ADEL's OET Practice Book

Dr Ahmed Adel
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Practice book
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LISTENING SUB-TEST – QUESTION PAPER
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
OTHER NAMES: Your details and photo will be printed here.
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
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TEST DATE:
CANDIDATE SIGNATURE:
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TIME: APPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES

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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
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DO NOT open this question paper until you are told to do so.
One mark will be granted for each correct answer.
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Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
At the end of the test, you will have two minutes to check your answers.
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At the end of the test, hand in this Question Paper.
DO NOT remove OET material from the test room.

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HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS:

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Part A: Write your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the blanks.
Example: Patient: Ray Sands

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Part B & Part C: Mark your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil.
Example:
A
B
C
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Extract 1: Questions 1-12
You hear a cardiologist talking to Sarah, a patient with a pacemaker. For questions 1-
12, complete the notes with a word or short phrases.
You now have 30 seconds to look at the notes.
Patient: Sarah
Sarah's medical history:
1. Had surgery in _________________________ to correct her heart

problem.
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2. Her parents tried to explain that she had _______________________

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History of surgery and Sarah's memories:

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3. It was __________________________________ after surgery.

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4. Her lips and nails were ________________________________ .

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Patient's exercise and fitness:

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5. She kept ________________ consistently as she was getting older.
6. She used to dance for ________________________ a Week.

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7. She is still _______________________ regularly.

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8. She gets ________________ every now and then.

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Drinking habits and heart condition:
9. She has ________________________ drinks once a week.

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10. Has __________________ chest pain.
11. Noticed ________________________ easily.
12. Her family history of heart diseases is ______________________
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You hear a GP talking to Kevin about his accident. For questions 13-24, complete the
notes with a word or short phrases.
Patient: Kevin
Patient's general medical history, exercise and lifestyle:
13. He is _________________________ years old.

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14. His _____________________ is lower than average.
15. He ___________________ for about 100-150 kilometers a week.

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Family medical history:

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16. His mother is a _____________________ .

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17. His father had a ___________________ .
Kevin's health problems and medical treatment in West Africa:

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18. Had a lot of ____________________ troubles.

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19. Had _____________________ constantly.
20. He received ___________________ medical care .

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Patient's bicycle accident and onset of pain:

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21. Smashed himself on ___________________ .

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22. After the accident they went to the _______________________
23. Pain started after having ________________________
24. Pain appeared after ________________________ level went down.
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Part B
In this part of the test, you will hear six different extracts. In each extract, you will hear
people talking in a different healthcare setting.
For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to
what you hear. You will have time to read each question before you listen. Complete
your answers as you listen.
Now look at question 25.
25. Which of the following information is INCORRECT regarding the patient's

condition?
A – His dose of morphine has been increased

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B – He is on Amoxi-clav
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C – He takes hypertension medication

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26. According to the brief given by the nurse

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A – It took 10 mins of CPR to reach Return Of Pulse
B – On arrival, the patient's O2 sat was 69%

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C – He has a history of parathyroid cancer

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27. According to te extract
A – The patient is 65 years old
B – Her presenting features were suggestive of pneumonia
C – The patient is to be commenced on antibiotics and steroids
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28. According to the extract
A – The patient was diagnosed with lung cancer for the first time in 2009
B – When he arrived to the ER, his PO2 sat was 68%
C – The patient has a history of shortness of breath since one month

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29. Regarding the patient's analgesia

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A – The pain is well controlled

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B – The patient is not allowed to take analgesia anymore

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C – Her last dose of analgesia was 3.30 mg

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A – The patient is diagnosed as a case of stroke

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B – His daughter reported that he was speaking irregularley

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C – The patient is showing non-compliance regarding taking his

antihypertensives
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Part C
In this part of the test, you'll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you'll hear health
professionals talking about aspects of their work.
For questions 31-42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you
hear. Complete your answers as you listen.
Now look at extract one.

You hear an interview with Professor Grobman, who's a Professor of Obstetrics and
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Gynecology.
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.
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31. What does professor Grobman believe to be the problem with induced labor?
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Ⓐ That it inevitably leads to cesarean section.

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Ⓑ That a belief was built on the basis of misunderstanding of certain results.

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Ⓒ That the procedure has not been performed correctly.

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32. The population undergoing induced labor are described as biased because
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Ⓐ There was a greater number of women who underwent induced labor when
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compared with those who did not.
Ⓑ The difference in the gestational age between the two groups.

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Ⓒ They had a medical problem that made inducing labor an indication.
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33. What point does professor Grobman make by comparing induced to spontaneous
labor?
Ⓐ Induced labor is optional.
Ⓑ Induced labor precedes cesarean section.
Ⓒ Spontaneous labor is safer.
34. What is the concern with regard to caesarean delivery truly about?
Ⓐ The patient being experiencing child birth for the first time.
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Ⓑ The patient having co-morbid conditions.

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Ⓒ The bad outcome when it comes to the babies health.

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35. What would professor Grobman like to decrease the rate of?
Ⓐ Cesarean sections.
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Ⓑ Vaginal deliveries.
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Ⓒ Unnecessary interventions.
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36. Women who were randomized to normal vaginal delivery had …………………. outcomes
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when compared to those going through induced labor
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worse.
Ⓑ better.
Ⓒ the same.
Page 9 of 121
You hear an interview with Serge Negus and Kathleen Bainbridge , about Phantom smells.
37. Serge states that he lost his sense of smell as a result of
Ⓐ a fractured skull.
Ⓑ a broken nose.
Ⓒ nerve damage.
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38. Why didn't Serge mind experiencing phantom smells?
Ⓐ The experience wasn't that bad.

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Ⓑ He realized that it is common and could happen to anyone.

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Ⓒ It is untreatable anyway.
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39. What is Serge telling us about the slightly bad smell that he had?
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Ⓐ he couldn't find the place where it is coming from.

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Ⓑ It was unfamiliar to him.

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Ⓒ He would choose never being able to smell again.

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40. According to Kathleen's definition of phantosmia, which of the following is true?
Ⓐ It is always perceived as of something is burning.
Ⓑ The patient is considered to be hallucinating.
Ⓒ It is not a true phenomenon.
41. What does Kathleen say about the study that she participated in?
Ⓐ They used batteries as the source of odour.

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Ⓑ They included a question about phantom smells within the already established survey.
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Ⓒ Over 7000 people reported experiencing phantom smells at least once.

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42. What is the interviewer's opinion regarding the study?

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Ⓐ Its results might be somehow inaccurate.

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Ⓑ It was tested on a small number of subjects.
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Its outcomes were surprisingly predictable.

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Page 11 of 121
LISTENING SUB-TEST – QUESTION PAPER
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
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TEST DATE:
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TIME: APPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES

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DO NOT open this question paper until you are told to do so.
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At the end of the test, you will have two minutes to check your answers.
pr 3

ep

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Part A: Write your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the blanks.
Example: Patient: Ray Sands

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Part B & Part C: Mark your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil.
Example:
A
B
C
Page 12 of 121
You hear Rose, a neonatal intensive care nurse, talking to Peter about his newborn
twin. For questions 1-12, complete the notes with a word or short phrases.
Father's name: Peter
Initial details:
1. Twin babies born ______________________ Weeks early.

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2. Olive is named after _______________________
Olive's current situation:

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3. She is small and does not have a lot of _________________________.

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4. She was taken to a ________________________________ .

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5. She does not have enough ________________ fat to keep her warm.
Nurse's comment regarding the incubator stay:

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6. They will start by giving fluids and a trial for _____________ feed will
be initiated .
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7. She will get out when she can maintain her _____________________ .
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8. No set weight or ________________ .

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History of pregnancy and Olive's condition:
9. They started scan by the ______________________week.

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10. They missed a couple of scans because it was __________________.
11. Olive's placenta contained less ________________________ .
12. Her oxygen saturation is ______________________ which is normal.
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You hear an optometrist talking to Michael, a man with macular degeneration. For
questions 13-24, complete the notes with a word or short phrases.
Patient: Michael
Patient's comments on his eyes and previous optometrist visits:
13. His last visit to the optometrist was ______________________ ago.

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14. He purchased his most recent glasses ____________________ ago.
15. He has difficulty reading printed ____________________________

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books.
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16. In 2006, he noticed _____________________ in reading lines.

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17. Ophthalmologist referred him to a ___________________ specialist.

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18. Specialist noticed ___________________________ in front of retina.

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19. Prescribed lucenitus _____________________ to be taken monthly.
20. He visits specialist every ___________________.

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Patient's treatment and outcomes:

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21. Doctors were ___________________.

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22. He had _______________________ injections.
Optometrist's explanation of Amsler chart:

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23. Most of the time, people do not use it ________________________
24. He needs to ________________________ one eye when using it.
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Part B
In this part of the test, you will hear six different extracts. In each extract, you will hear
people talking in a different healthcare setting.
For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to
what you hear. You will have time to read each question before you listen. Complete
your answers as you listen.
Now look at question 25.
25. Which of the following information is INCORRECT regarding the patient's

condition?
A – He is on amiodarone
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B – Has a wounded right sacrum

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C – His glucose was high, so he received insulin

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26. What is this nurse's opinion regarding the new nurses

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A – They want to be given everything without effort
B – They cannot manage 40 beds effectively

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C – They want to work hard but they do not have the experience
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27. According to te extract
A – The charge nurse had personal problems
B – The new nurse felt respected
C – They were both stressed at work
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28. Regarding the patient's vital data
A – Oxygen saturation is 90%
B – Heart rate is 131 bpm
C – Respiratory rate is 11
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A – Patient's condition is un-usual

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B – The bleeding is resulting from the uterine contraction

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C – The targeted oxygen saturation is 96%

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A – The patient is shocked

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B – The patient had been vomitting blood
C – The patient was started on blood transfusion

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Part C
In this part of the test, you'll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you'll hear health
professionals talking about aspects of their work.
For questions 31-42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you
hear. Complete your answers as you listen.
Now look at extract one.

