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Cisco 200-150 Exam
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Premium Exam Question
Vendor Cisco
Certification Cisco CCNA Data Center
Exam Code 200-150
Exam Title Introducing Cisco Data Center
Networking
No. of Questions 271
“Best Material, Great Results”. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs 1 of 1

Questions & Answers PDF P-2
Product Questions: 271

Version: 16.0
Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit. Two Layer 2 Cisco Nexus switches are connected to application servers in a data
center. Server A cannot communicate with servers that are in VLANs 3 and 4, but t can communicate
with server B and C. What is the cause of the problem?
A. inter VLANs routing is not enabled on both switches

B. Switch I and switch 2 are not physically connected via an access link.
C. A router must be connected to both switches and provide inter VLAN routing.
D. Switch 1 and switch 2 not physically connected via a trunk link.
Answer: C
Question: 2
Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two)
A. services layer
B. high-speed packet switching O repeater
C. access control
D. QoS marking
Answer: AC
Question: 3
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Answer: A,D
Question: 4
Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two)
A. Virtual Port Channel

B. Layer 3
C. Virtual Device Contexts
D. iSCSI
E. Fibre Channel
Answer: BC
Layer 3 license - Enterprise Services Package - LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG

Virtual Device Contexts license - Advanced Services Package -LAN_ADVANCED_SERVICES_PKG
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/licensing/guide/b_Cisco_NX-
OS_Licensing_Guide/b_Cisco_NX-OS_Licensing_Guide_chapter_01.html
Question: 5
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Answer: CD
Question: 6
IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000
chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: A
Question: 7
What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination?
A. transport
B. network
C. application
D. presentation
Answer: B
Question: 8
Refer to the exhibit.
What type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802 3 frame
B. TCP packet
C. UDP packet
D. Ethernet frame
Answer: A
Question: 9
Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in
campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers?
A. shielded twisted-pair cable

B. coaxial cable
C. multimode fiber-optic cable
D. single-mode fiber-optic cable

Answer: C
Question: 10
A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to
obtain the switch serial number?
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number

B. MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS- A# show host-id
D. MDS- A# show license host-id
Answer: D
Question: 11


Which statement regarding Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches is true?
A. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches operate in r routing mode.

B. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches operate in FCoE mode.
C. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches operate in fabric mode.
D. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches operate in NPV mode.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO:
I
---
T Study Materials & Practical QAs

Which statement Is true regarding configuring NPV mode?

A. When you enable NPV, the system configuration is erased and t* switch reboots
B. When you enable NPV. the system configuration is not erased and the does not switch reboot
C. In Exhibit 3 NPV is enabled. but Server interface to the external switch is not bed to correct vfc 2/1.
D. m NPV mode, the core switch relays traffic from server-side ports to the edge switch and core
swtich provides N ports.
Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli
_rel_4_0_1a/CLIConfigurationGuide/npv.html
QUESTION NO:
https://www.dumpsschool.com/
What can you tell about server ports and their external Interfaces from the exhibits?
A. vfc3/1 is not correctly connected to server external interface fc2/1.
B. vfc3/1 is not correctly connected to server external Interface fc2/1 and flogi are unsuccessful.
C. Server interface vfc3/1 is assigned to NP uplinks fc2/1. fc2/2, fc2/3. and fc2/4. There are 4
successful flogi.
D. Server interface vfc3/1 is assigned to NP uplinks fc2/1, fc2/2, fc2/3, and fc2/4. There are 4 flogi are
in initialization state.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO:
Which two statements are true regarding disruptive load balancing and regarding the configuration
In this example? (Choose two).
A. In this scenario disruptive load balancing is disabled.
B. In this scenario disruptive load balancing is enabled.
C. Since FCID: 0x1 c0000 is reserved, disruptive load balancing is not configured correctly.
D. When disruptive load balancing is enabled, NPV redistributes the server interfaces across all
available NP uplinks when a new NP uplink becomes operational. To move a server interface from
one NP uplink to another NP uplink. NPV forces re initialization of the server interface so that the
server performs a new login to the core switch.

Answer: CD
Question: 12
A network design team has decided to use a standard protocol to consolidate the Ethernet and San
data using the existing Nexus switches. Which I/O technology can satisfy this need?
A. FCoE
B. IEEE 802. 1AB

C. SCS
D. AToM
Answer: A
Question: 13
When command set will create an access control 1st on a Cisco Nexus switch to permit only
unencrypted Web traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101 permit tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80

B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
C. N5K-A(config)#Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit tcp any host 10.10.110 eq 80
D. N5K-A(config)#Ip access-list 101 permit tcp any host 10.10.1.100 eq 80
N5K-A(config)#Ip access-list 101 deny ip any any
Answer: C
Question: 14
An administrator connected a new server to a Cisco MDS 9222i on Port FCL/20, but did not capture
the world wide node name of the host bus adapter
Which command returns the needed information?
A. show wwn status

B. show Interface fc 1/20
C. show flogi database
D. show fcs database
Answer: C
Question: 15

Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Answer: BC
Question: 16
Which Cisco UCS power policy mode enables a configuration that can tolerate the loss of an input
power circuit?
A. nonredundatnt
B. Grid
C. N+1 in normal mode
D. N+1 in high-density mode
Answer: B
Grid Redundant (N+N) – below: The purpose of the grid redundant mode is to enable a configuration
that can tolerate the loss of either a power supply or a input power circuit. In grid-redundant mode
the
system can withstand the loss of any two power supplies. The Figure 5 shows the required wiring
Scheme for Grid Redundant power where N=2.
Question: 17
A network uses on pair of Layer 3 switches for core and distribution purposes. Which design is this
network using?
A. collapsed core
B. collapsed distribution
C. collapsed Layer 3 core
D. collapsed Layer 2-3
Answer: A
Question: 18
Which address type is used in IPv4 but is not used in IPv6?
A. multicast

B. broadcast
C. anycast
D. unicast
Answer: B
Question: 19
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Answer: AB
Question: 20
What two technologies can be used to connect to storage arrays on a converged Ethernet IP
network? (Choose two.)
A. FCoE
B. Fiber Channel
C. iSCSI
D. InfinBand
E. FabricPath
Answer: AC
Question: 21
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each port description on the left to the port type on the right required to support it.
Answer:

Fiber Channel:
Fiber channel port
Storage port
All others will go to the Ethernet.
Question: 22
What describes how the 802.1Q protocol lactates the transmission of multiple Layer 2 networks on a
single link?
A. adds 802.1Q tag information between the source MAC address and the Ether Type/Length fields
B. encapsulates the frame inside an 802.1Q tunnel
C. adds 802.1Q tag information between the preamble and the destination MAC address
D. encapsulates the packet inside an 802.1Q tunnel
E. transparently directs packets based on 802.1Q tags inside the header
Answer: A
EEE 802.1Q uses an internal tagging mechanism which inserts a 4-byte tag field in the original
Ethernet frame itself between the Source Address and Type/Length fields
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/8021q/17056-741-4.html#topic2
Question: 23
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to
the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode

B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Answer: CD
Question: 24
What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre devices behind a single
FC address?
A. Fiber Channel over Ethernet

B. N-Port Virtualization
C. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
D. N-Port Identification Virtualization
Answer: B

---
Question: 25
Which command should be used to determine which hosts are Fibre Channel targets?
A. MDS-A# show host database

B. MDS-A# show flogi database
C. MDS-A# show fens database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
Answer: B
Question: 26
At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated?
A. transport
B. data-link
C. application
D. presentation
Answer: A
Question: 27
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to
provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch

B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
Answer: AB
Question: 28
Which two hosts are part of subnet 172.16.160.0/20? (Choose two.)
A. 172.16.168.0
B. 172.16.176.1
C. 172.16.160.255
D. 172.16.160.0
E. 172.16.176.255

---
Answer: AC
Question: 29
Which protocol is supported when OSPFv2 is used as the routing protocol?
A. NetBios
B. LAT
C. IPv4
D. IPv6
Answer: C
Question: 30
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Answer: A
Question: 31
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: A
Question: 32
Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?

