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Which of the following IV fluids is prescribed to increase intravascular volume, replace immediate
blood loss volume and increase blood pressure?
(A)5% dextrose in lactated Ringers Solution✔
(B)0.33% sodium chloride (1/3 normal saline)
(C)0.225% sodium chloride (1/4 normal saline)
(D)0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 normal saline)
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4.When performing chest compressions on an adult in CPR, the sternum should be depressed for at least
(A)¾ to 1 inch
(B)½ to ¼ inch
(C)1½ to 2 inches✔
(D)2½ to 3 inches
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8.What is the normal score in Mini Mental status examination?
(A)25–30✔
(B)20–25
(C)15–20
(D)10–15
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18.What do you mean by incidence ?
(A)New cases of any disease✔
(B)Old cases of any disease
(C)Total cases of any disease
(D)All of these
19.IMNCI means
(A)International Maternal Neonatal Child Immunization
(B)Intramuscular–Neonatal Care Initiative
(C)Intramuscular–Neonatal Childhood Illness
(D)Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness✔
21.ORS means
(A)Oral Rehydration Solution✔
(B)Oral Rehydration therapy
(C)Overall Rehydration Solution
(D)Oral Rehydration Syringe
22.The stage of disease cycle in which signs and symptoms are noticed:
(A)Incubation period
(B)Fastigium✔
(C)Defervescence
(D)Defection
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23.Indian Lunacy Act was enacted in the year
(A)1912✔
(B)1985
(C)1987
(D)1992
24.A study that examines data collected in the present:
(A)Non–experimental research
(B)Pre–experimental research
(C)Descriptive research✔
(D)Basic research
25.A nurse is planning care for a postpartum client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hours ago. The client
had a midline episiotomy and has several hemorrhoids. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this
client ?
(A)Acute pain✔
(B)Disturbed body image
(C)Impaired urinary elimination
(D)Risk for imbalanced fluid volume
33.In a patient receiving Total Parentral Nutrition (TPN), which of the signs indicate hyperglycemia ?
(A)Fever, weak pulse & thirst
(B)Nausea, vomiting & oliguria
(C)Sweating, chills and abdominal pain
(D)Weakness, thirst and increased urine output✔
41.A home care nurse visits a pregnant client who has a diagnosis of mild pre–eclampsia. Which
assessment finding indicates a worsening of the pre–eclampsia and the need to notify the physan ?
(A)Urinary output has increased.
(B)Dependent edema has resolved.
(C)Blood pressure reading is at the prenatal baseline.
(D)The client complains of a headache and blurred vision.✔
42.Projective technique is
(A)A method of conducting a study
(B)Indirect measure of data that is unlikely to be obtained✔
(C)A method of research plan
(D)A method of qualitative research
50._______ is characterized by episode of rapid ingestion of large volume of food followed by induced
vomiting.
(A)Bulimia Nervosa✔
(B)Anorexia Nervosa
(C)Binge eating
(D)Obesity
4.A patient suffering with iron deficiency anemia should include the following food items in her diet:
(A)Nuts and milk
(B)Coffee and tea
(C)Cooked oats and fish
(D)Oranges and dark green leafy vegetables
5.Vaccination to be given after completion of 9 th month of birth is
(A)DPT
(B)MMR
(C)BCG
(D)OPV
7.Gluconeogenesis is decreased by
(A)Glucagon
(B)Epinephrine
(C)Glucocorticoids
(D)Insulin
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12._______ refers to the decreased psychoactive effect of drug resulting from repeated exposure.
(A)Dependence
(B)Withdrawal
(C)Tolerance
(D)Harmful use
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18.What should nurse conclude that a client is doing when making up stories to fill in blank spaces of
memory ?
(A)Lying
(B)Denying
(C)Rationalizing
(D)Confabulating
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24.Which method is used to open the airway in a road traffic accident victim ?
(A)Flexed position
(B)Head tilt–chin lift
(C)Jaw thrust maneuver
(D)Modified head tilt–chin lift
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26.Just before beginning blood transfusion, the nurse assesses which priority item ?
(A)Vital Signs
(B)Skin Colour
(C)Urine output
(D)Latest Hematocrit level
27.To diagnose dysthymia, the mood disturbance should last for at least
(A)6 months
(B)1 year
(C)1½ years
(D)2 years
28.An intravenous (IV) site is cool, pale & swollen & the solution is not infusing. Which complication has
occurred ?
(A)Infection
(B)Phlebitis
(C)Infiltration
(D)Thrombosis
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32.A patient requires rapid transfusion of several units of blood. Which device is used to prevent cardiac
dysrhythmias?
(A)Pulse Oximetry
(B)Cardiac monitor
(C)Infusion controller
(D)Blood–warming device
33.EBF is
(A)Effective Breast Feeding
(B)Efficient Breast Feeding
(C)Exclusive Breast Feeding
(D)Exclusive Bottle Feeding
37.Which one of the following conveys the acceptance of the patient exactly as she/he is?