You hear an interview with Professor John McNeil, who's an expert of preventive medicine.
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31. What important information does professor McNeil point up to regarding the study?
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Ⓐ The increasing number of people taking Aspirin every morning.

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Ⓑ The longer life-span of those administering Aspirin every morning.

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Ⓒ That participants had no history of cerebrovascular events.

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32. What does professor McNeil say regarding the results of the trials concerning the link
between Aspirin and cancer?
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Ⓐ More clinical trials are needed in order to come to an answer.

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Ⓑ The exact effect is not yet confirmed.

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Ⓒ It proves that people who take Aspirin are more liable to die of cancer.
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33. How does professor McNeil describe the course of bleeding as a complication?
Ⓐ Progressive.
Ⓑ Continuous.
Ⓒ Regressive.
34. What aspect of the study is considered important and needs further research?
Ⓐ Effects of Aspirin on the course of some diseases on the long run.

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Ⓑ The fact that people who are overweight might require larger doses.
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Ⓒ The similarity of odds regarding the development of dementia when comparing the
two arms of the study.
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35. The study was conducted over a period of five years to notice if the patient's age is
related to
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Ⓐ The long term complications.
Ⓑ Patients' compliance.
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Ⓒ The influence of Aspirin.

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36. Which of the following reasons does not require daily intake of Aspirin as to professor
McNeil's opinion?
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Ⓐ Upon doctor's advice.
Ⓑ prophylaxis from the occurrence of some diseases.
Ⓒ prophylaxis from the reoccurrence of some diseases.
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You hear an interview with Dr. Miranda Davies-Tuck, who's a perinatal epidemiologist.
37. "planned home-birth" is a choice made by some women upon their
Ⓐ financial status.
Ⓑ personal preference.
Ⓒ previous experience.
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38. Which of the following does not categorize a women as being at high risk?
Ⓐ high birth weighted babies.

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Ⓑ fetal mal-presentations.
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Ⓒ previous elective caesarian section.

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39. In low risk women, The lower rate of morbidity in home delivered babies is a result of
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it being
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well planned.
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performed in a more friendly environment.
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less likely to involve advanced medical equipment.
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40. What does Dr. Davie-Tuck mention as the reason behind the higher mortality rates in
home deliveries of high risk women?
Ⓐ The co-morbid conditions.
Ⓑ The barriers that hinder their transfer to the hospital.
Ⓒ Not yet identified.
41. What is Dr. Davie-Tuck excited about regarding the studies in her country?
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Ⓐ That they are mimicking those from international studies.

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Ⓑ That they are growing in number and effectiveness.

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Ⓒ That it helped a lot in the process of risk assessment.

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42. Which of the following is a method that was used to overcome the barriers involving
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transferring high risk women to the hospital?
Ⓐ Providing more experienced midwives.

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Ⓑ Establishing for a more appropriate midwife-obstetrician interaction.

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Ⓒ Maintaining continuous after-birth follow-up.

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READING SUB-TEST – TEXT BOOKLET: PART A
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
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TEST DATE:
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Page 22 of 121
SARS outbreak 2002-03: Texts
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READING SUB-TEST – QUESTION PAPER: PART A
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
TEST DATE:
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TIME: 15 MINUTES
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DO NOT open this Question Paper or the Text Booklet until you are told to do so.
Write your answers on the spaces provided on this Question Paper.
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You must answer the questions within the 15-minute time limit.
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At the end of the 15 minutes, hand in this Question Paper and the Text Booklet.
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Part A
TIME: 15 minutes
• Look at the four texts, A-D, in the separate Text Booklet.
• For each question, 1-20, look through the texts, A-D, to find the relevant information.
• Write your answers on the spaces provided in this Question Paper.
• Answer all the questions within the 15-minute time limit.
• Your answers should be correctly spelt.
SARS outbreak 2002-2003: Questions
Questions 1-7
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For each question, 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. You may use
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any letter more than once.
In which text can you find information about
1 Importance of data collections in epidemics?

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2 Case fatality ratios in each region?

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3 Adjusted odds ratio of case fatalities?

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4 Psychological symptoms following SARS treatment?
5 Symptoms associated with the infection?

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6 Hong Kong being the second highest regarding number of cases?
7 Modes of spread of the virus?

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Questions 8-14
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Answer each of the questions, 8-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may
include words, numbers or both.
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8 What are the two factors that make an infected person more likely to die?
9 What is the percentage of health-care workers who were infected in Singapore?
10 How do coronaviruses look like under the microscope?
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11 How many people have died around the world in the 2002-2003 SARS outbreak?
12 What is the percentage of people who were below average for measures of general health in 2004
according to the study that took place in Canada ?
13 What variables does the abstract explore the influence of on the CFRs between the three regions?
14 How was the proportion of fatalities to cases in Hong Kong when compared to China?
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Questions 15-20
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Complete each of the sentences, 15-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer
may include words, numbers or both.
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15. Researchers in Canada investigated the psychological and .................................... health of 40 people
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who had been infected with SARS.

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16. SARS which stands for ............................................................syndrome started to affect humans in tlate
2002 and the first half of 2003.
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17. The reasons for the variation in the .............................................. among the three areas were explored.
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18. The ............................................... of an infected person may release droplets containing the virus into
the air.
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19. There were .............................. ....... cases in total worldwide who got infected by the organism.
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20. Symptoms of the disease include headache, ......................................., cough and shortness of breath.
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END OF PART A
THIS QUESTION PAPER WILL BE COLLECTED
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READING SUB-TEST – QUESTION PAPER: PARTS B & C
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
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TEST DATE:
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TIME: 45 MINUTES
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DO NOT open this Question Paper until you are told to do so.
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Mark your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil.
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Example:
A
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B
C
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Part B
In this part of the test, there are six short extracts relating to the work of
health professionals. For questions, 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C)
which you think fits best according to the text.
1. According to the extract:

A- Overall responsibility of the patient is retained by the alternative health
practitioner when the medical practitioner who has performed the procedure
is not there.
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B- The medical practitioner may formally refer the patient to another health
practitioner.
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C- If the medical practitioner is not qualified, responsibility of the patient will

be automatically retained by the alternative practitioner.
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The medical practitioner is responsible for ensuring that any other

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person participating in the patient’s care has appropriate

qualifications, training and experience, and is adequately supervised
as required. When a medical practitioner is assisted by another
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registered health practitioner or assigns an aspect of a procedure or

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patient care to another registered health practitioner, the medical

practitioner retains overall responsibility for the patient. This does
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not apply when the medical practitioner has formally referred the
patient to another registered health practitioner
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2. What is the exact weight that should be entered if the two reading are 70 Kg
and 70.25 Kg?
A- 70 Kg.
B- 70.02 Kg.
C- 70.13 Kg.
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The SECA model 815 floor scale is used to measure weight in this
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component. It has a digital display indicator head fitted at the back

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of the platform with the connecting cable stored in the compartment

underneath the head. The scale is a load cell model with a weighing
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range of 0-136 kilograms (kg). It operates with a standard 9 V alkaline

battery. In order to open the battery compartment, open the battery
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lid underneath the head. Connect the battery terminals, then insert
the battery and close the cover. The reading of the scale is accurate
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to 0.25 kg over the entire weighing range. If two values are displayed
alternately in the 0.25 kg. range, then the exact weight is between
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the two values and the intermediate weight should be entered.

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3. Based on this extract:

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A- Effective post-exposure prophylaxis needs to be accessible when needed.

B- OSHA requires that all employees must be vaccinated against rubella.
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C- Some agencies require that health care employers must be immunized

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against measles.
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A variety of measures is needed for optimal infection control among

employees, both before and during the period of employment. OSHA
mandates that all employees should be immunized against HBV, although the
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risk of HBV infection to endoscopy unit personnel is small. Other agencies and
medical societies have gone further and recommended that health care
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personnel should have documented immunity or be immunized against a

number of other vaccine-preventable diseases. Such vaccinations include
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annual influenza immunizations, measles/ mumps/rubella, varicella (if the

individual has not had chickenpox in the past), tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis,
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and meningococcus. Additionally, a majority of states have immunization laws

for health care workers with which institutions must comply. Last, an effective
and readily accessible employee health service may play a critical role in the
management of after-exposure prophylaxis.
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A- The hospital must provide the employees with the cost of coffee.
B- Employees get 90 mins of unpaid breaks every day.
C- Some of the employees may leave the hospital after 5 PM.
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The Medical Clinic is open 0900h to 1700h, Monday through Friday. Employees
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are expected to be at their work stations logged into their computers when the
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doors open at 0900h. During the 8 hour work day, employees are allowed a
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one hour unpaid lunch break and two paid fifteen minute coffee breaks time
permitting each day. As staff are being paid for their coffee breaks we ask that
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they remain in the clinic and available to help doctors and patients when
required. Scheduling of breaks will be done such as to ensure continuous
service to our patients throughout the day. In the event there are still patients
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in the clinic after 1700h, at least one employee will be required to remain in
the building until all patients have left.
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A- Probation period may take up to three or even four months.
B- Employee get to evaluate his physician lead during his probation period.
C- After the probation period, the employee is permanently employed.
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A new employee is considered to be on probation during the first three

months of employment. During this time, the employee will be able to
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evaluate the job and work environment, and the Clinic Manager(s) and
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Physician Lead(s) (Personnel) will evaluate the suitability of the employee for
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the job. At the end of the probation period if mutually agreeable, permanent
employment will be offered. At the discretion of the Managers this period may
be extended.
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6. The contents of the INS published guidelines include:
A- Inconsistent process measures of quality based on guidelines are sometimes
non-beneficial.
B- Neurosurgical guidelines can be applied in a meaningful way to the majority
of neurosurgical practices.
C- The quality of research determines the evidence base on which guidelines
rest.
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The evidence base on which clinical guidelines rest is determined by the quality
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and applicability of the clinical trials. Because of the profound limitations of

