Issa

unit 1
Q: Muscular, cardiopulmonary, and metabolic adaptations to exercise are known as

the training effect.
a)True (the correct answer)

b)False
Q:The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant internal body environment

through various processes is called:
a)Body relativity
b)Cerebral equilibrium
c)Homeostasis (the correct answer)
d)Metabolic set point
e)None of the above
Q: BMR stands for:
1)Basic memory retention

2)Bad muscle recovery
3)Bone myofascial release
4)Basal metabolic rate (the correct answer)
5)None of the above
Q:Anabolism and catabolism occur at the same time throughout the body.
1)True (the correct answer)

2)False
Q:Which of the following statements is/are true?
A)A calorie is a unit of heat.

B)One Calorie is the energy required to raise 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
C)The preferred unit in metabolic studies and nutrition labels is the kilocalorie
(kcal).
D)A and B
E)A and C (the correct answer)
Q:The primary (not the 'initial') fuel during endurance exercise is:
A)Liver glycogen
B)Fatty acids (the correct answer)
C)Muscle glycogen
D)Electrolytes
E)None of the above
Q:The molecule used for storing and transferring energy in the body is called:
A)Micronutrients
B)Carbohydrates
C)Carbon dioxide (CO2)
D)Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) (the correct answer)
E)None of the above
Q:The ATP/CP pathway is the primary pathway used for activities lasting two minutes
or greater.
A)True
B)False (the correct answer)
UNIT 2
Q:About 98% of the human body is composed of only six elements: oxygen, carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorous.
A)True (the correct answer)

B)False
Q: The respiratory system is responsible for:
A)Supplying oxygen to the body

B)Eliminating carbon dioxide in the body
C)Helps regulate the body's pH balance
D)A and B
E)A, B, and C (CORRECT ANSWER)
Q: The circulatory system consists of:
A)Lungs, mouth, throat, trachea, and bronchi

B)Mouth esophagus, stomach, and gallbladder
C)Heart, arteries, and veins (the correct answer)
D)All of the above
E)None of the above
Q: The nervous system is made up of the:
A)Peripheral nervous system

B)Central nervous system
C)Proximal nervous system
D)A and B (the correct answer)
E)A and C
Q: Excretion is one function of the digestive system.

B)False
Q: Hormones are classified as:
A)Steroids
B)Amino acid derivatives
C)Peptides
D)All of the above (the correct answer)
E)None of the above
Q: Hemoglobin is an oxygen-transporting protein in red blood cells.

B)False
Q: The main purpose(s) of hormones is/are to:
A)Alter the rate of synthesis of your cellular protein

B)Change the rate of enzyme activity
C)Change the rate of transport of nutrients through the cell wall
E)None of the above
UNIT-3
Q:Tendons connect bone to bone.
A)True
Q:The average human adult skeleton has:
A)80 bones
B)126 bones
C)206 bones (the correct answer)
D)Over 400 bones
E)None of the above
Q:Tendons:
A)Are extensions of muscle fibers

B)Connect bone to bone
C)Connect muscle to bone
D)A and B
Q: The anatomical terms for front and back are:
A)Superior and inferior

B)Proximal and distal
C)Anterior and posterior (the correct answer)
D)Lateral and medial
E)None of the above
Q: Type I muscle fibers are predominantly aerobic.

B)False
Q: Cardiovascular/aerobic exercise results in:
A)Contractile protein adaptation

B)Mitochondrial adaptations (the correct answer)
C)Nuclei capacity adaptations
D)All of the above
E)B and C
Q: Type II muscle fibers are entirely aerobic.
A)True
Q: Muscular hypertrophy is a(n):
A)Increase in muscle fiber size (the correct answer)

B)Decrease in muscle fiber size
C)Increase in the number of muscle fibers
D)Decrease in the number of muscle fibers
E)None of the above
UNIT 4
Q: In a concentric contraction, the muscle lengthens to produce movements.
A)True
Q: Kinesiology is:
A)The science or study of human movement, and the active and passive structures
involved (the correct answer)
B)The science of the morphology or structure of organisms
C)The science concerned with the normal vital processes of animal and vegetable
organisms
D)The science with the action of forces---internal and external---on the living
body
E)None of the above
Q: An isometric contraction is when:
A)A muscle shortens as it contracts

B)A muscle lengthens as it contracts
C)A muscle does not lengthen or shorten as it contracts (the correct answer)
D)A movement is performed using a single, isolated muscle
Q: True synergy occurs when a muscle contracts to stop the secondary action of
another muscle.