---
A. 172.23.175.210/15
B. 10.100.74.127/25
C. 192.168.73.223/29
D. 10.230.33.15/28
Answer: A
Question: 33
Which two statements about configuring VLANs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Software updates are disruptive to VLANs.

B. VLANs with the same number are unique to their VDC.
C. VLAN licensing is required for use.
D. To change VLAN information, the administrator must be at the switch (config) # prompt.
E. The command copy running-config startup-config will save changes to the VLAN database.
Answer: B,E
Question: 34
Which statement is true regarding FIP in FCoE enabled Storage Area Networks?.
A. It discovers and initializes converged network capable devices connected to an Ethernet cloud.
B. it uses a dedicated EtherType of 0xFFFF.
C. it reduces the number of network interface cards required to connect to disparate storage and IP
networks.
D. It reduces the number of cables and switches.
Answer: A
Question: 35
A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple
targets. Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?
A. zoning
B. port security
C. LUN masking
D. VSANs
Answer: D
Question: 36

---
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 5m
B. 3m
C. 4m
D. 10m
Answer: A
Question: 37
Which situation will cause a switch to flood traffic out all of the ports on the switch?
A. The switch receives a destination MAC address of 0000.0000.0000

B. The switch receives a destination MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff
C. The switch receives a source MAC address of 0000.0000.0000
D. The switch’s TCAM reaches the MAC address limit.
E. The switch was configured in cut-through mode.
Answer: B
Question: 38
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model?
(Choose three.)
A. 5
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
Answer: ABD
Question: 39
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single
mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Answer: A

---
The Cisco GLC-ZX-SM operates on ordinary single mode fiber optic link spans of up to 70 km in
length. (http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/interfaces-modules/1000base-zx-sfp/index.html)
Question: 40
Which option includes the two devices that can be connected when a Cisco Fabric Extender
Transceiver is used?
A. Server to Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch

B. Server to Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender to Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch
D. Server to Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
Answer: C
Question: 41
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Answer: B
Question: 42
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.

B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Answer: B
Question: 43
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while
maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port

---
E. N Port
Answer: AC
Question: 44
What are two physical components of the Cisco UCS B-Series server? (Choose two.)
A. mezzanine slots
B. power supplies (maximum of two)
C. lockable front door
D. redundant hot swappable fans
E. CPU sockets
Answer: AD
Question: 45
What two actions can be taken to enable inter-VLAN communications in the data center? (Choose
two.)
A. extend Layer 2 services to a Layer 3 capable VLAN using Layer 3 tunneling.

B. use a routing protocol to direct packets into the Layer 2 network
C. connect Layer 2 VLANs together with 802.1Q trunks
D. deploy a router as a Layer 3 services gateway attached inside each Layer 2 VLAN
E. install a Layer 3 capable switch in the data center.
Answer: DE
Question: 46
Which two options are file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. CIFS
C. Fibre Channel
D. NFS
E. iSCSI
Answer: BD
Question: 47

---
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)
A. regular fromat WWNs are being used

B. the command show flogl database was run
C. the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
D. registered name formate WWNs are being used
E. extended format WWNs are being used.
Answer: BE
Question: 48
A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zone set named zone set2, but the
server is still unable to access the shared storage.
Which command will resolve this issue?
A. zone copy active-zoneset ful-zoneset

B. zoneset activate zoneset2
C. zone default-zone permit vsan 2
D. copy running –config startup-config
Answer: C
Question: 49
Switch A has BPDU fitering configured on all active interfaces. A second switch, Switch B, is
connected to Switch
A. Which two actions will Switch A take when Switch B is connected to it? (Choose two.)
A. Switch A will not send any BPDUs.
B. Switch A will transition the port a normal spanning tree port.
C. Switch A will not accept any BPDUs
D. Switch A will errdisable the port.
E. Switch A will start sending BPDUs to Switch B.
Answer: AD

---
Question: 50
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. high-speed packet switching

B. access control
C. firewalling and intrusion prevention
D. QoS marking
Answer: A
Question: 51
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic
from any source to destination host 10.10.10.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101

N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C.
N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D.
N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21
N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Answer: D
Question: 52
Refer to the exhibit. NP uplink ports connected to the core NPIV switch do not come online and are
stuck in an initializing state. Which options is a cause for this behavior?
A. The upstream NP Ports and the downstream server F Ports on the NPV edge switch may not be in
the same VSA.
B. The core switch has not been enabled for NPIV.

---
C. The upstream VSAN ports and the server ports are in full duplex mode.
D. Related VSAN identifier is not allowed on Virtual Port Channels toward the edge switch.
Answer: B
Question: 53
A network design team has mandated that IP-only routing protocols be used in the network. Which
two routing protocols will they want to use? (Choose two.)
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. RP
D. EIGRP
E. IS-IS
Answer: BD
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IS-IS
Question: 54
An engineer implemented a new VSAN and examined the F-mode trunks connecting an upstream
switch. The engineer noticed that the new VSAN is stuck in initializing. Which two options explain
why this is happening? (Choose two.)
A. A device has not attempted to log in the ne VSAN across the trunk.
B. Only the primary VSAN lists as active while subordinate VSANs stay initializing.
C. The trunk must be disabled an re-enabled to join the new VSAN.
D. Only the secondary VSAN lists as active while primary VSANs stay initializing.
E. The new VSAN has not been configured in the upstream switch.
Answer: AE
Question: 55
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing
department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the
business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department
are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110

B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage

---
Answer: C
Question: 56
Which two options are benefits of deploying FCoE beyond the access layer?
A. higher throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches.

B. FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.
C. reduction in equipment requirements
D. improved security compared to traditional Fibre Channel.
E. increased application support.
Answer: AC
Question: 57
A network engineer is verifying Layer 2 connectivity of a server to a Cisco Nexus switch by checking
the Address Resolution table statistics. Which command shows the MAC address, physical interfaced,
VLAN and IP address of a server on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. show Ip arp interface

B. show Ip arp
C. show Ip arp detail
D. show arp detail
Answer: C
Question: 58
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Answer: A,E
It defines the electrical and physical specifications of the data connection. It defines the relationship
between a device and a physical transmission medium (e.g. a copper or fiber optical cable). This
includes the layout of pins, voltages, line impedance, cable specifications, signal timing, hubs,
repeaters, network adapters, host bus adapters (HBA used in storage area networks) and more."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OSI_model
Question: 59

---
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Answer: B,C
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps9441/ps9670/white_paper_c11-
465436.html
Question: 60
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
Answer: C,D
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network_topology
Question: 61
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Answer: C
Question: 62
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2

---
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: D
Question: 63
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet
forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A,C
Bits - 1 layer
Packets - 3 layer
Question: 64
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Answer: E
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transport_layer
Question: 65
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs

---
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
Answer: B,D,F
Bits -1 layer
Frames - 2 layer
Segments - 4 layer
Question: 66
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer?
(Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Answer: D,E
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_protocol_suite
Question: 67
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer?
(Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: A,B
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_protocol_suite

---
Question: 68
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the
information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Answer: D
Question: 69
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet
frame?
A. Start of frame
B. EtherType
C. Frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Answer: B
Question: 70
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Answer: B,E
"- a bridge is a two interfaces device that creates 2 collision domains, since it forwards the traffic it
receives from one interface only to the interface where the destination layer 2 device (based on his
mac address) is connected to. A bridge is considered as an "intelligent hub" since it reads the
destination mac address in order to forward the traffic only to the interface where it is connected"
https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/1734
Question: 71

---
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.