(A)Reducing physical force
(B)Realistic relationship
(C)Use self understanding
(D)Talk with purpose
38.Examples of House fly borne diseases are, except
(A)Diarrhoea
(B)Cholera
(C)Gastroenteritis
(D)Trench fever
40.Tuberculosis is a/an
(A)Water borne disease
(B)Air borne disease
(C)Food borne disease
(D)Arthropod borne disease
41.A plan showing the placement of students in theory and practical area is called
(A)Master rotation plan
(B)Curriculum
(C)Clinical rotation plan
(D)Lesson plan
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49.BFHI means
(A)Breast Feeding Home Initiative
(B)Breast Feeding Hospital Initiative
(C)Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative
(D)Baby Friendly Home Initiative
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Q. 2 The nurse is caring for a client with suspected endometrial cancer. Which
symptom is associated with endometrial cancer?
A. Frothy vaginal discharge
B. Thick, white vaginal discharge
C. Purulent vaginal discharge
D. Watery vaginal discharge
Q. 4 A client with AIDS asks the nurse why he cannot have a pitcher of water left
at his bedside. The nurse should tell the client that:-
A. It would be best for him to drink ice water
B. He should drink several glasses of juice instead
C. It makes it easier to keep a record of his intake
D. He should drink only freshly run water
Q.5 An elderly client is diagnosed with interstitial cystitis. Which finding differentiates
interstitial cystitis from other forms of cystitis?
A. The client is asymptomatic.
B. The urine is free of bacteria.
C. The urine contains blood.
D. Males are affected more often.
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Q.6 The mother of a male child with cystic fibrosis tells the nurse that she hopes
her son’s children won’t have the disease. The nurse is aware that:-
A. There is a 25% chance that his children will have cystic fibrosis.
B. Most of the males with cystic fibrosis are sterile.
C. There is a 50% chance that his children will be carriers.
D. Most males with cystic fibrosis are capable of having children, so genetic
counseling is advised.
Q.8 The mother of a 6-year-old with autistic disorder tells the nurse that her son
has been much more difficult to care for since the birth of his sister. The best
explanation for changes in the child’s behavior is:-
A. The child did not want a sibling.
B. The child was not adequately prepared for the baby’s arrival.
C. The child’s daily routine has been upset by the birth of his sister.
D. The child is just trying to get the parent’s attention.
Q.9 The parents of a child with cystic fibrosis ask what determines the prog-nosis
of the disease. The nurse knows that the greatest determinant of the prognosis is:-
A. The degree of pulmonary involvement
B. The ability to maintain an ideal weight
C. The secretion of lipase by the pancreas
D. The regulation of sodium and chloride excretion
Q.10 The nurse is assessing a client hospitalized with duodenal ulcer. Which
finding should be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. BP 82/60, pulse 120
B. Pulse 68, respirations 24
C. BP 110/88, pulse 56
D. Pulse 82, respiration 16
Q.11. While caring for a client in the second stage of labor, the nurse notices a
pattern of early decelerations. The nurse should:
A. Notify the physician immediately
B. Turn the client on her left side
C. Apply oxygen via a tight face mask
D. Document the finding on the flow sheet
Q.12. The nurse is teaching the client with AIDS regarding needed changes in food
preparation. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse’s
teaching?
A. Adding fresh ground pepper to my food will improve the flavor.
B. Meat should be thoroughly cooked to the proper temperature.
C. Eating cheese and yogurt will prevent AIDS-related diarrhea.
D. It is important to eat four to five servings of fresh fruits and vegetables a day.
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Q.13 The sputum of a client remains positive for the tubercle bacillus even though
the client has been taking isoniazid. The nurse recognizes that the client should
have a negative sputum culture within:
A. 2 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 12 weeks
Q. 15 The mother of a 1-year-old wants to know when she should begin toilettraining
her child. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that sufficient
sphincter control for toilet training is present by:
A. 12–15 months of age
B. 18–24 months of age
C. 26–30 months of age
D. 32–36 months of age
Q.16. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with an ileostomy. The
priority nursing diagnosis is:
A. Fluid volume deficit
B. Alteration in body image
C. Impaired oxygen exchange
D. Alteration in elimination
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Q.19. Following eruption of the primary teeth, the mother can promote chewing by
giving the toddler:
A. Pieces of hot dog
B. Carrot sticks
C. Pieces of cereal
D. Raisins
Q.20 The nurse is infusing total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The primary purpose
for closely monitoring the client’s intake and output is:
A. To determine how quickly the client is metabolizing the solution
B. To determine whether the client’s oral intake is sufficient
C. To detect the development of hypovolemia
D. To decrease the risk of fluid overload
Q. 23. When administering total parenteral nutrition, the nurse should assess the
client for signs of rebound hypoglycemia. The nurse knows that rebound
hypoglycemia occurs when:
