Western Australian Certificate of Education

Semester Two Examination 2014

Question/Answer Booklet

HUMAN
BIOLOGICAL
SCIENCE
Stage 3

Student name: __________________________________

Teacher name: __________________________________

Time allowed for this paper

Reading time before commencing work: ten minutes
Working time for paper: three hours

Materials required/recommended for this paper

To be provided by the supervisor
This Question/Answer Booklet
Multiple-choice Answer Sheet
Two Extended Answer Booklets

To be provided by the candidate

Standard items: pens (blue/black preferred), pencils (including coloured), sharpener,
correction fluid/tape, eraser, ruler, highlighters
Special items: non-programmable calculators approved for use in the WACE examinations

IMPORTANT NOTE TO CANDIDATES

No other items may be taken into the examination room. It is your responsibility to ensure that
you do not have any unauthorised notes or other items of a non-personal nature in the
examination room. If you have any unauthorised material with you, hand it to the supervisor
before reading any further.
Structure of this paper
Number of Number of Suggested Marks Percentage of
Section questions questions to working time available exam
available be answered (minutes)
SECTION ONE:
30 30 40 60 30
Multiple-choice

SECTION TWO:
7 7 90 100 50
Short answer

SECTION THREE:
3 2 50 40 20
Extended answer

100

Instructions to candidates

1. The rules for the conduct of Western Australian external examinations are detailed in the Year
12 Information Handbook 2014. Sitting this examination implies that you agree to abide by these
rules.

2. Answer the questions according to the following instructions.

Section One: Answer all the questions on the separate Multiple-choice Answer Sheet
provided. For each question shade the box to indicate your answer. Use only a blue or black
pen to shade the boxes. If you make a mistake, place a cross through that square, do not erase
or use correction fluid, and shade your new answer. Marks will not be deducted for incorrect
answers. No marks will be given if more than one answer is completed for any question.

Sections Two and Three: Write answers in this Question/Answer Booklet.

3. You must be careful to confine your responses to the specific questions asked and to follow any
instructions that are specific to a particular question.

4. Spare pages are included at the end of this booklet. They can be used for planning your
responses and/or as additional space if required to continue an answer.

 Planning: if you use the spare pages for planning, indicate this clearly at the top of the
page.

 Continuing an answer: if you need to use the space to continue an answer, indicate in the
original answer space where the answer is continued, i.e. give the page number. Fill in
the number of the question(s) that you are continuing to answer at the top of the page.
Section One: Multiple-choice 30% (30 Marks)

This section has 30 questions. Answer all questions on the separate Multiple-choice Answer
Sheet provided. For each question shade the box to indicate your answer. Use only a blue or
black pen to shade the boxes. If you make a mistake, place a cross through that square; do not
erase or use correction fluid, and shade your new answer. Marks will not be deducted for
incorrect answers. No marks will be given if more than one answer is completed for any
question.

Suggested working time: 40 minutes.

________________________________________________________________________

1. All of the following statements about the cell membrane are correct, except one.
Which one is INCORRECT?

a) The cell membrane is selectively permeable, allowing only some substances in and
out of the cell.
b) The cell membrane contains a variety of receptors that respond to substances in
the environment of the cell.
c) A number of proteins embedded in the cell membrane allow the movement of
substances in and out of the cell.
d) The cell membrane is made up of a phospholipid bilayer with a hydrophobic outer
edge.

2. The mode of action of steroid and protein hormones differs. Identify which of the following
is correct in reference to protein hormones.

a) They bind to receptors on the nuclear membrane.

b) They enter target cells and combine with receptors inside the cell.
c) They form a hormone-receptor complex which activates genes.
d) They cause the release of secondary messengers which activate particular enzymes.

3. Tissue engineering requires each of the following except

a) a source of cells to produce structural proteins.

b) a matrix / tissue skeleton.
c) the introduction of genetically modified cells.
d) cells that specialise in communication.

