A320 System Questions

AIRBUS A319/320/321
Technical Ground School Study Guide

July 1, 2004
(Updated 1/18/05)
PART ONE
Chapter 6: Ice & Rain Protection
1. Is it permitted to select WING ANTI-ICE pushbutton on the ground?
On the ground, the valves only open for 30 seconds for system testing. They close automatically:
• Upon touchdown,
• If a leak is detected, or
• If electrical power is lost.
Wing anti-ice is not permitted on the ground or in flight when the TAT exceeds 10°C.
2. On approach, when should WING anti-ice be selected OFF?
Wing anti-ice operation:

• Select WING ANTI-ICE ON after thrust reduction altitude
• Normally, WING ANTI ICE should be selected OFF at the FAF
• If in severe icing conditions, WING ANTI-ICE may be left ON for landing
3. When will probe heat automatically come on?
• On the ground, low power is applied to the heaters when at least one engine is operating.
• In flight, the heating system automatically changes to high.
• The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT
pb ON.
Note: The TAT probes are not heated on the ground.
4. What happens to engine RPM when either engine anti-ice valve is open?
The N1 limit for that engine is automatically reduced, and if necessary, the idle N1 is automatically increased for
both engines in order to provide the required pressure. Additionally, continuous ignition is activated for that
engine.
5. What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air?
The three outboard slats on each wing.
6. Is electrical heat applied to the galley/lavatory drain masts anytime there is aircraft electrical power
on the aircraft?
The drain masts are heated any time the electrical system is powered.
7. What happens to the heat at the drain masts when the aircraft is on the ground?
On the ground, the heat is reduced to prevent injury to ground personnel.
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Chapter 7: Electrical
1. What does the EXT PWR pb AVAIL light mean?
AVAIL light illuminates green if:

• External power is plugged in, and
• External power parameters are normal.
2. If an IDG is disconnected, can it be reconnected in flight?
Pressing the IDG pb disconnects the IDG from its driveshaft. Only maintenance personnel can reconnect it.
3. What is the difference between this EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb switch and the RAT MAN ON pb on
the hydraulic panel?
The EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb switch selects manual RAT extension. Emergency generator coupling occurs three
seconds after the RAT is supplying the emergency generator.
The RAT MAN ON pb is used to deploy the RAT manually and will only pressurize the blue system, but not activate
the emergency generator.
4. What does the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light indicate when illuminated?
This light illuminates red if the emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are not
powered.
5. Prior to the first flight of the day, what should the battery voltage be?
≥ 25.5 Volts
6. During preflight, what options are available if the battery voltage for either battery is below 25.5
volts?
A battery charging cycle of 20 minutes is required.
BAT 1 and 2 … AUTO

EXT PWR … ON
Check on ECAM ELEC page, battery contactor closed and batteries charging.
After 20 minutes:
BAT 1 and 2 … OFF
BAT 1 and 2 Voltage … Check ≥ 25.5V
If battery voltage ≥ 25.5V:

BAT 1 and 2 … AUTO
7. How long must the IDG pushbutton be held to achieve a disconnect?
Press IDG pb until the GEN FAULT light comes on but for not more than 3 seconds to avoid damage to the
disengage solenoid.
8. What are the cautions regarding the disconnecting of an IDG?
Do not disconnect the IDG when the engine is not operating (or not windmilling) because starting the engine after
having done so will damage the IDG.
Holding this pb in for more than approximately 3 seconds may damage the disconnection mechanism.
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9. What is the normal source of power for AC ESS BUS?
The AC ESS bus is normally powered by AC BUS 1 through the AC essential feed contactor.
The AC ESS FEED pb allows the pilot to transfer the AC ESS bus power source from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2.
Note: In case of total loss of main generators, the AC ESS BUS is automatically supplied by the emergency
generator or by the static inverter if the emergency generator is not available.
10. Can the APU generator power all buses on the ground?
The APU can supply the entire electrical system on the ground.
11. If the green AVAIL light is present in the EXT PWR pushbutton and a green AVAIL light on the APU
START pb, what is the source of electrical power (with engines shut down)?
The APU will be the source of power. Although external power has priority over the APU generator, the EXT PWR pb
must be pushed and indicate ON to use external power as the source.
12. If both engines are started at the gate using external electrical power, the EXT PWR ON light will
remain illuminated. After engine start will that ON light extinguish automatically?
No – The ON light remains illuminated even if the engines generators are supplying the aircraft.
13. If both main AC buses lose electrical power with airspeed above 100 knots, what will happen?
If both AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed is above 100 knots, the RAT automatically deploys and
pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically driven emergency generator. A generator
control unit controls generator output, which is considerably lower than that of the main generators.
14. What buses will the emergency generator supply?
Once the emergency generator is up to speed it will supply power to the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS (via the ESS
TR) in addition to the AC ESS SHED and DC ESS SHED buses. During RAT deployment and emergency generator
coupling (approximately 8 seconds), the batteries supply power to these buses.
After landing, the DC BAT bus is automatically connected to the batteries when airspeed drops below 100 knots.
When the speed decreases below 50 knots, the AC ESS bus is automatically shed, and power is lost to the CRTs.
Chapter 8: Fire Protection
1. What action arms the engine fire extinguishing squibs?
The ENG FIRE pb:

• Silences the aural fire warning
• Arms the fire extinguisher sqibs
• Closes the LP fuel valve
• Closes the hydraulic fire valve
• Closes the engine bleed valve
• Closes the pack flow control valve
• Disconnects the FADEC power supply
• Deactivates the IDG
2. If a failure in both engine fire loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, what will occur?
A fire warning.
3. If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available?
Yes
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4. If an APU fire occurs on the ground, what must be done to shut down the APU and extinguish the
fire?
On the ground, detection of an APU fire causes automatic APU shutdown and extinguisher discharge. In flight,
there is no automatic APU shutdown, and the extinguisher must be manually discharged.
5. Can the APU FIRE test be performed with the APU running?
Yes – The automatic shutdown of the APU on the ground will not occur while the flight crew is performing this test.
6. What external indications may be received in the event of an APU fire while on the ground?
• The red APU FIRE light illuminates and an external warning horn sounds
• The APU fire extinguisher discharges automatically 3 seconds after the appearance of the fire warning.
• The light extinguishes when the fire has been extinguished.
7. How many cargo smoke detectors must sense smoke to issue a warning?
A smoke Detection Control Unit issues a smoke warning when two smoke detectors of one loop detect smoke. If
one smoke detector fails, the system remains operational with the other detector.
8. How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the cargo compartments?
One extinguisher bottle supplies one nozzle in the forward compartment and two nozzles in the aft compartment.
Chapter 9: Aircraft Fuel
1. What is the total fuel capacity of the Airbus 319/320/321?
A319/320 A321
Wing Tanks 27,500 lb 27,500 lb
Center Tank 14,500 lb 14,500 lb
ACT - 10,500 lb
TOTAL 42,000 lb 52,500 lb
2. Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
External power, the APU, or battery power can be used for refueling.
3. What is the maximum fuel imbalance between the left and right wing tanks (outer + inner) for the
Airbus A319/320/321?
2,500 lb
4. Can fuel be transferred between wings or between wings and center tank during flight on the
A319/320?
Except during normal fueling operations, fuel cannot be transferred from one tank to another.
5. If the boost pumps in the left fuel tank were OFF, how would the APU obtain fuel?
An APU fuel pump is in the left fuel manifold to provide fuel to the APU when the tank pumps are off.
6. If all criteria for center tank fuel usage have been met, when will the center tank pumps resume
pumping after takeoff?
• The center tank pumps operate for two minutes after both engines are started to confirm center tank
pump operation prior to takeoff.
• After takeoff, the center tank pumps restart when the slats are retracted and continue to operate for five
minutes after the center tank is empty or until the slats are extended.
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7. What happens to the center tank pumps if the wing inner cell is full (selector in AUTO)? (A319/320)
If the outer cell is full, the recirculated fuel overflows to the inner cell. To prevent wing tank overflow when the
center tank is supplying fuel, the center tank pumps automatically stop when the wing inner cell is full. This allows
the wing tanks to feed the engines until approximately 1,100 lbs of fuel has been used from the applicable wing
tank(s), at which time the center tank pumps resume operation.
8. How can you know the crossfeed valve is fully open?
The X FEED pb OPEN light illuminates green when the valve is fully open.
Chapter 10: Pneumatics, Air Conditioning, & Pressurization
1. When would the LO selection on the PACK FLOW selector (A319/320) be used?
PACK FLOW Selector (A319/320)

• LO: if number of pax is less than 50 or for long haul flights.
• HI: for abnormally hot and humid conditions.
• NORM: for all other operating cases.
ECON FLOW Selector (A321)