A. The infusion rate is too rapid.
B. The infusion is discontinued without tapering.
C. The solution is infused through a peripheral line.
D. The infusion is administered without a filter
Q. 24. A client scheduled for disc surgery tells the nurse that she frequently uses
the herbal supplement kava-kava (piper methysticum). The nurse should notify the
doctor because kava-kava:
A. Increases the effects of anesthesia and post-operative analgesia
B. Eliminates the need for antimicrobial therapy following surgery
C. Increases urinary output, so a urinary catheter will be needed post-operatively
D. Depresses the immune system, so infection is more of a problem
Q. 25 The physician has ordered 50mEq of potassium chloride for a client with a
potassium level of 2.5mEq. The nurse should administer the medication:
A. Slow, continuous IV push over 10 minutes
B. Continuous infusion over 30 minutes
C. Controlled infusion over 5 hours
D. Continuous infusion over 24 hours
Q.26. The nurse reviewing the lab results of a client receiving cyclophosphamide
for Hodgkin’s lymphoma finds the following: WBC 4,200, RBC 3,800,000,
platelets 25,000, and serum creatinine 1.0mg. The nurse recognizes that the
greatest risk for the client at this time is:
A. Overwhelming infection
B. Bleeding
C. Anemia
D. Renal failure
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Q. 27. While administering a chemotherapeutic vesicant, the nurse notes that there
is a lack of blood return from the IV catheter. The nurse should:
A. Stop the medication from infusing
B. Flush the IV catheter with normal saline
C. Apply a tourniquet and call the doctor
D. Continue the IV and assess the site for edema
Q. 28. A client with cervical cancer has a radioactive implant. Which statement
indicates that the client understands the nurse’s teaching regarding radioactive
implants?
A. I won’t be able to have visitors while getting radiation therapy.
B. I will have a urinary catheter while the implant is in place.
C. I can be up to the bedside commode while the implant is in place.
D. I won’t have any side effects from this type of therapy.
Q. 29. The nurse is teaching circumcision care to the mother of a newborn. Which statement indicates
that the mother needs further teaching?
A. I will apply a petroleum gauze to the area with each diaper change.
B. I will clean the area carefully with each diaper change.
C. I can place a heat lamp to the area to speed up the healing process.
D. I should carefully observe the area for signs of infection.
Q. 30 A client admitted for treatment of bacterial pneumonia has an order for intravenous ampicillin.
Which specimen should be obtained prior to administering the medication?
A. Routine urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. Serum electrolytes
D. Sputum for culture and sensitivity
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Q. 31 While obtaining information about the client’s current medication use, the
nurse learns that the client takes ginkgo to improve mental alertness. The nurse
should tell the client to:-
A. Report signs of bruising or bleeding to the doctor
B. Avoid sun exposure while using the herbal
C. Purchase only those brands with FDA approval
D. Increase daily intake of vitamin E
Q. 33 The chart of a client hospitalized for a total hip repair reveals that the client
is colonized with MRSA. The nurse understands that the client:-
A. Will not display symptoms of infection
B. Is less likely to have an infection
C. Can be placed in the room with others
D. Cannot colonize others with MRSA
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Q. 38. A client who uses a respiratory inhaler asks the nurse to explain how he can
know when half his medication is empty so that he can refill his prescription. The
nurse should tell the client to:
A. Shake the inhaler and listen for the contents
B. Drop the inhaler in water to see if it floats
C. Check for a hissing sound as the inhaler is used
D. Press the inhaler and watch for the mist
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Q. 39. The nurse is caring for a client following a right nephrolithotomy. Postoperatively,
the client should be positioned:-
A. On the right side
B. Supine
C. On the left side
D. Prone
40. A client is admitted with sickle cell crises and sequestration. Upon assessing
the client, the nurse would expect to find:
A. Decreased blood pressure
B. Moist mucus membranes
C. Decreased respirations
D. Increased blood pressure
Q. 43. Silver nitrate dressings are applied to the legs of a client with deep partial
thickness burns. The nurse should:
A. Change the dressings once per shift
B. Moisten the dressing with sterile water
C. Change the dressings only when they become soiled
D. Moisten the dressing with normal saline
Q. 46 A client has been receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The
nurse should tell the client to avoid taking:
A. Aspirin
B. Multivitamins
C. Omega 3 fish oils
D. Acetaminophen
Q. 47. The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn’s
disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Q. 48. A client hospitalized with cirrhosis has developed abdominal ascites. The
nurse should provide the client with snacks that provide additional:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Protein
D. Fat
Q. 50. After attending a company picnic, several clients are admitted to the
emergency room with E. coli food poisoning. The most likely source of infection
is:
A. Hamburger
B. Hot dog
C. Potato salad
D. Baked beans