4. A subject was required to exercise for a total of 15 minutes, 5 minutes each time at a
different level of intensity. Their carbon dioxide output at each intensity was measured
every minute. Neither temperature nor humidity were measured at the time. In this
investigation,

a) exercise is the independent variable.

b) carbon dioxide output is the dependent variable.
c) temperature would have had a large effect on the results.
d) humidity was a controlled variable.
5. The movement of your eyes as you read this question and the movement of your hand to
mark off the answer on your answer sheet is controlled by

a) the sympathetic division of your autonomic nervous system.

b) your central nervous system.
c) the autonomic division of your peripheral nervous system.
d) the somatic division of your peripheral nervous system.

Question 6 refers to the diagram below.

6. An image of the cell membrane at one of the various points along this graph is shown
below:

At which position on the graph would this image have been taken?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

7. A stronger stimulus than that shown on the graph would

a) cause the membrane potential at position 2 on the graph to be higher.

b) cause depolarisation to happen faster than that shown in the graph.
c) would cause the change in membrane potential to occur for longer than that shown
in the graph.
d) not cause any difference to the membrane potential shown in the graph.
8. The table below shows the speed of conduction of a nerve impulse along axons from three
different species of animals.

Species Diameter of axon (um) Speed of conduction (m/s)

A 7 1.2
B 150 33
C 15 90

Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Species A has myelinated nerve fibres because it has the smallest values in both
categories in the table.
b) Species B has myelinated nerve fibres because it has the largest diameter of axon.
c) Species C has myelinated nerve fibres because it has the fastest speed of
conduction.
d) Species B and C would both have myelinated nerve fibres.

Questions 9 and 10 refer to the diagram below.

9. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) This is a motor neuron as the nerve impulse is travelling from the cell body to the
axon.
b) Structure A must be the dendrites as the action potential is moving away from the
cell body.
c) This is a bipolar neuron as Structures A and C are at opposite ends of the cell.
d) Structure B is the cell body that controls cell activities.

10. In a reflex arc,

a) Structure B would be found in the grey matter of the spinal cord.

b) Structure A would synapse directly with a motor neuron.
c) Structure C could be found in the skin.
d) this cell would bring nerve impulses away from the central nervous system.
11. The hypothalamus

a) releases ADH and oxytocin into the body’s bloodstream.

b) produces releasing factors that are transported through the infundibulum.
c) affects the function of the anterior pituitary by nerve impulses.
d) controls breathing, body temperature and blood pressure.

12. The cerebellum

a) receives information from the semicircular canals.

b) would allow a person to decide to turn the page of a book.
c) and the cerebrum both initiate nerve impulses.
d) coordinates reflex actions.

13. Compact bone

a) is lined inside by a periosteum.

b) is made up of trabeculae.
c) contains Haversian canals.
d) contains red bone marrow in the diaphysis.

14. Lamellae in bone

a) connect osteocytes together.

b) are the small spaces where osteocytes are found.
c) store sodium and calcium.
d) are concentric rings that provide strength to the bone.

15. Which of the following processes are controlled by negative feedback mechanisms?

a) The composition and control of water and ionic content of urine.

b) The secretion of enzymes, peristalsis and blood supply of the gut when food is
present.
c) The control of carbon dioxide and oxygen levels during exercise.
c) The control of balance, posture and locomotion when running a race.

16. Vasoconstriction

a) causes blood pressure to rise as the blood vessels offer more resistance to blood
flow.
b) causes the heart to decrease cardiac output.
c) decreases blood pressure.
d) reduces the amount of interstitial fluid formed from capillaries.
Question 17 refers to the image below.

17. This person

a) could be suffering from hyperthyroidism if they were also gaining weight.

b) would also be feeling cold, have low blood pressure and protruding eyeballs.
c) may be lacking iodine in their diet and be fatigued.
d) would be suffering from excessive sweating and lethargy.