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many prospective, randomized trials in neurosurgery (non-representative

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patient and surgeon selection, cross-overs and non-blinded evaluation of

unclear endpoints) I question whether any neurosurgical guidelines can be
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applied in a meaningful way to the majority of neurosurgical practices. Using

clinical guidelines recommendations as quality indicators and holding
physicians accountable for many, sometimes contradictory, process measures
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of quality based on these guidelines is unlikely to benefit anyone. I believe that

the emphasis on such measures will divert attention from more clinically
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relevant issues, increase the cost and complexities of care, and decrease the
quality of life for our patients.
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Part C
In this part of the test, there are two texts about different aspects of
healthcare. For questions, 7-22, choose the answer (A, B, C or D)
Text1: Why getting motivated is hard

As a trainer, I consider it a personal failure if I am unable to motivate a client to make
important health and lifestyle changes. Sure, there are people who just do not care,
but I can spot them from 100 meters away. I am not talking about them. I am
referring to the clients who really want to lose the weight. They actually do care, but
it just does not happen. They struggle to muster even half the motivation required to
do the work, self-sabotage and eventually feel so defeated that they quit. It hurts to
watch. On the flipside, other clients get in and get the job done. Their sights are set
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and they just plough ahead until mission accomplished. By this point, exercise and
eating healthily are non-negotiable parts of their lifestyle. It is who they have
become.
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So, what separates my clients who achieve their weight loss goals from those who
do not? Is it a difference in brain chemistry? The answer is yes … and no. "There is
a system in your brain that impacts your levels of motivation called the reward
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network" explains Fiona Kumfor, senior research fellow at the University of Sydney's
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Brain and Mind Centre. "That involves two regions: the ventral striatum and parts of
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the pre-frontal cortex," Dr Kumfor says. "Together they're involved in our willingness
to work, our motivation to engage in behaviors, and our willingness to persist in that
effort over time. "Really importantly, it influences our decisions on what's working for
ET 26
us and what's not." Dopamine, a chemical messenger, is the star quarterback in this
reward network — it is released during pleasurable situations, and the ventral
striatum and pre-frontal cortex have receptors that are sensitive to it. An increase in
our dopamine levels to those areas is what gives you that sense of reward,
pr 3
regardless of whether the stimulus is food, sex, exercise, fat loss or winning at Mario
Kart. This dopamine boost is what encourages you to repeat the activity that got you
the reward, so you get can it again. However, here is the kicker: you do not get that
ep
reward rush until after you engage in the behavior.
Getting someone to engage in the behaviour for long enough to value that dopamine
eg
rush in the first place is where I and many other well-meaning health professionals
get stuck. What makes one person see getting healthy as achievable and another
y
person see it as insurmountable is the Nobel Prize-winning question, Dr Kumfor

says, and unfortunately science isn't quite there yet. "But what we do know is that
humans are bad at focusing on distant future and less tangible rewards," she
explains. For example, studies have shown that given the choice between getting
$10 right now and $100 next month, most of us will go for the instant gratification.
That makes sense when you think of it in terms of making massive lifestyle changes:
substantial weight loss seems ages away and might not happen, whereas that
schnitzel and six schooners is tonight and guaranteed delicious.
Page 36 of 121
We're probably better off with setting short-term rewards along the way to the big
one, rather than just focusing on the far off and hard-to-imagine pot of gold at the
end of the rainbow. Maintaining goal-directed motivation behaviour is hard. Instead,
focus on creating habits that will help you along the way, suggests Dr Kumfor. "If
there's a way to harness habit, rather than forcing ourselves to be goal-directed,
that's undoubtedly going to be easier. "So, break it all down into small, manageable,
bite-sized parts." For example, if you are trying to lose weight, have your ducks in a
row well in advance. Schedule in regular times, pre-book and pay for classes, pre-
pack workout gear and have it on-hand if you are exercising after work. Do not go
home first. Train yourself to operate on autopilot so your brain does not get involved.
Otherwise, you will be veering straight onto instant gratification highway, without
stopping off in exercise city.
At the end of the day, in order to do any of that you need to decide whether your goal
is actually worth the effort. There is a complex relationship between how meaningful
a reward is and the amount of effort required to achieve it. You will only make the
fb
sacrifices if your goal is truly important to you. Think of motivation as a spectrum.

Within that, some people will be highly motivated, some moderately and others will
find it really challenging. In addition, motivation can change depending on the person
.co 03
and situation. That is partly due to differences in the way our brains work. Take me
for example, while I do not (usually) have trouble being motivated to exercise, I had
much rather clean the oven than start my statistics assignment that's due in three
m 21
days. This is where intrinsic (internal) motivation can help. Intrinsic motivation is
01
when you are driven to do something purely because you find it enjoyable; it does
not matter if there is a pot of gold at the end. You are choosing to do it, rather than of
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out of obligation. Extrinsic motivation (external), on the other hand, is when you're
driven to do an activity because you're avoiding pain or punishment, you're doing it
for someone else, or feel like it's being forced on you. Sure, it might get you started,
ET 26
but it will not keep you on the wagon for long. "People who are more intrinsically
motivated tend to work at a higher intensity and are more consistent with their
exercise routine," explains exercise physiologist Alex Budlevskis.
pr 3
ep
eg
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Page 37 of 121
Text 2: How to eat more green vegetables
In Australia, less than one in 10 people eat enough vegetables. This is tragic, given high
vegetables intakes are associated with better health, including a lower risk of heart
disease, some cancers, and type 2 diabetes. For every extra 200 grams of vegetables
and fruit eaten each day, there's an 8 per cent reduction in the risk for heart disease, a
16 per cent risk reduction for stroke and a 10 per cent reduction in risk of dying from any
cause, according to research using data from 95 individual studies. When the
researchers drilled deeper into some types of vegetables and fruit, they found that
eating more apples and pears, citrus fruits, cruciferous vegetables (like bok choy,
broccoli, Brussels sprouts, cauliflower, radish, swede, turnip, and watercress), green
leafy vegetables and salads were all associated with a lower risk for heart disease and
death. They also found a lower risk of getting any type of cancer among those with the
fb
highest intakes of green-yellow vegetables such as carrots, corn, pumpkin, zucchini,

green beans and cruciferous vegetables.
.co 03
Across the globe, about 7.8 million deaths are attributed to low intakes of vegetables
and fruit. But in a country like Australia, you'd think it would be easy to eat your greens,
as well as a range of other vegetables. Reasons for not eating them include not liking
the taste, a perceived lack of time or cooking skills, and lack of access to fresh produce.
m 21
These are all barriers to boosting our vegetable intakes — so let's check them out in
01
more detail.
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If you hate vegetables, it could be because you have inherited "super-taster" genes.
About 20 per cent of the population are supertasters and rate cruciferous vegetables as
ET 26
tasting up to 60 per cent more bitter compared to non-tasters, who make up about 30
per cent of the population. What they are "tasting" is a naturally occurring chemical
called glucosinolate that is released more when vegetables are cut, cooked or chewed.
Being a super-taster probably offered a survival advantage in ancient times, because it
pr 3
would have meant you were better able to detect poisonous substances (which tend to
be bitter), and work out which plants were safer to eat and which to avoid. The good
news is that repeated exposure to these bitter tastes means you do learn to like them
ep
over time. If you hang around with others eating lots of vegetables, or if your parents and
household members eat a lot of vegetables, then you will end up eating more too. True
supertasters will like vegetables that are not bitter more, including beans, beetroot,
eg
carrots, corn, eggplant, lettuce, onion, peas, pumpkin and sweet potato.
If vegetables are off your menu because of how they taste, it is worth a rethink on the
y
way you're preparing them. How you cook vegetables can improve their taste and for
super tasters, can mask the bitterness. Try some of these fast and easy tricks at home:
Add a "decoy" flavor. Piperine is the 'hot' taste in black pepper. Adding it, or chilli or
other spices, distracts your taste buds from noticing the bitter taste of vegetables. Mask
the taste by using cheese sauce. Make it fast by dissolving a heaped teaspoon of
cornflour into a half cup of reduced fat milk in a microwave-proof jug. Cook on high for
30 seconds, stir and add a cheese slice broken into pieces, and cook for another 30
seconds. Stir again, cook for another 30 seconds, then stir until the melted cheese is
fully dissolved and the sauce thickens. Cook briefly by stir-frying, microwaving or
steaming, so they're still a bit crunchy.
Page 38 of 121
In some regions of Australia, getting good quality fresh vegetables at a reasonable cost
is a major challenge. Prices of vegetables can be more than double the cost of
supermarkets in cities. This is where modular farms — small indoor farms the size of a
shipping container — could potentially help in terms of access and freshness. A modular
farm can be placed just about anywhere from a busy city to a rural community, with the
caveat that these farms still need water, although the amount is conservative. However,
the power usage is high because they need to run lights 24 hours a day. Another way to
improve your access to a regular supply of vegetables, if distance or affordability is a
concern, is by using canned and frozen varieties. For canned vegetables, choose the
salt-reduced varieties where possible. Frozen vegetables on the other hand, are frozen
within hours of being harvested and can be even "fresher" that what you buy at the
supermarket.
fb
.co 03
m 21
01
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pr 3
ep
eg
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Page 39 of 121
Text 1: Questions 7-14
7. What do we learn in the first paragraph?
Ⓐ Failure to lose weight is mostly due to lack of motivation
Ⓑ Too much care may hinder the ability to lose weight
Ⓒ Acting on your goals is the way to achieve them
Ⓓ Even if you work very hard, you may not achieve your goals for different reasons
fb
.co 03
8. In the second paragraph, the writer uses Fiona Kumfor's words to

