Mock Test Paper

(for Class X Studying Students)

Test-1

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MM : 360
ANTHE Mock Test 2019 Time : 2 Hrs.

(for Class X Studying Students)

Test - 1

SCIENCE
1. For the shown arrangement of identical resistors 4. Calculate the heat generated per second in
connected across a constant voltage supply, the resistor A in the given circuit.
current entering the arrangement, when resistor 2 is 3
removed from the circuit, changes by
A 3

3 3
2
R
1
R 2 16 V
9A
R
64
3 (1) J (2) 16 J
3
1 1
(1) 6 A (2) 3 A (3) J (4) J
16 48
(3) 4.5 A (4) 1 A 5. A bullet of mass 50 g penetrates into a fixed wooden
2. Choose the correct statement among the following. block at speed 50 m/s. It retards uniformly and
(1) Resistivity of a material does not depend on its comes to rest in 0.4 s after penetrating through half
temperature of the thickness of the block. The thickness of the
block is
(2) For resistors connected in parallel, total potential
(1) 20 m (2) 28 m
difference across them is equal to the sum of
potential difference across each resistor (3) 56 m (4) 10 m

(3) When a uniform conducting wire is stretched to 6.
thrice its length, its resistance becomes nine
times
(4) J/s and kWh are the units of same physical quantity
3. Calculate the equivalent resistance between points a
and b, if the resistance of each resistor is r ohm.
The distance(S)-time(t) graph of an object of mass
2 kg moving along a straight line is as shown below.
The net work done on the object in the first four
seconds is
8m

(1) 4r 
S
(2) 2r 
r a
(3)  b 4s
4 t
(1) 16 J (2) Zero
r
(4)  (3) 32 J (4) 8 J
2
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ANTHE Mock Test-2019 (Class X Studying Test-1)

7. A sound wave is shown graphically in the figure 12. The relative density of a body is defined as the ratio
given below. Then of density of the body to the density of
(1) Air at room temperature
(2) Benzene
y (3) Water
Density

0.15 s
(4) Alcohol
13. A ray AB is incident on a convex mirror as shown
Time in figure. If BFC = 140°, the angle of incidence is
(Symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) The time period of the wave is 0.15 s
(2) The frequency of the wave is 5 Hz A
B
(3) The amplitude of the wave is 2y
14
(4) The sound is audible to humans 0°
8. The speed of sound in a given medium depends upon D F C
(1) Its frequency
(2) Its wavelength
(3) Temperature of the medium (1) 35° (2) 20°
(4) Its source (3) 40° (4) 45°
9. If a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slab 14. A person cannot clearly see distance more than
as shown below, then 40 cm. He is advised to use lens of power

75° (1) –0.25 D (2) + 2.5 D

(3) –2.5 D (4) –6.25 D
60°
15. The defect of human eye in which the crystalline lens
becomes milky and cloudy is
i
(1) Cataract (2) Presbyopia
(3) Hypermetropia (4) Myopia
sin75
(1) sin i  (2) sin i  3 (sin75) 16. The isotope of an element 'X' is used in the
3 treatment of goitre. Element 'X' is
sin30
(3) sin i 
(1) Iodine (2) Carbon
(4) sin i  3  sin30 
3
(3) Uranium (4) Cobalt
10. For an object of height 3 cm placed in front of a
17. Burning of coal is an example of
concave mirror of focal length 50 cm, a real image
of magnification 2 is produced. The ratio of image (1) Decomposition reaction
height and the image distance from the mirror is (2) Combination reaction
1 1 (3) Displacement reaction
(1) (2)
25 50
(4) Double displacement reaction
2 2
(3) (4) 18. The atomicities of argon, chlorine and phosphorus
25 55
respectively are
11. A solid cube of density 3.5 g/cm3 and side length
7 cm is dipped completely into water. Its magnitude (1) 2, 1 and 3 (2) 1, 2 and 4
of apparent weight, when completely immersed in (3) 1, 2 and 3 (4) 0, 2 and 8
water, will be [Take g = 10 m/s2]
3x–2 4x –7
(1) Greater than 12.005 N
19. If xA and 2x – 4 B are the isobars then the atomic
number of A and its valency respectively are
(2) Less than 12.005 N
(3) Equal to 12.005 N (1) 10 and 0 (2) 11 and 1
(4) 35 N (3) 5 and 3 (4) 4 and 2

