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BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS

DATA COMMUNICATIONS

1. Redundancy means the ____________


a. Transmission rate of the system b. Symbols are to be repeated c. Time between failures d. Time between successes

2. Which transmission media is not suitable to CSMA operation? a. Radio b. Optical fiber c. Coaxial cable d. Twisted pair

3. _________ is a device used to convert a time varying electrical quantity to an appropriate form.
A. Codec
B. Transducer
C. ADC/DAC
D. Modem

4. The bandwidth of U600 mastergroup is


A. 2250 kHz
B. 2728 kHz
C. 2520 kHz
D. 2278 kHz

5. Refers to the combined digitally encoded signals transmitted with FDM signals as one composite baseband signal
A. Composite data
B. Data under voice (DUV)
C. Hybrid data
D. Data in voice (DIV)

6. Transmit frequency-division-multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial cable for distances up to 4000 miles
A. T carrier systems
B. A carrier systems
C. L carrier systems
D. D carrier systems
A. \
B. 5670 VB channels

7. The line data rate (in Mbps) for level 4 of CEPT 30 +2 PCM multiplex hierarchy is
A. 97.728
B. 400.352
C. 274.176
D. 139.264

8. The guardband between supergroup 18 and supergroup D25 is


A. 12 kHz
B. 56 kHz
C. 128 kHz
D. 8 kHz

9. Supergroup 17 has a carrier frequency (in kHz) of


A. 2108
B. 2356
C. 1860
D. 1612

10. A radio channel is composed of ________ VB channels


A. 1800
B. 900
C. 10800
D. 8064

11. What is the guardband between supergroup 1 and supergroup 2?


A. 12 kHz
B. 10 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 6 kHz

12. CCITT’s supermastergroup has how many voice band channels?


A. 600
B. 1800
C. 10800
D. 900

13. The transparency mechanism used with SDLC is called


A. Zero-bit insertion
B. Modified link test
C. Beacon test
D. Invert-on-zero coding

14. What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line?
A. 2B + D
B. B + D
C. B + 2D
D. 2B + 2D

15. A digital network where voice, video, text and data are multiplexed into a single network for processing and are transmitted prior to
use
A. Frame relay
B. Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM)
C. ISDN
D. Synchronous digital hierarchy (SDH)

16. T-1 carrier service has _______ digital bit rate


A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2048 Mbps
C. 1.644 Mbps
D. 9600 Mbps

17. Non-ISDN equivalent can be connected to ISDN line by the use of ____________
A. Terminal equipment
B. Terminal adapters
C. Modem
D. Network adaptors

18. What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?


A. 312 to 552 kHz
B. 60 to 2540 kHz
C. 60 to 108 kHz
D. 300 to 600 kHz

19. What is the transmission signal coding for TI carrier?


A. Binary
B. NRZ
C. Bipolar
D. Manchester

20. The primary purpose of the data modem


A. Interface analog terminal equipment to analog communications channel
B. Interface digital terminal equivalent to digital communications channel
C. Interface analog terminal equipment to digital communications channel
D. Interface digital terminal equipment to analog communications channel

21. The line control unit (LCU) operation on the data in digital from
A. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
B. Data communications equipment (DCE)
C. Modem
D. UART

22. SYN character of EBCDIC code


A. 32 H
B. 8H
C. 16H
D. 4H

23. __________ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on prescribed time slot for the occurrence of a bit
A. Bit or clock synchronization
B. Modem or carrier synchronization
C. Character synchronization
D. Character synchronization

24. Equation used to determine the number of Hamming bits in the Hamming code
A. = m + n +1
B. ≥ m + n +1
C. > m + n +1
D. < m + n +1

25. Data means


A. Digital information
B. Both digital and analog
C. Analog information
D. Neither digital nor analog

26. What determines which network configuration is most appropriate?


A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Network layer
D. Data link layer

27. Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at ___________


A. 10 Mbps
B. 20 Mbps
C. 30 Mbps
D. 40 Mbps

28. Mechanism used by a station to gain access to local area network


A. Channel multiplexing
B. Channel accessing
C. CSMA/CD
D. CSMA/CA

29. What multiplexing scheme is used by baseband transmission?


A. TDM
B. Space multiplexing
C. FDM
D. Statistical multiplexing

30. Use of coaxial cables in interconnecting networks is limited to an overall length of ________
A. 1500 ft
B. 1500 m
C. 1500 km
D. 1500 kft

31. What identifies how the stations are interconnected in a network?


A. Topology
B. Architecture
C. Topology or architecture
D. Topology and architecture

32. ________ is a data communications network designed to provide two-way communications between a large variety of data
communications terminal equipment within a relatively small geographic area
A. Private Area Network
B. Local Area Network
C. Wide Area Network
D. Ethernet

33. _________ is the mode of transmission in public data network in which data are transferred from source to the network then to the
destination in an asynchronous data format.
A. Synchronous mode
B. Start/stop mode
C. Packet mode
D. Circuit mode

34. A seven-bit character can represent one of ___ possibilities


A. 7
B. 14
C. 64
D. 128

35. ________ is defined to be the maximum rate at which information can be transmitted through a channel
A. Bit rate
B. Baud rate
C. Coding
D. Channel capacity