B)False
Q: An example of an antagonist muscle is:
A)Biceps during the biceps curl

B)Internal and external obliques during a crunch
C)Triceps during a biceps curl (the correct answer)
D)Pronator teres during pronation
E)None of the above
Q: Adduction is movement of a body part away from the midline of the body.
A)True
Q: An example of flexion is the:
A): Concentric action of a bicep curl (the correct answer)

B)Eccentric action of a bicep curl
C)Lateral movement of a jumping jack
D)Medial movement of a jumping jack
E(None of the above
Q: Flexion mainly occurs in which plane?
A)Frontal plane
B)Sagittal plane (the correct answer)
C)Orbital plane
D)Transverse plane
E)None of the above
UNIT 5
Q:Newton's second law of motion deals with force and its relationship to mass and
acceleration.

B)False
Q: Biomechanics is the study of:
A)Body structure
B)How our body functions
C)Movement (the correct answer)
D)The normal vital process of organisms
E)None of the above
Q: Muscular force is broken down into the components of:
A)Magnitude
B)Direction
C)Point of application
D)Line of action
E)All of the above (the correct answer)
Q: Inertia can be categorized as:
A)Resting inertia
B)Moving inertia
C)Dynamic inertia
E)A and C
Q: A first-class lever is similar to a seesaw.

B)False
Q: The ability to perceive your position and movement of the body or limbs in
space is known as:
A)Tonus
B)Perception
C)Kinesthesis (the correct answer)
D)Hand-eye coordination
E)None of the above
Q: A second-class lever is similar to a wheelbarrow.

B)False
Q: The faster the work is done during a movement, the lesser the amount of power.
A)True
UNIT 6
Q: Posture is solely viewed in static positions, such as sitting, standing, or

lying down.
A)True
Q: "Flatback" can be identified by a:
A)Anterior pelvic tilt

B)Posterior pelvic tilt (the correct answer)
C)Lateral pelvic tilt
D)Lateral curvature of the spine
E)None of the above
Q: Excessive lateral curvature of the spinal column is known as:
A)Lordosis
B)Kyphosis
C)Scoliosis (the correct answer)
D)Spondylosis
E)None of the above
Q: Kyphosis is an exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of the spinal column.

B)False
Q: When the superior iliac crest of the pelvis moves forward and downward from the
normal anatomical position, it is known as:
A)Lordosis (the correct answer)

B)Kyphosis
C)Scoliosis
D)Spondylosis
E)None of the above
Q: Intradiscal pressure is up to 11 times greater when seated versus lying down.

B)False
Q: Exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of the spinal column is known as:
A)Lordosis
B)Kyphosis (the correct answer)
C)Scoliosis
D)Spondylosis
E)None of the above
Q: Even though sitting can be unavoidable for many people, it is best to limit time
spent sitting as much as possible, and design your workplace according to correct
ergonomics.

B)False
UNIT 7
Q: The major movements that are possible at the knee joint are adduction and
abduction.
A)True
Q:The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle?
A)Soleus
B)Hamstrings
C)Quadriceps (the correct answer)
D)Gluteus
E)Tensor fasciae latae
Q: The semimembranosus and semitendinosus attach on what side of the knee?
A)Lateral
B)Medial (the correct answer)
C)Anterior
D)Posterior
E)None of the above
Q: The ankle joint is made up of which bone(s)?
A)Tibia
B)Talus
C)Femur
E)B and C
Q: The hamstring muscles are a two-joint muscle that acts at the knee and hip.

B)False
Q: What muscle is located directly beneath the gastrocnemius and has similar
functions to the gastrocnemius?
A)Anterior tibialis
B)Extensor digitorum longus
C)Extensor brevis
D)Soleus (the correct answer)
E)Posterior tibialis
Q: The wrist joint consists of the ends of the radius and ulna bones of the forearm
with the carpal bones of the hand.

B)False
Q: The shoulder girdle is made up of the clavicle and what other bone?
A)Humerus
B)Sternum
C)Scapula (the correct answer)
D)Femur
E)Ulna
UNIT 8
Q: A pronated grip would be palms up.
A)True
Q: Which of the following is a major factor that affects strength?
A)Structural
B)Physiological
C)Psychoneural
D)Environmental
Q: The angle of Q represents:
A)Acceleration
B)Starting strength (the correct answer)
C)Explosive strength
D)Limit strength
E)None of the above
Q: What is a basic grip used in weight training?
A)Supinated
B)Pronated
C)Neutral
Q: A supinated grip would be palms down.
A)True
Q: Dumbbells are an example of what type of training equipment?
A)Constant resistance device (the correct answer)

B)Variable resistance device
C)Accommodating resistance device
D)Static resistance device
E)None of the above
Q: A neutral grip would be thumbs up.

B)False
Q: New trainees should ____ through the sticking point and _____ during the less
strenuous portion of the lifts.
A)Inhale, exhale
B)Exhale, inhale (the correct answer)
C)Hold their breath, exhale
D)Inhale, hold their breath
E)None of the above
UNIT 9
Q: Aerobic means "in the presence of oxygen."