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(Class X Studying Test-1) ANTHE Mock Test-2019

20. The ratio (by mass) of the metal to the oxygen 27. Which of the following elements will not produce
present in one molecule of magnesium oxide is metal hydroxide on reaction with water?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 4 a. K b. Fe
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 3 c. Na d. Ca
21. If the numerical value of one mole is equal to the (1) a and b
total number of electrons present in one molecule of (2) b and d
carbon dioxide then the total number of molecules
(3) Only b
present in 0.1 mole of oxygen gas is
(4) Only d
(1) 4.4 (2) 2.2
28. Brass is an alloy of two metals X and Y. X is present
(3) 6.022 × 1022 (4) 6.022 × 1023
in activity series above Y. Y reacts with oxygen to
22. The total number of protons present in a molecule of form a black coloured oxide Z. Z is
baking soda is
(1) Iron (II) oxide
(1) 42 (2) 32 (2) Copper (II) oxide
(3) 38 (4) 48 (3) Tin (II) oxide
23. Which of the following statements is not correct as (4) Iron (III) oxide
per the Dalton's atomic theory?
29. Which of the following is the main constituent of the
(1) All matter is made of very tiny particles called hardest substance present in human body?
atoms
(1) Calcium carbonate
(2) Atoms of a given element are identical in mass
(2) Calcium phosphate
and chemical properties
(3) Calcium phosphide
(3) The relative number and kinds of atoms are
constant in a compound (4) Calcium sulphate

(4) Atoms are divided into protons, neutrons and 30. The gas liberated, at anode during anodising process
electrons of aluminium is

24. Consider the given chemical reaction (1) Nitrogen (2) Chlorine

MnO2 + 4HCl  MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 (3) Oxygen (4) Hydrogen

The substances getting reduced and oxidised 31. Hydra can reproduce asexually by
respectively in the above chemical reaction are (1) Spore formation and fragmentation
(1) Cl2 and MnO2 (2) Fragmentation and fission
(2) MnO2 and HCl (3) Budding and spore formation
(3) MnO2 and Cl2 (4) Regeneration and budding
(4) HCl and MnO2 32. Which of the following organs of human male
reproductive system forms a common passage for
25. Which of the following substances cannot be used
both the sperms and urine?
to neutralise an acid extract?
(1) Ureter (2) Urethra
(1) Suspension of milk of magnesia
(3) Vas deferens (4) Uterus
(2) Baking powder solution
33. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(3) Dock leaf extract
(1) Haemoglobin – Carries carbon dioxide from
(4) Nettle leaf extract lungs to different body parts
26. Four elements A, B, C and D have atomic numbers (2) Plasma – Transports food to all body
11, 12, 13 and 14 respectively. The tendency of the parts
formation of electrovalent bond will be least in
(3) Platelets – Help in clotting of blood
(1) A (2) B
(4) Villi – Increase the surface area for
(3) C (4) D absorption
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ANTHE Mock Test-2019 (Class X Studying Test-1)

39. A zygote develops into a girl child if it is formed by

34.
the fusion of
(1) An egg containing X chromosome and a sperm
I containing Y chromosome
(2) An egg containing X chromosome and a sperm
containing X chromosome
II (3) An egg containing Y chromosome and a sperm
III containing Y chromosome
(4) An egg containing Y chromosome and a sperm
containing X chromosome
If the cells of the endocrine glands I, II and III as 40. On the basis of given diagram, identify incorrect
depicted in the given figure, become inactive then statements regarding A and B and select the correct
which of the following will be affected? option.

