomic weight of oxygen = 16 gram
𝐰𝐞𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭
Number of gram atoms = 𝐠𝐫𝐚𝐦 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦𝐢𝐜 𝐰𝐞𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭
 For even atomic number of atoms (Except Be (4) and Ar (18)) Atomic weight = 2x Atomic
number
 For odd atomic number of atoms (Except N (7)) Atomic weight = (2 x Atomic number) +1
MOLECULAR WEIGHT or MOLECULAR MASS

1
 The number of times of a molecule of a substance is heavier than 12 atom of carbon – 12
is called molecular weight or molecular mass.
𝐰𝐞𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭 𝐨𝐟 𝐨𝐧𝐞 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐬𝐮𝐛𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞
Molecular weight = 𝟏
𝐰𝐞𝐢𝐠𝐡𝐭 𝐨𝐟 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐜𝐚𝐫𝐛𝐨𝐧−𝟏𝟐
𝟏𝟐
Molecular weight = 2 x Vapour density
𝐃𝐞𝐧𝐬𝐢𝐭𝐲 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐚𝐬
Vapour density = 𝐃𝐞𝐧𝐬𝐢𝐭𝐲 𝐨𝐟 𝐡𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧
 Molecular weight = weight of 22.4 litres of a gas at STP.
 Sum of the atomic weight of all atoms in a molecule is equal to its molecular weight.
Examples:
1) Molecular weight of Na2 CO3 = 2 x 23 + x 12 + 3 x 16 = 46 + 12 + 48 = 106
2) Molecular weight of glucose (C6 H12 O6)
= 6 X 12 + 12 X 1 + 6 X 16 = 72 + 12 + 96 = 180
GRAM MOLECULAR WEIGHT OR GRAM MOLECULE or MOLAR MASS
The molecular weight of a substance expressed in grams is called gram molecular weight or
gram molecule or molar mass.
Examples:
1) Gram molecular weight of sodium carbonate = 106 gram
2) Gram molecular weight of glucose = 180 gram
1. One a. m. u is equal to:
1) 1.66 x 10−27g 2) 1.66 x 10−24g
3) 1.66 x 10−22g 4) 1.66 x 10−20g
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐚𝐭 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭
2. 𝟏 =
𝐭𝐡 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐂−𝟏𝟐 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦
𝟏𝟐
1) RAM 2) GAW 3) Mol. Wt 4) Eq. Wt
3. The atomic weight of Chorine is:
1) 35g 2) 37g 3) 35.5g 4) 36.5g
4. Number of moles =
1) Weigh / molecular weight 2) Weight / Atomic weight
3) Weight/ Number of atoms 4) Weight x Molecular weight
5. Phosphorus is:
1) Mono atomic 2) Diatomic 3) Tetra atomic 4) Octa atomic
6. Mol. Wt Vapour density 2, is valid for:
1) Metals 2) Non – metals 3) Solids 4) Gases
7. The molar mass of Hydrogen is:
1) 1.008gms 2) 2.016gms 3) gms 4) gm
8. 1 amu is equal to the mass of:
1 1
1) th of C- 12 atom 2) 14 th of O- 16 atom
12
3) 1g of H2 4) 1.66 X 10−23 kg
9. The weight of Helium atom in grams is:
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6.64 x 10−24 4) 1.66 x 10−24
10. Which of the following is the smallest particle of matter that exist independently?
1) Atom 2) molecule 3) element 4) compound
11. A: 𝐇𝟐 𝐎, 𝐂𝐇𝟒 , 𝐍𝐇𝟑 ; 𝐁: 𝐇𝟐 , 𝐍𝟐 , 𝐎𝟐 , 𝐅𝟐
1) ‘A’ contains homogeneous molecules.
2) ‘B’ contains heterogeneous molecules.
3) ‘A’ contains heterogeneous molecules.
12. Which of the following is Avogadro number?
1) Molecular weight of oxygen is 32.
2) Gram molecular mass of sulphur (S8 ) is 256 g.
3) The weight of one molecule of O3 4) All
13. The weight of 4gm. Atoms of nitrogen is
1) 56 gms 2) 112 gms 3) 42 gms 4) 28 gms
−𝟐𝟒 −𝟐𝟕
14. Statement I: 1 a. m. u. = 1.66 x 𝟏𝟎 g or 1.66 x 𝟏𝟎 kg.
Statement II: Atomic weight has no units
1) Both statement I and II are correct
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
15. The total mass of 100 atoms of silicon is:
1) 2800 2) 2800 amu 3) 28 x 1.66 x 10−22g 4) Both 2 and 3
16. If the atomic weight of oxygen were taken as 100, then what would be molecular
weight of water
1) 18 2) 102 3) 112.5 4) 142.5
10 11
17. Natural Boron is a mixture of 5B , 5B with relative abundance of 20% and 80% find
the atomic weight of boron.
1) 10 2) 11 3) 10.8 4) 11.2
a) Sodium 1) Monoatomic
b) Helium 2) Diatomic
c) Oxygen 3) Triatomic
d) Ozone 4) Poly atomic
19. Atomic weight of chlorine is ______
Answers:
1.2 2.1 3.3 4.1 5.3 6.4 7.2 8.1 9.3 10.2
11.3 12.4 13.1 14.1 15.4 16.3 17.3 18.a-1;b-1;c- 19.35.5

2;d-3
Synopsis-2
Mole:
This is unit used to express the quantity of matter in chemistry.
Do you know
International Mole Day
Mole is an important unit in chemistry. Chemists celebrate the International Mole Day.
Mole day is observed on 23rd October from 6.02 am to 6.02 pm. What is the significance of
this day? You know that a mole is equal to 6.02 x 1023. To indicate 1023, the 23rd day October,
the 10th month was selected as the International Mole Day. Time is indicative of the number
6.02. chemists pay their respect to the mole by raising the flame of the Bunsen burner in
the laboratory.
Definition:
The amount of a substance which contains the same number of chemical units (atoms,
molecules or ions) as there are atoms in exactly 12 grams of pure carbon.
(a) It is defined as “the amount of a substance which contains the same number of chemical
units (atoms, molecules or ions) as there are atoms in exactly 12 grams of pure carbon”
(b) 12g of carbon-12 is found to contain 6.023x1023 atoms of carbon-12. Thus, a mole
represents a collection of 6.023x1023 chemical units (atoms, molecules or ions).
(c) The number 6.023x1023 is called the Avogadro’s number. The Avogadro’s number is
denoted by NA or L. Most commonly the symbol NA is used. Thus, a mole represents the
quantity of material which contains one Avogadro’s number (6.023x1023) of chemical
units (atoms, Molecules, or ions) or any substance.
(d) It is important to note that while using the unit mole, it is necessary to specify the chemical
unit also. For example,
1 mole of hydrogen atoms = 6.023 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen
1 mole of hydrogen molecules = 6.023 x 1023 molecules of hydrogen
1 mole of carbon dioxide = 6.023 x 1023 molecules of carbon dioxide
1 mole of electrons = 6.023 x 1023 electrons
1 mole of sodium ions (Na+) = 6.023 x 1023 Na+ ions
Symbol of the mole unit. The unit of mole is given a symbol mol. So, if you want to express
one mole, you may write it as 1 mol.
Important relations related to mole:
(a) 1 mole of particles = 6.023 x 1023 particles
(atoms/molecules/ions/electron/protons/neutron/nucleons).
(b) The weight of 1 mole atoms of an element = gram atomic weight of the element.
(c) The weight of 6.023 x 1023 atoms of an element = gram atomic weight of the element.
(d) The weight of 1 mole molecules of a compound = gram molecular weight of a compound.
(e) The weight of 6.23 x 1023 molecules of a compound = gram molecular weight of the
compound.
(f) The weight of 1 mole of formula units of a salt = gram formula weight of the salt.
UNDERSTANDING OF A MOLE
Some more important relations:

Given weight
 No of gram atoms or mole atoms = Gram atomic weight
Given weight
 Number of moles (n) = Gram Molecular weight
 Weight of x gram atoms = x X gram atomic weight
 Weight of x moles of any compound = x X Gram molecular weight
 1 gram atom or gram atomic weight of an element contains 6.023 x 1023 atoms.
 1 gram molecule or gram molecular weight of a substance contains 6.023 x 1023
molecules.
 Number of atoms in a given substance (given element)
= Number of gram atoms (ng) x 6.023 x 1023
 Number of molecules in a given substance (Nm)
= Number of moles (n) x 6.023 x 1023
6.023 x 1023
 Number of atoms in 1 grams of an element = Atomic weight
6.023 x 1023
 Number of molecule in 1 gram of a substance = Molecular weight
 Weight of an element in grams = Number of gram atoms x GAW
 Weight of substance in grams = Number of moles x GAW
 Number of atoms of an element per molecule can be calculated if MW and percentage
mass of that element are given by using the formula.
MW x percentagemass
No. of atoms = At.wt x 100
[Note: Number of atoms is always is a whole number]
=No. of atoms present in given amount of substance (Na)
= No. of molecules (Nm) x No. of atoms present in 1 molecule of the substance.
= No. of moles (n) x NA x No. of atoms present in 1 molecule of the substance.
 No. of subatomic particles (electrons/protons/neutrons/nucleons, etc) present in given
amount of substance (Np)
= No. of molecules (Nm) x No. of subatomic particles present in 1 molecule of
the substance.
= No. of moles (n) x Na x No. of subatomic particles present in 1 molecule of
the substance.
Objective question:
1. The amount of substance of a system which contains as many elementary entitles as
there are atoms to 0.012 kilogram of carbon 12 is called:
1) Kelvin 2) Cadela 3) second 4) mole
2. Unit of amount of substance is:
1) Metre 2) Kilogram 3) ampere 4) mole
3. The avogadro’s number is denoted by:
1) MA 2) NA 3) K 4) IU
4. One mole of hydrogen molecules is equal to:
1) 6.023 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen 2) 6.023 x 1023 molecules of hydrogen
3) 6.023 x 1023 H+ Ions 4) 6.023 x 1023 H- Ions
5. The weight of 1 mole of an element equal to:
1) Gram molecular weight 2) Gram atomic weight
3) Gram molecular volume 4) Density
6. One mole of Sodium represents:
1) N atoms of Sodium 2) 23gms of Sodium
3) Both 1&2 4) 11.5gms of Sodium
7. 1 mole of N2 O contains:
1) 6.023 x 1023nitrogen atoms 2) 6.023 x 1023oxygen atoms
3) 2 x 6.023 x 1023oxygen atoms 4) 6.023 x 1023 electrons
8. Number of atoms in a given substance is:
1) Number of gram atoms / 6.023 x 1023 2) Number of gram atoms x 6.023 x 1023
3)Number of gram molecules/6.023 x 1023 4) Number of gram molecules x 6.023 x 1023
9. Number of moles =
Given weight Given weight
1) 2) Gramatomic weight
Gram molecularweight
Gramatomic weight Given atomicweight
3) 4)
Given weight Given weight
10. Number of atoms in one gram of an element:
6.023X1023 6.023X1023
1) 2) Molecular weight
Atomic weight
23
3) 6.023X10 x Atomic Weight 4) 6.023X1023 x Molecular Weight
11. Weight of 1 atom of Hydrogen is
1) 1.66 x 10-24gm 2) 1023gm 3) 1022gm 4) 1024gm
12. Which one of the following contains same number of atoms as there are in 12 grams of
magnesium?
1) 12 grams carbon 2) 40 grams of calcium
3) 16 grams of oxygen 4) 7 grams of carbon monoxide
13. The mass of one oxygen molecule is
1) 2.656 x 10-23 2) 5.312 x 10-23gm 3) 1.66 x 1024gm 4) 32gm
14. Calculate the number of Cl- and Ca2+ ions in 222g anhydrous CaCl2
1) 3N, 6N 2) 4N, 2N 3) 10N, 5N 4) 6N, 3N
15. The number of moles of sodium oxide in 620g of it is
1) 1 mole 2) 10 moles 3) 18 moles 4)100 moles
16. One gram – atom of oxygen is
1) 1 g of oxygen 2) 22.414 lit 3) 6.02x1023 lit 4) 22.414 ml
17. One gram molecule of oxygen is
1) 16 gms of oxygen 2) 32 gms of oxygen 3) 8gms of oxygen 4) 1gm of oxygen
18. Avogadro number is
1) The number of atoms in one gram-atomic-weight
2) The number of molecules in one gram-molecular-weight
3) The number of atoms in 0.012 kg of C-12 4) All of these
19. A mole is define so
a) The amount of substance containing the same number of chemical units as the number
of atoms in exactly 12g of C12
b) The amount of substance containing Avogadro number of chemical units
c) The unit for expressing amount of a substance
1) A only 2) B only 3) C only 4) all
20. The mass of a mole of hydrogen atoms is
1) 1.008 g 2) 2.016 g 3) 6.02x1023g 4) 1.008amu
21. The molar mass of hydrogen is
1) 1.008 g 2) 2.016 g 3) 6.02x1023g 4) 2.016 amu
22. One mole of atoms of oxygen represents
1) 6.02x1023 molecules of oxygen 2) 32 g of oxygen
3) 22.4L of O2 at STP 4) 8g of oxygen
23. One mole of molecules of dioxygen represents
1) 6.02x1023 molecules of oxygen 2) 8gms of oxygen
3) 16g of O2 4) 11.2L of O2 at STP
24. One mole of sodium represents
1) 6.02x1023 atoms of sodium 2) 46 gms of sodium 3) 11g of sodium 4) 34.5g of
sodium
Answers:
1.4 2.4 3.2 4.2 5.2 6.3 7.2 8.2 9.1 10.1
11.1 12.4 13.2 14.2 15.2 16.2 17.2 18.4 19.4 20.2
21.2 22.1 23.1 24.1
Synopsis-3
OXIDATION NUMBER:
 “Oxidation number of a given speicies (atom, ion or molecule) in the apparent charge
the species appears to bear in the given state”.
 “Oxidation number is also defined is a number which indicates the loss or gain or sharing
of electrons by an atom during the formation of a chemical compound”.
Example: Hcl Hcl⟶ H + Cl−
Oxidation number of H is + 1 and
Oxidation number of Cl is -1
Similarly in CCl4 oxidation number of each Cl is -1 and that of carbon is +4.
DETERMINATION OF OXIDATION NUMBER:
Rule-1: The oxidation number of an atom in its elementary form is always zero.
Ex: The oxidation number of H, O, N, P, S, Se, Cu, Ag in their elementary forms and
H2 , O2 , N2 , P4 , S8 , Se8 , Cu, Ag in molecular forms is zero.
Rule-2: The oxidation number of alkali metals(Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs) in their compounds, is
always+1.
Ex: In NaCl, the oxidation number of Na is +1.
Rule-3: The oxidation number alkaline earth metals (Be,Mg,Ca,Sr,Ba) in their compounds is
always +2.
Ex: The oxidation number of Mg in MgO is +2.
Rule-4: General oxidation number of hydrogen is +1 but with metals it exhibits -2 oxidation
number with Metals Ex: LiH, NaH etc………
Rule-5: Fluorine exhibits only-1 oxidiation number Ex: HF
Rule-6: General oxidation number of oxygen is -2. But
1. In peroxides-1 (H2 O2 , Na2 O2 ) 2. In superoxides – ½ (KO2 )
3. With fluorine it exhibits +1 in O2 F2 and + 2 in OF2
Rule-7: The sum of oxidation numbers of all the atoms in a molecule is equal to zero.
Ex: CH𝟒 ,C=-4, H= +1; Therefore -4+(+1x4) = 0.
Rule-8: The sum of oxidation numbers of all the atoms in an Ion is equal to charge present on
it. CO2−
3 ; C=+4 +(-2x3)= -2+4-6=-2.
In Hcl oxidation number of H = +1 Calculate Oxidation number of the
Oxidation number of Cl = -1 following
In H2 O oxidation number of O = ? 1) S in H2 SO3
Oxidation number of H = +1 2x[+1] + x = 0 2) S in H2 SO4
x= -2 3) S in H2 S2 O3
In H2 CO3 Oxidation number of C = ? 4) Mn in KMnO4
Oxidation number of H = +1 5) Cr in K 2 Cr2 O7
Oxidation number of O = -2 6) N in HNO3
2 X (+1) + x + (3x-2) = 0 X=6-2=+4 7) N in NH3
Objective question:
1. A number which indicates the loss or gain or sharing of electrons by atom during the
formation of a chemical compound is called:
1) Oxidation number 2) Co-ordination number
3) incommensurable number 4) avogadro’s number
2. Oxidation number of hydrogen in HCL molecule:
1) +1 2) -1 3) +2 4) -2
3. The oxidation number of an atom in its elementary form is always:
1) 0 2) 1 3) practional 4) 2
4. The common oxidation state of alkaline earth metals:
1) +1 2) +2 3) +3 4) +4
5. The oxidation number of oxygen in superoxides:
1) -1 2)-2 3) -3 4) -4
6. The oxidation number of oxygen in superoxides:
1
1) -1 2) -2 3) -3 4) -4
7. The oxidation number of 𝐂𝐇𝟒 molecule is:
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
8. The oxidation number of chlorine in HCl molecule
1) -1 2) -2 3) +1 4) +2
9. The oxidation number of IA group elements in all their compounds is;
1
1) +2 2) +1 3) +3 4) − 2
10. The oxidation number of IIA group elements in all their compounds is:
1) +1 2) +2 3) +3 4) +4
11. The oxidation number of H in most of its compounds is:
1) +1 2) +2 3) 0 4) +3
12. Calculate the oxidation number of the element which is underlined
i) 𝐊 𝟐 Cr 𝐎𝟒 ii) 𝐊 𝟐 𝐇𝟐 𝐒𝐛𝟐 𝐎𝟕
1) 3 5
2) 6 5
3) 4 5
4) 1 3
13. Calculate the oxidation number of the element which is underlined from the following:
i)𝐂𝐚𝟑 (Al 𝐎𝟑 )𝟐 ii) 𝐊 𝟒 Fe (𝐂𝐍)𝟔
(i) (ii)
1) 3 2
2) 6 5
3) 4 5
4) 1 3
14. Statement I: The oxidation number of alkali metals in their compounds is “+1”.
Statement II: Alkali metals contain one valence electron.
1) Both statement I and II are correct. 2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
3)Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
15. The oxidation state of the hydrogen in Ca𝐇𝟐 is:
1) +1 2) -1 3) 0 4) +2
16. The oxidation state of chlorine in HOCl is:
1) +1 2) -1 3) +3 4) +5
17. The oxidation state of potassium in 𝐊𝐎𝟐 is:
1) +1 2) +2 3) 0 4) -1
18. Matrix match type:
Column-I Column-II
Element Maximum oxidation number
A) Hydrogen 1) 0
B) Carbon 2) +4
C)Argon 3) +7
D)Manganese 4) +1
5)+6
19.The oxidation number of carbon in diamond is _______
Answers:
1.1 2.1 3.1 4.2 5.1 6.2 7.1 8.1 9.2 10.2
11.1 12.2 13.1 14.1 15.2 16.1 17.1 18.a-4;b-2;c- 19.0
1;d-3
Synopsis-4
OXIDATION-REDUCTION:
State Oxidising Agent

Gas O2 , O3 , (ozone), Cl2 , F2
Liquid Con. HNO3 , H2 SO4 , K 2 Cr2 O7 , H2 O2
Solid MnO2 , HgCl2 , NaNO3 , KNO3 , KClO3 , PbO2 Pb3 O4
Oxidation:
Rmoval of electrons(s) from an atom or an ion is called oxidation.
Example: Mg ⟶ Mg 2+ + 2e−
Cu+ ⟶ Cu2+ + e−
Increase in the oxidation number is called oxidation.
Example: 2Cl− ⟶ Cl2 ↑ +2e−
Here the oxidation number of chlorine is increased from -1 to 0.
Reduction:
Addition of electron(s) to an atom or an ion is called reduction.
Example: Fe3+ + e− ⟶ Fe2+ ; F2 + 2e− ⟶ 2F −
Decrease in the oxidation number is called Reduction.
Example: Cu2+ + 2e− ⟶ Cu
Here the oxidation number deceases from +2 to 0
Oxidizing agent (or) Oxidant:
The substance which gains electrons or which undergoes reduction is called oxidizing agent
(or) oxidant.
Example: Non-metals like, F, N, O etc.
Any chemical species which itself undergo reduction and make other species to undergo
oxidation is referred as an oxidizing agent.
Reducing agent (or) Reductant:
The substance which loses electrons (or) which undergoes oxidation is called reducing agent
(or) reductant.
Any chemical species which itself undergo oxidation and make other species to undergo
reduction is referred as an reducing agent.
Example: Metals like Na, Mg, Al etc.
Na + Cl ⟶ Na+ Cl−
In the above reaction Na getting oxidized to Na+
Cl getting reduced to Cl-
Na reducing the Cl to Cl- so Na is a reducing agent.
Cl oxidizing the Na to Na+ so Cl oxidizing agent.
State Oxidising Agent Reducing Agent
Gas O2 , O3 , (Ozone), Cl2 , F2 H2 CO, SO2 , H2 S, NH3 , HCl
Liquid Con. HNO3 , H2 SO4 , K 2 Cr2 O7 , H2 O2 HCl, HF, HBr, HI,
H2 SO3 , HNO2
Solid MnO2 , HgCl2 , NaNO3 , KNO3 , KClO3 , PbO2 Pb3 O4 Carbon (coke),
Metals(K, Na, Ca) Sugar,
(C12 H2 O11 ), SnCl2
Redox Reaction:
A reaction in which oxidation an reduction takes place simultaneously is called Redox
reaction.
Example:
 Zn is oxidized and acts as reducing agent.

 Cu is reduced and acts as oxidizing agent.
TYPES OF REDOX REACTIONS
a. Chemical Combination Reaction:
Key point: All combination reactions are not Redox reactions.

Example:
In the above combination reaction oxidation numbers are not changed. So, it is not a Redox
reaction.
a. Decomposition Reaciton:
Key point: All decombination reactions are not Redox reactions.

Example:
In the above reaction, there is no change in oxidation numbers. So, the above
decomposition reaction is not a Redox reaction.
b. Displacement Reaction:
Key point: All displacement reactions are Redox reactions.

c. Disproportionation Reaction:
The reaction in which the same element undergo both oxidation and reduction
simultaneously.
e. Comproportionation Reaction:
The revers of disproportionation is Comproportionation.
In this reaction, two species with the same element in two different oxidation states form a
single product.
Example:
The element which involve in disproportionation (or) Comproportionation reactions should

capable to exhibit more than one type of oxidation state.
Redox Reactions are divided into two main types:
Inter molecular redox ractions:
The redox reactions in which one molecule of reactant is oxidized where as molecule of
other reactant is reduced is called inter molecular redox reaction.
Intra molecular redox redox reactions:

The redox reactions in which one atom of a molecule is oxidized and other atom of
same molecule is reduced then it is called intra molecular redox reaction.
Example: 22Mn2 O7 ⟶ 4MnO2 + 3O2(g)
HOW TO BALANCE A REDOX REACTION?
(OXIDATION NUMBER METHOS):
Step1: Write the skeleton equation representing a redox reaction.
2. Write the oxidation number of all the elements at the top of it.
3. Locate the atoms undergoing changes in oxidation number.
4. Determine the increase and decrease in oxidation numbers atom/atoms/molecules.
5. Make increase in oxidation number equal to decrease in oxidation number by multiplying
oxidant and reductant by suitable numbers.
6. Balance the equation atomically on both sides (except O and H atoms).
7. Balance oxygen atoms by adding water (H2 O) molecules to the side deficient in oxygen
atoms. [Add one H2 O molecule, two H2 o molecules and so on for one O-atom, two O-atoms
and so on respectively].
1. Removal of electrons(s) from an atom or an ions is called:
1) Reduction 2) oxidation 3) hydration 4) carboxylation
2. Addition of electrons(s) to an atom or an ion is called:
3. Increase in the oxidation number is called:
4. Decrease in the oxidation number is called:
5. The substance which gains electrons or which undergoes reduction is:
1) Oxidizing agent 2) oxidant
3) reducing agent 4) carboxylation
6. The substance which loses electrons (or) which undergoes oxidation is:
1) Reducing agent 2) reductant 3) oxidizing agent 4) both 1 & 2
7. Which of the following is oxidizing agent?
1) Na 2) Mg 3) Al 4) F
8. Which of the following is reducing agent?
1) Na 2) O 3) Al 4) F
9. Which of the following is solid reducing agent?
1) H2 CO3 2) HCl 3) H2 SO3 4)
C12 H22 O11
10. Oxidation reaction is:
1) K + + e− ⟶ K 2) N + 3e− ⟶ N −3
3) Mg ⟶ Mg +2 + 2e− 4) O + 2e− ⟶ O−2
11. Among the following, which is not an oxidation reaction?
1) Fe+2 ⟶ Fe+3 + e− 2) Mg ⟶ Mg +2 + 2e−1
3) Al ⟶ Al+3 + 3e− 4) O + 2e− ⟶ O−2
12. Among the following, the reduction reaction is:
1) N + 3e− ⟶ N−3 2) Al+ ⟶ Al+3 + 2e−
3) K + + e− ⟶K 4) Both 1 and 3
13. In the reaction Zn+2HCl⟶ 𝐙𝐧𝐂𝐥𝟐 +𝐇𝟐 -, the reducing agent is:
1) H2 2) HCl 3) ZnCl2 4) none of these
14. Which one of the following reaction is an example of de-electronation?
1) Fe-2e− ⟶ Fe2+ 2) Fe3+ + le− ⟶ Fe2+
3) Sn4+ + 2e− ⟶ Sn2+ 4) Cl2 + 2e− ⟶ 2Cl=
15. Ca+𝐂𝐥𝟐 ⟶ 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐥𝟐 identify the reductant, oxidant from the above reaction.
Reductant Oxidant
1) Ca Cl
2) Ca Ca
3) Cl Ca
4) Cl Cl
16. A reaction in which oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneous is called:
1) Oxidation 2) Reduction
3) redox reaction 4) displacement reaction
17. All displacement reactions are:
1) Only oxidation reaction 2) only reduction reactions
3) redox reactions 4) combination reactions
18. 𝐂𝐥𝟐(𝐠) + 𝟐𝐍𝐚𝐎𝐇 ⟶ 𝟐𝐍𝐚𝐂𝐥 + 𝐇𝟐 𝐎 is an example of:
1) decomposition reaction 2) Comproportionation reaction
3) disproportionate reaction 4) displacement reaction
19. The change in oxidation number of sodium in 2𝐍𝐚(𝐬) + 𝟐𝐇𝟐 𝐎(𝟏) ⟶ 𝟐𝐍𝐚𝐎𝐇(𝐚𝐪) +
𝐇𝟐(𝐠)
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) no change
20. All ___ reactions are redox reactions
1) Displacement 2) oxidation 3) reduction 4) combination
21. CaO+𝐇𝟐 𝐎 ⟶ 𝐂𝐚(𝐎𝐇)𝟐 is an example of:
1) Comproportionation reaction 2) displacement reaction
3) decomposition reaction 4) combination reaction
22. The redox reactions in which one molecule of reactant is oxidized where as molecule
of other reactant is reduced is called:
1) Oxidation 2) reduction
3) inter molecular redox action 4) intra molecular redox action
23. The redox reactions in which one atom of a molecule is oxidized and other atom of
same molecule is reduced then it is called:
1) Oxidation 2) reduction
3) inter molecular redox reaction 4) intra molecular redox reaction
24. Ti𝐂𝐥𝟒 + 𝟐𝐌𝐠 ⟶ 𝐓𝐢 + 𝟐𝐌𝐠𝐂𝐥𝟐 . Identify the reaction.
1) Chemical decomposition reactions 2) intra molecular redox reaction
3) chemical combination reaction 4) chemical displacement reaction
+𝟐 +
25. 𝐀𝐠 + 𝐀𝐠 ⟶ 𝟐𝐀𝐠 identify the reaction.
1) chemcial combination reaction
2) chemical Comproportionation reaction
3) inter molecular redox reaction
4) intra molecular redox reaction
26. Among the following which reaction can be balanced according to oxidation number
method?
1) MnO−2 −
4 + Cl2 ⟶ MnO4 + Cl
−
2) MnO−2 −2
4 + C2 O4 ⟶ Mn
+2
+ CO2
2−
3) Cr2 O7 + NO ⟶ Cr + NO3−
2− +3
4) MnO4− + SO−2 3 ⟶ Mn
+2
+ SO−24
27. Among the following, redox reaction is:
1) HCl + NaOH ⟶ NaCl + H2 O
2) H2 SO4 + KOH ⟶ K 2 SO4 + 2H2
3) BaCl2 + Na2 CO3 ⟶ BaCO3 + 2NaCl
4) S + O2 ⟶ SO2 ↑
28. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
1) NaCl + KNO3 ⟶ NaNO3 + KCl
2) CaC2 O4 + 2HCl ⟶ CaCl2 + H2 C2 O4
3) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4 Cl ⟶ MgCl2 + 2NH4 OH
4) Zn + 2Ag CN ⟶ 2Ag + Zn(CN)2
29. In the reaction 𝐏𝟒 + 𝐍𝐚𝐎𝐇 ⟶ 𝐏𝐇𝟑 + 𝐍𝐚𝐇𝟐 𝐏𝐎𝟐
1) P is oxidized only 2) P is reduced only
3) Na is reduced 4) P is reduced as well as oxidized
Answers:
1.2 2.1 3.2 4.1 5.4 6.4 7.4 8.1 9.4 10.3
11.4 12.4 13.1 14.1 15.1 16.3 17.3 18.3 19.3 20.1
21.4 22. 23.3 24.4 25.4 26.2 27.4 28.4 29.4
Synopsis-1
NATURE OF MATER
Introduction to matter: The whole universe is composed of Matter and Energy, the matter
and energy are inter convertible.
Matter: Anything that occupies space, has weight and which has the principle of intertia is
called Matter.
Intertia: Fundamental property of matter by virtue of which a body resists to change its
original position.
Matter is made up of tiny particles called Molecules.
Molecules in turn are made up of “Atoms”.
The molecules are so small that they are not visible to our naked eye.
Molecules of matter are constantly moving.
The arrangement of molecules is different in different stated of matter.

Matter is available in three states:
Depending upon the temperature at which it is maintained, the three forms of matter are
solids, Liquids and gases.
Solids
The molecules of a solid are closely packed together with little empty space between them.
The molecules in a solid cannot move freely. They are held together tightly to give a definite
shape and volume to the solid.
Solids exist in different forms like granules (salt), powder (coffee), hard rock, soft chalk,
rubber, glass (transparent) etc.
Liquids
The molecules of a liquid are loosely packed.
They have more space between them and they can move freely. So they can flow.
They do not have a definite shape of their own. They acquire the shape of the container.
Gases
The molecules of gases have large space between them. They can move freely and
independently.
Gases have no definite shape, but they have weight.
We small the fragrance of flowers, perfumes, coffee, etc., because the gas molecules spread
easily.
Solution
The space between the molecules of a liquid is called intermolecular space.
When some substances are added to a liquid, the molecules of these substances occupy the
intermolecular spaces of a liquid. Then the substance is said to be dissolved in the liquid.
Dissolving a material in a liquid, often produces no change in volume.
The substance dissolved in the liquid is called the solute.
The liquid in which the substance gets dissolved is called the solvent.
The homogeneous mixture of solute and solvent is called a solution.
E.g.: Sugar is added to water to form sugar solution.
Solute-Sugar, Solvent-Water
Solutions have uniform distribution of solute throughout the solvent.
Some solutions show different colours:
Universal solvent
Water is a good solvent because it can dissolve many substances in it. Hence water is known
as Universal solvent.
When a solid dissolving in a liquid, it breaks down into tiny particles which spreads
throughout the liquid.
Change
We observe frequent changes around us.
Any matter on heating or cooling undergoes various changes.
These changes are of two types.
Physical change: The change which we observe in colour, state, odour, etc. is called physical
changes.
Eg: Ice melts and forms water
When a physical change takes place, no new substance is formed.
(2) Chemical change:

The formation of new substances in a change is called chemical changes.
Eg: Burning of petrol
When a chemical change takes place, a new substance is formed.
Worksheet-1
1. The smallest particle of an element is:
1) An atom 2) A molecule
3) Substance 4) Compound
2. What is the physical state of water at room temperature?
1) Liquid 2) Gas
3) All the above
3. The classification of matter into solid, liquid and gases is on the basis of:
1) Mass and weight 2) Intermolecular space
3) Gravitational force 4) None of the above
4. Matter is made up of tiny particles are called as .................
1) Compound 2) Element
3) Substance 4) Molecules
5. Molecules in turn are made up of.....................
1) molecules 2) Atoms
3) Matter 4) Substance
6. The molecules in a...........cannot move freely
1) Solid 2) Liquid
3) Gases 4) Substance
7. Hard rock is an example of..................
1) solid 2) Liquid
3) Gases 4) Substance
8. The molecules of a..........are loosely packed
1) Solid 2) Liquid
3) Solid 4) Substance
JEE MAINS
1. The gas in a container:
1) Spread out along the bottom of the container.
2) Spread out all through the container.
3) Will not spread out at all.
4) Spread out only at the top of the container.
2. A small piece of stone sinks in water because, it is:
1) Heavier 2) Lighter 3) Smaller 4) Larger
3. ..........acquire the shape of the container
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gases 4) Stone
4. The molecules of...............have large space between them.
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gases 4) Substance
5. Generally (at 30℃) coconut oil exists as:
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gas 4) All the above
6. i) The homogeneous mixture of solute and solvent is called a.............
ii) The liquid in which th substance gets dissolved is called the...........
iii) The substance dissolved in the liquid is called.........
(i) (ii) (iii)
1) Solvent Solute solution
2) solution solvent solute
3) solvent solute solution
4) solution solute solvent
7. We smell the fragrance of flowers, perfumes, coffee, etc... because the ........molecules
spread spread easily
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gases 4) Rubber
8. The space between the molecules of a liquid is called..........
1) Inter molecules 2) Intramolecular
3) No change 4) Negligible
9. Generally granules exists as.............
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gas 4) All the above
10. The substance dissolved in the liquid is called.......
1) Solution 2) Solute 3) Solvent 4) Stone
12. Select the properties for X, Y and Z.
X-a piece of stone Y-a water droplet Z-Oxygen gas
X Y Z
1) Minimum intermolecular Particles are free to move Force of attractive
between
Space to move Particles is negligible
2) Maximum intermolecular Force of attraction Particles are free to
move
Space between particles is neglisable
3) Particles are free to move Force of attraction Minimum
Intermolecular Between particles space
is neglisable
4) Force of attraction Minimum
Between particles is Intermolecular space Particles are free to
move Negligible
13. ...........substance is added to water to form sugar solution.
1) Sugar 2) Salt 3) Sand
14. In a mixture of sugar solution, sugar is known as............
1) Solute 2) Solvent 3) Solution 4) Suspension
15. In a mixture of sugar solution, water is known as.............
1) Solute 2) Solvent 3) Solution 4) Suspension
16. ......is known as solvent
1) Water 2) Juice 3) Suspension 4) sugar solution
17. During physical change we observe a change in:
1) Colour 2) State 3) Odour 4) All the above
18. .......melts and forms water
1) Ice 2) Stone 3) Gases 4) Water
19. Solid, liquid and gas are called the three........of matter
1) Matter 2) Liquid 3) State 4) Atoms
20. An iron almirah is an example of......
1) Gases 2) Liquid 3) Solid 4) Solute
21. During physical change:
1) New substances are formed 2) No new substance are formed
3) Chemical composition changes 4) All the above
22. Water is a.......at room temperature
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gases 4) Solvent
23. A substance has a definite shape as well as a definite volume. Which physical state is
represented by this statement?
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gases 4) Oxygen
24. Arrange the following substance in increasing order of force of attraction between their
particles (keeping the substance having the minimum force of attraction first). Water, sugar
and oxygen
1) Oxygen, water, sugar 2) Sugar, water, oxygen
3) Sugar, oxygen, water 4) Water, oxygen, sugar
25.Matter made up of one kind of particles is called a.........
1) Substance 2) Mixture 3) Element 4) Compound
26. Colour, odour and density are example of........properties
1) Physical 2) Chemical 3) Man-made 4) Mixture
27. Buring of a petrol is a.......
1) Physical 2) Chemical 3) Natural 4) Slow
28. The formation of new substance in a change is called..........
1) Physical 2) Chemical 3) Natural 4) Slow
29.Rusting of iron is an .......change.
1) Physical 2) Chemical 3) Natural 4) Fast
30. Melting of ice is an .......change
1) Slow 2) Fast 3) Chemical 4) Compound
31. ..........have high compressibility
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gases 4) Compound
32. Air is an example of.......
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gases 4) Compound
33. Formation of manure from dry leaves is an ......change
1) Fast 2) Undesirable 3) Slow 4) Reversible
JEE ADVANCED
Multiple correct choice type:
34. Matter occupies........and has...............
1) Space 2) heat 3) Mass 4) Pressure
Statement type
35. Statement I: Liquids have only one free surface.
Statement II: Liquids have no definite shape, but they have weight.
Comprehension Type:
Any matter on heating or cooling undergoes various changes.
36. Which of the following is a slow chemical change?
1) Lightning in the sky
2) Melting of wax
3) Formation of manure from dry leaves
4) Melting of ice
37. Which of the following is a chemical changes?
1) Candle wax melting 2) Rusting of iron
3) Ice cream melting 4) Cooling
(A) (B)
1) Heating Heating
2) Cooling Heating
3) Heating Cooling
4) Cooling Cooling
Matrix match type:
A) Water 1) Copper sulphate solution
B) Solute 2) The liquid in which the substance gets dissolved
C) Blue colour 3) Universal solvent
D) Solvent 4) The substance which dissolved in liquid
5) Potassium dichromate solution
40.Depending upon the temperature at which it is maintain there are.... states of matter
Worksheet -1 key
CUQ:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 2 4) 4 5) 2 6) 1 7)1 8) 2
MAINS AND ADVANCED:
1) 2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2
7) 1 8) 2 9) 1 10) 1 11) 2 12) 1
13) 1 14) 1 15) 2 16) 1 17) 4 18) 1
19) 3 20) 3 21) 2 22) 2 23) 1 24) 1
25) 3 26) 1 27) 2 28) 2 29) 2 30) 2
31) 3 32) 3 33) 3 34) 1,3 35) 1 36) 3
37) 2 38) 3 39) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2, 40) 3
Synopsis-2
Introduction Life on earth would have not been possible without air. We cannot see air but
we can feel its presence.
Air is not a single substance. It is made up of many gases like oxygen, Nitrogen, carbon
dioxide, water vapour etc. So air is a mixture
Air also contains dust and smoke.
Atmosphere: Air that surrounds the earth is called Atmosphere.
Air has Weight.
Air exerts Pressure.

Air occupies space.
Composition of air
The important constituents of air are oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon dioxide and water vapour.
Air contains about 78% Nitrogen, 21% oxygen by volume. [The space occupied by a
substance is known as Volume]
The remaining 1% [100-78+21] consists of inert gases [inactive gases], carbon dioxide, water
vapour and other gases.
Oxygen
The component of air which helps burning is “Oxygen”.
Antonine Lavoisier named the gas which helps in burning as oxygen.
Green plants release oxygen during process of photosynthesis [Photo = Light,synthesis = to
prepare]
By photosynthesis green plants prepare their food by using sunlight, carbondioxide and
water.
Oxygen present in air is useful for respiration. [breathing in and breathing out of air].
Oxygen in water is present in dissolved state. This oxygen is used by the water bodies
(aquatic life) for respiration.
Laboratory preparation
Note: MnO2 quickens the yield of oxygen

Properties of oxygen
Oxygen is a colour less, odour less and tasteless gas. It is slightly soluble in water it is
slightly heavier than air.
Test: The burning splinter burns brightly in pressure of oxygen.
Burning: Burning is a fast chemical reaction of a substance with oxygen.
Nitrogen: “J.A. Chaptal named the gas that does not support burning and respiration as
Nitrogen.
Nitrogen does not support burning (noncombustible).
Nitrogen and oxygen are present in air in 4: 1 ratio by volume.
Sources of Nitrogen
The plant, animal bodies and their excreta contain nitrogen in the form of its salts.
Beans, peas, Ground nuts [Leguminous plants] depend on bacteria present in their root
nodules for nitrogen. These bacteria converts atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogenous salts
by a process called Nitrogen fixation
Properties of Nitrogen
It is a odour less gas slightly soluble in water.
Test: The burning splinter is put off in the presence of nitrogen.
Carbon dioxide: it is a colour less, odour less gas which is about1.5 times heavier than air.
Carbon dioxide is released during respiration.
Fuels (Wood, petrol, kerosene etc.) on burning release carbon dioxide.
In fermentation process [Eg: Rancid idli, Dosa mixture, rancid curd) carbon dioxide is
produced. [Rancid=becoming sour].
[Fermentation: The process of breaking down of complex substances into simple substances
by the action of enzymes is called fermentation].
Test: Lime water turns milky in presence of carbon dioxide.
Fractional distillation: The separation of mixture of liquids into its constituents by changing
its temperature to different levels is known as fractional distillation. In this method, air is
liquefied and then various constituents of the liquefied air are separated.
Photosynthesis: Plants make their food by a process known as Photosynthesis.
Air pressure and its Applications:

Any substance which has weight exerts pressure.
Pressure
Force per unit area is called “Pressure”.
[Push or pull of a body is called “Force”].
[The place occupied by the surface of a body is “Area”].
Air exerts upward pressure
Take a glass tumbler and fill it completely with water up to the brim.
Place a thick paper over the mouth of the glass.
Invert the glass along with the paper. We observe that paper does not fall down.
It is because the air from below is exerting pressure upward and this pressure is supporting
the paper.
Air Pressure
To show that air exerts pressure (upward)
Air exerts downward pressure

Take a glass vessel and pour water in it upto half of it
Drop a small cork on water.
The cork will float on the water. Take a glass and invert the glass on the floating cork and
push the glass over the floating piece of cork.
We observe that air in the glass exerts downward pressure and pushes the cork down.
Air exerts sideward pressure
Take a tin container made up of thin metal sheet.
Heat the tin with spirit lamp and push out air inside th tin, close the lid of the tin.
Air is driven of the can by heating

The evacuated can collapses under the influence of atmosphere pressure
To show that air exerts Pressure (sideward)
We observe that sides of the tin are pressed. The tin is twisted. The air pressure on the sides
of the tin of the tin made it to be twisted.
Air exerts pressure in all directions
Air blows from a place of higher pressure to that of lower pressure.

Instruments like ink filler, injection, syringe work on the difference in air pressure.
In an open atmosphere, pressure of air decreases, where air gets heats up and becomes
lighter.
“small windows” called ventilators are fixed above the windows and doors in pucca houses.
As a result, cool air at higher pressure blows into the house from outside.
The air we exhale is warmer than the air around us which we inhale.
The low air pressure spot in the sea is called a depression.
The wind blowing very fast upto 80 kms per hour even more is called cyclone or cyclonic
storm.
Just before the onset of the cyclone, the air pressure at a place decreases suddenly.
From this we can forecast [predict much early] the approach of cyclone.
Air pollution
Pollution: The presence of unwanted and harmful substances in the environment is called
Pollution.
The presence of unwanted and harmful gases like excess of carbon dioxide,
chlorofluorocarbon’s unburnt carbon particles in air results in air Pollution.
It is harmful and leads to ill health.
Pollution can be controlled by;
1) Growing green plants.
2) Keeping the surroundings clean.
Global warming or greenhouse effect
The rise of carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere is not desirable. This is because, carbon
dioxide traps the heat radiated by the earth and makes the atmosphere warmer. As a result,
the temperature of the earth rises. This phenomenon is called Global Warming or
Greenhouse Effect.
Introduction to Weather
We all known that the mornings are cold while afternoons are hot. This is due to the change
of state in the air. This change is called “Weather”. It is due to the sun. So also wind blows
because warm air is lighter than cold air, so it rises up. Cool air rushes to take its place. This
causes the wind to below.
When the sun shines directly over our head, its light falls directly on the earth. So, it is very
hot.
When the sun rays are slant, they do not heat up the earth directly quickly. So, it will be
sunny but not very hot.
The condition of the atmosphere above a particular place on the earth’s surface at a
particular time is called “Weather”. Weather is the condition of the atmosphere at a
particular time and place. The average weather condition of a place over a long period of
time is called Climate. The pleasant movement of air is called “Breeze”. In coastal areas,
wind [movement of air] blows from sea to the land to the day. It is called as Sea breeze.
During nights, the wind blows from land to the sea. It is called as Land breeze. Sea breeze
and land breeze occur because of the sun.
Evaporation: The process of conversion of a liquid into its vapour state is called
Vaporization or Evaporation.
Condensation: The process of conversion of vapour into droplets of liquid is called
condensation. Water cycle: The alternate changes of water to water vapour and then water
vapour back to water is called water cycle
Biosphere: The part of our earth, where plants and animals coexist.
Lithosphere: The part of earth where rocks, sand, soil, plants, animals etc., are found is
called lithosphere.
Hydrosphere: The part of the earth where water is present is called hydrosphere.
Atmosphere: The blanket of air surrounds the earth up to a height of about 1000km is called
atmosphere.
Layers of Atmosphere
The first layer of atmosphere closest to the earth’s surface is called Troposphere.
Most clouds and storm occur here.
The second layer of the atmosphere is called stratosphere. Jet planes fly in this layer. Ozone
present in this layer of atmosphere prevents the entry of harmful ultra-violet rays onto the
earth’s surface.
Mesosphere is the layer in which the temperature is lower than that of stratosphere. Sound
waves cannot travel through it.
Ionosphere is the part of the atmosphere where the gas particles are electrically charged by
cosmic or solar rays.
[Cosmic rays: The rays coming from the outer space.]
The Exosphere is the outer part of the atmosphere which gradually merges into space. It is
above the Ionosphere which ends about 500km above the earth.
WORKSHEET-2
1. The atmosphere protects the earth from:
1) Harmful sunrays 2) Space aliens
3) Cyclonic storms 4) Thunders
2. Global warming takes place due to the increase of the following a component of air
1) Nitrogen 2) Carbon dioxide 3) Oxygen 4) Carbon
monoxide
3. Identify the layer of the atmosphere, where the jet planes fly.
1) Troposphere 2) Ionosphere 3) Stratosphere 4) Exosphere
4. The condition of air atmosphere at a particular time and at a particular place is called
1) Season 2) Weather 3) Atmosphere 4) Climate
5. The compound of air which helps in burning is
1) Nitrogen 2) Carbon dioxide 3) Oxygen 4) Chlorine
6. The percentage of nitrogen gas present in air by volume
1) 21 2) 82 3) 78 4) 50
7. Air that surrounds the earth is called
1) Climate 2) Surrounding 3) Environment 4) Atmosphere
8......named the gas which helps in burning as oxygen.
1) Henry cavendish 2) Dalton 3) Antoine Lavoisier 4) J.A. Chaptal
JEE MAINS
1. Aquatic animal and plants:
1) Breathe through the water.
2) Will come out of water to breathe.
3) Use the oxygen dissolved in water to breathe.
4) Do not breathe at all.
2. Oxygen is produced by:
1) Plants during photosynthesis. 2) Animals during respiration.
3) Both by plants and animals 4) Natural sources.
3. Oxygen present in air is useful for:
1) Photosynthesis 2) Respiration
3) Nitrogen fixation 4) Weather
4. The chemical formula of potassium chlorate......
1) KClO2 2) KClO3 3) KClO 4) KClO4
5. Potassium chlorate on heating produces ........gas
1) Carbon dioxide 2) Nitrogen dioxide
3) Oxygen 4) Hydrogen
6. The average weather condition of a place over a long period of time is called
1) Season 2) Weather 3) Atmosphere 4) Climate
7. Air blows from a place of:
1) High pressure to low pressure. 2) Low to high pressure.
3) Neither high nor low pressure. 4) All pressures.
8. The burning splinter burns brightly in presence of........
1) Hydrogen 2) Oxygen 3) Nitrogen 4) Helium
9. Burning is a .......chemical reaction of a substance with oxygen
1) Slow 2) Fast 3) desirable 4) Physical
10. The percentage of oxygen and nitrogen are present in air b volume.
1) 1:4 2) 4:1 3) 1:8 4) 8:1
11. The burning splinter is put off in the presence of
1) Oxygen 2) Carbon dioxide 3) Nitrogen 4) Sulphur
12. The process of conversion of nitrogen into nitrogenous salts is:
1) Nitrogen fixation 2) Respiration 3) Photosynthesis 4) None
13. The pleasant movement of air is called..........
1) Breeze 2) Storm 3) Cyclone 4) Weather
14. ........gas is released during respiration
1) Carbon dioxide 2) oxygen 3) Nitrogen 4) Fluorine
15. The process of breaking down of complex substances in to simple substances by the
action of enzymes is called...........
1) Respiration 2) Photosynthesis 3) Fermentation 4) Nitrogen
fixation
16. .......turns milky in presence of carbon dioxide
1) Lime water 2) Basic 3) Acidic 4) Substance
17. i) The component of air which helps in building is (A).
ii) B named the gas which helps in burning as A.
iii) A present in air is useful for C. identify A, B and C.
(A) (B) (C)
1) Nitrogen Antoine Lavoisier Respiration
2) Oxygen Antoine Lavoisier Respiration
3) Hydrogen Antoine Lavoisier Respiration
4) Carbon dioxide Antoine Lavoisier Respiration
18. The separation of mixture of liquids into its constituents by changing its temperature to
different levels is known as.......
1) Condensation 2) Evaporation
3) Diffusion 4) Fractional distillation
Identify ‘A’
1) Sucrose 2) Cellulose 3) Glucose 4) Fructose
20. Force per unit area is called
1) Area 2) Force 3) Pressure 4) Climate
21. The place occupied by the surface of a body is...
1) Area 2) Force 3) Pressure 4) Depression
22. Which one of the following is true statement
1) Force per unit area is called pressure
2) Push or pull of a body is called force
3) The place occupied by the surface of a body is area
4) All the above
23. The low air pressure spot in the sea is called a.....
1) Weather 2) Climate 3) Breeze 4) Depression
24. The wind blowing very fast up to 80kms per hour and even more is called a.......
1) Weather 2) Breeze 3) Climate 4) Cyclone
25. The percentage of unwanted and harmful substances in the environment is called
1) Climate 2) Weather 3) Pollution 4) Breeze

JEE ADVANCED
26. Which of the following is/are layers of atmosphere
1) Troposphere 2) Stratosphere 3) Mesosphere 4) Exosphere
27. Statement I: The average weather condition of a place over a long period of time is
called climate.
Statement II: During nights, the wind blows from land to the sea is called land breeze
Comprehension Type:
Any substance which has weight exerts pressure. Air blows from a place at higher pressure
to that of lower pressure.
28. Air exerts pressure in.......
1) Upward direction only 2) Downward direction only
3) Sideward direction only 4) All directions
29. Syringe works as the difference in:
1) Air pressure 2) Water pressure
3) Depression 4) Ventilators
30. The low air pressure spot in the sea is called:
1) Cyclone 2) Ventilatory 3) Storms 4) Depression
Matrix Match Type:
a) Evaporation 1) Cosmic rays
b) Condensation 2) Changing of water vapour into water
c) Exosphere 3) Outer part of the atmosphere
d) Ionosphere 4) Oxygen present in this layer
5) Change of water into water vapour
32. What is the percentage of nitrogen and oxygen are present in air by ratio by volume
Statement Type:
33. Statement I: Nitrogen does not support burning.
Statement II: Oxygen is present in the sir 21% by volume.
1) Both statements I and II are correct
Matrix Match Type:
a) Nitrogen p) Not support burning
b) Photosynthesis q) Lime water turns milky
c) Oxygen r) Potassium chlorate
d) Carbon dioxide s) Glucose
t) Respiration
35. Pollution can be controlled by:
1) Growing green plants 2) Keeping the surroundings
3) By cutting down the plants 4) Deforestation
36. The condition of the atmosphere above a particular place on the earth’s surface at a
particular time is called...........
1) Climate 2) Breeze 3) Weather 4) Pollution
37. The average weather condition of a place over a long period of time is called....
1) Weather 2) Breeze 3) Climate 4) Pollution
38. The pleasant movement of air is called....
1) Breeze 2) Weather 3) Climate 4) Pollution
39. The process of conversation of a liquid into its vapour state is called
1) Evaporation 2) Condensation 3) Water cycle 4) Precipitation
40. The part of our planet earth, where plants and animals co-exists are called as ......
1) Lithosphere 2) Hydrosphere 3) Biosphere 4) Atmosphere
41. The part of the earth where water is present is called .......
1) Lithosphere 2) Hydrosphere 3) Biosphere 4) Atmosphere
42. The blanket of air which surrounds the earth up to a half of about 1000 km is called
1) Hydrosphere 2) Atmosphere 3) Biosphere 4) Lithosphere
43. Global warming may result in:
1) Melting of polar ice caps 2) Submerging coastal reagions
3) Rice in the sea level 4) None of the above
44. The second layer of the atmosphere is called......
1) Hydrosphere 2) Troposphere 3) Stratosphere 4) Mesosphere
45. Sound waves cannot travel through it:
1) Stratosphere 2) Mesosphere 3) Ionosphere 4) Exosphere
46. The rays coming from the outer space
1) x-rays 2) B-rays 3) y-rays 4) Cosmic-rays
47. The part of the atmosphere where the gas particles are electrically charged by cosmic or
solar rays
1) Ionosphere 2) Mesosphere 3) Stratosphere 4) Exosphere
48. Jet plane fly in this layer:
1) Stratosphere 2) Troposphere 3) Hydrosphere 4) Atmosphere
49. The part of the earth where water is present is called...
1) Hydrosphere 2) Troposphere 3) Stratosphere 4) Ionosphere
50. The layer of atmosphere closest to the earth’s surface is called...
1) Stratosphere 2) Troposphere 3) Exosphere 4) Ionosphere
WORKSHEET-2 KEY
CUQ:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 2 5) 3 6) 3 7) 4
8)3
MAINS AND ADVANCED:
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 2 5) 3 6) 4 7) 1
8) 2 9) 2 10) 1 11) 2 12) 1 13) 1 14)