B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Answer: B,C,E
http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Bridging_and_Switching_Basics
Question: 72
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. Discard frame
B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. Flood packet on all ports
D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
Answer: C
"What happens though when the switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not
included in the table? In that case the switch will just broadcast/flood the frame with the unknown
destination address to all of its ports (apart from the port where the frame came from). This process
is called unknown unicast flooding. "
http://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/09/how-a-switch-works/
Question: 73
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Answer: B
Question: 74
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)

---
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.

B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Answer: B,E
"In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct
broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one
or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN."
"A router (Layer 3 device) serves as the backbone for network traffic going across different VLANs."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_LAN
Question: 75
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.

B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Answer: B,C,D,F
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/layer2/configuration/guide/Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-
S_Layer_2_Switching_Configuration_Guide_Release_5.x_chapter4.html
Question: 76
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18

B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Answer: D
NX# show interface e1/18 switchport

Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)
Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default)

---
Trunking VLANs Allowed: 1-4094

Voice VLAN: none
Question: 77
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Answer: D
"A VTP client behaves like a VTP server and transmits and receives VTP updates on its trunks, but you
cannot create, change, or delete VLANs on a VTP client. VLANs are configured on another switch in
the domain that is in server mode."
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_52_se/configu
ration/guide/swvtp.html#wp1205076
Question: 78
Which three attributes can be configured when creating a new user account on a Cisco Nexus 5000
Series Switch? (Choose three.)
A. username
B. password
C. expiry date
D. access list
E. role feature
F. authentication server
Answer: A,B,C
Question: 79
A network administrator is tasked with creating a switched virtual interface for VLAN 100 on a new
Cisco Nexus switch. Which two commands does the network administrator need? (Choose two.)
A. feature interface-vlan
B. interface vlan 100
C. feature private-vlan
D. interface 100
E. interface mgmt 100

---
Answer: A, B
Question: 80
A network engineer is changing the boot process of a router from its original state to one that boots
from ROMMON. Which option in Cisco IOS should be changed?
A. config register number

B. RMON
C. bootflash settings
D. terminal history
Answer: A
Question: 81
Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows the Cisco Nexus 5000 switch to continue to start up?
A. switch(boot)# load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin

B. switch(boot)# configure terminalswitch(boot-config)# admin-password Cisco123
C. switch(boot)# load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
D. switch(boot)# load system-latest
Answer: A
Question: 82

---
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will allow the Nexus 5000 switch to continue to boot?
(Choose two.)
A. boot n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
C. copy kickstart-latest n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin startup
D. copy system-latest n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
E. boot n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin admin-password Cisco123
F. load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
Answer: A,B
Question: 83
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup

B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Answer: A,B,C
Question: 84
Which command can change the sequence of a router boot process?
A. config-register
B. configuration-register
C. conf-register
D. config-registration
Answer: A
Question: 85

---
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
Answer: A,C
Question: 86
A switch is configured to be part of a VTP domain so that its VLAN database is not affected by any
changes in the domain. Which mode should be configured on this switch?
A. client
B. transparent
C. server
D. neutral
Answer: B
Question: 87
Which process does a Cisco router perform immediately upon powering up?
A. POST
B. BIOS
C. booting from NVRAM
D. booting from ROM
Answer: A
Question: 88
On which two components of a router can a copy of a running-configuration file be saved manually
by an engineer for backup purposes? (Choose two.)
A. NVRAM
B. Flash
C. ROM
D. RAM
E. DRAM
Answer: A,B

---
Question: 89
Ethernet 1/1 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. Which configuration is
used to configure EIGRP on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0no shutdown!router eigrp

1network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. feature eigrp!router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip
router eigrp 1no shutdown
C. router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp
1no shutdown
D. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24no shutdown!router eigrp 1network
10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
Answer: B
Question: 90
VLAN 10 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. Which configuration is
used to route the IP subnet but not form OSPF neighbors on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A)
B)
C)

---
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A
Question: 91
What is the command sequence to force a Cisco Nexus 6000 switch to boot using the golden BIOS
image?
A. Press Ctrl-Shift-6 within 30 seconds of when power is supplied to the switch.

B. Press Ctrl-] within 2 seconds of when power is supplied to the switch.
C. Press Ctrl-] within 30 seconds of when power is supplied to the switch.
D. Press Ctrl-Shift-6 within 2 seconds of when power is supplied to the switch.
Answer: D
Question: 92
The kickstart image is corrupted on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch. Which procedure is used to download
a new kickstart image?

---
A. Boot the system and press Ctrl-] while the memory test is in progress to interrupt the boot loader.
B. Boot the system and press the Esc key while the memory test is in progress to interrupt the boot
loader.
C. Boot the system and press the Esc key after the BIOS memory test to interrupt the boot loader.
D. Boot the system and press Ctrl-] after the BIOS memory test to interrupt the boot loader.
Answer: C
Question: 93
Which situation results in a flashing blue status LED on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch I/O module?
A. The switch has just been powered on, and the module is resetting.
B. The module is resetting and both ejector levers are out.
C. The module has been inserted during the initialization process.
D. The module could not power up because of insufficient power.
E. The operator has activated this LED to identify this module in the chassis.
Answer: E
Topic 2, Exam Set B
Question: 94
Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3
B. Virtual Device Contexts
C. Virtual Port Channel
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: A,B
Question: 95
Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Port Channel

B. Fibre Channel
C. FabricPath
D. iSCSI
Answer: B,C
Question: 96

---
Which two options describe what can happen when devices are in the same broadcast domain?
(Choose two.)
A. They are on the same VLAN and the same switch.

B. They are on different VLANs and the same switch.
C. They are on different VLANs and different switches.
D. They are on the same VLAN and different switches.
Answer: A,D
Question: 97
If a Nexus switch receives a frame and no MAC table entry is found for the destination, what will take
place?
A. The frame will be dropped.

B. The frame will be flooded.
C. The sender will be notified.
D. The destination address will be learned.
Answer: B
Question: 98
Which three addresses are valid forms of an IPv6 Address:

2001:0DB8:0000:FE01:0000:0000:0000:0000? (Choose three.)
A. 2001:0DB8:0000:FE01::
B. 2001:DB8:0:FE01::
C. 2001:0DB8::FE01::
D. 2001:DB8:0:FE01:0:0:0:0
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 99
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4
Answer: A
Question: 100

---
Which two addresses represent multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. 224.1.47.5
B. 240.100.22.3
C. FF05::1
D. 2001::1
Answer: A,C
Question: 101
At which layer in the OSI stack does the Hypertext Transfer Protocol operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
F. Layer 6
G. Layer 7
Answer: G
Question: 102
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Answer: D
Question: 103
What is the default bridge ID priority for Rapid PVST+?
A. 128
B. 32769
C. 32768
D. 4096
Answer: B

---
Question: 104
When connecting a switch port to a virtualization host requiring 802.1q VLAN tagging, which
spanning-tree port type should be configured on the switch?
A. normal
B. edge
C. edge trunk
D. PortFast
E. trunk
Answer: C
Question: 105
How many bits are used for a subnet ID in an IPv6 address?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10
Answer: B
Question: 106
Given a subnet address of 10.6.128.0/22, how many IP addresses are usable for this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256
Answer: C
Question: 107
In Cisco NX-OS Software, which command redistributes a route of 0.0.0.0/0 into EIGRP?
A. default-information originate
B. default information originate
C. default information-originate
D. originate default-information

---
E. originate-default information
Answer: A
Question: 108
On a Cisco router, which configuration register setting bypasses the contents of the NVRAM?
A. 0x102
B. 0x2102
C. 0x2120
D. 0x2124
E. 0x2142
Answer: E
Question: 109
When using HSRP or VRRP, what are the two states of the router interfaces that are ready to take
over forwarding for the link, if necessary? (Choose two)
A. idle
B. backup
C. master
D. Standby
E. floating
Answer: BD
Question: 110
A network engineer examines a data capture and finds a lage amount traffic with the destination
address of FF;FF;FF;FF;FF;FF. What type of address is this?
A. Layer 2 broadcast address

B. Layer 3 broadcast address
C. layer 3 network address
D. a multicast address
Answer: D
Question: 111
Which advantage does the bidirectional Cisco QSFP 40-GBPs BiDi transceiver provide?
A. It supports a breakout connection with a 40-gigabit QSFP port on one end that connections to four

---
10-gigabit SDFP + ports on the other end.