A)(the correct answer)
B)False
Q: Maximum oxygen consumption is also known as:
A)MET max
B)VO2 max (the correct answer)
C)Aerobic training threshold
D)One-repetition maximum (1RM)
E)None of the above
Q: Maximal heart rate is estimated by subtracting your age from:
A)180
B)200
C)220 (the correct answer)
D)100
E)None of the above
Q: For aerobic training, ISSA recommends that individuals train at what percentage
of the maximum heart rate?
A)80% to 100%
B)50% to 70%
C)55% to 85% (the correct answer)
D)40% to 70%
E)None of the above
Q: A watt is a measure of power involving a known force, distance, and time frame.

B)False
Q: A unit of measurement that refers to the relative energy demands of an activity

in comparison to your energy demands in a resting state is known as a:
A)Watt
B)Calorie
C)BMR
D)MET (the correct answer)
E)None of the above
Q: Anaerobic means "in the presence of oxygen."
A)True
Q: Using several modes of training to develop a specific component of fitness is

known as:
a)High-altitude training
b)High-intensity interval training
C)Peripheral heart action training
D)Cross-training (the correct answer)
E)None of the above
UNIT 10
Q: Flexibility is the ability to flex, extend, or circumduct the joints through
their full intended range of motion.

B)False
Q: The Golgi tendon organ, the muscle spindle, and the Pacinian corpuscle make up
the three primary:
A)Inhibitory proprioceptors (the correct answer)

B)Static receptors
C)Regulatory proprioceptors
D)Static proprioceptors
E)Functional receptors
Q: Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers called:
A)Tropin and tropomyosin

B)Actin and tropomyosin
C)Tropin and myosin
D)Actin and myosin (the correct answer)
E)Tropoactin and tropomyosin
Q: Joint range of motion can be assessed with:
A)Goniometer
B)Sit and reach test
C)Shoulder flexibility test
D)Trunk extension test
Q: The muscle spindle detects excessive stretch within the muscle.

B)False
Q: If your goal is to improve range of motion, stretch to the point:
A)Just short of discomfort

B)Of extreme discomfort
C)Of mild or moderate discomfort (the correct answer)
D)Of slight discomfort
E)None of the above
Q: Which of the following is a benefit of a proper warm up and dynamic stretch

prior to exercise?
A)Improved metabolic adjustment to heavy work

B)Greater strength/power output
C)Increased muscle temperature
D)Increased velocity of nerve conduction
Q: This type of stretching facilitates an increase in muscle length through a

maximum isometric contraction of the antagonist:
A)Static stretching
B)Fascial stretching
C)Contract-relax (CR) method
D)Dynamic stretching
E)Contract antagonist-relax (CA) method (the correct answer)
Q: Endomorphs are slim body types.
A)True
Q: Ectomorphs are classified as:
A)Muscular body types

B)Slim or linear body types (the correct answer)
C)Round types
D)None of the above
Q: Body mass index (BMI) is used to assess:
A)overall body composition

B)body fat percentage
C)fitness level
D)relative weight to height ratio and as a predictor of future disease risk (the
correct answer)
E)none of the above
Q: Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) is one method to determine body

composition.

B)False
Q: The body is composed of lean body mass (LBM) and body fat.

B)False
Q: All of the following are methods to assess body composition except:
A)DEXA
B)Body mass index (BMI) (the correct answer)
C)Skinfold thickness
D)Hydrostatic weighing
E)Bioelectrical impedance (BIA)
Q: When taking skinfold measurement readings, only one attempt per site is
recommended for an accurate reading.
A)True
Q: The somatotype system classifies the human body into how many categories?
A)1
B)2
C)3 (the correct answer)
D)4
E)None of the above
UNIT 12
Q: As future ISSA professionals, we must first seek to understand our clients
before we make recommendations.

B)False
Q: The ISSA drawing-in phase is a process which:
A)Insures a high level of client motivation

B)Distinguishes you as a professional
C)Has five stages
E)A and C
Q:Stage One of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
A)Data collection
B)Establishing an integrated training process
C)Establishing yourself as a professional (the correct answer)
D)Guided discovery tour
E)Feeling the water before jumping in
Q: Stage Two of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
A)Data collection (the correct answer)

C)Establishing yourself as a professional
D)Guided discovery tour
Q: Client rapport is a key characteristic in establishing a relationship with your

clients.

B)False
Q: Stage Three of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
A)Data collection
C)Establishing yourself as a professional
D)Guided discovery tour (the correct answer)
Q: Motive is defined as an impulse or physiological need acting as incitement to

action.

B)False
Q: A trainer should facilitate learning by using which sensory channel(s)?
A)Visual
B)Auditory
C)Kinesthetic
E)A and B
UNIT 13
Q: Blood pressure is the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood
vessels.