m 21
Ⓐ illustrate the routine-reward system loop

01
/O 66
Ⓑ Outline the role of dopamine in the brain

ET 26
Ⓒ Prove that chemical transmitters in the brain are the ones responsible for motivation
pr 3
Ⓓ Inform us that dopamine level is affected by your degree of motivation

ep
eg
9. In the second paragraph, the word The refers to
Ⓐ The brain
y
Ⓑ The reward network
Ⓒ Levels of motivation
Ⓓ The brain's chemistry
Page 40 of 121
10. What is the main point that the writer wants to deliver by mentioning the study in the third
paragraph?
Ⓐ Long-term goals need bigger rewards
Ⓑ Science has not been able to come up with ways to increase dopamine levels in the
brain
Ⓒ Goals that are far in the future are unachievable
Ⓓ Perceptible outcomes drive a greater motivation

fb
.co 03
11. What advice is the writer giving in the fourth paragraph?
Ⓐ Break your goals down

m 21
01
Ⓑ Do not set long-term goals

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Ⓒ Stop your bad habits

ET 26
Ⓓ Do not set goals unless you are prepared

pr 3
ep
12. What idea is emphasized by the phrase 'have your ducks in a row well' in the fourth
paragraph?
eg
Ⓐ Get motivated
y
Ⓑ Force yourself
Ⓒ Organize your thoughts
Ⓓ Be prepared
Page 41 of 121
13. In the fifth paragraph, the writer suggests that intrinsic motivation produces an outcome
which is
Ⓐ Achievable
Ⓑ Durable
Ⓒ Enjoyable
Ⓓ Not forced on you to do

fb
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14. In the final paragraph, Within that refers to

m 21
Ⓐ Challenges
01
/O 66
Ⓑ Motivation
ET 26
Ⓒ People
Ⓓ Spectrum
pr 3
ep
eg
y
Page 42 of 121
15. What do we learn about the consumption of vegetables in the first paragraph?
Ⓐ People who consume 200 grams of green vegetables daily are 0.16 less likely to
develop stroke.
Ⓑ Those whose intake of food involve more vegetables do not suffer from heart diseases.
Ⓒ 90% of people do not eat enough vegetables
Ⓓ High intake of carrots may help protect against cancer.

fb
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16. Drilled deeper in the first paragraph implies that scientists looked into the matter in a
more ……………………… manner.
m 21
01
Ⓐ Frequent
/O 66
Ⓑ Specific
ET 26
Ⓒ Sensational
pr 3
Ⓓ Serious
ep
eg
17. According to the second paragraph, which of the following is mentioned as a reason for
people's decreased intake of vegetables?
y
Ⓐ Not being able to fit it into their schedule
Ⓑ Vegetables being unavailable in the market
Ⓒ Their bad taste
Ⓓ The lack of time to cook
Page 43 of 121
18. Which of the following is mentioned in the third paragraph?
Ⓐ 6 out of 10 of the cruciferous vegetables have a bitter taste
Ⓑ 2 out of 10 people have stronger tasting abilities
Ⓒ 3 out of 10 people do not find cruciferous vegetables to be of a bitter taste
Ⓓ Vegetables which are cut produce more glucosinolate.

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19. It in the third paragraph refers to

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Ⓐ Being able to survive

m 21
01
Ⓑ Being a super-taster
/O 66
Ⓒ Living in ancient times

ET 26
Ⓓ Eating poisonous chemicals

pr 3
ep
20. In the third paragraph, what does the writer consider as a pleasant fact?
Ⓐ Increased tolerance is produced following more frequent exposure.

eg
y
Ⓑ Having a family that eat a lot of vegetables
Ⓒ Eventually, everybody is going to like vegetables
Ⓓ Those with stronger tasting abilities tend to like certain types of vegetables
Page 44 of 121
21. The main aim behind what the writer is saying in the fourth paragraph is
Ⓐ To teach us how to make cheese sauce
Ⓑ To illustrate the effects of spicy food on the taste buds
Ⓒ To question the effectiveness of certain food when used as a method to help people
tolerate the bitter taste of some vegetables
Ⓓ Provide solutions to a problem

fb
22. In the final paragraph, This is where refers to certain

.co 03
Ⓐ Time
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Ⓑ Regions
01
/O 66
Ⓒ Cities
ET 26
Ⓓ Circumstances
pr 3
ep
eg
y
Page 45 of 121
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
fb
TEST DATE:
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m 21
01
/O 66
ET 26
pr 3
ep
eg
y
Page 46 of 121
y
eg
ep
pr 3
Hemorrhoids: Texts
ET 26
Page 47 of 121
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fb 01
y
eg
ep
pr 3
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Page 48 of 121
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fb 01
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
TEST DATE:
fb
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TIME: 15 MINUTES
01
/O 66
ET 26
pr 3
ep

eg
y
Page 49 of 121
Part A
TIME: 15 minutes
Hemorrhoids: Questions
Questions 1-7
fb
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1 Importance of abdominal examination?

m 21
01
2 Indications of surgery in hemorrhoids?

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3 Factors precipitating for blood vessels swelling?

ET 26
4 Role of chemicals injection in treating piles?
5 Ethics of examining a patient with piles?

pr 3
6 Symptoms associated with hemorrhoids?
7 Advantages of ligasure hemorrhoidectomy?

ep
Questions 8-14
eg
y
8 What does ligasure hemorrhoidectomy help reduce when compared with other methods?
9 How do the lumps protruding from the anus look and feel like?
10 What are the dietary habits that should be adopted to reduce the risk of
piles?
Page 50 of 121
11 What is the mean operating time when performing ligasure hemorrhoidectomy?
12 What do surgeons use to snare hemorrhoids?
13 What does abdominal examination help us rule out?
14 What is the color of blood that you may notice on the toilet paper in cases of
complicated piles?
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Questions 15-20
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01
15. .......................... out of every ten people aged over 40 have some degree of hemorrhoidal disease.
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16. Hemorrhoids develop from pads of ........................... around the anal canal.
ET 26
17. An ............................ examination should be done to exclude other possible conditions.
18. ................................. of chemicals is used to reduce the size of hemorrhoids.

pr 3
19. People who are overweight, pregnant or .......................... are more liable to develop hemorrhoids.
ep
20. Surgical intervention is indicated in cases of ............................. and .............................. degree

hemorrhoids.
eg
y
END OF PART A
Page 51 of 121
y
eg
ep
pr 3
ET 26
Page 52 of 121
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m 21
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fb 01
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
fb
TEST DATE:
.co 03
m 21
01
TIME: 45 MINUTES
/O 66
ET 26

pr 3

ep

eg
Example:
A
y
B
C
Page 53 of 121
Part B
1. The guidelines establish that:

A- The student should always be under supervision when performing high risk
procedure.
B- The student should not be under supervision when performing naso-gastric
fb
tube insertion.
C- A student who is uncomfortable with performing a simple procedure, should
.co 03
be forced to do it in order to learn properly.

m 21
01
/O 66
Students performing high risk and most moderate risk procedures

should always be supervised. Exceptions would be NG tube
ET 26
placement and suturing. A student who wants to be supervised for

any procedure should be, and no student who feels uncomfortable
pr 3
should ever be made to feel pressured to do it without supervision.

ep
eg
y
Page 54 of 121
A- Only the patient has the right to or not to perform the procedure.
B- The doctor should advice the patient against performing the procedure.
C- Refusing to do the procedure is a decision that a doctor can make even if
the patient is refusing this decision.
fb
The medical practitioner who will perform the procedure should

.co 03
discuss other options with the patient, including medical procedures

or treatment offered by other health practitioners and the option of
not having the procedure. A medical practitioner should decline to
m 21
01
perform a cosmetic procedure if they believe that it is not in the best

/O 66
interests of the patient.