• ON: ECON FLOW if number of pax is less than 140.
• OFF: for normal flow
2. If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, what will the pack flow rate be?
During single pack operation or if the APU is supplying bleed air for air conditioning, pack controllers select high
flow (A319/320) or normal flow (A321) automatically, regardless of selector position.
3. When does the pressurization system switch auto-controllers?
In the automatic mode, one cabin pressure controller is active and the other serves as a backup. If the active
controller fails, the backup automatically resumes control. After each landing, the two controllers swap roles.
4. If SYS 1 (or SYS 2) were displayed in amber on the CAB PRESS page, what would be indicated?
SYS 1 or SYS 2 appears in green when active and in amber when faulty.
5. With the LDG ELEV selector in AUTO, what altitude is used for landing field pressurization reference?
FMGS data is used.
6. With the APU supplying bleed air what will be the pack flow if the PACK FLOW (A319/320) selector
is LOW?
• A319/320 – HIGH
• A321 - NORMAL
7. In flight, what happens if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient?
Air is normally bled from the Intermediate Pressure stage of the high pressure compressor. When IP stage pressure
and temperature are insufficient, a high pressure bleed valve opens to supply bleed air from the High Pressure
stage. In flight, if the pressure is insufficient even with the HP stage valve open, the engine speed is automatically
increased to provide adequate air pressure.
8. Can the zone controller override the crew selected pack flow?
The zone controller may override pilot selected pack flow, or it may increase APU speed or engine idle to meet
temperature demands. I guess it just depends on its mood.
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9. When is the RAM AIR pushbutton used?
During flight, if both packs fail, or in case of smoke in the cabin, a ram air inlet may be opened allowing ambient
air to enter the mixing unit.
10. What is the one limitation for opening the RAM AIR inlet?
Open only if differential pressure is less than +1 PSI.
11. Can external air be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure?
No
12. When operating pressurization in AUTO, if the pilot suspects the selected controller is
malfunctioning, how can he swap controllers?
Attempt to select the other system by switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN for at least 10 seconds, then return it to
AUTO.
13. What is the caution about pressing the DITCHING pushbutton ON while on the ground with low
pressure conditioned air connected?
If on the ground, with low pressure conditioned air connected, all doors closed, and the DITCHING pb is switched
ON, a differential pressure will build up.
14. Is it permissible to allow simultaneous introduction of external air with another source supplying
the system?
Do not use external conditioned air simultaneously with the airplane air conditioning packs.
15. Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment?
No, although a portion of the avionics cooling air is exhausted through the cargo underfloor.
Chapter 13: Instruments/Navigation/Communication
1. If a TERR pb FAULT light illuminated, would that affect the basic GPWS modes?
This amber light illuminates, along with an ECAM caution, if the terrain detection function fails. The terrain is not
shown on the ND. The basic EGPWS modes 1 to 5 are still operative.
2. In order to test the CVR, the Parking Brake Handle must be in what selected position?
Parking Brake … ON
3. If ACP #1 (Captain's) should fail, how would the pilot restore communications?
Select CAPT 3 on the Audio Switching panel. The captain uses his acoustic equipment and the third occupant’s ACP.
4. Do we have any operations, described in the pilot's handbook that requires the use of the
maintenance panel on the upper right overhead?
Check all pb lights are extinguished.
5. What does the APPR pushbutton do?
Arms, disarms, engages, or disengages the approach modes:

• LOC and G/S modes if an ILS approach is selected in the active F-PLN.
• APP NAV-FINAL modes if a non-precision approach is selected in the active F-PLN.
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6. Where is the standby compass?
On top of the windshield center post.
7. With the TERR ON ND pushbutton off, what happens if a terrain caution is generated?
If the system generates a caution or warning while the TERR ON ND is not switched ON, the terrain data is
automatically displayed on the ND and ON light illuminates on the TERR ON ND pb.
8. Does the EGPWS use radar signals to “ground map” terrain?
The enhanced function is based on a worldwide terrain database. It provides Terrain Awareness Display (TAD)
which predicts terrain conflict and displays the terrain on the ND, and Terrain Clearance Floor which triggers a
warning. The TAD function computes a caution and warning envelope ahead of the aircraft and when the
boundaries of this envelope conflict with the database terrain information, it generates alerts.
9. When the TO CONFIG pushbutton is depressed, a take-off power application is simulated. What are
some of the systems that are being checked by this test?
If the airplane is not properly configured for takeoff, the following warnings and cautions are triggered when the TO
CONFIG pb is pressed or when takeoff power is applied:
• SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN T.O. RANGE
• PITCH TRIM NOT IN T.O. RANGE
• SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED
• SIDESTICK FAULT
• HOT BRAKES
• DOORS NOT CLOSED (tested only if engines are operating)
10. What components are not checked by the T.O. CONFIG test, but will trigger a warning when TOGA
power is applied?
The following are only triggered when takeoff power is applied:

• PARK BRAKE ON
• FLEX TEMP NOT SET (not displayed if thrust levers are set in the TOGA detent)
11. What does STS indicate when displayed on the EWD?
The boxed message STS is displayed in white on the lower part of the E/WD, during non-normal operations, to
remind the crew that airplane systems are degraded. The STS message flashes after engine shutdown to alert
maintenance of any other applicable messages.
12. How would the flight deck crew command an evacuation?
• Initiate the evacuation by using the PA system: “This is the captain, EVACUATE, EVACUATE.”
• EVACUATION COMMAND pb … Press
13. When the Mode Selectors are positioned to NAV and the IRS not previously aligned what indications
should be noted on the GNADIRS panel?
• ON BAT Light … Extinguished

• IR FAULT Lights … Extinguished
• IR ALIGN Lights … Illuminated or flashing
• ADR pb Lights … Extinguished
14. If continuous spurious caution messages are received that are known to be incorrect, is there any
way to cancel this caution?
Press the EMER CANC pb on the ECAM control panel.
15. After pressing the EMER CANC pushbutton, how can the system be returned to normal?
Press the RCL pb on the ECAM control panel. This pb is used to call up the warning messages, caution messages,
and the status page, that may have been suppressed by the activation of the CLR pb or by flight-phase related
inhibition. If the RCL pb is held down for more than 3 seconds, the E/WD shows any caution messages that have
been suppressed by the EMER CANC pb.
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16. How could the status page be checked for inoperative systems or maintenance messages?
Press the STS pb on the ECAM control panel, which will display the STATUS page on the lower SD.
17. During the Securing checklist, should the PFD and ND displays be turned OFF?
No - DIM EFIS, ECAM, and MCDU display units.
18. If both upper and lower ECAM display units were selected off and the lower display was reselected
on, what would be displayed on that screen?
E/WD has priority over the SD. If the upper ECAM screen fails (or is selected off), E/WD data is automatically
transferred to the lower screen.
If the lower ECAM screen fails (or is switched off), or when only one ECAM screen is operative, SD information can
be temporarily displayed by:
• Pressing and holding (for a maximum of 3 minutes) the applicable system key on ECAM control panel.
• Pressing the ALL button on the ECAM control panel repeatedly until the desired page is displayed.
19. Why is it very important to maintain a 'lights out' condition on the ECAM control panel during
flight?
To ensure any current cautions or warnings are displayed immediately on the ECAM.
20. The STATUS page may be displayed manually by pressing the STS key on the ECAM control panel. If
there are no status messages, what will the status page display?
The status page displays NORMAL for 5 seconds.
21. If the upper ECAM screen fails, will the crew still be able to see E/WD data?
22. What information from the ADR is displayed on the PFD?
The Air Data Reference displays:

• Barometric altitude
• Speed
• Mach number
Note: The displayed vertical speed information is normally inertial. If inertial data is not available, barometric
information replaces it automatically. In this case, the window around the numerical value becomes amber.
23. How do we know the ILS has been properly tuned and identified?
ILS identification is decoded by the ILS receiver, and displayed in magenta on the lower left of the ND.
24. What does the amber “=” sign mean on the airspeed tape?
This symbol shows the VFE corresponding to the next flap lever position.
25. How can a failed DMC be determined?
If a Display Management Computer fails, each of its associated display units display a diagonal line.
26. Can any communications radio be controlled from any RMP?
Any one RMP can tune any one of the aircraft radios. A green light to the left of the radio key indicates which radio
is selected for tuning.
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27. Could the lower ECAM information be displayed on the upper ECAM screen in the event of a failure
of the lower ECAM?
If the lower ECAM screen fails (or is switched off), or when only one ECAM screen is operative, SD information can
be temporarily displayed by:
• Pressing and holding (for a maximum of 3 minutes) the applicable system key on ECAM control panel.
• Pressing the ALL button on the ECAM control panel repeatedly until the desired page is displayed.
28. Which RMP is functional in the emergency electrical configuration?
Only RMP 1 is operational in EMER ELEC CONFIG.
29. What does the speed trend arrow on the PFD airspeed scale indicate?
Points to the speed value which will be attained in 10 seconds, if the acceleration / deceleration remains constant.
30. Is altitude alerting aural warning inhibited with the autopilot on?
Yes
Note – the altitude alert is also inhibited:

• When the slats are out and the landing gear is selected down,
• In approach after the aircraft captures the glide slope, or
• When the landing gear is locked down.
31. What are some possible causes for the IR ALIGN light to flash?
• IR alignment fault
• No present position entry after 10 minutes
• Difference between position at shutdown and entered position exceeds 1° of latitude or longitude
32. How many levels of notification are issued by ECAM? What are they?
• Warnings – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, red system limitations, and require immediate
action.
• Cautions – Associated with the MASTER CAUT light, amber system limitations, and require crew
awareness but not immediate action.
• Alerts – Associated with degraded systems advisories which are still within operating limitations.
33. How could the pilot cancel an altitude alert (C CHORD)?
• Selecting a new altitude,

• Pushing the EMER CANC pb on the ECAM control panel, or
• Pressing either MASTER WARN pb.
34. If the entered position caused the ALIGN lights to flash and the coordinates are determined to be
correct, how could the problem be corrected?
Wait at least three minutes after the aircraft comes to a complete stop.
MODE Selectors … OFF then NAV (within 5 seconds)
Select ALIGN IRS (3R) on MCDU during the 30-second alignment.
35. Would a fault in the #1 IR cause the #1 ADR to fail?
The ADR and IR parts of each ADIRU may operate independently and failure of one system does not render the
other inoperative.
36. What would a flashing IR FAULT light indicate?
Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
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37. What is the purpose of the T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT?
During takeoff and landing T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT memos are displayed in magenta to remind the crew that
most of the failure titles and the associated checklists are suppressed. This prevents unnecessary distractions
during critical phases of flight.
• The T.O. memo appears 2 minutes after the second engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pb is
pressed with one engine running. The memo is removed when takeoff power is applied.
• The LDG memo appears below 2,000’ RA and disappears after touchdown (80 knots).
38. The altitude alert is inhibited only when:
• When the slats are out and the landing gear is selected down,
• In approach after the aircraft captures the glide slope, or
• When the landing gear is locked down.
Chapter 16: Powerplant
1. Name some reasons that a manual start may be required.
After aborting a start because of:

• Stall
• EGT overlimit
• Low start air pressure
When expecting a start abort because of:

• Degraded bleed performance due to a hot condition or at a high altitude airfield.
• A mature engine in hot condition or at a high altitude airfield.
• Marginal performance of external pneumatic power.
• Tailwind greater than 10 knots.
2. If the #1 ENG MAN START pushbutton is depressed, will the engine begin to motor?
The start valve opens if the ENG MODE selector is set to CRANK or IGN/START and N2 < 20%.
When the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON, the FADEC controls the start sequence, including both fuel valves,
ignition, and closing of the start valve.
3. During a manual start, are the automatic start interruption and auto-crank functions available?
The FADEC provides full monitoring during manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures
for the crew to follow in the event of a start fault; however, automatic start interruption (except if on the ground
and the start EGT limit is exceeded before reaching 50% N2) and auto-crank are not available.
4. What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch?
12.5 quarts
5. How is autothrust disconnected to avoid thrust surges?
Autothrust instinctive disconnect pb.
6. If a thrust lever is set between a detent, what rating limit will the FADEC select?
If the thrust lever is set between two detents, the FADEC selects the rating limit corresponding to the higher limit.
This limit is displayed on the upper ECAM.
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Chapter 16 – APU
1. What is the maximum operating altitude of the APU?
39,000 feet
2. What are the altitude limits for APU generator and bleed air?
• APU generator – 100% load up to 25,000 feet (Note: APU GEN is available up to 39,000 feet).
• APU Bleed – Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is 20,000 feet.
3. What are some of the causes for an APU automatic shutdown?
• Fire (on ground only) • Reverse flow