36. Circuit that performs the inverse mapping and delivers to the user destination, a reproduction of the original digital source output
A. Source coding
B. Channel coding
C. Inverse coding
D. Demodulation

37. Digital modulation technique used in modems


A. ASK
B. FSK
C. PSK
D. MSK

38. Who developed the fixed-length binary code for telegraphy?


A. Samuel Morse
B. Emile Baudot
C. Alexander Graham Bell
D. Guglielmo Marconi

39. Inventor of pulse-code modulation for the digital encoding of speech signals
A. R.V.L Hartley
B. J.R. Carson
C. H. Nyquist
D. Alex Reeves

40. In what year did computers and terminals start communicating with each other over long distance?
A. 1950’s
B. 1960’s
C. 1970’s
D. 1980’s
41. Store-and-forward multiple-access network
A. ARPANET
B. ALOHA
C. PRNET
D. Packet switching

42. A source code-whose average word length approaches the fundamental ----------- set by the entropy of a discrete memoryless source
A. Prefix code
B. Source code
C. Entropy code
D. Huffman code

43. Who promulgate communications related military standards (MIL-STD)?


A. DOD
B. DCA
C. DOD-STD
D. ANSI-MIL

44. What is the class of probability in error detection techniques that is known as residual error rate?
A. P1
B. P2
C. P3
D. P4

45. RS 232 is normally an interface between DTE and DCE, what is its signal rate?
A. 20 kbps
B. 30 kbps
C. 40 kbps
D. 50 kbps

46. Digital switching concepts that can handle more channels


A. SDS
B. TSI
C. TDM
D. TMS

47. What is the most significant advantage of modular switch than time-and-space switch?
A. Flexible size
B. Simplified control
C. Simplified manufacturing, testing and maintenance
D. The latter is more advantageous than the former

48. Which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of PCM systems?


A. Inability to handle analog signals
B. High error rate as a result of quantizing noise
C. Not compatible with TDM
D. The large bandwidth required

49. The reason why companding is employed in PCM systems is


A. To solve quantizing noise problem
B. To allow amplitude limiting in the receiver
C. To protect small signals in PCM From quantizing distortion
D. To overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers

50. The highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate(fs) without aliasing
A. Folding frequency
B. Resonant frequency
C. Critical frequency
D. Natural frequency

51. The overlapping of the original spectrum and the first translated component is known as
A. Dc wandering
B. Aliasing
C. Droop
D. Distortion

52. Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously


A. Full duplex
B. Half duplex
C. Simplex
D. Echoplex

53. Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs based upon


A. The position of data within a frame
B. The position of a frame within a group of frames
C. The activity of connected device
D. The priority assigned to a connected device

54. What is multiplexing?


A. The process of increasing bandwidth on a channel
B. A technique that enables more than one data source to share the use of common line
C. Mailing letter at the post office
D. The ability to share frequency by time

55. One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM


A. There is more time than frequency
B. If is difficult to place channels side by side
C. Noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used
D. Most available frequencies have been used

56. In ___________ modulation the carrier is a periodic train of pulses


A. Amplitude
B. Analog
C. Digital
D. Pulse

57. The process that uses the orthogonality of sines and cosines that makes possible to transmit and receive to different signals
simultaneously on the same carrier frequency is
A. TDM
B. FDM
C. Quadrature multiplexing
D. Duplexing

58. Which of the following pulse modulation technique is a digital transmission system?
A. Pulse duration modulation
B. Pulse position modulation
C. Pulse width modulation
D. Pulse code modulation

59. Which of the following is not an advantage of digital transmission?


A. Noise immunity
B. Ease of multiplexing
C. Bandwidth utilization
D. Ease of encryption

60. _________ is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude that can be decoded by the DAC
A. Resolution
B. Quantization
C. Dynamic range
D. Voltage ratio

61. A process where the higher amplitude analog signals are compressed prior to transmission then expanded at the receiver
A. Compressing
B. Expanding
C. Encoding
D. Companding

62. For a resolution of 0.01V and analog sample voltage of 0.05V, the 12-bit linear sign-magnitude code is
A. 000000000101
B. 100000000101
C. 100010010011
D. 000001010001

63. ___________ uses a signal bit PCM code to achieve a digital transmission of analog signal
A. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)
B. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
C. Delta Modulation (DM)
D. Phase Modulation (PM)

64. The line speed of Bell system carrier system is


A. 64 kbps
B. 3.152 Mbps
C. 1.544 Mbps
D. 6.312 Mbps

65. How many channels does a line carry?


A. 24
B. 48
C. 96
D. 672

66. The capacity of the standard 4-kHz telephone channel with 30dB S/N is
A. 455225 bps
B. 42525 bps
C. 39846 bps
D. 39840 bps

67. How many channels does a super group have?


A. 60
B. 600
C. 1800
D. 10800

68. The output frequency at the channel combiner of channel 7 is


A. 76 – 80 kHz
B. 80 – 84 kHz
C. 84 – 88 kHz
D. 88 – 92 kHz

69. The carrier frequency of the supergroup D25 is


A. 2652 kHz
B. 2900 kHz
C. 2356 kHz
D. 2108 kHz

70. Which of the following is not a hybrid data?


A. Data in voice
B. Data under voice
C. Data above voice
D. Data in video

71. ____ was the first fixed-length 5-bit character code.