B)False
Q: GXT is an acronym for:
A)Good exercise time

B)Gradual exercise test
C)Graded exercise test (the correct answer)
D)Guaranteed exercise time
E)None of the above
Q: According to the ISSA and the ACSM, exercise intensity should be at what
percentage of your VO2 max in order to maintain an adequate level of
cardiorespiratory fitness?
A)20% to 60%
B)10% to 50%
C)55% to 85% (the correct answer)
D)75% to 100%
Q: Using the Karvonen method and an exercise intensity of 55% will determine the
heart rate corresponding to what percentage of VO2 max?
A)55% (the correct answer)

B)60%
C)80%
D)85%
E)None of the above
Q: The ISSA recommends that the intensity level of exercise be 85% to 95% of VO2
max.
A)True
Q: Muscular endurance can be assessed by which of the following method(s)?
A)Push-up test
B)Sit-up test
C)Upper body test
D)Lower body test
E)A and B (the correct answer)
Q: The resting level of oxygen consumption is referred to as 1.0 MET.

B)False
Q: According to the Push-up Norms chart, what is the rating of a 38-year-old male
that can perform 24 push-ups?
A)Excellent
B)Good
C)Fair (the correct answer)
D)Poor
E)None of the above
UNIT 14
Q: The principle of individual differences states that the rate and magnitude of
adaptations to training will be limited by our differing genetics.

B)False
Q: Which principle states that in order for gains to continue, the intensity of
the stress imposed must be progressively increased?
A)SAID principle
B)Principle of individual differences
C)Overload principle (the correct answer)
D)Specificity principle
E)GAS principle
Q: Which principle states that we all undergo stress in three stages: the "alarm
stage," the "resistance stage," and the "exhaustion stage?"
A)SAID principle
C)Overload principle
E)GAS principle (the correct answer)
Q: Which principle states that our bodies will physiologically adapt according to
whether we are training aerobically or anaerobically?
A)SAID principle (the correct answer)

C)Overload principle
E)GAS principle
Q: The specificity principle states that we must move from general training to
specific and highly specialized training as it relates to our intended goals.

B)False
Q: HIT is an acronym for:
A)Hard interval training

B)Healthy integrated training
C)High intensity training (the correct answer)
D)Humanly impossible training
E)Hyper-integrated technique
Q: FITT," in terms of the FITT principle, stands for fully integrated training
technique.
A)True
Q: The principles to help you plan your training cycle, arrange your exercises in
each workout, and perform each exercise are known as the:
A)Hatfield principles
B)Kazmeyer principles
C)Weider principles (the correct answer)
D)Platz principles
E)None of the above
UNIT 15
Q: Periodization refers to how a training program is broken down into discreet

time periods called macrocycles, mesocycles, and microcycles.

B)False
Q: The ISSA recommends that an individual performs single-joint movements before

multiple-joint movements.
A)True
Q: What are the three predictable stages of stress in the GAS principle?
A)Alarm, excitement, and fight

B)Shock, compensation, and exhaustion (the correct answer)
C)Anticipation, excitement, and exhaustion
D)Alarm, fight, and flight
E)None of the above
Q: The two most common physiological markers of overtraining are sympathetic

overtraining and parasympathetic overtraining.

B)False
Q: Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining?
A)Decrease in performance
B)Increase in body weight
C)Chronic fatigue
D)All of the above
Q: DOMS stands for:
A)Deadlifts on a machine seated

B)Delayed onset muscle soreness (the correct answer)
C)Double-leg machine squats
D)Downward oblique muscle striation
E)None of the above
Q: The connective tissue damage hypothesis is one of three leading hypothesis of

DOMS.

B)False
Q: Which of the following is one way to avoid overtraining?
A)Little to no movement between sets

B)Decreasing your rest time between workouts
C)Varying your training method using periodization (the correct answer)
D)Increasing exercise intensity
UNIT 16
Q: Maximum power will occur somewhere between 55% and 85% of 1RM.

B)False
Q:If you can perform a maximum of eight repetitions using a certain weight, then
that weight is approximately what percentage of your one-repetition max?
A)55%
B)75%
C)80% (the correct answer)
D)100%
E)None of the above
Q: High repetition resistance training (of 15 or more repetitions):
A)Does not innervate high threshold motor units

B)Innervates high threshold motor units
C)Limits the potential for hypertrophy for type II muscle fibers
D)A and C (the correct answer)
E)B and C
Q: Why do new trainees typically experience a higher rate of strength gains?
A)Neural adaptations (the correct answer)

B)Increased protein intake
C)Overtraining
D)Excess body fat
E)None of the above
Q: Training, using roughly 6 to 12 repetitions, is most effective for achieving

muscular hypertrophy.

B)False
Q: How much rest time is required/recommended between sets (three sets of 8 to 10

at 75% of the 1RM) to maximize serum testosterone levels and growth hormone levels?
A)10 seconds
B)No more than 30 seconds
C)No more than one minute (the correct answer)
D)No more than two minutes
E)Time does not matter
Q: Training at 55% to 65% of 1RM is most effective for muscular endurance.