• Air inlet flap not open • Low oil pressure
• Overspeed • High oil temperature
• No acceleration • ECB failure
• Slow start • Loss off overspeed protection
• EGT overtemperature • Underspeed
• No flame • DC power loss
4. What does LOW OIL LEVEL indicate? Where would you find US Airways operational restrictions
regarding this message?
Limitations note: When the APU ECAM page LOW OIL LEVEL message appears, the remaining oil quantity allows
normal APU operation for 10 additional hours.
5. The APU START pb green AVAIL light signifies that what?
This light illuminates when N is above 99.5% or 2 seconds after N reaches 95%.
6. How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are installed?
One
7. If an APU fire occurs on the ground will the APU shut down automatically?
On the ground, detection of an APU fire causes automatic APU shutdown and extinguisher discharge.
8. If an APU fire occurs in flight will the APU shut down automatically?
In flight, there is no automatic APU shutdown, and the extinguisher must be manually discharged.
Chapter 17: Flight Management
1. What action would the pilot take to SELECT SPEED?
Pull SPD OR MACH Selector knob on FCU.
2. How does the crew confirm that the data contained in the FMGC database is valid?
From the DATA INDEX page, select A/C STATUS [5L] and check database dates.
3. When would a takeoff shift be entered into the PERF TO page?
When the aircraft’s takeoff position does not commence at the runway threshold.
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4. What is the difference between OPT vs. REC MAX?
The recommended maximum altitude based on present GW and deviation from ISA. It gives the aircraft a 0.3g
buffet margin, a minimum rate of climb at MAX CL thrust, and level flight at MAX CRZ thrust. It is limited to FL
390. With an engine out, it shows the recommended maximum EO altitude, computed for long-range cruise, anti-
icing off.
The optimum flight level indicates the most economic flight level for a given cost index, weight, and weather data
and is continuously updated in flight. It is a compromise between fuel and time saving, and may show steps due to
slight GW, ISA, or wind changes. As a consequence, the pilot may observe jumps in optimum flight level.
5. If NAV is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity, what will occur?
Lateral mode will revert to HDG/TRK.
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PART TWO
Chapter 11: Hydraulics, Brakes, and Landing Gear
1. Name some of the major users of the GREEN system.
• Landing gear
• Nosewheel steering
• Normal brakes
• Reverser 1
• Various actuators on flaps, slats, rudder, elevator, stabilizer, ailerons, and spoilers.
2. The yellow system has an engine driven pump, what other means do we have to pressurize the
yellow system?
• Yellow electric pump

• Power Transfer Unit
• Hand pump for cargo doors
3. When does the PTU automatically activate?
When the differential pump pressure output between the green and yellow systems exceeds a predetermined value
(500 psi).
4. Will the PTU operate during Cargo Door operation?
PTU is inhibited for 40 seconds after cargo door operation.
5. With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO, the blue pump will be
energized when?
• Ground – pump operates when either engine is running and AC power is available.
• Flight – pump operates continuously unless the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is OFF.
6. What is the purpose of the brake check accomplished immediately after the aircraft starts moving?
• To check brake efficiency,

• That green pressure has taken over, and
• Yellow pressure is at zero on the brake pressure triple indicator.
7. Will the lights on the LDG GEAR panel illuminate if the LGCIU #1 is not supplied with electricity?
No
8. Is nose wheel steering available with the green hydraulic pressure inoperative?
No
9. After touchdown, with the autobrakes selected, what control surface must move before autobraking
will begin?
Automatic braking is activated when the ground spoilers extend.

Note: During a rejected takeoff below 72 knots, the autobrakes will not activate since the ground spoilers do not
extend below that speed.
10. What is the difference in operation of the two RAT extension methods?
• If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed is above 100 kts, the RAT automatically deploys and
pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically driven emergency generator.
Pressing the EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb has the same effect.
• The RAT MAN ON pb is used to deploy the RAT manually. Activating this pb will only pressurize the blue
system, but will not activate the emergency generator.
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11. Does the alternate brake system have the same capabilities as normal brakes?
Braking capability is the same as normal brakes, except autobraking is not available.
12. Is nose wheel steering available after manual gear extension?
Nose wheel steering is deactivated.
When the Emergency Gear Extension crank handle is operated:

• The cutoff valve shuts off hydraulic pressure to the landing gear system,
• Opens the gear doors, and
• Unlocks the gear, which extends by gravity.
13. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, how many brake
applications can the pilot expect?
At least seven full brake applications.
14. Which hydraulic system does the parking brake use?
Yellow hydraulic system or accumulators.
15. Is nose wheel steering available after emergency gear extension?
See question 12 above.
16. What system pressure is indicated on the Triple Pressure Indicator?
• ACCU PRESS – pressure in the yellow brake accumulators.