I II III Lung capillaries

(1) Menstruation Supply of Iodine B A
cycle oxygen secretion
Left atrium
(2) Iodine Menstruation Insulin
secretion cycle secretion
(3) Growth of the Fat Blood
body Metabolism sugar level
Capillaries in body organs
(4) Thyroxin Heart beats Blood apart from the lungs
synthesis sugar level (1) A – It carries blood towards the heart
35. Placenta in human female contains villi on the B – It carries blood away from the heart
(1) Embryo's side of the tissue (2) A – Blood is under low pressure as compared to
(2) Mother's side of the tissue that in B
(3) Blood spaces of mother's side B – Blood pressure is high as compared to that
in A
(4) Uterine wall
(3) A – It has thin wall
36. Pankhuri, a student of class X, performed an
activity to show that chlorophyll is essential for B – It has thick wall
photosynthesis. While performing the activity, she (4) A – It carries deoxygenated blood
carried out a step of boiling the leaf in alcohol. This B – It carries oxygenated blood
step is done to
41. Proteins Emulsified fats
(1) Make the leaf cells dead
(2) Make the leaf soft A B
(3) Remove starch from the leaf Amino Glycerol +
(4) Remove chlorophyll from the leaf acids Fatty acids
Identify the enzymes A, B and the site where these
37. If the gustatory receptors in a man become
reactions occur.
non-functional then, which of the following functions
would be affected? Enzyme A Enzyme B Site of reactions
(1) Detection of smell (2) Detection of taste (1) Pepsin Amylase Large intestine
(3) Detection of touch (4) Detection of sound
38. By mistake, Mysha applied a hormone to the plant (2) Trypsin Lipase Small intestine
which resulted into wilting of its leaves. The hormone
must be (3) Trypsin Lipase Pancreas
(1) Gibberellin (2) Auxin
(4) Pepsin Trypsin Stomach
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Cytokinin
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(Class X Studying Test-1) ANTHE Mock Test-2019

42. The carbohydrate which serves as the internal Which of the following options should be selected to
energy reserve in our body is check the correctness of the labelled diagram
(1) Glucose (2) Starch prepared by the student?

(3) Glycogen (4) Pyruvate (1)

[B]
43. Which of the following events occur when sucrose is Fore-brain
transferred into phloem tissue?
(I) The energy is released to form ATP.
[A]
(II) The energy is used up from ATP. Medulla
[C]
(III) Osmotic pressure of this tissue increases. Hind-brain
(IV) Osmotic pressure of this tissue decreases. (2)
(1) (I) and (III) (2) (II) and (IV) [A]
Mid-brain
(3) (I) and (IV) (4) (II) and (III)
44. Statement 1 : In plants, shoots show negative
geotropic movement while roots show positive [B]
geotropic movement. [C] Cerebrum
Medulla
Statement 2 : In humans, growth hormone secreting
gland is located at the base of brain. (3)
[C]
Choose the correct option. Fore-brain
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) Both the statements are correct
[A]
(3) Both the statements are incorrect Cerebellum
[B]
(4) If we interchange the underlined words then both Medulla
the statements will become correct
(4)
45. A student was asked to draw a diagram of human [B]
brain and label the parts in it that Fore-brain
(A) Is responsible for precision of voluntary actions.
(B) Controls blood pressure. [C]
(C) Has regions specialised for hearing, smell and [A] Cerebellum
sight. Medulla

MATHEMATICS
46. Which of the following is the common difference of 48. If (0, 5), (2, 6) and (2, 7) are the mid-points of sides
an A.P, whose nth term is (5n + 2)? AB, AC and BC respectively of ABC, then the area
(1) 4 (2) 5 of ABC is

(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) 2 sq. units (2) 3 sq. units

47. HOPE is a parallelogram as shown in the given (3) 1 sq. unit (4) 4 sq. units
figure. The value of y is
H O 5x2 4x 2x 2
x 49. If the polynomials   1 and  x 1
y 2x 9 3 9
3x
have a common zero, then its value is

3 3
42° (1) (2)
5 2
E P
(1) 21° (2) 14° 1
(3) 3 (4)
(3) 35° (4) 27° 9

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ANTHE Mock Test-2019 (Class X Studying Test-1)