1
15) 3 16) 1 17) 2 18) 4 19) 3 20) 3 21) 1
22) 4 23) 4 24) 4 25) 3 26) 1,2,3,4 27) 1 28) 4
29) 1 30) 4 31) a-5, b-2, c-3,d-1 32) 4:1 33) 1
34) a-p, b-s, c-r, t, d-p, q 35) 1 36) 3 37) 3 38) 1 39) 1
40) 3 41) 2 42) 2 43) 1,2,3 44) 3 45) 2 46) 4
47) 1 48) 1 49) 1 50)2
Synopsis-3
Introduction to water
Water is very important to all living things.
Pure water is tasteless, colour less, odour less and transparent.
Melting point of water is 0℃ and boiling point is 100 ℃.
Like air, water also exerts pressure in all directions.
Water is useful for drinking, washing, cleaning purposes.
It is also useful for agriculture, producing electricity etc.
Water is present in seas, rivers, lakes, springs and wells.
In summer season it evaporates. (changes into gaseous state)
Water cycle: It happens in the same way even in nature. This process of alternate
evaporation and condensation is called water cycle.
Evaporation
The process conversion of a liquid its vapour state is called Vaporization or Evaporation.
Evaporation is faster when,
1) The air is dry.
2) The temperature [The measure of how hot the place is] is high.
3) There is wind
4) The exposed surface is large.
5) The atmospheric pressure is low at that place.
Condensation
The process of conversion of vapour into droplets of liquid is called Condensation.
Solidification: A mixture of ice and salt is called freezing mixture. In this, if we keep liquid
kulfi, it changes into solid kulfi.
The process of cooling a liquid and to transform it into a solid is called Solidification.
Freezing: Conversion of liquid into solid.
Humidity: Humidity is the amount of water vapour present in the air.
Dew: If the air is cooled up to a certain temperature, water vapour in the air condenses on
the surrounding objects as water droplets called “dew”.
Frost: If the dew point is below freezing point (0℃), water vapour condenses directly as a
crystal ice called “Frost”.
Snow: When water vapour is suddenly frozen on dust particles in the air, without
undergoing condensation, snow is formed.
Fog: The water vapour in the air condenses into small droplets at night and early mornings
in winter. This is called fog.
Hall Stones & Snow flakes
Hail stones: Some times on their way, down, raindrops pass through very cool air, they
freeze to form small balls of ice, which fall to the ground. These balls of ice are known as
Hail Stones.
Snow flakes: If the clouds themselves are very cold, the water vapour condenses to form ice
instead of water, the ice so formed (different shapes) is in the form of soft, beautiful Snow
Flakes.
Water present under the earth’s surface is known as ground as ground water.
The level of water under the ground is called the water table.
Precipitation
Precipitation of water vapour occurs in different ways.
1) Rain drops grow in size and are then frozen, the results is hail.
2) If the falling rain freezes before it reaches the ground. It is called sleet.
Pollution:
The presence of unwanted, harmful substances in water leads to water pollution.
Water containing dirt and other impurities is called as polluted water.
Water becomes impure in many ways.
Impurities and waste materials from industries, washing clothes, bathing animals in rivers
causes water pollution.
Removal of Impurities sedimentation: The process in which, an impure liquid is allowed to
stand undisturbed. Small dust particles get settled down due to earth’s gravitational pull
(the force that attracts a body towards the centre of the earth leaving a clear solution
above, it is called Sedimentation.
Decantation: The process of pouring out the clean liquid above the sediment, to separate
the solid particles from a liquid is called Decantation.
Filtration: The process of separation of solid constituent from liquid using a porous material
[filter paper] is called Filtration. The clear water obtained is called Filtrate.
Purification of drinking water
Water is pumped into the treatment plant from the reservoir or stream through [1] Rotating
screens [2]. Alum is added to cause flocculation [3] After rapid mixing (20-40 minutes), the
water remains in [4] the setting basin while sedimentation of flocculation occurs (2-4 hours).
The sediment (sludge) is pumped from the bottom of the pools and stored in holding
lagoons to dry.
The softening process [5] involves the addition of sodium carbonate and hydrated lime to
remove calcium and magnesium ions that are responsible for water hardness. This process
takes an additional 2-4 hours. For each pound of chemical used in the treatment process,
two pounds are removed.
After an additional sedimentation process [6] carbon dioxide is added to lower the pH level
to approximately 7.5. Water is held in a [7] stabilizing basin for another 2-4 hours. Water
then flows through large dual media rapid sand filters made up of layers of gravel, sand and
anthracite coal [8]. Addition [9] of chlorine to disinfect the water, fluoride to protect teeth
and a corrosion inhibitor take place at the end of the process before water enters [10] large
underground clear wells to be held until needed by the community [11]. By boiling water,
the germs causing diseases can be killed. Dirt and germs have to be removed to make the
water fit for drinking.
Water fit to drink is called potable water. Water from rivers and lakes is pumped into the
waterworks in the city. Here, it is passed through filters to remove dirt. Special substances
such as bleaching powder and chloride are added to kill germs. The clean water is then
pumped into our homes.
Clean water is very precious and should not be wasted.
WORKSHEET-3
1. Identify the liquid state of water:
1) Dew 2) Cloud 3) Mist 4) Fog
2. The energy generated from water is known as
1) Irrigation energy 2) Thermal energy
3) Hydroelectric energy 4) Geothermal energy
3. When ice changes into water, heat energy is:
1) Released 2) Absorbed
3) Neither released nor absorbed 4) All the above
4. ......is very important to all living things
1) Water 2) Solid 3) CO2 4) Element
5. Melting point of ice is
1) 10℃ 2) 100℃ 3) 80℃ 4) 0℃
6. Boiling point of water is...
1) 10℃ 2) 100℃ 3) 80℃ 4) 0℃
7....is used for producing electricity
1) Water 2) Salt 3) Gas 4) Stone
8. Like, air, .... also exerts pressure in all directions
1) Water 2) Solid 3) Gases 4) Element
JEE MAINS
1. The amount of water vapour present in air is called:
1) Droplets 2) Humidity 3) Precipitation 4) Moisture
3. The process of alternate evaporation and condensation is called...
1) Vaporization 2) Evaporation 3) Water cycle 4) Thunder
4. The process of conversion of vapour into droplets of liquid is called....
1) Evaporation 2) Solidification 3) Condensation 4) Freezing
5. Which one of the following statement is incorrect
1) Rain drops grown in size and are then frozen, the result is hail
2) If the falling rain freezes before it reaches the ground, it is called sleet
3) The level of water under the ground is called the water table
4) The water vapour in the air condenses into small droplets is called hailstones
6. A mixture of ice and salt is called.... mixture
1) Racemic 2) Freezing 3) Condensation 4) Evaporation
7. Conversion of liquid in to solid is called........
1) Humidity 2) Dew 3) Freezing 4) Frost
8. The amount of water vapour present in the air
1) Dew 2) Freezing 3) Humidity 4) Frost
9. Water vapour in the air condenses on the surrounding objects as water droplets called
1) Frost 2) Snow 3) Fog 4) Dew
10. Water vapour condenses directly as a crystal ice is called.......
11. When water vapour is suddenly frozen on dust particles in the air, without understating
condensation....is formed
12. The water vapour in the air condenses into small droplet at night and early morning in
water this
1) Forest 2) Snow 3) Fog 4) Dew
13.Correct consecutive steps involved in the purification of water are:
1) Filtration, aeration, chlorination 2) Chlorination, Filtration, aeration
3) Filtration, chlorination, aeration 4) Aeration, filtration, chlorination
14. When raindrops are freezes to form small balls of ice are known as.
1) Hail stones 2) Snowflakes 3) Water table 4) Select
15. When water vapour condenses to form Ice instead of water are called as......
1) Haistones 2) Snow 3) Water table 4) Select
16. Water present under the earth’s surface is known as
1) Water table 2) Hail 3) Select 4) Ground water
17. Rain drops grow in size and are then foozen, the result is......
1) Slect 2) Hail 3) Hail stones 4) Snow flakes
18. Identify the correct statement/s from the following:
A) Pure water is tasteless, colour less, odour less and transparent liquid.
B) Melting point of water is 100 ℃, and that of boiling point is 0℃.
C) Water is useful for agriculture, producing electricity etc.
D) Water is universal solvent.
1) Only A and B 2) Only B and C 3) Only A, C and D 4) All the abov
19. The presence of unwanted, harmful substances in water leads to.
1) Air pollution 2) Water pollution 3) Polluted water 4) Sleet
20. Water containing dirt and other impurities is called as
1) Air pollution 2) Polluted water 3) Water pollution 4) S
JEE ADVANCED
21. Identify the process/es for removal of impurities water:
1) Sedimentation 2) Decantation 3) Filtration 4) Solidification
22. The changes in the humidity of the atmosphere results in the formation
1) Dew 2) Frost 3) Fog 4) Snow
Statement Type:
Statement II: The process of alternate evaporation and condensation is called water cycle.
Comprehension Type:
Water is very important to all living things. Pure water is tasteless, colour less, odour less and
transparent.
24. The level of water under the ground is called the
1) Table water 2) Water table 3) Ground water 4) Polluted water
25. Water fit foe drinking is called
1) Saline water 2) Soft water 3) Potable water 4) Tap water
26. Pure water is a:
1) Good conductor of electricity 2) Bad conductor of electricity
3) Tastes sour 4) None of the above
Matrix Match Type:
a) Freezing 1) Water vapour condenses directly as a crystal ice.
b) Snow 2) Water vapour in the air condenses on surrounding
objects as water droplets
c) Dew 3) The amount of water vapour present in the air
d)Frost 4) Conversation of liquid into solid
5) Water vapour is suddenly frozen on dust particles in the air.
Integer Type:
28. The boiling point of water is....
29. Identify the disease caused by water contamination:
1) Bronchitis 2) Typhoid 3) Cholera 4) Dust allergy
30. The process of pouring out the clean liquid above the sediment to separate the solid
particles from a liquid is called.
1) Decanatation 2) Sedimentation 3) Filtrate 4) Filtration
31. The process of separation of solid constituent from liquid using a porous material is
called....
1) Decantation 2) Sedimentation 3) Filtrate 4) Filtration
32. ..............and....... are used to remove calcium and magnesium ions that are responsible
for water hardness.
1) Sodium carbonate 2) Hydrate lime
3) Calcium hydroxide 4) Calcium carbonate
33. Water is fit for drinking is called......
1) Potable water 2) Table water 3) Ground water 4) Distilled water
34. What are the substances are added to kill germs
1) Bleaching powder 2) Chlorine 3) Sodium 4) Potassium
Statement Type:
35. Statement I: Water containing dirt and other impurities is called polluted water.
Statement II: The level of water under the ground is called the water cycle.
Matrix Match Type:
a) Frost 1) The process of alternate evaporation and condensation
b) Water cycle 2) The falling rain freezes before it reaches the ground
c) Hail stones 3) Water vapour condenses directly as a crystal ice.
d) Sleet 4) The balls of ice
5) Sedimentation
Statement Type:
37. Statement I: The process of alternate condensation and precipitation is called water cycle.
Statement II: The process of condensation of vapour into droplet of liquid is called
condensation
3) statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
38. Pure water is:
1) Tasteless 2) Colour less
3) Odour less 4) Bad conductor of electricity
Worksheet-3 key
CUQ:
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 5) 4 6) 2 7) 1
8) 3
MAINS AND ADVANCED
1) 2 2) 3 3) 3 4) 3 5) 4 6) 2 7) 3
8) 3 9) 4 10) 1 11) 2 12) 3 13) 3 14)
1
15) 2 16) 1 17) 2 18) 3 19) 2 20) 2
21) 1,2,3 22) 1,2,3,4 23) 1 24) 2 25) 3 26) 2
27) a-4, b-5, c-2, d-1 28) 100℃ 29) 2,3 30) 1 31) 4 32)
1,2
33) 1 34) 1,2 35) 3 36) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 37) 4
38) 1,2,3,4
Synopsis-4
CLOTHES WE WEAR
Introduction to clothing
Next to food, clothes are essential to man.
Earlier man used animal skin and leaves to cover his body.
To product the human body from various climatic conditions, different types of clothes are
used.
Classification of fibres Natural fibres
Cotton Wool
Silk
Fibres
Natural fibres Artificial fibres

Eg: Cotton wool silk Eg: Terylene Nylon Rayon
Non-uniform in thickness a) Uniform in thickness
They do not last long b) They last long
They are costly c) They are cheap.
Different clothing material are cotton, silk, wool, Terylene, nylon etc.
In cotton, the threads are found to be arranged loosely with space between them.
In silk, the threads are found to be woven very close to each other.
Cotton fibres are found to be twisted, and they are not of uniform thickness.
Woollen threads are elastic. [They stretch when pulled and get back to original length when
relaxed]
Wool is made from the hair on skin of sheep. Merino sheep gives wool of the best quality.
Sweaters, mufflers are used in winter because they do they do not permit loss of heat from
the body to the atmosphere.
Sericulture
The rearing of silkworms is called Sericulture.
Silk worms feed on Mulberry leaves.
The silk worms are reared in round The caterpillar of silk moth enters a
Bamboo frames called chandrikas. Substance called siricin.
Catterpillar Life Cycle

Bamboo
This hardens into silk The thread made by the silk worm
Fibres on exposure to air. To weave the cocoon is called silk.
The cocoons are placed in hot water to draw silk fibers.

The silk fiber obtained is whorled round the wooden frames called reels.
The process of drawing and winding silk fibres is called ‘reeling’.
Spinning of the fibers is done by using Taklicharkha, Amber charkha and by spinning
machines.
Threads is interlacing of length wise and transverse threads.
The loom is an instrument used for weaving cloth.
The length wise threads are known as the warp threads and transverse threads
Are known as filling threads.
Handloom & power loom

The loom in which feet press the press the planks and the hand pull the ropes is the
handloom.
Thus, the cloth available is costly and the process is time consuming.
The loom which runs on electric motor is called the ’Power loom’.
Thus, the cloth available is cheaper and the process is fast.
The property of absorption (taking in) of water and drying varies according to the type of
cloth.
Identification of the variety of the thread becomes easy by burning. [cotton thread burns
completely, whereas, silk thread resists burning].
Cleaning Methods
Costly silk sarees and woolen cloths may spoil if we use soap and water.
Hence petrol wash is used to remove oil and grease. This is called dry cleaning.
[cleaning clothes without water].
Soaps and detergents are useful in washing the clothes.
To clean the clothes washing machines are used.
If we do not wash the clothes properly, they get spoiled.
Care of clothes
While washing the clothes, first we test them, whether the colour of the cloth is weak or
strong.
Dark coloured clothes are dried in the shade.
Light coloured clothes are cleaned separately.
For the brightness of white clothes, blue powder or blue liquid will be applied.
After the application of starch, the cloths are to be dried under the sun directly and then
ironed.
Clothes need to be stored away from insects like silverfish, cockroaches etc., that destroy
them.
Dressing
The dressing of the people depends upon their climatic conditions.
To protect the human body from various climatic conditions, different types of clothes
Are used.
Summer - Cotton
Winter - Woollen
Rainy - Rain coats
Clothes for work
The clothes of doctors and nurses should be very clean, as they take care of sick people.
They wear white coats as uniforms.
Soldiers live and work in very rough conditions. They wear special uniforms made of tough
fibres.
A factory worker works with heavy machinery. For safety he wears an overall, which is one
cloth that covers him from the neck to the feet. It has no portions of cloth that can get
caught in the machines.
Doctor and nurse Solider Factory Worker
WORKSHEET-4
1. Name the substance, which is secreted by a pupa: [ ]
1) Chandrikas 2) Siricin 3) Reeling 4) Warp
2. Which among the following statements is false? [ ]
1) Natural fibres are made by cotton, wool and silk.
2) Artificial fibers are made by Nylon, Terylene and Rayon.
3) Woolen threads are made by Nylon, Terylene and Rayon.
4) The process of drawing and winding silk fibers is called “reeling”.
3. The threads are found to be arranged loosely with space in
1) Cotton 2) wool 3) Silk 4) none
4. The catepiller of silk moth enters a stage called_______
1) Larva 2) Pupa 3) Catepillar 4) Loom
5. Pupa secretes a substance called as________
1) Pupa 2) Larva 3) Siricin 4) Property
6. Next to food ______are essential to man
1) Books 2) Clothes 3) Building 4) Silk
7. Earlier man used____ leaves to cover his body
1) Animal skin 2) Clother 3) Weep 4) Silk
8. What type of clothes are used in summer season?
1) Cotton 2) Woolen 3) Rainy coats 4) Silk
JEE MAINS
1. Plants are dependent on which of the following gases [ ]
1) Carbon dioxide 2) Argon 3) Hydrogen 4) Carbon monoxide
2. The silkworm are reared in round bamboo foames are called as______ [ ]
1) Sericulture 2) Chandrikas 3) Pupa 4) Siricin
3. ______ sheep gives wool of the best quality [ ]
1) Merino 2) Mexico 3) Mushroom 4) Material
4.The ______ are placed in hot water to draw silkworm [ ]
1) Cocoons 2) Bamboo 3) Silk 4) Reels
5. ______ fibers are uniform in thickness [ ]
1) natural 2) artificial 3) wool 4) silk
6. Identify the insect that destroy clothes: [ ]
1) Spider 2) Catfish 3) Silver fish 4) Ant
7. The loom in which feet press the planks and the hands pull the ropes
is called:
1) Power loom 2) Hand loom 3) Machine loom 4) All the above
8. Identify the correct statement/s from the following:
1) Dark coloured clothes are dried in the sunshade.
2) Light coloured clothes are cleaned separately.
3) Detergents are useful in washing the clothes.
4) All the above.
JEE ADVANCED
9. Identify, which is / are natural fibers? [ ]
1) Cotton 2) Wool 3) Silk 4) Rayon
10. ______ and _______ are useful in washing the clothes [ ]
1) Soaps 2) Detergents 3) Clothes 4) Machines
11. Plants are dependent on which of the following gases? [ ]
1) Carbondioxide 2) Argon 3) Hydrogen 4) Helium
12.____ wash is used to remove oil and grease [ ]
1) Diesel 2) Petrol 3) Kerosene 4) Water
13. _____ coloured clothes are cleaned separately [ ]
1) Green 2) Dark 3) Light 4) Blue
Statement Type:
14. Statement I: Natural fibers are non-uniform in thickness.
Statement II: Artificial fibers are uniform in thickness.
Comprehension Type:
To protect the human body form various climatic conditions different types of clothes
are used. The thread made by the silk worm to weave the cocoon is called silk.
15. The process of drawing and winding silk fibers is called: [ ]
1) Peeling 2) Reeling 3) Wheeling 4) Looming
16. The silk worms are reared in round bamboo frames called: [ ]
1) Chandrikas 2) Reels
3) Transverse threads 4) Looms
17. The rearing of silk worms is called: [ ]
1) Tissue culture 2) Floriculture 3) Horticulture 4) Sericulture
Matrix Match Type:
a) Cotton fibers 1) Siricin
b) Woollen fibers 2) Takli charakha
c) Mulberry 3) Twisted
d) Spinning 4) Silk worm
5) Elastic
19. Identify, which is / are artificial fibers? [ ]
1) Terylene 2) Silk 3) Nylon 4) Rayon
20. Clothes need to be stored away from insects like _____ ________ etc., that destroy
them [ ]
1) Silverfish 2) Cockroaches 3) Lizards 4) Snail
21. ______ is inter lacing of length wise and transverse threads [ ]
1) Threads 2) Waep 3) Weaving 4) Burning
22. Which of the following are used by spinning machines? [ ]
1) Taklicharkha 2) Amber charka 3) Warp 4) Loom
23. The ________ is an instrument used for weaving cloth [ ]
1) Charkha 2) Loom 3) Threads 4) Warp
24. The length wise threads are known as____ [ ]
1) Charkha 2) Loom 3) Warp 4) Threads
25. The length wise threads are known as_____ [ ]
1) Natural 2) Artificial 3) Reeling 4) Silk
26. Cotton is _______ kind of fibers [ ]
1) Natural 2) Artificial 3) Reeling 4) Silk
27. _____ is made from the hair on skin of sheep [ ]
1) Wool 2) Cotton 3) Silk 4) Nylon
28. ______ threads are elastic [ ]
1) Cotton 2) Woolen 3) Terylene 4) Rayon
29. _______ fibers are found to be twisted [ ]
1) Cotton 2) Woolen 3) Terylene 4) Rayon
30. In _____ the threads are found to be woven very close to each other
1) silk 2) Cotton 3) Wool 4) Nylon [ ]
31. The _____ are placed in hot water to draw silk fibers
1) silk 2) Cotton 3) Wool 4) Nylon [ ]
32. The loom which runs on electric motor is called [ ]
1) Handloom 2) Powerloom 3) Burning 4) Cleaning
33. ______ and _______ clothes may spoil if we use soap and water
1) Silk sarees 2) Woolen sarees 3) Rain coats 4) Sweaters
34. For the brightness of white clothes ______ (or)_____ will be applied
1) Blue powder 2) green powder 3) blue liquid 4) Rylon [ ]
Statement Type:
35. Statement I: Cotton fibers are found to be twisted, and they are uniform thickness.
Statement II: Sweaters, mufflers are used in winter, because they do not permit
loss of heat from the body to the atmosphere.
Matrix Match Type:
36. Column – I Column - II
a) Summer 1) White
b) Winter 2) Rain coats
c) Rainy 3) Woolen
d) Doctors 4) Cotton
5) Silk
37. Identification of the variety of the thread becomes easy by [ ]
1) Oxidation 2) Reduction 3) Redox 4) Burning
38. To clean the clothes _______ machines are used [ ]
1) Washing 2) Dry cleaners 3) Vaccum cleaner 4) Mixie
39. _______ Clothes are dried in the shade [ ]
1) Light 2) Green 3) Blue 4) Dark
40. The dressing of the people depends upon their ______ condition [ ]
1) Dried 2) Shade 3) Climatic 4) Protect
41. Fill the following empty gaps
FIBERS
Ex. Cotton Ex. Terylene

Wool Nylon
Silk Rayon
1) Naturalk fibers, Artificial Fibers 2) Synthetic fibers, Non-uniform
3) Cheap, Costy 4) Last Long, Donot last long
Matrix Match Type:
a) Warp 1) Cleaning clothes with water
b) Dry cleaning 2) White coats as uniforms
c) Doctors 3) Uniform made and tough fibres
d) Soldiers 4) Cleaning clothes without water
Worksheet -4 key
CUQ:
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2 7) 1 8) 1
MAINS AND ADVANCED:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 4) 1 5) 2 6) 3 7) 2
8) 4 9) 1,2,3 10) 1,2 11) 1 12) 2 13) 3 14) 1
15) 2 16) 117) 4 18) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-2 19) 1,3,4 20) 1,2 21) 3
22) 1 23) 2 24)3 25) 2 26) 1 27) 1 28) 2
29) 1 30) 1 31) 2 32) 2 33) 1,2 34) 1,3 35) 4
36) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 37) 2 38) 1 39) 4 40) 3 41) 1
42) a-5, b-4, c-2, d-3 43) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
ACIDS BASES AND SALTS
Synopsis 1
The term acid has been derived from Latin word Acidus, which means sour. Large number of
fruits and vegetables have a sour taste. The sour taste of a lemon is due to citric acid, the
sour taste of grapes or tamarind is due to tartaric acid and that of vinegar is due to acetic
acid. Formic acid is present in the sting of brown ants The sharp pain caused by the sting of
an ant, battles and bees is due to formic acid which is pushed into our body. Vitamin C is
ascorbic acid present in citrus fruit.
A substance which dissolves in water to furnish H + ions as the only

positively charged ions, is called an acid
HCl H2 O H+ Cl−
(i) ⇔ +
Hydrochloric Hydrogen ion Chloride ion
H2 SH4 H2 O 2H + SO−2
4
(ii) ⇔ +
Sulphuric acid Hydrogen ion Sulphate ion
H3 PO4 H2 O 2H + PO3−
(iii) ⇔ + 4
Phosphoric acid Hydrogen ion Phoshate ion
The number of hydrogen ions (𝐻 + ) furnished by one molecule of an acid, on

dissolving in water, is called basicity of an acid.
Examples:
In equation (i) above, one molecule of hydrochloric acid furnishes one hydrogen ion,
therefore, its basicity is 1. In other words, hydrochloric acid is monobasic acid.
In equation (ii), one molecule of sulphuric acid furnishes two hydrogen ions, therefore, its
basicity is 2. In other words, sulphuric acid is a dibasic acid.
In equation (iii) above, one molecule of phosphoric acid furnishes three hydrogen ions,
therefore, its basicity is 3. In other words, phosphoric acid is a tribasic acid. Other example
of dibasic acid. Is phosphorus acid (H3 PO3 ).
CLASSIFICATION OF ACIDS ON THE BASIS OF ORIGIN
On the basis of their origin, the acids have been classified into two broad classes, i.e.,
organic acids and inorganic acid.
(a)Organic Acids:
The acids obtained from the plants or the animals are called organic acids.
These are naturally occurring acids. Some of them can be prepared artificially in laboratory.
Following are the examples of organic acids:
Acetic acid: Vinegar contains acetic acid. Its Formula is CH3 COOH. It is generally prepared
from alcohol.
Ascorbic acid: Lemons contain a large amount of ascorbic acid. It is commonly called vitamin
C.
Citric acid: Lemons and oranges contain a large amount of citric acid. It is used for making
sour soft drinks such as limca.
Maleic acid: It is found in large amount in apples.
Tartaric acid: It is found in large amount in grapes.
Lactic acid: IT is found in curd and milk.
Palmitic acid: Palm oil contains palmitic acid.
Oleic acid: Olive oil contains oleic acid.
Stearic acid: Mustard oil, rape seed oil contains stearic acid.
(b) Inorganic Acids:
The acids which are obtained from the minerals

present in earth, are called inorganic acids.
The inorganic acids are further subdivided into strong acid and weak acids.
Weak acids:
The acids in which less than 30% of the molecules of it ionize in water to furnish H + ions are
called weak acids.
It is useful to remember that all organic acids are weak acids.
WORKSHEET -1
1.A substance which dissolves in water to furnish H + ions as the only positively charged ions
is called:
1) Acid 2) Base 3) Salt 4) Basic salt
2. The number of hydrogen ions (H + ) furnished by one molecule of an acid on dissolving in
water is called:
1) Acidity of Base 2) Basicity of an acid
3) Organic acid 4) Inorganic acid
3. The acids obtained from the plants or animals are called:
1) Acidity of Base 2) Basicity of an acid
3) Organic acid 4) Inorganic acid
4. The acid present in vinegar is:
1) Ascorbic acid 2) Citric acid 3) Acetic acid 4) Citric acid
5. The acid present in Lemons and oranges is:
1) Ascorbic acid 2) Citric acid 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Acetic acid
6. The acid present in Grapes is:
1) Ascorbic acid 2) Tartaric acid 3) Lactic acid 4) Palmitic acid
7. The acid present in Apples is:
1) Maleic acid 2) Tartaric acid 3) Lactic acid 4) Palmitic acid
8. The acid present in curd and milks is:
9.The acid present in palm oil is:
10. The term acid has been derived from Latin word --------------
1) Acidus 2) Acidis 3) Atomic 4) Paramus
11. The Meaning of Acidus is ___________
1) Bitter 2) Sweet 3) Sour 4) All the above
12. The Sharp pain caused by the sting of an ant and battles is due to __________acid
1) Citric acid 2) Formic acid 3) Autic acid 4) Ascorbic acid
13. Basicity of hydrochloric acid is ___________
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
JEE MAINS
Single Correct Choice Type
1.Which of the following is/ are a monobasic acid?
1) H3 PO3 2) H2 SO3 3) HCN 4) (COOH)2
2. Which of the following is a weak acid?
1) Citric acid 2) Acetic acid 3) Maleic acid 4) All of these
3. The acids which are obtained from the minerals present in earth are called:
1) Organic acids 2) Strong acids 3) Inorganic acids 4) Weak acids
4. Which of the following is/ are source of citric acid?
1) Olive oil 2) Lemons 3) Oranges 4) Both 2 and 3
5. Which of the following acid is used for making sour drinks such as limca?
1) Maleic acid 2) Palm oil 3) Citric acid 4) Stearic acid
6. The formula of acetic acid is __________
1) HCOOH 2) (COOH)2 3) CH3 COOH 4) C2 H5 − COOH
7. The formula of phosphoric acid.
1) H3 PO3 2) H3 PO4 3) H2 SO4 4) H2 PO2
8. The acids in which less than 30% of the molecules of it ionize in water to furnish H + ions,
are called _________.
1) Weak acids 2) Strong acids
3) Neutral acids 4) Inorganic acids
9. The formula of oxalic acid is ___________
1) (COOH)2 2) HCOOH 3) H2 CO3 4) CH3 CHO
10. Which of the following acid is found in Olive Oil?
1) Palmitic acid 2) Stearic acid 3) Oleic acid 4) Lactic acid
11. The acid present in Mustard oil, rape seed oil is:
1) Oleic acid 2) Stearic acid 3) Inorganic acids 4) Strong acids.
12. Choose the correct classification:
Column I Column II Column III
I Monobasic acid H3 PO4 Dissociate to give two H + ions per
molecules of the acid.
II Dibasic acid HCL Dissociate to give three H + ions per

molecule of the acid
III Tribasic acid H2 SO4 Dissociate to give one H + ion per

molecule of the acid.
1) I → a → iii, II → a → i, III → a → ii,

2) I → b → iii, II → b → i, III → b → ii,
3) I → c → iii, II → c → i, III → c → ii,
4) I → d → iii, II → d → i, III → d → ii,
JEE ADVANCED
LEVEL-1 Multi Correct Choice Type:
13. Which of the following acid is dibasic acid?
1) Phosphoric acid 2) Oxalic acid 3) Sulphurous acid 4) Carbonic acid
14. Choose the correct statements:
1) Carbonic acid is a tribasic acid. 2) Phosphoric acid is a tribasic acid.
3) Hydrochloric acid is monobasic acid. 4) Nitric acid is dibasic acid.
15. Which of the following are monobasic acids?
1) H2 SO4 2) HCN 3) HCL 4) CH3 COOH
Statement Type:
16. Statement I: Ascorbic acid present in vitamin C
Statement II: Basicity of acids depends on the number of hydrogen ions in solution.
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is Incorrect.
17.Statement I: Acetic acid is weak acid
Statement II: All Organic acids are weak acids
Comprehension Type:
A substance which dissolves in water to furnish H + ions as the only positively charged ions,
is called an acid.
18. The chemical formula of acetic acid is:
1) H2 SO4 2) H2 CO3 3) CH3 COOH 4) HNO3
19. Sulphuric acid is:
1) Monobasic acid 2) Dibasic acid 3) Tribasic acid 4) Tetrabasic acid
20. Acetic acid is prepared from_________
1) Kerosene 2) Alcohol 3) Petrol 4) Water
Matrix Match Type:
Source Name of the acid
a) Lemon 1) Formic acid
b) Grapes 2) Acetic acid
c) Vinegar 3) Citric acid
d) Brown ants 4) Tartaric acid
Integer Answer Type
22. How many hydrogen atoms are present in tribasic acid?
LEVEL-2 &3 Multi Correct Choice Type:
23. Identify inorganic acid from the following.
1) Hydrochloric acid 2) Nitric acid 3) Tartaric acid 4) Lactic acid
24. Which of the following is/are organic acids?
1) Stearic acid 2) Lactic acid 3) Oleic acid 4) Palmitic acid
Statement Type:
25. Statement I: Lactic acid is found in curd and milk.
Statement I: Ascorbic acid is commonly called Vitamin C which is present in citrus fruits.
LEVEL-4&5 Statement Type
26. Statement I: Hydrocyanic acid is monobasic acid.
Statement II: One hydrogen ion furnished by one molecule of an acid on dissolving in water
is called mono basic acid.
SYNOPSIS 2
Strong acids: The acids in which more than 30% of the molecules of it ionize in water
to furnish 𝐻 + ions, are called strong acids.
Ex: sulphuric acid - H2 SO4 , Hydrochloric acid – HCL, Nitric acid -HNO3
Weak acids: Carbonic acid -H2 CO3 , Sulphurous acid -H2 SO3 , Nitrous acid - HNO2 ,
Phosphoric acid --H2 PO4 , Phosphorous acid - H3 PO3
The Preparatory method of acids is as follows:
Acidic oxides.
C CO2
O2
1. [ Corbon ] + → Carbon dioxide
[Oxygen] [ ]
non − metal (acidic oxide)
CO2 H2 O H2 CO3
2. + →
[Carbon dioxide ] [Water] [Carbonic acid]
SO2 H2 O H2 SO3
+ →
[Carbon Dioxide] [Water] [Sulphurous acid]
General Physical Properties of acids
They have a sour taste.
They turn blue litmus solution red.
They turn methyl orange solution pink.
They do not affect phenolphthalein solution.
Strong acid have corrosive action on skin. They cause painful blisters.
Most of the acids are soluble in water.
Concentrated sulphuric acid was earlier named oil of vitriol due to its oily
appearance. This term was coined by an Iranian alchemist. Jabir Ibn Haiyan, in the 8𝑡ℎ
century.
WORKSHEET 2
1.The acids in which more than 30% of the molecules of it ionize in water to furnish H + ions,
are called:
1) Weak acids 2) Stearic acid 3) Weak base 4) Strong acids.
2. Acids have a ________taste.
1) Sour 2) Bitter 3) Sweet 4) Taste less
3. Acids turn blue litmus solution solution to __________.
4) Acids turn methyl orange solution to ________.
1) Green 2) Blue 3) Yellow 4) Pink
JEE MAINS
Single Correct Choice Type
LEVEL-1 1. Which of the following are strong acids?
1) H2 SO4 2) HCL 3) HNO3 4) All of these
LEVEL-2 2. Which of the following is the correct preparatory method of acids?
1) 2NaOH + → Na2 SO4 + 2H2 O 2) CO + H2 O → H2 CO3
3) 4Na + O2 → 2Na2 O 4) SO2 + H2 O → H2 SO3
LEVEL-3 3. Oil of vitriol is:
1) Sulphuric acid. 2) Hydrochloric acid
2) Nitric acid 4) Acetic acid
JEE ADVANCED
LEVEL-1 Multi Correct Choice Type
4. which of the following is weak inorganic acid?
1) Phosphoric acid 2) Sulphuric acid 3) Nitrous acid 4) Carbonic acid
Statement Type
5. Statement I: Acid are formed by the reaction of oxides of non-metals with water
Statement II: CO2 + H2 O → H2 CO3
6. Statement I: Strong acids have corrosive active on skin.
Statement II: Strong acids cause painful blisters.
Comprehension Type
The Oxides of non-Metals which react with water to from acids are called acidic oxides.
Acids have a sour taste.
7. What is the product formed when carbon dioxide reacts with water?
1) Carbon Monoxide 2) Carbonic acid
3) Sulphuric acid 4) Sulphorous acid
8. Acids turns methyl orange solution:
1. Pink 2) Orange 3) Yellow 4) Blue
9. which of the following is the correct statement?
1) Acids affect Phenolphthalein solution
2) Strong acids have corrosive action on skin
3) Acids are insoluble in water
4) Acids turn blue litmus solution to white
Matrix Match Type
10. Column –I Column –II
a) Sulphorous acid 1) H2 CO3
b) Carbonic acid 2) H2 SO3
c) Acidic oxide 3)H2 PO3
d) Phosphorus acid 4) CO2
Synopsis-3
GENERAL CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF ACIDS
Action with metals: Metals displace hydrogen from the acids. It has been found that when
metals like magnesium, aluminum, zinc and iron are treated with dilute hydrochloric acid or
dilute sulphuric acid, they displace hydrogen.
Examples:
Metal + Acid(dil.) → Metal +salt + Hydrogen
Zn H2 SO4 ZnSO4 H2
(i) + → +
Zinc Dil. Sulphuric acid Zinc sulphate Hydrogen
Mg 2HCl(dill. ) ZnCl2 H O
(ii) + → + 2
Magnesium Dil. Hydrochloric acid Zinc Chloride water
Action with metallic oxides: All dilute mineral acids (sulphuric acid, hydrochloric acid and
nitric acid), react with all metallic oxides to form their respective metallic salts and water
only.
Examples:
Metal + Acid(dill.) → Metal salt + Water
CaO 2HNO3 Ca(NO3 )2 H2
(i) + → +
Calcium oxide Dil. Nitric acid Calcium nitrate water
ZnO 2HCl(dil. ) ZnCl2 H O

(ii) + → + 2
Zinc oxide Dil. Hydrochloric acid zinc Chloride water
Action with metallic hydroxides: All dilute mineral acids react with all metallic hydroxides to
form their respective metallic salts and water only.
Examples:
Metallic Metallic Carbon
+ Acid (dil.) → + + water
Hydroxide salt dioxide
2NaOH H2 SO3 Na2 SO4
2H2 O
(i) Sodium + Sulphuric → Sodium +
Hydroxide acid(dil. ) water
sulphate
Ca(OH)2 2HCl CaCl2
2H2 O
(ii) Calcium + Hydrochloric → Calcium +
acdi(dil) water
Hydroxide Chloride
Action with metallic Carbonates: All dilute mineral acids react with metallic carbonates to
form their respective metallic salts, carbon dioxide gas and water.
Examples:
Metallic Metallic Carbon
+ Acid(dil. ) → + + Water
carbonate salt dioxide
2MgCO3 H2 SO4 MgSO4 CO2
Sulphuric Magnesium H2 O
(i) magnesium + → + + Carbon
water
carbonate acid (dil. ) sulphate dixoide
ZnCO3 2HCl ZnCl2 CO2

Hydrochloric H2 O
(ii) Zinc + → Zinc + Carbon +
acid(dil) water
carbonate chloride dioxide
USES OF ACIDS (a) Sulphuric Acid
 It is used in the manufacture of fertilisers.
 It is used in car batteries.
 It is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, paints, plastics, detergents etc.
(b) Hydrochloric Acid
 It is used for cleaning metal surfaces during tinning and galvanizing.
 It is used in dyeing industry.
 It is used for preparing glucose from starch.
(c) Nitric Acid
 It is used in the manufacture of fertilizers such as ammonium nitrate and calcium
ammonium nitrate.
 It is used in the manufacture of explosives such as TNT (trinitrotoluene) and TNG
(trinitroglycerine).
 It is used in the purification of metals such as gold and silver.
Nitric acid is normally considered to be a strong acid at ambient temperatures. There is some
disagreement over the value of the acid dissociation constant, though the pka value is usually
reported as less than -1. This means that the nitric acid in solution is fully dissociated except
in extremely acidic solutions. The pka value rises to 1 at a temperature of 250° 𝐶.
(d) Phosphoric Acid

 It is used in the manufacture of phosphatic fertilisers.
(e) Carbonic acid
 It is commonly called plain soda. Mixed with citric acid and sugar it is used for
making soft drinks.
(f) Acetic Acid:
 It is used as a table acid and for the preservation of food articles.
(g) Tartaric Acid
 It is used in the manufacture of banking powder.
Objective question:
1. The acids in which more than 30% of the molecules of it ionize in water to furnish H +
ions, are called
1) Weak acids 2) Stearic acid 3) Weak base 4) Strong acids
2. Acids have a _____ taste.
1) Sour 2) Bitter 3) Sweet 4) Taste less
3. Acids turn blue litmus solution to _____.
1) Green 2) Red 3) Yellow 4) white
4. Acids turn methyl orange solution to _____.
1) Green 2) Red 3) Yellow 4) Pink
5. Which of the following are strong acids?
1) H2 SO4 2) HCl 3) HHNO3 4) All of these
6. Which of the following is the correct preparatory method of acids?
1) 2NaOH + O2 ⟶ Na2 SO4 + 2H2 O 2) CO + H2 O ⟶ H2 CO3
3) 4Na + O2 ⟶ 2Na2 O 4) SO2 + H2 O ⟶ H2 SO3
7. Oil of vitriol is:
1) Sulphuric acid. 2) Hydrochloric acid 3) Nitric acid 4) Acetic acid
8. Zinc react with dilute sulphuric acid to form:
1) Zinc sulphate 2) Hydrogen 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Oxygen
9. Magnesium react with dilute hydrochloric acid to form:
1) Magnesium chloride 2) Hydrogen 3) Bothe 1 and 2 4) Nitrogen
10. All dilute mineral acids react with all metallic oxides to form their respective _____.
1) Metallic salts 2) Hydrogen 3) Water 4) Both 1 and 3
11. All dilute mineral acids react with all metallic carbonates to form their respective ____.
1) Metallic salts 2) Carbon dioxide 3) Water 4) All of these
12. Which of the following acid is used in car batteries?
1) Sulphuric acid 2) Hydrochloric acid 3) Nitric acid 4) Acetic acid
13. Metals displace _____ from the acids
1) Oxygen 2) Carbon dioxide 3) hydrogen 4) Nitrogen
14. Which of the following acid is used in the purification of gold and silver?
1) Acetic acid 2) Nitric acid 3) tartaric acid 4) Sulphuric acid
15. Which of the following acid used for preparing glucose from starch?
16. Which of the following acid used in manufacture of explosives such as TNT and TNG.
17. Metallic oxide + I ⟶II + Water
1) I ⟶Acid, II ⟶Metallic salt 2) I⟶Base, II⟶Non-metallic salts
3) I⟶Acid, II⟶Non-metallic salt 4) I⟶Base, II⟶Metallic salt
18. Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl ⟶ CaCl2 +2H2 O Which of the following statements is /are true for the
above reaction?
1) A metallic oxide reacts with an acid to form salt and water
2) A non-metallic oxide reacts with an acid to form salt and water
3) A metallic hydroxide reacts with an acid to form salt and water
4) A non-metallic oxide reacts with and acid to form base and water
19. Zn+I⟶ZnSO4 +II Find I and II.
1) I⟶ HSO4 , II ⟶ 2H2 2) I⟶2HSO4 , II ⟶2H2
3) I⟶2H2 SO4 , II ⟶ H2 4) I⟶ H2 SO4 , II⟶ H2
20. Which of the following is called as plain soda?
1) Phosphoric acid 2) Acetic acid 3) Nitric acid 4) Carbonic acid
21. Which of the following is used as Table acid?
1)Carbonic acid 2) Nitric acid 3) Acetic acid 4) Sulphuric acid
22. Which of the following acid is used in the purification of gold and silver?
1) Carbonic acid 2) acetic acid 3) Hydrochloric acid 4) Nitric acid
Answers:
1.4 2.1 3.2 4.4 5.4 6.4 7.1 8.3 9.3 10.4
11.4 12.1 13.3 14.2 15.2 16.3 17.1 18.3 19.4 20.4
21.3 22.4
Synopsis-4
BASES AND ALKALIS
(a) Bases
Definition:
The substances which react with acids to form salt and water as the only products are called
bases.
 All oxides of metals are bases.
 All hydroxides of metals are bases.
 The name of all bases start with the name of a metal and end with the oxide or
hydroxide.
(b) Alkalies
 All bases which are soluble in water are called alkalies.
 This special name given to the bases indicates that they are soluble in water.
Strong and weak bases:
 The oxides and hydroxides of sodium and potassium are strong bases. They are very
soluble in water.
 The oxides and hydroxides of all other metals are weak bases. They are very soluble in
water.
 The oxides and hydroxides of all other metals are weak bases.
 They are sparingly soluble in water or insoluble in water. Ammonium hydroxide
obtained by dissolving ammonia gas in water is also a weak base.
Preparation of Bases:
By direct combination of metals with oxygen:
Most of the metals when heated, catch fire and burn to form their oxides.
Examples:
 The oxides of metals are commonly called basic oxides, because they react with acids
to form salt and water as only products.
Preparation of Alkalies:
 The alkalies are prepared by dissolving basic oxides of calcium, magnesium, potassium
and sodium in water.
Examples:
 Ammonium hydroxide is commonly called ammonia solution or ammonia liquor. It

does not contain any metal ion,
 Instead, ammonium radical (NH4+ ) acts as positively charged metal ion.
 Hydrangea macrophylla, an ornamental plant, can blossom in different colours
depending upon the chemistry of the soil. In acidic soil, the flower colour is blue, in
basic soilpink, and in neutral soil white.
Objective question:
1. Sodium metal react with oxygen to form:
1) Sodium oxide 2) Sodium hydroxide
3) Sodium carbonate 4) Sodium bicarbonate
2. The substances which react with acids to form salt and water as the only products are
called___
1) Metals 2) Salts 3) Bases 4) Non-metals
3. The oxides of metals are commonly called:
1) Acidic oxides 2) Basic oxides
3) Neutral oxides 4) Amphoteric oxide
4. Hydroxides of metals are ___ in nature
1) Acidic 2) Basic 3) Neutral 4) All the
above
5. Potassium oxide react with water to form
1) Sodium oxide 2) Sodium hydroxide
3) Potassium hydroxide 4) Sodium bicarbonate
6. Ammonium hydroxide is commonly called:
1) Ammonia solution 2) ammonia liquor
3) both 1 and 2 4) sodium bicarbonate
7. All properties of alkalis are due to the presence of the ___ formed on dissociation of
the alkali in water
1) H+ 2) H2O+ions 3) O−
2 4) OH- ions
8. All bases which are soluble in water are called as ____
1) Alkalies 2) Salts 3) acids 4) Neutral
9. The oxides and hydroxides of all other metals (except Na and K) are ____
1) Strong bases 2) weak bases 3) neutral salts 4) acidic salts
10. What is the product formed when potassium oxide reacts with water?
1) NaOH 2) Na2 O 3) Ca(OH)2 4) KOH
11. The oxides of metals are commonly called ___ because they react with acids to form
salt and water as only products.
1) Salts 2) Non-metals 3) basic oxides 4) acidic oxides
12. Which of the following is correct statement?
1) The oxides of metals are commonly called basic oxides.
2) The oxides and hydroxides of sodium and potassium are strong bases.
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of these.
13. Ammonium hydroxide is obtained by dissolving ____ gas in water
1) CO2 2) N2 3) NH3 4) SO2
14. Metals on direct combination with oxygen gives corresponding
1) Metal oxides 2) metal hydroxides
3) metal carbonates 4) metal chlorides
15. 4Na + O2 A. Then, find A

1) Na2 O 2) NaO2 3) NaO 4) All the above
16. 2Mg + B ⟶ 2MgO, then find B
1) O3 2) O2 3) CO2 4) CO
17. Choose the false statements:
1) Na2 O is base 2) NaOH is base
3) CaO is base 4)Al(OH)3 is acid
18. The colour of hydrangea macrophylla flower in acidic soil is____
1) Pink 2) white 3) blue 4) colourless
19. Na2 O+A⟶2NaoH. Then, find A
1) H2 O2 2) H2 3) O2 4) H2 O
20. The colour of hydrangea macrophylla flower in basic soil is ___
21. The colour of hydrangea macrophylla flower in neutral soil is ____
22. Which of the following hydroxides do not contain metal cation?
1) Calcium hydroxide 2) potassium hydroxide
3) magnesium hydroxide 4) ammonium hydroxide
23. Which of the following is strong bases?
1) KOH 2) Ca(OH)2 3) NH4 OH 4) Mg(OH)2
24. Choose the correct classification of bases:
i)Fe(OH)2 ii) Na2 O iii) MgO
(i) (ii) (iii)
1) hydroxide oxide of metal oxide of metal oxide of metal
2) oxide of metal hydroxide of metal oxide of metal
3) oxide of metal oxide of metal hydroxide of metal
4) None of the above
Answers:
1.1 2.2 3.2 4.3 5.3 6.3 7.4 8.1 9.2 10.4
11.3 12.3 13.3 14.1 15.1 16.2 17.4 18.3 19.3 20.1
21.2 22.4 23.1 24.1

Synopsis-5
PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF BASES:

Taste: All bases / alkalis have a bitter taste.
Slippery touch: All bases and alkali solutions have a soupy touch like that of soap.
Corrosive action: The bases/alkalis on coming in contact with skin produce very painful blister.
Sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide are extremely corrosive in nature and should not
be touched with bare hands.
General chemical properties of bases/alkalies:
Action with heat:
 Sodium hydroxide(NaOH) and potassium hydroxide (KOH) do not decompose on
heating. However they melt, when strongly heated.
 Ammonium hydroxide decompose rapidly on warming to form ammonia gas and
water.
 All other metallic hydroxides decompose on strong heating to form respective

metallic oxides and water.
Examples:
Action with acids:

All acids react with base to form salt and water as the only products.
To prepare a basic oxide and an alkali from a metal
Definition:
The process due to which an acid completely reacts with a base to form salt and water as
the products is called neutralisation.
USES OF BASES/ALKALIES:
Caustic soda and Caustic potash:
 They are extensively used in the manufacture of soaps from vegetable oils.
 They are used in paper industry for preparing paper pulp.
 They are used for making artificial fibers such as rayon, nylon, etc.
 They are used in the manufacture of medicines.
Calcium oxide and calcium hydroxide:
 They are used for neutralization of acidity of the acidic soils.
 Calcium hydroxide suspension is used for white washing.
 Calcium hydroxide is used for making mortar which is used in the construction of
buildings.
 Calcium hydroxide is used for removing hair from the animal skins.
 Calcium hydroxide is used for preparing bleaching powder.
Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide
 They are used as antacids for relieving acidity in the stomach.
 For sulphuric acid it has been said that the amount of this acid a country uses is a fair
indication of the health of its economy. In fact, because of its industrial importance,
sulphuric acid is called the king of chemicals.
1. All bases have ____ taste.
1) Sour 2) bitter 3) sweet 4) tasteless
2. Which of the following bases do not decompose on heating?
1) Sodium hydroxide 2) potassium hydroxide
3) both 1 and 2 4) calcium hydroxide
3. Ammonium hydroxide decomposes rapidly on warming to form:
1) Ammonia gas 2) water 3) both 1 and 2 4) hydrogen
4. Copper hydroxide decomposes on strong heating to form ____
1) Hydrogen 2) water 3) copper oxide 4) both 2 & 3
5. Calcium hydroxide decomposes on strong heating to form:
1) Calcium oxide 2) water 3) both 1 and 2 4) hydrogen
6. The process due to which an acid completely reacts with a base to form salt and
water is called:
1) Neutralization 2) acid 3) base 4) week acid
7. Which of the following is used in the manufacture of soaps from vegetable oils?
1) Sodium hydroxide 2) caustic soda
3) caustic potash 4) both 2 & 3
8. Which of the following are used in paper industry for preparing pulp?
3) caustic soda 4) all of these
9. Caustic soda is used in the manufacture of ____
1) Bleaching powder 2) medicines 3) mortar 4) all of these
10. Which of the following is used for preparing bleaching powder?
3) calcium hydroxide 4) magnesium hydroxide
11. Which of the following is used as and acid for relieving acidity in the stomach?
3) calcium hydroxide 4) magnesium hydroxide
12. Which of the following is the king of chemicals?
1) Nitric acid 2) hydrochloric
3) sulphuric acid 4) acetic acid
13. ____ have a soapy touch
1) Acids 2) bases 3) salts 4) all of these
14. ____ should not be touched with bare hands.
1) Calcium hydroxide 2) sodium hydroxide
3) potassium hydroxide 4) both 2 & 3
15. Which of the following bases is/are used in the manufacture of paper industry?
1) Caustic soda 2) magnesium hydroxide
3) sodium hydroxide 4) both 1 and 3
16. NH4OH X + H2O what is x

1) H2 2) O2 3) NH3 4) NaOH
17. Ca(OH)2 X + H2O

1) CuO 2) CaO 3) Ca2O 4) CaO2
18. _____ is used for removing hair from the animal skins.
1) Caustic soda 2) caustic potash
3) magnesium hydroxide 4) calcium hydroxide
19. Which of the following is a correct statement?
1) Sodium hydroxide and Potassium hydroxide decompose on heating.
2) Acids reacts with bases to form salt and water.
3) Calcium oxide and calcium hydroxide are used for making artificial fibers such as
rayon, nylon etc.
4) Caustic soda is used as antacids.
1) Sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide are extremely corrosive in nature.
2) Sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide do not decompose on heating.
3) Caustic soda and caustic potash are used in the manufacture of medicines.
4) All of these.
21. Which of the following is correct statement?
1) Calcium hydroxide suspension is used for white washing.
2) Calcium hydroxide is used for removing hair from animal skin.
3) Calcium hydroxide is used for preparing bleaching powder.
4) All of these.
Answers:
1.2 2.3 3.3 4.4 5.3 6.1 7.4 8.4 9.2 10.3
11.4 12.3 13.2 14.4 15.4 16.3 17.2 18.4 19.2 20.4
21.4
Synopsis-6
SALTS:
Definition:
A substance formed by the neutrallisation of an acid with a base is called salt.
Examples:
Kinds of salts:
Normal Salt
 If you carefully study the above chemical equations, you will notice that salts are
formed, when hydrogen ions of an acid are completely replaced by metal ions. For
example, in case of sodium sulphate, a salt is formed when all the hydrogen ions in
the molecule of sulphuric acid are replaced by sodium ions. Similarly, copper chloride
is formed when all the hydrogen ions of hydrochloric acid are replaced by a copper
ion. From the above discussion, a normal salt can be defined as follows:
 A salt formed by the complete replacement of the hydrogen ions (H+) of an acid with
metal ions (or positively charged ions) is called a normal salt.
Examples of normal salts:
Following is the list of some common normal salts:
(i)sodium chloride(NaCl) (ii) Sodium sulphate (Na2 SO4 )
(iii) Sodium nitrate(NaNO3 ) (iv) Sodium carbonate (Na2 CO3 )
(v) Potassium chloride(KCl) (vi) Potassium sulphate (K 2 SO4 )
(vii) Calcium carbonate (CaCO3 ) (viii) Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4 )
(ix) Copper nitrate (Cu(NO3 )2 ) (x) Lead sulphide(PbS)
(xi) Zinc nitrate (Zn(NO3 )2 ) (xii) Aluminium carbonate (Al2 (CO3 )3 )
Acid Salts:
Definition
 A salt formed by the partial replacement of H+ ions of an acid from its molecule, with
metal ions, is called acid salt.
 The acid salt on dissolving in water furnishes hydrogen ion (H+) and turns blue litmus
solution red.
In the above reaction between sodium hydroxide solution and sulphuric acid, only one
H+ ions of the molecule of H2 SO4 is replaced by Na+ ion. The salt so formed is sodium
hydrogen sulphate, which is an acid salt.
It shows that when acid salt is dissolved in water, it furnishes H + ions, and hence, is
acidic in nature.
Examples of acid salts:
 Sodium hydrogen sulphate [NaHSO4 ]
 Sodium hydrogen carbonate [NaHCO3 ]
 Sodium hydrogen sulphite [NaHSO3 ]
 Potassium hydrogen sulphate [KHSO4 ]
 Potassium hydrogen carbonate[KHCO3 ]
 Potassium hydrogen sulphite [KHSO3 ]
 Calcium hydrogen carbonate [Ca(HCO3 )2 ]
 Calcium hydrogen sulphate [Ca(HSO4 )2
 Magnesium hydrogen carbonate [Mg(HCO3 )2 ]
 Magnesium hydrogen sulphate [Mg(HSO3 )2]
Basic Salt:
Definition
 A salt formed by the partial neutralization of hydroxyl ions(OH-) of a base, by an acid
is called basic salt
 The basic salt on dissolving in water furnishes OH- ions and turns red litmus blue.
Examples of basic salts:
 Zinc hydroxyl chloride [Zn(OH)Cl]
 Copper hydroxyl chloride [Cu(OH)Cl]
1. The substance formed by the neutralization of an acid with a base is called:
1) Acid 2) Base 3) salt 4) organic acid
2. A salt formed by the complete replacement of the hydrogen ions (H + ) of an acid with
metal ions is called:
1) Normal salt 2) acid salt 3) basic salt 4) hydrated salts
+
3. A salt formed by the partial replacement of H ions of an acid from its molecule with
metal ions is called:
1) Normal salt 2) acid salt 3) basic salt 4) hydrated salts
4. The formula of copper nitrate is
1) Cu(NO3 )2 2) Cu(NO2 )3 3) Cu(NO3 )3 4) Cu(NO4 )2
5. The formula of calcium hydrogen carbonate is
1) Ca(HCO3 )3 2) Ca(HCO3 )2 3) Ca2 (HCO3 )2 4) Ca2 (HCO3 )3
6. The formula of Magnesium hydrogen sulphate is
1) [Mg(HSO4 )3 ] 2) [Mg(HSO2 )2]
3) [Mg[HSO4 2 ] 4) [Mg[HSO3 )2]
7. Which of the following is normal salt?
1) Sodium chloride 2) calcium oxide
3) aluminium hydroxide 4) magnesium hydroxide
8. The no of oxygen atoms present in Zinc nitrate.
1) 4 2) 6 3) 3 4) 2
9. The formula of aluminium carbonate is

1) Al2 (CO3 )2 2) Al2 (CO2 )3 3) Al2 (CO3 )3 4) Al(CO3 )3
10. The formula zinc nitrate is.
1) Zn(NO3 ) 2) Zn(NO)2 3) Zn(NO)3 4) Zn(NO3 )2
11. Total no. of atoms present in sodium carbonate.
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 3
12. Which of the following is example of acid salt?
1) NaOH 2) NaCl 3) NaHSO4 4) SO2
13. NaHSO4 Na+ + H+ + X what is X

−1
1) SO4 2) SO−2
4 3) SO−3
4 4) SO−4
4
14. NaOH + H2 SO4 ⟶ X + H2 O
1) Na2 SO4 2) NaHSO4 3) NaHCO3 4) Na3 SO4
15. The number of Sulphur atoms present in calcium hydrogen sulphate.
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1
16. The formula of copper nitrate is:
1) Cu(NO3 ) 2) Cu(NO)2 3) Cu(NO)3 4)Cu(NO3 )2
17. Acid+ Base ⟶ Salt + Water
A+2NaOH ⟶ Na2 SO4 +B
1) A⟶NaCl, B⟶ H2O 2) A⟶ H2 SO4 , B⟶2H2
3) A⟶HCl, B⟶ H2O 4) A⟶2H2 SO4 , B⟶ H2O
1) A substance formed by the neutralization of an acid with a base is called salt
2) A salt formed by the complete replacement of the hydrogen ions of an acid with
metal ions is called normal salt.
3) A salt formed by the partial replacement of H+ ions of an acid from its molecule,
with metal ions is called acid salt
4) All of these
19. Which of the following is Example of acid salt?
1) NaHSO4 2) NaHCO3 3) NaHSO3 4) All of these
20. Which of the following is normal salt?
1) NaHSO4 2) NaHCO3 3) Na2 SO4 4) Na2 HSO3
21. The chemical name of Mg(HCO3 )2 :
1) Magnesium carbonate 2) magnesium hydrogen carbonate
3) magnesium hydroxide 4) magnesium sulphate
22. The chemical name of NaHSO3
1) Sodium hydrogen sulphate 2) sodium hydrogen sulphite
3) sodium bi sulphate 4) sodium bi hydrogen sulphate
23. The number of Sodium atoms present in sodium carbonate
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
24. The number of potassium atoms present in potassium sulphate.
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2
25. Which of the following is/are acid salts?
1) NaHSO4 2) NaHCO3 3) KHSO4 4)
All of these
26. NaOH + A ⟶ B + H2 O. What is A, B?
1) A⟶HSO4 , B⟶ Na2 SO4 2) A⟶ H2 SO4 , B⟶ Na2 SO4
3) A⟶2H2 SO4 , B⟶ Na2 SO4 4) A⟶ H2 SO4 , B⟶NaHSO4
Answers:
1.3 2.1 3.2 4.1 5.2 6.3 7.1 8.2 9.3 10.2
11.1 12.2 13.2 14.2 15.1 16.4 17.2 18.4 19.4 20.3
21.2 22.2 23.1 24.3 25.4 26.4

Synopsis-7
NAMING OF SALTS
 Salts obtained from the Sulphuric acid are called sulphate.