Questions 18 and 19 refer to the graphs below that show the effects of injecting the
same antigen at different times into the same person.

18. Both graphs demonstrate

a) artificial passive immunity.

b) artificial active immunity.
c) natural passive immunity.
d) natural active immunity.

19. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The second injection results in a secondary immune response.

b) Only the second injection will produce memory cells.
c) The first injection will result in a longer immune response than the second
injection.
d) A third injection of the same antigen would produce the same pattern as that
shown in Graph B.
20. T cells

a) are produced in bone marrow.

b) can mature in the spleen.
c) provide immunity to fungi and parasites.
d) produce antibodies.

21. Which of the following is true of mutations?

a) They can arise spontaneously.

b) They are not necessarily permanent but they can persist through many generations.
c) They are generally disadvantageous; an advantageous mutation is a rare event.
d) Their rate of occurrence cannot be accelerated by environmental factors.

22. The diagram below represents part of a DNA molecule. Which of the following correctly
names the unknown parts?

a) W is thiamine and X is a phosphate.

b) Y is cytosine and Z is a sugar.
c) X is a sugar and Y is cytosine.
d) W is phosphate and Z is sugar.
23. A genetic defect on one gene on chromosome 4 results in a sequence of bases, CAG,
being repeated over 50 times for each affected allele. The greater the number of
repetitions of the CAG codon in the gene, the longer the strand of DNA, and the more
severe the outcome. Eleven people had their two alleles for this gene tested for the
condition using DNA electrophoresis. Their results are shown below:

Which of the following is correct?

a) Individuals 1 and 5 are both badly affected as they have the most repetitions.
b) Individual 11 would be the worst affected in this group.
c) Individuals 2 and 8 would be similarly affected by the condition.
d) There are three affected people in this group.

24. Gene therapy and cell replacement therapy are similar in that they

a) require the use of stem cells.

b) replace faulty cells with cells that function correctly.
c) require a scaffold on which new cells can establish themselves.
d) require the use of vectors to insert the new cells back into the patient.

Use the table below to answer Question 25.

Number of Differences from

Species
Human Cytochrome C
Chimpanzee 0
Rhesus Monkey 1
Rabbit 9
Cow 10

25. Based on the information above, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a) Humans do not share a common ancestor with rabbits.

b) Chimpanzees and humans shared the most recent common ancestor.
b) Cows and humans shared a common ancestor a long time ago.
c) Humans are more closely related to cows than rhesus monkeys.
Question 26 refers to the diagram below of core samples taken from three different
locations:

26. All of the following statements are correct, except one. Which of the following is
INCORRECT?

a) Because these core samples are from different locations, correlation of rock strata
can be used to date the fossils.
b) The principle of superposition would suggest that layer 1 in location A is younger
than layer 2 in that location.
c) The oldest layer is layer 1 in location B.
d) The environment appears to have become less marine and more terrestrial over
time.

Question 27 refers to the image below.

27. The evidence for evolution shown in the image above

a) is of homologous structures as they all have a tail.

b) demonstrates vestigial structures as they all had gill slits at one time in their
development.
c) is comparative anatomy as they have similar body structures.
d) shows how similar their structures were during development.
28. If you were listing items of evidence that support Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution
occurring as a result of variation and natural selection, you would include all of the
following statements, except one. Which one is INCORRECT?

a) In an undisturbed area the number of individuals of an established species remains

fairly constant.
b) Many animal species alive today show exactly the same characteristics as their
ancestors.
c) In a population of humans, other than identical twins, no two individuals are exactly
the same.
d) Small populations show greater differences in allele frequency than the larger
population from where they came.

29. All of the following statements about barriers to gene flow are correct, except one.
Which one is INCORRECT?

a) They include geographical barriers such as oceans and glaciers.

b) They may be religious or socioeconomic in nature.
c) They prevent the process of speciation.
d) They increase the probability of random genetic drift occurring.