B)False
Q: Which principle states that motor units are recruited in order according to
their recruitment thresholds and firing rates?
A)Size principle (the correct answer)

B)FITT principle
C)HITT principle
D)Use/disuse principle
E)None of the above
UNIT 17
Q: Good nutrition should be more theoretical and not based on outcomes.
A)True
Q: Which of the following food(s) has the highest nutrient density?
A)Lean beef
B)Spinach (the correct answer)
C)Soda
D)Low fat milk
E)None of the above
Q: Which of the following is a common limiting factor when it comes to achieving

fitness-related goals?
A)Genetics
B)Exercise
C)Mindset
D)Nutrition
Q: What is the best and most effective diet for every individual?
A)Paleo
B)Low carb diet
C)Intermittent fasting
D)Atkins
E)None of the above (the correct answer)
Q: Which factor(s) should you take into account when deciding on a nutrition
strategy?
A)Life demands
B)Work situation
C)Physical activity
D)Culture
Q: Which of the following food labels does not actually tell you much about the
food itself?
A)"organic"
B)"free-range" (the correct answer)
C)"fair-trade certified"
D)"certified organic"
E)none of the above
Q: The body cannot function properly without an adequate presence of key vitamins
and minerals.

B)False
Q: If a food is labeled "organic," it is always safe to assume that the food is

healthy, nourishing, and not processed.
A)True
UNIT 18
Q: : Which of the following represents a "role" that the liver plays in the body?
A)Helps control blood pressure

B)Extracts waste from blood
C)Synthesizes protein from amino acids ingested through food (the correct answer)
D)Removes carbon dioxide (CO2) from the body
E)None of the above
Q: Glucose can be:
A)Used for ATP production

B)Stored as muscle glycogen
C)Excreted to lower pH balance
E)None of the above
Q:Some of the energy in macronutrients are lost through the digestive process.

B)False
Q: Which of the following is an "issue" with the caloric values contained on food
labels?
A)Cost of the food

B)Preparation/method of cooking (the correct answer)
C)Does not specify the type of protein
D)None of the above
E)All the above
Q: Which of the following is not a metabolic pathway involving carbohydrates?
A)Gluconeogenesis
B)Glyconolisthesis (the correct answer)
C)Glycogenolysis
D)Glycolysis
E)None of the above
Q: A summation of all things your body does both actively and passively to burn
calories in a 24 hour period is called:
A)Resting Metabolic Rate

B)Total daily energy expenditure (the correct answer)
C)Basal metabolic rate
D)Metabolic set point
E)A and B
Q: Which factor(s) affects energy balance?
A)Food intake
B)Exercise activity
C)Genetic factors
E)None of the above
Q: When caloric intake is lower than the amount needed to maintain normal function,
RMR increases.
A)True
UNIT 19
Q: Which of the following is not a form of carbohydrates found in the diet?
A)Sugar
B)Insulin (the correct answer)
C)Starch
D)Dietary fiber
E)All of the above
Q: Animal-based fats contain a higher ratio of unsaturated fats than plant-based

oils.
A)True
Q: Which of the following chemical component(s) does protein contain that is not
found in carbohydrates or fats?
A)Carbon
B)Hydrogen
C)Oxygen
D)Nitrogen (the correct answer)
E)None of the above
Q: What is the recommended minimum protein intake for sedentary, generally healthy
individuals?
A)0.8g per pound of body mass

B)1g per pound of body mass
C)0.8g per kilogram of body mass (the correct answer)
D)1g per kilogram of body mass
E)None of the above
Q) Which of the following is an example of a micronutrient?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Insoluble fiber
C)Vitamin C (the correct answer)
D)Omega 3
E)None of the above
Q: While having too little water relative to other solutes is bad, having too much
water can also have severe consequences.

B)False
Q: For most people, drinking approximately two liters of water per day is
sufficient.

B)False
Q: Fish oil is rich in:
A)DHA
B)EPA
C)Omega-36
E)All of the above
UNIT 20
Q: Which of the following is not an appropriate characteristic of a goal?
A)Goals are specific and measurable

B)Goals have a timeline
C)Goals are unrealistic (the correct answer)
D)Goals are written down
E)None of the above
Q: Limiting factors are the choices an individual makes that prevent him/her from
reaching goals.

B)False
Q: For men, what is the average portion size of protein dense foods with each
meal?
A)Half a portion
B)Two portions
C)One palm portion
D)Two palm portions (the correct answer)
E)None of the above
Q: Outcome goals are the steps that you must take to accomplish your behavior
goal.
A)True
Q: Which of the following is not a common limiting factor regarding nutrition?
A)Sugar-sweetened beverages
B)Lack of sleep and recovery
C)Cost of food (the correct answer)
D)Not eating satisfying meals
E)None of the above
Q: Calorie counting is a foolproof method to accurately determine your dietary
needs.
A)True
Q: For women, what is the average portion size of protein-dense foods with each
meal?
A)Half a portion
B)Two portions
C)One palm portion (the correct answer)
D)Two palm portions
E)None of the above
Q: An advanced nutrition technique is to eat according to your body type.