ET 26
pr 3
ep
eg
y
Page 55 of 121
3. This policy states that in case of overpayment by the organization:
A- Initiation of recovery should be made within 45 days.
B- A refund should be made within 24 months.
C- The organization may overcharge you on the next payment you make.
fb
In the event of any overpayment, duplicate payment, or other

.co 03
payment by us in excess of the member's benefits payable

according to the member's benefit plan ("Overpayment") and all
Blue Cross NC policies, you shall promptly remit the
m 21
01
overpayment to Blue Cross NC. In addition to other remedies, if

/O 66
within forty-five (45) days of a request for a refund by us, the

requested refund has not been made we may recover the
ET 26
overpayment amount by offset of future amounts payable to

you. Neither Blue Cross NC nor you may initiate recovery of
overpayments or underpayments, respectively, any later than
pr 3
twenty-four (24) months after the date of the original claim

payment with the following exceptions: Fraud,
ep
misrepresentations and other intentional misconduct

eg
y
Page 56 of 121
4. The allowance is:
A- 100% for the first lower limb X-ray performed for the patient.
B- 80% for the third ECHO performed for the patient.
C- 75% for the second fundoscopy performed for the patient.
fb
When multiple diagnostic cardiovascular services are performed during

.co 03
the same outpatient patient session, the allowance for the technical
component of the primary procedure is 100%. The allowance for the
technical component of the second and each subsequent imaging
m 21
procedure is 75%. When multiple diagnostic ophthalmology services are

01
performed during the same outpatient patient session, the allowance for
/O 66
the technical component of the primary procedure is 100%. The

allowance for the technical component of the second and each
ET 26
subsequent imaging procedure is 80%. The multiple procedure payment

reduction on diagnostic imaging applies when multiple services are
furnished by the same physician or physicians in the same group
pr 3
practice, to the same patient, in the same session, on the same day. The
allowance for the technical component of the primary procedure is
100%. The allowance for the technical component of the second and
ep
each subsequent imaging procedure is 50%.

eg
y
Page 57 of 121
A- The device automatically downloads your HR and BP to the computer.
B- The device automatically measures your HR and BP when turned on.
C- When measured, systolic BP number flashes on the top left corner of the
monitor.
fb
.co 03
The Colin STBP-780 is an automated electronic heart rate and blood pressure
m 21
(BP) monitor capable of accurate readings at rest and during exercise. The unit
01
assesses heart rate via wires connected to four electrodes placed on the thorax
/O 66
and abdomen. Blood pressure is assessed during deflation of the cuff via two
microphones in the cuff. The front display provides clear, easy to read
measurements of heart rate, systolic and diastolic BP, elapsed time, and error
ET 26
messages. When turning the system on, a Self-Check is performed

automatically. The field for the systolic blood pressure at the top left corner of
pr 3
the blood pressure monitor displays an estimate of systolic BP during deflation.

This number flashes as the measurement is being taken. Once the systolic and
diastolic blood pressure and the heart rate are measured, all three values are
ep
displayed on the monitor and downloaded to the computer screen and system
database during the test.
eg
y
Page 58 of 121
6. According to the extract, choose in INCORRECT answer:
A- The endoscope cannot withstand repeated cycles of sterilization.
B- Flexible endoscopes are easier to clean when compared to fixed ones.
C- Data that is available to assess the efficiency of sterilization over HLD is not
enough. .
fb
.co 03
Traditionally, sterilization of endoscopes and accessories has been indicated

for the rare occasions when they are to be used as critical medical devices,
when there is a potential for contamination of an open surgical field.
m 21
Sterilization can be achieved by using a variety of methods, including ethylene

01
oxide gas treatment, and it can be achieved with appropriately long exposure
/O 66
to liquid chemical germicides. Because of the complexity of the instrument

channel design, sterilization of flexible endoscopes is difficult to accomplish. In
ET 26
addition, endoscope durability and function are potentially compromised with

repeated cycles of sterilization. Users report that endoscopes experience a
shortened use life because of material degradation issues when processed
pr 3
repeatedly in ethylene oxide. Because of these factors as well as a lack of data

for demonstrable benefits to the further reduction in endoscope bacterial
ep
spore counts achieved by sterilization instead of HLD, sterilization with

ethylene oxide is not recommended over HLD for standard GI endoscopes.
eg
However, an FDA-cleared liquid chemical sterilant processing system has been

approved to provide sterilization of cleaned, immersible, reusable, and heat-
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sensitive critical and semi critical medical devices.
Page 59 of 121
Part C
Text1: Building a human heart in a dish

Stem cell transplants smell like creamed corn, apparently. Petras learned this as he
was undergoing treatment for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. He'd already received
chemotherapy to kill the cancerous cells coursing through his lymphatic system, but
the disease had bounced back. The best option to save his life was to carpet-bomb
his immune system — killing the cancer-ridden cells alongside the healthy ones —
then reboot it with a transplant of healthy bone marrow stem cells harvested before
the treatment. The approach is a modern take on the oldest form of stem cell
fb
therapy, namely bone marrow transplants, the first of which was performed nearly
half a century ago. Since then, stem cell scientists have been working to understand
just what stem cells are, how to control them, and — most importantly — what can
.co 03
be done with them.
At the recent International Society for Stem Cell Research conference in Melbourne,
stem cells showed they are ready for prime time. "There was a big buzz because it
m 21
was really clear that this is now moving to translation, and that's very exciting," says
01
Melissa Little, program leader of Stem Cells Australia and head of the Kidney
/O 66
Research laboratory at the Murdoch Children's Research Institute. "I'm really

pleased to see over the 16 years that this society has existed, that we've moved from
a fundamental fascination with what a stem cell is, and what it can do, to clinical
ET 26
trials, which is an amazing outcome in a pretty short period of time."
Stem cells are the cells from which every other cell in the body originates. They are
the progenitors of every cell type including heart muscle cells, neurons, bone marrow
pr 3
cells, skin cells — even the light-sensitive cells at the back of your eye. For a long
time, embryos were the only source of stem cells. Then in a Nobel prize-winning
discovery in 2006, Japanese scientist Shinya Yamanaka and colleagues took
ep
ordinary adult skin cells and reprogrammed them back into the most basic form of
stem cell — a pluripotent stem cell. This discovery opened up the field of stem cell
science. Now stem cells could be created from adult skin cells, then turned into
eg
whatever cell type was needed, such as cardiomyocytes for hearts, glial cells for
brains, islet cells for the pancreas, even the cells that make teeth and bone. But
y
contrary to the promises made by the countless unregulated clinics that have
sprung up like mushrooms after rain, offering a host of untested and dubious
treatments, stem cell medicine is still very much in its infancy. Well-tested and
research-proven stem cell-based treatments are only just beginning to emerge on
the market. But not far behind are potentially game-changing treatments for
everything from age-related macular degeneration and Parkinson's disease to type 1
diabetes and HIV infection.
Page 60 of 121
So-called "autologous" stem cell transplants — transplants using a patient's own
stem cells, such as bone marrow stem cells — are well-established as part of
treatment for cancers such as lymphoma and myeloma. But these transplants are
also being taken in extraordinary new directions with gene-editing technologies. Last
year, Italian doctors treated a young Syrian refugee with skin grafts derived from his
own stem cells. However, the cells had also been engineered to correct the genetic
mutation responsible for a devastating blistering disease called junctional
epidermolysis bullosa. At the time of treatment, the boy had lost around 80 per cent
of the skin on his body because of the disease. But the skin grafts took, grew and
now behave just like healthy skin should. In the United States, a trial is currently
underway in people with HIV. The aim is to reboot their immune systems with their
own harvested stem cells. But these cells have been engineered to resist infection
with HIV by introducing a genetic mutation to the receptor that HIV uses to gain
access to the cells.
Autologous stem cell treatments, however, are very costly and labour-intensive, as
fb
they require effectively creating a new treatment for every single patient. A more
attractive possibility is allogeneic stem cell treatments, which use donor cells that are
selected or engineered so as not to trigger the recipient's immune response.
.co 03
Australian biotech company Mesoblast has developed a donor stem cell-based