 Examples: Sodium sulphate (Na2SO4); copper sulphate (CuSO4).
 Salts obtained from hydrochloric acid are called chlorides.
 Examples: Potassium chloride (KC𝑙); zinc chloride (ZnC𝑙 2).
 Salts obtained from nitric acid are called nitrates.
 Examples: Calcium nitrate [Ca(NO3)2]; lead nitrate [Pb(NO3)2].
 Salts obtained from carbonic acid are called carbonates.
 Examples: Calcium carbonate (CaCO3); magnesium carbonate (MgCO3).
 Salts obtained from phosphoric acid are called phosphates.
 Examples: Calcium phosphate [Ca3(PO4)2]; potassium phosphate K3PO4. In all the
above salts, the metal part is a basic radical and non-metallic part is an acidic radical.
USES OF SALTS IN DAILY LIFE
 Common Salt: It is used in large amount as table salt. It is used for preservation of
food in pickling. It is used to preserve raw hides. It is used in the manufacture of
chemicals such as chlorine and caustic soda (NaOH).
 Baking Soda: It is used for making baking powder. It is used for preparing antacid
tablets, for controlling acidity of stomach.
 Washing Soda: It is used by washer men to wash clothes. It is used in manufacture of
glass and caustic soda. It is used in fire extinguishers. It is used in the manufacture of
detergents.
 Chile saltpeter: It is used in the manufacture of nitric acid, gun powder and
fireworks.
 Niter: It is used as a fertilizer. It is also used in the manufacture of gun powder,
fireworks and nitric acid.
 Smelling salt: It provides relief from common cold.
 Epsom Salt: It is used as a laxative by patients suffering from constipation.
 Green vitriol: It is used in making blue black inks and in curing leather.
 Blue vitriol: It is used as fungicide in agriculture. It is used in dyeing and printing
industry. It is used in electroplating copper metal.
 Plaster of Paris: It is used for making statues. It is used for setting broken bones.
 Potash alum: It helps in rapid settling of suspended impurities in water. It is used for
the purification of water.
COMMON NAMES OF SALTS
Certain salts are better known by their common names, rather than by their
chemical names. The following table shows some of the salts, along with their common
names, chemical names and chemical formulae:
Common Name Chemical Name Formula
Common salt or Table salt Sodium chloride NaCl
Washing soda Sodium hydrogen carbonate NaHCO3
Soda ash Anhydrous sodium carbonate Na2CO3.10H2O
Chile saltpetre Sodium nitrate Na2CO3
Nitre Potassium nitrate KNO3
Smelling salt Ammonium carbonate (NH4)2CO3
Epson salt Hydrated magnesium sulphate MgSO4.7H2O
Green vitriol Hydrated ferrous sulphate FeSO4.7H2O
Blue vitriol Hydrated copper sulphate CuSO4.5H2O
Chalk or limestone or marble Calcium carbonate CaCO3
1
Plaster of Paris Hydrated calcium sulphate CaSO4. 2 H2O
White vitriol Hydrated zinc sulphate ZnSO4.7H2O
1) The chemical name of common salt is:
1) Sodium chloride 2) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
3) Hydrated sodium carbonate 4) Sodium nitrate
2) The chemical name of baking soda is:
3) The chemical name of washing soda is:
4) The chemical name of Chile saltpeter is:
5) The chemical formula of Epsom salt is:
1
1) MgSO4.7H2O 2) FeSO4.7H2O 3) CuSO4.5H2O 4) CaSO4. H2O
2
6) The chemical formula of Green vitriol is:
1
1) MgSO4.7H2O 2) FeSO4.7H2O 3) CuSO4.5H2O 4) CaSO4. 2 H2O
7) The Chemical formula of Blue vitriol is:
1
8) The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is:
1
9) Which of the following salt is used to preserve raw hides?
1) NaCl 2) NaHCO3 3) KaCO3 4) NaNO3
10) The chemical name of nitre is:
1) Sodium Nitrate 2) Potassium nitrate
3) Calcium nitrate 4) Ammonium nitrates
11) The chemical name of smelling salt is:
1) Epsom salt 2) Hydrated magnesium sulphate.
3) Ammonium carbonate 4) Potassium phosphate
12) Ca3(PO4)2 represents calcium phosphate. Which of the following statements is true for
the above salt?
1)The metal part is a basic radical.
2) The non-metallic part is an acidic radical.
3)The metal part is an acidic radical.
4) Both 1 & 2
13) Which of the following salts is used in electroplating copper metal?
1) Green vitriol 2) Blue vitriol 3) White vitriol 4) Red vitriol
14) Statement I: Chile saltpeter is used in the manufacture of nitric acid.
Statement II: Potash alum helps in rapid settling of suspended impurities in water.
Certain salts are better known by their common names, rather than by their chemical
names.
15) The common name for hydrated copper sulphate is:
1) Green vitriol 2) Blue vitriol 3) White vitriol 4) Red vitriol
16) The common name for calcium carbonate is:
1) Chalk 2) Limestone 3) Marble 4) All the above
17) The chemical name for baking soda is:
1) Hydrogen carbonate 2) Sodium carbonate
3) Sodium hydrogen carbonate 4) Sodium nitrate
18) Column-I Column-II
1
A) Smelling salt 1) CaSO4. 2 H2O
B) Chalk 2) (NH4)2CO3
C) Plaster of Paris 3) Na2CO3
D) Soda ash 4) CaCO3
Answers:
1. 2 2.2 3.3 4.4 5.1 6.2 7.3 8.4 9.1 10.2

11.3 12.4 13.3 14.1 15.2 16.4 17.3 18. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
Synopsis 1
INTRODUCTION
 Branch of Physical chemistry which deals with structure of atom is known as atomic structure.
Atom
 Nuclear part (Protons and neutrons)
 Extranuclear part (Electrons)
Dalton’s Atomic Structure:

Theory Main postulates of Dalton atomic:
1. Matter is composed of very tiny or microscopic particles called "Atom".
2. Atom is an indivisible particle.
3. Atom can neither be created nor it is destroyed.
4. Atoms of an element are identical in size, shape, mass and in other properties.
5. Atoms of different elements are different in their properties.
6. Atoms combine with each other in small whole numbers.
7. All chemical reactions are due to combination or separation of atoms.
Defects in Dalton’ s theory:
 Postulate number 2, 3, 4 and 6 are not correct as described below:
Defect no: 1
 Atom can be divided into a number of sub-atomic particles such as electron, proton and neutron
etc.
Defect no: 2
 Atoms of an element may be different in their masses.
for example:
1 2 3
H, H, H
1 1 1
35 37
Cl , Cl
17 17
Defect no: 3
 All compounds do not have small number of atoms.
for example:
 Decane C H .
10 22
 Sugar C H O .
12 22 11
Defect no: 4
 Atom can be destroyed by fission process in
1. Atom bomb.
2. Nuclear reactor.
 On the basis of above defects, Dalton's atomic theory has failed now.
Do You Know
1. For this work, Thomson was a awarded the Nobel prize in Physics in 1906.
2. Gases are ordinary poor conductors of electricity.
WORKSHEET – 1
CUQ:
1. Smallest particle of an element that takes part in a chemical reaction is called
1) Atom
2) Molecule
3) Compound
4) Complex
2. Which consists of particle of matter?
1) Alpha rays
2) Beta rays
3) Cathode rays
4) All
3. Cathode rays can be deflected by:
1) Magnetic field only
2) Electric field only
3) Both types of fields
4) None
4. Which is not deflected by magnetic field?
1) Proton
2) Neutron
3) Electron
4) Positron
5. The charge on an electron is
1) -4.8 × 10−10
2) -1.6 × 10−19
3) Unit negative
4) All
6. Mass of an electron is:
1) 9.1× 10−28 g
2) 9.1× 10−25 g
3) 9.1× 10−10 g
4) 9.1× 10−18 g
7. Which one of the following describes an electron?
1) 0 charge, ‘0’ amu
2) -1 charge, 1 amu
3) +1 charge, 1 amu
4) -1 charge, 0 amu
8. The e/m is not constant for
1) Cathode rays
2) Positive rays
3) 𝛼 – rays
4) 𝛽 – rays
9. The e/m for positive rays in comparison to cathode rays is:
1) Very low
2) High
3) Same
4) None
10. Heaviest particle is:
1) Meson
2) Electron
3) Proton
4) Neutron
11. Positive rays are:
1) Electromagnetic waves
2) Electrons
3) Positively charged gaseous ions
4) Neutrons
12. Proton is:
1) Nucleus of deuterium
2) Ionized hydrogen molecule
3) Ionized hydrogen atom
4) An 𝛼 – particle
13. Neutron possess:
1) Positive charge
2) No net charge
3) Negative charge
4) All are correct
14. Which one of the following describes a neutron?
1) +1 charge, 1 amu mass
2) 0 charge, 1 amu mass
3) -1 charge, 0 amu mass
4) 0 charge, 0 amu mass
JEE MAINS:
Single Correct choice Type:
LEVEL – 1
1. The electron is:
1) 𝛼 – ray particle
2) 𝛽 – ray particle
3) Hydrogen ion
4) Positron
2. Cathode rays are:
1) Protons
2) Electrons
3) Neutrons
4) 𝛼 – particles
3. Cathode rays are made up of:
1) Positively charged particles
2) Negatively charged particles
3) Neutral particles
4) None of these
4. Anode rays were discovered by:
1) Goldstein
2) J. Stoney
3) Rutherford
4) J.J.Thomson
5. Cathode rays have:
1) Mass only
2) Charge only
3) No mass and charge
4) Mass and charge both
6. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
1) Rutherford – nucleus
2) J.J.Thomson – Elecrron
3) J.H.Chadwick – Neutron
4) Bohr – Isotope
7. Which of the following is correct for cathode rays in discharge tube
1) Independent of the nature of the cathode
2) Independent of the nature of the gas
3) Is observed in presence of electric and magnetic field
4) All the above
8. Magnitude of deflection of cathode rays in discharge tube is more when
1) Magnitude of charge of the particle is more
2) Greater interaction with the electric or magnetic field
3) Less mass of the particle
4) All the above
9. The argument which favors the particular nature of cathode rays is:
1) They produce florescence
2) They travel through vacuum
3) They get deflected by electric and magnetic fields
4) They cast shadows of objects present in their way
10. Which of the following pairs have identical values of e/m?
1) A proton and a neutron
2) A proton and deuterium
3) Deuterium and an 𝛼 – particles
4) An electron and 𝛾 – rays
11. The nature of anode rays depends upon
1) Nature of gas filled in the discharge tube
2) Nature of electrode
3) Nature of metal
12. Which of the following is not basic postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory?
1) Atoms are neither created not destroyed in a chemical reaction
2) In a compound, the relative number and kinds of atom are constant
3) Atoms of all elements are alike, including their masses
4) Each element is composed of extremely small particles called atoms.
LEVEL - 2
13. The nature of anode rays depends upon.
1) Nature of electrode
2) Nature of residual gas
3) Nature of discharge tube
4) All the above
14. The ratio of specific charge (e/m) of an electron to that of a hydrogen ion is:
1) 1:1 2) 1840:1 3) 1:1840 4) 2:1
15. The mass of electron in amu is:
1) 5.4× 10−8
2) 5.4× 10−4
3) 5.4× 10−3
4) 9.11× 1031 kg
16. Thomson atomic model can explain only:
1) Existence of Nucleus
2) Electrical neutrality
3) Orbital concept
4) All the these
17. The mass of the electron is:
1) 1.76× 10−23 kg
2) 1.67× 10−24 kg
3) 9.11× 10−28 kg
4) 9.11× 10−31 kg
18. The lightest sub-atomic particle is:
1) Neutron
2) Meson
3) Electron
4) Proton
19. The e/m ratio of cathode rays is x unit, when hydrogen is filled in the discharge tube.
What will be its value deuterium (D2) is filled in it?
1) x unit
2) x/2 unit
3) 2x unit
4) x/4 unit
20. Which has highest specific charge?
1) 𝑁𝑎+ (A=23)
2) 𝑀𝑔2+ (A=24)
3) 𝐴𝑙 3+ (A=27)
4) 𝑆𝑖 4+ (A=28)
LEVEL - 3
21. Mullikan’s oil drop experiment is used to find.
1) e/m ratio of an electron
2) Mass of an electron
3) Velocity of an electron
4) Charge of an electron
LEVEL - 4
22. The fundamental particles present in the nucleus of an atom are:
1) Alpha particles and electrons
2) Neutrons and protons
3) Neutrons and electrons
4) Electrons, neutrons and protons
LEVEL - 5
23. Which of the following pairs have identical values of e/m?
1) A proton and a neutron
2) A proton and deuterium
3) Deuterium and an 𝛼- particle
4) An electron and 𝛾- rays
24. Which of the following is an arrangement of increasing value of e/m?
1) n < 𝛼 < p < e
2) e < p < 𝛼 < n
3) n < p < e < 𝛼
4) p < n < 𝛼 < e
JEE ADVANCED
LEVEL – 1
25. Which one of the following is/are incorrect statement (s) about proton?
1) Proton is nucleus of deuterium
2) Proton is ionized hydrogen molecule
3) Proton is ionized hydrogen atom
4) Proton is a particle
Statement Type:
26. Statement: I: Cathode rays do not travel in straight lines.
Statement: II: Cathode rays penetrate through thin sheets
Comprehension Type:
Cathode rays consists of negatively charged material particles called electrons. These
electrons are fundamental sub atomic particles carrying negative charge and having mass 9.1 ×
𝑒
10-31 kg. Discovered by J.J. Thomson. Charge to mass (𝑚) ratio of an electron is 1.76×108 C/g.
𝑒
Charge to mass ( ) ratio for an proton is 9.55×104 C/g.
𝑚
27. Particles in cathode rays have same charge to mass ratio as:
2) 𝛽 – particles
3) 𝛾- rays
4) Protons
28. The ratio of specific charge of a proton and that of an 𝛼 – particle is:
1) 1:2 2) 1:1 3) 2:1 4) 1:4
29. Which of the following particles has maximum charge to mass ratio?
1) Electrons
2) Protons
4) Neutrons
Matrix Match Type:
a) Electron 1) Atom is electrically neutral
b) Proton 2) Negative charge
c) Thomson model of atom 3) Positive charge
d) Mullikan’s oil drops experiment 4) Quantization of charge
31. The charge of neutron is …………….
LEVEL – 2 & 3
Multi Correct Choice Type
32. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct for anode rays?
1) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
2) Their e/m ratio depends on the gas in the discharge tube used to produce the anode
rays.
3) The e/m ratio of anode rays is constant.
4) They are produced by the ionization of the gas in the discharge tube.
33. Which one of the following is true for Thomson’s model of the atom?
1) The radius of an electron can be calculated using this model.
2) In an undisturbed atom, the electrons will be at their equilibrium positions, where
the attraction between the cloud of positive charge and the electrons balances their
mutual repulsion.
3) When the electrons are disturbed by collision, they will vibrate around their
equilibrium positions and emit electromagnetic radiation. The frequency of this
radiation is of the order of magnitude of the frequency of electromagnetic radiation,
typical of these electrons.
4) It can explain the existence of protons.
LEVEL – 4 & 5
34. When alpha particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go straight
through the foil because:
1) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons
2) Alpha particles are positively charged
3) Most part of the atom is empty space
4) Alpha particle moves with high velocity
35. Which statement about cathode rays is correct?
1) They travel in straight lines towards cathode
2) They produce fluorescent discharge through the walls of the tube
3) They produce heating effect
4) They can affect photographic plate.
Brain Teasers:
The mass of an electron is very small. It is value is 9.1× 10−31 kg. The charge of electron is
negative. Its numerical value is 1.602× 10−19 C. Where ‘C’ denotes coulomb. Now, can you
calculate the number of electrons present in a 1 Coulomb.
Synopsis -2
SUBATOMIC PARTICLES
SUB-ATOMIC PARTICLES
 Dalton’s atomic theory was able to explain the law of conservation of mass, law of constant
composition and law of multiple proportion very successfully.
 However, it failed to explain the results of many experiments, for example, it was known that
substances like glass or ebonite when rubbed with silk or fur generate electricity.
 Many different kinds of sub-atomic particles were discovered in the twentieth century.
 However, in this section we will talk about only two particles, namely electron and proton.
Discovery of Electron
 Electron discovered by J.J. Thomson in cathode ray discharged tube experiment.
Characteristics of electron:
 A cathode ray tube is made of glass containing tow thin pieces of metal called electrodes, sealed
in it.
 The electrical discharge through the gases could be observed only at very low pressures ( 0.01mm
of Hg) and at very high voltages (10,000 volts).
 The pressure of different gases could be adjusted by evacuation.
 When sufficiently moving in tube from cathode to anode.
 These were called cathode rays.
Properties of cathode rays:
 The cathode rays start from cathode and move towards the anode.
 These rays themselves are not visible but their behavior can be observed with the help of
fluorescent of phosphorescent materials which glow when hit by them.
 In the absence of electrical or magnetic field these rays travel in straight lines.
 In the presence of electrical or magnetic field, the behavior of cathode rays is similar to that
expected from negatively charged particles. Thus cathode rays consist of negatively charged
particles called electrons.
 The characteristics of cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes and the nature
of the gas present in the cathode ray tube. It indicates that electrons are basic constituent of all
the atoms.
Charge on the Electron
 The charge on the electron was determined by Millikan in oil drop experiment.
 The charge of electron was found to be −1.6022 𝑋 10−19 coulombs or −4.803𝑋 10−10 𝑒𝑠𝑢
Charge to Mass Ratio of Electron

e
 J.J. Thomson was measured the ratio of the electrical charge to the mass of the electron (m) using
a cathode ray discharged tube.
 Thomson was determined the value of charge to mass ratio as,
e
ቀmቁ = 1.75882 X 1011 coulomb/kg.
Mass of electron:
 The mass of the electron was calculated by combining Millikan’s value of the charge with
Thomson’s charge to mass ratio.
e 1.6022 X 10−19
 m= = = 9.1094 X 10−31 kg.
e/m 1.75882 X 1011
 This mass is termed as the rest mass of electron.
1
 The mass of an electron is approximately 1837th mass of hydrogen atom or 0.0005486 amu.
 The mass of one mole of electrons is 0.5486 mg.
Rest mass of electron
 The mass of moving electron = 2
ට1−ቀVቁ
C
Discovery of Protons
The positive rays or canal rays were discovered by Goldstein using a perforated cathode in the
discharge tube.
This experiment is opposite to cathode rays experiment.
e/m value of proton was found as (In case hydrogen as taken in discharge tube) 9.58 x 107 C/kg
Charge of proton is +1.6022 x 10-19 C or + 4.803 𝑋 10−10 𝑒𝑠𝑢.
e 1.6022 x 10-19 C
Mass of proton = e = = 1.673 x 10-27 kg or 1.007276 amu or 1837 times the mass of
9.58 x 107 C/kg
m
electron.
Discovery of Neutron
 The neutron was discovered by James Chadwick.
 Neutrons are formed when beryllium-9 is bombarded with alpha particles.
9
4Be + 42He ⟶ 12
6C + 10n
Property Electron Proton Neutron
1) Nature Negatively charged Positively charged 0
2)Absolute -1.6022 X 10-19 C or +1.6022 X 10-19 C or +4.802 x 10-10 0

charge -4.802 x 10-10 e.s.u e.s.u
3)Relative -1 unit + 1 unit 0

charge
4)Absolute 9.1095 x 10-31 kg 1.673 x 10-27 kg 1.675 x 10-27
mass kg
5) Relative 0.0005486 amu 1.007276 amu 1.008665 amu
mass
6) Discoverer Thomson Rutherford Chadwick
ATOMIC MODELS
Atomic Models
 The arrangement of fundamental particles in an atom is described by atomic models.
1. Thomson Atomic Model
2. Rutherford Atomic Model
3. Neil’s Bohr Atomic Model
Thomson Model of Atom

1. An atom consists of a positively charged sphere with electrons filled into it. The negative and positive
charge present inside an atom are equal and as a whole, an atom is electrically neutral.
2. Thomson’s model of the atom was compared to plum pudding and watermelon. He compared the
red edible part of the watermelon to positively charged sphere whereas the seeds of watermelon to
negatively charged particles.
Limitations of Thomson’s atomic model

1. This model of atom failed to explain how a positive charge holds the negatively charged electrons
in an atom. Therefore, it failed to explain the stability of an atom.
2. This theory also failed to account for the position of the nucleus in an atom.
3. Thomson’s model failed to explain the scattering of alpha particles.
Rutherford’s Nuclear Model of Atom
 On the basis of the conclusions from alpha-scattering experiment.
 He proposed a nuclear model to an atom called Rutherford nuclear model of the model of the
atom.
The postulate of this nuclear model are
1. An atom contains positively charged nucleus of the radius 10-13 cm
2. Electron are contained around nucleus in electronic cloud in larger radius i.e.10 -8 cm.
3. Since an atom is electrically neutral no. of proton and electron is equal.
4. Neutron and proton are held together by means of electrostatic force of attraction.
5. Electron revolve around the nucleus since electron and proton have equal charge.
Drawbacks of Rutherford Model

1. Rutherford atomic model failed to explain about the stability of electrons in a circular path.
2. As per Rutherford’s model, electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular path. But particles that
are in motion on a circular path would undergo acceleration, and acceleration causes radiation of energy
by charged particles.
3. Eventually, electrons should lose energy and fall into the nucleus. And this points to the instability of
atom. But this is not possible because atoms are stable. Hence, Rutherford failed to give an explanation
on account of this.
Do you know:
Gold was choosing because it could be beaten in to extremely thin sheets.
WORKSHHET – 2
CUQ:
1. In Rutherford 𝛼 – rays scattering experiment gold foils are used due to
1) High malleability
2) Ductility
3) High melting point
4) High ionization energy
2. The best evidence that electrons are arranged in definite orbits or energy levels is based
on the observation that
1) Atomic spectra consist of discrete lines and not continuous bands
2) Electrons in the beta ray have high kinetic energy
3) The penetrating power of cathode ray electrons depends upon the voltage used to
produce them
4) Electrons revolve around the nucleus
3. Which of the following is true for Thomson’s model of atom?
1) The radius of an electron can be calculated by using this model
2) In an undisturbed atom, the electron will be at their equilibrium position, where the
attraction between electron and cloud of positive charge.
3) The cloud of positive charge and the electrons balances their mutual repulsion.
4. In Rutherford’s alpha-ray scattering experiment, the alpha particles are detected using a
screen coated with
1) Carbon black
2) Platinum black
3) Zinc sulphide
4) Poly tetrafluoride ethylene
5. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of 𝛼- particles showed for the first time that the
atom has (E-95)
1) Nucleus
2) Electron
3) Proton
4) Neutron
6. The conclusions of Rutherford scattering experiment does not include:
1) 𝛼- particle can come within a distance of the order of 10 -14 m of the nucleus.
2) The radius of the nucleus is less than 10-14 m
3) Scattering follows Coulomb’s law
4) The (+) very charged particles of an atom move with extremely high velocities.
7. Which of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s 𝛼-particle
scattering experiment?
1) Most of the space in the atom is empty.
2) The radius of the atom is about 10-10 m while that of nucleus is 10-15 m.
3) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits.
4) Electrons and the nucleus are hold together by electrostatic forces of attraction.
8. 𝛼-particles are projected towards the following metals, with the same kinetic energy.
Towards which metal, the distance of closest approach is minimum?
1) Cu (Z=29)
2) Ag (Z=47)
3) Au (Z=79)
4) Ca (Z=20)
9. Ernest Rutherford’s model of the atom didn’t specifically include the ……
1) Proton
2) Electron
3) Nucleus
4) Neutron
10. The experimental evidence for the existence of atomic nucleus comes from:
1) Millikan’s oil drop method
2) Atomic absorption spectroscopy
3) The magnetic bending of cathode rays.
4) Alpha scattering by a thin metal foil
JEE MAINS
LEVEL – 1
1. Natural radio activity was discovered by
1) Rutherford
2) Becquerel
3) Curie
4) Schmidt
2. Radioactivity is due to
1) Stable electronic configuration
2) Unstable electronic configuration
3) Stable nucleus
4) Unstable nucleus
3. Which of the following is true for Thomson’s model of atom?
1) The radius of an electron can be calculated by using this model
2) In an undisturbed atom, the electron will be at their equilibrium position, where the
attraction between electron and cloud of positive charge
3) The cloud of positive charge and the electrons balances their mutual repulsion.
4. Rutherford’s experiment of scattering of 𝛼-particles showed for the first time that the
atom has
1) Electrons
2) Protons
3) Neutrons
4) Nucleus
5. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to size of
1) Nucleus
2) Atom
3) Electron
4) Neutron
LEVEL - 2
6. In Rutherford 𝛼-rays scattering experiment gold foils are used due to
1) High malleability
2) Ductility
3) High melting point
4) High ionization energy
7. The best evidence that electrons are arranged in definite orbits or energy levels is based
on the observation that
1) Atomic spectra consist of discrete lines and not continuous bands
2) Electrons in the beta ray have high kinetic energy
3) The penetrating power of cathode ray electrons depends upon the voltage used to
produce them
4) Electrons revolve around the nucleus
8. Radioactivity generally found in
1) Light Nuclei
2) Stable Nuclei
3) Heavy Nuclei
4) Nuclei of intermediate mass
LEVEL - 3
9. The 𝛼-particles are
1) High energy electron
2) Positively charged hydrogen ion
3) High energy x-ray radiations
4) Double positively charged Nuclei
LEVEL - 4
10. In Rutherford’s alpha-ray scattering experiment, the alpha particles are detected using a
screen coated with (E-99)
1) Carbon black
2) Platinum black
3) Zinc sulphide
4) Poly tetrafluoro ethylene
11. Gamma rays are
1) High energy electrons
2) Low energy electrons
3) High energy electromagnetic waves
4) High energy positrons
LEVEL - 5
12. The conclusions of Rutherford scattering experiment does not include:
1) 𝛼-particle can come within a distance of the order of 10-14 m of the nucleus.
2) The radius of the nucleus is less than 10-14 m
3) Scattering follows Coulomb’s law
4) The (+) very charged particles of an atom move with extremely high velocities.
1) 10 2) 14 3) 7 4) 5
13. If a radioactive substance is placed in vacuum at 1000 C its rate of disintegration in
comparison to one atmospheric pressure
1) Is not effected
2) Increases
3) Decreases
4) Increases when product is gas
through the foil because:
1) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons
3) Most part of the atom is empty space
4) Alpha particle moves with high velocity
Statement Type:
15. Statement I: J.J.Thomson’s atomic model is water melon atomic model or plum pudding
model.
Statement II: By conducting alpha ray scattering experiment he gave his atomic model.
Comprehension Type:
The first concrete attempt to study the structure of an atom was made by Rutherford
through his “alpha ray scattering experiment”.
16. Rutherford’s scattering experiments led to the discovery of:
1) Nucleus
2) Presence of neutrons in the nucleus
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Revolving nature of electrons around the nucleus
17. In Rutherford’s 𝛼-ray scattering experiment, which of the following does not happen?
1) Most of the 𝛼-rays passed through without deflection
2) A few 𝛼-particles pass through the nucleus.
3) A few 𝛼-particles are deflected back.
4) 𝛼-particles going near the nucleus are slightly deflected.
18. Deflection back of a few particles on hitting thin foil of gold shows that:
1) Nucleus is heavy
2) Nucleus is small
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Electrons create hindrance in the movement of 𝛼-particles.
Matrix Match Type:
a) Plum – pudding model 1) Rutherford model
b) Charge of electron 2) 9.1× 10−31
c) Planetary model of atom 3) J.J.Thomson
d) Mass of electron 4) 1.602× 10−19 C
20. The number of neutrons emitted when Beryllium is bombarded with 𝛼-particle is
………………
LEVEL – 2 & 3
21. Radioactive substances are emitting
1) 𝛼-particle
2) 𝛽-particle
3) 𝛾-particle
4) 𝛿-particle
22. The activity of radio isotope does not change with
1) Temperature
2) Pressure
3) Chemical environment
4) Nature of Nucleus
Statement Type:
LEVEL – 4 & 5
23. Statement I: In Rutherford’s gold foil experiment very few 𝛼-particles are deflected
back.
Statement II: Nucleus present inside the atom is more heavy.
24. Which of the following is not essential for radio activity?
1) Chemical activity
2) Physical property
3) Nuclear property
4) Property of nonmetals
Brain Teasers:
P and Q are two atoms whose masses are equal. Suppose two electrons removed from P
to make it P++ and two electrons are added to Q to make it Q--. Theoretically speaking will the
mass of P++ be equal to mass of Q--?
Synopsis-3
Atomic Number and Mass Number

 The presence of positive charge on the nucleus is due to the protons in the nucleus. As established
earlier, the charge on the proton is equal but opposite to that of electron.
 The number of protons present in the nucleus is equal to atomic number (Z).
 For example, the number of protons in the hydrogen nucleus is 1, in sodium atom it is 11, therefore
their atomic numbers are 1 and 11 respectively.
 In order to keep the electrical neutrality, the number of electrons in an atom is equal to the number
of protons (atomic number, Z).
 For example, number of electrons in hydrogen atom and sodium atom are 1 and 11 respectively.
Atomic number (Z) = number of protons in the nucleus of an atom = number of electrons in a neutral
atom
 While the positive charge of the nucleus is due to protons, the mass of the nucleus, due to protons
and neutrons.
 As discussed earlier protons and neutrons present in the nucleus are collectively known as nucleons.
The total number of nucleons is termed as mass number (A) of the atom.
mass number (A) = number of protons (Z) + number of neutrons (n)
Isobars and Isotopes

ISOTOPES
 The atoms of the same element which have the same atomic number but different mass numbers
are called isotopes.
Eg: 𝟏𝟏H, 21H, and 𝟏3H;
• The number of neutrons - differ
• The number of electrons and protons - same
• Chemical properties - same (same no of electrons)
• Physical properties - different (same mass)
ISOBARS
• The atoms of different elements which have the same mass number but different atomic numbers
are called isobars.
eg:
• The no of neutrons - differ

• The no of electrons and protons - differ
• The no of nucleons - same
• Chemical properties - differ
• Physical properties – similar
1. Calculate the number of electrons which will together weigh one gram.
Solution:
1
Mass of one electron = 9.11 x 10-28 g; 1g = 9.11 x 10−28
= 1.098 x 1027 electrons
2. An ion with mass number 37 possesses one unit of negative charge. If the ion contains 11.1% more
neutrons than the electrons, write its symbol.
Solution:
As the ion carries one unit of negative charge, it will have one electron more than the number of protons.
Let the number of electrons = x. Number of protons = x-1
x x 11.1
Number of neutrons = x + 100 ; 37 = x-1+ 1.111x=2.111x-1
38
x = 2.111 = 18
Number of electron =18 Number of protons = 18-1 = 17.
Number of neutrons = 37-17=20
The ion under discussion is chloride and its symbol is Cl-
Isotones:
• The atoms of different elements which have different atomic numbers and different mass
numbers but having the same number of neutrons are called isotones.
• Eg:
 Isotones having different physical and chemical properties.
WORKSHEET – 3
CUQ:
1. The electrons of Rutherford’s model of the atom are expected to lose energy because
they
1) Are attracted by the nucleus
2) Strike each other
3) Are accelerated
4) Are in motion
2. Rutherford’s model of the atom is against to which theory?
1) Planck’s theory
2) Einstein’s theory
3) Electromagnetic theory
4) All of these
3. Alpha particles are ……………… times heavier than neutrons
2
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 3
4. Nucleon’s are:
1) The neutrons present in the atomic nucleus
2) The protons present in the atomic nucleus
3) The protons & neutrons present in the atomic nucleus
4) The particles emitted in radio activity.
5. Mass number of atom represents the number of:
1) Protons only
2) Protons and neutrons
3) Protons and electrons
6. Mosely’s name is connected with the discovery of
1) Protons
2) Neutrons
3) Atomic number
4) Atomic weight
7. Atomic number =
1) Number of protons
2) Number of neutrons
3) Number of electrons
4) Both 1 and 3
8. Sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in an atom is called:
1) Mass number
2) Atomic number
3) Isotope
4) Isobar
9. Atom of an element which differ in their mass numbers but have the same atomic
number are called:
1) Mass number
2) Atomic number
3) Isotope
4) Isobar
10. Among 10A20,11B21,11C22 and 12D22 the isobar combination is
1) A and B
2) B and C
3) C and D
4) A and D
11. In 35 37
17 Cl and 17 Cl, which of the following is false
1) Both have 17 protons
2) Both have 17 electrons
3) Both have 18 neutrons
4) Both show same chemical properties
12. Lightest isotope in the periodic table is
1) Tritium
2) Deuterium
3) Protium
4) All the above
13. The lightest radioactive isotope in periodic table is
1) Tritium
2) Deuterium
3) Protium
4) All the above
14. Isotopes exhibhits similar
1) Physical properties
2) Chemical properties
3) Physical and chemical
4) Neither physical nor chemical properties
15. Which of the following elements exhibits more number of stable isotopes?
1) H 2) O 3) Sn 4) S
16. Isobars differ in
1) Neucleons
2) Mass number
3) Atomic number
4) Both 1 & 3
17. The atomic weight of an element is 23 and its atomic number is 11. The number of
protons, electrons and neutrons respectively present in the atom of the element are:
1) 11,11,12
2) 12,12,11
3) 11,12,11
4) 12,11,12
18. The number of neutrons present in the deuterium isotope of hydrogen is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 1
19. Two atoms are said to be isobars if,
1) They have same atomic number but different mass number
2) They have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons
3) They have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons
4) Sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is
different.
JEE MAINS
LEVEL – 1
1. The proton and neutron are collectively called as:
1) Deuteron
2) Positron
3) Meson
4) Nucleon
2. What is the ratio of mass of an electron to the mass of a proton?
1) 1:2 2) 1:1 3) 1:1837 4) 1:3
3. The nucleus of the element having atomic number 25 and atomic weight 55 will contain:
1) 25 protons and 30 neutrons
2) 25 neutrons and 30 protons
3) 55 protons
4) 55 neutrons
4. If W is atomic weight and N is the atomic number of an element, then:
1) Number of e1=W-N
2) Number of 0n1=W-N
3) Number of 1H1=W-N
4) Number of 0n1=N
5. Ernest Rutherford’s model of the atom didn’t specifically include the ……
1) Proton
2) Electron
3) Nucleus
4) Neutron
6. Chlorine exists in two forms, Cl-37 and Cl-35 but its atomic mass is 35.5. This indicates
the ratio of Cl-37 and Cl-35 is approximately.
1) 1:2 2) 1:1 3) 1:3 4) 3:1
7. The total number of neutrons in dipositive zinc ions with mass number 70 is:
1) 34 2) 40 3) 36 4) 38
8. Chlorine atom differs from chloride ion in the number of:
1) Proton
2) Neutron
3) Electrons
4) Protons and electrons
9. The atomic number of an element represents:
1) Number of neutrons in the nucleus
2) Number of protons in the nucleus
3) Atomic weight of element
4) Valency of element.
LEVEL - 2
10. Rutherford’s atomic model is also called as:
1) Nuclear model
2) Solar model
3) Planetary model
4) All of these
11. The mass of neutron is of the order
1) 10-23 kg
2) 10-24 kg
3) 10-26 kg
4) 10-27 kg
through the foil because (IIT 84)
1) Alpha particles are much heavier than electron
3) Alpha particles move with high velocity
4) Most part of the atom is empty
13. Many elements have non-integral masses. This is because (IIT 93)
1) Their isotopes have different atomic number
2) Their isotopes have different masses
3) Their isotopes have non-integral masses
4) Their constituents, protons, electrons and neutrons combine to give fractional
masses.
14. A neutral atom, with atomic number greater than one consists of (AFMC 96)
1) Protons only
2) Protons and neutrons
4) Neutrons, electrons and protons
15. Difference in 17Cl35 and 17Cl37 is of (AFMC 2000)
1) No. of protons
2) No. of neutrons
3) No. of electrons
4) Atomic number
LEVEL - 3
16. When a gold sheet is bombarded by a beam of alpha particles, only a few of them get
deflected whereas most go straight undeflected. This is because:
1) The force of attraction exerted on the alpha particles by the oppositely charged
electrons is not sufficient.
2) A nucleus has a much smaller volume than that of an atom.
3) The force of repulsion acting on the fast-moving alpha particles is very small.
4) The neutrons in the nucleus do not have any effect on the alpha particles.
17. Isobars are the atoms of
1) Same elements having same atomic number
2) Same elements having same atomic mass
3) Different elements having same atomic mass
4) None of these
18. In Cl 35 37
17 and Cl 17 which of the following false?
1) Both have 17 protons
2) Both have 17 electrons
3) Both have 18 neutrons
4) Both show same chemical properties
LEVEL - 4
19. Rutherford’s experiment, which established the nuclear model of the atom, used a
beam of
1) 𝛽 particles, which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed
2) 𝛾 rays, which impinged on a metal foil and ejected electrons
3) Helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered
4) Helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered.
20. Isotopes are identifying by
1) Positive ray analysis
2) A strong mass spectrograph
3) Dumpster’s mass spectrograph
4) All of these
LEVEL - 5
21. The mass number of an anion, X3- is 14. If there are 10 electrons in the anion, the
number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom, X2 of the element will be:
1) 10 2) 14 3) 7 4) 5
22. Which of the following pair represent isobars?
1) HC 32 and HC 42
25
2) Mg 2420 and Mg 12
3) K 40
19 and Ca 20
40
4) K 40 39
19 and K 19
23. The traid of Nuclei is isotonic is
1) C 146 N 147 F 199
2) C 126 N 147 F 199
3) C 146 N 147 F 199
4) C 146 N 157 F 179
JEE ADVANCED:
LEVEL – 1
24. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1) Isotopes have same number of neutrons
2) Isobars have same number of neutrons
3) Isotones have same number of protons
4) Isobars are atoms of different elements.
Statement Type:
25. Statement I: The atoms of different elements having same mass number but different
atomic number are known as isobars.
Statement II: The sum of protons and neutrons in the isobars is always different
Comprehension Type:
Atomic number (Z) = Number of protons = Number of electrons
Mass number (A) = Number of protons + Number of neutrons
Number of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic number
26. In the nucleus of 20Ca40 there are:
1) 40 protons and 20 electrons
2) 20 protons and 40 electrons
27. If the atomic weight of an element is 23 times that of the lightest element and it has 11
protons, then it contains:
1) 11 protons, 23 neutrons, 11 electrons
28. An atom has 26 electrons and its atomic weight is 56. The number of neutrons in the
nucleus of the atom will be:
1) 26 2) 30 3) 36 4) 56
Matrix Match Type:
a) Rutherford model of an atom 1) H.G.J. Moseley
b) Size of nucleus 2) Positive charge is accumulated in
the nucleus
c) Neutron 3) Chargeless
d) Atomic numbers were devised by 4) Rutherford x-ray scattering
Experiment
5) Negligible
30. The number of neutrons present in nucleus of 2He4 is …………….
LEVEL – 2 & 3
31. Which of the following is/are true in Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom?
1) The number of protons and neutrons are not equal
2) The most of the 𝛼-particles went straight without suffering any deflection.
3) A few of them got deflected through small angles.
4) A very few did not pass through the foil at all but suffered large deflections.
32. Which of the following statements are correct about alpha particles?
1) They carry +2 charge
2) Their mass is 4 amu
3) They are more penetrating than gamma rays
4) They are He2+ ions.
LEVEL – 4&5
33. Choose the correct statement:
1) There are 20 protons n calcium atom
2) There are 8 electrons in oxygen atom
3) There are 6 electrons in carbon atom
4) There are 12 protons in hydrogen atom
34. Identify the incorrect statement (s)
1) Neutron mass is same as the mass of an electron
2) Neutron is the heaviest particle in the atom
3) Neutron is present outside of the nucleus
4) Neutron has neutral charge
35. Which of the following is true for cathode rays?
1) They possess K.E
2) They are electron waves
3) They produce heat
4) They produce mechanical pressure
Synopsis-4
DEVELOPMENTS LEADING TO THE BOHR’S MODEL OF ATOM
DEVELOPMENTS LEADING TO THE BOHR’S MODEL OF ATOM
i. Dual character of the electromagnetic radiation which means that radiations possess both wave
like and particle like properties, and
ii. Experimental results regarding atomic spectra which can be explained only by assuming quantized
electronic energy levels in atoms.
Wave Nature of Electromagnetic Radiation

Wave Nature of Electromagnetic Radiation
 James Maxwell (1870) was the first to give a comprehensive explanation about the interaction
between the charged bodies and the behaviour of electrical and magnetic fields on macroscopic
level.
 He suggested that when electrically charged particle moves under acceleration, alternating
electrical and magnetic fields are produced and transmitted.
 These fields are transmitted in the forms of waves called electromagnetic waves or
electromagnetic radiation.
 Light is the form of radiation known from early days and speculation about its nature dates back
to remote ancient times.
 In earlier days (Newton) light was supposed to be made of particles (corpuscles).
 It was only in the 19th century when wave nature of light was established.
Wave theory
 According to Huygens, light travels in the form of waves from a luminous object in all directions.
 Maxwell proposed that light and other forms of radiant energy propagate through space in the
form of waves.
 Maxwell theoretically showed that electromagnetic wave has an electric field component and a
magnetic field component.
 These two components have the same wavelength and frequency and hence the same speed, but
they travel in mutually perpendicular planes.
Electromagnetic Wave
 Unlike sound waves or water waves, electromagnetic waves do not require medium and can move
in vacuum.
 It is now well established that there are many types of electromagnetic radiations, which differ
from one another in wavelength (or frequency).
 These constitute what is called electromagnetic spectrum. Different regions of the spectrum are
identified by different names.
 Some examples are: radio frequency region around 106 Hz, used for broadcasting; microwave
region around 1010 Hz used for radar; infrared region around 1013 Hz used for heating; ultraviolet
region around 1016Hz a component of sun’s radiation.
 The small portion around 1015 Hz, is what is ordinarily called visible light.
 It is only this part which our eyes can see (or detect). Special instruments are required to detect
non-visible radiation.
 Different kinds of units are used to represent electromagnetic radiation.
Characterization of electromagnetic radiations.
Wavelength (𝛌)
The distance between two neighbouring crests or troughs of a wave is known as wavelength.
Generally measured in angstrom(Å) or nanometer (nm) or centimeter (or) meter picometers.

1Å = 10-10 m or 10-8 cm
1nm= 10-9 m or 10-7 cm
1pm = 10-12 m or 10-10 cm
Frequency (𝛎)
 The number of waves which pass through a particular point in one second is defined as the
frequency of wave motion.
 The frequency of radiation is measured in cycles per second(cps) or reciprocal of seconds (s -1) or
hertz(Hz).
SI unit = Hertz (Hz)
1 cps = 1 Hz9
1kHz = 103
1MHz = 106
Velocity (c)
 The distance travelled by a wave in one second is called the velocity of wave.
c = νλ
 In vacuum all types of electromagnetic radiation regardless of wavelength travel at the same speed
i.e 3 x 108 m/s(or) 3 x 108 cm/s
This is called speed of light
Wavenumber (𝛎ത)
The number of wavelength per unit length is known as wave number.
or
The reciprocal of wavelength is known as wave number.
1 ν
νത= λ = C
The wave number is expressed in per centimeter (cm -1) or per meter (m-1). The SI unit of wave number
is m-1
Amplitude (A)
The height of a crest or depth of a trough of a wave is called amplitude.
The amplitude of wave determines the intensity of radiation.
Electromagnetic Spectrum
WORKSHEET – 4
CUQ:
1. Which is not electromagnetic radiation?
1) Infra-red rays
2) X-rays
3) Cathode rays
4) Y-rays
2. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on:
1) Both its amplitude and wavelength
2) Its wavelength
3) Its amplitude
4) Temperature of the medium through which it passes
3. Which of the following is not correct?
𝑪
1) 𝝀 = 𝒗
𝑬
2) 𝒉 = 𝒗
3) 1A0 = 10-2 cm
4) E = mC2
4. All types of electromagnetic radiation possess same:
1) Energy
2) Velocity
3) Frequency
4) Wavelength
5. The range of the wavelength of visible light is:
1) 3000-4000 Å
2) 3800-7600 Å
3) 2000-8000 Å
4) 5000-9000 Å
6. Electromagnetic waves transport:
1) Charge
2) Frequency
3) Wavelength
4) Energy
7. Which wavelength fall in X-rays region?
5) 10.000 Å
6) 1000 Å
7) 1 Å
8) 10-2 Å
8. Which is not a form of radiant energy?
1) X-rays
2) 𝛽-rays
3) Radio waves
4) Infrared
JEE MAINS
LEVEL – 1
1. Electromagnetic radiation possesses the properties of a:
1) Wave
2) Particle
3) Both
4) None
2. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic radiation?
1) X-rays
2) Cathode rays
3) Anode rays
4) Both 2 and 3
3. X-rays are:
1) Electrons
2) Protons
3) Light waves with small wavelength
4) Light waves with large wavelength
4. When the frequency of light incident on a metallic plate is doubled, the kinetic energy of the
emitted photoelectrons will be:
1) Doubled
2) Halved
3) Increased but more than doubled of the previous K.E.
4) Unchanged
5. A metal surface ejects electrons when hit by violet light but not when hit by yellow light. Will
electrons be ejected if the surface is hit by red light?
1) Yes
2) No
3) Yes if the red beam is quite intense
4) Yes if the red beam continues to fall upon the surface for a long time.
6. Calculate the wavelength, frequency and wave number of a light whose period is 2.0× 10−10
S.
Wavelength Frequency Wavenumber
1) 3× 106 mm 2× 10−3 𝑆 −1 3.3× 103 𝑚−1
2) 6× 10−2 m 5× 109 𝑆 −1 16.66 𝑚−1
3) 6× 10−2 m 2× 109 𝑆 −1 16.66 𝑚−1
7. The frequency of a wave is 6× 1015 𝑆 −1 . Its wave number would be:
1) 105 𝑐𝑚−1
2) 2× 10−5 𝑐𝑚−1
3) 2× 10−7 𝑐𝑚
4) 2× 105 𝑐𝑚−1
8. The wavelength of light having frequency 60 MHz is:
1) 2.0 m
2) 6.0 m
3) 20 m
4) 5.0 m
The frequency of yellow light having wavelength 600 nm is:
1) 5.0 × 1014 𝑆 −1
2) 2. 5 × 107 𝑆 −1
3) 5.0× 107 𝑆 −1
4) 2. 5 × 1014 𝑆 −1
10. What is the wavelength of a musical note of frequency 600 Hz when it propagated through air in
which the velocity of sound is 340 ms −1?
1) 0.437 m 2) 0.476 m 3) 0.567 m 4) 0.267 m
5 −1
11. The wave number of an electromagnetic radiation is 1 × 10 cm . The frequency of the radiation
would be:
1) 3 × 108 S −1 2) 3 × 106 S −1 3) 3 × 1010 S −1 4) 3 × 1015 S −1
12. The frequency of light having wavelength 500 nm is:
1) 5 × 1015 Hz 2) 5 × 1010 MHz 3) 2 × 10−15 Hz 4) 6 × 1014 Hz
13. Calculate the frequency of radiations with wavelength 480 nm:
1) 6.25 × 1012 Sec −1 2) 6.25 × 1014 sec −1 3) 6.25 × 1016 sec −1 4) 6.25 × 1028 sec −1
14. The electromagnetic radiations are,
a) Visible light 2) IR light 3) UV light 4) Micro waves
15. The radiation having maximum wave length is
1) Ultraviolet rays 2) Radio waves 3) X- rays 4) Infra-red rays
16. Which wavelength falls in X- rays’ region?
1) 10−9 m 2) 10−7 m 3) 102 m 4) 104 m
17. If 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 are the wavelengths of characteristic X –rays and gamma rays respectively, then the
relation between them is:
𝜆
1) 𝜆1 = 2⁄2 2) 𝜆1 =𝜆2 3) 𝜆1 >𝜆2 4) 𝜆1 < 𝜆2
18. Which of the following is not a radiant energy?
1) X -rays 2) 𝛽 -rays 3) 𝛼 -rays 4) Radio – waves
19. yellow light emitted from a sodium lamp has a wavelength (𝜆) 580 nm. Calculate frequency (v) and
wave number (𝜐̅ ) of the yellow light.
Frequency Wavenumber
13 −1
1) 1.2 × 10 s 2.5 × 104 nm
14 −1
2) 1.72 × 10 s 5.17 × 106 m−1
3) 5.17 × 1014 s−1 1.72 × 106 m−1
4) 2.5 × 104 nm 1.2 × 1013 s−1
20. The wave number of a beam of light is 400 cm−1. What is the wave-length of the light in
nanometers? Also find out frequency of the light.
Wavelength Frequency
1) 1.2 × 1013 s −1 2.5 × 104 nm
2) 1.72 × 1014 s −1 5.17 × 106 m−1
3) 5.17 × 1014 s−1 1.72 × 106 m−1
4
4) 2.5 × 10 nm 1.2 × 1013 s−1
21. The frequency of wave of light 1.0 × 106 sec −1. The wave length for this wave is:
1) 3 × 104 cm⁄𝑠 2) 3 × 104 𝑐𝑚⁄𝑠 3) 6 × 104 𝑐𝑚⁄𝑠 4) 6 × 106 𝑐𝑚⁄𝑠
22. Which one of the following is having more wave number
1) Red 2) Blue 3) Green 4) Violet
6 −1
23. The frequency of a wave light is 1.0 × 10 sec . The wave length for this wave is
1) 3 × 104 cm 2) 3 × 104 cm 3) 6 × 104 cm 4) 6 × 104 cm
0
24. If the wavelength of green light is about 5000 𝐴 , then the frequency of its wave is
1) 16 × 1014 sec −1 2) 16 × 10−14 sec −1 3) 6 × 1014 sec −1 4) 6 × 10−14 sec −1
25. Which of the following is the right graph between energy of a photon (E) and its wavelength (𝜆) ?
1) B 2) B
𝜆 𝜆
3) C 4) D
𝜆 𝜆
26. The quantum of energy carried by a single photon of 6 × 1014 frequency is: [ ]
1) 1.98 × 10−16 J 2) 2.98 × 10−19 J 3) 3.98 × 10−19 J 4) 4.98 × 10−16 J
27. A laser beam used to attach the detached retinas has a frequency of 4.69 × 1014 s-
1. Find its wavelength and express it in angstrom units.
1) 3,400 𝐴0 2) 6400 𝐴0 3) 4600 𝐴0 4) 4300 𝐴0
28. The product of which of the following is equal to the velocity of light
1) wave length and wave number 2) wave length and frequency
3) frequency and wave number 4) wave length and amplitude
29. The number of photons of light having wave number x in 1 J of energy source is (Planck ’s constant
= h, velocity of light =c)
2) hc⁄X
𝑥 1
1) hcx 3) ℎ𝑐 4) ℎ𝑐𝑥
30. The frequency of a spectral line for electron transition in an atom is directly proportional to.
1) Velocity of an electron
2) Number of electrons undergoing transition
3) The difference of energy between energy levels involved in the transition
31. The wave number of an electromagnetic radiation is 100 cm−1 . The frequency of the radiation
would be:
1) 3 × 108 s −1 2) 3 × 106 s −1 3) 3 × 1010 s−1 4) 3 × 1012 s −1
32. The ratio of energy to frequency of electromagnetic radiation is called
1) Bohr ’s constant 2) Rydberg ‘s constant
3) Plank ‘s constant 4) Ritz constant
33. Which of the following does not characterize X – rays?
1) The radiation can ionize the gas
2) It causes ZnS to fluorescence
3) Deflected by electric and magnetic fields
4) Have wavelength shorter than ultra-violet rays
34. A photon in the region ‘X’ is more energetic than in the visible region. Then ‘X’ is
1) infrared 2) ultraviolet 3) microwave 4) radio wave
35. A photon of wavelength 300 nm is absorbed by a gas and then reemitted as two photons. One
photons. One photon is red with wavelength of 760 nm. The wave number of the second photon will
be:
1) 2.02 × 106 m−1 2) 5.02 × 106 m−1
3) 2.02 × 108 m−1 4) 2.2 × 109 m−1
36. Calculate the wavelength of the light from traffic signals as they change. Assume that the various
colours of light emit the frequencies. Green = 5.75 × 1014 Hz. Yellow = 5.15 × 1014 Hz, Red = 4.27 ×
1014 Hz.
1) Green = 720 nm; yellow = 582 nm, Red =402 nm
2) Green = 421 nm; yellow= 482 nm, Red = 702 nm
3) Green =521 nm; yellow = 582 nm, Red =702 nm
4) None of the above.
37. A radio station is broadcasting programmers at 100 MHz frequencies. Green= 5.75 × 1014 Hz.
Yellow = 5.15 × 1014 Hz, Red = 4.27 × 1014 Hz.
1) Green = 720 nm; Yellow = 582 nm, Red =402nm
2) Green = 421 nm ; yellow= 482 nm, Red =702 nm
3) Green = 521 nm; yellow= 582 nm, Red =702 nm
4)None of the above.
37. A radio station is broadcasting programmers at 100 MHz frequency. If the distance between the
radiostation and the receiver set is 300 km, how long would it take the signal to reach the set from the
radiostation ? Also calculate wavelength and wavenumber of these radio waves.
Time Wavelength Wavenumber
−3
1) 1 × 10 S 3m 0.33 m−1
−6 −3
2) 1 × 10 S 3 × 10 m 3.3 × 10−3 m−1
3) 1 × 103 S 3 × 10−3 m 330 m−1
4) All the above
38. The vividh Bharati station of All India Radio, Delhi, Broadcasts on a frequency of 1, 368 kHz.
Calculate the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by transmitter. Which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum does it belong to:
1) 219.3 cm, Radio waves 2) 219.3m, Radio waves
−4
3) 2.19 × 10 m, Infra red waves 4) 2.19 × 10−2 m, Micro waves
39. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding electromagnetic spectrum?
1) The velocity of X – rays is more than that of microwaves
2) Infra – red radiations have larger wavelength than cosmic rays
3) The frequency of microwaves is less than that of ultra – violet rays
4) X – rays have larger wave number than micro waves
JEE ADVANCED
40. Which of the following statement(s) are false related to an electromagnetic wave?
1) The oscillating electric and magnetic field are perpendicular to each other.
2) The electric and magnetic components have different wave length and frequency.
3) Electromagnetic waves can travel through solids, but cannot travel through vacuum.
4) All electromagnetic radiations travel with different speed.
Statement Type
41. Statement I: On heating a solid for a longer time, radiation become white and then blue as the
temperature becomes very high.
Statement II : As the temperature increases radiations emitted go from a lower frequency to higher
frequency to higher frequency.
Comprehension Type
Paragraph type questions:
The frequency (𝜈), wavelength (𝜆) and velocity of light ( c ) are related by the equations c = 𝜈 𝜆 . The
other commonly used quantity specially in spectroscopy is the wavenumber (νത).
42. Which of the following relations are correct?
1
1) Frequency × wavelength = Velocity of light 2) νത = 𝜆
c
3) 𝜆 = ν 4) All of these
43. Light or any electromagnetic radiation travels in vacuum or air with a speed of:
1) 3 × 108 m⁄s 2) 3 × 102 m⁄s 3) 2 × 108 m⁄s 4) 1 × 108 m⁄s
44. The wave number of a radiation travels in vacuum or air with a speed of:
1) 2.926 × 108 𝑠 −1 2) 2.926 × 1015 𝑠 −1 3)2.926 × 102 𝑠 −1 4) 2.926 × 1020 𝑠 −1
Matrix Match Type
45. Column - I Column – II
Electromagnetic radiations Wave length
a) Cosmic rays 1) 102
b) Gamma rays 2) 10−2
c) X – rays 3) 10−4
d) UV rays 4) 10−6
e) Visible rays 5) 10−7 m
f) Infra-red rays 6) 10−10 m
g) Micro waves 7) 10−12 m
h) Television waves 8) 10−14 m
46. Which of the following are the units of wavelength?
1) Angstrom 2) Nanometer 3) Pico meter 4) Microns
47. 1 angstrom = ?
1) 10−10 m 2) 10−8 cm 3) 10−6 m 4) None of the
above
48. In which of the following electromagnetic waves used?
1) In cancer treatment 2) In signal transmission
3) In illumination 4) In germicidal lamps
Matrix Match Type
49. Column - I Column – II
𝑐
a) Velocity 1) 𝜆 = 𝜈
𝐶
b) Wave number 2) 𝜆
1
c) Frequency 3) 𝜆
d) Wavelength 4) C = 𝜆v
Synopsis-5
Particle Nature of Electromagnetic Radiation: Planck’s Quantum Theory
 According to Newton light is propagated in the form of corpuscular i.e minute particles which are
invisible.
 After the advent of wave theory of light, the corpuscular theory of light was ignored.
The electromagnetic wave theory of radiation could successfully explain the phenomenon of
1. Reflection,
2. Refraction,
3. Polarization,
4. Diffraction
5. Interference
But wave theory failed to explain the following phenomena such as
1. Black body radiation,
2. Photoelectric effect,
3. Variation of heat capacity of solids as a function of temperature.
4. line spectra of atoms with special reference to hydrogen.
Black body radiation