30. In rock strata that have not been affected by folding or erosion,

a) fossils in the lowest strata would represent all phyla existing today.
b) the numbers of fossil species would decrease from the top to the bottom layers.
c) you would see that fossils would represent all species that ever existed.
d) the closest relationships would exist between present day organisms and those in
the lower strata.

End of Section One

Section Two: Short answer 50% (100 Marks)

This section has seven questions. Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces
provided.

Suggested working time: 90 minutes.

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Question 31. (13 marks)

a) Explain why hormonal responses are generally long lasting and slow to act. (2 marks)
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b) How can a hormone influence only target cells even though all body cells may actually
receive the hormone? (2 marks)

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c) Suggest one factor that might influence the strength of the hormonal response in a target
cell. (1 mark)

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d) Describe two differences between a hormone and a neurotransmitter. (2 marks)

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e) Hormones may be released as a result of a number of stimuli. Give one specific example of
each of the following mechanisms of hormone release from the pituitary gland. (2 marks)

i. hormonal stimulus
________________________________________________________________________

ii. neural stimulus

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f) Outline the roles of ADH and aldosterone in homoeostatic regulation. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
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g) Endocrine gland dysfunction can occur, this often results in too much or too little of a
given hormone. Complete the table below identifying the effect on body cells of too little
of a particular hormone. (2 marks)

Endocrine gland Hormone Effect of dysfunction on body cells

Thyroid gland Thyroxine

Pancreas Glucagon
Question 32. (10 marks)

A pharmaceutical company enjoyed great success with a drug that increased muscle bulk in
patients suffering diseases of ageing that caused muscle wasting. The drug was administered by
intra-venous injection. The company wished to improve the convenience of their product and
decided to investigate an oral form of the drug.

The pharmaceutical company identified a group of patients in two separate cities. To the patients
in one city they halted intra-venous injections and administered the drug in an oral form whilst the
patients in the other city continued with their normal intra-venous programme. Each group of
patients contained 100 individuals.

Doctors took a small sample of muscle tissue every 3 months over the period of a year. The
amount of protein in each muscle sample was measured and recorded.

A summary of the doctor’s data is presented below. Examine the data presented and answer the
questions that follow.

Muscle Protein (µg/g muscle tissue)

Mode of
3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months
administration

Oral 0.3 0.5 0.6 0.6

Intravenous
0.3 0.5 0.7 0.8
injection

a) i. State the hypothesis for this investigation. (1 mark)

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ii State the independent variable. (1 mark)

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iii. State the dependent variable. (1 mark)

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b) On the grid provided, construct a graph that can be used to represent this data. (4 marks)
*Spare grid at the back of this booklet

c) State the valid conclusion that can be drawn from this investigation. (1 mark)

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d) Explain why it was necessary to include 100 people in each group. (2 marks)

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Question 33. (11 marks)

a) The primate pictured below is a ring-tailed lemur from Perth Zoo. In each box, briefly
describe the general features of all primates: (3 marks)

BRAIN

REPRODUCTION

HANDS

b) In primate evolution, what is meant by the phrase: “olfactory – optical shift”? (1 mark)

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c) Describe the physical evidence that supports the idea of an “olfactory – optical shift” and
state the likely environmental pressure for such a change. (3 marks)

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d) An anthropologist, exploring a cave in Indonesia, discovered amongst charcoal fire remains,
a fossilised hominin skull. She established the skull was that of early Homo neanderthalensis.
The skull can be seen in the diagram below – skull on the left is the fossilised skull, while
the skull on the right is that of a modern human.

i. Describe the process by which these skeletal remains became fossilised. (2 marks)

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ii. Identify and describe two evolutionary changes evident in the skulls shown above
and suggest one reason for each change. (2 marks)