treatment for graft-versus-host disease, a potentially deadly side effect of organ and
bone marrow transplants. Their product, which is licensed in Japan and recently
m 21
completed advanced clinical trials for the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA),
01
uses a class of stem cells that are invisible to the immune system. One effect of
these mesenchymal stem cells, as they're known, is to dampen down the patient's
/O 66
immune reaction against their transplant. One of the most exciting medical
applications for stem cells is to replenish adult cells that have been lost to disease,
damage or simply old age. Earlier this year, British scientists managed to grow cells
ET 26
from the back of the eye in a dish, using stem cells derived from embryos. These
retinal cells were implanted into the eyes of two people with age-related macular
degeneration, a leading cause of blindness. The patches grafted successfully, and
both patients showed significant improvements in their eyesight. Another application
pr 3
still a few years from clinical trials is using stem cells to regrow the insulin-producing
cells of the pancreas in people with type 1 diabetes, a disease in which the body's
ep
immune system attacks and destroys those cells. Researchers are also working on
how to use stem cells to replace damaged heart muscle cells, and regrow injured or
defective brain cells or liver cells, to name just a few examples. Further down the
eg
track, it's even foreseeable that a patient with a new diagnosis will have some skin
cells taken, stem cells grown from them, and a model of the affected system or
organ developed in a dish so that it can be used to test which drug that person is
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most likely to respond well to.
Page 61 of 121
Text 2: Anxiety has a cost, but can also be a power for good
fb
Anxiety doesn't recognize class or race. It ignores age and gender. And it gives no
deference to talent, wealth or perceived success. A popular blogger, a media celebrity,
.co 03
but still at odds with the demands of the life she has chosen, Sarah talked of the terrible
toll taken by modern life: "Anxiety is on the increase. We are overstimulated. "We used
to have boundaries, and we had cultural mores and structures that protected us from
these kinds of primal blowouts. "We had a Sabbath because we all had an
m 21
understanding that we needed a day of rest just to be able to cope with the toil of hoeing
01
a field, and also to spend time with family; and we had set bedtime hours and we had
/O 66
set work hours. There were boundaries that were placed by our culture and structures.
That has gone out the window in literally less than a generation." In the past Sarah shut
herself away, taking time off from the outside world — a forced retreat. But her new way
of dealing with her anxiety is to embrace it. To acknowledge its dangers, to be wary, and
ET 26
then to try to harness it to her advantage as a tool for positive change.
A bit of anxiety in the right place at the right time could be a positive thing, agreed Black
Dog Institute clinical director Josephine Anderson — within limits. "A little anxiety, for
pr 3
example, will generally improve our performance — whether it's running a race, working
to a deadline or performing at a writers' festival — and of course, the flight or fight
response saves lives every day. "But too much anxiety can really get in the way of our
ep
doing what we want or need to do. "When anxiety threatens to overwhelm our minds,
then doing something mindful — meditating, exercising, writing, for example — can help
us focus, calm and filter out distracting, distressing anxiety-driven thoughts."
eg
For acclaimed British novelist, Matt Haig, catastrophic thinking, brought on by anxiety,
has been a lifelong burden. "It's a total vicious circle, this is a total mental illness thing.
y
The human brain, said Haig, struggles to make sense of our frenetic and chaotic world,
where enough is never enough. "We are still essentially cave people. We haven't
actually evolved for 30,000 years, and we are all trying to run the software of 21st
century society on our systems and we need to switch ourselves off-and-on again a few
times. We live ever more unnatural lives, he said, and often the best solution is to
declutter, to undertake what he calls a "life-edit". "We are in an overloaded world and an
overloaded culture and we've got overloaded lives," he said. When people look for a
solution to things, they are often wanting something to be added into their life, but if you
are in an overloaded culture, the solution is often just taking things away.
Page 62 of 121
For first-time novelist Jarrah Dundler, being a finalist in this year's Vogel Australian
literary award brought pain, as well as a sense of achievement. A feeling of anxiety
along with the accolade. But that was to be expected. His novel Hey Brother centers on
a cast of characters dealing with the complexities and frustrations of mental illness; and
as a peer-support mental-health worker, he has his own and others' experiences to draw
upon. His personal experience of anxiety centers on fixation, where thoughts get "stuck
in his head" and become so exaggerated and urgent that they often lead to physical, as
well as mental illness: "I can be stuck on something for a week, and that's the only thing
I can focus on. "For whole days that's all I'm thinking of. Insane stuff and really getting
completely worked up about it." Jarrah lives and works in regional northern New South
Wales. He acknowledged a change in the way society now deals with mental illness, but
there's still a stigma. For Jarrah, like Sarah and Matt, writing about mental illness is as
much a form of therapy as it is a literary decision. "I can't write when I'm depressed, I
can't write when I'm anxious. I can try but ... so it helps for me because I get a lot out of
writing, like the buzz from when you are writing. "It's also a very mindful activity. When
you are in the flow of writing, you are lost, and your mind is occupied on something,
focused on something." But anxiety, he said, is never far away. A last-minute decision by
fb
his publisher to change the name of his book saw him spiral into catastrophism.
Michael Abelman comes from a farming background, but his career has morphed over
.co 03
the years into what his website calls "social enterprise" work. It's the largest such urban
farming scheme in North America. And as he told it, it's about producing healthy,
affordable food, reconnecting with the environment and helping the disadvantaged deal
m 21
with their anxiety and mental health. "It's where the term 'Skid Row' was actually
01
coined," he explained. "It's about 20 square blocks, entirely inhabited by folks who are
dealing with long-term addiction, mental illness and material poverty." "I'm not a mental
/O 66
health professional, addiction expert or social worker," said Abelman. "We produce 25
tons of food on four acres of pavement, and we do it with the hands of people that no
one ever expected could accomplish anything. These are the untouchables. "These are
ET 26
people that you see in broad daylight on the sidewalks with a needle in their arm or
pirouetting in the middle of the street high on crack. And yet, this work has provided a
reason for people to get out of bed each day, kind of a touchstone, a place to go."
Echoing the words of Sarah Wilson, he described anxiety as a gift: "For me anxiety has
pr 3
been the trigger, the thing that gets me up every day and gets me out there doing good
work. "And if I didn't feel that way, I probably would not get out of bed." Dr Anderson
from the Black Dog Institute urged people not to try to weather anxiety disorders alone.
ep
"It's important to remember that anxiety disorders are common and can be severe and
impairing," she said. "If, despite your best efforts, anxiety is interfering with your life or
your relationships, then it's important to get help. There are many effective treatments
eg
available so don't delay — speak to your GP and or your mental health professional."
y
Page 63 of 121
7. In the first paragraph, what was the best option that was used to save Petras' life?
Ⓐ Repeated cycles of chemotherapy
Ⓑ Sacrificing his immune cells to achieve a greater purpose
Ⓒ Targeting the cancerous cells more aggressively
Ⓓ Bone marrow transplantation from a donor

fb
.co 03
8. In the second paragraph, the reason behind Melissa Little cheering up is

m 21
Ⓐ The application of theoretical concepts

01
/O 66
Ⓑ The great impact of the use of stem cells

ET 26
Ⓒ The international co-operation

pr 3
Ⓓ Exciting cure rates and outcomes

ep
eg
9. In the third paragraph, what do we learn about stem cells?
Ⓐ Skin is the only source to harvest them

y
Ⓑ Pluripotent stem cells are highly specialized
Ⓒ Embryos are no longer used as sources of stem cells
Ⓓ Stem cells are precursors for skin cells
Page 64 of 121
10. The writer uses the phrase sprung up like mushrooms after rain to state that these
clinics are emerging
Ⓐ Suddenly and rapidly
Ⓑ without certain plans
Ⓒ illegally
Ⓓ in a way that is not organized

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11. According to the fourth paragraph, gene-editing technologies had already been used is
.co 03
the field of
Ⓐ Trans-species bone marrow transplantation

m 21
01
Ⓑ Preventive medicine
/O 66
Ⓒ Infection control
ET 26
Ⓓ Dermatology
pr 3
ep
12. In the fifth paragraph, the writer states that using the patient's own stem cells is
eg
Ⓐ Unaffordable
y
Ⓑ Non-effective
Ⓒ Non-efficient
Ⓓ unavailable
Page 65 of 121
13. In the fifth paragraph, the writer is particularly impressed by
Ⓐ The ability to renew damaged cells
Ⓑ Implanting embryonic derived stem cells into a diseased eye
Ⓒ Our ability to treat type 1 DM
Ⓓ Our ability to replace damaged cardiac tissues

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14. In the final paragraph, The word foreseeable means

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Ⓐ unexpected
m 21
01
Ⓑ hoped
/O 66
Ⓒ needless to say
ET 26
Ⓓ being studied
pr 3
ep
eg
y
Page 66 of 121
15. In the first paragraph, What does Sarah think is the reason behind the increased
prevalence of anxiety in society?
Ⓐ Increased life demands.
Ⓑ Loss of consistent cultural structure.
Ⓒ Lack of sufficient rest.
Ⓓ Not spending enough time with family.

fb
.co 03
16. in the first paragraph , The word it refers to

m 21
Ⓐ The new way

01
/O 66
Ⓑ Dangers
ET 26
Ⓒ Anxiety
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Ⓓ Advantages
ep
eg
17. In the second paragraph, Josephine Anderson believes that anxiety might be vital to
Ⓐ Win at sport competitions

y
Ⓑ Finish duties on time
Ⓒ Get to a hyperarousal protective state
Ⓓ None of the above
Page 67 of 121
18. Matt Haig believes that the best way to solve the problem is by
Ⓐ Addressing the problem more clearly
Ⓑ Changing the approach that we adopt to solve it

Ⓒ Seeking perfection
Ⓓ Not trying to fight it.

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19. That in the fourth paragraph refers to

.co 03
Ⓐ winning the award

m 21
Ⓑ his sense of achievement

01
/O 66
Ⓒ being a finalist
ET 26
Ⓓ being anxious
pr 3
20. According to Jarrah, what is it about writing can temporarily relieve anxiety?
ep
Ⓐ Writing down the thoughts that bother you.

eg
Ⓑ Providing a way to divert attention.

y
Ⓒ Providing a sense of purpose
Ⓓ A way to escape the stigma brought on by society.
Page 68 of 121
21. In the final paragraph, we learn that those who often become addicted lack
Ⓐ Money.
Ⓑ Healthy food.
Ⓒ Sincere guidance.
Ⓓ Reasons to live.
fb
22. According to the final paragraph, both Michael and Dr Anderson believe that
Ⓐ
.co 03
Anxiety is not entirely a bad thing
Ⓑ
m 21
Sufferers of anxiety should seek professional help

01
Ⓒ
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Anxiety is a common disorder
Ⓓ
ET 26
Different types of treatment are available for this condition

pr 3
ep
eg
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Page 69 of 121
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
fb
TEST DATE:
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m 21
01
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ep
eg
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Page 70 of 121
Skin-lightening and tanning: Texts
fb
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m 21
01
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eg
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Page 71 of 121
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eg
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Page 72 of 121
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fb 01
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
TEST DATE:
fb
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TIME: 15 MINUTES
01
/O 66
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pr 3
ep

eg
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Page 73 of 121
Part A
TIME: 15 minutes
Skin-Lightning Creams: Questions
Questions 1-7
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1 Studies about the effects of steroids on pregnancy?

m 21
01
2 Sun exposure and cancer?

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3 What to do if you are concerned that you have a problem?

ET 26
4 Comparison between hydroquinone and steroids?
5 Malignant melanoma in Wales?