 Black body is a perfect absorber and emitter of radiation
 According to the max plank theory, an ideal body is a perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation
and is called a black body. The radiation emitted by such a body is known as black body radiation.
 When black body is heated, it emits radiation over a wide range of wavelengths.
Eg. Iron rod.
The exact frequency of distribution of the emitted radiation from a black body depends only on its
temperature
i) The nature of the radiation depends upon the temperature of the black body.
ii) If the energy emitted is continuous the curve should be as shown by the dotted lines.
iii) At a given temperature the intensity of radiation increases with the wave length, reaches
maximum and then decreases.
iv) The intensity of radiations is greatest at the middle wave lengths and least at highest and
lowest wave lengths.
 The above experimental results cannot be explained satisfactorily on the basis of the wave theory of
light.
 Planck suggested that atoms and molecules could emit (or absorb) energy only in discrete quantities
and not in a continuous manner, a belief popular at that time.
 Planck gave the name quantum to the smallest quantity of energy that can be emitted or absorbed
in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
The energy (E) of a quantum of radiation is proportional to its frequency (ν) and is expressed by
E = hν
The proportionality constant, ‘h’ is known as Planck’s constant and has the value 6.626×10 –34 J s
(or)6.626×10–27 erg. s
With this theory, Planck was able to explain the distribution of intensity in the radiation from black body
as a function of frequency or wavelength at different temperatures.
The assumptions of Planck’s theory are listed below:
a. Each radiation is always associated with a definite amount of energy and is known as radiant energy.
b. Radiant energy is emitted or absorbed discontinuously in the form of small packets of energy called
quanta.
Each wave packet or quantum is associated with a definite amount of energy. In case of light, the
quantum of energy is called photon.
c. The amount of energy associated with a quantum of radiation is proportional to the frequency of
radiation.
hc
E ∝ ν or E = hν =
λ
d. The energy emitted or absorbed by a body is always an integral multiple of quanta, i.e., E = nhν, where
n = 1, 2, 3,… etc.
Photoelectric Effect
In 1887, H. Hertz performed an experiment and observed that:
 When a beam of light of suitable wavelength (λ) frequency is allowed to fall on the surface of a metal
(such as K, Ph, S) electrons are emitted (or ejected) from the surface of the metal.
 This phenomenon of emission of electrons is known as photoelectric effect.
 The electrons emitted are known as photo electrons.
The results of this experiments are:
a. Electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the beam of light strikes the surface, i.e there
is no time gas between the striking of light beam and the ejection of electrons from the metal surface.
b. The number of electrons ejected is proportional to the intensity or brightness of light.
c. For each metal, there is a characteristic minimum frequency, ν0 (also known as threshold frequency),
below which photoelectric effect is not observed.
At a frequency ν > ν0 , the ejected electrons come out with certain kinetic energy. The kinetic energies
of these electrons increases with an increase in frequency of the light used.
 Laws of wave theory and classical physics could not be explained about photoelectric effect.
 According to the laws of wave theory energy content of the beam of light depends upon the
brightness of light.
 Experimentally found that the number of electrons ejected does depends on the intensity of the
incident light, their kinetic energies do not depend.
 It was Einstein (1905) who explained the photoelectric effect using Plank’s quantum theory of
electromagnetic radiation.
 According to him, electrons in metals are held by some attractive forces.
 To overcome these forces, a certain minimum amount of energy is required, which is characteristic
of the metal.
 This is called photoelectric work function, W0.
 To cause ejection of electrons, the photons of incident light should have energy equal to or greater
than this work function.
 Since from quantum theory we know that the energy of photon is directly proportional to the
frequency of radiation, the incident photons should have a certain minimum frequency called
threshold frequency or critical frequency (ν0).
hν0 = photoelectric work function, W0
the kinetic energy of the ejected electron is given by
hν = hν0 + KE
1
hν = hν0 + 2 meν2
where me is the mass of electron and ν is the velocity of the ejected electron.
1 1 λ −λ
0
or KE = hν - hν0 = hcቀλ − ቁ or KE = hcቀ λλ ቁ
λ0 0
The kinetic energy of photoelectrons is independent of intensity because an increase in intensity does
not affect the energy of photons; rather, it simply increases the number of photons falling on the surface
of metal and, hence, increases the number of photoelectrons.
The photoelectric work function depends upon the nature of the metal. A metal having ionization energy
has a greater value of photoelectric work function. The values of photoelectric work functions of some
metals are given below:
Values of work function (W0) of a few metals
Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag
W0 ⁄eV 2.42 2.3 2.25 3.7 4.8 4.3
WORKSHEET – 5
1. The ejection of electrons when the surface of metal is irradiated by light is called:
1) Zeeman effect 2) Stark effect
3) Photoelectric effect 4) Compton effect
2. Which is not the property of the photons?
1) Momentum 2) Energy 3) Velocity 4) Rest mass
3. Photoelectric effect shows:
1) Particle like behaviour of light 2) Wave like behaviour of light
3) Both wave like and particle like behaviour of light
4) Neither wave like nor particle like behaviour of light
4. The velocity of a photon is:
1) Independent of its wavelength 2) Dependent on its wavelength
3) Depends on its source 4) Equal to square of its amplitude
5. Dimensions of plack ’ s constant are:
1) Force × time 2) Energy × distance
3) Energy × time 4) Energy / time
6. The plack ‘s constant are :
1) Work 2) Energy 3) Angular momentum 4) Linear momentum
7. Radiant energy emitted or absorbed is not continuously but discontinuously in the form of small
packets of energy called:
1) Photon 2) Quanta 3) Wave length 4) Energy
8. A quanta will have more energy if:
1) The wavelength is larger 2) The frequency is higher
3) The amplitude is higher 4) The velocity is lower
9. The characteristic not associated with Planck ‘s theory is :
1) radiations are associated with energy
2) the magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to frequency
3) radiation energy is neither emitted nor absorbed continuously.
4) radiation energy is neither emitted nor absorbed discontinuously.
10. Planck ‘ s constant has the same dimension as that of
1) power 2) work 3) radiant energy 4) angular momentum
11. Which of the following relates to photons both as wave motion and as a stream of particles?
1) interference 2) E = mc 2 3) diffraction 4) E =hv
12. As the frequency of the light increases, the momentum of its Photon
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) cannot be predicted
13. The kinetic energy of electrons ejected by using light having frequency equal to threshold frequency
(𝑛0 ) is :
1) ℎ𝑣0 2) Almost zero 3) very large 4) ℎ⁄𝑣0
14. Visible light photons do not show Compton effect because they
1) Move very slowly 2) Have no momentum
3) Have very less mass 4) Have larger wavelength
1 2
15. In the equation hv = ℎ𝑣0 + 2 𝑚𝑒 𝜈 , 𝜐0 is known as
1) work function 2) velocity of ejected electron
3) threshold frequency 4) frequency of photon
16. Photo electric effected is not observed in case of
1) Potassium 2) Rubidium 3) Magnesium 4) Cesium
JEE MAINS
Single Correct Choice Type :
1. What is the packet of energy called?
1) Electron 2) Quanta 3) Positron 4) Proton
2. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made by:
1) Heisenberg 2) Bohr 3) Planck 4) Einstein
3. An ideal black body:
1) Emits the radiation of all frequencies.
2) Absorbs the radiations of all frequencies.
3) Emits and absorbs the radiation of all frequencies.
4. The intensity in the radiation from a black body is the function of:
1) Wavelength 2) Frequency 3) Amplitude 4) Time period
5. The kinetic energy of the ejected electrons in photoelectric effect is
1) Directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation
2) Inversely proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation
3) Not related to the frequency of the incident radiation
4) All the above
6. Which of the following relates to photons both as wave motion and as a stream of particles?
1) interference 2) E = hv 3) Difference 4) E = 𝑚𝑐 2
7. Light of certain wavelength strikes on a metal surface with intensity x and the metal emits y electrons
per second of average energy, z. What will happen to y and z if x is doubled?
1) y will be doubled and z will become half
2) y will remain same and z will become half
3) both y and z will be doubled
4) y will be doubled but z will remain same
8. The photoelectric emission from a surface starts only when the light incident upon the surface has
certain minimum
1) intensity 2) wavelength 3) frequency 4) velocity
9. In photoelectric effect the number of photo – electrons emitted is proportional to
1) intensity of incident beam 2) frequency of incident beam
3) wavelength of incident beam 4) all the above
10. which one of the following is not the characteristic of Planck ‘ s quantum theory of radiation?
1) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number or multiple of quantum.
2) Radiation is associated with energy.
3) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but in the form of small packets called
quanta.
4) This magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the frequency.
11. Calculate energy of one mole of photons of radiation whose frequency is 5 × 1014 Hz.
1) 199.51 KJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 2) 299.51 KJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 3) 19.951 KJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 4) 29.951 KJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
12. A 100-watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 400nm. Calculate the number of photons
emitted per second by the bulb.
1) 20 12 × 1020 𝑆 −1 2) 2.012 × 1020 𝑆 −1 3) 4.969 × 10−19 𝑆 −1 4) 49.69 × 10−19 𝑆 −1
13. A photon of radiation of wavelength 600 nm has an energy E. The wavelength of photon of radiation
having energy 0.25 E is:
1) 600 nm 2) 2400 nm 3)150 nm 4) 300nm
14. A bulb emits light of wavelength 4500 Å. The bulb is rated as 150 watts and 8% of the energy is
emitted as light. How many photons are emitted by the bulb per second?
1) 27.2 × 1018 2) 2. 72 × 1016 3) 27.5 × 104 4) 27.2 × 108
15. If the Planck ‘ s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠, the de Broglie wavelength of a particle having
momentum 3.3 × 10−24 kg 10−24 kg 10𝑚𝑠−1 will be.
1) 2 Å 2) 0.03 Å 3) 500 Å 4) 20 Å
16. Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which:
1) Photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of electrons.
2) Photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the action of an electric field.
3) Electrons come out of the metal with a constant velocity which depends on the frequency and intensity
of incident light wave.
4) Electrons come out of a metal with different velocities not greater than a certain value which depends
only on the frequency of the incident light wave and not on its intensity.
17. A quantum of light having energy E has wavelength equal to 7200 𝐴0 . The frequency of light which
corresponds to energy equal to 3E, is
1) 1.25 × 1014 𝑆 −1 2) 1.25 × 1015 𝑆 −1 3) 1.25 × 1013 𝑆 −1 4) 1.25 × 1014 𝑆 −1
18. The wave length of lights is 7000 𝐴0 . The no. of protons required to provide 20 J of energy is
approximately
1) 4.56 × 1018 2) 5.02 × 1018 3) 7 × 1019 4) 4 × 107
19. Which of the following relates to light as wave motion as a stream of particles?
1) Photoelectric effect 2) E = 𝑚𝑐 2 3) Diffraction 4) E = hv.
20. The energy per quantum associated with light of wave length 250 × 10−9 m is
1) 7.95 × 10−19 J 2) 7.95 × 10−26J 3) 3.93 × 10−26 J 4) 3.93 × 10−19J
21. A metal surface is exposed to solar radiation:
1) Emitted electrons have zero energy.
2) The emitted electrons have energy equal to energy of photons of incident light.
3) The emitted electrons have energy less than the maximum value of energy depending upon intensity
of incident light.
4) The emitted electrons have energy less than the maximum value of energy depending upon frequency
of incident light.
22. The threshold wavelength for ejection of electron from metal is 310 nm. The kinetic energy of emitted
photo electron is 36 × 10−26J. Then frequency of incident light is.
1) 1.5 × 1015 Hz 2) 2.5 × 1018 Hz 3) 1 × 1022 HJ 4) 2.5 × 1012 HJ
23. Iodine molecule dissociates into atoms after absorbing light of 4500 0𝐴 . If one quantum of radiation
is absorbed by each molecule, calculate the kinetic energy of Iodine atoms.
1) 2.16 × 10−20 J 2) 4.1 × 10−26 J 3) 3.12 × 10−14J 4) 2.16 × 10−22J
24. Photoelectric emission is observed from a surface for frequencies V1 and V2 of the incident radiation
(V1 > V2 ). If the maximum kinetic energies of the photoelectrons in the two cases are in the ratio 1:k
then the threshold frequency V0 is given by:
1) kV2 - V1 2) V2 − V1 3) V2 − V1 4) kV1 - V2
K–1 K k–1 k–1
25. A 1-kW radio transmitter operates at a frequency of 880 Hz. How many photons per second does it
emit?
(A) 1.71 × 1021 (B) 1.71 × 1030 (C) 6.2 × 1023 (D) 1.71 × 1033
26. A photoelectric emitter has a threshold frequency 𝜗0 .When light frequency 2𝜈0 .is incident, the speed
of photo electrons will be
1) 5V 2) 3V 3) 20V 4) 8V
27. We can say that the energy of frequency 𝜈 is given by E = hv, where h is Planck’s constant. The moment
ℎ
of a photon is p = 𝜆 , where 𝜆 is the wavelength of photon. Then we may conclude that velocity of light is
equal to
𝐸 𝐸
1) ቀ𝑃ቁ 2) 𝑃 3) Ep 4)
14 −1
28. The threshold frequency 𝑉0 for a metal is 7 × 10 𝑆 . Calculate the kinetic energy of an electron
emitted when radiation of frequency V=1 × 1015 𝑆 −1 hits the metal.
1) 1.988 × 10−19J 2) 19.88 × 10−19J 3) 1.988 × 10−20J 4) 198.8 × 10−19J
JEE ADVANCED
29. The value of Plank ‘s constant is (h) is:
1) 6.625 × 10−34J – sec 2) 6.625 × 10−28 erg – sec
3) 6.625 × 10−38 cal – sec 4) 6.625 × 10−27 erg – sec
30. Which of the following is Einstein’s photoelectric equation?
1
1) E = W + KE 2) hv = ℎ𝑣 0 + 2 𝑚𝑣 2 3) hv = ℎ𝑣 0 +eVs 4) None of these
Statement Type
31. statement I: Plank ‘s constant has the same dimensions as that of angular momentum.
Statement II: Cesium metal most likely exhibits photoelectric effect.
32. Statement I: The minimum energy required for the photoelectric effect is called work function.
Statement II: The minimum potential applied by which velocity of ejected photo electron becomes zero
is called stopping potential.
Comprehension Type
In 1887, H. Hertz performed a very interesting experiment in which electrons (or electric current) were
ejected when certain metals (for example potassium, rubidium, caesium etc.) were exposed to a beam
of light as shown in Figure. The phenomenon is called Photoelectric effect.
(i) The electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the beam of light strikes the
surface, i.e., there is no time lag between the striking of light beam and the ejection of
electrons from the metal surface.
(ii) The number of electrons ejected is proportional to the intensity or brightness of light.
(iii) For each metal, there is a characteristic minimum frequency, 𝑣0 (also known as threshold
frequency) below which photoelectric effect is not observed. At a frequency v > 𝑣0 , the
ejected electrons come out with certain kinetic energy. The kinetic energies of these electrons
increases with the increases of frequency of the light used.
33. In photoelectric effect, the number of photoelectrons emitted per unit area per unit time depends
on:
1) Frequency of the incident radiation.
2) Wavelength of the incident radiation.
3) Intensity of the incident radiation.
4) Wavenumber of the incident radiation.
34. The phenomenon of photo electric effect was successfully explained by:
1) Bohr 2) Maxwell 3) Einstein 4) Planck
35. In photoelectric effect, the photo current:
1) Increases with increases of frequency of incident photon.
2) Decreases with increases of frequency of incident photon.
3) Does not depend on the frequency of photon but depends only on the intensity of incident light.
4) Depends both on intensity and frequency of the incident photon.
In was Einstein who explained the photoelectric effect on the basis of quantum theory. According to
him electrons in metals are held by some attractive forces. To overcome these forces certain minimum
amount of energy is required which is characteristic of the metal. This is called photoelectric work
function, W0 .
Now to cause ejection of electrons, the photons of incident light should have energy equal to or greater
than this work function. We know from the quantum theory that energy of photon is directly proportional
to frequency called threshold frequency or critical frequency (𝑉0).
h𝑉0 = Photoelectric work frequency (𝑉0).
36. Einstein was awarded the Nobel prize in physics in 1921 for his:
1) Theory of relativity.
2) Concept of mass - energy relationship.
3) Explanation of the photoelectric effect.
4) Explanation of the nucleus structure.
37. Which of the following is/are correct about photo electric effect?
1) Photoelectric effect takes place only when wavelength of incident radiation is > critical wavelength.
2) The number of photo electrons emitted is ∝ intensity of the incident radiation.
3) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted is ∝ frequency of the incident radiation.
4) Both 2 and 3.
38. Kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases linearly with:
1) Temperature. 2) Frequency of the incident light.
3) Wave length of the incident light. 4) Atomic number.
Matrix Match Type

39. Column I Column II
a) 𝑣0 1) frequency
b) Photoelectric effect ∝ 2) Threshold frequency
c) ∅ 3) Work function
d) K.E = 4) E - ∅
40. Column – I Column - II
a) Photoelectric effect is readily 1) hv
exhibited by
b) Quantum theory was proposed by 2) Max Planck
c) h 3) Planck’s constant
d) Energy of photon 4) Alkali metals
41. Which of the following statement(s) are correct?
1) Planck ‘ s quantum theory explains only the black body radiations.
2) Einstein extended the quantum theory to all electromagnetic radiations.
3) Einstein called the energy packets of electromagnetic radiations as photons.
Statement Type
42. Statement I: When a photon strikes the metal, its energy is absorbed by the electrons and
emission of electrons takes place.
Statement II: Kinetic energy of electrons does not depend on intensity of light.
43. Statement I: Velocity of a photon is depending on its wavelength.

Statement II: The phenomenon of photoelectric effect was successfully explaining by Einstein.
44. Which of the following statements is/are true in the context of photoelectric effect?
(A) The kinetic energy of ejected electron is independent of the intensity of radiation
(B) It provided an evidence for quantum nature of light.
(C) The number of photoelectrons ejected depends upon the intensity of the incident radiation.
(D) The kinetic energy of the emitted electrons depends on the frequency of the incident radiation.
45. Which is correct graph for photoelectric effect.
Photo electron
Photo electron
(A) (B)
K.E. of
K.E. of
V V
Photo electron
Photo electron
K.E. of
K.E. of
(C) (D)
Intensity of light 𝜆
Synopsis-6
Spectrum:
The phenomenon of splitting of a beam of light into radiations of different frequencies
after passing through the prism is called dispersion and the pattern of radiations obtained after
dispersion of beam is called spectrum.
Emission and Absorption Spectra

 Absorption spectrum
Spectrum produced by absorbed radiations is called absorption spectrum
It corresponds to the radiation absorbed in exciting the electron from a lower to a higher energy level.
A continuum of radiation is passed through a sample which absorbs radiation of certain wavelengths.
The missing wavelength which corresponds to the radiation absorbed by the matter, leave dark
spaces in the bright continuous spectrum.
 Emission spectrum
Spectrum produced by emitted radiation is known as emission spectrum.
This spectrum corresponds to the radiation emitted when an excited electron returns back to the
ground state.
It appears as bright lines on a dark background.
 Line spectrum
This spectrum consists of a series of lines, each corresponding to a particular wavelength.
Every element gives its own characteristic spectrum
So it is possible to identify the element by analyzing its spectrum.
It is produced by atoms so it is called atomic spectrum.
It is formed by the transition of electrons between energy levels in an atom.
 Band spectrum
The spectrum consisting of a series of very closely spaced lines is called band spectrum.
It is produced by molecules.
So it is called molecular spectrum.
The band spectrum is formed by the vibrations and rotations of atoms present in a molecule.
Line Spectrum of Hydrogen
 The atomic spectrum of hydrogen has been proved to be very helpful in the development of atomic
structure.
 When an electric discharge is passed through hydrogen gas, its molecules dissociate into hydrogen
atoms.
 An energetically excited hydrogen atom then emits electromagnetic radiation of discrete frequencies.
 Each line corresponds to a particular frequency of light emitted by hydrogen atoms. The lines of
hydrogen spectrum are named after their discoverers.
 Lines in the emission spectrum of hydrogen are present in ultraviolet, visible, and infrared regions.
Balmer showed in 1885 that if spectral lines are expressed in terms of wave number (vത), then the visible
lines of the hydrogen spectrum obey the expression
1 1 2
vത = 109677 ቀn1 − ቁ cm-1
n2
Where n is an integer equal to or greater than 3 (i.e., n = 3, 4, 5, …).
The series of lines that could be described by this expression are known as Balmer series.
Later, a Swedish spectroscopes Johannes Rydberg gave a more general expression applicable to all the
series in the hydrogen spectrum:
1 1
vത = 109677 ൬ − ൰cm-1
n21 n22
Where n1 and n2 are integers such that n2 > n1. The value of 109677 cm-1 is called the Rydberg constant ®
for hydrogen. For a particular series, n1 is constant.
Series of transitions in hydrogen spectrum
Series of lines n1 n2 Spectral region Wavelength
Lyman series n1 = 1 n2 = 2, 3, 4, … ∞ UV light <4000 Å
Balmer series n1 = 2 n2 = 3, 4, 5, … ∞ Visible 4000 – 7000 Å
Paschen series n1 = 3 n2 = 4, 5, 6 … ∞ Near infrared > 7000 Å
Bracket series n1 = 4 n2 =5, 6, 7, … ∞ Infrared > 7000 Å
Pfund series n1 = 5 n2 = 6, 7, 8, … ∞ Far infrared > 7000 Å
Humphrey series n1 = 6 n2 = 7, 8, 9, … ∞ Far infrared > 7000 Å
These series of transitions in the hydrogen spectrum. Figure shows the Lyman, Balmer, and Paschen
series of transitions for a hydrogen atom.
A hydrogen atom has the simplest atomic spectrum. A heavier atom has more and more complex atomic
spectrum or line spectrum. However, there are certain features common to all line spectra, viz.
a. Line spectrum of an element is unique and
b. There is a regularity in the line spectrum of each element
The spectral lines for atomic hydrogen
Series of lines n1 n2 Spectral region
Lyman series 1 2, 3, … Ultraviolet
Balmer series 2 3, 4, … Visible
Paschen series 3 4, 5, … Infrared
Bracket series 4 5, 6, … Infrared
Pfund series 5 6, 7, … Infrared
Humphrey series 6 7, 8, … Far infrared
For the given value of n (principal quantum number), the total number of spectral lines can be calculated
by the expression n(n-1)/2.
WORKSHEET – 6
1. The arrangement obtained by splitting of electromagnetic radiation into its component wave
length when passed through a prism is called;
1) Spectrum 2) Continuous spectrum
3) Bond energy 4) Bond length
2. The continuous in atomic spectrum is due to
1) Wave property of the electron 2) Ionisation of atom
3) Interaction of anion with an atom 4) Instability of the excited state
3. The dark lines in a spectrum is produced by
1) Passing white light through cold gas 2) Exciting gases to very high energy levels
3) Passing light through hot gases 4) Bombarding gases with electrons
4. The spectrum is incandescent white light obtained by heating a solid to very high temperature is
1) Continuous spectrum 2) Emission spectrum
3) Absorption spectrum 4) Simple spectrum
5. The spectrum formed by the emission of energy in the form of light radiation is called:
6. The spectrum formed by the absorption of energy in the form of light radiation is called:
7. The spectrum obtained by the molecules is called:
8. Which of the following transitions are not allowed in the normal electronic emission spectrum
of an atom?
1) 2s→1s 2) 2p→1s 3) 3d→ 4p 4) 5p→3s
9. The spectrum with all wavelengths may be
1) absorption spectrum 2) emission spectrum
3) continuous spectrum 4) discontinuous spectrum
10. Line spectrum is characteristic of
1) Atoms 2) molecules
3) any substance in the solid state 4) any substance in the liquid state
11. All types of electromagnetic radiations possess same
1) Wave length 2) Frequency
3) Energy 4) Velocity when they passed through vacuum
12. The band spectrum is caused by
1) Molecules 2) Atoms
3) any substance in solid state 4) any substance in liquid state
13. The line spectra of two elements are not identical because:
1) The elements do not have the same number of neutrons
2) They have different mass numbers
3) Their outermost electrons are at different energy levels
4) All the above
14. In the atomic spectrum of hydrogen, the series of lines observed in the visible region is
1) Balmer series 2) Paschen series
3) Bracket series 4) Lyman series
15. Different lines in Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lie in ______ region
1) Ultraviolet 2) Infrared
3) Visible 4) Far infrared
16. Rydberg constant is:
1) Same for all elements 2) Different for different elements
3) A universal constant
4) Is different for lighter elements but same for heavier elements
17. The value of Rydberg constant is:
1) 109 677𝑐𝑚−1 2) 3.289 x 1015 𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
3) Both 1 & 2 4) None
−1
18. Cm is the unit for which constant?
1) Bohr’s constant 2) Rydberg’s constant
3) Schrodinger’s constant 4) Planck’s constant
19. The only series of hydrogen emission with colours is
1) Lyman 2) Balmer 3) Paschen 4) Brackett
20. Transition from n = 2, 3, 4, 5________to n = 1 is called
1) Lyman series 2) Paschen series
3) Balmer series 4) Brackett series
21. Brackett series of hydrogen spectra lies in
1) Far infrared region 2) Visible region
3) U.V region 4) Near infrared region
JEE MAINS
Level-1:
1. The spectrum produced by white light is
1) Emission spectrum 2) Continuous spectrum
3) Absorption spectrum 4) Both emission and continuous spectrum.
2. Line spectra is characteristic of
1) Atoms 2) Molecules 3) Radicals 4) Ions
3. Band spectra is given by
1) Atoms 2) Molecules 3) Elements 4) None of these
4. The continuous in atomic spectrum is due to:
1) Instability of the excited state 2) Ionisation of an atom
3) Interaction of anion with an atom. 4) None of these
5. The spectrum of an atom is known as;
1) Band spectrum 2) Emission spectrum
3) Line spectrum 4) Molecular spectrum
6. In hydrogen atom electron is present in the N shell.If it loses energy,a spectral line may be
observed in the region
1) Infra-red 2) Visible 3) ultra-violet 4) any of these
th
7. When the electron of 5 orbit jumps into the first orbit,the number of spectral line produced in
hydrogen spectrum is
1) 5 2) 10 3) 20 4) 1
8. The electron present in 5th orbit in excited hydrogen atoms returned back to ground state. The
no. of lines which appear in Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum
1) 5 2) 10 3) 4 4) 6
9. The electronic transition that emits maximum energy is [n = represents orbit]
1) 𝑛5 → 𝑛4 2) 𝑛4 → 𝑛3 3) 𝑛2 → 𝑛1 4) 𝑛3 → 𝑛2
10. The wave number of the 𝐻𝛼 -line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is
1) 5R/36 2) 3R/16 3) 21R/100 4) 3R/4
11. If the mass of the electron is reduced to half the Rydberg constant
1) Remains unchanged 2) becomes half
3) becomes double 4) becomes one fourth
12. Rydberg constant is
1) Same for all elements 2) Different for different elements
3) A universal constant
4) Is different for lighter elements but same for heavier elements
LEVEL - 2:
13. Transition of electron from n = 3 level to n = 1 level results in:
1) X – ray spectrum 2) Emission spectrum
3) Band spectrum 4) Infrared spectrum
14. Transition of an electron from n = 3 level to n = 2 level results in:
1) The infra-red spectrum 2) In the visible spectrum
3) In the ultraviolet spectrum 4) In the far infrared spectrum
15. What are the values of 𝑛1 and 𝑛2 respectively for 𝐻𝛽 ;line in the Lyman series of hydrogen
atomic spectrum?
1) 3 and 5 2) 2 and 3 3) 1 and 3 4) 2 and 4
16. Maximum difference in energy for hydrogen atom is found when:
1) 𝑛1 = 1 and 𝑛2 = 2 2) 𝑛1 = 0 and 𝑛2 = 0
3) 𝑛1 = 3 and 𝑛2 = 1 4) 𝑛1 = 2 and 𝑛2 = 1
17. Among the five lines of Lyman, Balmer, Paschen and Brackett series in hydrogen spectra, which
one has higher energy?
1) Lyman 2) Balmer 3) Paschen 4) Brackett
th
18. The angular speed of the electron in the n orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is
1) Directly proportional to n 2) Inversely proportional to √𝑛
2
3) Inversely proportional to 𝑛 4) Inversely proportional to 𝑛3
19. Spectrum that obtained due to the excitation of atoms or molecules by absorbing energy is
1) Emission spectrum 2) Continuous spectrum
3) Absorption spectrum 4) Both emission and continuous spectrum.
20. The minimum and maximum values of wavelength in the Lyman series of a H atom are,
respectively,
1) 364.3 nm and 653.4 nm 2) 91.2 nm and 121.5 nm
3) 41.2 nm and 102.6 nm 4) 9.12 nm and 121.5 nm
21. The maximum wavelength that would excite an electron from energy level n = 1 to n = 3 in
atomic hydrogen is
1) 1 nm 2) 102 nm 3) 487 nm 4) 10 -7 m
22. What transition in the hydrogen spectrum would have the same length as the Balmer transition
n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ spectrum? (IIT 93)
1) 𝑛1 = 1 and 𝑛2 = 2 2) 𝑛1 = 2 and 𝑛2 = 3
3) 𝑛1 = 3 and 𝑛2 = 2 4) 𝑛1 = 2 and 𝑛2 = 4
23. The wave number of first line in Blamer series of Hydrogen is 15,200 cm-1 the wave number of
first line in Balmer series of Be3+ is
1) 2.43 x 105 cm-1 2) 3.43 x 105 cm-1 3) 4.43 x 105 cm-1 4) 5.43 x 105 cm-1
24. In which of the following cases, the wavelength emitted is minimum?
1) An electron jumps from 2nd to 1st level.
2) An electron jumps from 3rd to 2nd level
3) An electron jumps from 4th to 3rd level.
4) An electron jumps from 5th to 4th level.
25. The line spectrum observed when the electrons falls from higher energy levels into lower energy
level is known as:
1) Balmer series 2) Lyman series 3) Paschen series 4) Pfund series
26. In the Bohr series of lines of hydrogen emission spectrum, the third line from the red end
corresponds to which one of the following inter-orbit jumps of the electron?
1) 3 → 2 2) 5 → 2 3) 4 → 1 4) 2 → 5
27. The wave number of first line of Balmer series of H-atom is 15200 cm-1. The wave number of
first Balmer line of Li2+ ion is (IIT 92)
1) 15200 cm-1 2) 60800 cm-1 3) 76000 cm-1 4) 136,800 cm-1
28. Bohr’s orbits are called stationary states because:
1) Electrons in them are stationary.
2) Their orbits have fixed radii.
3) The electrons in them have fixed energy.
4) The protons remain in the nuclei and are stationary.
29. If the wavelength of series limit of Lyman series for He+ion is x Å, then what will be the
wavelength of series limit of Balmer series for Li2+ ion ?
9x 16x 5x 4x
1) Å 2) Å 3) Å 4) Å
4 9 4 9
JEE ADVANCED
LEVEL – 1: Multi Correct Choice Type
30. Which of the following are types of spectrum?
1) Absorption spectrum 2) Emission spectrum
3) Line spectrum 3) Continuous spectrum
31. Which of the following are series of Hydrogen spectra?
1) Lyman 2) Balmer 3) Pfund 4) Brackett
Statement Type:
32. Statement I: Line spectrum of Li+2 and He+ are explained by Bohr.
Statement II: Isoelectronic species produce identical spectrum.
33. Statement I: Hydrogen spectrum is the simplest of all the atomic spectra.
Statement II: The first line in Balmer series is called Hα line.
Comprehension Type:
The spectrum produced by the emission of energy in the form of light radiation is called
emission spectrum. Emission spectrum consists of bright lines or bands on a dark
background.
34. The spectrum produced by the absorbed radiation is called:
1) Atomic spectrum 2) Line spectrum
3) Absorption spectrum 4) None of these
35. Which of the following gives discrete emission spectrum?
1) Mercury vapour lamp 2) Sun
3) Sodium lamp 4) Candle
36. An emission spectrum contains _____ lines over the _____ background.
1) Bright, dark 2) Bright, bright
3) Dark, bright 4) Dark, dark
Comprehension Type:
Of all the atomic spectra, Hydrogen spectrum is the simplest spectrum. Hydrogen
spectrum consists of groups of lines classifies into various series. Among these series, Brackett
series is found in the infrared region. In Lyman series transition of electron from n2 = 2, 3, 4, 5 ---
to n1 = 1 takes place. From Lyman series to pfund series wavelength increases but frequency and
energy decreases.
37. Transition of electron from n = 2, 3, 4, 5 -------- to n = 1 is called:
1) Lyman series 2) Paschen series 3) Balmer series 4) Brackett series
38. Brackett series of Hydrogen spectra lies in:
1) Far infrared region 2) Visible region
3) U.V region 4) Infrared region
39. In the hydrogen spectrum, least energetic series is:
1) Lyman series 2) Balmer series
3) Paschen series 4) Pfund series
Matrix Match Type:

40. Column I Column II
a) Speed of electromagnetic waves 1) 3 x 108 m/s
b) Velocity of electromagnetic waves 2) c = vλ
c) Continuous spectrum 3) radiations corresponding to all the
wavelengths are present.
d) The study of emission or 4) Spectroscopy
absorption spectra
41. Column 1 Column II
a) Lyman series 1) Visible region
b) Humphery series 2) Ultraviolet region
c) Paschen series 3) Near infrared region
d) Balmer series 4) Far infrared region
LEVEL – 2 & 3
42. Which of the following elements are discovered by spectral studies?
1) Beryllium 2) Cesium 3) Rubidium 4) Aluminium
43. Which of the following statements may be regarded as indicating a defect of the Bohr theory of
the hydrogen spectrum?
1) The theory could not be extended to polyelectronic atoms.
2) The theory bypassed classical electromagnetism which states that orbiting electrons should
spiral around the nucleus and fall in.
3) The theory had nothing to say about the intensities of spectral lines.
4) The theory ignored the wave nature of the electrons.
LEVEL – 4 & 5: Statement Type
44. Statement I: The spectrum of He+ is expected to be similar to that of hydrogen.
Statement II: He+ is also an one electron species.
WORKSHEET – 6: KEY
CUQ: 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4.1 5. 2 6. 3 7. 4 8. 3 9. 3 10. 1 11. 4 12. 1 13. 3

14. 1 15. 1 16. 2 17. 3 18. 2 19. 2 20. 1 21. 1
JEE MAINS AND ADVANCED: 1.4 2. 1 3.2 4.2 5. 3 6. 4 7.2 8.3 9.3 10.1
11.2 12. 2 13.2 14.2 15.3 16. 1 17.1 18.4 19.3 20. 2 21. 2 22. 1
23. 1 24. 1 25. 1 26. 2 27. 4 28.3 29.2 30. 1,2,3,4 31. 1,2,3,4 32. 1
33. 1 34. 3 35. 1 36. 1 37. 1 38. 4 39. 4 40. a-1,2: b-1, 2: c-3; d-4
41. a-2; b-4; c-3; d-1 42. 2,3 43. 1,3,4 44. 1
Synopsis-7
BOHR’S MODEL FOR HYDROGEN ATOM
 In 1913, Niels Bohr, a Danish physicist, proposed a model of an atom based on classical and early
quantum physics in order to overcome the shortcomings of the Rutherford model.
 Bohr retained Rutherford’s concept of a central positive charged nucleus surrounded by a
planetary system of electrons.
 He also made use of Planck’s quantum theory. The main postulates of Bohr’s theory are as follows:
a. The electron in the hydrogen atom revolves around the nucleus in a circular path of fixed radius and
energy.
b. These paths are called orbits, stationary states, energy shells, or allowed energy states.
c. These stationary states for electrons are numbered as n = 1, 2, 3, … or designated as K, L, M, N, …,
etc. shells. These integral numbers are known as principal quantum numbers. These orbits are
arranged concentrically around the nucleus.
d. Electrons revolve only in those orbits where the angular momentum of the electron is quantized.
Thus an electron can move only in those orbits for which its angular momentum is an integral multiple
of h/2π that is why only certain fixed are allowed.
h h
me νr = n2π , or nℏ ቀwhere ℏ = ቁ
2π
where n = 1, 2, 3, …, n; h is Planck’s constant; m is mass of electron, ν is the velocity of electron; and r is
the radius of the orbit.
e. The energy of an electron in the orbit does not change with time. This means that the energy of an
electron in a particular orbit remains constant; it does not lose or gain energy
f. The electron will move from a lower stationary state to a higher stationary state when the required
amount of energy is absorbed by the electron. When the electron jumps back to the lower energy
level, it emits the same amount of energy. The energy change does not take place in a continuous
manner.
g. The frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted when transition occurs between two stationary
states that differ in energy by ∆E is given by
∆E E2 − E1
ν= = ,
h h
Where E1 and E2 are the energies of the lower and higher allowed energy states, respectively. This
expression is called Bohr’s frequency rule.
h. According to Bohr’s theory for hydrogen atom;
i. The stationary states for electron are numbered. n = 1, 2, 3 … These integral numbers are known
as Principal quantum numbers.
ii. The radii of the stationary states are expressed as:
rn = n2 a0
where a0 = 52.9 pm. Thus the radius of first stationary states called the Bohr orbit is 52.9 pm.
Electron in the hydrogen atom is found in this orbit (i.e, n = 1)
As n increase the value of r will increase i.e. electron will be present away from the nucleus.
iii. Energy of electron of its stationary state is:
1
En = -RH ቀn2 ቁ, n = 1, 2, 3…
where RH is called Rydberg constant and its value is 2.18 X 10-18 J and this is energy of hydrogen atom.
Similarly, energy of stationary state for n = 2 is
1
E2 = -2.18 X 10-18 J ቀ22 ቁ = -0.545 X 10-18 J
Angular Momentum
 Electrons can revolve only in those permissible orbits in which the angular momentum of the
ℎ
electron is an integral multiple of 2𝜋.
 This is known as Quantisation of angular momentum.
ℎ
mvr = n 2𝜋
 where m= mass of the electron r= radius of the orbit
v= velocity of the electron n=1,2,3,4….
H=Planck’s constant.
Explanation of Line Spectrum of Hydrogen

 Line spectrum of hydrogen atom can be explained quantitatively by using Bohr’s theory.
 Energy (radiation) is absorbed if the electron moves from smaller value of n to higher value of n.
(Principal quantum number), whereas energy (radiation) is emitted if the electron moves from higher
orbit to lower orbit.
The energy gap between two orbits is given as:
∆E = Ef − Ei
Successes of Bohr’s Model
a. Bohr’s model could explain the stability of an atom. According to Bohr’s model, an electron revolving
in a particular orbit cannot lose energy. The electron can lose energy only if it jumps to some lower
energy level. If no lower energy level is vacant, then the electron will keep on revolving in the same
orbit without losing energy and, hence, it explains the stability of atom.
b. Bohr’s theory successfully explains the hydrogen spectrum. It also explains the spectrum of some
other one-electron systems (H-like system) such as He⊕ , Li2+, Be3+, etc.
i. Radius of the orbit (rn ) in which the electron is revolving around the nucleus
ii. Energy of the electron (En ) in an orbit
iii. Velocity of the electron (Vn ) in an orbit
Experimental Facts in Favour of Bohr’s Theory
The points in favour of the validity of Bohr’s theory are summarised as follows:
a. The frequencies of the spectral lines of the hydrogen spectrum, as determined experimentally, are in
close agreement with the frequencies of the same lines calculated with the help of Bohr’s theory.
b. The value of Rydberg constant for hydrogen, RH, as calculated from Bohr’s theory (RH = 109677 cm-1)
is in complete agreement with the experimental value (109677 cm-1) obtained from spectroscopic
studies.
c. The radii and energies of the permissible in hydrogen atom as calculated from Bohr’s theory are in
full agreement with experimental values.
Limitations of Bohr’s Model

 Bohr’s model of the hydrogen was an improvement over Rutherford’s nuclear model.
 It could explain the stability of an atom and the line spectra of hydrogen atom and hydrogen-like ions
⊕
(for example, H2 , Li2+, Be3+, and so on).
 A few years later, several discrepancies were observed in Bohr’s theory.
Some of these are listed below:
a. Bohr’s model could not explain the spectra of atoms containing more than one electron.
b. It was observed that in the presence of a magnetic field, each spectral line gets split into closely
spaced lines. This phenomenon, known as Zeeman effect, could not be explained by Bohr’s model.
c. Similarly, Stark effect, i.e splitting of spectral lines in presence of electric field, could not be explained
by Bohr’s model.
d. In 1923, French physicist de Broglie suggested that electron, like light, has dual character. It has dual
character. It has particle as well as wave nature. Bohr had treated electron only as a particle.
e. The main objection to Bohr’s theory was raised by Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. According to
this principle, it is impossible to determine simultaneously the exact position and momentum of a
small particle like an electron. The postulate of Bohr that electron moves in well-defined orbits
around the nucleus, is therefore, not valid.
Bohr’s model could not explain the geometry and shapes of molecules.
WORKSHEET – 7
1. Bohr’s model can explain
1) Spectrum of hydrogen atom only
2) Spectrum of any atom or ion having one electron only
3) Spectrum of hydrogen molecule
4) Solar spectrum
2. As the number of orbit increases from the nucleus. the difference between the adjacent energy levels
1) Increases 2) Remains constant 3) Decreases 4) None
3. According to Bohr’s theory the radius of an electron in an orbit described by principle quantum
number n and atomic number Z is proportional to
1) Z2n2 2) Z2/n2 3) Z2/n 4) n2/Z
4. Angular momentum of an electron in nth orbit is given by
1) Nh 2) h/2𝜋n 3) nh/2𝜋 4) n2h/2𝜋
5. When an electron jump from N to K shell
1) Energy is absorbed 2) Energy is released
3) Both 1 & 2 4) None
6. When an electron moves from higher orbit to a lower orbit _______ is produced
1) Absorption spectra 2) Emission spectra
3) α – particle 4) None
7. The radius of nth orbit in hydrogen atom is where r is radius of first orbit.
1) rn2 2) rn 3) r/n 4) r2n2
8. According to Bohr’s postulates which quantity can take up only discrete values?
1) Kinetic energy 2) Angular momentum
3) Momentum 4) Potential energy
9. The energy of the electron at infinite distance from the nucleus in Bohr’s model is taken as
1) Zero 2) Positive 3) Negative 4) Any value
10. Bohr’s atomic theory gave the idea of :
1) Quantum numbers 2) Shape of sub – levels
3) Nucleus 4) Stationary states
11. For the electron moving in the circular orbit in the hydrogen atom, the forces of attraction of the
nucleus is balanced by the force equal to
1 𝑀𝑉 2 −𝑒 2 𝑀
1) 2 𝑚𝑉 2 2) 𝑟 3) 2𝑟 4) 𝑉𝑟 2
12. The change in velocity when hydrogen electron jumps from K shell to L shell is
1) One-half of its original velocity
2) Twice to its original velocity
3) One-quarter of its original velocity
4) Equal to its original velocity.
13. ∆E value is maximum in
1) E2 – E1 = ∆E 2) E3 – E2 = ∆E 3) E4 -E3 = ∆E 4) E5 – E4 = ∆E
14. Energy difference between two adjacent orbits is minimum if they are
1) K. L – Shells 2) L. M -Shells 3) M. N – Shells 4) N. O - Shells
15. Bohr’s model of atom can explain the spectrum of all except
1) H 2) 𝐻𝑒 + 3) 𝐿𝑖 ++ 4) He
16. The radius of an orbit in hydrogen atom is equal to
1) 𝑛2 ℎ2 / 4𝜋 2 m𝑍𝑒 2 2) 2𝜋𝑍𝑒 2 /nh 3) 2𝜋 2 𝑚𝑍 2 𝑒 4 / 𝑛2 ℎ2 4) −2𝜋 2 𝑚𝑍 2 𝑒 2 / 𝑛2 ℎ2
17. The angular momentum of the electron in the M-shell of H atom is
1) 3h/2𝜋 2) Mh/2𝜋 3) h/2𝜋 4) 2h/2𝜋
JEE MAINS
LEVEL – 1
1.Which of the following are merits of Bohr’s atomic model?
1) It could explain the stability of an atom.
2) It helped in calculating energy of an electron in a particular orbit of hydrogen.
3) Both 1 and 2
2) Which of the following is radius of first orbit of hydrogen?
1) 0.529𝐴° 2) 0.136 𝐴° 3) 0.262 𝐴° 4) 0.329 𝐴°
3) which of the following increases with increase in ‘n’ value?
1) Energy of an orbit
2) Radius of an orbit
3) Both 1 and 2
4) All the above
4) The value of Coulomb’s law constant is:
1) 9 × 109 J. m /C2 2) 3 × 103 J .m/C2 3) 4 × 109 J. m /C2 4) 2 × 1035 J. m/C2
5) The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.52 × 10-8 cm. The radius of the first orbit of helium
atom is:
1) 0.26 × 10-8 cm 2) 0.52 ×10-8 cm 3) 1.04 × 10-8 cm 4) 2.08 × 10-8 cm.
rd th
6) The ratio of radius of 3 and 4 Bohr orbits in hydrogen atom is:
1) 3:4 2) 3:2 3) 4:9 4) 4:1
7) Calculate the ratio of the radius of LI+2 ion in 3rd energy level to that of He+ ion in 2nd energy level
1) 2:3 2) 3:2 3) 4:9 4) 4:1
8) The energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is – 13.6 eV. The energy of the level
corresponding to n = 5 is:
1) -0.54.4 eV 2) – 5.40 eV 3) 13.6 eV 4) -2. 72 eV
9) The ionization potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV the ionization potential for He + is:
1) 54.4 eV 2) 6. 8 eV 3) 13.6 eV 4) 24.5 eV

10) The radius of fourth orbit in hydrogen atom
1) 8.46 𝐴° 2) 4.23𝐴° 3) 2.112𝐴° 4) 5.29𝐴°
11) The radius of the 10th orbit in hydrogen atom is [
°
1) 52.9 cm 2) 5.29 cm 3) 52.9𝐴 4)5.29𝐴°
LEVEL – 2
12) The wavelength of a spectral line for an electron transition is inversely related to:
1) Number of electrons undergoing transition.
2) Nuclear charge of an atom
3) The velocity of an electron undergoing transition.
4) The difference of the energy levels involved in the transition.
13) In two H atoms A and B the electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits of radius r and 4 r
respectively. The ratio of the times taken by them to complete one revolution is
1) 1:4 2) 1:2 3) 1:8 4) 2:1
14) The radio of the radii of first of H, He+ and Li+2 is:
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 6 : 3 : 2 3) 1 : 4 : 9 4) 9 : 4 : 1
15) In a Bohr model of an atom, when an electron jumps from n = 3 n = 1, how much energy will be
emitted?
1) 2.15 × 10-11 ergs 2) 2.389 × 10-12 ergs 3) 0.239 × 10-10 ergs 4) 0.1936 × 10-10 ergs
16) Bohr’s model of an atom is based upon:
1) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
2) De Broglie concept of dual character of matter.
3) Schrodinger wave equation.
4) Plank’s quantum theory.
17) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Bohr theory?
1) Kinetic energy of an electron is half of the magnitude of its potential energy.
2) Kinetic energy of an electron is negative of total energy of an electron.
3) Energy of an electron decreases with increase in the value of the principal quantum number.
4) The ionization of H- atom in the first excited state is negative of the fourth of the energy of ab
electron in the ground state.
18) The Bohr’s energy equation for H atom reveals that the energy level of a shell is given by E =-
13.58/n2 eV. The smallest amount that an H atom will absorb if in ground state is:
1) 1.0 eV 2) 3.39 eV 3) 6.79 eV 4) 10.2 eV
19) Calculate the wavelength in Angstroms of the photon that is emitted when an electron in the Bohr
orbit n= 2 returns to the orbit n = 1 in the hydrogen atom. The ionization potential of the ground
state hydrogen atom is 2.17 × 10-12 erg per atom
1) 218 𝐴° 2) 2218 𝐴° 3) 1218 𝐴° 4) 4218 𝐴°
20) According to Bohr’s theory, the radius of an orbit is described by principal quantum number n and
atomic number n and atomic number Z. is proportional to:
1) Z2 n2 2) Z2 / n2 3) Z2 / n 4) n2/Z
21) One requires energy En to remove of an orbit nucleon and an energy Ee to remove an electron from
the orbit of an atom, then:
1) En = Ee 2) En < Ee 3) En > Ee 4) En ≥ Ee
22) The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom is given by the expression atom in the ground
state can absorb is:
1) 1312 KJ 2) 328 KJ 3) 656 KJ 4) 984 KJ
23) The ratio of the difference in energy of electron between the first and second Bohr orbits to that
between second and third Bohr’ orbit is:
1) 1/3 2) 27/5 3)9/4 4) 4/9
24) The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is – 13.6 eV. The possible energy value(s)
of the excited state (s) for electrons in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are):
1) -3.4 eV 2) – 4.2 eV 3) – 6.8 eV 4) + 6.8Ev
25) In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectra, third line from the red and corresponds to which one of
the following inner orbit jumps of electron for Bohr orbit in an atom of hydrogen?
1) 4 → 1 2) 2 → 5 3) 3 → 2 4) 5 → 2
26) Calculate The ionization energy in kJ per mole for the removal of the valence electron from a
hydrogen atom. Compare your answer with the experimentally accepted value of 1312 KJ mol-1
[ ]
1) The obtained value is nearly equal to accepted value 1312 kJ
2) The obtained value is greater than accepted value 1312 KJ
3) The obtained value is less than accepted value 1312 KJ
27) The ionization energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10-18 J/atom. The energy of the first stationary state of Li2+ is:
[ ]
1) + 4.90 × 10-18 J/atom
2) - 4.90 × 10-18 J/atom
3) – 4.41 × 10-17 J/atom
4) + 4.41 × 10-17 J/atom
28) Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom corresponds to increasing value of energy i,e EA < 𝐸𝐵 < 𝐸𝐶 if
𝜆1 , 𝜆2 , 𝜆3 are the wavelength of radiations corresponding to the transition C to B, B to A and C to A
respectively, which of the following statement is correct: [ ]
C
𝜆1
B
𝜆2 𝜆3
A
1) 𝜆3 = 𝜆1 + 𝜆2
𝜆 𝜆
2) 𝜆3 = 1 2
𝜆1 + 𝜆2
3) 𝜆1 + 𝜆2 + 𝜆3
4) 𝜆23 = 𝜆12 + 𝜆22
JEE ADVANCED
LEVEL – 1 Multi Correct Choice Type
29) The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is – 13.6eV. The possible energy value (s)
of the excited state (s) for electrons in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is/are
1) -3.4eV 2) 4.2 eV 3) – 6.8eV 4) + 6.8Ev
Statement Type
30) Statement – 1 : The kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases with increase in frequency of
incident light where V > 𝑉0
Statement – 2: Whenever intensity of light is increased the number of photo-electron ejected
always increases.
Comprehension Type
If the electron comes back farm the energy level having energy E2 to the energy level having energy
E1 they the difference may be expressed in terms of energy of photon as
1 1
𝑉ത = 𝑅𝑍 2 ⌈𝑛2 − ⌉ where R is a Rydberg constant.
1 𝑛22
31)If RH is the Rydberg constant, then the energy of an electron in the ground state of Hydrogen atom
is
ℎ𝐶
1) RH C 2) RH Hc 3) 𝑅𝐻 4) RH hc
32) The value of the total energy of an electron in the hydrogen atom is given by
1) mv2 2) ½ mv2 3) -e2/2r 4) -mv/r2
Matrix Match Type
33) Column – I Column – II
(A) Radius of n th orbit (p) Inversely proportional to Z
ℎ
(B) Energy of n th orbit (q) Integral multiple of 2𝜋
(C) Velocity of electron in the
Nth orbit (r) Proportional to n2
(D) Angular momentum (s) Inversely of electron proportional to n
(t) Inversely proportional to Z2
Integer Answer Type
34) According to Bohr’s theory radius of nth orbit radius is = ___________
LEVEL 2 & 3 Multi Correct Choice Type

35)which of the following statements may be regarded as indicating a defect of the Bohr theory of the
hydrogen spectrum?
1) The theory could not be extended to polyelectronic atoms.
2) The theory bypassed classical electromagnetism which states that orbiting electrons should spiral
around the nucleus and fall in.
3) The theory had nothing to say about the intensities of spectral lines.
4) The theory ignored the wave nature of the electrons.
36) Angular momentum of an electron is not quantized according to
1) Planck 2) Rutherford 3) Bohr 4) Thomson
37) Bohr’s model of atom cannot explain.
1) Zeeman effect
2) photo electric effect
3) stark effect
4) hydrogen atomic spectrum atomic hydrogen
LEVEL 4 & 5 Comprehension Type:

According to Bohr’s theory radius of nth orbit for an atom with atomic number ‘Z’ is simplify
𝑛2 𝑛2
written as r = r0 𝑍
= 0.529 × 𝑍
𝐴° . Energy leave of hydrogen atom can be calculated as
𝑍2
En = -13.6× 𝑛2 eV per atom.
38) The radius of the hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53 Å. The radius of 3𝐿𝑖 2+ ion in
the similar state is
1) 1.06 Å. 2) 0.265 Å. 3) 0.17 Å 4) 0.53 Å
39) Electron falls from n = 3 to n = 2 in the hydrogen atom. The energy emitted is (AFMC)
1) 10.2 eV 2) 12.09 eV 3) 19 eV 4) 1.9 eV
CUQ: 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4.3 5.2 6. 2 7. 1 8. 2 9. 2 10. 4 11. 2 12. 1 13. 1
14. 4 15. 2 16. 1 17. 1
JEE MAINS AND ADVANCED: 1.3 2. 1 3. 3 4. 1 5. 1 6.3 7. 2 8. 1 9. 1 10.1