B. it supports link lengths up to 40 km over single-mode fiber with duplex line card connectors.
C. It supports dedicated fabric-extender transceiver modules that connect to fabric links ( that I, links
between a fabric extender and a parent switch).
D. It enables the reuses of the existing 10-gigabit duplex MMF infrastructure for migration to 40
gigabit Ethernet connectivity.
Answer: D
Question: 112
In block-level storage, SCSI commands eare transmitted between witch to devices? (Choose two)
A. target
B. master controller
C. NAS head unit
D. initiator
E. spine switch
Answer: D
Question: 113
Which description of this core-edge topology is true?
A. The single-hop design provides minimal latency because the storage devices and the hosts
connect to the same switch.
B. The single-hop design from the host to the target provides a highly scalable solution.
C. A single core switch connects the storage devices and the hosts.
D. The hosts connect to an edge device, which is connect to the core.
Answer: D
Question: 114

---
What is the result of the configuration?
A. Traffic that originates from subnet 192.168.100.0/24 is denied access through the switch.
B. Only traffic that originates from subnet 192.168.100.0/24 can gain terminal access to the switch.
C. ACL 1 allows TCP traffic that originates from subnet 192.168.100.0/24 gain access to the switch.
D. Traffic that originates from subnet 190.169.100.0/24 fails to again terminal access to the switch.
Answer: A
Question: 115
To witch component do you connect the Layer 1 port of a fabric interconnect?
A. Layer 2 port of the opposite fabric interconnect

B. out-of band management network
C. Layer 2 port of the same fabric interconnect
D. Layer 1 port of the opposite fabric interconnect
Answer: D
Question: 116
When the auto-MDIX is disabled, which two network configuration require a crossover cable?
A. hub-to-switch
B. switch-to-workstation
C. router-to-workstation
D. hub-to-router
E. Switch-to-router
Answer: E
Question: 117
Cisco USC Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve the

---
issue?
A. Adjust the Chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting.

B. Verify that air flow through the Chassis correctly.
C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS.
D. Remove the equipment that generates excessive hat near the top of the rack
Answer: A
Question: 118
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco NX-OS user role on the left to the correct default privilege on the right.
Answer:
network-admin—Complete read-and-write access to the entire Cisco NX-OS device (only available in
the default VDC)
network-operator—Complete read access to the entire Cisco NX-OS device (only available in the
default VDC)
vdc-admin—Read-and-write access limited to a VDC
vdc-operator—Read access limited to a VDC
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-
OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-
OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter_01010.html#con_1394917
Question: 119
Which statement about VIP is true?
A. There is a misconfiguration ; only one device running device running in server mode per domain is
allowed
B. 5K-2 is configured in server mode
C. 7k-3 configuration in client mode
D. Configuration a VLAN on 5K-1 would not be allowed, since 5k-1 is in client mode
E. configuration a VLAN on 5k-2 would be allowed, but the VLAN would not be learned by the other
devices in the domain DCICN
Answer: A
Question: 120

---
Which description of the configuration is true?
A. Host 10.1.1.1.2 in the network operator group.

B. Host 10.1.1.1.2 can access both communities
C. Host 10.1.1.1 can access the ABC community only.
D. Host 10.1.1.1 can access both communities.
Answer: D
Question: 121
Which type of port is used to connect an edge switch in NIPV mode to the core switch?
A. E
B. F
C. NP
D. TE
Answer: C
Question: 122
What is the result when you run the command?
A. All switches in the fabric receive the active zone set.

B. The zone set is activated on the switch only.
C. On the reboot, all switches in the fabric receives the active zone set.

---
D. The default zone set is activated on all switches in the fabric.
Answer: B
Question: 123
Which two of the following statements are true with respect to STP in this network? (Choose 2)
A. Both 5k’s have BPDU Guard and BPDU Filter enabled by default, while both 7k’s do not
B. Both 5k’s bridge Assurance enabled, while both 7k’s do not
C. 7k’s is the root bridge for VLANs 100-150
D. Both 7K-3 and 7k-4 being vPC peers, are the root bridge for VLANs 100-150
E. No devices have a root cost higher than 1, since all devices are no more that 1 hop away from each
other
Answer: BE
Question: 124
When comparing TCP and UDP segments, which two fields are found only in TCP segment? (Choose
two.)
A. Checksum
B. acknowledgement
C. length
D. source
E. Sequence number
Answer: DE
Question: 125
Which block storage protocol can be used over unlimited distance?
A. SMB
B. iSCSI
C. Fibre Channel
D. FCoE
Answer: B
Question: 126
In HSRP, how do interface determine failure and assign standby and active routers?
A. by using Cisco Discovery

---
B. by using Cisco Spanning Tree protocol

C. by exchanging BPDUs
D. by using multicast UDP hello messages
Answer: D
Question: 127
Which result command is true?
A. All broadcast traffic is suppressed on Ethernet 1/1.

B. All broadcast and multicast traffic is allowed on Ethernet 1/1.
C. All broadcast traffic is allowed on Ethernet 1/1.
D. All broadcast and multicast traffic is suppressed on Ethernet E1/1.
Answer: A
Question: 128
For which reason would you implement a VSAN?
A. to overcome the limitations of zoning

B. to virtualize storage
C. to segment the physical fabric into multiple logical fabrics
D. to overcome the limitations of LUN masking
Answer: C
Question: 129
How does a GLBP cluster respond to a host ARP request for the virtual IP address?
A. The highest priority AVF responds by using its own hardware MAC address.
B. The least utilized router responds by using its own virtual MAC address.
C. The AVG responds by using one virtual MAC address.
D. The AVG responds by using its own hardware MAC address.
Answer: A

---
Question: 130
Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. TCP packet
B. EEE 802.3 with LLC frame
C. Ethernet frame
D.EEE802.3 with SNAP frame
Answer: A
Question: 131
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the feature on the left to the correct description on the right.
Answer:
Authorization = Provide access control and verifies whether the connected user can execute a
submitted command.
Authentication = The process of verifying the identity of the person or device accessing the resource.
Accounting = Provides a method to collect and log information, and send the information to the AAA
server for billing, auditing, and reporting
RBAC = A method of restricting or authorization system access for users based on user roles and
locales.
Question: 132
Which router type is the most trustworthy for a Cisco routing device?
A. EIGRP dynamic
B. static
C. BGP dynamic
D.OSPF dynamic

---
Answer: A
Question: 133
Which protocol data unit is associated with the link layer of the TCP/IP model?
A. frame
B. packet
C. segment
D. datagram
Answer: A
Question: 134
Which two protocols are associated with the link layer of the TCP/IP reference model? (Choose two.)
A. UDP
B. STP
C. HSRP
D. Ipsec
E. LLDEP
Answer: AE
Question: 135
Which description of a multiple-initiator target zone is true?
A. It uses more TCAM than a single-initiator single target zone.

B. It increases the number of zones.
C. It uses less TCM space than a single-initiator target zone.
D. It blocks RSCNs between initiators.
Answer: A
Question: 136
In fiber Channel networking, the FCID composed of which of the following?
A. VSANID, area ID, port ID

B. domain ID, zone ID, port ID
C. domain ID, area ID, port ID
D.VSAN ID, zone ID, port ID

---
Answer: D
Question: 137
Which two descriptions of a Fabricpath network are true? (Choose two.)
A. A leaf node connects to servers.

B. Leaf nodes can be Layer 3 devices.
C. A spine node connects to other switch in the fabric.
D. There is a spanning tree protocol running between leaf and spine switches
E. A spine node connects to servers.
Answer: B, D
Question: 138
The nWWN is assigned to which SAN fabric component?
A. a Fibre Channel adapter

B. a disk
C. an SFP module
D. a Fibre Channel interface
Answer: D
Question: 139
Which statement describes the uses of zones in a VSAN?
A. Zones are configured at the fabric core.

B. An HBA or storage device can only belong to zone.
C. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic.
D. Zones are a group of sports within a single VSAN.
Answer: C
Question: 140
Which statement about SAN zooming is true?
A. Describes can belong to more than one zone.

B. zones must be the same size.
C. zone membership can be configured only on a pWWN basis.
D. Hard zoning can be disabled

---
Answer: A
Question: 141
Which two descriptions of Fibre WWNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. 48bits long
B. 64 or 128 bits long
C. 96 bits long
D. manually configured on each device by an administrator
E. allocated to manufactures by IEEE
Answer: B, D
Question: 142
Which statement is true about the cross connections between 5k’s and 7k’s in the network?
A. VLAN 100 is the native VLAN

B. 56 extended VALN are configured in the network
C. VLANs 125-150 are allowed on the cross connections between the 7k’s and 5k’s
D. VLANs 100-124 are err-disabled on the cross connections between the 7k’s and 5k’s
Answer: C
Question: 143
What is the binary notation of the 192.168.3.24 IP address?
A. 10100000 10110010 11100011 00011001

B. 11000100 11101000 00000011 00010000
C. 11000000 11000001 11000101 11000111
D.11000000 10101000 00000011 00011000
Answer: D
Question: 144
7K-3 and 7k-4 have the following configuration.

Spanning-tree mst 1 priority 24576
Spanning-tree mst configuration
name DCICN
revision 2
instance 1 vlan 100-150
Which of the following statements is true about the network?

---
A. 7K-3 is the mst root for VLANs 100-150

B. 7k-4 is the mst root for VLANs 100-150
C. Both 7k-3 and 7k-4 are the root for VLANs 100-150
D. MST is not enabled on 7k-3 and 7k-4
Answer: D
Question: 145
Which characteristic of the n+1 power redundancy mode is true?
A. It uses fully redundant PSUs supplied by a single circuit.

B. It uses fully redundant PSUs supplied by different circuits.
C. It uses one more PSU than required to power the chassis.
D. It uses the minimum number of PSUs required to power.
Answer: A
Question: 146
Which two naming formats are used to identify an iSCSI node? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. MAC
C. IPv6
D. IQN
E. EHA
Answer: AD
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-
vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.config_iscsi.doc_41/esx_san_config/storage_area_n
etwork/c_iscsi_naming_conventions.html
Question: 147
When you enter the feature npv command on a storage-capable switch from Cisco, what is the
result?
A. N-port Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.

B. the switch erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-port Virtualization.
C. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-port
Virtualization.
D. N-port ID Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.
Answer: C

---
Question: 148
Which list contains the different methods of authorization that are used by AAA?
A.T ACACS+, ACL, AD, Local, and RADIUS
B. TACACS+, ACL, Local, and AD
C. TACACS+, None, Local, and ACL
D. TACACS+, None, Local, and RADIUS
Answer: A
Question: 149
Which two type of endpoint are used for the Ethernet encapsulation of Fibre Channel frames?
(Choose two.)
A. FIP
B. virtual Fibre Channel
C. Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)
D. fCoE node (Enode)
E. iSCSI
Answer: B, D
Question: 150
How does the switch process the Ethernet frame?
A. drop the frame

B. Forwards the frame to port3
C. filter the frame
D. floods the frame
Answer: B
Question: 151

---
The MAC address table on a Cisco Nexus Server switch is full .What Layer 2 network behavior will
occur while the network MAC address table remains full?
A. All frames will be flooded.

B. Frames with an unknown destination address will be flooded.
C. The switch reset the Mac address table. removin all MAC addresses.
D. The stitch will remove all dynamically MAC address from the table
Answer: B
Question: 152
Which two descriptions of fibre Channel WWNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. 48 bits long
B. 64 or 128 bits long
C. 96 bits long
D. manually configured on each device by an administrator
E. allocated to manufacturers by IEEE
Answer: BE
Question: 153
Which statement accurately describes the Single initiator Target zone model?
A. One initiator node connects to one SAN array.

B. One initiator HBA port connects to one disk controller
C. One initiator node connects to one SAN fabric.
D. One initiator HBA card connects to one disk controller.
Answer: D
Question: 154
Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together?
A. N port
B. E port
C. F port
D.NL port
Answer: B
Question: 155

---
Which host can securely to the switch by using SSH?
A. 10.1.15
B. 10.200.200.1
C. 10.2.1.1
D.10.9.1.2
Answer: A
Question: 156
Which statement describes the use of zones in a VSAN?
A. zones are configured at the fabric core.

B. An HBA or storage device can belong to one zone.
C. zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic.
D. zones are a group ports within a single VSAN.
Answer: D
Question: 157
Which description of a FLOGI database is true?
A. It displays the status of the various VSANs in the fabric.

B. it indicates the devices that connect directly to the switch.
C. It shows the switch of the zones on the Local switch.
D. It travels VSAN s in the network.
Answer: B

---
Question: 158
Which OSI reference model layer provides flow control, sequencing, and acknowledgments?
A. transport
B. data link
C. session
D. presentation
Answer: A
Question: 159
For witch reason would you implement a VSAN?
A. to overcome the limitation of zoing

B. to virtualize storage
C. to segment the physical fabric into multiple logical fabrics
D. to overcome the limitations of LUN masking
Answer: C
Question: 160
Which two are Fibre Channel topologies? (Choose two.)
A. spine and leaf topology

B. port-to-port
C. port-to-multipoint
D. star topology
E. arbirated loop
Answer: B, D
Question: 161
DRAG DROP
Drag the component on the left to the TCP/IP layer it corresponds to a the right,.Not all options are
used.

---
Answer:
Transport protocol:
TCP
UDP
Network :
IP address
ethernet
Data Link:
Mac Address
router
Question: 162
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Ethernet UTP cable category on the left to the correct description on the right.
Answer:

---
Question: 163
Which two statements about a sipne and-leaf data center design are true? (Choose two.)
A. The design is a three-tier architecture.

B. The design is a two-tier architecture.
C. A spine switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center de
D. All spine switches connect directly to one another.
E. A leaf switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center design.
Answer: B, E
Question: 164
You must attack a strong peripheral to a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch. Which type of port do you
use?
A. E
B. F
C. TE
D.NP
Answer: B
Question: 165

---
When you enter the feature npv command on a storage-capable switch from Cisco, what is the
result?
A. N-Port Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.

B. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-Port ID
Virtualization.
C. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-Port
Virtualization.
D. N-Port ID Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.
Answer: C
Question: 166
What happens when there is no entry in the Layer 2 CAM table that corresponds to the destination
MAC address of an incoming frame?
A. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in all VLANs.

B. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN, except the port on which it is
received.
C. The switch drops the frame.
D. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN, including the port on which it is
received.
Answer: B
Question: 167
Which protocol is used to encapsulate Fibre Channel frames, enabling them to be transmitted over
Ethernet networks?
A. FCoE
B. DCB
C. SCSI
D. Ethernet SAN
Answer: A
Question: 168
Which communication type uses a one-to-many model to replicate packets that are delivered to
many interested recipients?
A. unknown unicast
B. broadcast

---
C. unicast
D. multicast
Answer: D
Question: 169
Regarding the OSI networking model and the updated TCP/IP networking model, which statement
about this scenario is true?
A. Model A is TCP/IP, Model B is OSI, Layer C is Transport, Layer D is Internet, and Layer E is Physical.
B. Model A is OSI, Model B is TCP/IP, Layer C is Session, Layer D is Network, and Layer E is Physical.
C. Model A is OSI, Model B is TCP/IP, Layer C is Transport, Layer D is Data Link, and Layer E is Physical.
D. Model A is TCP/IP, Model B is OSI, Layer C is Transport, Layer D is Internet, and Layer E is Network
Access.
Answer: C
Topic 3, Exam Set C (NEW)
Question: 170
Which description of the output is true?
A. four WWNNs and four WWPNs

---
B. one WWNN and four WWPNs

C. one WWNN and one WWPN
D. four WWNNs and one WWPN
Answer: A
Question: 171
Which description of the AAA accounting feature is true?
A. It regulates which options a user can access on a switch.

B. It maintains a log of every management session used to access a switch.
C. It verifies the identity of a user who is accessing a switch.
D. It assembles a set of attributes that describe what a user is authorized to perform.
Answer: B
Question: 172
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the zoning type on the left to the correct description on the right.
Answer:
Question: 173
Which two options are block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. NAS

---
D. FCoE
E. CIFS
Answer: BD
Question: 174
You are configuring an extended access list to permit a reply from Destination Server B to Source
Host A for HTTP traffic.
Which extended access list should you implement on the inbound interface of Router1?
A. router(config)# permit tcp host 209.165.200.230 host 209.165.202.130 eq www

B. router(config)# permit tcp host 209.165.200.230 eq www host 209.165.202.130
C. router(config)# permit tcp host 209.165.202.130 host 209.165.200.230 eq www
D. router(config)# permit tcp host 209.165.202.130 eq www host 209.165.200.230
Answer: A
Question: 175
A network engineer needs to configure an SVI on a Cisco Nexus Series switch After configuring VLAN
10, which set of commands must the engineer enter, to complete the SVI configuration?
A)

---
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
Question: 176

---
Which two statements accurately describe the hosts, storage systems, and zones in the storage
architecture'? (Choose two.)
A. H3 resides in only one zone

B. H3 cannot access storage systems S1 and S2
C. Zone 2 restricts data on S3 so that only H3 can access that data
D. Zone 1 and Zone 2 cannot belong to the same zone set
E. Zone 1 provides access from all three hosts to storage systems S1 and S2
Answer: CE
Question: 177
How many layers are present in the OSI layer model versus the TCP/IP model?
A. five layers in OSI and six layers in TCP/IP

B. six layers in OSI and three layers in TCP/IP
C. four layers in OSI and seven layers in TCP/IP
D. seven layers in OSI and four layers in TCP/IP
Answer: C
Question: 178
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the CLI configuration command on the left to the correct order on the right to
configure a Layer 3 interface. Not all options are used.

---
Answer:
Interface ethernet1/13
No switchport
Ip address 192.168.1.254/24
No shutdown
Question: 179
Which description of a vFC interface is true?
A. It can be associated to more than one VSAN

B. It must be bound to an FCoE-enabled Ethernet or EtherChannel interface.
C. It can be associated to a private VLAN
D. It can be associated to an FCoE VLAN
Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/513_n1_1/b_Cisc
o_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_513_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_513_n1_1_chapter_0100.ht
ml
Question: 180
Which statement about the HSRP protocol is true?
A. Multiple routers in an HSRP group are in an active state, to enable round-robin load balancing of
traffic
B. In Cisco NX-OS. HSRP is configured to pre-empt by default
C. HSRP version 2 is an open standard protocol that is described in RFC 2281
D. One router in an HSRP group is in an active state. All other routers are in a standby state or
listening state
Answer: C
Question: 181
Which reason for configuring a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch in NPV mode is valid?

---
A. to increase the domain ID limit by assigning subdomain IDs to the edge switches
B. to share all the domain IDs with the core and edge switches
C. to eliminate the domain ID limit by assigning a different domain ID to the core switch
D. to alleviate the domain ID limit by sharing the domain ID with the edge switches
Answer: C
Question: 182
Which two types of interface exist on Cisco Nexus Fabric Extender? (Choose two)
A. network interface (NIF)

B. uplink interface (UF)
C. host interface (HIF)
D. edge interface (EIF)
E. trunk interface (TIF)
Answer: AC
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/operations/interfaces/
602_n1_1/N5K_Interfaces_Ops_Guide/n5k_ops_gde_fabricextenders.html
Question: 183
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the transceiver type on the left to the correct use on the right.
Answer:
Connects a copper Gigabit Ethernet port on a server to a switch = 1000BASE-T SFP
Support link length up to 5 meters = SFP+ passive copper twinx
Connects two devices using a single strand of fiber = SFP bidirectional
Support a link length of 10 kilometers using standard single-mode fiber = LR SFP+
Connect two devices using 40 gigabit Ethernet ports = QSFP
Question: 184
DRAG DROP

---
Drag and drop the protocols on the left to the correct storage types for which they are used on the
right.
Answer:
File Storage
CIFS
ISCSI
Block Storage
Fibre Channel
NFS
Question: 185
What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)
A. memory extension node

B. hard drive
C. fabric interconnect
D. power supply
E. compute node
Answer: AD
Question: 186
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the FCoE protocols on the left to the correct descriptions on the right.
Answer:
DCBXP = used to announce, exchange, and negotiate node parameters between peers
ETS = provides prioritized processing based on bandwidth allocation
PFC = Flow control mechanism
FIP = perform device discovery, initialization, and link maintenance

---
Question: 187
Which description of NPIV is true?
A. It allows storage traffic to transverse Ethernet networks.

B. It exchanges zone information through the fabric.
C. It assigns multiple Fiber Channel IDs to a single N Port.
D. It is enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
Answer: C
Question: 188
Cisco UCS Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve the
issue?
A. Verify that air flows through the chassis correctly

B. Remove the equipment that generates excessive heat near the top of the rack
C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS
D. Adjust the chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting
Answer: D
Question: 189
Which statement about FHRP protocols is true?
A. GLBP group member routers respond to ARP requests by providing their physical MAC addresses
B. If HSRP priority is not configured, then the router with the highest IP address in the group is
elected as active
C. VRRP and GLBP are standards-based protocols
D. VRRP provides load balancing by sharing the same virtual MAC address on all VRRP routers
Answer: A
Question: 190

---
How many broadcast domains are represented'?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D
Question: 191
Which two protocols are associated with the link layer of the OSI reference model? (Choose two)
A. VTP
B. SSH
C. CDP
D. BGP
E. DNS
Answer: BD
Question: 192
The MAC address table on a Cisco Nexus Series switch is full What Layer 2 network behavior will
occur while the network MAC address table remains full?
A. The switch will remove all dynamically learned MAC addresses from the table
B. Frames with an unknown destination address will be flooded
C. All frames will be flooded
D. The switch will reset the MAC address table, removing all MAC addresses.
Answer: C

---
Question: 193
Which two addresses are valid in the data layer of the OSI reference model? (Choose two.)
A. 10. 1.1.1
B. 00:00:0C:5C: 5E: A2: F3
C. 34:75:10:88:5A
D. Fe80::88a1: 74f0:78748b51:1919
E. 2001:0db8:85a3::8a2a:0370:7334
Answer: B, C
Question: 194
Which two protocols can you use SAN storage that is accesses via low-latency, high-bandwidth
networking? (Choose two.)
A. AFP
B. CIFS
C. NFS
D. FCP
E. iSCSI
Answer: B, C
Question: 195
How many Fire Channel zone sets can be active at one time for any given VSAN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Question: 196
Which statement about First Hop Redundancy Protocols is true?
A. They ensure a loop-free logical topology.

B. They use multicast to communicate hello messages with each other.
C. They ensure a loop-free physical topology.
D. They always require a minimum of three IP addresses.

---
Answer: D
Question: 197
Which two descriptions of NPV are true? (Choose two.)
A. It must be configured on all hosts that connect to the NPV switch.

B. lt reduces the number of domain IDs in a fabric.
C. It combines locally connected N Ports into a single uplink.
D. It assigns multiple Fibre IDs to a single Port.
E. It is deployed to a VM by using Cisco UCS Manager.
Answer: B, D
Question: 198
You want to restrict access from Host B. Where do you apply the ACL?
A. to a VTY by using a named ACL

B. to the outbound interface of the router
C. to the inbound interface of the router
D. to the inbound and the outbound interfaces of the router
Answer: D
Question: 199
Which two protocols operate at the data link layer of the OSI reference model? (Choose two.)
A. STP
B. NetBIOS
C. OSPF
D. ICMP
E. LLDP

---
Answer: A, E
Question: 200
Which type of cable do you use with a Cisco QSEP 40-Gbps BiDi transceiver?
A. MMF
B. active twinax
C. STP
D. SMF
Answer: A
Question: 201
Which types of cable do you use to connect two Cisco switches that are 50 km apart?
A. UTP
B. STP
C. MMF
D. SMF
Answer: D
Question: 202
Which purpose is a valid reason to change the mode of an interface to a TE Port on a Cisco Nexus
6000 Series switch?
A. to connect a third party SAN switch

B. to span a Fibre Channel port
C. to connect an NP1V switch to an NPV core switch
D. to create a VSAN trunk
Answer: D
Question: 203
An engineer has been tasked with implementing block based storage in the data center. Which
protocol must the engineer use?
A. CIFS
B. NAS
C. NFS
D. FCoE

---
Answer: D
Question: 204
Before you configure an SVI on a Cisco Nexus Series switch, which command must you enter?
A. Feature pim
B. feature ospf
C. feature interface-vlan
D. feature private-vlan
Answer: C
Question: 205
Which conferencing solution is designed for messaging, meeting, calling and persistent content
sharing?
A. CMR
B. Spark
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Telepresence Server
Answer: B
Question: 206
What is a function of a call control solution?
A. To make, monitor and maintain calls.

B. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
C. To schedule calls.
D. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
Answer: A
Question: 207
Which conferencing solution is designed for scalable meetings, training and events?
A. Spark
B. Telepresence Server
D. Cisco WebEx

---
Answer: D
Question: 208
Which Cisco Meeting Server component is used for interworking different communication protocols?
A. XMPP Server
B. Recorder
C. Web Bridge
D. H. 323 gateway
Answer: D
Question: 209
What is known as the User Policy?
A. Call Policy
B. Authentication
C. Me
D. Admin Policy
Answer: C
Question: 210
Which Cisco Meeting Server component is used for traversal?
A. SIP Edge
B. Recorder
C. Database
D. TURN Server
Answer: D
Question: 211
Which call processing stage standardizes destination aliases originating from both SIP and H.323
devices?
A. Hunt group
B. Find Rules
C. transforms
D. Conference template

---
Answer: C
Question: 212
Which is a protocol used in the traversing of media across a firewall through the Expressway?
A. SIP
B. H.460.18/19
C. H239
D. H.245
Answer: B
Question: 213
Which statement is true Microsoft Skype for Business (S4B) interoperability with Cisco Meeting
Server?
A. Calls cannot be place between S4B and Cisco Meeting App (CMA) users.
B. Chat can be used between A4B and Cisco Meeting App users.
C. Local Directories can always be used between S4B users and CMA.
D. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting Server Spaces.
Answer: C
Question: 214
Which is an administrator function Cisco Spark partner resellers are allowed to perform from the
Cisco Spark Management portal?
A. Determine Single Sign-On customer usage report.

B. Determine role-based access and view usage reports.
C. Enable Single-On and Directory sync through corporate LDAP services on premises.
D. Customer account management.
Answer: D
Question: 215
Which is a method used by the Expressway for bandwidth control?
A. Subzones
B. Regions
C. Hunt Groups
D. Zones

---
Answer: A
Question: 216
Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?
A. SDP
B. SIP
C. Q.931
D. 802.1
Answer: C
Question: 217
Which deployment model is the solution to accommodate fail-over for Cisco Meeting Server?
A. Single Combined Server Deployment

B. Single Split Server Deployment
C. Scaled and Combined Server Deployment
D. Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
Answer: D
Question: 218
Which statement is true regarding Subzones?
A. Endpoints are assigned to a particular Subzone by their alias or IP subnet

B. Subzones require the use of endpoint authentication.
C. Endpoints require the use of other endpoints tor authentication
D. Subzones are used for routing calls to peers in other parts of the network
Answer: A
Question: 219
Which is an endpoint supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Legacy H 323 endpoints

B. CMA Clients
C. immersive Telepresence endpoints
D. Jabber Video
Answer: C

---
Question: 220
Which Cisco videophones can be registered to Spark?
A. 8845
B. 8945
C. 9971
D. 7961
Answer: A
Question: 221
How many simultaneously HD calls can be supported on a Cisco Meeting Server 1000?
A. 108
B. 48
C. 24
D. 96
Answer: D
Question: 222
Which product is a Call Control Server that supports both voice and video communication?
A. Cisco Meeting Server

B. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Content Server
Answer: C
Question: 223
What is oAuth?
A. Allows an application to act on behalf of a user.

B. Allows a user to act on behalf of an application.
C. A type of authentication used when users sign into Cloud applications, such as Cisco Spark.
D. A type of authentication used when integrating a Cloud applications with a premises solution.
Answer: B

---
Question: 224
How is TIP defined?
A. TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.

B. TIP multiple RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in call between immersive
endpoints.
C. TIP multiple RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323
and SIP endpoint, whether they are immersive endpoints or non-immersive endpoints.
D. TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used.
Answer: B
Question: 225
What is a function of a management solution?
A. To schedule calls
B. To provide an audio and video interlace for the user
C. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication
Answer: A
Question: 226
Which Spark package supports meetings up to 25 people?
A. Plus, or MI
B. Event Center
C. Advanced, or M2
D. Premium, or M3
Answer: C
Question: 227
What is a function of a conferencing solution?
A. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.

B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication
Answer: A

---
Question: 228
Which statement is true regarding endpoint registration authentication?
A. When a Subzone is a set for ''Treat as Authenticated''. the endpoint is require to have the correct
authentications configured.
B. Expressways and Endpoint do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps
C. SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.
D. Authentication credentials can be stored in the database of the Expressway.
Answer: D
Question: 229
Which statement is true about APIs and SDks?
A. APIs can be used without SDKs.

B. SDKs can be used without APIs.
C. SDKs specify software components should interact.
D. APIs consists of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
Answer: D
Question: 230
During a call request, which occurs prior to the Expressway searching for the destination endpoint in
the registration list?
A. Hunt Group
B. bandwidth Restriction
C. Hunt List
D. Transforms
Answer: D
Question: 231
Which Cisco WebEx Center has program end campaign management?
A. Cisco WebEx Event Center

B. Cisco WebEx Support Center
C. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D. Cisco WebEx Training Center
Answer: A

---
Question: 232
In a Resident and Scalable Meeting Servers solution where should TURN Servers be configured?
A. CMS Edge
B. CMS Core
C. UCM Server
D. TelePresence Server
Answer: A
Question: 233
Which ports are used for SIP calling on the Expressway?
A. 164 and 323

B. 5060 and 5061
C. 1719 and 1720
D. 80 and 443
Answer: B
Question: 234
Which is a Call Control Device in a Cisco Collaboration environment?
A. Cisco Content Server

B. Cisco Meeting Server
C. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
D. Cisco Expressway
Answer: B
Question: 235
Which protocol is used for an immersive telepresence meeting?
A. H.239
B. Assent
C. TIP
D. H.323
Answer: C
Question: 236

---
What is a function of an endpoint?
A. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.

B. To act us a traffic cop for network communication.
D. To provide an audio and video interlace for the user.
Answer: D
Question: 237
Which room system can also function as a white board?
A. Spark Board
B. Mx800
C. SX20
D. SX10
Answer: A
Question: 238
How is the Management Connector configured for Cisco Spark hybrid?
A. From the Web interface of Spark Administration.

B. From the Web interface of the Expressway Edge.
C. From the Web interface of the Expressway Core and the Web Interface of Spark Administration.
D. From the Web interface of the Expressway Core.
Answer: D
Question: 239
Which is included in an endpoint's registration request message sent to a SIP Server?
A. E 164 URI
B. E 164 address
C. SIP Server IP address
D. Endpoint IP address
Answer: C
Question: 240
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

---
A. Telepresence Server
C. Spark
D. Cisco WebEx
Answer: B
Question: 241
What is the only WebEx product that can used in a CMR Cloud solution?
A. Cisco WebEx Support Center

B. Cisco WebEx Training Center
C. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D. Cisco WebEx Event Center
Answer: C
Question: 242
What do Enterprise Settings on Cisco Spark determine?
A. API integration
B. How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.
C. BOT integration
D. Where user information comes from
Answer: D
Question: 243
Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?
A. Calling
B. Meeting
C. Room Registration
D. Messaging
Answer: B
Question: 244
If a user of a SIP endpoint registered to an Expressway configured with only the vidoe.com domain
physically dials. ''6501'', what alias is presented in the SIP invite message?

---
A. 6501@<ip address of the endpoint

B. 6501
C. 6501 @<ip address of the Expressway
D. 6501@vidoe.com
Answer: C
Question: 245
Which is a protocol used for sharing content?
A. TIP
B. Assent
C. H.239
D. H.323
Answer: C
Question: 246
Which Cisco WebEX product can be integrated in a CMR Cloud or CMR Hybrid deployment?

B. Cisco WebEx Event Center
C. Cisco WebEx Center
D. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
Answer: D
Question: 247
In which call processing stage can an alias be changed by a rule into another form?
A. Search Rules
B. Find Rules
C. Hunt Rules
D. Conference Rules
Answer: A
Question: 248
Which Cisco Spark Bot type act as a text-based remote control for external services?
A. Controllers
B. SMS to Spark Bot

---
C. Notifier
D. Assistants
Answer: B
Question: 249
When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Script be saved/
A. .xml
B. .json
C. .js
D. .mp4
Answer: C
Question: 250
Which Cisco WebEx products can support over 5000 attendees?

B. Cisco WebEx Training Center
C. Cisco WebEx Event Center
D. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
Answer: C
Question: 251
Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?
A. The ability to register desktop phones

B. Global phone books
C. SRST redundancy
D. The ability to register video endpoints
Answer: D
Question: 252
How many video endpoints can call into a CMR Cloud meeting?
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 8

---
Answer: A
Question: 253
Which type of API is used to configure settings on the Cisco Meeting Server?
A. XML-RPC
B. SOAP
C. REST
D. XMP-RPC
Answer: C
Question: 254
What must be configured to set up a Directory connector for Cisco Spark Hybrid?
A. The administrator only needs to configure AD settings in the Cisco Spark Management Portal.
B. The administrator needs to configured AD to point Cisco Spark Cloud.
C. The administrator must log in to Cloud Collaboration Management and download the Directory
Connector in the Windows Server.
D. Configured the Directory Connector on the Expressway Core.
Answer: C
Question: 255
What protocol is used by TMS when a system cannot be contacted using SNMP?
A. H.245
B. https
C. H 239
D. TIP
Answer: B
Question: 256
What protocol does an Expressway use to send the call setup message in an H.323 call?
A. H.245
B. H.239
C. T.120
D. Q.931

---
Answer: D
Question: 257
What is a unique feature of Expressway?
A. Persistent content available to room participants.

B. Message, meet and calling for cloud-based solutions.
C. Advanced video routing on video-only networks.
D. Support of unified communications with contact center
Answer: C
Question: 258
Which statement is correct regarding the assignment of endpoints to a subzone?
A. By default, all endpoints are registered to the Neighbor Subzone.

B. By default, all endpoints are registered to the Default Subzone.
C. Registration Restriction Rule must be configured that matches the endpoint's alias or IP subnet.
D. Endpoints making a traversal call must be registered to the Traversal Subzone.
Answer: B
Question: 259
Which is used in both CMR Premises and CMR Hybrid solutions?
A. Cisco CTS
B. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D. Cisco Conductor
Answer: B
Question: 260
Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?
A. TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.

B. TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
C. TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
D. TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.
Answer: C

---
Question: 261
What is the maximum number of Expressways that can be clustered?
A. 9
B. 6
C. 5
D. 2
Answer: B
Question: 262
Which management solution works with endpoints registered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?
A. TMS
B. Time
C. CMA
D. CMR
Answer: B
Question: 263
Where are license keys entered in TMS?
A. Administrative Settings
B. Diagnostics
C. General Settings
D. Maintenance
Answer: C
Question: 264
What H.323 functionality exists on the Cisco Meeting Server?
A. H323-to-SlP Interworking only

B. H 323 registration and call control only
C. H.323 registration and H.323-to-SlP Interworking, but no call control
D. H323 registration, call control and H.323-to-SIP Interworking
Answer: A

---
Question: 265
Which call solution supports messaging, meeting and calling?
A. Expressway
B. UCM
C. Spark
D. HCS
Answer: C
Question: 266
TMS is a virtual application that relies on what Operating System?
A. Linux Ubuntu
B. Oracle
C. MS Access
D. Windows Server
Answer: D
Question: 267
Which premise-based conferencing solution works with Conductor, TMS and WebEx to create CMR
Hybrid solutions?
A. MSE8000
C. Spark
D. TelePresence Server
Answer: B
Question: 268
Which deployment model is the bet solution for a simple installation with the most secure
connection outside the protection network for Cisco Meeting Server?
A. Single Combined Server Deployment

B. Stable and Resilient Server Deployment
C. Scalable and Combined Server Deployment
D. Single Split Server Deployment
Answer: A

---
Question: 269
Which is a configuration mode through Crisco Spark that allows Zero Touch Meetings (ZTM) and
allows a user to utilize their enterprise phone as the audio or video terminal for Spark calls?
A. Call Connector
B. Directory Service
C. Call Service Connect
D. calendar Service
Answer: C
Question: 270
What is a primary purpose of the Traversal Subzone?
A. To provide for Mobile Remote Access for endpoints outside the network.
B. To encrypt traversal calls to neighbored Expressways.
C. To enable firewall traversal between public and private endpoints.
D. To apply bandwidth restrictions on traversal calls.
Answer: D
Question: 271
Which system users intelligent Audio to cancel out background noise?
A. DX70
B. DX80
C. Spark
D. Jabber
Answer: B

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Cisco 200-150 Exam

!!!Thanks to following Members For Their Contribution !!!

Names : MB, JBM ,CALT ENA, KS, AU, AnM, ZS, SA ,

Premium Exam Question

“Best Material, Great Results”. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs 1 of 1

Product Questions: 271

A. inter VLANs routing is not enabled on both switches

Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)

A. Virtual Port Channel

Layer 3 license - Enterprise Services Package - LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG

Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Refer to the exhibit.

What type of network communication is depicted?

A. shielded twisted-pair cable

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. MDS-A# show license serial-number

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Which statement regarding Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches is true?

A. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches operate in r routing mode.

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Which statement Is true regarding configuring NPV mode?

server performs a new login to the core switch.

B. IEEE 802. 1AB

A. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101 permit tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80

A. show wwn status

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Which address type is used in IPv4 but is not used in IPv6?

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. default port-channel mode

A. Fiber Channel over Ethernet

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. MDS-A# show host database

At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated?

A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch

Which two hosts are part of subnet 172.16.160.0/20? (Choose two.)

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Which protocol is supported when OSPFv2 is used as the routing protocol?

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?

Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. Software updates are disruptive to VLANs.

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. The switch receives a destination MAC address of 0000.0000.0000

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. Server to Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch

What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?

A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. extend Layer 2 services to a Layer 3 capable VLAN using Layer 3 tunneling.

Which two options are file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. regular fromat WWNs are being used

A. zone copy active-zoneset ful-zoneset

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

What is the principle function of the data center core layer?

A. high-speed packet switching

A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110

IT Study Materials & Practical QAs