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6 Effects of radiation on the eyes?
7 Dermatologists stating the dangers of skin creams?

ep
Questions 8-14
eg
y
8 What should be done when encountering a problem with a skin-lightning cream?
9 How many people die in Wales each year as a result of malignant melanoma?
10 What are the short term effects of radiation on the skin?
[CANDIDATE NO.] READING QUESTION PAPER PART A 02/04
Page 74 of 121
11 What is the cause of tanning of human skin?
12 What is the effect of steroids on the placenta?
13 Who has done the survey about the opinions of dermatologists on the matter?
14 How was the incidence rate of malignant melanoma in Wales in 1996 in comparison to
2006?
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Questions 15-20
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m 21
01
15. Some sorts of skin lighteners may have .................. systemic effects.
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16. Steroids can be useful in treating some skin conditions such as ................. and ........................
ET 26
17. Over exposure to .................... through sunbeds increases the risk of developing skin cancer.
18. Mutation to the ................... through UV radiation can cause cancer.

pr 3
19. The use of high dose steroids can cause a lot of problems if its use is .......................
ep
20. ......................................... infants may be a consequence of using steroids.

eg
END OF PART A
y
Page 75 of 121
y
eg
ep
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Page 76 of 121
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fb 01
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION:
VENUE:
fb
TEST DATE:
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01
TIME: 45 MINUTES
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ET 26

pr 3

ep

eg
Example:
A
y
B
C
Page 77 of 121
Part B
1. The guidelines establish that:

A- The student should always be under supervision when performing a
procedure.
B- How dangerous the procedure is, determines the appropriate supervision
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that is required.
C- A student should be under supervision by a fellow when performing a
.co 03
phlebotomy for the first time.

m 21
01
/O 66
The first time any procedure is performed on a patient, the student should be
adequately and appropriately supervised. What constitutes adequate and
ET 26
appropriate supervision depends on the level of risk of the procedure. For

example, phlebotomy or IV placement could be supervised by an intern or a
nurse, but central line or arterial line placement should be supervised by a
pr 3
fellow or highly experienced resident. In all cases, the supervisor should have a
level of expertise with the procedure that allows him or her to perform it
ep
comfortably and independently.

eg
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Page 78 of 121
A- The patient's agent is the one who performs the procedure.
B- Patient's consultations should be with a medical practitioner.
C- A patient advisor is not a registered health practitioner.
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The patient’s first consultation should be with the medical practitioner who
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will perform the procedure or another registered health practitioner who

works with the medical practitioner who will perform the procedure. It is not
appropriate for the first consultation to be with someone who is not a
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registered health practitioner – for example, a patient advisor or an agent

01
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eg
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Page 79 of 121
3. The medical policy states that Ambulatory monitors could:
A- Only be used to monitor asymptomatic patients with the risk of arrhythmia.
B- Be used to monitor the effect of therapy.
C- Not be covered to avoid heat.
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"When not Covered" section revised to state: "Other uses of ambulatory

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event monitors, including outpatient cardiac telemetry and mobile

applications, are considered investigational, including but not limited
to monitoring asymptomatic patients with risk factors for
m 21
arrhythmia, monitoring effectiveness of antiarrhythmic therapy and

01
detection of myocardial ischemia by detecting ST segment changes."

/O 66
Policy guidelines and references updated. Policy noticed 6/8/18 for

effective date 8/10/18. Medical Director review.
ET 26
pr 3
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eg
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Page 80 of 121
A- Cimzia may be given to treat active rheumatoid arthritis.
B- Cimzia may be given to treat Crohn's.
C- Cimzia may be given instead of conventional therapy.
fb
Cimzia (certolizumab pegol) for subcutaneous injection may be

.co 03
considered medically necessary for adult patients to reduce signs and

symptoms of Crohn's disease and to maintain clinical response in adults
with moderately to severely active disease who have had inadequate
m 21
response to conventional therapy; for treatment of adults with

01
moderately to severely active rheumatoid arthritis, active psoriatic

/O 66
arthritis or active ankylosing spondylitis.

ET 26
pr 3
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eg
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Page 81 of 121
A- WHO Patient Safety develops recommendation to insure patient's safety.
B- Gathers experts from all-over the globe.
C- Hand hygiene is the primary measure to reduce the risk of infectious
diseases.
fb
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Hand hygiene is a primary measure to reduce infections, including CLABSIs. A

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core part of WHO Patient Safety work is related to Global Patient Safety
01
Challenges. These challenges are international campaigns that bring together

/O 66
expertise and evidence on important aspects of patient safety.

Recommendations are developed to ensure the safety of patients receiving
care globally. WHO Patient Safety works to make these recommendations
ET 26
widely available and provides tools to implement the recommendations in a

variety of health care settings worldwide.
pr 3
ep
eg
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Page 82 of 121
6. The contents of the INS published guidelines include:
A- The choice of the type of the device.
B- The choice of the site of insertion.
C- A framework for doctors in order to guide clinical practice.
fb
The INS publication Infusion Nursing Standards of Practice provides a

.co 03
framework that guides clinical practice. The standards are used to define and
develop organizational infusion-based policies and procedures for all practice
settings. The comprehensive contents include standards of nursing practice
m 21
and patient care practices, vascular access device selection and placement, use
01
of access devices, site care and maintenance, and infusion-related

/O 66
complications.
ET 26
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ep
eg
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Page 83 of 121
Part C
Text1: Understanding OCD
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a surprisingly common psychological

problem. Only 25 years ago, it was believed to be a relatively rare condition. In part,
owing to newer and more effective treatments for it, OCD is now known to affect
many millions of people at any given time. If left untreated, in most cases, OCD can
straightjacket a person's life with immobilizing anxiety. What's worse, many people
with OCD will develop depression that not only intensifies suffering, but often
fb
complicates and lengthens treatment. Nevertheless, as debilitating as it can be,

when treated with skillfully done, cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) that
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emphasizes a crucial method called exposure and response or ritual prevention

(ERP), OCD's anxiety and depression producing grip can be significantly loosened.
In general terms, the main features of OCD are intrusive, horrific, and relentless
m 21
irrational thoughts or images (obsessions) that drive tremendous anxiety and

01
specific, usually excessive, repetitive, or unrelated behaviors (compulsions) that are

/O 66
performed in an effort to neutralize or reduce the anxious thoughts, feelings and

sensations.
In essence, when someone has OCD his or her brain's danger detection region is
ET 26
hypersensitive and dramatically overreacts to certain triggers thus launching a

massive, often panic level, anxiety attack (i.e., an exaggerated or inappropriate fight
or flight reaction). At the same time, the brain region that usually indicates safety is
pr 3
very sluggish, and slow to signal the "all's clear." Hence, the OCD sufferer will
experience needless or greatly exaggerated surges of intense anxiety related to
terrifying, irrational thoughts that drive him/her to engage in rituals in an effort to
ep
drive down anxiety and restore feelings and sensations of safety. In other words,
since the person's "automatic" safety signaler is very slow to relieve anxiety, he or
she will try to do it "manually" with a ritual. In the long run, however, rituals don't
eg
work consistently to reduce anxiety due to a process called "negative reinforcement"

that, ironically, further energize the brain's anxiety triggers and makes its safety
signaler even weaker and slower.
y
Neuroimaging studies using PET scans have identified several hypermetabolic, brain
structures that are almost always associated with OCD. Specifically,
a neural pathway referred to as the supraorbital-cingulate-thalamic circuit - the
SOCT circuit - appears overactive in brain scans of people with OCD. Interestingly,
when OCD sufferers were randomly given either an SSRI or underwent intensive
CBT for OCD with exposure and ritual prevention, those who improved significantly
had follow up PET scans that showed much less activity in their SOCT circuit. Thus,
regardless of whether or not the person got better through CBT or took medication,
both therapies produced essentially the same result on brain activity.
Page 84 of 121
As it was with our remote ancestors, our recognition of danger and safety involves at
least three psychological dimensions - namely, cognitive appraisal (thoughts and
images about the situation), emotional activation (feelings of danger and/or safety),
and sensory stimulation (viscerally sensing the danger or the safety). Usually,
people are good at discriminating between the psychological experience of danger
and safety. That is, we typically experience congruence among these psychological
zones. Therefore, when we perceive safety, we have no significant anxious or
intrusive thoughts, dreadful emotions, or anxious sensations. Our minds, moods,
and sensations are all in alignment and reflect a deep feeling of safety and security
in the situation. And when we perceive actual danger, we usually have worries
about the situation, fearful feelings, and a lot of nervous system arousal that results
in various physical sensations of anxiety, such as muscle tension, clenching gut, dry
mouth, racing heart, rapid breathing, shaking, sweating, etc.
People suffering with OCD try to achieve a specific, physical sensation of safety and
have great difficulty grasping factual safety. For example, a person who feels dirty or
fb
contaminated might wash extensively, far beyond the point of actual

cleanliness. Thus, someone with [this specific type of] OCD will wash (and wash,
and wash) until he/she senses and feels clean even if takes a long, long time to
.co 03
achieve the desired sensation. In most cases, especially when the illness is first
developing, the person will eventually feel clean enough (i.e., safe from germs,
disease, toxins, etc.) at which time the ritual stops. Unfortunately, as mentioned
m 21
above, this only strengthens anxiety and other OCD symptoms because of a process
01
called negative reinforcement.