A. EBCDC
B. ASCII
C. Morse code
D. Baudot code

72. CCITT V.26 modem has a modulation rate of _______


A. 1200 Hz
B. 1200 bauds
C. 1560 cps
D. 9600 bauds

73. What can a smart modem do?


A. Detect transmission errors and correct them automatically
B. Correct answer multiple choice quizzes
C. Accepts commands from the terminal via RS 232 interface
D. Do a smart game

74. One is an advantage of PTM over PAM


A. Much better noise immunity
B. Low sampling rate required
C. Simpler to generate
D. Less costly

75. When did ISO adapt the seven-layer OSI model?


A. 1983
B. 1973
C. 1963
D. 1953

76. Amplitude shift keying is also known as __________


A. Up/down keying
B. On/off keying
C. Front/back keying
D. I/O keying

77. Which modulation system is used in telephony?


A. FSK
B. PCM
C. Two-tone modulation
D. Single-tone modulation

78. Modulation used by asynchronous data


A. QPSK
B. FSK
C. PSK
D. QAM

79. PCM systems require ____________


A. Analog signals
B. Large bandwidth
C. Digital signals
D. Fiber optics cable

80. Which theorem sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level?
A. Nyquist theorem
B. Hartley theorem
C. Shannon-Hartley theorem
D. Shannon theorem

81. Quantizing noise is present in _______ system


A. PCM
B. ATM
C. TDM
D. PAM

82. _______________ is the difference between the original and reconstructed signal
A. Quantizing noise
B. Fade margin
C. Noise margin
D. Noise figure

83. What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM systems?


A. To solve quantizing noise problem
B. To allow amplitude limits in the receivers
C. To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
D. to overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers

84. Band of frequencies in a transmission medium allotted to each communication channel on a continuous time basis
A. TDM
B. FDM
C. CDMA
D. Broadband

85. Error control used in high frequency radio data transmission


A. FEC
B. ARQ
C. Hamming
D. Parity

86. What are the steps to follow to produce a PCM signal?


A. Sampling, coding and quantizing
B. Sampling, quantizing and coding
C. Quantizing, sampling and coding
D. Coding, quantizing and sampling

87. __________ identifies how the different stations in a multipoint system are interconnected
A. Network topology
B. Star network
C. Ring network
D. Bus network

88. A transmission where data are inputted directly on the cable


A. Broadband
B. Baseband
C. Digital
D. Analog

89. A transmission where data are inputted inside the carrier wave
A. Broadband
B. Baseband
C. Digital
D. Analog

90. Transmission system for a multidrop network


A. Token passing
B. CSMA/CD
C. Polling
D. CSMA/CA

91. Before attempting to transmit data, each station has to listen to the channel
A. CSMA /CD
B. Token passing
C. CSMA/CA
D. Polling

92. Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modems because


A. They are larger
B. They must contain clock recovery circuits
C. The production volume is larger
D. They must operate on a larger bandwidth

93. When one station is designated as master and the rest of the stations are considered slaves, massage handling is _________
A. Store and forward
B. Polling
C. CSMA/CD
D. Token passing

94. The computer that initiates information transfer


A. Master
B. Slave
C. DCE
D. DTE

95. A store and forward switching


A. Circuit switching
B. Packet switching
C. Message switching
D. PSTN

96. It is used to connect computers in the same building or in same area


A. LAN
B. WAN
C. MAN
D. PBX

97. Two or more LAN linked together over a wide geographical area
A. HAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. RAN

98. Which systems allows different types of networks to be linked together?


A. OSI
B. CCITT
C. Bell system
D. AT &T

99. OSI consists of how many layers of interconnection?


A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9

100. Which network layer determine if the user can send or receive based on whether they can send and receive simultaneously or
alternately?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. B. Transport layer
D. Session layer

101. A ___________ that interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers.
A. Bridge
B. Router
C. Gateway
D. Hub

102. A _________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical protocols at the physical data link and network layers
A. Bridge
B. Router
C. Gateway
D. Node

103. A _______ interconnects LAN that has totally different protocols and format
A. Bridge
B. Router
C. Gateway
D. WAN

104. All bits in a character can be sent/receiver simultaneously


A. Serial data
B. Parallel data
C. Full duplex
D. Duplex

105. The bits in a character which are sen/received one at a time


A. Parallel data
B. Serial data
C. Simplex
D. Half duplex

106. A system that perform parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversion of a data link
A. DTE
B. DCE
C. Modem
D. FEP

107. EIA stands for


A. Electronic Institute Association
B. Electronic Industry Association
C. Electronic Improvements Ads
D. Electrical Industrial Association

108. An acoustic modem converts a computer digital signal into


A. Serial form
B. Parallel form
C. Radio tones
D. Audio tones

109. Which mode of transmission achieves les than full-duplex but more than half-duplex?
A. Full /full duplex
B. Echoplex
C. Isochronous
D. Synchronous

110. Rules governing the transmission of digital information


A. Data communications standard
B. Line protocol
C. Isochronous
D. Digital communication

111. Codes must be


A. Eight bits per character
B. Either seven or eight bits per character
C. Agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver
D. The same in all modem computers

112. The standard ASCII


A. Is version II of ASC
B. Has 132 characters including 32 control characters
C. Is subset of a 8-bit EBCDC code
D. Is used only in US and Canada