50. An A.P consists of 41 terms. If the sum of the three 56. The largest four digit number which when reduced by
terms in the middle is –96 and that of the last three 49, is perfectly divisible by all even natural numbers
is –210, then the sum of first 10 terms of the AP is less than 20, is
equal to (1) 7614 (2) 7506
(1) 10 (2) –10 (3) 5089 (4) 4986
(3) –20 (4) –15 57. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial ax 2 + bx + c is
51. In PQR, AB || QR and area of quadrilateral cube of the other, then the value of the sum of the
AQRB = 42 sq. cm. If PA : AQ = 2 : 3, then cubes of both the zeroes is
ar (PAB) is b3  abc a3  b3
(1) (2)
P 3a3 3abc
a3  3abc 3abc  b 3
A B (3) (4)
b3 a3
58. Which of the following statements is false?
Q R (1) sin2 65° + cos2 65° = 1
56 (2) tan2 67° > 1
(1) 28 sq. cm (2) sq. cm
3 (3) sec2 68° – tan2 68° = 1
(3) 8 sq. cm (4) 33.6 sq. cm 1  tan 45
(4) 2
52. If a solid sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and 1  cot 45
recast in the form of a right circular cone with the 59. In the given figure, BD is an arc with centre O and
base radius being equal to the radius of the sphere, radius OB which intersects the number line at point D
and BA  OD. If AD   17 – x  units, AB = 1 unit
then the height of the cone is

(1) 6 6 cm (2) 24 cm and OA = 4 units, then the value of x is

(3) 32 cm (4) 12 5 cm B

53. For the pair of linear equations,

1 unit
px + qy – 1 = 0
(p 2 + q 2)(qx + py) – 2pq = 0
O A D
The value of x + y is 4 units
(1) 4 (2) 0
pq p2  q 2
(1) (2) (3) 17 (4) 16
p2  q 2 pq
60. The radius of the circle passing through the points
p2  2q pq
(3) (4) (1, 2), (3, –1) and (1, –1) is
p2  q 2 p2  q 2
13
54. Four times the sum of the areas of the two circular (1) 13 units (2) units
faces of a cylinder is equal to the thrice its curved 2
surface area. The total surface area of the cylinder 2
(3) 4 units (4) units
if its height is 4 cm, is 13
(1) 154 cm2 61. The HCF of two numbers is 11 and their LCM is
693. If their difference is 22, then the numbers are
(2) 132 cm2
(1) 110 and 66 (2) 88 and 66
(3) 216 cm2
(3) 99 and 77 (4) 121 and 44
(4) 168 cm2
62. If the heights and radii of both a cylinder and a
hemisphere are equal, then the ratio of their volumes
55. The value of 12  12  12  …  is equal to is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 1 : 2

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(Class X Studying Test-1) ANTHE Mock Test-2019

63. If l – m and m – n are the roots of the quadratic 66. In the given figure, ABC is a triangle, D is the
equation ly 2 – my – n = 0, then the value of mid-point of AC and CE : ED : BC = 2 : 3 : 6. The
 (l  m ) (m  n ) 
2 ratio of BD2 to AB2 equals
  is
 l n  A

m2
(1) D
n2
E
n2
(2)
m2 B C
(1) 24 : 31 (2) 11 : 36
n2
(3)
l2 (3) 13 : 25 (4) 13 : 36
67. If  and  are the zeroes of the polynomial
m2
(4) 2 x2 + mx + n, where n < 0 < m, then which of the
l
following conditions may hold?
64. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) 0 <  < 
If then
(2) 0 <  <  < ||
1  sin 90  cos 90 (3)  < 0 <  < ||
(1) x  x = tan 60°
1  sin 45  cos 45 (4)  <  < 0
1
(2) x tan 45°  cos 60° = x b a
2 68. Let y  a  and x  b  . If x = 5 and y = –3
sin 60°  cot 60° x y
satisfies both the equations, then which of the
(3) tan   2 Value of  lies following is correct?