Evolutionary change Reason for change

Question 34. (16 marks)

a) Someone with very low blood pressure will feel faint and may become unconscious. Name
an effector and the subsequent response that would return their blood pressure to
normal. (2 marks)

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b) George loved hiking and would often go walking with very little preparation. One day
whilst out in the forest, a storm blew up and it started to rain. He slipped on the muddy
track and fell down a ravine, badly injuring his leg. Unable to move, and dressed only in
shorts and a T-shirt, he was trapped there overnight until he was found by hikers the next
day.

i. Briefly discuss two of the mechanisms of heat loss that would have contributed to
his hypothermia. (4 marks)

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ii. When George was found the following morning, he complained of feeling
dehydrated. Explain how this situation is corrected by the nervous system.
(3 marks)

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c) The graph below shows blood glucose concentrations for two people over a period of 8
hours. Two and a half hours into the test, both people consumed a quantity of liquid
glucose.

i. Which graph (A or B) indicates a person with diabetes mellitus? Give one reason
for your choice. (2 marks)

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ii. By what mechanism are blood glucose levels normally maintained? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________

iii. Diabetes mellitus can occur in both young and older people, although children
usually require injections of insulin. Describe two symptoms of insulin dependent
children and relate them to the cause of this form of diabetes. (4 marks)

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Question 35. (20 marks)

The diagram below is a schematic showing the events of protein synthesis.

a) Outline the role of the following in the process shown: (3 marks)

DNA helicase ________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Triplet ________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________

ATP ________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________

b) How is messenger RNA different to transfer RNA? (2 marks)

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c) It is estimated that up to 500,000 people in the world are haemophiliacs; their blood fails
to clot due to a mutation in one gene that prevents them from making Factor VIII. The
gene for Factor VIII was identified and then inserted into bacteria using recombinant DNA
technology. These recombinant bacteria are encouraged to reproduce and produce large
amounts of Factor VIII that can save the lives of haemophiliacs.

i. Name two substances that are used in the production of these recombinant
bacteria and explain the role they each play in the process. (4 marks)

________________________________________________________________________
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ii. Until this technique was developed, people relied on Factor VIII taken from the
blood of donors. Describe two advantages of using Factor VIII from a bacterial
source compared to a human source. (2 marks)

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d) i. What type of DNA is usually collected and analysed from ancient fossils? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________

ii. Describe two problems associated with analysing DNA from fossils. (2 marks)
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Question 35 continues on next page

e) The following questions refer to the diagram below.

i. The process shown above is often used to assist with analysing fossil DNA. What
process is this? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________

ii. Label the image above with the following terms, indicating where they would each
play a part in the process: (4 marks)

heating; cooling; primer; Taq polymerase

iii. If this cycle begins with the DNA shown in the image, how many pieces of DNA
would be present after 6 cycles of the process? (1 mark)

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THIS PAGE HAS BEEN LEFT DELIBERATELY BLANK
Question 36. (14 marks)

a) Skin colour varies throughout the world due to the fact that many genes contribute to the
phenotype for each individual.

i. Explain how polygenic inheritance and gene expression can contribute to this
variation seen between individuals. (2 marks)

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ii. Explain why white skin colour is more prevalent, and advantageous, towards the
poles of the Earth. (2 marks)

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b) The importance of epigenetics was first proposed in the 1970s, yet it wasn’t until 2003 that
experiments with agouti mice demonstrated the effect so elegantly. The expression of the
agouti gene gives normally brown mice, yellow coats and a propensity for obesity and
diabetes. When fed a diet of folic acid and B vitamins, pregnant agouti mice (ie. yellow
mice) produced babies that were brown in colour, of normal weight and not prone to
diabetes.

i. What epigenetic process is believed to have occurred here? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________

ii. Explain how this process affected the next generation. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
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iii. Epigenetics is also believed to be the reason why only one member of a pair of
identical twins might develop bipolar disorder, or asthma. Why are identical twins
so useful in the study of epigenetics? (2 marks)