11.3 12.4 13. 3 14.2 15.4 16.4 17. 3 18.4 19.3 20. 4 21.3 22.4
23.2 24. 1 25.4 25.4 26.1 27.3 28.2 29. 1 30. 2 31.4 32.3
𝑛2
33. a-1, b- 3,5: c- 4: d- 2 34. ro 𝑍 35. 1,3,4 36. 1,2,4 37. 1,2,3
38. 3 39. 4
Synopsis-8
Quantum numbers:
 The set of our integers required to define the state of electron in an atom are called quantum
numbers. The set of quantum numbers are:
Principal quantum number (n):
 It was proposed by Bohr and is used to explain the appearance of main lines in the atomic spectrum
of an element.
 It determines the main energy level, the average distance of the electron from the nucleus and the
magnitude of energy of the electron.
 It is denoted by n which can have integral values excluding zero such as 1, 2, 3… also denoted as K, L,
M, etc.
 The maximum number of electrons in any principal shell is given by 2n2 where n is principal quantum
number.
Azimuthal (or subsidiary) quantum number (l):
 It was proposed by Somerfield. It is also known as orbital or angular momentum quantum number
and is denoted by ‘l’.
h
 Orbital angular momentum = ඥl(l + 1) 2π
 It tells us about the sub-energy shell (l) of the electron. The values of l depend upon principal quantum
number, n.
 For a given n value, l can have values starting from0 to (n − 1), a total n values. For l values 0, 1, 2, 3,
4… the subshell notations are s, p, d, f, g… respectively.
 Its value also indicated the shape of the electron cloud or orbital. The maximum number of electrons
that can be accommodated in a given sub-energy level is given by2(2l + 1).
 In a multi electron atom, the energy associated with an electron depends both on n and l.
Magnetic quantum number (,𝐦-𝐥.):
 It was proposed by Lande to explain the splitting of lines of atomic spectrum in magnetic field (Zeeman
Effect).
 It is denoted by ml and its values depend on l values. For a given value of l there can be (2l + 1) values
for m ranging from –1 to +1 including zero.
 Each value of ml corresponds to an orbital in a shell with same l value.
 Magnetic quantum number describes the orientation of the orbital in space around the nucleus.
 For a subshell with l=0, there is only one orientation of the orbital, for a subshell with l=1 there are 3
orbitals which can bave different orientations so on and so forth.
Number of orbitals in a shell is n2 .
Spin quantum number (,𝐦-𝐬.):
 It was proposed by Uhlenbeck and Goudsmit.
 Spin quantum number gives an idea about the electron spinning on its axis.
 Each spinning electron can have two values of spin quantum numbers, which are: + ½ (clockwise spin)
and – ½ (anticlockwise spin).
 Mathematically, spin angular momentum has a magnitude
h ඥ3h 1
S= ඥs(s + 1) = since s =
2π 4π 2
 Spin quantum number is the only quantum number that has non–integral values and is not derived
from Schrödinger’s wave equation while other three quantum numbers are derived from wave
equation.
 The principal quantum number (n) gives the size of the orbital and energy of the electron.
 Azimuthal quantum number (l) gives the shape of the orbital number.
 Magnetic quantum number (m) gives the spatial orientation of the orbital in the magnetic field or the
number of orbitals in a subshell.
 The electrons present in the outermost shell are called optical electrons as they are readily excited
and hence yield line spectra. The other electron is called spectator electrons.
Number of subshells in a main energy level is equal to n.
Number of orbitals in a main energy level is equal to ,n-2..
 Number of orbitals in a subshell is equal to ,2l+1..
 Number of electrons in each orbital is equal to 2.
 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell is equal to 2,2l+1..
 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell is equal to ,2n-2..
 Filling of orbitals (Rules to write electronic configurations): The electrons in various orbitals are filled
according to certain rules. An understanding of these rules/principles enables us to write electronic
configuration of the element, etc.
WORKSHEET – 8
CUQ
1. The quantum number which determines the energy of a sublevel is
1) N 2) 1 3) Both n an I 4) Neither n nor I
2. The principal quantum number represents
1) Distance of electron from nucleus
2) Shape of an orbital
3) Number of electrons in an orbital
4) Number of orbitals in an orbit
3. The shape of an orbital is governed by
1) Spin quantum number
2) Principal quantum number
3) Azimuthal quantum number
4) Magnetic quantum number
4. The radius of an electronic orbit in an atom is denoted by:
1) The nuclear charge
2) The principal quantum number.
3) The azimuthal quantum number
4) The mass number
5. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in M Shell:
1) 18 2) 9 3) 36 4) 12
6. The shape of an orbital is decided by:
1) Principal quantum number.
2) Azimuthal quantum number.
4) Radial wave function.
7. The angular momentum of an electron in an atomic orbitalis governed by the
4) Spin quantum number
8. If value of I – 2, name of sub shell is:
1) S 2) p 3) d 4) f
9. The number of electrons in any sub energy level can never exceed
1) 𝑛2 2) 2𝑛2 3) (21 +1) 4) 2 (21+1)
10. The angular momentum of an electron in its motion around the nucleus is denoted by
the quantum number
1) Azimuthal 2) Principal 3) Spain 4) Magnetic
11. The m value not possible for a double dumbbell- shaped orbital is:
1) 0 2) -2 3) +3 4) - 1
12. The value of magnetic quantum number depends upon
1) N value 2) I value 3) m value 4) s value
13. The total values of magnetic quantum number of an electron when the value of n = 2 is
1) 9 2) 6 3) 4 4) 2
14. The m value not possible for a 4f – electrons is
1) – 4 2) +3 3) 0 4) - 2
15. Quantum number accounts for the rotation of the electron around its own axis
1) Spain 2) Magnetic 3) Principal 4) Azimuthal
16. The quantum number that does not describe the distance and the angular disposition of
the electron
1) N 2) 1 3) m 4) s
17. Spin quantum number can have
1 1
1) Only one value 2) Several value 3) 2 values + 2 , - 2 4) None
18. The quantum number which cannot say anything about an orbital i :
1) n 2) I 3) m 4) s
JEE MAINS
LEVEL – 1
1. The angular momentum of an electron in an atomic orbital depends upon:
1) Principal quantum number.
2) Azimuthal quantum number.
3) Magnetic quantum number.
4) Spin quantum number.
2. The number of electrons in the nth quantum level are:
1) n 2) 2n2 3) 2n 4) n- 1
3. The number of orbitals is any shell (n) is equal to:
1) 2n2 2) n2 3) 4d 4) n
4. The designation of a subshell with n = 4 and I = 3, is:
1) 4s 2) 4p 3) 4d 4) 4f
5. An electron having an azimuthal quantum number I = 3, is:
1) S- electron 2) p- electron 3) d- electron 4) f- electron
6. In which of the following case, the degeneracy of orbitals does not exist?
1) S- subshell 2) p-subshell 3) d- subshell 4) f- subshell
7. Magnetic quantum number specifies:
1) Size of orbitals
2) Shape of orbitals
3) Orientation of orbitals in space
4) Nuclear stability
8. If the quantum numbers for the 5th electron in carbon atoms are 2,1, 1, + 1/2 then for
the 6th electron, these values would be:
1 1 1 1
1) 2. 1. 0 + 2 2) 2.0.1 + 2 3) 2.1.1. - 2 4) 2.1.-1, + 2
9. Which of the following orbital does not make any sense?
1) 2s 2) 2f 3) 6p 4) 4s
10. All electrons in a ‘d’ sun shell should have the quantum number:
1) n = 3 2) 1 = 0 3) M = - 1 4) 4S
11. A neutral atom of an element has two ‘k’ eight ‘L’ nine ‘M’ and two ‘N’ electrons. The
total number of electrons present in the orbitals having I value 1 are
1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12
12. The quantum number which cannot say anything about an orbital is
1) n 2) I 3) m 4) s
LEVEL - 2
13. The possible subshells in n = 3 energy shell are:
1) S. p. d 2) s. p, d, f 3) s, p 4) s only
14. For a given principal level n = 4, the energies of its sub-shells are in the order.
1) S < d < f < p 2) s < p < d < f 3) d < f < p < s 4) s < p < f < d
15. Which of the following orbital does not make any sense?
1) 3d 2) 3f 3) 5p 4) 7s
16. The total number of orbitals in an energy level designated by principal quantum number
n is equal to:
1) 2n 2) 2n2 3) n 4) n2
17. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is (are) not permitted?
1
1) n = 3, 1 = 3, m = 0. s = + 2
1
2) n = 3, I = 2, m = + 2, s = - 2
1
3) n = 3, I = 2, m = - 2, s = - 2
1
4) n = 3, I = 0 m = 0, s = + 2
18. An impossible set of four quantum number of an electron is
1) n = 4, I = 2, m = -2 s = + ½
2) n = 4, I = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
3) n = 3, I = 2, m = -3, s = + ½
4) N = 5, I = 3, m = 0, s = - ½
LEVEL – 3
19. The number of orbitals in the fourth principal quantum number will be:
1) 4 2) 8 3)12 4) 16
20. Principal quantum number of an atom represents:
1) Size of the orbital
2) Spin angular momentum
3) Orbital angular momentum
4) Space orientation of the orbital
21. Which of the following atomic number can have the following set of quantum numbers?
n = 3, I = 2, m = + 2, s = - ½
1) 1 2) 18 3) 14 4) 26
22. Which of the following represents the correct set of four quantum number of a 6f
electron?
1) 6, 3, 2 + ½ 2) 6, 2, 1, 0 3) 4, 3, - 2 0 4) 6, 2, 1, 0
23. An orbital made of four lobes can have the following quantum number
1) n = 2, I = 2, m = 0
2) n = 3, I = 1, m = - 2
3) n = 3, I = 2, m = 0
4) n = 3, I= 3, m =-3
LEVEL - 4
24. 2p orbitals have:
1) n = 1, I = 2 2) n = 1 I = 0 3) n = 2, I = 1 4) n = 2, I = 0
25. The angular momentum of an electron depends on
4) All of these
26. Two electrons A and B in an atom have the following set of quantum numbers what is
true for A and B? A: 3, 2, -2, +1/2: B:3, 0, 0, +1/2.
1) A and B have same energy
2) A has more energy than B
3) B has more energy than A.
4) A and B represents same electron
27. What is likely to be principal quantum number for a circular orbit of diameter 2o nm of
the hydrogen atom. If we assume Bohr orbit to be the same as that represented by the
principal quantum number?
1) 10 2) 14 3) 12 4) 16
28. The quantum numbers + ½ and -1/2 for the electron spin represent (IIT 2001)
1) Rotation of electron in clockwise and anti-clockwise direction respectively
2) Rotation of electron in anti-clockwise and clockwise direction respectively
3) Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively
4) Two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue.
29. The set of quantum numbers not possible to an electron is (MLNR – 94)
1) 1, 1, 1. + ½ 2) 1, 0, 0. + ½ 3) 1. 0. 0. – ½ 4) 2, 0, 0, + ½
30. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an
atom? [2006 A.I.E.E.E]
1
1) n =3, I = 1, m = 1, s = + 2
1
2) n = 3. I =2, m = 1, s = + 2
1
3) n = 4, I = 0, m = 0, s = + 2
1
4) n = 3, I = 0, m = 0, s = + 2
31. In multi electron atom, which of the following orbitals described by the three quantum
numbers will have the same energy in the absence of magnetic and electric fields.
1) A and c a) n = 1, I = 0, m = 0
2) B and c b) n = 2, I = 0, m = 0
3) C and d c) n = 2, I = 1, m = 1
4) D and e d) n = 3, I = 2, m = 1
e) n = 3, I = 2, m = 0
LEVEL - 5
32. The principal quantum number represents:
1) Distance of electron from nucleus.
2) Number of electrons in an orbit.
3) Number of orbitals in an orbit.
4) All the above.
33. For azimuthal quantum number 1 = 3 the maximum number of electrons will be:
1) 2 2) 6 3) Zero 4) 14
34. The four-quantum number for the valence shell electron or last electron of sodium (Z =
11) is:
1
1) n =2, I = 1, m = -1, s = - 2
1
2) n = 3, I = o, m = 0, s = +
2
1
3) n = 3, I = 2, m = -2, s = - 2
1
4) n = 3, I = 2, m = 2, s = + 2
35. The electrons identified quantum numbers n and I (i) n =4 I = 1 (ii) n = 4, I = 0 (iii) n = 3, I
= 2 and (iv) n = 3, I = 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy, from the lowest to
highest, as (IIT – 99)
1) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
2) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
3) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)
4) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
36. For a particular principal quantum number, the energy will be maximum for the orbital
1) S 2) p 3) d 4) f
37. Which of the following gets of quantum number is correct for an electron in 4f orbital [
2003 A.I.E.E.E.]
1
1) n = 4, I = 3, m = + 4, s = + 2
1
2) n = 4, I = 4, m = - 4, s = 2
1
3) n = 4, I = 3, m = + 1, s = + 2
1
4) n = 3, I = 2, m = 2, s = + 2
JEE ADVANCED
LEVEL – 1 Multi Correct Choice Type:
38. Which of the following is correct regarding M – Shell?
1) 3 subshells 2) 18 electrons 3) s, p, d, f 4) 20 electrons
39. Who proposed the spin quantum number?
1) Goud smit 2) Ulenbeck 3) Zeeman 4) Bohr
40. Which of the following information is correct about magnetic quantum number?
1) It gives the number of permitted orientation f subshells.
2) It tells about the Zeeman effect.
3) It is denoted by the letter ‘m’.
4) It values depends of ‘I’ values.
Statement Type
41. Statement I: Total number of orbitals associated with principal quantum number n = 3 is
6.
Statement II: Number of orbitals in a shell equals to n2
42. Statement I: Magnetic quantum number was proposed by Lande.
Statement II: The number of degenerate orbitals of s – subshell = 0
Comprehension Type
The maximum No. of electrons that can be accommodated in a given sub- energy level is
given by 2(2I + 1). The value of I(n – 1) always. It tells about the shapes of subshells. If value
of I = 0, name of subshell is “s” . This orbital shape is spherical. If value of I = 1, name of
subshell is “p” . This orbital shape is dumbbell. If value of I = 2, name of subshell is “d”. This
orbital shape is double dumb – bell. For a given value of n, the total values of I is always =
value of n.
1) Maximum number of electrons can be taken by a subshell with I = 2
1) 3 2) 10 3) 5 4) 6
43. The number of orbitals in d-subshell is:
1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 7
44. Which orbital is dumb – bell shaped?
1) S – orbital 2) p – orbital 3) d – orbital 4) f – orbital
Following table gives the information about the quantum numbers and it values.
Number of sub L - value No. of M - value

level orientation in space
( 2L +1)
s- sub level L=0 2×0+1=1 0
P -sub level L=1 2×1+1=3 - 1, 0, + 1
d - sub level L=2 2 ×2+1=5 -2, - 1, 0, +1, +2
f – sub level L=3 2×3+1=7 -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3
46) Beryllium fourth electron will have the four quantum numbers
n I m s
1. 1 0 0 +½
2. 1 1 1 +½
3. 2 1 0 +½
4. 2 0 0 -½
47) which of the following represents the correct set of four quantum number of a 4d electron?
1. 4, 3, 2 + ½
2. 4, 2, 1, 0
3. 4, 3, - 2, + ½
4. 4, 2, 1, + ½
Matrix Match Type
48) Column I Column II
a) Principle quantum was number proposed by 1) Bohr
b) Azimuthal quantum was number proposed by 2) Summerfield
c) The maximum number of electrons in an orbit 3) 2n2
d) Shapes of subshells 4) Azimuthal quantum number
5) size of an atom
49) column I Column II
a) Principal Quantum Number 1) shape of orbitals
b) Azimuthal Quantum Number 2) m – space orientations
c) Magnetic Quantum Number 3) spin of an electron
d) Spin Quantum Number 4) energy and size of an orbit
LEVEL – 2 & 3 Multi Correct Choice Type
50) Each electron is designated by:
1) n 2) I 3) m 4) s
51) Some of the following sets of quantum numbers are correct for a 4d electron. Which are the
correct sets?
1) 4,2,2, +1/2 2) 4,2,1,0 3) 4,2, -2, +1/2 4) 4,2,1, - ½
52) which of the following quantum numbers is/are not allowed?
1) n = 3, l = 2,
m = 0 2) n = 2, l = 2, m = -1
3) n = 3, l = 0, m = 1 3) n = 5, l = 2, m = - 1
53) which represent a possible arrangement?
N l m s
1) 3 2 -2 ± ½
2) 4 0 0 ± ½
3) 3 2 -3 ± ½
4) 5 3 0 ± ½
LEVEL – 4 & 5 Statement Type
54) Statement I: Energy of the orbitals increases as 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p < 3d = 4s = 4p = 4d 4f
< ……….
Statement II: Energy of the electron depends on principal quantum, number.
1. Both statement I and II are correct.
2. Both statement I and II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
55) Statement I: Magnetic quantum number gives the orientation of the orbital.
Statement II: Magnetic quantum number is denoted by ‘m’
1. Both statement I and II are correct.
2. Both statement I and II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
56) which of the following is correct about I value If n = 3?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
WOEKSHEET – 8: KEY
CUQ; 1. 1 2. 1 3. 3 4. 2 5. 1 6. 2 7. 2 8.3 9. 4 10. 1 11. 3 12. 2 13. 3
14. 1 15. 1 16. 4 17. 3 18. 4
JEE MAINS AND ADVANCED: 1. 2 2. 2 3. 2 4. 4 5. 4 6. 1 7. 3 8. 1 9. 2
10.1 11. 4 12. 4 13. 1 14. 1 15. 2 16. 4 17. 1 18. 3 19. 4 20. 12
21. 4 22.1 23. 3 24. 3 25. 2 26. 2 27. 2 28. 1 29. 1 30. 2 31. 4 32. 4
Synopsis-9
Shapes of Atomic Orbitals
Orbital concepts
 The spaces around the nucleus of an atom where the maximum probability (95%) of finding
the electron is called an orbital
 The electron could around the nucleus represents the orbital. This electron cloud is not
uniform but it is dense.
 An orbital wave functions depends on the variables one distance(r) variables and two angle
variables (θ ϕ)
 The probability of finding an electron in a small radicle volume around the nucleus is called
radicle probability or D –functions.
 Radicle probability (D) = 4π,r-2. dr ,Ψ-2.
 The curves showing the variations of the radicle probability with radicle distance of an
electron from the nucleus are called radicle probability distribution curves.
Atomic structure:
 The region around the nucleus where the probability finding the electron is zero is called
node or nodal region or radicle node.
 Number of radicle node is an orbital = n- l -1
 Where n = principle quantum number l = azimuthal quantum number
 The plane where the probability of finding the electrons is zero is called a nodal plane or
angular node.
Electron density in atomic hydrogen w(r)=𝒓𝟐 [𝑹𝒏𝒇 (𝒓)]𝟐

 Number of nodal planes in an orbital = l where l = azimuthal quantum number.
 S, p ,d and f orbitals contains 0,1,2, and 3 nodal plane respectively.
 The radicle probability distribution curves of various orbitals are represented as follows
The following points can be drawn from the above curves.
1) In each case, the probability of finding the electron in the nucleus is zero.it keeps on
increasing and becomes maximum at a particular distance from the nucleus and then
gradually decreases.
2) The distance of a maximum probability of finding an electron increases with increases in
the value of principle quantum number(n). for 1s orbitals, the maximum probability is at
0.53 Å and for 2s orbital it is at 2.6 Å.
The size of orbital increases in the order 1s<2s< 3s< 4s…..
3) Total number of peaks appearing in the radicle distribution curves = n - l
Where n = principle quantum number = 1,2,3,4
l = azimuthal quantum number =0,1,2,3…….
Shape of S – orbital:
 For s-subshell(l=0), there is only one possible orientation corresponding to m=0 value.
 This means that only one s orbital in each s-sub shell.
 It is non directional orbital.
 The shape of s orbital is Spherically Symmetrical.
Shape of P – orbitals:
 For p-subshell(l=1), there are three possible orientations corresponding to m=-1,0, +1
values.
 This means that there are three p-orbitals in each p-sub shell.
 These are designated as, 𝑃𝑥 ,𝑃𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃𝑧 . according as they are symmetrical about x, y and z
axes respectively.
 The shape of p-orbital is dumb bell.
Shape of d-orbitals:
 For d-sub shell(l=2) there are five possible orientations corresponding to m=-2,-1,0,+1,+2
values.
 This means that there are five orbitals in each d-sub shell.
 These are designated as dxy, dyz, dzx, 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑑𝑧 2 All d- orbitals are double dumb
bell in shape but ,,𝑑-𝑧.-2. orbital having a dumb bell shape containing a small ring around
the centre.
dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are oriented in between the axes.
𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑑𝑧 2 orbitals are oriented along the axes.
Energies of Orbitals
 The energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is determined solely by the principal
quantum number.
 Energy of various orbitals calculated by using n+l rule.
 Thus the energy of the orbitals increases as follows:
1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d <4s = 4p = 4d = 4f < (2.23)
and is depicted.
 Although the shapes of 2s and 2p orbitals are different, an electron has the same energy
when it is in the 2s orbital as when it is present in 2p orbital.
 The orbitals having the same energy are called degenerate.
 The 1s in a hydrogen atom, as said earlier, corresponds to the most stable condition and
is called the ground state and an electron residing in this orbital is most strongly held by
the nucleus.
 An electron in the 2s, 2p or higher orbitals in a hydrogen atom is in excited state.
WORKSHEET – 9
CUQ
1. An orbit is:
1) A region in space defined by the properties of the wave equation.
2) A rectangular space.
3) Another name for electronic shell.
4) Circular path of around the nucleus in which an electron revolve.
2. An orbit can accommodated electrons equal to:
1) n2 2) 2l +1 3) n -l -1 4) 2n2
3. The size of the orbit increases
1) n value decreases
2) I value increases
3) n value increases
4) n value constant
4. which orbital is spherically symmetrical.
1) 5f 2) 4p 3) 3d 4) 3s
5. Which of the subshell has double dumb bell shape?
1) S 2) p 3) d 4) f
6. An example for non-directional orbital is
1) 2s 2) 2p 3)3d 4) 3r
7. Electrons in an s orbital are free to occupy any position with in a
1) Square 2) Cube 3) Sphere 4) Dum – bell volume
8. The 2px, 2py and 2pz orbitals of an atom have identical shapes but differ in their
1) Size 2) shape 3) Orientation 4) None
9. The d-orbital with the orientation along x and y -axis is called as:
1) dxy 2) dyz 3) dxz 4) 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2
10. which orbital does not possess nodal plane?
1) S 2) p 3) d 4) f
11. The number of nodal planes in each p- orbital
1) Zero 2) One 3) Two 4) Three
JEE MAINS
LEVEL – 1
1. The space within an atom, where there is maximum probability of finding an electron at
any instant is
1) An orbit 2) An orbital 3) A stationary orbit 4) Shell
2. Maximum number or electrons that d orbitals can accommodate is:
1) 6 2)10 3) 2 4) 8
3. The first energy level that can have f orbitals is
1) K 2) L 3) m 4)18
4. An example of non-directional orbital is:
1) 3s 2) 2p 3) M 4) N
5. Energy of atomic orbitals in a particular shell is in order of:
1) S < p < d < f
2) S > p > d > f
3) p < d < f < s
4) f > d > s > p
6. The number of radial nodes, nodal planes for an orbital with n = 4; l = 1 is
1) 3,1 2) 2,1 3) 2,0 4)4,0
7. What is the full degeneracy of the n = 3 state of a H- atom in the absence of a magnetic
field?
1) 4 2) 10 3) 8 4) 18
LEVEL - 2
8. The figure given below is a representation of the shape of:
1) 3dxy orbital 2) 3dz2 orbital 3) 2pz orbital 4) 3dx2-y2 orbital
9. Which of the following orbitals has appearance like a baby soother?
1) dxy 2) dyz 3) 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 4) 𝑑𝑧 2
10. In an atomic orbital, the sign of lobes indicates the.
1) Sign of the probability distribution.
2) Sign of charge.
3) Sign of the wave function.
4) Presence of absence of electron.
11. The nodes present in 3 p-orbital are:
1) One spherical one planar
2) Two spherical
3) Two planar
4) One planar
LEVEL - 3
12. Which of the following orbitals does not exist?
1) 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 2) 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑧 2 3) dxy 4) dxy
13. The d- orbitals whose four lobes lie along the axes is
1) dx 2) dxy 3) dyz 4) 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2
14. which of the following d orbitals has a diagonal nodal plane?
1) dxy 2) dyz 3) dzx 4) 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2
15. which of the following 3d orbitals has electron density in all three axes?
1) 3dxy 2) dyz 3) dzx 4) 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2
16. The number of nodal planes in a px orbital is
1) One 2) two 3) three 4) four
LEVEL - 4
17. Which of the following statements is wrong about the probability of finding an electron
in the px orbital is:
1) Zero along the X axis
2) Zero along Y axis
3) Zero along the Z axis
4) Both 2 and 3
18. Which of the following is correct with respect to p orbitals?
1) Spherical
2) Strong directional character
3) Five-fold degenerate
4) No directional character
19. The zero probability of finding the electron in px orbital is:
1) Maximum on the two opposite sides of the nucleus along the x-axis.
2) In the nucleus
3) Same on all sides around the nucleus.
4) None.
LEVEL - 5
20. A completely filled d orbital:
1) Is sperically symmetrical
2) Has octahedral symmetry
3) Has tetrahedral symmetry
4) Depends on the atom
21. The subshell that arises after f is called the g subshell. How many electrons may occupy
the g subshell?
1) 9 2) 7 3) 5 4) 18
JEE ADVANCE
22. Which of the following are true about p – orbital
1) These are spherical
2) These are dumb-bell in shape.
3) These are double dumbbell in shape
4) They possess directional character
Statement Type
23. Statement I: Px, Py and Pz are degenerate orbitals.
Statement II: Px, Py and Pz have same energy in absence of electric field.
Comprehension Type
In an atom, a large number of orbitals are possible. These orbitals differ in their size,
shape and orientation in space around the nucleus. The state of an electron in any atom
is described by its location with respect to the nucleus and by its energy.
24. Number of electrons in p d subshells respectively are:
1) 2, 6 2) 6, 10 3) 10, 14 4) 3, 5
25. A neutral atom of an element has two ‘k’ eight ‘L’ nine ‘M’ and two ‘N’ electrons. The
total number of electrons present in the subshell having / value 1 is
1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12
Matrix Match Type
26. Column – I Column – I
a) 1s 1) 1 node
b) 2s 2) 2 nodes
c) 3s 3) 3 nodes
d) 4s 4) no nodes
5) 4 nodes
27. Which of the following statements is / are incorrect?
1) An orbital describes the path of an electron in an atom.
2) An orbital is a region where the electron is not located.
3) An orbital is a function which gives the probability of finding the electron in a given
region.
4) All orbitals have directional characteristics.
28. The probability of finding the electron in 𝑝𝑥 – orbital is
1) Maximum on two opposite sides of the nucleus along x-axis
2) Zero at the nucleus
3) Same on all the sides around the nucleus.
4) Zero on the z- axis
29. ‘g’ orbital is possible if
1) N = 5, I = 4
2) It will have 18 electrons
3) It will have 9 types of orbitals
4) It will have 22 electrons
Integer Type
30. Total number of d- orbitals which is having only two lobes_________.
31. Number of p- orbitals in 2nd orbit (n = 2) are ______________.
32. Total number of orbitals in 2nd orbit (n = 2) are _______
LEVEL – 4 & 5 Comprehension Type
The surface at which the probability of finding an electron is zero is called a node or nodal
plane. The spherical ‘s’ orbitals do not have nodal planes but have nodal regions equal to n-
1 which are present between spherical ‘s’ orbitals. P- orbitals have both nodal regions equal
to n-2 and nodal plane equal to the value of 1 ie 1.
The nodal plane for 𝑝𝑥 orbital is YZ
The nodal plane for 𝑝𝑦 orbital is XZ.
The nodal plane for 𝑝𝑧 orbital is XY.
Each d – orbital has nodal regions equal to n-3 and nodal planes equal to the nodal planes is
equal to ‘I’
33. Which orbital has two angular nodes (nodal planes)?
1) S 2) p 3) d 4) f
34. The number of nodal planes in each p- orbital is:
1) Zero 2) one 3) two 4) three
35. The number of nodes for 4f orbital is:
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
2) CUQ: 1. 4 2. 4 3. 3 4. 5 5. 3 6. 1 7. 3 8. 3 9. 4 10. 1 11. 2
3) JEE MAINS AND ADVANCED: 1.2 2. 2 3. 4 4.1 5.1 6. 2 7. 4 8. 4 9. 4
4) 10.3 11.1 12.2 13.4 14.4 15.3 16. 1 17. 1 18. 2 19. 2 20. 1 21. 4
5) 22. 4 23. 1 24. 2 25. 4 26. A- 4: b – 1: c- 2; d- 3 27. 1,2,4 28. 1,2,4 29.
1,2,3
6) 30. 1 31. 3 32.4 33. 3 34. 2 35.4
Synopsis-10
Filling of Orbitals in Atom - Aufbau Principle
Aufbau principle:
 It states that electrons are filled in the orbitals in order of increasing energy and the energy
of the orbitals is governed by (n+1) rule.
 In simple words, orbitals of lower energy are filled first followed by orbitals of higher energy.
 The order in which the energies of the orbitals increase and hence the order in which the
orbitals are filled is as follows:
1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p, 4f, 5d, 6p, 7s...
 The order may be remembered by using the method.
 Starting from the top, the direction of the arrows gives the order of filling of orbitals, that is
starting from right top to bottom left.
Filling of Orbitals in Atom - Pauli's Exclusion Principle
 The number of electrons to be filled in various orbitals is restricted by the exclusion principle,
given by the Austrian scientist Wolfgang Pauli (1926).
 According to this principle: No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four
quantum numbers.
 Pauli exclusion principle can also be stated as: “Only two electrons may exist in the same
orbital and these electrons must have opposite spin.”
 This means that the two electrons can have the same value of three quantum numbers n, l
and ml, but must have the opposite spin quantum number.
 The restriction imposed by Pauli’s exclusion principle on the number of electrons in an orbital
helps in calculating the capacity of electrons to be present in any subshell.
 For example, subshell 1s comprises of one orbital and thus the maximum number of electrons
present in 1s subshell can be two, in p and d subshells, the maximum number of electrons
can be 6 and 10 and so on.
 This can be summed up as: the maximum number of electrons in the shell with principal
quantum number n is equal to 2n2.
Filling of Orbitals in Atom - Hund's Rule
 This rule states that pairing of the electrons in degenerate orbitals, belonging to a particular
subshell (i.e., p, d, and f), does not take place till each orbital is occupied by a single electron
with parallel spin.
 Degenerate levels have low energy when they are empty, half-filled or completely filled.
 The anomalies are observed occurring in a few configurations (particularly transition
elements) for example
(i) chromium has a configuration of ,3𝑑-5.,4𝑠-1. 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛𝑜𝑡,3𝑑-4.,4𝑠-2 .and
(ii) copper has a configuration of ,3𝑑-10.,4𝑠-1. 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛𝑜𝑡 ,3𝑑-9.,4𝑠-2..This is attributable to
the extra stability of half-filled or completely filled set of degenerate orbitals.
 Half-filled and fully-filled electronic configuration are stable since they have more
symmetry and more exchange energy.
 All substances have magnetic properties due to magnetic moment associated with electron
spin and with orbital angular momentum of the electron.
 The two electrons in different atomic orbitals are far apart and suffer less electron–electron
repulsion than when these occupy same orbital with opposite spins.
 The energy of atomic orbitals for H–atoms is (as the energy depends on the value of n):
1s<2s=2p<3s=3p=3d<4s=4p=4d=4f
 According to Aufbau principle, the energy of orbitals (other than H–atom) depends upon
n+1 value and varies as
1s<2s<2p<3s<3p<4s<3d<4p<5s<4d<5p<6s<4f<5d<6p<7s<5f<6d.
 Energy associated with any orbit or orbital decreases as the nuclear charge or atomic
number increases.
 Number of orbitals in a subshell = 2l + 1, where l is the azimuthal quantum number.
 Number of subshells in a main level is equal to n, where n is the principal quantum number.
 The possible values of l for these subshells range from 0 to n – 1.
 The total number of orbitals in nth shell can be calculated as follows. Total number of
orbitals in,𝑛𝑡ℎ . shell EMBED Equation.DSMT4 =1+3+5+…+ ,2, n−1. +1. =1+3+5+…+2n−1
 It is an A.P. (Arithmetical Progression) of n terms, where first term, a = 1 and common
difference, d = 2.
=, n-2.,2×1×, n−1.2. ∵, S-n.=, n-2.,2a+, n−1. d..
=, n-2.,2n.= , n-2.
 As each orbital can have at the most two electrons, number of electrons in nth shell = 2n 2.
 In most cases, wave function Ψ is a complex quantity of the form (a+bi).
 As we know these complex quantities has no physical significance.
 In such cases probability density ,,ψ-2..=,a-2.+,b-2. which is real.
Total spin =±,,1-2.×n.
Magnetic moment (spin only) of an atom =,-n(n+2). BM, where n is number of unpaired electrons.
Orbital angular momentum for d orbital is ,h-2π.,-l(l+1).=h,-2(2+1).=h,-6.
Angular momentum for p orbital =,h−2π.,-l(l+1).=h,-2.
Angular momentum for f orbital =h,-3(3+1).=2,-3.h
WORKSHEET – 10
CUQ
1. The electrons tend to occupy orbitals of minimum energy in the ground state of atom.
This is:
1) Pauli’s Exclusion principle
2) Aufbau principle
3) Hund’s rule
4) None of these
2. In an atom no two electrons can have the same value for all quantum numbers. This was
proposed by
1) Hund 2) Pauli 3) Dalton 4) Avogadro
3. Which principle / rule limits the maximum number of electrons in an orbital to two:
1) Aufbau principle
2) Pauli’s exclusion principle
3) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
4) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
4. The n + 1 value for the 3p energy level is
1) 4 2) 7 3) 3 4) 1
5. Electrons occupy the available sub level which has lower n + 1 value. This is called:
1) Hund’s rule
2) Aufbau principle
3) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
4) Pauli’s principle
6. The principle which given away to fill the electrons in the available energy level is
1) Hund’s rule
2) Pauli exclusion principle
3) Aufbau principle
4) None of these
7. In a set of degenerated orbitals, the electrons distribute themselves to have like spins as
far as possible. The statement is known as:
1) Pauli exclusion principle
2) Aufbau principle
3) Hund’s rule
4) Slater rules
8. Orbitals possessing the same energy are called:
1) Hybrid orbitals
2) Valency orbitals
3) d – orbitals
4) degenerate orbitals
9. In the absence of Pauli exclusion principle, the electronic configuration of Li is
1) 1s3 2) 1s2 2s1 3) 1s2 sp1 4) 1s1 2s1 2p1
10. The (n +1) value for 4f electron is
1) 6 2) 4 3) 7 4) 8
JEE MAINS
LEVEL – 1
1. The increasing order of energy of the orbitals 1s, 2s and 2p is:
1) 2p < 2s < 1s 2) 2s < 2p < 1s 3) 1s < 2s < 2p 4) 2p > 3d > 4s
2. No two electrons in an atom can have:
1) The same principal quantum numbers only.
2) The azimuthal quantum numbers only.
3) The same magnetic quantum numbers only.
4) An identical set of four quantum numbers.
3. In the electronic configuration given below, which rule is violated?
1s 2s 2p
↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
1) Aufbau rule
3) Hund’s rule
4) None of these
4. The orbital diagram in which the Pauli’s exclusion principle is violated?
1) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑
2) ↑↑ ↑↓ ↑ ↑
3) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
4) All the above
5. According to Aufbau principle, the 19th electron in an atom goes into the
1) 4s – orbital. 2) 3d – orbital. 3) 4p – orbital 4) 3p - orbital
6. If Pauli’s exclusion principle is not known, the electronic arrangement of lithium atom is
1) 1s2 2s1 2) 1s1 2s2 3) 1s3 4) 1s2 2s1 2p1
7. Aufbau principle fails to explain the configuration of element with atomic number
1) 18 2) 21 3) 24 4) 27
8. The order of filling various sublevels with electrons is the order of their energies. This is
1) Aufbau principle
2) Pauli’s principle
3) Hund’s rule
4) Bohr principle
LEVEL – 2
9. The orbital diagram, in which both Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule are
violated?
2s 2p
1) ↑↓ ↑↑ ↑
2) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓
3) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
4) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑
10. Pauli’s exclusion principle states that:

1) Two electrons in the same atom can have the same energy.
2) Two electrons in the same atom cannot have the same spin.
3) The electrons tend to occupy different orbitals as far as possible.
11. Quantum numbers of an atom can be defined on the basis of
1) Hund’s rule
2) Aufbau principle
4) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
12. Which of the following explains the sequence of filling electrons in different shells?
(BHU 99)
1) Octet rule 2) Hund’s rule 3) Aufbau rule 4) All the above
13. The ground state term symbol for an electronic state is governed by:
1) Heisenberg’s principle.
2) Hund’s rule
3) Aufbau principle
14. Hund’s rule deals with the distribution of electrons in:
1) A principal shell.
2) Different subshells
3) Orbitals with slightly different energies
4) Degenerate orbitals.
15. In the electronic configuration given below, which rule is violated?
1s 2s 2p
↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
1) Aufbau rule
3) Orbitals with slightly different energies
4) None of these
LEVEL – 4
16. The statements:
(i) In filling a group of orbitals of equal energy, it is energetically preferable to
assign electrons to empty orbitals rather than pair them into a particular orbital.
(ii) When two electrons are placed in two different orbitals, energy is lower if the
spins are parallel are valid for
1) Aufbau principle
2) Hund’s rule
4) Uncertainty principle
17. Aufbau principal is obeyed in which of the following electronic configurations?
1) 1s2 2s2 2p2 2) 1s2 3p3 3s2 3) 1s2 3s2 3p6 4) 1s2 2s2 3s2
LEVEL - 5
18. The first element in which pairing of p- orbitals starts is ________
1) Carbon 2) Nitrogen 3) Oxygen 4) Fluorine
19. In which of the following electron distribution in ground state, only Hund’s rule is
violated?
2s 2p
1) ↑ ↓ ↑ ↑
2s 2p
2) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑
2s 2p
3) ↑ ↓ ↑↓ ↑
2s 2p
4) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
JEE ADVANCED
20. What are the possible m values of 3p orbital?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
Statement Type
21. Statement I: Is orbital possesses lower energy than 2s orbital.
Statement II: Pauli’s exclusion principle states that an orbital can have maximum
Comprehension Type
The word Aufbau in German means building up. Building up of orbitals implies the filling up
of the orbitals with electrons. According to this principle. In the ground state of the atom, the
electrons are added one by one to the various orbitals in order of their increasing energy
starting with the orbital of lower energy.
22. According to Aufbau principle, which of the three 4d, 5p and 5s orbitals will be filled
with electrons first?
1) 4d
2) 5p
3) 5s
4) 4d and 5s will be filled simultaneously
23. Which of the following principles / rules limits the maximum number of electrons in an
orbital to two?
1) Aufbau principle
3) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
4) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
24. The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated
2s 2p
1) ↓ ↑ ↑↓ ↑
2s 2p
1) ↑ ↑↓ ↑ ↑
2s 2p
↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
2s 2p
1) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↓
Matrix Match Type

a) K shell 1) 3s
b) L shell 2) 4s 4p
c) M shell 3) 2s 2p
d) N shell 4) 1s
5) 4d
26. The orbital with n + I IS 6
1) 5p 2) 5s 3) 4d 4) 3d
27. Statement I: Energies of the orbitals increases in the order 1s, 2s, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d and 4p.
Statement II: Maximum spin multiplicity means that the total spin of unpaired electrons.
2) Bothe statement I and II are incorrect.
LEVEL 4 & 5 Statement Type
28. Statement 1: The ground state electronic configuration of nitrogen is
Statement – 2: Electrons are filled in orbitals as per Aufbau principle. Hund’s rule
maximum spin multiplicity and Pauli’s principle.
1) If both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT -2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT – 1
2) If both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT -2 is NOT the correct explanation
of STATEMENT – 1
3) If STATEMENT – 1 is TRUE and STATEMENT – 2 is FALSE
4) If STATEMENT – 1 is FALSE and STATEMENT – 2 is TRUE.
CUQ: 1. 2 2. 2 3. 2 4. 1 5. 2 6. 3 7. 3 8. 4 9. 1 10. 3
JEE MAINS AND ADVANCED: 1. 3 2. 4 3. 4 4. 2 5. 1 6. 3 7. 3 8. 1 9. 1 10.4
1. 3 12. 3 13. 3 14. 4 15. 4 16. 2 17. 1 18. 3 19. 3 20. 1,2 21. 1 22. 3
23.2 24. 2 25. a-4: b-3: c- 1: d-2,5 26. 1,3 27. 1 28. 1
Synopsis-11
Electronic configuration of atoms

 The distribution of electrons into orbitals of an atom is called its electronic configuration.
 If one keeps in mind the basic rules which govern the filling of different atomic orbitals,
the electronic configurations of different atoms can be written very easily.
 The electronic configuration of different atoms can be represented in two ways. For
example:
(i) s p d notation
(ii) Orbital diagram
 In the first notation, the subshell is represented by the respective letter symbol and the
number of electrons present in the subshell is depicted, as the super script, like a, b, c, ...
etc.
 The similar subshell represented for different shells is differentiated by writing the
principal quantum number before the respective subshell.
 In the second notation each orbital of the subshell is represented by a box and the
electron is represented by an arrow (↑) a positive spin or an arrow (↓) a negative spin.
 The advantage of second notation over the first is that it represents all the four quantum
numbers.
Stability of Hal filled and completely filled subshells
 The ground state electronic configuration of the atom of an element always corresponds to
the state of the lowest total electronic energy.
 However, in certain elements such as Cu, or Cr, where the two subshells (4s and 3d) differ
slightly in their energies, an electron shifts from a subshell of lower energy (4s) to a subshell
of higher energy (3d), provided such a shift results in all orbitals of the subshell of higher
energy getting either completely filled or half filled.
 The valence electronic configurations of Cr and Cu, therefore, are 3d5 4s1 and 3d10 4s1
respectively and not 3d4 4s2 and 3d9 4s2.
 It has been found that there is extra stability associated with these electronic configurations.
Causes of Stability of Completely Filled and Half Filled Sub-shells
The completely filled and completely half-filled sub-shells are stable due to the following reasons:
1. Symmetrical distribution of electrons:
 It is well known that symmetry leads to stability.
 The completely filled or half-filled subshells have symmetrical distribution of electrons in
them and are therefore more stable.
 Electrons in the same subshell (here 3d) have equal energy but different spatial
distribution.
 Consequently, their shielding of one another is relatively small and the electrons are more
strongly attracted by the nucleus.
2. Exchange Energy:
 The stabilizing effect arises whenever two or more electrons with the same spin are
present in the degenerate orbitals of a subshell.
 These electrons tend to exchange their positions and the energy released due to this
exchange is called exchange energy.
 The number of exchanges that can take place is maximum when the subshell is either
half-filled or completely filled.
 As a result, the exchange energy is maximum and so is the stability.
 You may note that the exchange energy is at the basis of Hund’s rule that electrons
which enter orbitals of equal energy have parallel spins as far as possible.
In other words, the extra stability of half-filled and completely filled subshell is due to:
(i) relatively small shielding,
(ii) smaller columbic repulsion energy, and
(iii) larger exchange energy.
WORKSHEET – 11
CUQ
2. The valency orbital configuration of an element with Z = 23 IS
1) 3d5 2) 3d3 4s2 3) 3d2 4s1 4p1 4) 3d3 4s1 4p1
2 2 6 2 4
3. The electronic configuration 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p corresponds to
1) Sulphur 2) phosphorous 3) Argon 4) Sodium
4. Which electronic configuration is not possible?
1) 2p6 2) 2d5 3) 3s1 4) 4f 12
5. Which has the electronic configuration [Ne] 3s2 3p3
1) Oxygen 2) Phosphorous 3) Nitrogen 4) Carbon
6. The number of unpaired electrons present in Cr3+ is:
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 5
7. An atom Cr has one 4s electron and five 3d electrons. How many unpaired electrons
would be in Cr+3?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
8. Number of orbitals used by chromium for filling its electrons is
1) 24 2) 4 3) 12 4) 15
9. The ion that is most stable
1) Fe+ 2) Fe2+ 3) Fe3+ 4) Fe4+
10. The electronic configuration in the valence shell of silicon is
3s 3p
↑↓ ↑↓
The rule violated is
1) Aufbau principle
2) Paul’s rule
3) Hund’s rule
4) All
11. 1s2, is not the electronic configuration of
1) Hydrogen ion
2) Hydride ion
3) Helium ion
4) Unipositive ion of lightest metal atom
12. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5 is not the electron configuration of
1) Mn3+ 2) Fe3+ 3) Cr+ 4) CO4+
JEE MAINS
LELEL – 1
1. In phosphorus atom (Z = 15) in ground state, the numbers of occupied sub-shells and
occupied orbitals are respectively:
1) 3, 3 2) 5, 9 3) 5, 5 4) 3,6
2. Number of unpaired electrons in Cr (Z = 24) is:
1) 3 2) 6 3) 5 4) zero
3. How many electrons present in calcium with I = 0?
1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12
4. Which of the following electronic configurations is correct?
1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p2x , 2p2y , 2p2z ,3s2, 3p1x
2) 1s2, 2s1, 2p1x, 2p1y, 2p1z
3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2. 3p6, 3d4, 4s2
4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1x, 3p1y, 3p1z
5. The atomic number of an element is 35. What is the total number of electrons present
in all the P- orbitals of the ground state atom of the element (M- 2003)
1) 6 2) 11 3) 17 4) 23
6. In the ground state, an element has 13 electrons in its “M- shell”. The element is _____
1) Copper 2) Manganese 3) Nickel 4) Iron
7. The atomic number (Z) of an element is 25. In its ground state how many electrons are
present in the “N’ shell? (M – 2001)
1) 13 2) 2 3) 15 4) 3
8. Which one of the following ions has same number of unpaired electrons as that of V 3+
ion? (M-99)
1) Cr3+ 2) Mn2+ 3) Ni2+ 4) Fe3+
9. The correct electronic configuration of potassium ion is
1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1
2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s0
3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 4s1
4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 4s2 3d1
10. The number of unpaired electrons in the Fe3+ ion (At no = 26) is …. (E – 86)
1) 5 2) 6 3) 2 4) 1
LEVEL – 2
11. The number of unpaired electrons in Cr3+ ion is:
1) 4 2) 6 3) 2 4) 1
12. The electronic configuration of Zn (Z = 30) may be written as
1) [Ar] 4s2 2) [Kr] 4s2 3) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4) [Ar] 3d10
13. The number of unpaired electrons in the ground state of vanadium (Z = 23) is:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 5 4) 3
14. For many atom other than hydrogen. The maximum number of electrons in the
outermost and penultimate shells?
[ ]
1) 2 2) 8 3) 18 4) 1
LEVEL - 3
15. Which of the following species has the same number of electrons in the outermost and
penultimate shells?
1) O2- 2) AI3+ 3) F- 4) All of these
16. The electronic configuration of an element Cr is 1s 2s 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1. This
2 2
represents its (IIT 2000)

1) Excited state 2) ground state 3) cationic form 4) anionic form
17. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons? (BIT Rancic)
1) Zn 2) Fe2+ 3) Ni3+ 4) Cu+
18. The electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2ppz1 is of (AFMC 97)
1) N 2) O 3) Na 4) K
LEVEL - 4
19. The number of d- electrons in Fe+2 (Z = 26) is not equal to that of the number of:
1) P – electrons in Ne
2) S – electrons in Mg
3) d – electrons in Fe
4) p – electrons in CI
20. The electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1, 3p1 is correctly described by
1) The excited state of Mg+
2) The excited state of Na+
3) The excited state of Mg
4) The excited state of AI
21. The number of d- electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not equal to that to the (MLNR – 93)
1) P- electrons in Ne (at no = 10)
2) S – electrons in Mg (at no = 12)
3) d – electrons in Fe
4) p – electrons in CI (at no. of CI = 17)
LEVEL - 5
22. An element ‘M’ has an atomic mass 23 and atomic number 11. Its ion is represented by
1) M- 2) M+ 3) M2+ 4) M2-
23. 36Kr has the electronic configuration as [Ar] 4s2, 3d10, 4p6. The next 37th electron
1) 4d 2) 4f 3) 5s 4)6s
24. The electronic configuration of ‘Mn’ can be written as:
1) [Ar] 4s2 2) [Ar] 3d6 4s2 3) 5s 4) 6s
JEE ADVANCED
1) Based on what principles of electronic configuration any atom depends? Pauli’s
exclusion
2) Hund’s rule
3) Aufbau principle
4) None of these.
Statement Type
25. Statement I: Atomic number of nitrogen is 7.
Statement II: Accordance with Hund’s rule, each of the three 2p orbitals will be singly
occupied with electrons having parallel spins.
Comprehension Type
The distribution of electrons into different shells, subshells and orbitals of an atom is called
its electronic configuration. An orbital is represented by box and an electron is represented
by an arrow. To get the complete electronic configuration of electrons are filled in order of
increasing energies of the orbitals starting always with the orbital of lowest energy is orbital.
26. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired d- electrons?
1) Zn2+ 2) Mn2+ 3) Fe2+ 4) Cr2+
27. The correct electronic configuration of chromium (atomic number = 24) is:
1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s1
2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6
3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6,3d4, 4s2
4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p2, 3d5, 4s2
Matrix Match Type
28. Column – I Column II
a) Na 1) Last valence e-
b) K 2) Last valence e- in 2nd orbit
c) Li 3) m value is zero for last e-
d) Mg 4) one un – paired e-
5) Last valency e- in 4th orbit
29. Which of the following statement is / are correct?
1) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite (atomic
number of Ag = 47).
2) The number of unpaired electrons in both Fe3+ and Mn2+ are five.
3) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar]3d4 (atomic number of Cr = 24).
4) Magnetic quantum number may have a negative value.
30. Ground state electronic configuration of nitrogen atom can be represented by
1)
2)
3)
4)
LEVEL 4 & 5 Statement Type

31. Statement I: The ground state of stable outer configuration of Cr is 3d 5, 4s1
Statement II: A set of half – filled orbitals containing 1 electron each with their spin
parallel provides extra stability.
32. Statement 1: Half – filled and fully-filled degenerate orbitals are more stable.
Statement 2: Extra stability is due to the symmetrical distribution of electrons and
exchange energy.
33. Statement – 1: The ground state of configuration of Cr is 3d5 4s1
Statement – 2: A set of half-filled orbitals containing one electron each with their spin
parallel provides extra stability.

CUQ: 1. 2 2. 1 3. 2 4. 2 5. 1 6. 3 7. 4 8. 3 9. 3 10. 1 11. 1
JEE MAINS AND ADVANCED: 1. 2 2. 2 3. 2 4. 4 5. 3 6. 2 7. 2 8. 3 9. 2 10. 1 11. 2
12. 3 13. 4 14. 2 15. 4 16. 2 17. 2 18. 1 19. 4 20. 3 21. 4 22. 2 23. 3 24. 4
25. 1,2,3 26. 1 27. 2 28. 1
Crop production and management
I .Plant Breeding Introduction:
 The process of introducing plants into a new locality with different climatic conditions
from their natural growing places in plant introduction scientists researches, tourists
and navigators etc., introduced a number of plants during their travel into their
respective countries.
 Traders from Portugese and the East Indian Company introduced new plant varieties in
Goa and Calcutta.
 New Plants are introduced mostly in the form of seeds and stem cuttings.
Plant Breeding-Methods:
 The various methods of plant breeding are based on the type of Pollination
mechanisms and types of reproduction.
 These are of the following types:
1. Plant Introduction
2. Selection
3. Hybridization
4. Mutation breeding
5. Polypoid breeding
Advantages:
1.Introduction of plants is easiest and quickest method of crop improvement.
2.No scientific knowledge is needed in this process.
3.These newly introduced plants turn to be good source of parental material for
hybridization experiments.
4.These can be directly utilized in agricultural experiments and horticulture experiments.
Demerits:
 Entry of new pests and new pathogens along with the introduced material is possible.
 Their multiplication may cause extreme damage to the introduced variety in their
changed climate.
Some examples:
Achievements:
Some of introduced varieties from different countries that are performing well in India are.
Rice: IR-8 from Philippines Taichung Native 1 from Taiwan.
Wheat: Ridley from Australia, Sonara 63, Sonara 64 from Mexico.
Maize: Dixie varieties 11,22, Texas 21.
SELECTION - PROCEDURES, TYPES, MERITS AND DEMERITS
II.Selection:
 This is an old process in nature and is the oldest breeding technique in crop improvement.
 Plants with desired characters are cultivated.
 Survival of the fittest can be continued through nature which is are selected while, weaker
species are to be wiped out.
 Natural selection is the key for the formation of various cultivated plants and ecotypes
in the existing world.
 Differences among existing species and subspecies is mainly due to natural selection.
Artificial Selection:
 Artificial selection is man mediated method.
 The important variations among existing species are exploited by man.
 Man selects a few plants with better qualities from the existing mixed populations and
tries to propogate them.
 Generally, three methods are involved in artificial selection. They are
1.Mass selection
2.Pureline selection
3.Clonal selection.
1.Mass Selection:
 This is the oldest known method of selection and is useful in cross pollinated crops.
 Keeping the type of plant in mind, the farmer selects the best appearing and most
vigorous plants from the mixed population of crops.
 The selected plants from the mixed population of crops. The selected plants are
thrashed and mixture of seeds is obtained.
 These are stored and used as seed material to raise next generation, by repeating the
same technique every year.
 Mass selection is utilized to improve the yield and quality of the crop. Best results are
obtained based on the heterozygosity with in the crop varieties.
Advantages:
 It is the easiest and fastest method of crop improvement.
 No scientific knowledge is required except some amount of skill.
 This is the only method of crop improvement in wild varities or local crop varities.
 It is the first step in crop improvement.
Limitations:
 Selection is always made on phenotypic characters and it is difficult to predict the
effects of environment and heredity on them.
 Due to segregation of characters, the result are apparent only for short time.
Achievements:
Many of the existing crops are products of mass selection only. They are as follows.
a) Groundnut: TMV-1, TMV-2 Madras varieties
b) Cotton: Many of the Indican commercial varities like Dharwar American, Dodahatti local,
Cambodias etc.
c)Bajra: Pusa Moti(LARI).
2.Pure-line selection:
 The progeny of a single, self-pollinated, homozygous plant is known as ’pure line
selection’.
 In 1903 W.L Johannsen, a Denmark scientists proposed pure line selection method
for crop improvement.
 He conducted selection method for crop improvement. He conducted selection
experiments on ‘Princess Variety’ of bean.
 This method is employed only for self-pollinated crops.
 200-300 plants in every row are identified and seeds are collected and sown in the
same field.
 By repeating the process for 7-8 years, a new variety is produced. Improved variety
is produced.
 Improved varieties of rice, jowar, wheat, cotton, jute tobacco and groundnut are
produced by this method.
Advantages:
 It is the only method to improve the local varieties of self-pollinate crops.
 It is an easier process than hybridization.
 Pure line selection increase homozygosity and consequently all the progeny developed
by this method are phenotypically and genotypically uniform.
Limitations:
 By this method there is no scope of incorporating and developing new characters that
are not existing in the population.
 After reaching the highest level of homozygosity, there is no scope for further
development. Due to increased homozygosity, adaptability to wide areas is not
possible and there is less scope for acclimatization.
 Achivements: Several crop varieties of rice, wheat, cotton, jowar, tobacco, groundnut
etc. are developed through pure line selection.
 Some examples are given below.
 Groundnut: H.G-8, K.T-18, K.T-24
 Rice: CO-4, 6, 10, 14 varieties
 Wheat: N.P-4, 6, 12 varieties; K-13, 54 varieties
3) Clonal Selection:
 A group of plants obtained vegetatively from a single plant is known as ‘clone’ and the
method of developing varieties from the clones is known as ‘clonal selection’.
 All the plants in a clone are phenotypically and genotypically similar. Like pure line
selection their characters remain constant.
 However, in the vegetatively propagated plants, the characters are in the heterozygous
state, and they remain the same throughout the breeding.
 In plants like zinger, turmeric etc. Seeds are not produced.
 Seed formation is rare in some plants.
 Therefore, plants reproduce vegetative through setts in sugarcane, Cuttings in grapes
and roses, tubers in potato, bulbs in onion, sucker in banana, slips in grasses etc. In
plants like mango, orange etc.
 Although seeds are produced mostly the plants are propagated vegetative by grafting.
 The selection is always between the clones and never within a clone, because all the
individuals in a clone have the same genotypes.
 Plants with desirable characters are selected, separated, propagated vegetatively and
the best performers are released into the market.
 Limitations: Selection is restricted only to vegetative propagated plants. New
genotypes cannot be produced by this method.
Advantages: The progency of clonal selection remains stable for any number of
generations. If they possess hybrid vigour, the character can be exploited for many
generations.
Achivements: Clonal selection is useful to isolate and develop best genotype present in the
population. Varieties of potato, mango, orange, banana, grapes, onion etc. are developed
through clonal selection. Some examples are given below:
Potato: Kufri red and Kufri safed varieties.
Mango: Mundapa peddaneelam and Bombay green.
1. Plant breeding importance

a) New seeds production
b) New stem cuttings
c) New progeny
d) All
Ans: d
2. One of these not belongs to plant breeding
a) Poultry
b) Selection
c) Tissue culture
d) Hybridization
Ans: a
3. Advantages of plant breeding is one is correct
a) Easily and quickest method
b) No scientific knowledge is needed
c) Good source of newly introduced plants
d) All
Ans: d
4. One of demerit for plant breeding
a) Entry of new pest
b) More production of plants
c) High cost
d) None
Ans: a
5. Name of rice variety from Taiwan through plant breeding
a) IR-7
b) IR-8
c) IR-22
d) IR-10
Ans: b
6. Name of wheat varieties got through plant breeding
a) Sonora 63
b) Sonora 64
c) Ridley
d) All
Ans: d
7. Through self-pollution getting selection type is
a) Pure line selection
b) Mass selection
c) Both
d) None
Ans: a
8. If we want improve local varieties, what is name of selection method
using
a) Pure selection
b) Mass selection
c) Both
d) All
Ans: a
9. Phenotypically and genotypically similar progeny getting through
which name of plant breeding
a) Selection
b) Hybridization
c) Tissue culture
d) Clonal selection
Ans: d
10.Name of potato new varieties got through colonal selection
a) Kufri red
b) Mundapa
c) Bombay green
d) None
Ans: a
11.Name of scientist introduced the pure line selection
a) W.L. Johannsen
b) Darwin
c) Waldayer
d) hooke
Ans: a
12. Name of groundnut varieties got through mass selection
a) TMV-1
b) TMV-2
c) A&b
d) Pusa moti
Ans: c
13.Name of Indian commercial varieties are
a) Dharwar American
b) Dodahattic local
c) Combodias
d) All
Ans: d
II. PLANT HYBRIDIZATION – PROCEDURES

III.Hybridization
 Plant breeding for the production of new crop varieties government agencies,
agricultural universities as well as commercial companies are involved in this
programme.
 Some of the important steps involved for the production of new variety as follows.
1) Collection of variability
2) Evolutions of selection of parents
3) Cross hybridization amongst selected parents
4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
5) Testing, release and commercialization of new Cultivars
III. A. COLLECTION OF VARIABILITY