  (1) a = b (2) a + b = 1
between and
4 3 (3) a – b = 2a (4) a = –2b
(4) a = cos 20° – sin 20° a < 0, b > 0 69. A certain number N when divided by p leaves
and b = cos 75°– sin 75° remainder 13 and when divided by q leaves
remainder 1, where p and q are positive integers. If
1 1 p 5
65. If a  and b  , then the value of  , then the value of p + q is
52 5 2 q 4
a2 + b2 + 2ab is (1) 36 (2) 27
(1) 20 (3) 58 (4) Not unique
(2) 16 70. If 2sin2 = 3(1 – cos ), then the values of  are
(3) 24 (1) 30° and 0° (2) 0° and 60°
(4) 18 (3) 30° and 60° (4) 60° and 90°

MENTAL ABILITY
71. Find the missing term. 72. 14 : 25 :: 42 : 36 :: 22 : 16 :: 35 : ?
11 17 23 31
, , , ,? (1) 16
19 29 37 43
41 37 (2) 27
(1) (2)
47 53
(3) 49
41 37
(3) (4)
53 47 (4) 64

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ANTHE Mock Test-2019 (Class X Studying Test-1)

73. Choose the odd one out from the following: 78. The next figure which will complete the pattern of the
following figures is
Ahmedabad, Raipur, Ranchi, Gangtok
(1) Ahmedabad
(2) Raipur ?
(3) Ranchi
(4) Gangtok
74. If BIRD is coded as 3579, SNAKE as 12480, then
DRAIN is coded as (1)
(1) 94752
(2) 97452
(3) 97425
(4) 97542 (2)

75. Choose the odd one, out of the following options.

(1) 151

(2) 157 (3)

(3) 153

(4) 163

76. The next term of the following pattern is

(4)
11211, 11442, 11693, 11964, 12255, 12566, ?

(1) 12297 79. Figures X and Y have a definite relation between

them. Choose a figure from the options such that
(2) 12897
it has same relation with figure P as figures X and
(3) 12288 Y have.

(4) 12899

77. Total number of closed figures having sides more

?
than 3 but less than 6 in the following figure is
(X) (Y) (P) (Q)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(1) 17
(2) 18
(3) 10 (4)
(4) 15

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(Class X Studying Test-1) ANTHE Mock Test-2019

80. The missing number in the following pattern is

82.
ACTORS ?
5 7 4 12 13 6
8 10 ?

ADVISE BEWSWY
27 38 63

(1) 12 (1) BFMYXK (2) BYFMKX

(2) 14 (3) BFYKXM (4) BFYMXK
(3) 15 83. The '?' is replaced by
(4) 17
81. The water image of the mirror image (with respect to
5 6 2 7 15 4 11 70 7
given mirror AB) of the following figure is
23 50 ?
A
(1) 125 (2) 150
(3) 170 (4) 100
Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.

B In a certain code language 'A' is coded as '1', 'B' as '4',

'M' as '169' and 'U' as '441'.
84. The code for Y and H respectively are
(1) 64 and 625
(1)
(2) 144 and 81
(3) 625 and 64
(4) 625 and 144
85. The code for 'VALUES' will be
(1) 4841144251361
(2)
(2) 484114444125361
(3) 4811444251631
(4) 484114144251361
86. Choose the odd figure, out of the following options.

(3)

(1) (2)

(4)
(3) (4)

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ANTHE Mock Test-2019 (Class X Studying Test-1)

Directions (Q.87 to Q.90): Read the given information 88. What percentage of total electrical energy is
carefully and answer the following questions. produced from renewable sources of energy?
In a report published by NITI Aayog, the sources of energy (1) 6.3 (2) 5.5
used in India for the production of electricity in year 2012
(3) 7.7 (4) 3.9
are shown below :
89. If Hydro is also considered as a renewable form of
Sources of Number of Electrical energy resource, then what will be the new
Energy units in Tera Watt Hour percentage of non-renewable form from which
Coal 708.3 electrical energy is produced?

Gas 115.4 (1) 19.1 (2) 80.9

Nuclear 26.7 (3) 89.1 (4) 89.9

90. If government decides to reduce the contribution of
Hydro 143.8
polluting sources of energy (Coal, Gas and Nuclear)
Renewable 58.6 by 20% keeping the total production of electricity
same and also makes the import contribution NIL by
Imports 4.6
increasing the required contribution of non-polluting
87. Which two sources are mostly used in India for the sources of energy, then the approximate percentage
production of electricity? contribution by non-polluting sources will be

(1) Coal and Gas (2) Hydro and Coal (1) 26 (2) 32
(3) Gas and Hydro (4) Nuclear and Imports (3) 36 (4) 40

‰‰‰

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