B)False
UNIT 21
Q: The past surgeon general has estimated that close to what percent of our most
dreaded diseases could be prevented with lifestyle changes such as diet and
exercise?
A)50%
C)100%
D)85% (the correct answer)
E)75%
F)None of the above
Q: Most older adults fear losing their independence more than they fear death.

B)False
Q: While exercise may be an option of the young, it is imperative for older adults.

B)False
Q: Dr. DeVries of USC has shown that men and women in their 70s and 80s can
achieve levels of vigor associated with people:
A)5 years younger

B)10 years younger
C)20 years younger
D)25 years younger
E)30 years younger (the correct answer)
Q: What is the approximate guideline duration of a workout program for an older

adult?
A)40 minutes total (20 minutes CV, 20 minutes of resistance training)

B)50 minutes total (20 minutes CV, 30 minutes of resistance training)
C)60 minutes total (30 minutes CV, 30 minutes of resistance training) (the correct
answer)
D)70 minutes total (40 minutes CV, 30 minutes of resistance training)
E)None of the above
Q: What are the recommended strength program guidelines for an older adult?
A)Low intensity with low repetitions

B)Low to moderate intensity with high repetitions (the correct answer)
C)Low to moderate intensity with low repetitions
D)Low intensity with high repetitions
E)Moderate intensity with high repetitions
Q: How frequent should an older adult be trained in conjunction with a

cardiovascular program?
A)Once per week

B)2-3 times per week (the correct answer)
C)3-4 times per week
D)4-5 times per week
E)Every day
Q: Medical doctors may perform what assessment(s) on older adults before clearing
them for exercise?
A)EKG
B)Blood panel
C)Neurological assessment
E)A and B
UNIT 22
Q: The goal of an adaptive fitness session for a client with a disability is

improved fitness, mobility, and self-efficacy.

B)False
Q: Which component(s) should be addressed in a sound APF program?
A)Balance
B)Flexibility
C)Power
D)A and B
E)A, B, and C (the correct answer)
Q: The role of an exercise intervention for chronic conditions in adaptive fitness

is to increase ______________ without exacerbating existing conditions.
A)Inflammation
B)Functional fitness (the correct answer)
C)Limit strength
D)PES
E)None of the above
Q: The goal of an adaptive fitness session for a client with a disability is

improved ______, ______, and ______.
A)Fitness, intelligence, communication
B)Fitness, mobility, self-efficacy (the correct answer)
C)Running, jumping, strength
D)Communication, self-efficacy, self-worth
E)None of the above
Q: What is generally defined as anything that prevents the attainment of one's

goals?
A)Disability
B)Handicap (the correct answer)
C)Impairment
D)All the above
E)None of the above
UNIT 23
Q: Children should be trained like adults.
A)True
Q: Children are natural markets for personal trainers.

B)False
Q: Obesity does not affect our children.
A)True
Q: Neurological factors as opposed to hypertrophic factors are primarily

responsible for strength gains in children.

B)False
Q: : Children ages 5-12:
A)Have a lower tolerance to the demands of exercise

B)Should not perform high-resistance exercises
C)Need repetitions of 10-15 at all times
E)B and C
Q: : How frequently should a youth work out?
A)Once per week

B)2-3 times per week (the correct answer)
C)3-4 times per week
D)At least 5 days per week
E)Every other day regardless of the workout
Q: How many days of rest does a youth need between workouts?

A)No days
B)1-2 days (the correct answer)
C)2-3 days
D)3-4 days
E)At least 5 days
Q: Children are:
A)Not miniature adults

B)Susceptible to heat exhaustion and heat stroke
C)More susceptible to cold injury
D)Particularly vulnerable to Osgood Schlatter's disease
UNIT 24
Q: Hypertension is the medical condition of a chronically elevated level of

arterial blood pressure.

B)False
Q: Smoking has no effect on hypertension.
A)True
Q: Maintaining an appropriate bodyweight can help prevent hypertension.

b)False
Q: Hypertensive individuals should be encouraged to exercise at least _______ times

per week.
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four (the correct answer)
E)None of the above
Q: Individuals with hypertension should moderate their intake of _______?
A)Fruit
B)Salt (the correct answer)
C)Nuts
D)Water
E)None of the above
Q: Statistics indicate that an estimated __________ Americans suffer from a

chronically elevated level of arterial blood pressure, a medical condition known as
hypertension.
A)300,000
B)60,000,000 (the correct answer)
C)1,000,000
D)5,500,000
E)None of the above
Q: The recommended RPE range for individuals with hypertension would be ___ to ___.
A)6 to 7
B)10 to 13 (the correct answer)
C)5 to 8
D)12 to 13
E)None of the above
Q: Regular exercise can have a positive effect on both preventing and treating
chronic high blood pressure.