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c) Tay Sachs disease was first identified in 1881 and is now believed to affect about 1 in
500,000 in the world. In the Ashkenazi Jew population in the United States, however, the
frequency of the disease is 1 in 2,500.

i. Give one barrier to gene flow that might have resulted in the frequency of the
disease in the Ashkenazi Jew being so high. (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________

ii. What other factor may have increased the chances of genetic drift in this
population? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________

iii. The same mutation is believed to also cause Tay Sachs in the Cajun population of
Louisiana in the United States. Comment on how this might have occurred.(1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________
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d) Sickle-Cell Anaemia is a disease that is harmful, however, in equatorial Africa the frequency
of the allele responsible for the disease remains relatively high. Explain this phenomenon.
(2 marks)

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Question 37. (16 marks)

The image below shows part of the skeletal and associated muscular systems.

a) i. Name the major type of joint shown at (2 marks)

A _______________________________
B _______________________________

ii. How are these joints different to the sutures in the skull? (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
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b) i. Name the type of muscle shown above (C and D) and give one reason for your
answer. (2 marks)

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ii. Identify the type of control and the division of the peripheral nervous system that is
responsible for control of this type of muscle. (2 marks)

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c) Muscles C and D are said to be antagonistic. What does this mean in terms of their
function? (1 mark)

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d) Refer to the diagram below of the microscopic view of muscle tissue.

i. Identify the following structures: (2 marks)

D _____________________________________
E _____________________________________

ii. Using the image above, complete the following table: (2 marks)
Description during
Muscle component in image Description at rest
contraction

e) Both ligaments and tendons would be found at these joints. Explain how they both act to
stabilise the joint. (2 marks)

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Question 37 continues on next page

f) Artificial joint replacements are often required in older people.

i. Name one disease associated with joint replacements. (1 mark)

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ii. Joint replacements are not the same as the use of bionic limbs. Describe one
situation in which a bionic limb would be more appropriate. (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________
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End of Section Two

THIS PAGE HAS BEEN LEFT DELIBERATELY BLANK
Section Three: Extended answer 20% (40 Marks)

This section contains three (3) questions. You must answer two (2) questions. Write your
answers in the separate Standard Answer Booklet.

Responses could include clearly labelled diagrams with explanatory notes; lists of points with
linking sentences; clearly labelled tables and graphs; and annotated flow diagrams with introductory
notes.

Suggested working time for this section is 50 minutes.

Question 38. (20 marks)

a) Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s are both diseases of the brain. Compare and contrast these
conditions, and suggest reasons why stem cells may be a possible treatment in the future.
(12 marks)

b) Under times of stress, it is important that blood sugar levels are controlled
homeostatically. Explain how blood glucose levels would be controlled during stressful
times. (8 marks)

Question 39. (20 marks)

a) In times of infection, antibodies are produced to maintain homeostasis in the body.

Describe the process by which this occurs and describe how they act to reduce the impact
of the specific pathogen in the body. (12 marks)

b) Aboriginal skeletal remains and numerous artefacts have been excavated from Devil’s Lair
in Western Australia. The fossils were dated at 45,000 years using Carbon 14 dating.
Describe the basis of this absolute dating technique and discuss its limitations. (8 marks)

Question 40. (20 marks)

a) A series of adaptations that provided for erect stance are considered to be an essential
component for later cultural evolution in early hominins. The Australopithecines are
considered to be the first hominins to display these adaptations to erect posture.

Consider the lower limb, including the pelvis. Describe four adaptations to erect posture
that are exhibited by the australopithecines and discuss the advantage they provide.
Comment on their impact on subsequent cultural evolution in the early hominins.
(12 marks)

b) Substances move in and out of a cell using a variety of transport processes. Using the
transport of sodium ions across the cell membrane of a neuron as an example, differentiate
between passive and active transport processes. (8 marks)

End of Questions
Spare grid for Question 32.