113. The Baudot code


A. Was invented by the Baudot brothers
B. Required the escape character to print numbers
C. Requires shift characters to provide sufficient combinations
D. A descendant of Morse code

114. The corrections and accuracy of the transmitted message content is


A. Verified by the modem
B. Determined by the sender and the receiver
C. Ensured by the use of digital techniques
D. Dependent on the communications system used

115. Framing is
A. Concerned with the boundaries between characters
B. Referred to parallel-to-serial-conversion
C. Concerned with synchronous system
D. Concerned with individual bits

116. Asynchronous transmission is


A. Is less efficient but simpler
B. Is much faster than synchronous transmission
C. Is another name for synchronous transmission
D. The most sought-after transmission

117. Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog transmission because
A. Repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distortion
B. Digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot easily be distorted
C. Analog signals are continuous and are not easily distorted
D. Digital signals are easier to sample than analog signals

118. Digital to analog converter in synchronous modems send signals to the


A. Modulator
B. Transmission lines
C. Terminal
D. Equalizer

119. Binary codes are transformed in modems into


A. Hexadecimal
B. Hullman code
C. Gray code
D. Octal

120. Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because


A. They are larger
B. They must contain clock recovery circuits
C. They production volume is larger
D. They must operate on a larger bandwidth

121. What is the best type of data communications test equipment?


A. Simulator
B. Protocol analyzer
C. DTE
D. Breakout box
122. What is the data rate of the ISBN basic access B channel?
A. 32 kbps
B. 64 kbps
C. 144 kbps
D. 192 kbps

123. What s the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel?
A. 64 kbps
B. 16 kbps
C. 8 kbps
D. 144 kbps

124. Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol?


A. 9
B. 7
C. 5
D. 8

125. How many bits are there to present 8 combinations?


A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5

126. How much number of equiprobable events is there for 8-bits of information?
A. 256
B. 132
C. 2400
D. 512

127. Which computer terminal can be programmed to perform new functions?


A. Dumb terminal
B. Smart terminal
C. Intelligent terminal
D. Super terminal

128. Which character code is used without parity bit?


A. CCITT number 2
B. ASCCII
C. CCITT number 5
D. EBCDIC

129. Which hardware is used when the host computer and the terminal are in separate locations?
A. LCU
B. FEP
C. Muldem
D. Modem

130. _______ is a data communications hardware that assists the host computer in handling inut and output tasks.
A. Hub
B. Cluster controller
C. Front end processor
D. Concentrator

131. ASCII means


A. Terminals using synchronous transmission in EBCDIC
B. Terminals using synchronous transmission in ASCII
C. Terminals using asynchronous transmission in ASCII
D. Any terminal having and American (dollar-sign) keyboard
132. A unit of information used in data communication
A. Dit
B. Bit
C. Byte
D. Baud

133. Transmission of binary signals requires


A. Less bandwidth than analog
B. More bandwidth than analog
C. The same bandwidth as analog
D. A license from the NTC

134. What is the modulation rate if the CCITT V. 26 modem?


A. 56 kbps
B. 1200 bauds
C. 1560 cps
D. 9600 bauds

135. The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem sends signal to the ___________
A. Modulator
B. Transmission line
C. Terminal
D. Equalizer

136. The number of bits that are zeros in each symbol when one is transmitting odd-partly coded symbols
A. Even
B. Odd
C. Unknown
D. One

137. A digital modulation technique that results in two different frequencies representing 1 and 0
A. FSK
B. QPSK
C. ASK
D. DPSK

138. What is the input to the digital-to-analog converter of a PCM decoder circuit?
A. A series of sampled amplitudes
B. A parallel binary words
C. A series of bits
D. A reconstructed intelligence Signal

139. The output of the DAC at a PCM decoder circuit is a _______


A. Series of binary-coded digits
B. Parallel output of binary-coded digits
C. Fixed analog voltage
D. Reconstructed intelligence signal

140. Serial printer


A. Are used to transmit grain prices
B. Faster than CRT terminals and offers than CRT terminals and offers more flexibility
C. Prints one character at a time
D. Usually uses serial interfaces

141. Delta modulation is a/an


A. 5-bit modulation
B. Integral PCM system
C. 1-bit differential PCM system
D. From of PDM

142. Alternative way of digitizing analog signals


A. PCM
B. Delta modulation
C. PPM
D. DPCM

143. One dit is equal to _______ bits


A. 3
B. 3.5
C. 3.32
D. 4

144. Information theory was developed by ______


A. Shannon
B. Nyquist
C. Reeves
D. Hartley

145. Disadvantage of digital transmission


A. More bandwidth and precise timing are required
B. Requires ADC and DAC device
C. Incompatible with existing analog facilities
D. All of these

146. A quadratic signaling has _____ possible states


A. 16
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32

147. What is the smallest unit of information in binary transmission system?


A. Byte
B. Digit
C. Bit
D. Nibble

148. The lowest layer in the ISO protocol hierarchy


A. Network layer
B. Physical layer
C. Transport layer
D. Data link layer

149. Basic speed rate of digital system


A. 1,44 kbps
B. 144 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 2,048 kbps

150. A formal set of conventions governing the formatting and relative timing of message exchange between two communication system
A. Simplex
B. Tail circuit
C. Queuing
D. Protocol