B)False
UNIT 25
Q: The body of a diabetic does not produce enough insulin or it cannot properly use
the insulin it does make.

B)False
Q: Type II diabetes is known as insulin-dependent diabetes.
A)True
Q: Type I diabetes is known as non-insulin dependent diabetes.
A)True
Q: Type II diabetes is known as non-insulin dependent diabetes.

B)False
Q: Exercise:
A)Lowers blood sugar levels

B)Strengthens your heart
C)Improves circulation
D)Reduces Stress
E)All the above (the correct answer)
Q: Diabetics should be instructed to always carry a form of fast-acting

carbohydrate (e.g., juice, soft drinks, etc.) in case of a hypoglycemic emergency.

B)False
Q: Diabetes increases your likelihood of suffering from:
A)Heart disease
B)Stroke
C)Gangrene
D)Kidney disease
Q: How many Americans die annually from diabetes and its complications?
A)Over a million
B)More than 500,000
C)More than 150,000 (the correct answer)
D)More than 100,000
E)None of the above
UNIT 26
Q: Arthritis refers to a disease that causes pain or stiffness in skeletal joints.

B)False
Q: Heredity is one potential cause of arthritis.

B)False
Q: Osteoarthritis is an age-related condition.

B)False
Q: Swelling in one or more joints is one warning sign of arthritis.

B)False
Q: A disease, which causes pain or stiffness in your skeletal joints, is referred

to as _______.
A)Arthritis (the correct answer)

B)Inflammation
C)Cancer
D)Diabetes
E)None of the above
Q: One major component of an exercise program for arthritis sufferers is ____.
A)Powerlifting
B)Aerobic (the correct answer)
C)Nutrition
D)Meditation
E)None of the above
Q: Individuals with arthritis should exercise at least ___ times per day?
A)1
B)2 (the correct answer)
C)3
D)4
E)None of the above
Q: One of the seven major warning signals for arthritis is _________?
A)Redness in the eyes

B)Dry mouth
C)Pus
D)Lock jaw
E)None of the above (the correct answer)
UNIT 27
Q: Cigarette smoking does not affect coronary heart disease.
A)True
Q: Age and family history are confirmed risk factors for coronary heart disease.

B)False
Q: Age has no relevance to CHD.
A)True
Q: The most serious form of heart disease is coronary heart disease.

B)False
Q: Research has shown that the predominate contributing factor(s) to heart disease
is:
A)Too much saturated fat

B)Too much alcohol
C)Too much smoking
D)Not enough exercise
Q: : High HDL cholesterol increases risk of coronary heart disease.
A)True
Q: Research has shown that the beneficial effect(s) of exercise for hypertensives:
A)Lower blood pressure

B)Normalize kidney function
C)Decrease insulin secretion
D)Increase in high density lipoprotein cholesterol
UNIT 28
Q: Sensible exercise can be a safe and productive undertaking for both a pregnant
woman and her fetus.

B)False
Q: If a pregnant woman did not exercise prior to pregnancy, then it's important to
increase weight-bearing activities to lower the risk of injury.
A)True
Q: : Excessive fatigue, palpitations, and chest pain are reasons to discontinue

exercise for a pregnant woman.

B)False
Q: Pregnant women should avoid prolonged bouts of exercise in what position?
A)Prone
B)Supine (the correct answer)
C)Standing
D)Sitting
E)None of the above
Q: Pregnant women should avoid exercising over ____________ minutes.
A)30 (the correct answer)

B)45
C)60
D)90
E)None of the above
Q: Pregnant women should avoid wearing which type of clothing?
A)Shorts
B)Clothes impermeable to water (the correct answer)
C)Leotards
D)Clothes permeable to water
E)None of the above
Q: Reasons for stopping an exercise routine for a pregnant woman includes which of
the following?
A)Dizziness
B)Severe headaches
C)Excessive fatigue
E)A and C
UNIT 29
Q: The primary method for controlling asthma involves taking drugs: inhaled and
oral.

B)False
Q: : Asthma sufferers should medicate 30 minutes prior to exercise.

B)False
Q: Asthma is a term derived from the Greek word that means "to pant."