1) Collection of variability
 Availability of a complete and wide range of genetic variability is the main requirement in
plant breeding programme.
 A collection of complete range of genetic variability of any particular crop plant is termed
as germplasm collection.
 The sum total of all possible alleles of a crop plant is termed as germplasm. This include
all the genes composition.
1. Germplasm of a crop plant includes.
2. Wild varieties or species of crop
3. Local known varieties in all regions
4. Improved varieties but are not under cultivation now
5. All related plant varieties of that crop
 Germplasm is stored in the form of pollen grains or seeds.
Some of the national and international institutions that are involved in procuring
germplasm of different crop plants are
ICRISAT At Hyderabad (International Crop Research Institute for Semiaris Tropics)
CICR (Central Institutes of Cotton Research)
CRRI (Central Rice Research Institute)
IBPGR (International Board of Plant Genetic Resource)
SBI (Sugarcane Breeding Institute)
NBPGR (National Bureau of plant Genetic Resources)
B. EVALUATION AND SELECTION OF PARENTS
2) Evaluation of selection of parents
 After scanning the total germplasm, some desirable traits are selected which are to be
incorporated in the new variety. Thus two or three types of plants with desired traits are
selected.
 The parents that are selected for this process must be in homozygous. Heterozygous
plants can be converted into homozygous by self-pollination for 6-8 generations.
 Thus, the parent with desired genotype is obtained. Out of the two parents obtained,
some are marked as female and some other as male.
C. CROSS HYBRIDIZATION AMONGST SELECTED PARENTS
3) Cross hybridization amongst selected parents
 The two parents with desired characters combine genetically to form a new hybrid.
The selected character are often isolated from two different parents.
 For example, a character with high protein quality may be incorporated in another plant
with a different character like disease resistance of another plant.
 This is possible by cross hybridization of two genetically different parents.
D. SELECTION AND TESTING OF SUPERIOR RECOMBINANTS
4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
 Plants with desired traits are selected and are used in raising the next generation. Plants
with poor performance are discarded.
 Selection is important and should be done with at most care and proper scientific evolution
of the progenies.
 The scientific of this step is that the plants obtained by this method are superior to its both
of its parents.
 These plants are grown to obtain F1 progency is self-pollinated for many generation in
order to achieve homozygosity or uniformly so that, segregation of characters doesn’t
occur.
E. TESTING, RELEASE AND COMMERCIALIZATION OF NEW CULTIVARS
5) Testing, release and commecialisation of new cultivars
 These newly derived varieties are tested different research stations for quality.
 The sequential effect of weather along with resistance for disease and pest are also
studied.
 The progeny of developed varieties are evaluated at several research stations located in
different agroclimatic zones at least for 3 growing seasons.
 After proper evolution, these varieties are compared with existing varieties and amongst
themselves also.
 This variety is given a particular name and is released to farmers as a new variety.
KNOWING BASICS ABOUT DISEASE AND DISEASE RESISTANCE

PLANT BREEDING FOR DISEASE RESISTANCE
 Majority of cultivated crops are mostly attacked by microorganism like bacteria,
virus, fungi and nematode pathogens which results in reduced yield.
 Therefore, crops are made to be disease resistant with enhances food production
as well as reduction in the usage of bactericides and fungicides.
 Before breeding for disease resistance of the crop it is essential to know the
causative pathogen and the method of its transmission.
 Disease is a metabolic derailment or a manifestation of the suffering due to an
abnormal unhealthy condition developed in an organism due to defective
nutrition or heredity or infection.
 Pathogen is the organism that caused disease. The individual in which a disease
is caused by a pathogen is host.
 Genotype of the host, environmental conditions and pathogen types are the
three major factors on which intensity of the disease is dependent.
 There are agents that cause diseases in plants, are of two types.
1. Inanimate agents 2. Animate agents
INANIMATE AGENTS
1. Inanimate agents
The different nonparasitic, noninfectious and biotic agents are related to this
category. They are
1. Adverse climate: Very low or high temperature, excessive rain, humidity
in atmosphere, and low light intensity etc.
2. Chemicals: Various insecticides, herbicides etc.,
3. Pollutant like smog, SO2 , CO etc
4. Adverse soil conditions: Deficiency of minerals, low aeration in soil, and
existence of toxic salts, etc.
VIRAL AGENTS
Virus are crystalline structures which are nucleo-proteinaceous also that can
multiply in the host cell. These are intermediary between animate and
inanimate things.
Some bacterial disease:
1. Black rot of cruicifer
2. Citrus canker in citrus
3. Blast of paddy in Rice
Some Viral disease:
Tobacco mosaic disease, Cauliflower mosaic disease, Dahlai mosaic disease
and tunic mosaic disease
Fungal disease:
Brown rust of wheat, Red rot of Sugarcane and Late blight of potato.
ANIMATE AGENTS
2. Animate agent
Bacterial disease:
1. Black rot of cruicifers
2. Citrus canker in Citrus
3. Blight of Paddy in Rice
Viral diseases:
 Tobacco mosaic disease, Cauliflower mosaic disease, Dahlia mosaic
disease and Turnip mosaic disease.
Fungal diseases:
 Brown rust of wheat, Red rot of Sugarcane and Late blight of potato.
METHODS TO INDUCE DISEASE RESISTANCE
METHODS OF BREEDING FOR DISEASE RESISTANCE
 A wide range of fungal, bacterial and viral pathogens, affect the yield of
cultivated crop species, especially in tropical climate.
 Crop losses can often be significant, up to 20-30 per cent, or sometimes
even total. In this situation, breeding and development of cultivars
resistant to disease enhances food production.
 This also helps reduce the dependence on use of fungicides and
bacteriocides.
 Resistance of the host plant is the plant is the ability to prevent the
pathogen from causing disease and is determined by the genetic
constitution of the host plant.
 Before breeding is undertaken, it is important to know about the causative
organism and the mode of transmission.
 Some of the disease caused by fungi are rusts, e.g., brown rust of wheat,
red rot of sugarcane and the late blight of potato; by bacteria-black rot of
crucifers; and by viruses-tobacco mosaic, turnip mosaic, etc.
 Breeding is carried out by the conventional breeding techniques or by
mutation breeding.
 The conventional method of breeding for disease resistance is that of
hybridization and selection.
 Its steps are essentially identical to those for breeding for any other
agronomic characters such as high yield.
 The various sequential steps are: screening germplasm for resistance
sources, hybridization of selected parents, selection evaluation of the
hybrids and testing and release of new varieties.
 Some crop varieties bred by hybridization and selection, for disease
resistance it fungi, bacterial and viral disease are released.
 Conventional breeding is often constrained by the availability of limited
number of disease resistance genes that are present and identified in
various crop varieties or wild relatives.
METHOD I. SCREENING OF GERMPLASM OF CROP VARIETY

Method Screening of Germplasm of Crop Variety:
 Including mutations in plants through diverse means and then screening
the plant materials for resistance sometime leads to desirable characters
can then be either multiplied directly or can be used in breeding.
 Other breeding methods that are used are selection amongst somaclonal
variants and genetic engineering.
The following are crop varieties developed by hybridization and selection
which exhibit resistance against bacteria, virus as well as fungi.
Crop Variety Resistance to disease
Wheat Higiri Leaf and Stripe rust, Hill burst
Brassica Pusaswarnim(Karan rai) White rust
Cauliflower Pusa shubhra Pusa Snowball-KI Black rot and curl blight, black rot
Cow pea Pusa komal Bacterial blight
Chilli Pusa Sadabahar Chilly mosaic virus, Tobacco mosaic virus

and leaf curl
Objective Question
1. Important step involved for the production of new variety
a) Collection of variability
b) Evolution of selection of parents
c) Cross hybridization among selected parents
d) All
2. Collection of seeds is
a) Germplasm
b) Gene bank
c) A&B
d) Sedation
3. SBI full form
a) State bank of India
b) Sugarcane breeding institute
c) Soybean breeding institute
d) None
4. CRRI full form
a) Central rat research institute
b) Central red rose institute
c) Central rice research institute
d) None
5. Two parents with desired characters combine genetically to form a new
hybrid plant process
a) Self-hybridization
b) Cross-hybridization
c) Breeding
d) None
6. Uses of plant breeding
a) New variety of plant
b) Disease resistance plant
c) Fungicides reduction
d) All
7. Disease causing chemicals
a) Smog
b) So2
c) Co
d) All
8. Disease causing adverse climate
a) Low & high temperature
b) Excessive rain
c) Humidity in atmosphere
d) All
9. Disease causing adverse soil conditions are
a) Deficiency of minerals
b) High aeration
c) More minerals
d) None
10.Black rot of crucifer is
a) Fungal disease
b) Bacterial disease
c) Viral disease
d) None
11.Citrus cancer disease belongs to which plant
a. Banana
b. Flower plants
c. Citrus
d. None
12.Blast of paddy disease belongs
a) Rice
b) Mango
c) Apple
d) Grapes
13.Tobacco mosaic disease is
a) Viral
b) Bacterial
c) Fungal
d) Insects
14.Red rot disease belongs to
a) Rice
b) Potato
c) Tomato
d) Sugarcane
15.Brown rust of wheat is
a) Fungal
b) Bacterial
c) Viral
d) None
Answer Key:
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C 12.
A 13. A 14. D 15. A
METHOD II. MUTATION BREEDING

MUTATION BREEDING
 “Mutation as sudden phenotypic changes which are in heritable form”.
 When mutated plants are plant breeding, new varieties of crops are
produced.
 Mutatuion can be due to a change that occur in base sequence of the
concerned gene or chromosome structure or chromosome number.
 Mutations occurring naturally are called spontaneous mutations. They are
both germinal and somatic in nature.
 Useful somatic mutations can be incorporated mostly in vegetatively
propogated plants, like grapes, naval oranges, Bhaskara variety of banana.
 Vegetable propagation is also useful in maintaining germinal variations
generated through sexual reproduction, e.g., apple, mango, potato and
sugarcane.
 Thus, spontaneous mutations are the basis for the genic variations that
occur in all living organisms.
 As the rate of spontaneous mutations is very low, the rate of mutation is
enhanced by means of certain agents called mutagens.
 Mutagens are of two types, chemical and physical mutagens
 Chemical mutagens are some chemicals such as Methyl methane
sulphonate (MMS), Formaldehyde, Nitrous acid, ethylmethane
sulphonate (EMS) and sodium azide, that induce sudden changes.
 Physical mutages are different kinds of radiation like 𝛼 − 𝒓𝒂𝒚𝒔, 𝜷 −
𝒓𝒂𝒚𝒔, 𝜸 − 𝒓𝒂𝒚𝒔, 𝑿 − 𝒓𝒂𝒚𝒔, ultraviolet rays, etc.
 These mutagens induce changes either in DNA are chromosomes, which
produce mutation.
 Mutation resulted in response to mutagens are induced mutations.
 They were first produced by Muller (1927) with the help of X-rays on
Drosophila and by stadler in Zea mays.
 Use of induced mutations in plant breeding to develop improved
varieties is called mutation breeding.
Disadvantages
1. Some of the induced mutation are lethal.
2.Most of the mutation are recessive.
3.Rate of mutation are extremely low.
4.Stability of mutants is sometimes doubtful as some mutants have tendency
to revert back to original type.
METHOD III. ALTERNATE SOURCES
 Studies related to genetic engineering and tissue culture are also
alternate source of disease resistant nature.
 The mutations resulted in cultures due to mutagens, temperature factors
and stress conditions help in the production of new varieties which are
fungal resistant.
The slicing out of few genes for disease resistance from other wild varieties
and their incorporation in the cultivar is possible.
Screening of germplasm for resistance sources
↓
Hybridisation of Selected parents
↓
Proper evaluation of hybrids obtained
↓
Proper testing at research stations
↓
Naming the variety
↓
Release of new variety
The following are the crop varieties developed by hybridization and selection
which exhibit resistance against bacteria, virus as well as fungi.
Crop Variety Resistance to disease

Wheat Hingiri Leaf and Stripe rust, Hill burst
Brassica Pusa swarnim (Karan rai) White rust

Cauliflower Pusa shubhra Pusanowball-I Black rot and cure blight black rot
Cow pea Pusa Komal Bacterial blight
Chilli Pusa Sadabahar Chilly mosaic virus Tobacco mosaic
virus and leaf curl
METHOD IV. POLYPLOID BREEDING
POLYPLOIDY BREEDING:
 Presence of more than two sets of chromosomes in an organism is
called polyploidy.
 Based on the number of chromosomal sets present in plants
monoploids (single genome) diploids (two genomes), Triploids (three
genome), tetraploids (4 genomes), penta (5 genomes) or hexaploids
(6 genomes) are seen.
 Usage of polyploids for the production of new crop variety is called
polyploidy breeding.
 Majority of sexually reproducing organisms are naturally diploids
(2n). Natural polyploids are seen in Poaceae members.
Let us discuss about hexaploid plant, i.e., commercial in schematic manner.
Commercial Bread Wheat
Triticum monococcum x Aegilops speltoides
(2n=14) (2n=14)
AA BB
AB (2n=14)
Sterile hybrid
Doubling
Amphidiploid x Aegilops squarrosa

AABB (4n=28) (2n=14) DD
Triploid (3n = 21)

ABD (Sterile)
Doubling
Triticum aestivum (6n=42)

(Hexaploid wheat)
 Raphanobrassica: It obtain by a cross between Raphanus (Radish)

and Brassica (Cabbage), both belonging to the family Brassicaceae.
Raphanus sativus Brassica oleracea
(2n=18) x (2n=18)
n=9 n=9
F1 hybrid
(9R+9B)
 The chromosome number is double by treatment with colchicine

Raphanobrassica
18R + 18B (2n=36)
 Raphanobraqssica is the first man-made synthetic genus. Although
economically it is not useful, genetically it is a tremendous success.
 The experiment of Karpechenko (1927), a Russian scientist helped in the
production of this allopolyploid.
 Triticale: Another synthetic genus Triticale (a cross between Triticum
aestivum x Secale cereal) developed by polyploidy breeding is released
for cultivation.
POLYPLOID BREEDING
 Polyploids can be induced by the application of various chemicals like
colchicine, coumarins and acenapthene etc., to both vegetative as
well as floral buds.
 Subjecting the vegetative buds to x-ray treatment can induce
polyploidy in some poaceae members.
 Sudden lowering of temperature during divisional stages of
proembryo also results in origin of polyploids.
PLANT BREEDING FOR DEVELOPING RESISTANCE TO INSECT PESTS

PLANT BREEDING FOR DEVELOPING RESISTANCE TO INSECT PESTS
 Another major cause for large scale destruction of crop plant and crop
produce is insect and pest infestation.
 Insect resistance in host crop plants may be due to morphological,
biochemical or physiology characteristics.
 Hairy leaves in several plants are associated with resistance to inspect pests,
e.g., resistance to jassids in cotton cereal leaf beetle in wheat, solid stems
lead to non-preference by the stem sawfly and smooth leaved and nectar-less
cotton varieties do not attract bollworms.
 High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content in maize leads to resistance
to maize stem borers.
 Sources of resistance genes may be cultivated varieties, germplasm collection
of the crop or wild relatives.
Some released crop varieties bred by hybridization and selection, for insect
resistance are given.
Crop Variety Insect pests
Brassica (rape seed Pusa Gaurav Aphids
mustard)
Flat bean Pusa sem 2 Jassids, aphids and fruit borers
Pusa sem 3
Bhendi Pusa sawani Shoot and fruit borer.
Pusa A-4
Objective Question
1. Sudden phenotypic changes are___________
a) Gene recombination
b) Crossing over
c) Mutation
d) None
Answer: c
2. Agents causing mutations are____________
a) Mutagens
b) Carcinogens
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a
3. Physical mutagens are_______________
a) X-ray
b) 𝛾- rays
c) a & b
d) UV rays
Answer: c
4. Chemical mutagens are_____________
a) Methylmethane sulphonate
b) Nitrous acid
c) Formaldehyde
d) All
Answer: d
5. Leaf and stripe rust disease resistance of variety of
wheat_____________
a) Himagiri
b) Pusaswarnim
c) Pusakomal
d) None
Answer: a
6. White rust disease resistance variety of brassica______________
a) Pusa swarnim
b) Pusa komal
c) Pusa sadabahor
d) None
Answer: a
7. Raphanobrassica new plant example for
a) Mutation breeding
b) Tissue culture
c) Polyploidy
d) None
Answer: c
8. Insect pest resistance variety of bhendi___________
a) Pusa A-4
b) Pusa-swarni
c) a & b
d) pusa-sem-2
answer: c
NECESSITY OF QUALITATIVE NUTRITIONAL ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD CROPS

PLANT BREEDING FOR IMPROVED FOOD QUALITY
 Plant breeding methods are applicable for various crop plants. This is undertaken
for improved nutritional quality of the plants.
 The total protein content and quality in a particular crop species can be enriched
by plant breeding.
 Oil content, vitamin content and the content of various minerals as well as
micronutrients in plants can be enhanced by hybridization.
 Due to enhanced population production food grains are not adequate to meet the
requirements.
 In near future 25% of human population may not get adequate supply of proteins,
carbohydrates and nutritious food components.
 Minerals like Iodine, vitamins, Iron, Zinc and other micronutrients are also available
in required quantities for human beings in near future.
 The developing nations are also facing a major problem of explosive population
growth.
 It is really difficult to supply food and feed particularly proteins to future
generations.
 It is estimated that only 60% of the world population may get adequate food and
feed.
 Remaining 40% population need to suffer from malnutrition and hunger.
 Malnutrition increase the risk of diseases, reduce mental abilities and thereby
reduce the life span also.
 Plant breeding techniques are now employed in crop varieties where higher levels
of vitamins and minerals can be included.
 Production of new plant varieties with higher protein and healthier fats is called
bio fortification.
 This can be the most practical aspect to improve the health of the people on earth.
 In Zea mays (maize), new hybrids are produced with doubling the amount of the
aminoacids particularly tryptophan and Iysine synthesis when compared to existing
hybrid.
 Atlas 66, a wheat variety has high protein content. It has been used as a donar
improving cultivated variety of wheat.
 Production of Iron rich variety in wheat with more than five times of iron than the
usually existing varieties is generated.
 IARI, New Delhi successfully developed new vegetable crops which are rich in
vitamins, minerals and nutrients.
 New crop varities in spinach and bathua, enriched iron content and vitamin C
(absorbic acid) enriched bittergourd are newly produced varities.
 Beans with enriched protein content are the new achivements by IARI.
BIOFORTIFICATION - PROCESSES, PRODUCTS AND ADVANTAGES
Biofortification
 Production of crops with enhanced levels of mineral content and vitamins are
mainly aimed now a day.
 Practically in order to improvise public health new crop varieties with healthier fats
and high protein content are to be generated.
 After obtaining a particular variety in a crop plant, breeder futher enrich the cariety
by adding more and more benefical character. Some of such character are
1. Content of protein and its quality is enhanced.
2. Content of stored oil and quality is enhanced in oil seeds
3. Overall contents of vitamins and micronutrients and mineral content is
enhanced.
 In Zea mays new hybrid that possess double the amount of the aminoacids are
produced
INTRODUCTION
Introduction
 After carbohydrates, proteins occupy the next position in our diet. From plants,
proteins are obtained from beans, pulses and groundnut.
 Milk, meat, fish, eggs and cheese are the sources from animals. As the population of
human beings and animals is increasing, the need for enhanced production of
proteins is required.
 But this is not possible by conventional methods of cultivation. On one hand, new
agricultural practices of high proteins containing cereals, groundnuts and soybean
are employed.
 On the other utilization of micro-organisms as protein sources gained popularity
which is an experimental success now-a-days.
 Unicellular microorganisms like algae, fungi, yeast and bacteria when cultured on
suitable substrates can generate large quantities of proteins. The purified dried
biomass of these organisms acts as “source for proteins”
 Biomass is the mass of living organisms of a species expressed in terms of fresh on
dry weight.
 Dried biomass of particular species of microbes as protein sources in diet is single cell
protein (SCP)
 A shift from grain to meat diet also rise more demand for cereal crops as it required
nearly 3-10 kgs of grains to produce 1000 grams of meat by animals.
 Majority of animals in turn depend in plants as they are primary consumers in the
food chain.
 It is estimated that around 25% of world’s human population is now suffering from
malnutrition and hunger.
 Ancient Africans used filamentous blue green alga called Spirulina that was collected
from the Lake Chad as food.
 Utilisation to Torula yeast (candida utilisa) in preparation of soups is also recorded
during 2nd world war which gained popularity by II and world.
ADVANTAGES OF SCPS:
 SCP are much advantageous over the common conventional sources of protein.
Some major advantages are as follows:
1. With short period in a relatively small area large quantities of SCP can be grown.
2. Microbes that are used as SCP exibit fast rate of growth.
3. SCP acts as rich source for high quality proteins
4. SCP are poor in fat content.
5. SCP are good sources of B-complex, vitamin B and minerals also.
6. SCP reduce major pressure on agricultural production systems for supply of needed
protein content.
7. Enhancement of nutritional value is possible by altering the composition of
aminoacids by SCP.
8. SCP can be growth on low cost industrial effluents.
9. As polluents are recycled, reduction in environmental pollution is possible.
10.SCP can be cultured in all climatic conditions
11.During the production of SCP biomass useful bye products like organic acids, oils
and fats can be obtained.
12.Unlike other agricultural crops, SCP can be produced throughout the year.
BRIEF ACCOUNT OF SOURCE OF SCPs

 It has been estimated that a cow of 250 kg can produce only 200 grams of proteins
per day.
 At the same time, Methylophylus methylotrophus, a bacterial SCP can produce far
higher quantity of proteins.
 SCP has to be processed in order to remove excess of nucleic acid.
Objective Question
1. Plant breeding improve the ____________

a) Vitamin content
b) Iron content
c) Nutrients
d) All
Answer: c
2. IARI present in_________
a) Hyderabad
b) Chennai
c) Delhi
d) None
Answer: c
3. Increase level of mineral content is__________
a) Biofortification
b) Bio-magnification
c) Biofertiliser
d) None
Answer: a
4. Biofortification are_________
a) Improve protein content
b) Improve oil content
c) Improve vitamin content
d) All
Answer: d
5. Alternative source of proteins are___________
a) SCP
b) Biomass
c) Bio-source
d) None
Answer: a
6. Algae using in SCP___________
a) Spirulina
b) Chlorella
c) Red algae
d) None
Answer: a
7. Advantages of SCP____________
a) Low cost
b) Low fat
c) Vitamins
d) All
Answer: d
8. Bacteria SCP is___________
a) Methylotrophus
b) Pseudomonas
c) Spirulina
d) None
Answer: a
INTRODUCTION
TISSUE CULTURE
 Majority of flowering plants propagate with the help of seeds. Seed germination
leads to the production of new plants.
 Zygote also like vegetative cells possess a diploid genome.
 Thus, under ideal conditions even vegetative cells of the plants with actively growing
nature can develop into a complete plant.
 As much information in understanding the factors controlling growth and
differentiation came to lime light, the patterns of cell growth, cell division and
differentiation made it possible to culture individual plant cells, tissue and organs on
artificial medium (in vitro) under aseptic conditions.
 The technique of growing, culturing and maintenance of plant cells, tissues and
organs outside the plant body in a suitable culture medium with nutrients under
controlled environment conditions is called as micropropagation or tissue culture.
 Micropropagation on tissue culture is based on cellular totipotency.
 The ability of a plant cell to divide, develop and produce a new group of cells (callus)
or directly a complete plantlet by tissue culture
 Morgan (1901) coined the term totipotency to show the ability of a cell to develop
into a new individual by regeneration.
 The concept of totipotency was designed by Haberlandt (1902).
 The important aspects employed in plant tissue culture experiments.
PREPARATION AND STERILIZATION OF NUTRIENT MEDIUM
I. Preparation and sterilization of nutrient medium
 A tissue on cultured medium cannot synthesize their own food materials. So an
external supply of nutrients through the medium is a must.
 Culture medium should provide nutrition required for the growth and development
for callus.
 This contains inorganic salts, required vitamins, sucrose, a vital source of energy as
well as carbon and other required growth regulators like auxins (2,4 D) and cytokinins
(BAP).
 These nutrients dissolved in distilled water and its pH is to be adjusted at 5.6-6.0.
 The culture medium is poured in rimless flasks, culture tissue and are tightly closed
with non-absorbent cotton plugs.
 Sterilization of nutrient medium is required to kill the microorganisms. Sterilization
is mediated by autoclave.
 The medium is autoclaved for 15 min at non-contaminated are taken for inoculation
of the explant.
PREPARATION AND INOCULATION OF EXPLANTS
II. Preparation and inoculation of explants
 The portion of the plant which is inoculated on the medium to develop into a
complete or organ ‘in vitro is explant’.
 Generally healthy and young living parts are used as explants. These explants are
surface sterilized by rinsing (for seeds).
 These are washed in distilled water and inoculated in culture medium to obtain
aseptic seedings.
 Inoculation is the transfer of explants onto the sterilized nutrient medium. This
generally carried out in laminar air flow chamber.
INCUBATION PROCESS
III. Incubation process
 The inoculated explants in culture tubes are incubated at suitable
temperature, illumination and proper humidity.
 The cells of explant absorb the nutrients and develop into a mass of
undifferentiated cells called Callus in 3-4 weeks.
 Thus embryo like sructures develop from Callus called embryoids.
 After further development these embryois are transferred to other culture
media so that, they can develop into complete plants.
TRANSFER OF PLANTLETS TO POTS
IV. Transfer of plantlets to pots
 The plantlets are need to be slowly get acclimatized before their transfer to pots.
 These pots with plants are covered with polythene bags to maintain moisture for 1-2
days. Such condition provides high range of humidity and help in adjustment of the
plantlet.
 The plantlets are transferred to regular pot with manure for growth under natural
conditions.
VARIOUS TYPE OF PLANT USED IN THE CULTURE AND CULTURING TECHNIQUES
Various Type Of Plant used In The culture And Culturing Techniques:
Embryo culture
 Young embryos from developing seeds are excised and are cultured in this method.
 This process of culturing of zygotic embryos of different developmental stages on
nutritient medium results in production of new plantlets.
 In embryo culture, embryos are first isolated aseptically and then transferred to
nutrient medium. Immature young embryos develop well on medium rich in
vitamins, growth regulators and required aminoacids.
 Mature and old embryos can be cultured easily on simple basal medium as they are
completely self-sufficient.
Another culture:
 Culture of anthers excised from unopened floral buds on nutrient medium in vitro is
called anther culture. Such anthers can form callus and haploid plantlets on medium.
 For the first tine anther culture was carried in Datura innoxia by Maheswari & Guha
(1964).
 Pollen culture favours production of haploid plants. The basic principle behind
production of haploid plants is totipotency of microspores (pollen grains) with
haploid set in each cell.
 After sterilization anther are excised from a bud and are cultured on nutrient
medium at 25-28°C for 3-4 weeks.
 Later haploid plantlets are generated on the medium. These plantlets are
transferred to small pots.
 Initially, these plantlets are covered with polythene bag to prevent desiccation.
 After 7-10 days these plantlets are shifted to larger and open pots. As cultured from
microspore, these plants are haploid and lake complementary homologous
chromosomes.
 Haploid of plants are converted into homozygous diploids by treating with
colchicine.
Ovule Culture:
 Plants with abortive embryos in early stages are subjected to culturing of fertilizer
ovules.
 Ovules are excised from the ovary and are grown on basal medium.
 In general, ovule culture is recommended for invitro pollination, fertilization or
embryo rescue by ovule culture, we can successfully obtain fruits on artificial
nutrient medium supplemented with coconut milk, auxins and phytohormones.
 With particular reference to interspecies or intergenetic crosses, ovaries are ecised
at zygote stage or 2-celled proembryo stage on nutrient medium.
Ovary culture:
 The in vitro culture of ovary, isolates from pollinated or unpollinated flowers is
called ‘ovary culture’.
 First ovary culture was achived by Jansen and Bonper (1949) in Lycopersicon
esculentum (tomato). Later, Nitsch (1951) cultured the ovaries of tomato, tobacco
etc.
 Ovaries from the pollinated flowers can grow on simple nutrient medium with
mineral salts and sucrose, but ovaries from unpollinated flowers require additional
auxins to the culture medium.
 Unpollinated ovaries develop into seedless fruits, whereas pollinated ovaries
develop into normalfruits.
 Nitsch (1951) developed seedless tomato fruits from unpollinated ovaries cultured
on a nutrient medium supplemented with auxins.
 Mostly, the fruits may even be of larger size than normal size, than normal size, if
IAA is added to the nutrient medium.
Protoplast Fusion:
 Fertilization occurs naturally in very closely related organism. Recently, however, a
technique has been developed through which it became possible to fuse two
vegetative or somatic cells to produce diploid or polyploidy hybrid cells.
 The technique involving the fussion of isolated protoplast from genetically distinct
individuals as known as protoplast fusion or somatic hybridization. The fusion
product of protoplast is known as ‘hetrokaryon’.
SIGNIFICANCE OF SOMATIC HYBRIDS

Significance of somatic hybrids
 The technique of somatic hybridization is of great value to synthesize rate
hybrids.
 It can overcome barriers to sexual incompatibility between sexually isolated
species. Interspecific, intergeneric and intertribal somatic hybrid were
successfully produced by this technique.
i) Interspecific somatic hybrids
e. g: Brassica oleracea + B. campestris, Nicotiana tabacum + N. glutinosa
ii) Intergeneric somatic hybrids
e.g: Raphanus sativus + B. oleracea→ Raphanobrassica
Solanum tuberosum + Lycopersicon esculentum → Solanopersicon
iii) Intertribal somatic hybrids
e.g: Arabidopsis thaliana + Brassica campestris→ Arabidobrassica
Barbarea vulgaris + B.napus → Barbareobrassica.
CYTOPLASMIC HYBRIDS OR CYBRIDS

Cytoplasmic hybrids or cybrids
Cytoplasmic hybrids can be produced through protoplast fusion.
 In sexual hybrids the cytoplasm is derived from the maternal parent and in somatic
hybrids, it is derived from both the parents.
 However, hybrids can also be obtained where nucleus is derived from one parent
and cytoplasm is derived from both, thus producing cytoplasmic hybrids or cybrids.
 The technique of cybrid production has been utilized for transfer of cytoplasmic
male sterility.
 It has been successfully applied plants like Nicotiana, Brassica etc.
 Cybrids are hybrids in which Cytoplasms of two parental cells are fuse of but nuclear
genome of only one parent persists.
 Somatic hybrids are significant in the production of allopolyploids in crop plants.
Applications of tissue culture
1. Production of more plants within short time in limited area is possible only by
tissue culture. Large scale propagation of plants under asetic conditions by
tissue culture is named as micropropagation.
2. Micropropagation is applicable to exotic plants, ornamental plants, horticulture
plants as well as orchids.
3. Genetic variation among plant cells of culture is called somaclonal variations.
Plants generated through tissue culture exhibit genetic variations resulted due
to improper nutrient medium, usage of muagens, phytohormones and
improper illumination and delay in subculturing. Somaclonal variation are
used in improvement of crops.
4. During culturing of callus all the plantlets produced on the nutrient medium
possess same genotype. Such plantlets are mostly used in clonal propagation.
5. During single cell liquid cultures chemical mutagens are supplemented for
induction of mutation.
6. In vegetatively propagated plants like Musa, Solanum (potato), viral disease can
be prevented by the production of virus free plants from stemtip cultures.
Axillary meristems as well as apical meristems are virus free even though the
whole plant is infected by virus.
7. Angiospermic embryos that do not survive inside seeds can be cultured to
develop into new plants, which are used in interspecific hybridization.
8. Weedicide resistance can be achived by exposing the callus to weedicides in
small but increasing conventrations. After achiving the desirable level of
weedicide the cells the cub cultured to generate new plants.
9. Transfer of foregin genes into the callus cells regenerate transgenic plants on
artificial medium.
10.Production of rare hybrids and seed dormancy problems can be reduced by
embryo culture.
11.Invitro production of medicinal plants is possible by tissue culture.
12.Various metabolic and biochemical aspects to seed dormancy can be studied by
micro-propagation.
Objective Question
1. Large production crops
a) Totipotency
b) Micro propagation
c) Both
d) Somatic hybrid
Answer: b
2. From single cell, develops new plant is
a) Totipotency
b) Micro propagation
c) Somatic hybrid
d) Protoplast fusion
Answer: a
3. Totipotency coined by
a) Haberlandt
b) Morgan
c) Thomus
d) None
Answer: b
4. Hormones using for callus formation
a) Auxins
b) Cytokinins
c) both
d) Gibberellin
Answer:
5. Nutrient medium in tissue culture PH is
a) PH=5.6
b) PH=7.6
c) PH=9.6
d) PH=10.6
Answer: a
6. Explant is
a) Cells of leaf
b) Cells of root
c) Cells of stem
d) All
Answer: d
7. Undifferentiated man in tissue culture is
a) Callus
b) Mallus
c) Bolus
d) None
Answer: a
8. Anther culture carried by
a) Maheswari
b) Thomus
c) Organ
d) None
Answer: a
9. Protoplast cell is
a) With cell wall cell
b) Without cell wall cell
c) With proplasm cell
d) None
Answer: b
10. Somatic cells are
a) Vegetative cells
b) Germ cells
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a
UNDERSTANDING THE BENEFITS OF VARIOUS CATEGORIES OF MICRO-ORGANISMS IN

HUMAN WELFARE
 Besides macroscopic plants and animals, microbes are the major components of
biological systems on this earth.
 You have studied about the diversity of living organisms in Class XI. Do you remember
which Kingdoms among the living organisms contain micro-organisms? Which are the
ones that are only microscopic? Microbes are present everywhere – in soil, water, air,
inside our bodies and that of other animals and plants.
 They are present even at sites where no other life-form could possibly exist–sites such
as deep inside the geysers (thermal vents) where the temperature may be as high as
1000C, deep in the soil, under the layers of snow several metres thick, and in highly
acidic environments.
 Microbes are diverse–protozoa, bacteria, fungi and microscopic plants viruses, viroids
and also prions that are proteinaceous infectious agents. Some of the microbes are
shown.
 Microbes like bacteria and many fungi can be grown on nutritive media to form
colonies (Figure 10.3), that can be seen with the naked eyes.
 Such cultures are useful in studies on micro-organisms. In chapter 8, you have read
that microbes cause a large number of diseases in human beings.
 They also cause diseases in animals and plants. But this should not make you think
that all microbes are harmful; several microbes are useful to man in diverse ways.
 Some of the most important contributions of microbes to human welfare are
discussed in this chapter.
HOUSE HOLD PRODUCTION OF MILK AND ITS PRODUCTS:

 A Curd, (B) Yoghurt (It has flavor of lactic acid and acetaldehyde, (C) Buttermilk,
(D)Swiss cheese.
 Butter milk: Steroptococcus cremoris, S.Lactis, Lactobacillus acidophilus, Leuconostoc
at 22°C.
o Roquefort cheese: Penicillum Roquefortii
o Camembert cheese: Pencillium camembertii
o Swiss Cheese: Propionibacterium Sharmanii
o Bread: Leaving is caused by secretion of three types of enzymes by yeast.
o They are amylase, Zymase, Maltase.
 Dosa and Idli: The two are allowed to ferment with – Leuconostoc, Streptococcus –
Bacteria.
HOUSE HOLD PRODUCTION OF DOUGH:

 A small amount of curd added to the fresh milk as inoculum or starter contain millions
of LAB, which at suitable temperatures multiply, thus converting milk to curd, which
also improves its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12.
 In our stomach too, the LAB play very beneficial role in checking disease causing
microbes.
 The dough, which is used for making foods such as dosa and idli is also fermented by
bacteria.
 The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to the production of CO2 gas.
 Can you tell which metabolic pathway is taking place resulting in the formation of
CO2? Where do you think the bacteria for these fermentations came from? Similarly,
the dough, which is used for making bread, is fermented using baker’s yeast
(Saccharomyces cerevisiae).
HOUSE HOLD PRODUCTION OF TODDY:

 A number of traditional drinks and foods are also made by fermentation by the
microbes. ‘Toddy’, a traditional drink of some parts of southern India is made
by fermenting sap from palms.
 Microbes are also used to ferment fish, soyabean and bambooshoots to make
foods. Cheese, is one of the oldest food items in which microbes were used.
 Different varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour
and taste, the specificity coming from the microbes used.
 For example, the large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of a large
amount of CO2 by a bacterium named Propionibacterium sharmanii.
 The ‘Roquefort cheese’ are ripened by growing a specific fungus on them,
which gives them a particular flavour.
UNDERSTANDING FERMENTATION AND ITS APPLICATION IN INDUSTRIES
 Microbes especially yeasts have been used from time immemorial for the production
of beverages like wine, beer, whisky, brandy or rum.
 For this purpose, the same yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae used for bread-making and
commonly called brewer’s yeast, is used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices,
to produce ethanol.
FERMENTED BEVERAGES
 Do you recollect the metabolic reactions,
which result in the production of ethanol by
yeast? Depending on the type of the raw
material used for fermentation and the type of
processing (with or without distillation)
different types of alcoholic drinks are
obtained.
 Wine
and beer are produced without distillation whereas
whisky, brandy and rum are produced by distillation of
the fermented broth. The photograph of a
fermentation plant is shown.
PRODUCTION OF ANTIBIOTICS:
 Antibiotics produced by microbes are regarded as one of the most significant
discoveries of the twentieth century and have greatly contributed towards the
welfare of the human society.
 Anti is a Greek word that means ‘against’, and bio means ‘life’, together they
mean ‘against life’ (in the context of disease causing organisms); whereas with
reference to human beings, they are ‘prolife’ and not against.
 Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are produced by some microbes and
can kill or retard the growth of other (disease-causing) microbes.
 You are familiar with the commonly used
antibiotic Penicillin. Do you know that Penicillin
was the first antibiotic to be discovered, and it
was a chance discovery? Alexander Fleming
while working on Staphylococci bacteria, once
observed a mould growing in one of his
unwashed culture plates around which
Staphylococci could not grow.
 He found out that it was due to a chemical
produced by the mould and he named it Penicillin after the mould Penicillium
notatum.
 However, its full potential as an effective antibiotic was established much later by
Ernest Chain and Howard Florey.
 This antibiotic was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in World
War II.
 Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1945, for this
discovery.
 After Penicillin, other antibiotics were also purified from other microbes. Can you
name some other antibiotics and find out their sources? Antibiotics have greatly
improved our capacity to treat deadly diseases such as plague, whooping cough
(kali khansi), diphtheria (gal ghotu) and leprosy (kusht rog), which used to kill
millions all over the globe.
 Today, we cannot imagine a world without antibiotics.
1. Scientist first to isolate streptomycin was

a) Flemming
b) Koch
c) Burkholder
d) Waksman
Answer: d
1. Pencillin was discovered by
a) Flemming
b) Waksman
c) Burkholder
d) Dubois
Answer: a
2. Erythromycin and chloramphenicol are got from
a) Pencillin species
b) Aspergillus species
c) Streptomyces species
d) Bacillus species
Answer: c
3. Terramycin is got from
a) Streptomyces griseus
b) S. venezuelae
c) S. aureofaciens
d) S. ramosus
Answer: d
4. Germinating barley seeds are used in preparation of
a) Lactic acid
b) Wine
c) Cheese
d) Beer
Answer: d
5. Streptomyces venezuelae produces antibiotic
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Aureomycin
c) Tetracycline
d) Streptomycin
Answer: a
6. Organic acid first produced through fermentation is
a) Propionic acid
b) Lactic acid
c) Citric acid
d) Oxalic acid
Answer: b
7. Streptomyces griseus produces antibiotic
a) Terramycin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Neomycin
d) Streptomycin
Answer: d
8. Cheese and yoghurt are products of
a) Pasteurization
b) Fermentation
c) Dehydration
d) Distillation
Answer:
9. Renin employed in cheese industry is
a) Inhibitor
b) Alkaloid
c) Enzyme
d) Vitamin
Answer: c
10.Yoghurt is produced with the help of
a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
b) Lactobacillus thermophiles
c) Streptococcus thermophiles
d) Both a and b
Answer:
11. Pencillin inhibits bacterial multiplication because it
a) Checks RNA synthesis
b) Checks DNA synthesis
c) Destroys chromatin
d) Inhibits cell wall formation
Answer: d
PRODUCTION OF BIOACTIVE MOLECULES:
 Microbes are also used for commercial and industrial production of certain chemicals
like organic acids, alcohols and enzymes.
 Examples of acid producers are Aspergillus niger (a fungus) of citric acid, Acetobacter
aceti (a bacterium) of acetic acid;
 Clostridium butylicum (a bacterium) of butyric acid and Lactobacillus (a bacterium) of
lactic acid.
 Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for commercial production of ethanol.
 Microbes are also used for production of enzymes.
 Lipases are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from
the laundry. You must have noticed that bottled fruit juices bought from the market are
clearer as compared to those made at home.
 This is because the bottled juices are clarified by the use of pectinases and proteases.
 Streptokinase produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and modified by genetic
engineering is used as a ‘clot buster’ for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients
who have undergone myocardial infraction leading to heart attack.
 Another bioactive molecule, cyclosporin A, that is used as an immunosuppressive agent
in organ-transplant patients, is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum.
 Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus have been commercialised as blood-
cholesterol lowering agents.
 It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
WHAT IS SEWAGE? COMPONENTS FORMING SEWAGE

WHAT IS SEWAGE? COMPONENTS FORMING SEWAGE
 We know that large quantities of waste water are generated everyday in cities and
towns. A major component of this waste water is human excreta.
 This municipal waste-water is also called sewage.
 It contains large amounts of organic matter and microbes. Many of which are
pathogenic.
 Have you ever wondered where this huge quantity of sewage or urban waste water
is disposed off daily? This cannot be discharged into natural water bodies like rivers
and streams directly – you can understand why.
 Before disposal, hence, sewage is treated in sewage treatment plants (STPs) to
make it less polluting.
 Treatment of waste water is done by the heterotrophic microbes naturally present
in the sewage. This treatment is carried out in two stages:
PRIMARY TREATMENT OF SEWAGE WATER
PRIMARY TREATMENT:
 These treatment steps basically involve physical removal of particles – large and
small – from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation.
 These are removed in stages; initially, floating debris is removed by sequential
filtration.
 Then the grit (soil and small pebbles) are removed by sedimentation.
 All solids that settle form the primary sludge, and the supernatant forms the effluent.
 The effluent from the primary settling tank is taken for secondary treatment.
SECONDARY TREATMENT OR BIOLOGICAL TREATMENT:

 The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly
agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it.
 This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs (masses of
bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures).
 While growing, these microbes consume the major part of the organic matter
in the effluent.
 This significantly reduces the BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of the
effluent.
 BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the
organic matter in one liter of water were oxidised by bacteria.
 The sewage water is treated till the BOD is
reduced.
 The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of
oxygen by micro-organisms in a sample of
water and thus, indirectly, BOD is a measure of
the organic matter present in the water.
 The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its
polluting potential.
 Once the BOD of sewage or waste water is reduced significantly, the effluent
is then passed into a settling tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to
sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge.
 A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to
serve as the inoculum.
 The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called
anaerobic sludge digesters.
 Here, other kinds of bacteria, which grow anaerobically, digest the bacteria
and the fungi in the sludge.
 During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane,
hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide.
 These gases form biogas and can be used as source of energy as it is
inflammable.
 The effluent from the secondary treatment plant is generally released into
natural water bodies like rivers and streams.
 An aerial view of such a plant is shown.
 You can appreciate how microbes play a major role in treating millions of
gallons of waste water everyday across the globe.
 This methodology has been practiced for more than a century now, in almost
all parts of the world.
 Till date, no manmade technology has been able to rival the microbial
treatment of sewage.
 You are aware that due to increasing urbanisation, sewage is being produced
in much larger quantities than ever before.
 However, the number of sewage treatment plants has not increased enough
to treat such large quantities.
 So the untreated sewage is often discharged directly into rivers leading to
their pollution and increase in water-borne diseases.
 The Ministry of Environment and Forests has initiated Ganga Action Plan and
Yamuna Action Plan to save these major rivers of our country from pollution.
 Under these plans, it is proposed to build a large number of sewage treatment
plants so that only treated sewage may be discharged in the rivers.
 A visit to a sewage treatment plant situated in any place near you would be a
very interesting and educating experience.
WHAT IS BIOGAS? SOURCE OF BIOGAS

 Biogas is a mixture of gases (containing predominantly methane) produced
by the microbial activity and which may be used as fuel.
 You have learnt that microbes produce different types of gaseous end-
products during growth and metabolism.
 The type of the gas produced depends upon the microbes and the organic
substrates they utilise.
 In the examples cited in relation to fermentation of dough, cheese making
and production of beverages, the main gas produced was CO2.
 However, certain bacteria, which grow anaerobically on cellulosic material,
produce large amount of methane along with CO2 and H2.
 These bacteria are collectively called methanogens, and one such common
bacterium is Methanobacterium.
 These bacteria are commonly found in the anaerobic sludge during sewage
treatment.
 These bacteria are also present in the rumen (a part of stomach) of cattle.
A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle is also present in the
rumen.
 In rumen, these bacteria help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an
important role in the nutrition of cattle.
 Do you think we, human beings, are able to digest the cellulose present in
our foods? Thus, the excreta (dung) of cattle, commonly called gobar, is rich
in these bacteria.
 Dung can be used for generation of biogas, commonly called gobar gas.
METHODS INVOLVED IN BIOGAS PRODUCTION

 The biogas plant consists of a concrete tank (10-15 feet deep) in which bio-wastes
are collected and a slurry of dung is fed.
 A floating cover is placed over the slurry, which keeps on rising as the gas produced
in the tank due to the microbial activity.
 The biogas plant has an outlet, which is connected to a pipe to supply biogas to
nearby houses.
 The spent slurry is removed through another outlet and may be used as fertiliser.
 Cattle dung is available in large quantities in rural areas where cattle are used for a
variety of purposes.
 So biogas plants are more after build in rural areas.
The biogas thus produced is used for cooking and
lighting.
 The picture of a biogas plant is shown.
 The technology of biogas production was
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of
Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
 If your school is situated in a village or near a village, it would be very interesting to
enquire if there are any biogas plants nearby.
 Visit the biogas plant and learn more about it from the people who are actually
managing it.
COMMON MICROBES IN BIOGAS PRODUCTION
 Biogas is mixture of gases produced by the microbial activity which may be used as
fuel.
 Microbes produce produces different types of gases and products during their
growth and metabolism.
Biogas is an ideal gas made up of
50-70% Methane (CH4)
30-40% CO2
1-5% H2
Formation of Biogas is a 3 step anaerobic process.
(A)Decomposition
(b)Acidogenesis
(c)Methanogenesis
1. Which of the following is included in biopesticide?

a) Viruses and bacteria
b) Viruses, bacteria and fungi
c) Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa and mites
d) Viruses, bacteria, fungi and protozoa
Answer: c
2. Which of the following can be controlled by using biopesticides?
a) Insects
b) Diseases
c) Weeds
d) All the above
Answer: d
3. Biofertilizers include
a) Blue-green algae, rhizobia, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria and
mycorrhizae
b) Blue-green algae, rhizobia and other nitrogen fixing bacteria
c) Rhizobia, other nitrogen-fixing bacteria and mycorrhizae
d) Blue-green algae, rhizobia and mycorrhia
Answer: a
4. Bt gene is
a) Cry
b) cry
c) trp
d) Trp
Answer: b
5. Vinegar is prepared from alcohol with the help of
a) Lactobacillus
b) Acetobacter
c) Azotobacter
d) Rhizobium
Answer: b
6. A microbial insecticide is
a) Bacillus polymixa
b) B.subtilis
c) B.thuringiensis
d) B. brevis
Answer: a
7. Citric acid is got from
a) Aspergillus niger
b) Rhizobium nigrificans
c) Pencilium citrinum
d) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
Answer: a
8. Biogas production from waste biomass with the help of methanogenic
bacteria is
a) One-step process
b) Two-step process
c) Three-step process
d) Multistep process
Answer: c
9. Most famous bacterial fertilizer is
a) Nitrosomonas
b) Notrobacter
c) Nitrosococcus
d) Rhizobium
Answer: d
10. Azolla has a symbiotic association with
a) Rhizobium
b) Anabaena
c) Nostoc
d) All the above
Answer: b
11.Supply of oxygen to the biogas plant will have
a) Positive effect
b) Negative effect
c) No effect
d) None of these
Answer: b
12.Baker’s yeast is
a) Saccharomyces cerevisae
b) S. ludwigii
c) S. octosporus
d) Schizosaccharomyces
Answer: a
13.Lactobacillus mediated conversion of milk to curd results because of
a) Coagulation and partial digestion of milks fats
b) Coagulation and partial digestion of milk proteins
c) Coagulation of milk fat and complete digestion of milk fats
d) Coagulation of milk fats and complete digestion of milk proteins
Answer: a
14.Waste water treatment generates a large quantity of sludge, which can
be treated by
a) Anaerobic sludge digesters
b) Activated sludge
c) Chemicals
d) Hydrogen sulphide
Answer: a
15.Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important
products
Bacterium Product
i) Aspergillus niger a) lactic acid
ii) Acetobacter aceti b) butyric acid
iii) Clostridium butylicum c) acetic acid
iv) Lactobacillus d) citric acid
a) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
b) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
d) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
Answer: c
16.BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of
a) Total organic matter
b) Biodegradable organic matter
c) Oxygen evolution
d) Oxygen consumption
Answer: d
17.Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is produced without
distillation?
a) Wine
b) Whisky
c) Rum
d) Brandy
Answer: a
HOLISTIC APPROACH IN PEST CONTROL BY BIOLOGICAL AGENTS
 In agriculture, there is a method of controlling pests that relies on natural predation
rather than introduced chemicals.
 A key belief of the organic farmer is that biodiversity furthers health. The more variety a
landscape has, the more sustainable it is. The organic farmer, therefore, works to create
a system where the insects that are sometimes called pests are not eradicated, but
instead are kept at manageable levels by a complex system of checks and balances within
a living and vibrant ecosystem.
 Contrary to the ‘conventional’ farming practices which often use chemical methods to
kill both useful and harmful life forms indiscriminately, this is a holistic approach that
seeks to develop an understanding of the webs of interaction between the myriad of
organisms that constitute the field fauna and flora.
 The organic farmer holds the view that the eradication of the creatures that are often
described as pests is not only possible, but also undesirable, for without them the
beneficial predatory and parasitic insects which depend upon them as food or hosts
would not be able to survive.
 Thus, the use of biocontrol measures will greatly reduce our dependence on toxic
chemicals and pesticides.
 An important part of the biological farming approach is to become familiar with the
various life forms that inhabit the field, predators as well as pests, and also their life
cycles, patterns of feeding and the habitats that they prefer.
 This will help develop appropriate means of biocontrol.
VARIOUS BIOLOGICAL AGENTS USED IN PEST CONTROL

VARIOUS MICRO-ORGANISMS INVOLVED IN THE PRODUCTION OF BIOFERTILIZERS
 The main sources of biofertilisers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.
 You have studied about the nodules on the roots of leguminous plants formed by the
symbiotic association of Rhizobium.
 These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plant
as nutrient.
 Other bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free-living in the soil (examples
Azospirillum and Azotobacter), thus enriching the nitrogen content of the soil.
 Fungi are also known to form symbiotic associations with plants (mycorrhiza).
 Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza. The fungal symbiont in these
associations absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant.
 Plants having such associations show other benefits also, such as resistance to root-
borne pathogens, tolerance to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in plant
growth and development.
 Can you tell what advantage the fungus derives from this association? Cyanobacteria
are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in aquatic and terrestrial environments
many of which can fix atmospheric nitrogen, e.g. Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc. In
paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertiliser.
 Blue green algae also add organic matter to the soil and increase its fertility.
 Currently, in our country, a number of biofertilisers are available commercially in the
market and farmers use these regularly in their fields to replenish soil nutrients and to
reduce dependence on chemical fertilisers.
Microbes in Human Welfare

1. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of:
[CBSE PMT 2012]
a. ethanol
b. streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels.
c. citric acid
d. blood cholesterol lowering statins
2. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally
immediately given: [CBSE PMT 2012]
a. Penicillin b. Streptokinase
c. Cyclosporin – A d. Statins
3. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with
plants and helps them in their nutrition [CBSE PMT 2012]
a. Azotobacter b. Aspergillus
c. Glomus d. Trichoderma
4. Yeast is used in the production of [CBSE PMT 2012]
a. Citric acid and lactic acid
b. Lipase and pectinase
c. Bread and beer
d. Cheese and butter
5. A nitrogen – fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is:

a. Spirulina b. Anabaena c. Frankia d. Tolypothrix
6. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control
of pests/ diseases using microbes? [CBSE PMT 2012]
a. Trichoderma sp. Against certain plant pathogens
b. Nucleopolyhedro virus against white rust in Brassica
c. Bt- cotton to increase cotton yield
d. Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard
7. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group [CBSE PMT 2012]
a. Fungi b. Animalia c. Monera d. Plantae
8. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of [CBSE PMT 2012M]
a. butane b. methane c. propane d. carbon dioxide
9. The domestic sewage in large cities [CBSE PMT 2012M]
a. has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
b. is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary
treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs).
c. when treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the
sewage contains adequate oxygen
d. has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts.
10. During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include:
[NEET 2013]
a. methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
b. hydrogen sulphide, methane, Sulphur dioxide
c. hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
d. methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
11. A good producer of Citric acid is: [NEET 2013]
a. Pseudomonas b. Clostridium
c. Saccharomyces d. Aspergillus
12. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters? [AIPMT 2014]
a. Methane and 𝐶𝑂2 only
b. Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and 𝐶𝑂2
c. Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and 𝑂2
d. Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
13. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

[NEET Ph- I 2016]
Microbe Product Application
a Trichoderma Cyclosporin Immunosuppressive drug
polysporum A
b Monascus Statins Lowering of blood
Purpureus
c Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from
d Clostridium Lipase Removal of oil stains
Butylicum
14. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from
the dung of ruminant animals, include the [NEET Ph- I 2016]
a. Halophiles
b. Thermoacidiophiles
c. Methanoigens
d. Eubacteria
15. Match Column – I with Column – II and select the correct option using the
codes gives below [NEET Ph – II 2016]
A. Citric acid i. Trichoderma
B. Cyclosporin A ii. Clostridium
C. Statins iii. Aspergillus
D. Butyric acid iv. Monascus
Codes:
A B C D
a. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
b. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
c. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
d. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
16. Which of the following is the pair of bio fertilizers? [AIIMS 2012]
a. Azolla and Blue green algae
b. Nostoc and legume
c. Rhizobium and grasses
d. Salmonella & E. coli
17. Chloramphenicol and erythromycin (broad spectrum antibiotics) are
produced by [AIIMS 2014]
a. Streptomyces b. Nitrobacter
c. Rhizobium d. Penicillium
18. Assertion: Vitamins 𝑩𝟐 is found in cereals, green vegetables, brewer’s
yeast, egg white, milk and liver.
Reason: It can be commercially produced by some yeasts. [AIIMS 2015]
a. If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
b. If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct
c. If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d. If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
19. Microbes are used in [AIIMS 2015]
1. primary treatment of sewage
2. secondary treatment of sewage
3. anaerobic sludge digester
4. production of bioactive molecules
a. 1, 3 and 4 b. 1,2,3 and 4 c. 2,3 and 4 d. 3 and 4
20. Assertion: Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used in baking
industry.
Reason: Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bead
dough to rise by thermal expansion.
[AIIMS 2015]
explanation of Assertion
c. If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
21. Choose the right combination [AIIMS 2016]

A. Escherichia coli I. Nif gene
B. Rhizobium melilotae II. Digestive hydrocarbon of
Crude oil
C. Bacillus thuringiensis III. Production of human
insulin
D. Pseudomonas putida IV. Biological control of fungal
disease
V. Bio- decomposed
insecticide
A B C D
a. III I V IV
b. I II III IV
c. II I III IV
d. III I V II
22. What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs is
reduced? [AIIMS 2016]
a. It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic matter
b. The centre of flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death of
bacteria and eventually breakage of flocs.
c. Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow around
flocs
d. Protozoa would grow in large numbers
23. Which one of the microorganism is used for production of citric acid in
industries? [JIPMER 2016]
a. Lactobacillus bulgaricus b. Penicillium citrinum
c. Aspergillus Niger d. Rhizopus nigricans
Microbes in Human Welfare

1. d 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. d
11. d 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. a
21. d 22. b 23. c
Conservation of plants and animals

In situ conservation:
 Faced with the conflict between development and conservation, many nations
find it unrealistic and economically not feasible to conserve all their biological
wealth.
 Invariably, the number of species waiting to be saved from extinction far
exceeds the conservation resources available.
 On a global basis, this problem has been addressed by eminent conservationists.
 They identified for maximum protection certain ‘biodiversity hotspots’ regions
with very high levels of species richness and high degree of endemism (that is,
species confined to that region and not found anywhere else).
 Initially 25 biodiversity hotspots were identified but subsequently nine more
have been added to the list, bringing the total number of biodiversity hotspots
in the world to 34.
 These hotspots are also regions of accelerated habitat loss.
 Three of these hotspots – Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma and
Himalaya cover our country’s exceptionally high biodiversity regions.
 Although all the biodiversity hotspots put together cover less than 2 percent of
the earth’s land area, the number of species they collectively harbour is
extremely high and strict protection of these hotspots could reduce the ongoing
mass extinctions by almost 30 per cent.
 In India, ecologically unique and biodiversity-rich regions are legally protected
as biosphere reserves, national parks and sanctuaries.
 India now has 14 biosphere reserves, 90 national parks and 448 wildlife
sanctuaries.
 India has also a history of religious and cultural traditions that emphasised
protection of nature.
 In many cultures, tracts of forest were set aside, and all the trees and wildlife
within were venerated and given total protection.
 Such sacred groves are found in Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya, Aravalli
Hills of Rajasthan, Western Ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra and the
Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh.
 In Meghalaya, the sacred groves are the last refuges for a large number of rare
and threatened plants.
Ex situ Conservation:
 In this approach, threatened animals and plants are taken out from their
natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and
given special care.
 Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife safari parks serve this
purpose. There are many animals that have become extinct in the wild but
continue to be maintained in zoological parks.
 In recent years ex situ conservation has advanced beyond keeping threatened
species in enclosures.
 Now gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile
condition for long periods using cryopreservation techniques, eggs can be
fertilised in vitro, and plants can be propagated using tissue culture methods.
 Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be kept
for long periods in seed banks.
M.C.Q
1. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of
a. Eastern Ghats b. Gangetic plain
c. Sunderbans d. Western Ghats
2. Sacred groves are especially useful in
a. preventing soil erosion
b. year- round flow of water in rivers
c. generating environmental awareness
d. conserving rare and threatened species
3. Select the correct statement about biodiversity
a. Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
b. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
c. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed
countries.
d. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert
animal species as well as numerous rare animals.
4. Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global
biodiversity?
a. Lichens b. Fungi c. Mosses and Ferns d. Algae
5. An example of ex situ conservation is:
a. National Park b. Seed Bank
c. Wildlife Sanctuary d. Sacred Grove
6. The organization which publishes the Red List of species is:
a. ICFRE b. IUCN c. UNEP d. WWF
7. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile
condition can be referred to as:
a. Advanced exsitu conservation of biodiversity
b. In situ conservation by sacred groves
c. In situ cryo- conservation of biodiversity
d. In situ conservation of biodiversity
8. In which of the following both pairs have correct combination:
a. In situ conservation: Cryopreservation
Ex situ conservation: Wildlife Sanctuary
b. In situ conservation: Seed Bank
Ex situ conservation: National Park
c. In situ conservation: Tissue culture
Ex situ conservation: Sacred groves
d. In situ conservation: National Park
Ex situ conservation: Botanical Garden
9. Which of the National Aquatic Animal of India?
a. Gangetic shark b. River dolphin
c. Blue whale d. Sea – horse
10. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants
being driven to extinction?
a. Over- exploitation b. Alien species invasion
c. Deforestation d. Co- extinctions
11. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till
date by Norman Myers?
a. 34 b. 43 c. 17 d. 25
12. Red list contains data or information on
a. threatened species
b. marine vertebrates only
c. all economically important plants
d. plants whose products are in international trade
13. Assertion: Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing
countries such as India.
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in
biodiversity.
a. If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
14. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?
a. Indo- Gangetic Plain b. Eastern Ghats
c. Aravalli Hills d. Western Ghats
15. The largest Tiger reserve in India is
a. Nagarhole b. Valmiki
c. Nagarjunsagar – Srisailam d. Periyar
16. Assertion: A sanctuary is formed for the conservation of animals only.
Reason: Restricted human activities are allowed in sanctuaries.
17. In cryopreservation germplasm is maintained at
a. − 1960 𝐹 b. 00 𝐹 c. − 1000 𝐹 d. none of these
18. Management of biosphere for providing maximum benefit to the present

generation and also maintaining its potential for future generations, is the theme
of a. afforestation b. conservation
c. deforestation d. population
Answer Key:
1.d 2.d 3.b 4.b 5.b
6.b 7.a 8.d 9.b 10.c
11.a 12.a 13.c 14.d 15.c
16.a 17.d 18.b
Cell structure and function

CELL – DEFINITION
 Cell is the basic unit of life and structural and functional unit of an organism.
 It is the smallest unit capable of independent existence and performing the essential
function of the life.
 Anton von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell.
 Robert Brown later discovered the nucleus.
 The invention of the microscope and its improvement leading to the election
microscope revealed all the structural details to the cell.
GENERAL MORPHOLOGY OF CELL
WHAT IS A CELL?
 Unicellular organisms are capable of
o (i) Independent existence and
o (ii) Performing the essential functions of life.
 Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure
independent living.
 Hence, cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living
organisms.
 Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell.
 Robert Brown later discovered the nucleus.
 The invention of the microscope and its improvement leading to the
electron microscope revealed all the structural details of the cell.
HYPOTHETICAL EXPLANATION ON CELL THEORY

Cell theory
 Cell theory was jointly put forward by Schleiden and Schwann in 1839.
 Cell theory states that the bodies of all organisms are made up of cell and their
products so that cell are units of both structure and function of living organisms.
 Rudolf Virchow (1855) first explained that cells divide and new cells are formed from
pre-existing cells (Omnis cellula – e cellula).
 He modified the hypothesis of schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a final
shape.
Fundamental features of cell theory
Four fundamental features of cell theory are:
i. All living organisms are composed of cell and their products.
ii. Each cell is made up of a small mass of protoplasm containing a nucleus in its inside
and a plasma membrane with or without a cell wall on its outside.
iii. New cells arise from pre-existing cells.
HYPOTHETICAL EXPLANATION ON PROTOPLASM THEORY
AN OVERVIEW OF CELL
 You have earlier observed cells in an onion peel and/or human cheek cells under the
microscope.
 Let us recollect their structure.
 The onion cell which is a typical plant cell, has a distinct cell wall as its outer boundary
and just within it is the cell membrane.
 The cells of the human cheek have an outer membrane as the delimiting structure of
the cell.
 Inside each cell is a dense membrane bound structure called nucleus.
 This nucleus contains the chromosomes which in turn contain the genetic material,
DNA.
 Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lack
a membrane bound nucleus are prokaryotic.
 In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, a semi-fluid matrix called cytoplasm occupies
the volume of the cell.
 The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal
cells.
 Various chemical reactions occur in it to keep the cell in the ‘living state’. Besides the
nucleus, the eukaryotic cells have other membrane bound distinct structures called
organelles like the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), the golgi complex, lysosomes,
mitochondria, microbodies and vacuoles.
 The prokaryotic cells lack such membrane bound organelles.
 Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found in all cells – both eukaryotic
as well as prokaryotic.
 Within the cell, ribosomes are found not only in the cytoplasm but also within the
two organelles – chloroplasts (in plants) and mitochondria and on rough ER.
 Animal cells contain another non-membrane bound organelle called centriole which
helps in cell division.
 Cells differ greatly in size, shape and activities For example, Mycoplasmas, the
smallest cells, are only 0.3 μm in length while bacteria could be 3 to 5 μm.
 The largest isolated single cell is the egg of an ostrich.
 Among multicellular organisms, human red blood cells are about 7.0 μm in diameter.
 Nerve cells are some of the longest cells. Cells also vary greatly in their shape.
 They may be disc-like, polygonal, columnar, cuboid, thread like, or even irregular.
 The shape of the cell may vary with the function they perform.
TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES USED IN UNDERSTANDING CELL
 Long back, the biologists could learn about living things, only from what they could see
with the naked eye.
 Cells are very small but complex in organization.
 New tools and techniques were invented which helped in the study of finer structure of
various kinds of organisms and their parts.
 Microscope not only revealed a world of minute organisms but also minute details of
internal structure of organisms.
 In the course of history of biology, various new tools and techniques have developed,
like microscopy, paper chromatography, etc.
 To gain detailed information regarding cell structure, molecular organization and
function, cell biologists have employed various instruments(tools) and techniques.
MORPHOLOGY OF A TYPICAL PROKARYOTIC CELL
Prokaryotic Cells
 Most prokaryotic cells, particularly the bacterial cells, have chemically complex cell
envelope.
 The cell envelope consists of a tightly bound three layered structure i.e., the
outermost glycocalyx followed by the cell wall and then the plasma membrane.
CELL ENVELOPE - VARIATIONS IN VARIOUS PROKARYOTES
 Bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan.
 Bacteria can be classified into two group on the basis of the differences in the
cell envelops and the manner in which they respond to the staining procedure
developed by Gram.
GRAM STAINING METHOD IN CLASSIFYING BACTERIA
 Those that take up the Gram stain are Gram positive and the others that do not
are called Gram negative bacteria.
 Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of
peptidoglycan and teichoic acids.
 In contrast, Gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a
few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing
lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins.
 A special membranous structure is the mesosome which is formed by the extension
of plasma membrane into the cell.
 They help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells.
 They also help in respiration, secretion processes, to increase the surface area of
the plasma membrane and enzymatic content.
 Bacterial cell may be motile or non-motile. If motile, they have thin filamentous
extensions from their cell wall called flagella.
 Pili are longer, fewer and thicker tubular outgrowths which develop in response to
𝐹 + or fertility factor in Gram-ve bacteria. So they are also called sex pili.
1. Many cells function properly and divide mitotically even though they do
not have:
a) Plasma membrane
b) Cytoskeleton
c) Mitochondria
d) Plastids
Answer: d
2. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
a) Lysosomes are double membranous vesicles budded off from golgi
body and contain digestive enzymes
b) ER consists of a network of tubules and helps in transport, synthesis
and secretion
c) Leucoplasts are bounded by two membranes, lack pigment but
contain DNA and protein forming machinery
d) Sphaerosomes are single membrane bound and help in synthesis and
storage of lipids
Answer: a
3. In which of the following would you expect to find glyoxysomes?
a) Endoplasm of wheat
b) Endoplasm of castor
c) Palisade cells of leaf
d) Root hairs
Answer: b
4. The animal cells are interconnected by:
a) Plasmodesmata
b) Cell wall
c) Desmosomes
d) Plasma membrance
Answer: c
5. Fluid-mosaic model of plasma membrane was proposed by:
a) Singer and Nicholson
b) Schleiden and schwann
c) Loewy and siekwitz
d) Roberthooke
Answer: a
6. Plasmolysis will occur when the cell is placed in______
a) Hypotonic
b) Hypertonic
c) Isotonic
d) Hypotonic and isotonic
Answer: b
7. Mesosome in a bacterial cell:
a) Plasmid
b) Connection between two cells
c) Plasma membrane infolds for respiration
d) None of these
Answer: c
8. The single membraned cell organelle is
a) Plastid
b) Mitochondrion
c) Ribosome
d) Sphaerosome
Answer: d
9. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryote?
a) Absence of nuclear membrane
b) DNA is associated with histones
c) Absence of mitochondrion
d) Both b and c
Answer: b
10.Cell theory was given by
a) Robert Hooke
b) Robert Brown
c) Schleiden and schwann
d) Messelson and Stahl
Answer: c
11. If a plant cell is placed in a solution less concentrated than that of cell
sap, water from outside will enter into the protoplasm
a) Endomosis
b) Diffusion
c) Embibition
d) Plamolysis
Answer: a
12.Prokaryotic cells do not have:
a) Nucleolus
b) Centrioles
c) Membrane-bound organelles
d) All of these
Answer: d
13.Electron microscope was discovered by:
a) Robert Hooke
b) Knoll and Ruska
c) Jansen
d) Robert Brown
Answer: b
14.Cell theory is not applicable for:
a) DNA
b) DNA+RNA
c) DNA+RNA+Ribosomes
d) Proteins
Answer: c
CYTOPLASM AND GENETIC MATERIAL OF PROKARYOTIC CELL
Prokaryotic cells do not have membrane bound cell organelles. All bacteria contain
70S ribosomes.
 They are about 15nm/20nm in size and are made up of two sub units-larger
subunit -50S and smaller sub-unit 30S.Several ribosomes may attach to single
mRNA to form a chain called polysome or polyribosome.
 Some bacteria contain pigments which are found in chromatophores useful to
harvest light energy.
 The nucleoid is not separated from the surrounding cytoplasm by any delimiting
membrane.
 Free floating aquatic bacteria possess aggregates of number of small, hollow
cylindrical gas vesicles called Gas Vocuoles.
 They are permeable to gases but impermeable to water and are useful for
buoyancy.
 The genetic material in prokaryotes is composed of a single, small, circular, naked
DNA and is packed in a nucleoid.
 Extra chromosomal small, circular, naked, double stranded DNA molecules are
also present in prokaryotic cells which are called plasmids.
FIXATIVE, LOCOMOTIVE AND SEX APPARATUS IN PROKARYOTES

Flagella:
 Bacterial flagellum is composed of
three-parts called filament, hook and
basal body.
 It is made up of a protein called
flagellin and it does not show 9+2
structure. The filament is inserted
into a curve tubular hook which
anchored to the cell by basal body.
 These three structures are arranged in such a manner that the structure
permits the filament to rotate by 3600.
 As the flagellum rotates, it spins the body in the opposite direction and pushes
the bacterium in forward direction.
Pilus And Fimbriae:
 Fimbriae are small bristle-like fibres sprouting of the cell and help in
attachment to solid surface and to host tissues.
 Pili or sex pili are long, tubular structures made up of pilin protein.
 These help in transfer of genetic material in conjugating bacteria Pili and
fimbriae are common in Gram negative bacteria.
CELL WALL - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
Cell wall
Features
Consisting of cellulose microfibrils running through a matrix of other complex
polysaccharides.
 Mainly composed of middle lamella, primary and secondary cell wall.
 Middle lamella is made up of pectates of calcium and magnesium.
 Plasmodesmata, linking the cytoplasm of adjacent plant cells is present in the cell wall.
 It encloses tubular extension of ER (endoplasmic reticulum) called desmotubules.
 Plasmodesmata form channels for controlled passage of small sized particles between
adjacent cell as well as transfer of some specific signals.
Function
 Provides mechanical support and protection.
 Prevents osmotic bursting of the cell.
 Pathway for the movement of water & mineral salts.
 Cements neighbouring cells together.
 Provides a protoplasm continuum called symplast for transport of substance between
cells.
CELL WALL - DIFFERENCE BETWEEN PROKARYOTES AND EUKARYOTES
Cell Wall
 As you may recall, a non-living rigid structure called the cell wall forms an outer covering
for the plasma membrane of fungi and plants.
 Cell wall not only gives shape to the cell and protects the cell from mechanical damage
and infection, it also helps in cell-to-cell interaction and provides barrier to undesirable
macromolecules.
 Algae have cell wall, made of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium
carbonate,
 while in other plants it consists of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins.
 The cell wall of a young plant cell, the primary wall is capable of growth, which gradually
diminishes as the cell matures and the secondary wall is formed on the inner (towards
membrane) side of the cell.
 The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium pectate which holds or glues the different
neighbouring cells together.
 The cell wall and middle lamellae may be traversed by plasmodesmata which connect the
cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.
CELL MEMBRANE - BIOCHEMICAL MODELS

Cell membrane
Features
 It has trilaminar appearance (3layer), a pale layer sandwiched between 2 dark layers.
 Danielli and Davson have proposed bilayer model of plasma membrane.
 Unit membrane concept was proposed by Robertson (1959).
 Fluid mosaic model was proposed by singer and Nicolson in 1972.
CELL MEMBRANE - MODIFICATIONS AND FUNCTIONS
Function
 A partially permeable barrier controlling exchange between the cell and its
environment.
 Promote compartmentalization.
 The cell membrane may present regional differentiation that are related to
specialized functions like absorption, secretion, fluid transport, electric coupling and
other physiology processes.
1. Cell membrane is:
a) Semipermeable
b) Permeable
c) Selectivity permeable
d) Impermeable
Answer: c
2. The organelle associated with aerobic respiration is:
a) Nucleus
b) Centriole
c) Chloroplast
d) Mitochondria
Answer: d
3. Plasma membrane helps in:
a) Osmoregulation
b) Protein synthesis
c) Nucleic acid synthesis
d) Transportation of only water in and out of cell
Answer: a
4. Which one of the following does not have membrane?
a) Ribosome
b) Nucleus
c) Chloroplast
d) Mitochondria
Answer: a
5. The cell wall of eukaryotic organism is made up of:
a) Hemicellulose + pectin
b) Hemicellulose + pectin + cellulose
c) Hemicellulose + lipids
d) Hemicellulose + chitin
Answer: b
6. Cell wall consists of:
a) Lignin, hemicellulose, protein and lipid
b) Hemicellulose, cellulose, tubulin and lignin
c) Lignin, hemicellulose, pectin and lipid
d) Lignin, hemicellulose, pectin, and cellulose
Answer: d
7. The term “cytoplasm” and “nucleoplasm” were give by:
a) Purkinje
b) Strasburger
c) Brown
d) Flemming
Answer: a
8. Cell wall of bacterium is formed of:
a) Cellulose
b) Hemicellulose
c) Lignin
d) Glycogen
e) Peptidoglycan
Answer: e
9. A cell swells up when kept in:
a) Isotonic solution
b) Hypertonic solution
c) Hypotonic solution
d) Any of these
Answer: c
10.Which of the following is a prokaryote?
a) Amoeba
b) Spirogyra
c) Bacteria
d) Chlamydomonas
Answer: c
11. The mineral present in the cell wall is:
a) Na
b) Ca
c) K
d) Mg
Answer: b
12.The cell theory was proposed by:
a) Virchow
b) Schleiden and Schwann
c) Robert Hooke
d) B. McClintock
Answer: b
13. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by:
a) Singer and Nicolson
b) Davidson and Danielli
c) Robertson
d) Watson and Crick
Answer: a
14.In bacteria, cell wall is formed of:
a) Chitin
b) Murein
c) Pectin
d) Cellulose
Answer: b
15.Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ in:
a) Type of movement and placement in cell
b) Location in cell and mode of functioning
c) Micro-tubular organization and type of movement
d) Micro-tubular organization and function
Answer: c
16.Cell theory was proposed by
a) Virchow
b) Scheilden and Schwann
c) Robert Hooke
d) B. McClintock
Answer: b
PROTOPLASM
 The living like substance found in a cell is called protoplasm.
 It was discovered by Corti & Fontana.
 It was initially called as sarcode by Dujardin. Later sarcode was renamed as ’Protoplasm’
by Purkinje.
 Van Mohl described the protoplasm as dynamic centre for all biological activities in a
cell. It includes cytoplasm and nucleus.
CYTOPLASM - NATURE, PHYSICAL AND BIOCHEMICAL PROPERTIES
 The part of the protoplasm excluding the nucleus is considered as cytoplasm. Cytoplasm.
 Cytoplasm is further divided into cytosol, cell organelles and ergastic substances.
 In mature plant cell, due to the presence of large vacuole, cytoplasm exists in the form of
thin layer between plasm a membrane and tonoplast, such a condition is called primordial
Theory Nature Of Cytoplasm utricle.
Reticulate Reticulate form
Alveolar Bubble foam of Emulsion
Granular Granular/Bioplast form
Fibrillar Fibrillar nature
Colloidal Sol & Gel form
Chemically, the cytoplasmic matrix is composed of various organic and inorganic compounds.
1.Water 85-90%
2.Proteins 7-10%
3.Lipids 1-2%
4.Inorganic
materials 1-5%
Physical Properties of cytosol:
a) Tyndall Effect:
 When a light beam is passed through the colloidal system of the matrix at right angles in
the dark room, the small colloidal particles which remain suspended in the colloidal
system, reflect the light.
 So that path of light can be seen.
 This phenomenon is called Tyndall.
b) Brownian movement:
It is the random movement of colloidal particles found in cytosol.
c)The specific density of cytoplasm is greater than 1.
d)Cytoplasm maintains a pH slightly higher than 7.
e) Cytoplasm coagulates and dies when it is heated at 600C, electric shocks and toxins.
2)Biological Properties:
Cytosol exhibits biological properties like conductivity, growth, metabolism, reproduction
and irritability.
 Cyclosis: Intracellular movement of cytoplasmic matrix in the cell is called cyclosis.
 It is due to phase reversal property of cytoplasmic matrix. It is of two types.
 i)Rotation: Unidirectional movement of cytoplasm around a large vacuole is called
rotation. Eg: Hydrilla, Vallisneria.
 ii)Circulation: Multidirectional movement of cytoplasm around the vacuoles in Zig-Zag
manner is known as circulation. Eg: Staminal hairs of Rheo discolor.
Endomembrane System
 While each of the membranous organelles is distinct in terms of its structure and function,
many of these are considered together as an endomembrane system because their
functions are coordinated.
 The endomembrane system includes endoplasmic reticulum (ER), golgi complex,
lysosomes and vacuoles.
 Since the functions of the mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisomes are not coordinated
with the above components, these are not considered as part of the endomembrane
system.
GOLGI COMPLEX - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
Golgi Apparatus
Features
 Discovered by Camillo Golgi in 1898.
 A stack of flattened membrane-bounded sacs, called cisternae, continuously being
formed at one end of the stack and budded off as vesicles at the other.
 One face of the apparatus is convex called forming or formative or cis-face while the
other is concave known as maturing face (trans-face).
 The expanded form of cisternae modified to form vacuoles.
Function
 Internal packaging and transportation.
 Synthesis of carbohydrates cell wall, hormones, pigments, acrosomes, lysosomes etc.
 Secretion of substances.
 Transformation of membranes of one type to another.
ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
ER (Endoplasmic reticulum)
Features
 It is a system of flattened, membrane bounded sacs called cisternae, forming tubes
& sheets. Discovered by porter and Thompson.
 It is of two types: SER and RER
 SER (smooth endoplasmic reticulum) consists mainly of tubules & vesicles. It is free
of ribosomes.
 RER (Rough endoplasmic reticulum) consist of cisternae has ribosomes attached on
its surface.
Function
 Transports proteins made by the ribosomes through cisternae.
 SER is the site of lipid & steroid synthesis.
 SER brings about detoxification.
 Participates in membrane biogenesis.
1. Endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with:
a) Golgi body
b) Nuclear membrane
c) Mitochondria
d) Cell wall
Answer: b
2. Centrosomes are present:
a) In plant cells only
b) In animal cells only
c) Both in plant and animal cells
d) None of these
Answer: b
3. ER works for synthesis of:
a) ATP
b) Protein
c) Mitochondria
d) Golgi body
Answer: b
4. Middle lamella contains:
a) Chitin
b) Lignin
c) Pectin
d) Cellulose
Answer: c
5. Golgi body is associated with:
a) Packaging and storage of material
b) Cell plate formation
c) Secretion of different substances
d) All of the above
Answer: d
6. Cristate are associated with:
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Mitochondria
c) Cytoplasm
d) Protoplasm
Answer: b
7. Acid hydrolase is found in:
a) Golgi body
b) ER
c) Lysosome
d) Vacuole
Answer: c
8. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the:

a) Peroxisomes
b) Mitochondria
c) Proplastids
d) Glyoxysomes
Answer: b
9. Which of the statements are correct?
1) Mitochondria contain DNA
2) Ribosomes are formed of photopholipids & oligosaccharides
3) 70s ribosomes occur on prokaryotes
4) Ribosomes are not found in Protista & monera
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
b) 1, and 2 are correct
c) 2 and 4 correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct
Answer: d
10.Genes present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, are found in:
a) Mitochondria inherited via egg cytoplasm
b) Lysosomes and peroxisomes
c) Golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) Plastids and inherited via male gametes
Answer: a
11.Which organelle is present in maximum number in secretory cells?
a) Dictyosomes
b) ER
c) Lysosomes
d) Vacuoles
Answer: a
12.The phenomenon of plasmolysis is evident when cells are kept in:
a) Hypotonic solution
b) Hypertonic solution
c) Isotonic solution
d) None of these
Answer: b
13.Site of gluconeogenesis is:
a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi bodies
c) Glyoxisomes
d) None of these
Answer: c
14.Middle lamella is mainly composed of:
a) Hemicellulose
b) Muramic acid
c) Calcium pectate
d) Phosphoglycerides
Answer: c
15. Plasmodesmata are:
a) Lignified cemented layers between cells
b) Locomotory structures
c) Membranes connecting the nucleus and plasmalemma
d) Connections between adjacent cells
Answer: d
16. Cytoskeleton is made up of:
a) Calcium carbonate granules
b) Callose deposists
c) Cellulosic microfilaments
d) Proteinaceious description
Answer: d
17. The endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with:
a) Golgi body
b) Nuclear membrane
c) Mitochondria
d) Cell wall
Answer: b
18. Which of the following cell organelles stores hydrolytic enzymes?
a) Centrioles
b) Lysosomes
c) Chromoplasts
d) Chloroplasts
Answer: b
19.Which of the following cell organelles is associated with
photorespiration?
a) Mitochondria
b) Peroxisomes
c) Chloroplast
d) All of these
Answer: d
20.An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present
in the cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called:
a) Thylakoids
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Plasmalemma
d) Cytoskeleton
Answer: d
21.Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below
from the list i) to viii) given along with
Components
i) Cristae of mitochondria ii) Inner membrane of
mitochondria
iii) Cytoplasm iv) SER
v) RER vi) Mitochondrial
matrix
vii) Cell viii) Nucleus
The correct components are:

A B C D
a) v) iv) viii) iii)
b) i) iv) viii) vi)
c) vi) v) iv) vii)
d) v) i) iii) ii)
22.Mitochondria are semi-autonomous as they process:

a) DNA
b) DNA + RNA
c) DNA + RNA + Ribosomes
d) Proteins
Answer: c
LYSOSOMES - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
Lysosomes
Features
 A simple spherical sac surrounded by a single membrane.
 First reported by Christian de Duve in 1955
 They contain digestive or hydrolytic enzymes synthesised by RER.
 No internal structure visible.
Function
 Called “suicidal bags” of the cell because they digest the incoming food materials and
remove the foreign bodies.
 Helps in thyroxine formation in fertilization and renewal of worn out cells and
organelles.
VACUOLE - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
Vacuoles:
Features
 Sacs surrounded by single membrane called tonoplast and contain cell sap.
 Occurs in all type of cells; are small in animal cells and large in fungal and plant
cells. Typically, large in mature cells.
Function
 Storage of various substances including waste products.
 Important contribution to the osmotic properties of the cell.
 Sometimes function as lysosomes.
 Functions as contractile vacuoles food vacuoles gas vacuoles etc.
PLASTIDS - TYPES, STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
PLASTIDS
 The term plastid was introduced by E. Haeckel in 1866.
 Plastids are semiautonomous organelles having DNA and double membrane envelope
which store or synthesize various type of organic compounds.
 Plastids are present in all living plants cells and some protestant (e.g., Euglena,
dinophyceae and diatoms).
 According to their structure, pigments and functions, plastids are of three types-
leucoplasts, chromoplasts and chloroplasts.
 Leucoplasts are colourless plastids. There are three types of special leucoplasts.
 Amyloplasts are starch containing leucoplasts, e.g., potato tuber.
 Elaioplasts are colourless plastids which store lipids, e.g., tube rose.
 Aleuroplasts are protein storing plastids, e.g., aleurone cells of maize grain.
 Chromoplasts are yellow or reddish in colour because of the presence of carotenoid
pigments.
 Chlorophyll are absent in chromoplasts.
 Chromoplasts are formed either from leucoplasts or chloroplasts.
MITOCHONDRIA - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
Mitochondria:
Features
 Double membranous organelle, first observed by Kolliker.
 The term was coined by Benda.
 Inner membrane folded to form cristae small stalked particles or F0− F1 particles or
elementary particles are present on cristae.
 Mitochondria are called semiautonomous organelles as they contain their own DNA,
ribosomes and can synthesise some of their own structural proteins.
Function
 Main sites of cell respiration.
 Cristae are the sites of oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport. Matrix is
the site of Krebs’ cycle.
 Provide intermediates for the synthesis of chlorophyll, cytochromes, pyrimidines etc.
 Synthesis of many amino acids.
1. The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly

synthesized proteins to their destinations is:
a) Mitochondria
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Lysosome
d) Chloroplast
Answer: b
2. Main function of dictyosome is:
a) Respiration
b) Storage
c) Secretion
d) Breakdown of fats
Answer: c
3. The core metal of chlorophyll is:
a) Fe
b) Cu
c) Ni
d) Mg
Answer: d
4. Which of the following is characteristics of phospholipids of plasma
membrance?
a) One non-polar head and two polar tail
b) One polar head and two non-polar tails
c) Two non-polar heads and one polar tail
d) Two polar heads and one non-polar tail
Answer: b
5. Phytol chain is present in:
a) Carotenoids
b) Chlorophyll
c) Haemoglobin
d) Phycocyanin
Answer: b
6. Amyloplasts are particles storing:
a) Starch
b) Proteins
c) Fats
d) All of these
Answer: a
7. Which of these is mismatched?
a) Amyloplasts=store protein granules
b) Elaioplasts=store lipids
c) Chloroplasts=contain chlorophyll pigments
d) Leucoplasts=contain colourless pigments
e) Chromoplasts=contain non-chlorophyll coloured pigments
Answer: a
8. Which organelle is present in more number in secretary cells?
a) Dictyosomes
b) ER
c) Lysosome
d) Vacuoles
Answer: a
9. Powerhouse of the cells
a) Golgi bodies
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosomes
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: b
10. Which of these is wrongly matched?
a) Chloroplasts – chlorophyll
b) Elaioplasts – starch
c) Chromoplasts – carotenoids
d) Amyloplsasts – carbohydrates
e) Aleuroplasts – proteins
Answer: b
RIBOSOMES - TYPES, STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
Ribosomes
Features
 Discovered by Robinson and Brown in plant cell and by palade in animal cell.
 Very small organelles consisting of a large and small sub-unit.
 Eukaryotic ribosomes are of 80S (60S and 40S), while prokaryotic ribosomes are of
70S (50S and 30S).
 Non-membranous organelles.
 Mg 2+ is required for binding the two sub-units.
 Made up of proteins and rRNA.
Function
 Sites for protein synthesis.
 May form polyribosomes,
polysomes or engosomes;
collection of ribosome strung
along mRNA
 Large sub-unit contains enzyme
peptidyl transferase needed for
the formation of polypeptids.
MICROBODIES
Micro bodies
Features
 Roughly spherical organelles bounded by a single
membrane.
 Contents appear finely granular except for occasional
filamentous deposits.
 First seen by Rhodin in 1954 in mouse kidney tubule cells.
 These are of two types:
peroxisomes and glyoxysomes.
Function
 Peroxisomes metabolize a number of toxic substances, performs photorespiration,
synthesizes peroxide.
 Glyoxysomes contain enzyme for𝛽-oxidation for fatty acids and glyoxylate pathway.
CYTOSKELETON
CYTOSKELETON
 An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm
is collectively referred to as the cytoskeleton.
 The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in many function such as mechanical support,
motility, maintenance of the shape of cell.
 They are of three types: microfilaments,
intermediate filaments and
microtubules.
CENTROSOME AND CENTRIOLES

Centrioles
 Cytoplasm of some eukaryotic cells contains two cylindrical, rod-shaped, microtubular
structures, called centrioles, near the nucleus.
 Centrioles lack limiting membrane and DNA or RNA and form microtubular organizing
centre (cell division) and sometimes get arranged just beneath the plasma membrane
to form flagella or cilia in flagellated or ciliated cells.
 The centrioles commonly occur in pairs.
 A pair of centrioles is called a diplosome.
 They lie in a small masses of specialized distinctly staining cytoplasm that lack other
cell organelles and is called a centrosphere, or kinoplasm or cytocentrum.
 The centrioles and the centrosphere are together reffered to as centrosome.
 A centriole possesses a whorl of nine peripheral fibrils. Fibrils are absent in the centre.
 The arrangement is, therefore, called 9+0 which run parallel to one another but at an
angle of 40°.
 Each fibril is made up of three sub-fibres called triplet fibril.
 The centre of centriole possesses a rod-shaped proteinaceous mass known as hub.
 From the hub, develops 9 proteinaceous strand towards the peripheral triplet fibrils
called radial fibril or spokes.
1. Chlorophyll in chloroplast is located in:
a) Grana
b) Pyrenoid
c) Stroma
d) Both grana and stroma
Answer: a
2. Centromere is required for:
a) Transcription
b) Crossing over
c) Cytoplasmic cleavage
d) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
Answer: d
3. Phagosomes and pinosomes collectively referred to as:
a) Lysosomes
b) Glyoxysomes
c) Sphaerosomes
d) Endosomes
Answer: d
4. Ribosome:
a) Consists of a large and two small submits
b) Contains identical components in prokaryote and eukaryote
c) Is the site of only RNA replication
d) Has two or three sites of t-RNAs
Answer: d
5. Lysosomes contain:
a) Lytic enzymes
b) Hydrolytic enzymes
c) Hormone
d) Useful material
Answer: b
6. A single unit membrane surrounds the organelle:

a) Lysosome
b) Nucleus
c) Microsome
d) Chloroplast
Answer: a
7. The membrane around the vacuole is called:
a) Tonoplast
b) Cytoplast
c) Leucoplast
d) Amyloplast
Answer: b
8. What is formula of chlorophyll “a”:
a) C55H72O5N4Mg
b) C55H70O6N4Mg
c) C35H32O5N4Mg
d) C54H70O6N4Mg
Answer: a
9. Centrioles take part in formation of:
a) Cell plate
b) Spindle
c) Nucleolus
d) Start of cell deviation
Answer: b
10.Which one of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct?
a) The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across
membrane
b) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
c) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin
d) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding
two single microtubules
Answer: c
11.The vacuole is lined by a membrane called:
a) Tonoplast
b) Jacket
c) Cell membrane
d) Tonoplasm
Answer: a
12.r-RNA is synthesized by:
a) Nucleus
b) Nucleolus
c) Cytoplasm
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: b
13.Which of the following submit of ribosome is composed of 23S Rrna AND
A 5S Rrna + 32 different protiens?
a) 50S
b) 70S
c) 30S
d) 60S
e) 40S
Answer: a
14.Centrosome is not present in the cells of:
a) Higher plants
b) Lower plants
c) Higher animals
d) Lower animals
Answer: a
15.Site of protein synthesis is:
a) Ribosome
b) SER
c) Golgi body
d) Lysosome
Answer: a
16.RNA is not found in:
a) Chromosome
b) Plasmalemma
c) Nucleolus
d) Ribosome
Answer: b
17.A polysome is formed by:
a) A ribosome with several subunits
b) Ribosome attached to each other in a linear manner
c) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
d) Ribosome
Answer: c
18. Vacuole in a plant cell:
a) Lacks membrane and contains
b) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory wastes
c) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
d) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory wastes
Answer: d
19. Digestive enzymes hydrolases are present in:
a) Vacuole
b) Lysosomes
c) Golgi bodies
d) Mitochondria
Answer: b
20.Digestive enzymes hydrolases are present in:
a) Vacuole
b) Lysosomes
c) Golgi bodies
d) Mitochondria
Answer: b
21.The microfilaments of eukaryotic cells are made up of:
a) Actin
b) Albumin
c) Globulin
d) Fibrin
Answer: a
CILIA AND FLAGELLA

 The cilia and flagella are
microscopic, contractile and
filamentous processes of
the cytoplasm which are
capable of producing a
current in fluid medium for
locomotion and passage of
substance, act as sensory
organs and perform many mechanical functions of the cell.
 Both arise from the basal bodies, are similar in chemical composition, have basically
identical ultrastructure, and serve the same purpose, i.e., their movements either
propel the organism or move the medium past a fixed cell.
 However, the two are distinguishable by their number, size, mode of beating.
 Cilium or the flagellum are covered with plasma membrane. Their core called the
axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running parallel to the long axis.
 The axoneme usually has nine pairs of doublets to the long axis.
 The axoneme usually has nine pairs of doublets of radially arranged peripheral
microtubules, and a pair of centrally located microtubules.
 Such an arrangements of axonemal microtubules is referred to as the 9+2 array.
 The central tubules are connected to one of the tubules of each peripheral doublets
by a radial spoke.
 Thus, there are nine radial spokes.
 The peripheral doublets are also interconnected by linkers.
 Both the cilium and emerge from centriole-like structure called the basal bodies.
 Movements of cilia and flagella are brought about by sliding of doublet fibrils against
each other rather than by their contraction.
NUCLEUS - STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS

Nucleus
Features
 Largest cell organelle, enclosed by an envelope
of two membranes that is perforated by nuclear
pores.
 Robert Brown (1831) first described nucleus
and saw it in an orchid root cell.
 It contains chromatin which is the entended
form taken by chromosomes during interphase.
It also contains a nucleolus.
 Chemically, it is composed of DNA-9-12%, basic
proteins (histones)-15%, enzymes, acid
proteins and neutral proteins-65%, RNA-5%, lipids-3% and minerals, (Ca2+ , Mg 2+ ,
K + , Na+ ) −in traces.
Functions
 Chromosomes contain DNA, the molecule of inheritance, DNA is organized into genes
which control all the activities of the cell.
 Nuclear division is the basis of cell replication and hence reproduction.
 The nucleolus manufactures ribosomes.
CHROMOSOMES - MORPHOLOGY, TYPES AND FUNCTIONS
Chromosomes
 During prophase of nuclear division, the chromatin fibres condense to form a definite
number of thread like structure called chromosomes.
 A single human cell has approximately two meters long thread of DNA distributed
among its forty-six (twenty-three pairs) chromosomes.
 The given table shows the difference between plant and animal cell
GENETIC MATERIAL - A BRIEF INTRODUCTION
 Prokaryotic cells do not have membrane bound cell organelles. All bacteria contain
70S ribosomes.
 They are about 15nm/20nm in size and are made up of two subunits-larger subunit-
50S and smaller subunit 30S.
 Several ribosomes may attach to single mRNA to form a chain called polysome or
Polyribosome.
 Some bacteria contain pigments which are found in chromatophores useful to
harvest light energy.
 The nucleoid is not separated from the surrounding cytoplasm by any delimiting
membrane.
 Free floating aquatic bacteria possess aggregates of a number of small, hollow,
cylindrical gas vesicles called Gas vacuoles.
 They are permeable to gases but impermeable to water and are useful for buoyancy.
 The genetic material is localized in a region called nucleoid.
 Extra chromosomal, small, circular, naked, double stranded DNA molecules are also
present in prokaryotic cells which are called Plasmids.
Objective Question
1. Flagella core is called
a) Axoneme
b) Basal body
c) Microtusule
d) None
Answer: a
2. Arrangement of microtusules in axoneme
a) A+0
b) A+1
c) A+2
d) A+3
Answer: c
3. Axoneme central no of microtusules are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
4. Centriole like structure of cilia is
a) Basal bodies
b) Axoneme
c) Microtusule
d) None
Answer:
5. Radial spokes no of axoneme
a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 5
Answer: a
6. Nucleus coined by
a) Robert hook
b) Robert brown
c) James
d) None
Answer: b
7. Prokaryotes have ribosome
a) 70s
b) 80s
c) 100s
d) None
Answer: a
8. Polysome is
a) mRNA
b) rRNA
c) tRNA
d) none
Answer: a
9. nucleoid is genetic material for
a) prokaryote
b) Eukaryotes
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a
10.Extra chromosomal DNA is in bacteria
a) Chloroplast
b) Mitochondria
c) Plastids
d) None
Answer: c
DIFFERENCES BETWEEN PROKARYOTIC CELLS AND EUKARYOTIC CELL
Different between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
S.no Prokaryotic cell Eukaryotic cell

1 The cell size is usually small (0.1- 5.0 The cell size is comparatively larger (5-100
𝜇𝑚) 𝜇𝑚)
2 A prokaryotic cell has one envelope An eukaryotic cell has two envelope
organization. organization.
3 The flagella, if present, are single The flagella, if present, are 11- stranded,
stranded, and without (9+2 arrangement). They show
differentiation of axoneme and differentiation of axoneme and sheath.
sheath
4 An organized nucleus is absent. An organized nucleus is found. It is
Instead a nucleoid is found. differentiated into nuclear envelope,
chromatin, one or more nucleoli, and
nucleoplasm.
5 Cell wall, if present, possesses Cell wall, if present, does not contain
muramic acid muramic acid
6 DNA is naked, that is, without an Nuclear DNA is associated with histone
association with histones DNA is proteins. Nuclear DNA is linear while extra-
usually circular. nuclear DNA is circular.
7 DNA lies freely in the cytoplasm. It is
Most of the cell DNA lies in the nucleus. A
not associated with any organelle. small quantity is also found in the plastids
and mitochondria.
8 Transcription and translation occur Transcription occurs in the nucleus while
in the cytoplasm. translation takes place in the cytoplasm
9 Additional small circular DNA Plasmids are usually absent.
segments or plasmid may occur.
10 Ribosomes are of 70 S type Ribosomes are of 80S type. 70S ribosomes,
however, occurs in plastids and
mitochondria.
11 ER, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, ER, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus and
Iysosomes and centrioles Iysosomes or their equivalents are present
(centrosome, central apparatus) are in all the eukaryotic cells. Centrioles are
absent. usually present in animal cells.
12 Cell membrane may be infolded to Mesosome-like structure are absent.
form a complex structure called
mesosome
 Virus are exception to cell theory as they are not composed of cell.
 They consist of a nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein
sheath and are incapable of independent existence, self-regulation and
reproduction.
DIFFERENCES BETWEEN PLANT CELL AND ANIMAL CELL
 Table: Difference between plant cell and animal cell
S.no Plant cell Animal cell
1 A plant cell has a rigid cell wall on A cell wall is absent (Schwann 1838). Cell is
the outside enclosed by plasma membrane.
2 Plastids are found in plant cells. Plastids are usually absent.
3 A mature plant cell contains a large An animal cell often possesses many small
central vacuole. vacuoles.
4 Mitochondria are usually absent Mitochondria are generally more numerous.
except in lower plants.
5 Centrioles are usually are absent Centrioles are found in animal cell.
except in lower plants
6 Spindle formed during nuclear Spindle formed during nuclear division is
division is anastral. amphiastral.
7 Lysosomes are rare. Their activity is Typical lysosomes occur in animal cell.
performed by specialized vacuoles.
8 Glyoxysomes may be present. They are absent.
9 Reserve food is generally starch and Reserve food is usually glycogen and fat.
fat.
10 Adjacent cells may be connected Adjacent cells are connected through a
through plasmodesmata. number of junctions.
1. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in [CBSE PMT 2012]

a. Lysosomes b. Nucleolus
c. Nucleoplasm d. Ribosomes
2. Which one of the following does not differ in E. coli and Chlamydomonas?
[CBSE PMT 2012]
a. Ribosomes b. Chromosomal
organization
c. Cell wall d. Cell membrane
3. What is true about ribosomes? [CBSEPMT 2012]
a. The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for
sedimentation coefficient.
b. These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
c. these are found only in eukaryotic cells.
d. These are self- splicing introns of some RNAs.
4. Nuclear membrane is absent in [CBSE PMT 2012]
a. Penicillium b. Agaricus
c. Volvox d. Nostoc
5. Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane.
[CBSE PMT 2012]
a. 𝑁𝑎+ and 𝐾 + ions move across cell membrane by passive transport
b. Proteins make up 60 to 70 % of the cell membrane.
c. Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
d. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and
Nicolson.
6. Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?

[CBSE PMT 2012M]
a. Ribosome b. Peroxisome
c. ER d. Mesosome
7. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described?

[CBSE PMT 2012M]
a. Centrioles – Sites for active RNA synthesis.
b. Lysosomes – Optimally active at a Ph of about 8.5.
c. Thylakoids – Flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of
chloroplasts.
d. Ribosomes – Those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the
cytoplasm are smaller (70s).
8. Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with
its function? [NEET 2013]
a. Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
b. Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis.
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins.
9. The Golgi complex plays a major role [NEET 2013]
a. In digesting proteins and carbohydrates.
b. as energy transferring organelles.
c. In post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids.
d. In trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy.
10. A major site for synthesis of lipids is: [NEET 2013]
a. SER b. Symplast
c. Nucleoplasm d. RER
11. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?

[AIPMT 2014]
a. Nucleoid b. Ribosomes
c. Cell wall d. Mesosomes
12. The solid liner cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made
up of a single type of monomer are known as: [AIPMT 2014]
a. Microtubules b. Vacuoles
c. Plastids d. Ribosomes
13. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by
[AIPMT 2014]
a. Mitochondria b. Vacuoles
c. Plastids d. Ribosomes
14. Match the following and select the correct answer: [AIPMT 2014]
A. Centriole (i) Infoldings in mitochondria
B. Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
C. Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
D. Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or fiagella
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
b. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
c. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
d. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
15. DNA is not present in [AIPMT 2015]
a. Ribosomes b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria d. Chloroplast
16. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of: [AIPMT 2015]
a. Membrane of Golgi complex
b. Microtubules
c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
17. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?
[AIPMT 2015]
a. Cyanophycean granule b. Glycogen granule
c. Polysome d. Phosphate granule
18. Select the correct matching in the following pairs: [AIPMT 2015]
a. Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
b. Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
c. Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
d. Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
19. Mitochondria and chloroplast are [NEET Ph –I 2016]
A. semiautonomous organelles
B. formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA
but lack protein synthesizing machinery
Which one of the following options is correct?
a. Both (a) and (b) are correct
b. (b) is true but (a) is false.
c. (a) is true but (b) is false
d. Both (a) and (b) are false.
20. Microtubules are the constituents of [NEET Ph – I 2016]
a. Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
b. Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
c. Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
d. Centrosome, nucleosome and Centrioles
21. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single
membrane? [NEET Ph-I 2016]
a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplasts
c. Lysosomes d. Nuclei
22. Select the mismatch: [NEET Ph –II 2016]

a. Protists – Eukaryotes
b. Methanogens – Prokaryotes
c. Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria
d. Large central vacuoles – Animal cells.
23. Select the wrong statement [NEET Ph-II 2016]
a. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.
b. Mycoplasma is a wall- lass micro organism
c. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.
d. Pilli and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells.
24. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is [NEET Ph-II 2016]

a. Ribosome b. Mesosome
c. Lysosome d. Microsome
25. Three morphological forms of Golgi complex are [AIIMS 2012]

a. Lamellae, tubules and vesicles
b. Cisternae, tubules and vesicles
c. Cisternae, tubules and lamellae
d. Granum, thylakoids and vesicles
26. Choose the incorrect match [AIIMS 2013]
a. Nucleus - RNA
b. Lysosome - Protein synthesis
c. Mitochondria - Respiration
d. Cytoskeleton - Microtubules
27. Assertion: Mitochodria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous

organelles.
Reason: They are formed by division of pre- existing organelles as well
as contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing
machinery.
[AIIMS 2014]
c. If Assertion is Correct but Reason is incorrect.
d. If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is Correct.
28. Choose the correct one [AIIMS 2015]
1. Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living organism.
2. Dead organism does not grow.
3. Reproduction cannot be an all-inclusive defining characteristic of
living organisms.
4. No nonliving object is capable of replicating itself.
5. Metabolism in a test tube is nonliving.
6. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms.
a. (1) and (3) b. All except (5)
c. All except (3) d. All of these
29. I. The shape of the cells may vary with the function they perform
[AIIMS 2015]
II. Human RBC is about 7.0 𝝁𝒎 in diameter
III. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities.
IV. Various chemical reactions occur in Cytoplasm to keep the cell in the
living state.
a. All are correct b. Only I and II are correct
c. Only IV is correct d. All are wrong
30. Which of the following representation correctly explain the function of
mitochondrion? [AIIMS 2015]
31. Assertion: A cell membrane shows fluid behavior.
Reason: A membrane is a mosaic or composite of diverse lipids and
proteins. [AIIMS 2015]
a. If both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is the correct
b. If both Assertion and Reason are correct but reason is not the correct
c. If Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
32. Assertion: Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but
transulation occurs in the cytoplasam.
Reason: m RNA is transferred form the nucleus into the cytoplasm where
ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis. [AIIMS 2015]
a. If both Assertion and Reason are Correct and Reason is the correct
b. If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
c. If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
33. Which of the following statements are correct? [AIIMS 2016]
(i) In prokaryotic cells, a special membrane structure formed by the extension
of the plasma membrane into the cell is known as polysome.
(ii) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of
glycoproteins.
(iii) Rubisco is the most abundant protein in the whole biosphere.
(iv) Mitochondria, Chloroplasts and peroxisomes are not considered as part of
endomembrane system.
Of the given statements
a. (iii) and (iv) b. (i) and (ii)
c. (ii) and (iii) d. (i) and (iv)
34. Assertion: Centrosomes and centrioles are related to each other.
Reason: Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical structures called
centrioles. [AIIMS 2016]
a. Assertion is true; reason is true; Reason is a correct explanation for
Assertion.
b. Assertion is true; reason is true; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion.
c. Assertion is true; reason is false.
d. Assertion is false; reason is true.
35. The phrase ‘Omnis cellula e cellula’ was given by [JIPMER 2011]
a. Virchow b. Pasteur
c. Schleiden d. Brown
36. Membrane is absent in [JIPMER 2011]

a. nucleus b. nucleolus
c. vacuole d. lysosome
37. Balbiani rings are the structural features of [JIPMER 2012]

a. Allosomes b. Polytene chromosomes
c. autosomes d. lampbrush chromosomes
38. Cell theory was proposed by [JIPMER 2012]

a. Virchow b. Schleiden and schwann
c. Robert Hooke d. B.Mc Clintock
39. Who for the first time developed electron microscope? [JIPMER 2012]
a. Knoll and Ruska b. Rudolf and Kolliker
c. Robert Hooke d. Swanson
40. The mineral present in cell wall is [JIPMER 2012]

a. Na b. Ca
c. K d. Mg
41. Which organelle is present in higher number in secretory cells?

[JIPMER 2012]
a. Dictyosome b. ER
c. Lysosome d. Vacuole
42. RNA is not found in [JIPMER 2012]
a. chromosome b. plasmalemma
c. nucleolus d. ribosome
43. Axoneme with 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement occurs in [JIPMER 2016]

a. cilia b. flagella
c. both (a) and (b) d. centriole
44. Active transport differs from passive transport in that active transport
[JIPMER 2016]
a. requires energy
b. always requires input of ATP.
c. moves molecules against a concentration grad
d. both (a) and (c)
1.b 2.d 3.b 4.d 5.d 6.a 7.c 8.c 9.c 10.a
11.d 12.b 13.b 14.a 15.a 16.c 17.c 18.a 19.c 20.b
21.c 22.d 23.d 24.c 25.b 26.b 27.c 28.b 29.a 30.a
31.a 32.a 33.a 34.a 35.a 36.b 37.b 38.b 39.a 40.b
41.a 42.b 43.c 44.d
Age of adolescence
ADOLESCENCE AND DRUG OR ALCOHOL ABUSE
Adolescence and Drug/Alcohol Abuse
 Adolescence means both ‘a period’ and ‘a process’ during which a child becomes
mature in terms of his/her attitudes and beliefs for effective participation in society.
 The period between 12-18 years of age may be thought of as adolescence period.
 In other words, adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood. Adolescence
is accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes. Adolescence, thus is a
very vulnerable phase of mental and psychological development of an individual.
 Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement, and experimentation, constitute
common causes, which motivate youngsters towards drug and alcohol use.
 A child’s natural curiosity motivates him/her to experiment.
 This is complicated further by effects that might be perceived as benefits, of alcohol or
drug use.
 Thus, the first use of drugs or alcohol may be out of curiosity or experimentation, but
later the child starts using these to escape facing problems.
 Of late, stress, from pressures to excel in academics or examinations, has played a
significant role in persuading the youngsters to try alcohol and drugs.
 The perception among youth that it is ‘cool’ or progressive to smoke, use drugs or
alcohol, is also in a way a major cause for youth to start these habits. Television, movies,
newpapers, internet also help to promote this perception.
 Other factors that have been seen to be associated with drug and alcohol abuse among
adolescents are unstable or unsupportive family structures and peer pressure.
ADDICTION AND DEPENDENCE

Addiction and Dependence
 Because of the perceived benefits, drugs are frequently used repeatedly.
 The most important thing, which one fails to realise, is the inherent addictive nature of
alcohol and drugs.
 Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects –such as euphoria and a
temporary feeling of well-being – associated with drugs and alcohol.
 These drive people to take them even when these are not needed, or even when their
use becomes self-destructive.
 With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors presents in our body
increases.
 Consequently the receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs or alcohol leading
to greater intake and addiction.
 However, it should be clearly borne in mind that use of these drugs even once, can be
a fore-runner to addiction.
 Thus, the addictive potential of drugs and alcohol, pull the user into a vicious circle
leading to their regular use (abuse) from which he/she may not be able to get out.
 In the absence of any guidance or counselling, the person gets addicted and becomes
dependent on their use.
 Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant
withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued.
 This is characterized by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating, which may be relieved
when use is resumed again.
 In some cases, withdrawal symptoms can be severe and even life threatening and the
person may need medical supervision.
 Dependence leads the patient to ignore all social norms in order to get sufficient funds
to satiate his/her needs. These result in many social adjustment problems.
EFFECTS OF DRUG OR ALCOHOL ABUSE
Effects of Drug/Alcohol Abuse
 The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the
form of reckless behaviour, vandalism and violence.
 Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death due to respiratory failure,
heart failure or cerebral hemorrhage.
 A combination of drugs or their intake along with alcohol generally results in
overdosing and even deaths.
 The most common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse among youth include
drop in academic performance, unexplained absence from school/college, lack of
interest in personal hygiene, withdrawal, isolation, depression, fatigue,
aggressive and rebellious behaviour, deteriorating relationships with family and
friends, loss of interest in hobbies, change in sleeping and eating habits,
fluctuations in weight, appetite, etc.
 There may even be some far-reaching implications of drug/alcohol abuse.
 If a abuser is unable to get money to buy drugs/alcohol he/she may turn to
stealing.
 The adverse effects are just not restricted to the person who is using drugs or
alcohol.
 At times, a drug/alcohol addict becomes the cause of mental and financial
distress to his/her entire family and friends.
 Those who take drugs intravenously (direct injection into the vein using a needle
and syringe), are much more likely to acquire serious
 infections like AIDS and hepatitis B.
 The viruses, which are responsible for these diseases, are transferred from one
person to another by sharing of infected needles and syringes.
 Both AIDS and Hepatitis B infections are chronic infections and ultimately fatal.
 AIDS can be transmitted to one’s life partner through sexual contact while
Hepatitis B is transmitted through infected blood.
 The use of alcohol during adolescence may also have long-term effects.
 It could lead to heavy drinking in adulthood.
 The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous system and liver
(cirrhosis).
 The use of drugs and alcohol during pregnancy is also known to adversely affect
the foetus.
 Another misuse of drugs is what certain sportspersons do to enhance their
performance.
 They (mis)use narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics and certain
hormones in sports to increase muscle strength and bulk and to promote
aggressiveness and as a result increase athletic performance.
 The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include masculinisation
(features like males), increased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression,
abnormal menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth on the face and body,
enlargement of clitoris, deepening of voice.
 In males it includes acne, increased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression,
reduction of size of the testicles, decreased sperm production, potential for
kidney and liver dysfunction, breast enlargement, premature baldness,
enlargement of the prostate gland.
 These effects may be permanent with prolonged use.
 In the adolescent male or female, severe facial and body acne, and premature
closure of the growth centres of the long bones may result in stunted growth.
1. Age of adokscence is ________

a) 12-18 years
b) 10-12 years
c) 20-25 years
d) None
Answer: a
2. Drugs are frequently used repeated by means__________
a) Druggist
b) Alcoholist
c) Drunker
d) Addiction
Answer: d
3. Withdrawl syndrome symptoms are___________
a) Anxiety
b) Shakiness
c) Nausea
d) All
Answer: d
4. Effect of addiction are ____________
a) Depression
b) Fatigue
c) Rebellious behaviour
d) All
Answer: d
5. Chronic use of drugs causes damage to_______
a) Liver
b) Bones
c) Heart
d) Kidney
Answer: a
6. Side effects of use of anabolic steroids in females_________
a) Menstrual cycle effects
b) Excessive hairs on face
c) Enlargement of clitoris
d) All
Answer: d
7. Side effects of use of anabolic steroids in males__________
a) Reduction of size of testis
b) Breast enlargement
c) Decreased sperm production
d) All
Answer: d
8. Addiction persons commonly effects by_______
a) AIDs
b) Hepatitis-B
c) a & b
d) ascariasis
answer: c
PREVENTION AND CONTROL
Prevention and Control
 The age-old adage of ‘prevention is better than cure’ holds true here also.
 It is also true that habits such as smoking, taking drug or alcohol are more likely
to be taken up at a young age, more during adolescence.
 Hence, it is best to identify the situations that may push an adolescent towards
use of drugs or alcohol, and to take remedial measures well in time.
 In this regard, the parents and the teachers have a special responsibility.
Parenting that combines with high levels of nurturance and consistent
discipline, has been associated with lowered risk of substance
(alcohol/drugs/tobacco) abuse.
 Some of the measures mentioned here would be particularly useful for
prevention and control of alcohol and drugs abuse among adolescents.
(i) Avoid undue peer pressure -
 Every child has his/her own choice and personality, which should be
respected and nurtured.
 A child should not be pushed unduly to perform beyond his/her threshold
limits; be it studies, sports or other activities.
Education and counselling
 Educating and counselling him/ her to face problems and stresses, and to
accept disappointments and failures as a part of life.
 It would also be worthwhile to channelize the child’s energy into healthy
pursuits like sports, reading, music, yoga and other extracurricular activities.
 Help from parents and peers should be sought immediately so that they can
guide appropriately.
 Help may even be sought from close and trusted friends.
 Besides getting proper advise to sort out their problems, this would help
young to vent their feelings of anxiety and guilt.
(iv) Looking for danger signs
 Alert parents and teachers need to look for and identify the danger signs
discussed above.
 Even friends, if they find someone using drugs or alcohol, should not hesitate
to bring this to the notice of parents or teacher in the best interests of the
person concerned.
 Appropriate measures would then be required to diagnose the malady and the
underlying causes.
 This would help in initiating proper remedial steps or treatment.
(v) Seeking professional and medical help

 A lot of help is available in the form of highly qualified psychologists,
psychiatrists, and deaddiction and rehabilitation programmes to help
individuals who have unfortunately got in the quagmire of drug/alcohol abuse.
 With such help, the affected individual with sufficient efforts and will power,
can get rid of the problem completely and lead a perfectly normal and healthy
life.
Health and Disease
1. Motile zygote of plasmodium occurs in: [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. Gut of female Anopheles
b. Salivary glands of Anopheles
c. Human RBCs
d. Human liver
2. Widal Test is carried out to test: [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]

a. Malaria b. Diabetes mellitus
c. HIV/AIDS d. Typhoid fever
3. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that: [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a
nutritional deficiency disease.
b. Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas
the common cold has no effective vaccine.
c. Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the
bacterium Haemophilus influenza.
d. Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose
and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
4. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the
remaining three are? [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.
b. They do not remains confined in the area of formation.
c. They divided in an uncontrolled manner
d. They show contact inhibition.
5. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly
matched with their particular type of immunity. [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
Examples Types of immunity
a) Polymorph nuclear leukocytes Cellular barriers
and monocytes
b) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake Active immunity
bite injection
c) Saliva in mouth and Tear in eyes Physical barriers
d) Mucus coating of epithelium Physiological barriers
lining the urinogenital tract-
and the HCL in stomach
6. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]

a. Opium b. Alcohol c. Tobacco (Chewing) d.
Cocaine
7. Read the following four statements (A-D).

A. Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
B. Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
C. Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus- free plants.
D. Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.
How many of the above statement are wrong? [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐𝐌]
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. One
8. Identify the molecules (A) and (B) shown below and select the right option
giving their source and use. [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐𝐌]
(picture)
9. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?
[𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐𝐌]
a. Performed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
b. The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes.
c. Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains.
d. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.
10. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by: [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑]
a. Eating imperfectly cooked pork.
b. Tse-tse fly.
c. Mosquito bite
d. Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
11. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by:
[𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑]
a. B-lymphocytes b. Thrombocytes
c. Erythrocytes d. T-lymphocytes
12. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose
one following branch is shown below? [𝐀𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟒]
a. Hallucinogen b. Depressant c. Stimulant d. Pain-

killer
13. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS:
[𝐀𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟒]
a. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
b. When the infected retro virus enters host cells.
c. When HIV damage large number of helper T-Lymphocytes.
d. When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
14. Which of the following is not a sexual transmitted disease?

[𝐀𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
a. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
b. Trichomoiasis
c. Encephalitis
d. Syphilis
15. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying: [𝐀𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
a. Leucocytes b. Helper T-Lymphocytes
c. Thrombocytes d. B-Lymphocytes
16. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon: [𝐀𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
a. mucosa and submuscosa of colon only
b. food in intestine
c. blood only
d. erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
17. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an
infected male? [𝐀𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
a. Human immunodeficiency virus
b. Chikungunya viru
c. Ebola virus
d. Hepatitis B virus
18. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine: [𝐀𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
A. tuberculosis i) harmless virus
B. whooping cough ii) inactivated toxin
C. diphtheria iii) killed bacteria
D. polio iv) harmless bacteria
A B C D
a. iii ii iv I
b. iv iii ii i
c. I ii iv iii
d. ii I iii iv
19. Which of the following endoparasites of humans dose show viviparty?

a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
20. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and
non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-
cells, then it leads to. [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 −
𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. allergic response b. graft rejection
c. auto-immune disease d. active immunity
21. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
[𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. Flower b. Leaf c. Stem d. Root
22. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that
are administered into the body contain [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. Activated pathogens b. Harvested antibodies
c. Gamma globulin d. Attenuated pathogens
23. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
[𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
b. HIV does not escape but attack the acquired immune response.
c. HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and
one molecule of reverse transcriptase
d. HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-
stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
24.Which one of the following sets disease is caused by bacteria?
[𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. Tetanus and mumps b. Herpes and influenza
c. Cholera and tetanus d. Typhoid and smallpox
25. Match the following bacteria with the disease [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
Column-I Column-II
A. Treponema pallidum p. Plague
B. Yesinia pestis q. Anthrax
C. Bacillus anthracis r. Syphilis
D. Vibrio s. Cholera
a. A→ (r), B→(p), C→(q), D→(s)
b. A→ (s), B→(p), C→(q), D→(r)
c. A→ (r), B→(q), C→(p), D→(s)
d. A→ (p), B→(r), C→(q), D→(s)
26. Assertion: Histamine is involed in allergic and inflammatory reactions.
Reason: Histamine is a vasodilator [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. if both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason in the correct explanation
of Assertion.
b. if both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct
c. if Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d. if Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
27. Assertion: The antibodies separated from serum are homogenous

Reason: Monoclonal antibodies are homogenous immunological reagents.
[𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. if both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
b. if both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct
c. if Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
d. if Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
28. Which one of the following is a correct match [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑]
a. Bhang - Analgesic
b. Cocaine - Opiate narcotics
c. Morphine - Hallucinogen
d. Barbiturate - Tranquiliser
29. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infraction is normally
immediately given: [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟒]
a. penicillin b. Streptokinase c. Cyclosporin-A d. Statins
30. Which of the following is based upon the principal of antigen-antibody
interaction? [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟒]
a. PCR b. ELISA c. r-DNA technology d. RNA
31. A health person eats the following diet-5gm raw sugar, 4gm albumin, 10gm
pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated
vegetable oil) and 5gm lignin. How many calories he is likely to get?
[𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟒]
a. 144 b. 126 c. 164 d. 112
32. Identify the molecule (A) and (B) shown below and select the right option
giving their source and use. [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟒]
(Picture)
Molecule Source Uses
a. A. Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the
transport of dopamine
b. B. Hero in Cannabis sativa Depresent and slows
down body functions
c. B. Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
d. A. Morphine Papaver Sedative and pain killer
somniferum
33. Identify the molecule (A) and (B) shown below and select the right option
giving their source and use [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
Molecule Source Use

a. A. Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the
transport of dopamine
b. B. Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows
down body functions
c. B. Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
d. A. Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer
34. Assertion: In the condition of obstructive jaundice, large amounts of
absorbed fats are eliminated out of the body.
Reason: Entry of bile into the small intestine is prevented during
obstructive jaundice. [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
of Assertion.
b. if both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct
35. Assertion: Cancer cells are virtually immortal until the body in which they
reside dies.
Reason: Cancer is caused by damage to genes regulating the cell division
cycle. [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
of Assertion.
b. if both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct
36. Pasteurella/Yersinia pestis (causal agent of Bubonic plague) is transmitted

by [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. Cimex b. Xenopsylla c. Pediculus d. Aedes
37. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. Cholera-Vibrio cholera
b. German measles-Rubella virus
c. Whooping cough-Bordetella pertussis
d. Tetanus-Pasteurella pestis
38. Assertion: Cocaine has a potent simulating action on central nervous
system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy
Reason: Injecting the microbes intentionally during immunization or
infectious organisms gaining access into body during natural infection induces
active immunity [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion
b. Assertion is true, Reason is True; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for
Assertion
c. Assertion is True, Reason is False
d. Assertion is False; Reason is True.
39. Active immunity means [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏]
a. resistance developed after disease
b. increasing quantity of blood
c. resistance developed before disease
d. increasing rate of heart-beat
40. Vaccine for tuberculosis is known as [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏]
a. PAS vaccine b. BCG vaccine c. OPV d. DPT
41. Sir Godfrey Hounsfield developed the diagnostic technique of
[𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏]
a. CT scanning b. MRI
c. endoscopy d. bronchoscopy
42. Alcoholism may lead to [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏]
a. skin cancer b. liver cirrhosis
c. viral disease d. eye infections
43. Yersinia pestis is responsible for [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. syphilis b. whooping cough c. plague d. leprosy
44.Schizogony occurs in [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. RBC of human b. intestine of parasite
c. liver of human d. liver of parasite
45. Rstrovirus have genetic material [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. DNA only b. RNA only
c. DNA or RNA only d. either DNA or RNA only
46. During DNA replication in prokaryotes DNA is anchored to
a. chromosome b. mesosome c. nucleolus d.
ribosome
47. HIV decrease natural immunity of the body by [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. destroying erythrocytes b. destroying antibodies
c. attacking T-lymphocytes d. attacking B-lymphocytes
Health and Disease

1. a 2.d 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. d 11. d 12. a 13.
c 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. d 23. d 24. c 25.
a 26. a 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. b
37. d 38. c 39. a 40.b 41. a 42. b 43.c 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. c
Pollution of air and water

GLIMPSES OF ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1986
 Doom defined pollution as, ‘undesirable change in physical, chemical and
biological properties of air, water and soil, which directly or indirectly affect human
beings’.
 The basic cause of pollution is ever increasing rise in human population that is
putting an equally increasing demand for more food, water supply, roads,
transportation, dwelling units, school, hospitals, electricity, more industrial
products and a large number of other commodities.
 This putting pressure on natural resources which are, therefore, undergoing
depletion and degradation.
 A pollutant is any substance, chemical or other factor that changes the natural
balance of environmental.
SOURCES OF AIR POLLUTION
CLASSIFICATION OF POLLUTANTS
 On the basis of their existence in nature, form (in which the pollutants persist after
release), and nature of disposal pollution are of various types.
 Pollutants are of two types.
 The various classes of pollutants are shown in the given flow chart.
Sources of Air Pollution:
 Air pollution may be by natural or by human activities.
Natural pollutants:
 Nature adds the natural pollutants such as pollen grains, spores of fungus,
hydrocarbons released by vegetation, volcanic gases.
Human activities:
 Industrial wastes, thermal power stations, automobiles etc., are emitting certain
pollutants into the atmosphere.
 Agricultural activities are also causing a minor level of air pollution, but significant
hazardous conditions are creating in the atmosphere.
 Usage of pesticides, dust from agriculture practices and field farming are also
responsible for air pollution.
TYPES OF AIR POLLUTANTS
TYPES OF AIR POLLUTANTS:
 Air pollutants are of two type. They are primary air pollutants and secondary air
pollutants.
 The substances which are emitted directly from some identifiable sources are primary
pollutants or primary emissions.
 E.g. Carbon compounds, Sulphur compounds, nitrogen compounds, hydrocarbons,
halogen compounds etc.
 They are found suspended in air as particles of different size and different substances.
 Secondary air pollutants are usually produced by photochemical processes on
primary pollutants.
 They are also termed photochemical pollutants. E.g. Aldehydes, ozone, PAN (Peroxy
Acetyl Nitrate) and photochemical smog.
Some important air pollutants can be clearly explained as follows.
CONTROL OF AIR POLLUTION
1. Control of automobile pollution
Automobile pollution can be reduced by the following guidelines
a. Proper maintenance of automobiles
b. Use of lead free petrol and diesel
c. Use of catalytic converters
(The unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into 𝐶𝑂2 and water. 𝐶𝑂2 and nitric oxide are
changed into 𝐶𝑂2 and nitrogen gas. Catalytic converters have metals like platinum,
palladium and rhodium as catalysts)
d. Pollution under control (PUC) certificates are to be issued to the motor vehicles to
regularize pollution from the vehicles.
2. Control of industrial pollution
 Some of the important devices used in industries to control pollution-
A. Settling chambers:
These are the large chambers in flues (chimneys or tubes) to remove the large
particulates only.
B. Cyclone collectors or cyclone separators

 The suspended particles in dirty air moved towards the
wall of cyclone body, they to its bottom and finally
discarded out by centrifugation technique.
 The cyclone collectors can remove up to 70% of the
particles from dirty air.
C. Bag filter
 Its operation is like a common vacuum cleaner. Fabric bags are used to collect the
dust.
 It is periodically shaken out of the bag.
 The fabric bag can remove almost all particulates.
 Bag filters are sensitive to high temperature and humidity.
 Most of the industries are using them.
D. Electrostatic precipitator:
 Electrostatic precipitation is a method of dust collection that uses electrostatic
forces. It consists of discharge wires and collecting plates.
 A high voltage is applied to the discharge wires to form an electrical field between
the wires and the collecting plates.
 It also ionizes the gas around the discharge wires supply ions.
 When gas that contains an aerosol (dust, mist) flows between the collecting plates
and the discharge wires, the aerosol particles in the gas are charged by the ions.
 The coulomb force caused by the electric field causes the charged particles to be
collected on the collecting plates, and the gas is purified.
 This is the principle of electrostatic precipitation.
 The particles collected on the collecting plates are removed by methods such
(1) Dislodging by rapping the collecting plates,
(2) Scraping off with a brush, or
(3) Washing off with water,
and removing from a hopper.
 Electrostatic precipitators can
remove 99 % of particular
pollutants.
 These are mainly used in power
plants, paper mills, cement
factories etc.
E. Gas scrubbers
 A fine spray of water can separate many gases such as
ammonia and 𝑆𝑂2 in gas scrubbers.
 Polluted air is passed through the spray of water and
removed out through exhausts.
NOISE POLLUTION
Noise pollution
 In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of pollution) Act came into force in 1981,
but was amended in 1987 to include noise as air pollutant.
 Unpleasent loud sound is called as noise (also called slow killer) and disturbing
level of noise is known as noise pollution.
 Annoying noise from industries, transport vehicles, agriculture machines, defence
equipment’s, domestic gadgets, music system, public address systems and
demonstration are various causes of noise pollution.
 Noise pollution is measured in decibels. Generally, sound above 80 dB is termed as
noise. A sound more than 115 db is harmful to the ears.
 Moderate conversation has a noise value of 60 db scooter, buses, trucks, etc. create
noise of about 90 db jets of about 150 dB and rockets of 180 dB. A decibel value
above tolerable limit of noise is about 140 dB
 The first effect of noise pollution is anxiety and stress reactions. Deafness or
hearing loss is the most serious pathological effect.
 A number of temporary physiological changes occur in the human body as a direct
result of noise exposure.
 These are rise in blood pressure, a rise in intracranial pressure, an increase in heart
rate and breathing and an increase in sweating.
 Green muffler scheme involves the growing green plants along roadsides to reduce
noise pollution.
 Specific legislation and regulations should be proposed for designing and operation
of machines, vibrations control, sound-proof cabins and sound absorbing materials.
1. Basic cause of pollution_______
a) School waste
b) Hospital waste
c) Electricity waste
d) All
Answer: d
2. Natural pollutants
a) Pollengrains
b) Spores of fungus
c) Hydrocarbons released by plants
d) All
Answer: d
3. Human activities causes pollution__________
a) Automobiles
b) Thermal power
c) Industrial waste
d) All
Answer: d
4. Primary pollutants
a) C2
b) S2
c) a and b
d) aldehydes
Answer: c
5. photochemical pollutants are_________
a) Aldehyde
b) Ozone
c) PAN
d) All
Answer: d
6. Controlling of automobile pollution_________
a) Remove catalyters converts
b) Use more petrol/diesel
c) More automobiles
d) Compressed air gas use
Answer: d
7. Noise pollution measures___________
a) Decibles
b) Dobson units
c) Nobles
d) None
Answer: a
CONTROLLING VEHICULAR AIR POLLUTION: A CASE STUDY OF DELHI
A Case Study of Delhi Controlling Vehicular Air Pollution:
 Delhi has the maximum number of vechicles in India.
 The problem of air pollution was so serious that most of the people of Delhi began to
complain of burning eyes and respiratory discomforts.
 The Supreme Court of India directed the Government to take appropriate measures
for reducing pollution caused by automobiles through.
a) Switch over of public transport from petrol and diesel to CNG
b) Phasing out of old vehicles.
c)Compulsory use of unleaded petrol and reduced Sulphur content diesel
d)Compulsory regular checkup of pollution emission of vehicles.
e) Enforcement of Euro II norms.
f) Enforcement of Euro III norms 11 cities of India.
Euro –II norm specifications:
Sulphur 350ppm Diesel
150ppm Petrol
Aromatic 42% Hydrocarbons
GLIMPSES OF WATER [PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF POLLUTION] ACT, 1974

Glimpses of Water (Prevention Control of Pollution):
The Government of India passed the Water (Prevention and Control of pollution)
Act,1974 to protect our water resources.
The important measures to control water pollution.
a) Control of epidemic and other diseases by proper sterilization methods.
b) Industrial effluents are neutralized and treated before being discharged into streams.
c)Suspended matter should be removed
d)Polluted water is treated in effluent treatment plants.
e) Thermal pollution is to be avoided by using cooling towers in the industries.
TYPES OF WATER POLLUTANTS - DOMESTIC SEWAGE SOURCES
 Sewage is the water bone domestic waste animal waste and food processing plants.
 Domestic waste is organic waste and mostly biogradable.
 It includes human excreta, clothes, soap, detergents etc, sewage is the major
pollutant that enters the water bodies.
DOMESTIC SEWAGE - DISSOLVED OXYGEN
Dissolved oxygen (DO)
 Most aquatic organisms respire with oxygen dissolved in water.
 The amount of oxygen gas dissolved in a given quantity of water at a particular
temperature and atmosphere pressure is reffered to as dissolved oxygen (DO) and
generally is expressed in parts per million (ppm).
 Discharge of sewage in large quantities results in a drop in DO because decomposers
utilize a lot of dissolved oxygen in decomposing organic matter.
 The water containing DO below 8ppm is considered polluted. The gravely polluted
water has DO below 4ppm to nil.
DOMESTIC SEWAGE - BIOLOGICAL OXYGEN DEMAND
Biological oxygen demand (BOD)
 The phenomenon, through which certain pollutants get accumulated in tissues
in increasing concentration along the food chains, and produce fatal effect is
called bio-magnification or biological magnification.
 DDT is non biodegradable pollutant and its biological magnification occurs, i.e.,
its concentration goes on increasing with each tropic level.
 Further it causes air, water and soil pollution.
 Biologicaloxygen demand is the oxygen in milligrams required for five days in
one liter of water at 20°C for the microorganisms to metabolisms to
metabolise organic wastes.
 In simple words BOD is th amount of dissolved oxygen required by bacteria in
decomposing the organic wastes of water.
 Higher the BOD, lower would be the dissolved oxygen. When large amount of
sewage is dumped into water, the BOD will increase.
 Pure drinking water should have BOD of less than 1ppm. If BOD less than 1500
mg/litre, it indicates weak sewage or less pollutuin.
 If BOD is 1500-4000 mg/litre, it indicates medium sewage or medium pollution.
If BOD is more than 4000 mg/litre, it indicates strong sewage or high pollution.
DOMESTIC SEWAGE - CHEMICAL OXYGEN DEMAND
Chemical oxygen demand
 Chemical oxygen demand (COD) test is aimed to determine the amount of oxygen
needed to oxidise all population materials. The value of COD is much higher than
BOD.
DOMESTIC SEWAGE – EUTROPHICATION
Domestic Sewage Eutrophication:
 Phosphorus and nitrates of fertilizers and detergents of fertilizers and accelerate
growth of algae which form mat on the watr surface.
 The algal growth deoxygenate water which are responsible for death of fishes and
other aquatic animals.
 The increased protectivity of lake and pond etc. due to nutritient enrichment is
called eutrophication.
 Eutrophication causes reduction in dissolved oxygen.
 Natural eutrophication occurs slowly at a rate which may not be detectable in
human life time.
 Accelerated or cultural eutrophication occurs due to passage of sewage and run
off from fertilized field into ponds, lakes and other water bodies.
 Nutrients present in sewage and fertilizers cause dense growth of plants and
planktonic algae.
 The algae use oxygen at night and may deoxygenate the water enough to kill the
fish and other animals.
 However, soon planktonic algae increase in number and impart a characteristic
colouration to water depending upon the pigments present in them.
 The excess growth of planktonic algae that causes colouration of water Is called
algal bloom.
 Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is one such plant that sometimes chokes
ponds, lakes and rivers.
 Algal blooms and floating plants cut off light from submerged plants. The latter die.
 There is drastic decrease in oxygen replenishment inside water. It causes organic
loading of water.
1. What is BOD?
a) The amount of O2 utilised by organisms in water
b) The amount of O2 utilized by micro-organisms for decomposition
c) The total amount of O2 present in water
d) All the above
Answer: b
2. Irrepairable computers and other electronic goods are known as
a) Radioactive wastes
b) Chemical weed
c) E-wastes
d) Mist
Answer: c
3. Euro-ll(April-2000) is emission norms for reducing
a) O3 and CO
b) NO2 and N2O
c) Sulphur and aromatic hydrocarbons
d) CO2 and particulate matter
Answer: C
4. Eutrophication includes all, except
a) Heavy growth of BGA
b) Decreased DO
c) Death of submerged COD
d) Finally decreased COD
Answer: d
5. Green muffler is used against which type of pollution?
a) Air
b) Soil
c) Water
d) Noise
Answer: d
6. Which among the following is likely to have the highest levels of DDT
depositions in its body?
a) Sea gull
b) Phytoplankton
c) Eel
d) Crab
Answer: a
7. Automobile exhaust causes respiratory problems because of the
presence of
a) CO
b) CH4
c) Chlorine
d) NO2
Answer: a
8. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
a) CO
b) PAN
c) CO2
d) Hydrogen sulphide
Answer: b
9. Major causes of air pollution in big cities is
a) Domestic exhaust
b) Automobile exhaust
c) Burning of cooking gas
d) Thermal power plant
Answer: b
10. Electrostatic precipitators are extensively employed to control
a) Water pollution
b) Air pollution
c) Radioactive pollution
d) None of these
Answer: b
11.Photochemical smog is caused by a light mediated reaction between
a) NO2 and unsaturated hydrocarbons
b) NO2 and O3
c) SO2 and unburnt hydrocarbons
d) SO2 and O3
Answer: a
12. The manner in which values of BOD and COD change, as water pollution
increases in a stream is
a) BOD increases COD increases
b) BOD decreases COD increases
c) Both decreases
d) Cannot be presumed
Answer: a
13. Water pollution
a) Increases oxygenation
b) Decreases turbidity
c) Increases turbidity
d) Increases photosysnthesis
Answer: c
14.Pollution caused by iron dust leads to a disease called
a) Black lung
b) Asbestosis
c) Siderosis
d) Byssinosis
Answer: c
TYPES OF WATER POLLUTANTS - INDUSTRIAL WASTES
Types of Water Polluntants Effects on aquatic organisms:
 Generally plants and animals have the ability to wash out many poisons out of
their system but certain chemical such as pesticide, insecticides, methyl mercury
tend to accumulate in the body.
 For example, DDT, and few other toxic chemicals does not dissolve in fats,
therefore, it accumulates in the organism for long period.
 This is called bioaccumulation. The accumulated substance does not get
metabolised or excreted and passed on to the next higher trophic level.
Industrial Waste Biomagnification:

 The phenomenon, through which certain in pollutants get accumulated in tissues in
increasing concentration along the food chains, and produce fatal effect is called
bio-magnification or biological magnification.
 DDT is non biodegradable pollutant and its biological magnification occurs, i.e., its
concentration goes on increasing with each tropic level. Further it causes air, water
and soil pollution.
A CASE STUDY OF INTEGRATED WASTE WATER TREATMENT
A Case Study of Integrated Waste Water Treatment:
 Arcata is a town located on the northern coast of California.
 The Arcata Waste water Treatment Plant uses several treatment Plant uses several
treatment plant uses several treatment stages to clean the city’s effluent to
permitted levels for release to Humboldt Bay.
 The primary goal of waste water treatment is to remove suspended solids and Bio-
chemical Oxygen Demand or(BOD).
First Stage:
 The physical processes like filtration sedimentation and chlorination are used to
treat large debris.
 Even after this stage,the debris.Even after this stage,the dangerous pollutants like
heavy metals may present.
Second Stage:
 Treated water is passed into six connected marshes over 60 hectares of marsh land.
 Plants, algae, fungi and bacteria are raised in these marshes appropriately.
 Aquatic animals also dwell in those marshes later they remove organic debris heavy
metals and toxins from sewage water.
SOURCES OF SOLIDWASTES
 Solid wastes are discarded or left over solid
materials. The terms rubbish and trash are
often used interchangeably for soild waste
materials.
 The various sources of solid wastes are
municipal wastes, industrial wastes, mining
wastes, hazardous wastes, defunct ships and
electronic wastes.
MUNICIPAL SOLID WASTES

 Municipal wastes are solid wastes from homes, shops, offices, schools, street
and road sweepings which are collected and disposed off by municipalities.
 The major components are waste paper, textiles, leather, metals, glass, plastic
and polythene, food wastes, etc.
INDUSTRIAL SOLID WASTES
 Industrial wastes include scarp, effluents, sludge
and flyash.
 Flyash is fall out from industrial emissions
especially thermal plants which is often mixed
with smoke. It consists of oxides of silica,
aluminium and iron along with small quantities of
heavy metals.
ELECTRONIC WASTES (e-WASTES)

 Electronic wastes (e-wastes) include irreparable computers, mobiles and other
electronic goods.
 Electronic wastes are generally sent to developing countries like India, China and
pakistan for extraction of metals through recycling.
BIOCHEMICAL AND AGROCHEMICAL WASTES
Biochemical wastes: Agrochemical wastes:
 Bio- medical wastes are any  Fertilizers, pesticides and herbicides used
wastes, which are generated contribute to water pollution as well as
during the diagnosis, treatment or soil pollution.
immunization of humans and
animals.  The usage of these components increased
 Common producers of biomedical for the betterment of crops by the
wastes are hospitals (hospital awareness developed in the people by
wastes), pathological laboratories, green revolution.
blood banks, veterinary institutes,
slaughter houses etc.
EFFECTS OF SOLIDWASTES:
Solid wastes dumped into the environment may cause the following effects.
a) Make the land in and around barren.
b) Pollute the air with foul smell and create unhygienic condition for living.
c) Burnt wastes release smoke that causes pollution.
d) Acid rains in industrial areas turn the soil acidic and cause harmful effects to the
terrestrial organisms.
e) Chemical compounds and metals released from industries cause hazardous
ailments in humans, animals and plants.
f) Biochemical wastes have harmful chemicals and pathogenic organisms. They
cause certain diseases in human beings and animals.
g) The toxic substances of agrochemicals are accumulated in the food chains. These
substances may degrade the soil fertility. Pesticides and herbicides are used by man
to control target organisms like pests but they may cause harm to non-target
organisms like bacteria that help in nitrogen fixation and earthworms which
improve the soil fertility and aeration.
CONTROL OF SOLID WASTES

 The solid wastes are to be separated into biodegradable and non-
biodegradable wastes.
 Biodegradable waste includes organic waste eg: Kitchen waste, vegetables,
fruits, flowers, leaves from the garden and paper.
 Non-biodegradable waste can be further segregated into:
a) Recyclable waste –Plastics, Paper, Glass ,metal etc.
b) Toxic waste-Old medicines, paints, chemicals, bulbs, spray cans, fertilizer and
pesticide containers, batteries, shoe polish.
c)Soiled-hospital waste such as cloth soiled with blood and other body fluids.
1. ___________ is highly hazardous to animal health but on plants this gas

does not seen to show adverse effect
a) CO
b) CO2
c) SO2
d) NO2
Answer: a
2. Most effective greenhouse gas is
a) CFC
b) CO2
c) Methane
d) O2
Answer: a
3. Wastes may be sealed in concrete-filled drums and discharged to a
depth of about 500m. This specific statement is true for
a) 𝛾- radiation pollutants
b) U.V. radiation pollutants
c) β- particle pollutants
d) All radioactive pollutants
Answer: d
4. Find odd one out w.r.t e-waste
a) India
b) America
c) China
d) Pakistan
Answer: b
5. According to central pollution control board (CPCB), which particulate
size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for
greatest harm to human health?
a) 2.5 or less
b) 5.2 – 2.5
c) 1.0 or less
d) 1.5 or less
Answer: a
6. Municipal waste, containing human and animal excreta, food residues,
detergents etc. and rich in bacteria and organic substances, is called
a) Sewage
b) Sewer
c) Sewerage
d) None of these
Answer: a
7. Effect of pollution is first checked by
a) Microorganism
b) Green vegetation of an area
c) Food crop
d) None of these
Answer: b
8. World environment day is on
a) 11th July
b) 31st May
c) 5th June
d) 7th April
Answer: c
9. Domestic waste constitutes largely of
a) Nonbiodegradable pollutants
b) Biodegradable pollutant
c) Effluents
d) Air pollution
Answer: b
10.Which of the following is the most dangerous metal pollutant of
automobile exhaust?
a) Cadmium
b) Copper
c) Mercury
d) Lead
Answer: d
11.The environment protection Act was passes in the year
a) 1971
b) 1974
c) 1981
d) 1986
Answer: d
12.Domestic waste constitutes
a) Non-biodegradable pollutants
b) Biodegradable pollutants
c) Effluents
d) Air pollution
Answer: b
13.CO is harmful because
a) It causes pollution
b) It burns very rapidly
c) It combines more readily with haemoglobin in blood not allow O2 to
bind
d) It causes damages to tissue
e) Answer: c
14.Non-biodegradable pollutants are extremely harmful because they
a) Undergo biomagnification
b) Remain in position for long
c) Do not get recycled
d) Both b and c
Answer: b
15.Which causes water pollution?
a) Sewage and pesticides
b) E-waste
c) ODS
d) Smelting of ores
Answer: a
16.If BOD of river is high, it means that the river is
a) Not polluted
b) Very polluted
c) Gets least amount of light
d) Temperature of water is low
Answer: b
17. Sewage water can be purified for recycling with the action of
a) Aquatic plants
b) Penicillin
c) Microorganisms
d) Fish
Answer: c
18. If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually
a) Stop water cycle
b) Stop precipitation
c) Make oxygen molecule unavailable to water plants
d) Make nitrate molecules unavailable to water plants
Answer: c
A CASE OF STUDY OF REMEDY FOR PLASTIC WASTE
 The plastic waste creates a major problem to the environment.
 The waste plastic is a great worry for our country as well as the whole
world.
 If the plastic is a great worry for our country as well as the whole world.
 If the plastic is not utilized properly we need to dump it as a waste.
 It is assumed that there is a generation of more than 10,000 tons of waste
plastic in India every day.
 The plastic waste is recycled in India in an unorganized way.
 Only 60% of the plastic waste collected in recycled and converted to new
consumer products while the remaining 40% of the plastic waste is left
unutilized .
 So it would be definitely a problem for the environment.
CHEMICALS THAT ARE USED IN AGRICULTURE PRACTICES

 A wide range of chemicals are used in global agriculture under the perception that they
are fundamental to achieving maximum crop yields.
 There is, however, a growing knowledge base developing that underpins the
distribution and impact of chemicals in the environment and how they affect the
human body.
 Furthermore, there is growing requirement for regulatory control and management
procedures due to the specific challenges that are being recognized.
Polluting practices of modern agriculture
 Conventional agricultural practices are polluting soils, rivers and oceans with large
amounts of harmful agricultural chemicals. These can include: nitrogen, nitrates,
nitrites, phosphorous, phosphates alongside other pesticides and fertilizers.
 Where nitrate and phosphorous fertilizer is used, it creates runoff which flows into
water bodies and develops algae blooms. Such chemicals are used to obtain maximum
yields, but when the algae die the bacteria uses up all of the oxygen in decomposing
it, thus creating an oxygen dead (or hypoxic) zone.
Four commonly used pesticides include:

o Metam sodium
o Methyl bromide
o Telone II
o Chloropicrin
 Metam sodium is a biocide which can cause birth defects and is toxic to birds and fish.
 Methyl bromide can cause also birth defects, as well as cardiac arrest and nervous
system damage.
Telone II is a cancer-causing fumigant that has caused death to farmers. Chloropicrin
can cause severe respiratory damage and is very toxic to fish.
Other harmful chemical agents include:

o Insecticides
o Fungicides
o Insect-fungicides
o Herbicides
o Rodenticides
o Regulators
o Attractants
o Repellents
o Spreaders
 They are all applied to crops in a similar fashion by spraying and ultimately aim to
destroy insects, pests, diseases, weeds, rodents and other unwanted animals.
In many cases, these chemicals are combined to enhance the effect they have on the
target crop².
EFFECT OF AGROCHEMICALS IN ECOSYSTEM
 In the wake of green revolution, use of inorganic fertilisers and pesticides has
increased manifold for enhancing crop production.
 Pesticides, herbicides, fungicides, etc., are being increasingly used.
 These incidentally, are also toxic to non-target organisms, that are important
components of the soil ecosystem.
 Do you think these can be biomagnified in the terrestrial ecosystems? We know what
the addition of increasing amounts of artificial fertilizers can do to aquatic ecosystems
eutrophication.
 The current problems in agriculture are, therefore, extremely grave.
A case study Organic Farming:

 Ramesh Chander Dagar in Sonipat,Haryana developed an integrated organic
farming.
 Dagar showed a small farm could be made viable. He started experimenting on
one hectare within his land.
 His experiment with integrated organic farming has been a success.
 He now practises it in all the 44 hectares he owns and is busy spreading the
message to others.Integrated organic farming is about more than just avoiding
chemicals.
 It includes many other practises such as bee-keeping ,dairy management,
biogas production,water harvesting and composting.
SOURCES OF RADIOACTIVE POLLUTANTS

 Man is exposed to two different sources of radiation Natural and
Anthropogenic.
 The cosmic rays,environment and internal radiation developed in the tissue of
the animal bodies are natural.
 Accidental leakages of radioactive.
CONTROL OF RADIOACTIVE POLLUTION
a) Nuclear wastes are to be changed harmless form stored in shielded containers
and kept deep below the earth surfaces or ocean.
b) Radioactive wastes with low radiation only to be discharged into drains.
c)Atomic explosions and atomic weapons are to be given up for human welfare.
d)There is no cure for radioactive damage radioactive pollution is to be checked.
NATURAL GREENHOUSE EFFECT
 The layer of CO2 acts as glass panel of greenhouse or glass window of a car
and prevents the heat from being re-radiated in outer space.
 This is usually called natural greenhouse effect.
ENHANCED GREENHOUSE EFFECT
 The net result of heating up of atmosphere takes place by the increase in the
concentration of CO2 .
 It is termed enchanced greenhouse effect.
1. “Good ozone” is found in the

a) Mesosphere
b) Troposphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Ionosphere
Answer: c
2. Which one of following pairs of gases are the major cause of
“Greenhouse effect”?
a) CO2 and O3
b) CO2 and CO
c) CFCs and SO2
d) CO2 and N2O
Answer: d
3. The two gases making relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are
a) CO2 and CH4
b) CH4 and N2O
c) CFC5 and N2O
d) CO2 and N2O
Answer: a
4. Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in
a) Forest fires
b) Global warming
c) Skin cancer incidence
d) None of the above
Answer: b
5. Which are sensitive to SO2 pollution?
a) Mosses
b) Algae
c) Lichen
d) Ferns
Answer: c
6. Increase in toxic concentration from one trophic level to another trophic
level is called
a) Ecological toxification
b) Bio-magnification
c) Bioconcentration
d) Cytological effect
Answer: b
7. Which of the following statement is correct about DDT?
a) It is a biomagnifying biodegradable pollutant
b) It is non biomagnifying biodegradable pollutant
c) It is biomagnifying non biodegradable pollutant
d) It is not a pollutant
Answer: c
8. CO is harmful to human being because
a) It competes CO2 to combine with haemoglobin
b) It is competes O2 to combine with haemoglobin
c) It is carcinogenic
d) It depletes O3 layer
Answer: b
9. CO is a pollutant because:
a) It reacts with O2
b) It inhibits glycolysis
c) It reacts with haemoglobin
d) It makes nervous system inactive
Answer: c
10.The true statement about ‘green-house effect’ is that it is :
a) Caused only by CO2
b) Caused by CO2 CFC’s CH4 and NO2 gases
c) Caused by combination of many gases
d) None of these
Answer: b
11.Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
a) India
b) Antarctica
c) Europe
d) Africa
Answer: b
12.Nitrogen oxide is produced in the exhaust of
a) Automobile smoke
b) Burning of fuel
c) Fertilizer plants
d) Cigarette smoke
Answer: a
GREENHOUSE GASES
 The atmospheric greenhouse gases forms a blanket-like covering around the
earth. It controls the escape of heat from the earth’s surface to outer space
and keeps it warm and hostile. This
phenomenon is known as greenhouse
effects.
 The capacity to atmosphere to keep the
earth warm depends on the amount of
greenhouse gases-the gases which are
transparent to solar radiation but retain
the partially reflect back long wave heat
radiations.
 Greenhouse gases radiate a part of this solar radiations. Greenhouse gases
rasiate a part of this solar energy back to the earth.
 The phenomenon is called greenhouse flux. Because of greenhouse flux, the
mean annual temperature of earth is 15°C. In its absence it will fall to-18°C.
GLOBAL WARMING
 Recently the concentration of greenhouse gases has started rising resulting in enhanced
greenhouse effect that is resulting in increasing the mean global temperature. It is called
global warming.
 During the past century, the temperature of earth has increased by 0.6°C, most of it
during the last three decades.
 Scientiest belive that the rise in temperature is leading to deleterious changes in the
environmental and resulting in odd climatic changes (e.g., EI Nino effect), thus leading
to increased melting of polar ice cps as well as of other places like the himalayan snow
caps.
 Over many year, this will result in a rise in sea level that can submerge many coastal
areas.
 The various greenhouse gases are 𝑪𝑶𝟐 (warming effect 60%), 𝐶𝐻4 (effect 20%),
chlorofluorocarbons or CFCs (14%) and nitrus oxide (𝑁2 𝑂, 6%). Others of minor
significance are water vapour and ozone.
 Some strategies should be followed to deal with global warming:
 Vegetation cover should be increased for photosynthetic utilization carbon dioxide.
 Chlorofluorocarbon should be replaced with some other subsitute having litile effect on
global warming.
 Reducing the use of nitrogen fertilizers to reduce nitrous oxide emission.
 Minimizing the use of fossil fuel to reduce the greenhouse gas emission.
POSSIBLE EFFECTS OF GLOBAL WARMING

Global warming is increases by 0.60 𝐶 in last 30 years. The increased global warm and
more extreme climatic conditions are called 𝑬𝒍 𝑵𝒊𝒏𝒐 effect. The possible effects of
global warming are
a) Melting of glaciers and rise in sea levels.
b) Increasing the floods in low-lying islands and coastal areas.
c) Increased drought and deterioration of water quality
d) Increased forest fires, loss of wildlife and loss of biodiversity
e) Shifts the climatic zones
CONTROL MEASURES OF GLOBAL WARMING
Global warming is nothing but global warming.
Some of the important strategies should be followed to manage global warming are
a) Increase in the green vegetation (afforestation and reforestation) to utilize
more 𝑪𝑶𝟐 for photosynthesis.
b) Less utilization of CFCs or using replacements of CFCs.
c) Less utilization of nitrogen fertilizers
d) Minimizing the usage of fossil fuels
e) Controlling growth of human population.
OZONE IN STRATOSPHERE
 The ozone in the troposphere behaves like bad ozone and creates
pollution problems.
 Ozone, Hydrogen peroxide and PAN form photochemical smog.
 Increase in ozone concentration near the earth surface reduces the crop
yields.
 It causes adverse effects on human and animal health by causing
pulmonary oedema and fatigue etc.
 The ozone (𝑂3 ) in the stratosphere acts as good ozone. It forms a shield
and protects living beings on the earth from UV radiation from sun.
 Ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of atmosphere is
measured in Dobson units (DU).
REASONS FOR OZONE DEPELTION IN STRATOSPHERE
 Stratosphere have a thick layer of ozone (good ozone) called ozonosphere
which protects life on earth from harmful effects of UV radiations. Thickness of
ozone is measured in Dobson units.
 Ozone in the earth’s atmosphere is generally created by ultraviolet light oxygen
molecules, which consist of two oxygen atoms (𝑂2 ), creating two single oxygen
atoms, known as atomic oxygen.
 The atomic oxygen the combines with a molecule of 𝑂2 to create ozone, 𝑂3 . In
stratosphere ozone is formed and photodissociated. It dissipates the energy of
UV radiations.
 Ozone absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation, so it shields earth against
biological harmful solar radiations.
 Ozone depleteing substances (ODS) are substances which react with ozone
present in the stratosphere and destroy by aerosols which are certain chemicals
released into the air with force in the form of mist or vapour.
 Major aerosol pollutant present in jet plane emisions is fluorocarbon. Besides
chloroflourocarbons or CFCs (CC𝐼2 𝐹2 and CC𝐼3 F; used as coolants in air
conditioners and refrigerators, cleaning solvents, aerosol propellants and),
nitrogen oxides (coming from fertilizers) and hydrocarbons are also responsible
for 𝑂3 depletion.
1. Heating of earth surfaces is ____________
a) Global heat
b) Global worming
c) Global effect
d) None
Global warming
2. Greenhouse effect caused by__________
a) Green house gases
b) SO2
c) CH3
d) None
Answer: a
3. Greenhouse gases are_______
a) Co2
b) CH4
c) N2O
d) All
Answer: d
4. Global worming leads to _____________
a) Melting glaciers
b) Increases floods
c) Increases forest fires
d) All
Answer: D
5. Overcome the global warming________
a) Less utilization of CFCs
b) Minimize the fossil fuels
c) Control growth of human population
d) All
Answer: d
6. Ozone measures __________
a) Dobson units
b) Decibles
c) Meters
d) None
Answer: a
7. Ozone depletion causes by__________
a) CFCs
b) S2
c) N2
d) C2
Answer: a
EFFECTS OF OZONE DEPLETION
 Ultraviolet radiation are of three types-UV-C (100-280 nm), UV-B (280-320nm)
and UV-A (320-390nm).
 The intermediate or UV-B are harmfull as well as capable of deep penetration.
 Thinning of ozone layer (commonly called as ozone hole) increase the amount of
UV-B radiations reaching the earth.
 Researchs show that surface UV-B radiation inhibits photosynthesis in Antarctic
phytoplanktons.
 This, in turn, can affect the whole food chain of organisms that depend on
phytoplankton. Elevated levels of UV-B radiation affect photosynthesis, as well
as damage nucleic acid in living organisms.
 UV radiations of wavelengths shoter than UV-B, are almost completely absorbed
by Earth’s atmosphere, given that the ozone layer is intact. But, UV-B damages
DNA and mutation may occur.
 It causes aging of skink, damage to skin cells and various types of skin cancers. In
human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B radiation and a high dose of UV-B causes
inflammation of cornea, called snow-blindness, cataract, etc. Such exposure may
permanantly damage the cornea.
MONTREAL PROTOCOL
 Montreal protocal- The Montreal protocal was a convention Signed in
1987 by 27 industrialised countries.
 It is a landmark international agreement to protect the stratospheric
ozone and to limit the production and use of ozone-depleting
substances.
 To date, more than 175 countries have signed the Montreal protocol.
 Earth summit (United nations Conference on Environment and
Development, 1992) – It was held in Rio-de-janerio (Brazil) and
adopted the recommendations of CCC (Convention on Climate
Change) for reducing greenhouse gases.
 The recommendations were signed by 154 nations. They pledged to
freeze the emission of greenhouse gases at 1990 level.
 Kyoto protocal (Dec. 1997) – International conference held in Kyoto,
japan obtained commitments from different countries for reducing
overall greenhouse gas emission at a level 5% below 1990 level by
2008-2012.
 Beijing protocal (1999)- The protocal lays down steps to reduce
emission of CFCs and other ozone depleting substances.
 It separates the efforts to be made by developing and developed
countries.
CAUSES OF RESOURCE DEGRADATION

 The loss of quality, fertility and productivity of land by various factors is termed
land degradation various factors is termed land degradation.
 Various factors for land degration are salination of soil erosion, desertification,
shifting cultivation and development activities.
MAINTENANCE RELATED TO RESOURCE DEGRADATION
 The change of fertile soil layer by floods wind is called soil erosion.
Excessive soil erosion may lead to desertification.
 The removal of top fertile soil layer by floods wind etc is called soil
erosion. Excessive soil erosion may lead to desertification.
 The change of fertile soil into non –productive desert soil is called
desertification worldwide.
 Increasing human population and poverty contribute to desertification is
self-reinforcing once the process has started the conditions are set for
continuous deterioration.
1. UV rays types_________
a) UV-C
b) UV-B
c) UV-A
d) All
Answer: d
2. Ozone holes caused by
a) UV-C
b) UV-B
c) UV-A
d) None
Answer: b
3. Ozone presents__________
a) Stratosphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Trophosphere
d) None
Answer: a
4. Snow-blindness due to______
a) UV-A
b) UV-B
c) UV-C
d) None
Answer: b
5. Monotreal protocal for_____________
a) Ozone saving
b) Forest saving
c) Water saving
d) None
Answer: a
6. Earth summit first held in____________
a) Brazil
b) U.K
c) USA
d) India
Answer: a
7. Thinning of ozone layer is_______
a) Ozonation
b) Deozonation
c) Ozone hole
d) None
Answer: c
8. Inflammating cornea is______
a) Night blindness
b) Dazblindness
c) Snow blindeness
d) None
Answer: c
CAUSES OF DEFORESTATION
 Deforestation is removal, decrease or deterioration of
forest cover of an area.
 The causes of deforestation and denudation are well
known. The principal causes have been the population
explosion in man and livestock leading to enhanced
requirement of timber and fuelwood, and grazing
respectively.
 Increasing in shifting (jhum) cultivation in the north-
eastern states of India has also laid large forest tracts bare.
 A major cause of deforestration has been the construction of hill roads (about 30,000
km long) most of which are in strategic and most fragile belt of Himalayas.
 Fire is the worst enemy of the forests. It destroys the full-grown trees, young trees of
future forest, seeds and even humus.
 Animals life is also lost and there is a danger to human life too in a forest fire.
 Many kinds of insects are forest pets. They destroy trees by eating up leaves, boring
into shoots and spreading disease.
 It is difficult to spray on extensive forest, but biological control is possible.
 Grazing and gnawing mammal first eat or trample the young plants, then destroy the
leaves on the lower branches of tall trees, and finally damage their trunks and roots.
 Storm and snow damage the forest. These natural forces are
beyond the human power to control.
 Barriers (dams) constructed across the streams to form water
reservoirs for generating power or preventing floods submerge
and kill large tracts of forest.
EFFECTS OF DEFORESTATION
Land erosions and landslides
Change in climate
Global warming
Reduced timber availability
Siltation
Occuring of flash floods.
 Afforestation is growing forest over an area where no forest existed earlier.
 Reforestation is restoring of forest cover over an area where one existed earlier
but was removed at some point of time in th past.
 A tree plantation movement or Van Mahotsave is being carried out in India since
1950.
 Under this movement, both government and private agencies perform tree
plantation during July and February every year.
CONTROL OF DEFORESTATION
 If deforestation is a negative event, then a positive event should take place to
counter its effects is reforestation (Restoring a lost forest area).
 According to national Forest Policy (1988) the forest zone should be 33 % in the
plains and 67 % in the hill regions.
 Instead of depending on the forest trees, the books or paper, even shopping bags
should be recycled.
CHIPKO MOVEMENT
 The movement is best known for hugging the trees to prevent being cut down.
 The name of the movement came from a word meaning ‘embrace’.
 In 1731 AD, 363 Bishnoi men, women and children gave their lives to protect
trees from cutting by the then King’s men for the construction of a new palace.
 This incident happened in Khejarli which is a village in Jodhpur district of
Rajasthan.
 In this incident Amrita Devi, a Bishnoi woman who, along with more than 363
other Bishnois, sacrificed their lives while protecting trees, by hugging to them.
 This incident is the first event of Chipko Movement.
 The Government of India, Department of Forest, have started the prestigious
Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award for excellent contribution to the
protection and conservation of wildlife in rural areas.
 The modern Chipko movement started in 1974 in the Garhwal Himalayas of
Uttarakhand, then in Uttar Pradesh with growing awareness towards rapid
deforestation.
 The movement spread to Himachal Pradesh in the north, Karnataka in the south,
Rajasthan in the west, Bihar in the east and to the Vindhyans in central India.
Chandi Prasad Bhatt of Gopeshwar and Sunderlal Bahuguna of Silyara in Tehri
region.
 A similar movement was carried out by Pandurang Hegde in the South.
 It is called appiko movement.
 The Government of India, has introduced the concept of Joint Forest
Management (JFM) in 1980s to work with local people to manage the forests.
Environmental Issues
1. In an area where DDT had been used extensively. The population of birds
declined significantly because: [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. birds stopped laying eggs
b. earth stopped in the area got eradicated
c. cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
d. many of the birds laid. Did not hatch
2. Which one of the following is a wrong statement? [𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. Most of the forest have been lost in tropical areas
b. Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals
c. Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
3. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for:
[𝐂𝐁𝐒𝐄 𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
b. working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
c. measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a
commercial scale.
d. working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.
4. The Air Prevention and Control of pollution Act came into force in:
[𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑]
a. 1981 b. 1985 c. 1990 d. 1975
5. Kyoto protocol was endorsed at: [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑]
a. CoP-5 b. CoP-6 c. CoP-4 d. CoP-3
6. Global warming can be controlled by [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑]
a. Reducing reforesting, increasing the use of fossil fuel.
b. Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population
c. Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage.
d. Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel.
7. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the tree indicates that the:
a. Trees are very healthy b. Trees are heavily infested
c. Location is highly polluted d. Location is not polluted
8. A scrubber in the exhaust of chemical industrial plant removes:
a. gases like Sulphur dioxide
b. particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
c. gases like ozone and methane
d. particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
9. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indica that:
a. Water is highly polluted
b. Water is less polluted
c. Consumption of organic matter in the water is high by the microbes.
d. Water is pure
10. The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held
in
a. South Africa b. Peru c. Qatar d. Poland
11. Which of the following is not one of the prime health risk associated with
greater UV radiation through in atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric
ozone? [𝐀𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
a. Reduced Immune System b. Damage to eyes
c. Increased liver cancer d. Increased skin cancer
12. Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during
[𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1990s
13. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased
incidence of skin cancers [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ozone c. Ammonia d. Methane
14. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result
in [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom
b. increased population of aquatic food web organism
c. an increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients
d. death of fish due to lack of oxygen
15. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be good index for population
for water bodies receiving effluents from [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. Petroleum industry b. Sugar industry
c. Domestic sewage d. Dairy industry
16. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in [𝐍𝐄𝐄𝐓 𝐏𝐡 − 𝐈𝐈 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients
b. mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
c. increased population of aquatic organisms due minerals
d. drying of lake due to algal bloom
17. In the environmental ozone is known for its [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. Harmful effects b. Useful effects
c. Both (a) and (b) d. Inert nature
18. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑]
a. Fossil fuel burning-release of CO2
b. Nuclear power-radioactive wastes
c. Solar energy-greenhouse effect
d. Biomass burning-release of CO2
19. Assertion: Water pollutants are measured by BOD
Reason: If BOD is more, the water is polluted [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑]
of Assertion
d. If Assertion in incorrect but Reason is correct
20. The two gases making the highest relative contribution to the greenhouse
gases are [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟒]
a. CO2 and CH4 b. CH4 and N2 O
c. CFC5 and N2 O d.CO2 and N2 O
21. Assertion: Tropical rain forest are disappearing fast from developing
countries such as India.
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in
biodiversity. [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
a. If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
d. If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
22. Assertion: Methane, component of greenhouse gases, contributing to
global warming is about 20 percent.
Reason: Introduction of multi-point fuel injection engines in automobiles
has decreased methane content in the exhausts. [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓]
a. If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
d. If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
23. Two lakes, A and B are identical in all aspects except that lake A has higher
temperature. Which of the following is true? [𝐀𝐈𝐈𝐌𝐒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔]
a. A has higher rate of oxygen dissolution
b. B has higher rate of oxygen dissolution
c. Oxygen dissolution of both is the same
d. Both the lake have same BOD
24. Minamata disease is caused due to presence of in water.
[𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏]
a. cadmium b. lead c. arsenic d. mercury
25. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏]
a. industrial wastes poured into water bodies
b. extent to which water is polluted with organic compound
c. amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with hemoglobin
d. amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night
26. The Montreal protocol refers to [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏]
a. Persistent organic pollutants
b. global warming and climate change
c. substance that deplete the ozone layer
d. biosafety of genetically modified organisms
27. Which important greenhouse gas, other than carbon dioxide, is being
produced from the agricultural fields? [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏]
a. Arsine b. Sulphur dioxide
c. skin cancer incidence d. None of these
28. Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. forest fire b. global warming
c. skin cancer incidence d. None of these
29. According to Kyoto protocol the major nations abide to reduce
concentration of greenhouse gases by [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. 2008 b. 2010 c. 2012 d. 2018
30. Bio-indicators are used for [𝐉𝐈𝐏𝐌𝐄𝐑 − 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟐]
a. oxygen demand b. air pollution
c. mineral present d. All of these
31. Match the items of Column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. UV I. Biomagnification
B. Biodegradable
Organic matter II. Eutrophication
C. DDT III. Snow blindness
D. Phosphates IV. BOD
a. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
b. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
c. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
d. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Environmental Issue
1. d 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. d 7.
d
8. a 9. a 10. a 11. c 12.c 13.b 14.
d
15. a 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. a 21.
c
22. b 23. b 24.d 25.b 26.c 27. d 28.
c
29. c 30. d 31. c

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8th Std JEE

Unit – 1 Rational Numbers

a) Natural number b) whole number.

a) p and q are integers.

a) rational numbers are closed under addition.

a) addition of rational numbers is commutative.

10.Multiplicative inverse of a negative rational number is

13. –(-x) is same as

15. If 𝑥 be any rational number the 𝑥 + 0 is equal to

20. If y be the reciprocal of rational number 𝑥, then the reciprocal of 𝑦 will be

Fill in the blanks type question

4.Zero has ______________ reciprocal.

10.The negative of a negative rational number is always a _____________ rational

Application of Linear Equations

Concave & Convex Polygons:

Angle Sum Property:

Angle sum of a polygon = (n−2) × 180°

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

Fill in the blanks

Steps to Construct a Kite:

(a) 45o,1350,1200 (b) 60o,1200,1200

(b) Exterior angel = 1800- interior angle

1)b 2)b 3)a 4)c 5)d 6) b 7)a 8)a 9) c 10)d

Fill in the blanks:

Graphical data representation

Chance and Probability

2. Event - Each outcome of an event or a collection of outcomes make an event.

 Meteorological Department - Based on wind, clouds, heat etc, they form a

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Fill in the blanks:

Cube number or Perfect cubes:

Cubes of some natural numbers:

Number Cube Number Cube

... ... ... ...

Properties of Cube Numbers:

2. The cube of odd number will always be an odd number.

1 1 113 = 1331, 213 = 9261, etc.

2 8 23 = 8, 123 = 1728, 323 = 32768,

3 7 133 = 2197, 533 = 148877, etc.

4 4 243 = 13824, 743 = 405224, etc.

5 5 153 = 3375, 253 = 15625, etc.

6 6 63 = 216, 263 = 17576,etc.

7 3 173 = 4913, 373 = 50653,etc.

8 2 83 = 512, 183 = 5832, etc.

9 9 193 = 6859, 393 = 59319, etc.

10 20 103 = 1000, 203 = 8000, etc.

Interesting patterns of Cube Number:

11. The value of √248 + √52 + √144 is

Fill in the blanks:

 Algebraic expressions with all variables having whole

To add or subtract algebraic expressions:

The product of monomials is equal to the product

To multiply polynomials, you have to:

 A polyhedron is a solid shape bounded by polygons whereas non-

2. Which of the following will not form a polyhedron?

Fill in the blanks type

A cuboid is a solid bounded by six rectangular plane faces.

Fill in the blanks:

Fill in the blanks:

(c) x + y remains constant (d) x × y remains constant.