151. A device that connects 2 data terminal equipment (DTE) directly by emulating the physical connections of a data communications
equipment (DCE)
A. Short haul modem
B. Null modem
C. X.25 device
D. Smart modem

152. Impact printer


A. Receives-only-printer with a keyboard
B. Includes ink-jet and terminal devices
C. Rapidly becoming obsolete
D. Strikes a ribbon against the paper to produce character image

153. Modem is referred to as


A. Universal asynchronous receiver transmitter
B. Universal synchronous receiver transmitter
C. Data terminal equipment
D. Data communications equipment

154. A signaling method relating to a multiplicity of circuits is conveyed over a single channel by labeled messages
A. Code signaling
B. Synchronous
C. Common channel signaling
D. Asynchronous

155. A data highway in LAN, this type of topology allows workstations to be connected to a common line where all message pass
stations on the way to their destination
A. CSMA/CD
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Star

156. A packet format has an error detecting code at


A. The start of the packet framing sequence
B. The destination address
C. The packet number
D. The end of packet framing

157. It is a protocol used to connect the other packet switching network


A. X.75
B. X.25
C. X.50
D. X.10

158. ________ is a network operating system within several buildings in compound


A. Internet
B. Novell Network
C. 10BASE-T
D. Intranet

159. Used by Bell 103/113 series for full duplex, 2 transmission speeds of 0 to 300 bps
A. FSK
B. PSK
C. BPSK
D. ASK

160. What is the Nyquist sample rate for a voice of 10 kHz?


A. 10 kHz
B. 20 kHz
C. 30 kHz
D. 40 kHz

161. What is the minimum number of bits required in PCM code for a range of 10 000?
A. 12
B. 9
C. 14
D. 8
162. How many levels can be represented in PCM transmission system if the binary numbers 00000000 to 11111111 are used to
represent signal levels?
A. 256
B. 54
C. 128
D. 512

163. Channel capacity is directly proportional to


A. Bandwidth
B. Noise
C. Number of bits
D. Power

164. Which does not affect noise in a channel?


A. Bandwidth
B. Temperature
C. Quantizing level
D. Resistance

165. _____ is a character oriented protocol


A. BOP
B. Bisync
C. ETX
D. BCC

166. ______ character signifies the start of the test for Bisync
A. ETX
B. STX
C. SOH
D. BCC

167. In __________ the clock pulse is used to time the sending and receiving of the characters
A. Asynchronous data
B. Synchronous data
C. Bisynchronous data
D. Isochronous data

168. All bits in a character are sent and received in ________ in serial port
A. One at a time
B. Simultaneously
C. In groups of 2 bits
D. In groups of 3 bits

169. Bridge can only interconnect LANs having identical protocols at the _______ layers
A. Session and presentation
B. Network and transport
C. Physical and data link
D. Presentation and session

170. OSI stands for


A. Out-of-band signaling interconnect
B. Organization for system interconnection
C. Open system interconnection
D. Organization system interconnection

171. ISO stands for


A. International system organization
B. International standardization organization
C. Interconnection for system organization
D. International subscribers organization
172. Message switching is ____________
A. Hold and forward
B. Forward
C. Hold
D. Store and forward

173. Packet switching is _______________ network


A. Hold and forward
B. Forward
C. Hold
D. Store and forward

174. Polling is an invention by the primary to secondary equipment to ______ a message


A. Store
B. Receive
C. Transmit
D. Read

175. Bit rate is __________


A. The rate of change at the output of the modulator
B. The rate of change at the input of the modulator
C. The reciprocal of the time of one output signaling element
D. The reciprocal of the time of one input signaling element

176. A code that uses three unequal length symbols, dots, dash, and space to encode a character
A. Gray code
B. Baudot code
C. Morse code
D. Hollerith code

177. A 5-bit character code


A. EBCDIC
B. BAUDOT
C. ASCII
D. HOLLERITH

178. An 8-bit character code


A. EBCDIC
B. BAUDOT
C. ASCII
D. HOLLERITH

179. An equipment that interfaces the data terminal equipment to the analog transmission line
A. Modem
B. Muldem
C. Multiplexer
D. Codec

180. Set of rules governing the orderly exchange of data information


A. CCIR recommendation
B. Protocol
C. CCITT recommendation
D. Standard

181. A communication network designed for transferring of data information


A. Public telephone network (PTN)
B. Public data network (PDN)
C. Value added network (VAN)
D. Packet switching network (PSN)

182. Radio communications between points using a single share frequency


A. Simplex
B. Full duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. Full/full duplex

183. The number of pins in the RS232C interface


A. 20
B. 25
C. 39
D. 30

184. A modem is sometimes referred to as ____


A. Data terminal equipment
B. Data communication equipment
C. Universal asynchronous receiver transmitter
D. Universal synchronous receiver transmitter

185. Provide post equalization to the received analog signal


A. Line equalizers
B. Graphic equalizers
C. Adaptive equalizers
D. Post equalizers

186. The receive equalizer in a synchronous modem is called


A. A compromise equalizer
B. A statistical equalizer
C. An adaptive equalizer
D. An impairment equalizer

187. Compromise equalizer settings typically affect


A. Amplitude only
B. Amplitude delay
C. Delay only
D. Neither amplitude nor delay

188. Training sequence (a bit pattern used to synchronize the receive modem) accomplishes one of the following functions
A. Activate RLSD
B. Enable any echo suppressors in the circuit
C. Initialize the scrambler circuit
D. Deactivate RLSD

189. When asynchronous data are used with synchronous modems this is called
A. Synchronous transmission
B. Isochronous transmission
C. Asynchronous transmission
D. Bisynchronous transmission

190. ___ is defined as a figure of merit used to express the degree of modulation achieved in an FSK modulator
A. Modulation index
B. Modulation ratio
C. Deviation factor
D. H factor

191. What channel in the 103 modem occupies a passband from 300 to 1650 Hz
A. Low-band channel
B. Voice band channel
C. High-band channel
D. Message channel

192. Low speed modems generally have bit rates of


A. 9600 bps
B. 2400 bps
C. 4800 bps
D. Up to 2000 bps

193. Medium speed modems have bit rates of


A. 9600 bps
B. 2400 bps
C. 4800 bps
D. 2400 – 4800 bps

194. High speed modems have bit rates of


A. 9600 bps
B. 2400 bps
C. 4800 bps
D. 2000 bps

195. A means of improving the quality of a private-line circuit by adding amplifiers and equalizers to it
A. Line equalizing
B. Line amplifying
C. Line conditioning
D. Line encoding

196. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband from
A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 MHz
C. 0 to 4 kHz
D. 0 to 4 GHz

197. The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem is called


A. A post equalizer
B. A statistical equalizer
C. An adaptive equalizer
D. A line equalizer

198. The minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN is called


A. Basic voice grade (VG)
B. Basic voice channel (VC)
C. Basic voice band (VB)
D. Basic telephone channel

199. Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is commonly called


A. Private line network
B. PT network
C. Dial-up network
D. Trunk network

200. The line control unit (LCU) operates in the data when it is in digital form and is therefore called
a. data terminal equipment (DTE)
b. data communications equipment (DCE)
c. modem
d. UART

201. With ___________, each character is framed between a start and a stop bit.
a. synchronous data
b. isochronous data
c. asynchronous data
d. nonsynchronous

202. With ____________, rather than frame each character independently with start and stop bits, a unique synchronizing character
called a SYN character is transmitted at the beginning of each message.
a. synchronous data
b. isochronous data
c. asynchronous data
d. nonsynchronous

203. A logic ___________ is used for the start bit.


a. 0 c. 1
b. 0 or 1 d. 0 and 1

204. All stop bits are logic


a. o c. 1
b. 0 or 1 d. 0 and 1

205. ______________ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on a prescribed time slot for the occurrence of a bit.
a. Bit or clock synchronization
b. Modern or carrier synchronization
c. Character synchronization
d. Message synchronization

206. Characters that must be transmitted other than data are called
a. parity c. overhead
b. error d. hamming bits

207. In the United States, the most common CRC code is


a. CRC - 16 c. CRC - 17
b. CRC - 8 d. CRC – 32

208. The generating power polynomial x7 + x5 + x 4 + x2 + x1 + x 0 is equivalent to


a. 101101110
b. 101101111
c. 010010001
d. 10110111

209. Parallel transmission is also called


a. parallel-by-bit
b. serial-by-bit
c. serial-by-character
d. A and C above

210. Data means


a. digital information
b. both digital and analog
c. analog information
d. neither digital nor analog

211. Go-ahead sequence


a. 10111111
b. 00000010
c. 11111110
d. 01111111

212. Used to achieve character synchronization in SDLC


a. Address field
b. Control field
c. Flag field
d. Frame check field

213. A command that places a secondary station in the normal disconnect mode.
a. RD c. DISC
b. DM d. SIM

214. Character oriented protocol


a. Asynchronous
b. SDLC
c. ISO HDLC
d. Synchronous

215. Determines which network configuration is most appropriate


a. Applications
b. Network layer
c. Data link layer
d. Presentation layer

216. A standard that combines previous standards 6159 (E) (unbalanced) and 6256 (E) (balanced) and outlines the class of operation
necessary to establish the link-level protocol
a. ISO 7809
b. ISO 3309
c. ISO 4335
d. ISO 2230

217. Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at


a. 10 Mbps c. 20 Mbps
b. 30 Mbps d. 40 Mbps

218. A type of digital encoding technique used to detect collision in CSMA/CD


a. UPRZ c. UPNRZ
b. BPRZ d. Manchester

219. With ____________, a station monitors the line to determine if the line is busy
a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. Token passing
d. FDDI

220. Describes the mechanism used by a station to gain access to local area network.
a. Channel multiplexing
b. CSMA/CD
c. Channel assessing
d. CSMA/CA

221. Broadband uses


a. TDM
b. Space multiplexing
c. FDM
d. Statistical multiplexing

222. A typical multiplexing scheme used by baseband transmission.


a. TDM
b. Space multiplexing
c. FDM
d. Statistical multiplexing

223. ___________ uses the connecting medium as a single-channel device.


a. Broadband transmission
b. Digital transmission
c. Baseband transmission
d. Analog transmission

224. ____________ uses the connecting medium as a multi-channel device.


a. Broadband transmission
b. Digital transmission
c. Baseband transmission
d. Analog transmission

225. The use of coaxial cables in interconnecting networks is limited to an overall length of approximately
a. 1500 ft c. 1500m
b. 1500 km d. 1500 kft

226. Identifies how the stations are interconnected in a network.


a. topology
b. topology or architecture
c. architecture
d. topology and architecture

227. A data communications network that is designed to provide two-way communications between a large varieties of data
communications terminal equipment within a relatively small geographic area.
a. Private Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Local Area Network
d. Ethernet

228. The type of encoding used in the transmission of data on an ISDN line between a customer’s premises and a carrier’s central office.
a. Quadrature amplitude
b. 2B1Q encoding
c. Manchester
d. UPRZ
229. A mode of transmission in public data network in which data are transferred from source to the network to the destination in an
asynchronous data format.
a. Synchronous mode
b. Packet mode
c. Start/Stop mode
d. Circuit mode

230. IEEE 802.3 standard is


a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. Token passing
d. FDDI

231. IEEE 802.4 standard is


a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. Token passing for bus topology
d. Token passing for ring topology

232. IEEE 802.5 standard is


a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. Token passing for bus topology
d. Token passing for ring topology

233. What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access B channel?
a. 32 kbps c. 144 kbps
b. 64 kbps d. 192 kbps
234. What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel?
a. 644 kbps c. 8 kbps
b. 16 kbps d. 144 kbps

235. What equation defines the composition of an ISDN Basic access line?
a. 2B + D c. B + 2D
b. B + D d. 2B + 2D

236. What is the number of channels on which different operations can occur simultaneously on one ISDN Basic access line?
a. 1 c. 5
b. 2 d. 3

237. Digital telephones and integrated voice-data workstations are examples of what type of ISDN equipment?
a. TE c. NT2
b. TA d. TP

238. How many OSI layers are covered under the X.25 standard?
a. 3 c. 7
b. 4 d. 2

239. An Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer which has the responsibility for the physical transportation of the bits of data from one
end of a point-to-point link to the other.
a. Data link layer
b. Physical layer
c. Network layer
d. Session layer

240. A technique involving signaling by the ends of a link to ensure correct data transfer
a. Collision c. Handshaking
b. Burst d. Stuffing

241. XON/XOFF is
a. seldom used
b. always enabled
c. a method of flow control
d. a data compression function

242. An example of outband signaling is


a. XON/XOFF c. RS-232
b. RTS d. CTS

243. A recommendation which allows a synchronous modern to be used to transmit asynchronous characters without error control.
a. V.14 c. V.22
b. V.13 d. V.23
244. The scrambler in a synchronous modern is found in the
a. modulator section
b. receiver section
c. transmitter section
d. demodulator section

245. A CCITT recommendation which gives the definition for the interchange circuits between DTE’s and DCE’s
a. V.24 c. V.26
b. V.25 d. V.27

246. Binary codes are sometimes transformed in modems into


a. octal codes
b. Huffman codes
c. Gray code
d. Hamming codes

247. A Western Electric 2911 modem operates with a carrier frequency of


a. 1400 Hz c. 1800 Hz
b. 1200 Hz d. 800 Hz

248. A special bit pattern used to denote the start and end of a data link layer frame.
a. EBCDIC c. Fiber
b. Gateway d. Flag

249. A bipolar violation


a. represents a zero bit followed by one bit
b. occurs when two successive pulses have the same polarity and are separated by a zero level
c. Occurs when two successive pulses have the same polarity and are separated by one level
d. Represents as one bit followed by a zero bit

250. What is a flow control?


a. Refers to opening and closing of flood control gates.
b. The process whereby the modem matches the rate of the receiver.
c. The process of starting and stopping the terminal output to avoid loss of characters by the receiving device.
d. The process of switching “on” and “off”

251. Buffering refers to


a. the storage of data within the transmitting modem until the receiver is ready to receive
b. a method of reducing the severity of communications headaches
c. temporarily storing data to allow for small variations in device speed
d. the process of isolating critical stages in a communications system

252. What is the reason why many cables have RS-232 connectors with some wires crossed?
a. RS-232 is the prevalent standard
b. Asynchronous modems reverse the direction of transmitted and received data from the standard
c. Many computers and peripherals us RS-232 serial interface, but not as DTE or DCE
d. These connectors are readily available and cheaper

253. RS-232, RS-530, RS-449, V.21 and V.24 are examples of


a. standards for end-to-end performance of data communications systems
b. standards for interfaces between modems and transmission facilities
c. standards for various types of transmission channel
d. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems

254. Request To Send (RTS) / Clear To Send (CTS)


a. is the way the modem indicates ringing and the way the terminal indicates that it is ready for the call to be answered
b. is the way the DTE indicates that is ready to transmit data or the way the DCE indicates that it is ready to accept data
c. is the pain that represents received transmissions and carrier transmissions
d. is always activated prior to actual transmission/reception

255. Extended command sets supported by modern modems


a. are prefixed with the letter E
b. can be counted on to provide a high-speed data transfer capability with without requiring flow control
c. are standardized
d. use different commands to control many advanced modem treasures

256. Which of the following can be done by a smart modem?


a. Detection and correction of transmission errors
b. Correct answers in multiple choice quizzes
c. Accepts command from the terminal via the RS-232 interface
d. Converts digital signal to analog signal
257. ________________ always have a set of symbols
a. Communications protocol
b. Headers
c. Standards
d. Codes

258. The Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol?
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8

259. Which protocol adjusts its block size based on the line error rate?
a. XMODEM c. ZMODEM
b. YMODEM d. BOP

260. Which of the following is not a common DNA repeater?


a. DESPR c. DEREP-RA
b. DEREP-AA d. DEREP-RB

261. What is the number of bits that are zeros when transmitting odd-parity coded symbols?
a. Odd c. Unknown
b. Even d. Four
262. Standard for the 7-layer model for Open Systems Interconnection.
a. X.75 c. X.400
b. X.200 d. X.500

263. One of the following options is a characteristic of a LAN.


a. Parallel transmission
b. Low cost access for low bandwidth channels
c. Application-independent interfaces
d. Serial transmission

264. Not a common LAN medium


a. Twin lead
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber optic cable
d. Coax

265. Not a local area network (LAN)


a. PBX system
b. Hospital system
c. Office building system
d. Cable TV system

266. CCITT standard concentrating on data communications over the telephone network.
a. V-series c. I-series
b. X-series d. T-series

267. One of the following items cannot be provided in a broadband LAN.


a. Voice circuit
b. Fiber optic transmission
c. CCTV
d. Frequency angle modems

268. A small telephone switching system that can be used as a LAN


a. Ring c. UART
b. WAN d. PBX

269. A LAN architecture that can be expanded to the greatest total system bandwidth
a. Digital PBX
b. Token passing networks
c. Broadband cable system
d. CSMA/CD baseband systems

270. Which is considered as the fastest LAN topology?


a. Ring c. Star
b. Bus d. Square

271. Data communications refers to the transmission of


a. voice
b. video
c. computer data
d. facsimile signal

272. ____________ is a procedure or rule that defines how data is to be transmitted


a. Standard
b. Protocol
c. Data specifications
d. Code

273. Which of the following is a popular PC protocols?


a. Parity c. CRC
b. XMODEM d. LRC

274. What is the most widely used data communications code?


a. Gray c. Baudot
b. EBCDIC d. ASCII

275. The ASCII code has how many bits?


a. 4 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7

276. What methods are used in data communications?


a. Analog method
b. Digital method
c. Both analog and digital methods
d. Neither analog nor digital methods

277. One of the following is not primarily a type of data communications


a. Teletype c. Telegraph
b. Telephone d. CW
278. Mark and space refer respectively to
a. binary 1 and binary 0
b. dot and dash
c. message and interval
d. on and off

279. A modem converts


a. analog signals to digital
b. digital signals to analog
c. both of the above
d. None of the above

280. An I-series recommendation which describe what an ISDN is


a. I.112 c. I.120
b. I.210 d. I.130

281. Slow speed modems use ___________ digital modulation method.


a. BPSK c. QAM
b. QPSK d. FSK

282. When the data signal is transmitted directly over the medium, this is called __________ transmission.
a. baseband c. analog
b. broadband d. digital

283. _____________ is the technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a common medium.
a. baseband c. ring
b. broadband d. bus

284. The causes of bit errors in data transmission


a. Noise
b. Equipment failure
c. Human encoder
d. Poor S/N ratio at the receiver

285. What is the other name for parity?


a. BCC c. VRC
b. LRC d. CRC

286. QAM is the combination of


a. ASK and FSK
b. ASK and QPSK
c. ASK and MSK
d. FSK and PSK
287. A CCITT standard that refers to various aspects of Integrated Serial Digital Network (ISDN).
a. I-series c. X-series
b. V-series d. D-series

288. Which of the following is not a part of QAM modulator?


a. XNOR
b. Bit splitter
c. Balanced modulator
d. 2-to-4 level converter

289. Not a commonly used method of error detection.


a. Parity c. CRC
b. BCC d. Redundancy

290. What is produced by a longitudinal redundancy check (LRC)?


a. Parity bit
b. Block check character (BCC)
c. CRC
d. Hamming code

291. What is the basic modulator/demodulator circuit in PSK?


a. PLLs
b. Balanced modulators
c. Linear summer
d. VCO

292. What is the main reason why serial transmission is preferred over parallel transmission?
a. It is faster
b. It is cheaper
c. It requires multiple channels
d. It requires only a single channel

293. Limitation of 10base-2 network


a. 30 stations per segment
b. 20 bytes per data field
c. 50 feet of cable
d. 40 segments

294. A transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation.


a. Microwave radio
b. Coaxial cable
c. Twisted pair
d. Optical Fiber

295. Which of the following refers to the measurement of an uncertainty?


a. Probability c. Feasibility
b. Entropy d. All of these

296. Not an important characteristic of the physical layer.


a. Electrical c. Logical
b. Mechanical d. All of these

297. The bit rate of B-channel is ___________ kbps.


a. 16 c. 64
b. 8 d. 32

298. Defines a 2400-bps, PSK, half-duplex modem operating at 1200 baud.


a. V.26bis c. V.27
b. V.26terbo d. V.28

299. Which of the following ITU standards describes the interconnection techniques between PDNs and PSTNs?
a. V.100 c. V.300
b. V.200 d. V.400

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