B)False
Q: How many Americans are afflicted by asthma?
A)500,000
B)1,000,000
C)25,000,000 (the correct answer)
D)More than 50,000,000
E)None of the above
Q: What triggers asthma?
A)Respiratory infection
B)Exercise
C)Sudden changes in either humidity or temperature
D)Air pollution
Q: In order to help strengthen their lungs, asthmatics should:
A)Perform specific breathing exercises (the correct answer)

B)Train at an increased intensity
C)Breathe through the mouth
D)Spend 5-10 minutes daily in a sauna
E)All of the above
Q: At some time in their life, at least what percent of all Americans will
experience the symptoms of asthma?
A)2%
B)5% (the correct answer)
C)10%
D)20%
E)None of the above
Q: Asthma suffers should do what while exercising?
A)Breathe through the nose

B)Control breathing rate
C)Keep inhaler close by
D)Avoid very intense exercise
UNIT 30
Q: Sports medicine is concerned with the diagnosis, treatment, rehabilitation, and

prevention of athletic injuries, as well as dealing with the enhancement of
athletic performance.
B)False
Q: Sports medicine is restricted only to the medical field.
A)True
Q: Sports medicine also involves athletic trainers, coaches, and personal trainers.

B)False
Q: Normal oral temperature ranges between __________ degrees Fahrenheit.
A)96.8 and 99.3 (the correct answer)

B)102.3 and 103.6
C)68.1 and 75.9
D)90 and 96.8
E)All of the above
Q: : What is cryotherapy?
A)The thermogenic effect of cold water

B)Massage technique utilizing electrostimulation
C)The application of heat to body tissues
D)The application of cold to body tissues (the correct answer)
E)None of the above
Q: : To reduce inflammation in the back, ice should be applied for at least ______
minutes.
A)30
B)15 (the correct answer)
C)45
D)60
E)None of the above
Q: Improper biomechanical motion between two vertebrae is beRICE stands for rest,
ice, compression, and elevation.
True (the correct answer)

Falsest referred to as:
A)Subluxation (the correct answer)

B)Vertebral stiffness
C)Spinal stenosis
D)Spine freeze
E)None of the above
UNIT 31
Q: CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

B)False
Q: The RICE principle helps reduce pain and inflammation.

B)False
Q: : The "A" of the primary survey stands for "airway."

B)False
Q: RICE stands for rest, ice, compression, and elevation.

B)False
Q: The very first thing one should do in an emergency situation is:
A)Open the victim's airway and begin CPR

B)Assess the scene to ensure safety (the correct answer)
C)Call for emergency medical services
D)Determine if the victim has life threatening conditions
E)None of the above
Q: Signs and symptoms of a stroke can include:
A)Difficulty speaking
B)Weakness and numbness, often on one side of the body
C)Loss of bowel control
E)A and B
Q: The Good Samaritan Law states that the helping person cannot be sued for
additional injuries caused during a rescue attempt even if it is less than perfect.

B)False

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unit 1

Q: Muscular, cardiopulmonary, and metabolic adaptations to exercise are known as

a)True (the correct answer)

Q:The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant internal body environment

Q: BMR stands for:

1)Basic memory retention

1)True (the correct answer)

Q:Which of the following statements is/are true?

A)A calorie is a unit of heat.

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: The respiratory system is responsible for:

A)Supplying oxygen to the body

Q: The circulatory system consists of:

A)Lungs, mouth, throat, trachea, and bronchi

Q: The nervous system is made up of the:

A)Peripheral nervous system

Q: Excretion is one function of the digestive system.

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: Hormones are classified as:

Q: Hemoglobin is an oxygen-transporting protein in red blood cells.

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: The main purpose(s) of hormones is/are to:

A)Alter the rate of synthesis of your cellular protein

Q:Tendons connect bone to bone.

Q:The average human adult skeleton has:

A)Are extensions of muscle fibers

Q: The anatomical terms for front and back are:

A)Superior and inferior

Q: Type I muscle fibers are predominantly aerobic.

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: Cardiovascular/aerobic exercise results in:

A)Contractile protein adaptation

Q: Type II muscle fibers are entirely aerobic.

Q: Muscular hypertrophy is a(n):

A)Increase in muscle fiber size (the correct answer)

Q: An isometric contraction is when:

A)A muscle shortens as it contracts

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: An example of an antagonist muscle is:

A)Biceps during the biceps curl

Q: An example of flexion is the:

A): Concentric action of a bicep curl (the correct answer)

Q: Flexion mainly occurs in which plane?

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: Biomechanics is the study of:

Q: Muscular force is broken down into the components of:

Q: Inertia can be categorized as:

Q: A first-class lever is similar to a seesaw.

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: A second-class lever is similar to a wheelbarrow.

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: Posture is solely viewed in static positions, such as sitting, standing, or

Q: "Flatback" can be identified by a:

A)Anterior pelvic tilt

Q: Excessive lateral curvature of the spinal column is known as:

Q: Kyphosis is an exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of the spinal column.

A)True (the correct answer)

A)Lordosis (the correct answer)

Q: Intradiscal pressure is up to 11 times greater when seated versus lying down.

A)True (the correct answer)

Q: Exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of the spinal column is known as:

A)True (the correct answer)

Q:The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle?