SUMMATIVE TEST IN EARTH AND LIFE SCIENCE

Multiple Choice: Read and answer the following questions. Write your answer before the number.

1. What Miller and other scientists discovered about the primitive life on earth?
A. Cells survived in the primitive atmosphere.
B. Simple cells can be produced in a laboratory.
C. Life on early Earth required material from space.
D. Amino acids and sugars could be produced from inorganic molecules.
2. Which of the following levels in the hierarchy of biological organization include all the other levels in the list?
A) population C. community
B) ecosystem D. organ system
3. Which of the following is the sum of the chemical activity at the cellular level, which enables an organism to meet its nutrient and
energy demand?
A) Growth C. Metabolism
B) Energy D. Responsiveness
4. If two organisms reproduce sexually, which of the following genetic makeup will exhibit by their offspring?
A. identical to only one parent
B. identical to all its siblings
C. a unique combination of traits
D. the recessive traits of each parent
5. Which of the following is the primary function of the loop of Henle in mammals?
A. water secretion
B. ammonia secretion
C. reabsorption of water
D. bicarbonate reabsorption
6. Organisms belonging to the same _____ would be the most closely related.
A. Class C. Family
B. Phylum D. Kingdom
7. Which of the following statements best interpret the illustration below?

A. Similar creatures have similar structures.

B. Creatures that share similar structures also share a close common ancestor.
C. Similar structures between species shows that each of this species also share similar functions of these same parts.
D. Similar bone structures between these creatures supports Darwin's idea that as species evolve from a common ancestor,
modifications will develop.

8. Which of the following is considered an ecosystem?

A. a rock C. tropical rainforest
B. fungus D. an owl and a mouse
9. Which of the following factors decrease the stability of an ecosystem?
A. the removal of one species
B. an increase in plant biodiversity
C. an increase in animal biodiversity
D. the removal of one individual animal
10. Which of the following bodies of water where the freshwater of a river meets saltwater from the ocean?
A. lake B. ocean C. estuary D. river
11. How do decomposers help other organisms in an ecosystem?
A. They help disperse seeds for plant growth.
B. Decomposers do not help other organisms in an ecosystem.
C. They use sunlight to make their food that other organisms eat for energy.
D. They break down dead organisms and add nutrients back to the soil that plants use.
12. Which of the following is an organism that uses light?
A. autotroph C. organotroph
B. phototroph D. heterotroph
13. Which of the following organisms is not ultimately dependent to the sun as a source of energy?
A. A leopard in the zoo.
B. An underground earthworm avoids the sun.
C. A cavefish feeds on debris that washes down to it.
D. Night-flying bats pollinate a night-blooming flower.
All 14. Which of the following describes the figure below??

A. Pith B. Bark C. Xylem D. Phloem

15. Which of the following explains the fact that the Hawaiian Islands did not have any land mammals until humans arrived?
A. Only microscopic organisms begin their lives as single cells.
B. All mammals on these islands died out before people came.
C. The environment was unsuitable for mammals on these islands.
D. Life on these islands has mainly evolved independently of the rest of the world.
16. Which of the following best explained the illustration?

A. Marsupial evolution on different continents leads to a decrease in diversity.

B. Marsupial species are the same in various geographic locations around the world.
C. Natural selection will cause marsupials to evolve into the same species at different locations.
D. When the common ancestor of these marsupials both inhabited two different locations, over time, natural selection led to
new species of marsupials.
17. Which of the following is NOT part of a decomposers niche?
A. fix nitrogen for plants to use
B. feed decaying plants and animals
C. provide carbon dioxide for plants
D. keep the community clean by breaking down dead things
18. How does the fixed nitrogen that plants need get to the soil?
A. Animal’s solid and liquid waste.
B. The nitrogen in the air dissolves into the soil
C. Decomposers decay plants and animals and release them.
D. Both answers A and C
19. Why is it difficult to find evidence on the origin of life on Earth?
A. there are few terrestrial fossils.
B. the earliest known fossils are all the same
C. early life forms were soft-bodied and formed few fossils
D. the early ocean did not form until about 2 000 million years ago
20. How do Miller and other scientists have concluded the primitive life on earth?
A. They explained that cells survived in the primitive atmosphere.
B. They explained that simple cells can be produced in a laboratory.
C. They explained that life on early Earth required material from space.
D. They explained that amino acids and sugars could be produced from inorganic molecules.
21. In evolutionary terms, which of the following cell is the most primitive?
A. Protist C. Eukaryotic
B. Prokaryotic D. Autotropic
All22. How do the shapes of various cells help each different type of cells to carry out its function?
A. Guard cells are shaped to help open and close plant stomata.
B. Amoeba cells have irregular shape that allows them to surround food to digest.
C. Red blood cells have a concave shape that helps them to carry oxygen molecules.
D. Nerve cells have extensions that connect to other nerve cells to make an information network.
23. The cell membrane contains channels and pumps that help move materials from one side to the other. What are these channels
and pumps made of?
A. lipids C. proteins
B. bilipids D. carbohydrates
24. Why is cell membrane important?
A. It keeps the cell wall in place.
B. It stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates.
C. It regulates the movement of materials into and out of the cell.
D. It because it breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods.
24. How is photosynthesis related to cellular respiration?
A. They both produce the same products.
B. They both have the same products.
C. They both have the corresponding reactants.
D. The product of photosynthesis is needed (the reactants) for cellular respiration.
25. How does ATP energy is used to transfer the hydrogen from NADPH to small organic molecule?
A. Calvin Cycle C. Redox reaction
B. Light reaction D. Reduction reaction
26. How do photosynthesis and cellular respiration act as complementary processes?
A. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are both anabolic processes.
B. The products of photosynthesis will be the reactants in cellular respiration.
C. Animals undergo cellular respiration supply CO2, H2O, and nitrogen needed by plants.
D. Plants undergo photosynthesis and supply sugar, oxygen, amino acids fats and vitamins needed by plants.
27. What does DNA→RNA→PROTEIN stand for?
A. Mutation C. Central Dogma
B. Heredity D. Chargaff’s rule
28. How do alleles pass from parents to offspring?
A. thru DNA C. thru Protein
B. thru RNA D. thru tRNA
bonus29. Which of the following forms during eukaryotic transcription?
A. complementary to both strands of DNA
B. double-stranded and inside the nucleus
C. complementary to part of one strand of DNA
D. identical to an entire single strand of DNA
30. Which of the following is the breakdown of biomolecules from food into smaller molecules?
A. metabolic B. catabolic
B. anabolic C. respiratory
31. Why does our body shiver when the environment gets cold?
A. to regulate blood pressure
B. to increase body temperature
C. to decrease body temperature
D. to keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
32. Most bacteria that cause sickness in humans grow best at 98.6oF. Sometimes a fever is the body's response to the bacteria. What
is the reason for developing a fever?
A. to allow bacteria to thrive
B. to let the harmful bacteria to take over
C. to lower the temperature of the body to kill the bacteria
D. to the increase the temperature of the body to kill the bacteria
33. If the calcium in your blood decreases below homeostasis levels, a gland in the brain will sense the decrease and send a chemical
message to your bones. Your bones will release calcium into the blood, bringing blood calcium levels back up. Which of the following is
the mechanism demonstrated?
A. Ability to adapt C. Negative Feedback
B. Positive Feedback D. Ability to respond
34. Humans sweat when the temperature gets hot so that they can cool themselves. This is an instance of which characteristic of life?
A. Growth C. Homeostasis
B. Evolve D. Reproduction
35. If a person doesn't eat for twelve hours, the blood sugar level drops from about 60 to 90 milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood.
Which of the following mechanism is the ability of the body to regulate blood sugar?
A. adaptation C. metabolism
B. inheritance D. homeostasis
ALL36. Why do humans born without sweat glands usually do not survive?
A. Sweating is essential for purging impurities from the body.
B. Sweating is a critical way of ridding the body of excess water.
C. Sweat glands create openings in the skin where gas exchange occurs.
D. Sweating is an essential mechanism for maintaining temperature homeostasis.
52. A green plant is placed in a brightly lighted area for 48 hours. What will most likely occur if the light intensity is then reduced slightly
during the next 48 hours?
A. Photosynthesis will stop completely.
B. Glucose production inside each plant cell will increase.
C. The rate at which the plant uses nitrogen will increase.
D. The rate at which oxygen releases from the plant will decrease.

53. The diagram below represents some events that take place in plant cells. In which organelle would the above events most likely
occur?

A. ribosome C. chloroplast
B. lysosome D. mitochondrion

Use the following diagram to answer question number 54. The picture represents a cross-section of a leaf.

54. How does an enormous amount of carbohydrates being manufactured?

A. through structure A
B. through structure B
C. through structure C
D. through structure D

55. Over time the neck length of the giraffe has increased as only those giraffes with longer necks survived by eating the leaves high up
on the trees and were able to reproduce and pass those long neck genes on to the next generation. Which characteristic of life is being
illustrated?
A. Evolution C. Reproduction
B. Growth D. Homeostasis

56. Which is NOT an example of evolution?

A. Flightless birds on islands without predators.
B. This year's flu is different from last year's flu.
C. Most commercial pesticides are effective for 2-3 years.
D. A dog learns how to open the cabinet where its food is kept.

57. Some members of a species have a genetic change that causes them to be better suited to their environment. These members
survive to reproduce and pass these genetic changes to their offspring. Which of the following illustrates this change?
A. adaptation C. natural selection
B. genetic drift D. allopatric speciation

58. Which of the following is NOT correct about natural selection?

A. It depends on both inheritance and variation.
B. It ensures that only the biggest and the strongest organisms survive.
C. It explains how environments affect which organisms live and reproduce.
D. It results in adaptations that improve an organism’s chances of survival.

59. Over the past several decades, natural selection has caused populations of Staphylococcus aureus (an infectious wound bacterium)
to evolve resistance to most antibiotics. If antibiotic use were stopped, what would you predict would happen to these S. aureus
populations?

A. They will go extinct without the antibiotic.

B. The populations will begin colonizing new environments.
C. The frequency of resistant forms will increase in these populations
D. The rate of nonresistant types will grow in these populations.
 SUMMATIVE TEST IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE-12

Direction: Read and answer the following questions. Write your answers before the number.

1. What is the function of catalysts in chemical reactions?

A. increasing the temperature of the system.
B. increasing the surface area of the reactants.
C. providing an alternate pathway with lower activation energy.
D. providing an alternate pathway with higher activation energy.
2. Which of the following is an energy resource derived from natural organic materials?
A. biomass B. fossil fuels C. geothermal D. hydrothermal
3. Which of the following is a type of solar energy stored in material such as wood, grain, sugar and urban waste?
A. biomass B. natural gas C. fossil fuels D. geothermal energy
4. Which of the following is an active ingredient of Clorox Bleach?
A. Sodium carbonate C. sodium hypochlorite
B. sodium chloride D. Sodium polyacrylate
5. Which of the following is an active ingredient of Hydrogen Peroxide?
A. H2O B. CH4 C. NH3 D. H2O2
6. Which electromagnetic wave is responsible for cell phones?
A. gamma B. X-ray C. radio D. micro
7. What causes the turbine to turn in a power station?
A. Air B. Gas C. Heat D. Steam
8. Which of the following is a dispersant that prevents loosened soils from depositing back on fabrics during the laundry cycle?
A. Sodium carbonate C. sodium hypochlorite
B. sodium chloride D. Sodium polyacrylate
9. Which of the following is used as water softener?
A. Sodium carbonate C. sodium hypochlorite
B. sodium chloride D. Sodium polyacrylate
10. What happens when light hits a mirror?
A.it reflects C.it makes a rainbow
B.it makes a color D.it passes through
11. Which of the following is seen when water droplets refract and diffract sunlight?
A. clouds B. rainbow C. eclipse D. thunderstorm
12. Why does the straw appear to be bent?

A. light is turned
B. light is refracted
C. light is absorbed
D. light is reflected
13. Which of the following is the application of dispersion of light?
A. shadow
B. rainbow
C. pool seems shallower
D. bright orange sky in the evening
14. Below is an illustration of a crest. What is happening at B?

A. Two crests are combining to create constructive interference.

B. Two crests are combining to create destructive interference.
C. A crest and a trough are combining to create destructive interference.
D. A crest and a trough are combining to create constructive interference.
15. What is the sum of all coefficients in a balanced equation? ___KClO3 → ___KCl + ___O2
A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
16. Calculate the mass of hydrogen formed when 27 g of aluminum reacts with excess hydrochloric acid according to the balanced
equation. 2Al + 6HCl → 2 AlCl3 + 3 H2
A. 1.5 g B. 2.0 g C. 3.0 g D. 6.0 g
17. A twenty-four (24g) grams of CH4 was added to CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. Calculate the theoretical yield of CO2.
A. 66 grams B. 132 grams C. 33 grams D. 8.72
18. What happens to the speed of an object as it falls?
A. Constant
B. Decrease
C. Increasing proportional to time
D. Increasing proportional to time squared
19. If you drop two balls, one is twice the height of the other, how much time does it takes for the higher ball to fall?
A. Two times longer
B. Four times longer
C. Three times longer
D. Square root of 2 longer
20. How does Newton’s third law explain the take-off of a rocket?
A. The rocket is at rest until ignition.
B. The rocket’s acceleration is negative, while the gasses acceleration is negative, but the direction is the same.
C. The rocket’s acceleration is positive, while the gasses acceleration is negative, but the direction is the same.
D. The hot gasses move in one direction, while the rocket moves in the opposite direction but with equal force.
21. Below is an illustration of bodies in motion. When there is a change in motion?
A. When the forces are equal
B. When the forces are unequal
C. When the forces are balanced
D. When the forces are unbalanced
22. If a force of 26 N is exerted on two balls, one with a mass of 0.52 kg and the other with a mass of 0.78 kg, which ball will have the
greater acceleration? (F=ma)
A. They will both accelerate at the same rate.
B. The one with a mass of .78 kg will have the greatest acceleration.
C. The one with a mass of .52 kg will have the greatest acceleration.
D. The one with a mass of .50 kg will have the greatest acceleration.
23. The diagram shows forces acting on a box. Which statement best describes what will happen to the box as a result of these forces
being applied?
A. The box will move up.
B. The box will move to the left.
C. The box will move to the right.
D. The box will remain stationary.
24. A student pushes a box to the right with a force of 10N, while a young boy pushes the box to the left with a force of 8N. What is the
sum of all forces in the box?
A. 18N left B. 18N right C. 2N right D. 2N left
25. Why did most Greek astronomers believe that the Earth is steady?
A. because they did not observe the stellar motion.
B. because they did not observe eclipses of the Sun.
C. because they did not observe parallaxes for the stars
B. because they did not observe the retrograde motion of the planets.
26. Which of the following is an active ingredient of Clorox Bleach?
A. Sodium carbonate C. sodium hypochlorite
B. sodium chloride D. Sodium polyacrylate
27. Which of the following is an active ingredient of Hydrogen Peroxide?
A. H2O B. CH4 C. NH3 D. H2O2
28. Which of the following is an active ingredient of toothpaste?
A. Fluoride C. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Sodium chloride D. Sodium polyacrylate

29. Which of the following is known as Retinol that helps diminish wrinkles, improve uneven skin tone and refine the surface of the skin?

A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin A

30. Which of the following ingredients of beauty products helps lighten the skin?

A. Retinol B. Ammonia C. Kogic Acid D. Acetic Acid

31. Which of the following is used to treat acne?

A. Retinol B. Glycerin C. Vitamin E D. Glutathione