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eg
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Page 85 of 121
Text 2: Addressing the Tuberculosis Epidemic
Tuberculosis (TB) is the leading cause of infectious disease mortality and continues to
be a major challenge to global health. Each day, roughly 5000 people die of TB disease,
resulting in nearly 2 million deaths in 2016 alone. More than 1 billion people died from
TB during the last 200 years, more deaths than from malaria, influenza, smallpox,
HIV/AIDS, cholera, and plague combined. Recently, the global health community
intensified efforts to end TB as a global health scourge. The broad global strategy to
confronting and halting the TB epidemic involves a multifaceted approach, and
biomedical research is a key component of that strategy. Despite considerable progress
in preventing, diagnosing, and treating TB using the current armamentarium of tools
(most are decades old), substantial gaps exist in the current understanding of the
pathogenesis of TB disease and in applying modern scientific advances to the goal of
ending this global health scourge. Although the pathogenesis of this ancient disease
has been studied for 200 years, current TB drugs and the only available vaccine are
fb
inadequate.
Diagnosing TB remains a significant challenge, and each year an estimated 4 million

.co 03
new TB cases remain undiagnosed.1 Current diagnostics typically require expensive

equipment and highly trained personnel unavailable in many high-burden TB areas and
may be unsuitable for diagnosis in some populations, including children and PLWH.
Current tests are also generally unable to detect drug-resistant and nonpulmonary TB
m 21
cases or infections with low numbers of MTB. In addition, a clear understanding of TB

01
latency and what drives progression to active disease is lacking, as are data on host-
/O 66
pathogen dynamics underlying pathogenesis or the pharmacokinetic and

pharmacodynamics properties of existing drugs.
ET 26
To address these and other gaps and to facilitate the development and application of
emerging technologies to TB, the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases
(NIAID) at the US National Institutes of Health has developed a TB research strategic
plan outlining a multipronged effort to address fundamental TB research questions and
pr 3
to stimulate applied research and the clinical translation of promising diagnostic,

therapeutic, and vaccine candidates. Developed to complement the World Health
Organization End TB Strategy, the US Government Global TB Strategy, and the National
ep
Action Plan for Combating Multidrug-Resistant Tuberculosis, the NIAID Strategic Plan
for Tuberculosis Research builds on current efforts and focuses on some strategic
priorities critical to giving TB research a 21st century footing.
eg
There is a compelling need to develop rapid, accurate, and inexpensive point-of-care

diagnostics for different forms of TB and for use in all populations. NIAID will support
y
research on state-of-the art approaches and emerging technologies and will identify host
and microbial biomarkers or biosignatures that can be integrated into platforms that
diagnose infection, indicate risk of progression, or predict disease recurrence. These
efforts will leverage existing clinical infrastructure, study protocols, and clinical cohorts.
Page 86 of 121
Expanding the existing repertoire of TB research resources will play a major role in the
implementation of the NIAID Strategic Plan for Tuberculosis Research. Access to
biosafety level 3 facilities and infrastructure as well as databases to facilitate the analysis
and sharing of large, diverse data sets derived from systems biology and “omics”
approaches are critical to answering fundamental questions in TB research. NIAID will
foster opportunities for early-stage investigators to assume their role as the next
generation of TB researchers, ensure continuity, and bring fresh perspective to the field.
NIAID also will support improved animal models that recapitulate human disease and will
promote expansion of preclinical and clinical capacity, including human cohorts. In
addition, NIAID will facilitate the development of assays, reagents, and other tools to
assess diagnostic, therapeutic, and vaccine candidates in the developmental pipeline.
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m 21
01
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Page 87 of 121
7. What do we learn about OCD in the first paragraph?
Ⓐ Its prevalence has been increasing for the past 25 years
Ⓑ Greater awareness of its significance has developed recently.
Ⓒ Its manifestations take time to become apparent
Ⓓ OCD is the reason why people develop anxiety

fb
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8. In the second paragraph, the writer is saying that compulsions are

m 21
Ⓐ solution to the problem

01
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Ⓑ intrusive thoughts
ET 26
Ⓒ part of the problem

pr 3
Ⓓ behavioral treatment
ep
9. In the third paragraph, the writer states that OCD is …………..………………….. Problem
eg
Ⓐ a functional
y
Ⓑ a structural
Ⓒ a sensational
Ⓓ an overestimated
Page 88 of 121
10. In the third paragraph, the word its refers to
Ⓐ Anxiety
Ⓑ Triggers
Ⓒ The brain
Ⓓ Safety signaler
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11. What particularly impressed the writer regarding the study in the fourth paragraph?
.co 03
Ⓐ The importance of medication in treating OCD

m 21
Ⓑ The anatomical changes of a region of the brain

01
/O 66
Ⓒ The brain's response to treatment

ET 26
Ⓓ The almost equal effectiveness of both medication and psychotherapy

pr 3
12. What do we learn about danger and safety in the fifth paragraph?
ep
Ⓐ How to act when we perceive danger

eg
Ⓑ The exact mechanism that the brain uses to respond to safety

y
Ⓒ The exposure response prevention cycle
Ⓓ Typical psychological patterns
Page 89 of 121
13. In general, the desired sensation to an OCD patient is being
Ⓐ safe
Ⓑ clean
Ⓒ anxious
Ⓓ dirty
fb
14. In the final paragraph, excessive washing as an act is considered to be

.co 03
Ⓐ an obsession
Ⓑ a compulsion
m 21
01
/O 66
Ⓒ a delusion
ET 26
Ⓓ the process of negative reinforcement

pr 3
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eg
y
Page 90 of 121
15. In the first paragraph, what does the writer believe to be the cause behind the inability to
end this epidemic
Ⓐ Lack of understanding of the disease's nature.
Ⓑ The need for more advanced tools.
Ⓒ The high rate of mortality that is associated with the disease.
Ⓓ The disease being untreatable with the current medication.

fb
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16. In the first paragraph, the word scourge was mentioned twice. What does it mean?
Ⓐ Plan
m 21
01
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Ⓑ Initiative
Ⓒ Affliction
ET 26
Ⓓ Interest
pr 3
ep
17. In the second paragraph, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why a
large number of TB cases remain undiagnosed?
eg
Ⓐ Lack of complete understanding of the pathophysiology of the disease

y
ⒷLack of complete understanding of the effect of the drug on the organism
Ⓒ Socioeconomic barriers
Ⓓ The organism being resistant to treatment
Page 91 of 121
18. The NIAID research aims to
Ⓐ build a strategy to compact drug-resistant TB
Ⓑ develop technologies to halt the prevalence of infectious diseases
Ⓒ go for the clinical application of some theoretical data
Ⓓ eradicate TB by the end of the 21st century.

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19. Developed in the third paragraph refers to

.co 03
Ⓐ the US Government Global TB Strategy

m 21
Ⓑ the NIAID Strategic Plan

01
/O 66
Ⓒ the National Action Plan for Combating Multidrug-Resistant Tuberculosis

ET 26
Ⓓ the World Health Organization End TB Strategy

pr 3
20. According to the fourth paragraph, improved diagnostic tools are important to develop
ep
greater awareness of
Ⓐ The prognosis of the disease.

eg
y
Ⓑ The established modern technologies
Ⓒ The demographic distribution of TB
Ⓓ The best approach to develop study protocols
Page 92 of 121
21. In the final paragraph, the writer is
Ⓐ Listing drawbacks
Ⓑ Assigning responsibilities
Ⓒ Enumerating achievements
Ⓓ Outlining a strategy
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22. In the final paragraph, The word repertoire refers to the ………………….of resources.
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Ⓐ quantity
Ⓑ
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quality
01
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Ⓒ efforts
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Ⓓ infrastructure
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eg
y
Page 93 of 121
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eg
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ADEL&#39;s OET Practice Book

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ADEL&#39;s OET Practice Book

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Dr Ahmed Adel

TIME: APPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES

At the end of the test, hand in this Question Paper.

DO NOT remove OET material from the test room.

HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS:

Example: Patient: Ray Sands

You now have 30 seconds to look at the notes.

Sarah's medical history:

1. Had surgery in _________________________ to correct her heart

2. Her parents tried to explain that she had _______________________

History of surgery and Sarah's memories:

3. It was __________________________________ after surgery.

4. Her lips and nails were ________________________________ .

Patient's exercise and fitness:

5. She kept ________________ consistently as she was getting older.

6. She used to dance for ________________________ a Week.

7. She is still _______________________ regularly.

8. She gets ________________ every now and then.

Drinking habits and heart condition:

9. She has ________________________ drinks once a week.

10. Has __________________ chest pain.

11. Noticed ________________________ easily.

12. Her family history of heart diseases is ______________________

You now have 30 seconds to look at the notes.

Patient's general medical history, exercise and lifestyle:

13. He is _________________________ years old.

14. His _____________________ is lower than average.

15. He ___________________ for about 100-150 kilometers a week.

Family medical history:

16. His mother is a _____________________ .

17. His father had a ___________________ .

Kevin's health problems and medical treatment in West Africa:

18. Had a lot of ____________________ troubles.

19. Had _____________________ constantly.

20. He received ___________________ medical care .

Patient's bicycle accident and onset of pain:

21. Smashed himself on ___________________ .

22. After the accident they went to the _______________________

23. Pain started after having ________________________

24. Pain appeared after ________________________ level went down.

Now look at question 25.

25. Which of the following information is INCORRECT regarding the patient's

A – His dose of morphine has been increased

C – He takes hypertension medication

26. According to the brief given by the nurse

A – It took 10 mins of CPR to reach Return Of Pulse

B – On arrival, the patient's O2 sat was 69%

C – He has a history of parathyroid cancer

27. According to te extract

A – The patient is 65 years old

B – Her presenting features were suggestive of pneumonia

C – The patient is to be commenced on antibiotics and steroids

B – When he arrived to the ER, his PO2 sat was 68%

C – The patient has a history of shortness of breath since one month

29. Regarding the patient's analgesia

A – The pain is well controlled

B – The patient is not allowed to take analgesia anymore

C – Her last dose of analgesia was 3.30 mg

30. According to the extract

A – The patient is diagnosed as a case of stroke

B – His daughter reported that he was speaking irregularley

C – The patient is showing non-compliance regarding taking his

Extract 1: Questions 31-36

ADEL's OET Practice Book

ADEL's OET Practice Book