• BRAKES – yellow pressure delivered to the left and right brakes, as measured upstream of the servo
valves.
17. At the gate you notice brake temperatures above 300°C, you then select BRAKE FANS ON, when
should the pilots turn the BRAKE FANS OFF?
Select brake cooling fans OFF when brake temperature decreases to approximately 250°C.
18. How long will the accumulator maintain adequate parking brake pressure?
For at least 12 hours.
19. At what speed will the safety valve cut off hydraulic pressure to the landing gear?
A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the gear when indicated airspeed is above 260 knots. The valve opens
again when the airspeed decreases below 260 knots, provided the gear lever is placed down.
20. When the towing control lever is in the tow position, a green NW STRG DISC message is displayed
on ECAM. What happens to the message after the first engine is started?
The message changes to amber.
Chapter 12: Flight Controls
1. When both sidesticks are operated simultaneously, is the sum of the sidestick inputs limited to
Normal law deflection limits?
Yes – both inputs are algebraically added, however, the sum is limited to single sidestick maximum deflection.
2. What is the result if both sidesticks are moved at the same time and neither takes priority during
flight with the autopilot OFF?
Both green CAPT and F/O SIDE STICK PRIORITY lights flash and a “DUAL INPUT” audio voice message is given
every 5 seconds as long as both pilots operate their sidesticks simultaneously.
_____________________________________________________________

3. Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?
Yes – if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the slats are extended.
The FACs perform the following functions:

• Normal roll (coordinating turns and damping dutch roll)
• Rudder trim
• Rudder travel limit
• Alternate yaw
4. Does the SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light illuminate in front of the pilot losing or gaining
priority?
• A red light illuminates in front of the pilot whose sidestick is deactivated.

• A green light illuminates in front of the pilot who has taken control, if the other sidestick is not in the
neutral position (indicates a potential and unwanted control demand).
5. After touchdown, what will the stabilizer trim do?
Stabilizer trim is automatically reset to zero as the pitch attitude becomes less than 2.5°.
6. When does an amber SPD BRK memo appear?
The memo flashes amber if the speedbrakes are extended when the thrust is above idle.
7. What happens to the aircraft if 45-degree bank is flown and the sidestick is released?
The aircraft returns to and maintains 33° of bank.
8. When a speedbrake surface (on one wing) fails, what happens to the symmetric surface on the other
wing?
The symmetric surface on the other wing is inhibited.
9. When does full ground spoiler extension occur?
Full ground spoiler extension automatically at touchdown of both main gear or in the case of a rejected takeoff
(speed above 72 knots) when:
• Both thrust levers are at idle (if the ground spoilers are ARMED), or
• Reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at idle (if the ground spoilers
are not ARMED)
Partial ground spoiler extension occurs when:

• Reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at or near idle, and
• One main landing gear strut is compressed.
10. Can the rudder be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged?
The rudder trim rotary switch has no effect when the autopilot is engaged.
11. What is indicated by the low energy warning (SPEED, SPEED, SPEED)?
When change in flight path alone is insufficient to regain a positive flight path (thrust must be increased).
Available in CONF 2,3, or FULL, between 100’ and 2,000’ RA when TOGA not selected.
12. Four Wingtip Brakes are activated in case of asymmetry, overspeed, symmetrical runway, or
uncommanded movement. If the WTBs lock the flap or slat surfaces and prevent further movement,
can the remaining surfaces be extended?
• If the flap WTBs are on, the pilot can still operate the slats;
• If the slat WTBs are on, he can still operate the flaps.
13. What will the aircraft do in alternate law with speed stabilities, if the VMO or MMO is exceeded?
A nose-up command is introduced any time the airplane exceeds VMO/MMO to keep the speed from increasing
further. This command can be overridden by sidestick input.
_____________________________________________________________

14. If the flight controls degrade to alternate law, what will happen when the landing gear is extended
(if no autopilots are engaged?)
Direct law automatically becomes active. If an autopilot is engaged, the airplane will remain in alternate law until
the autopilot is disconnected.
15. When is the flight mode of normal law active?
The flight mode becomes active shortly after takeoff and remains active until shortly before touchdown.
16. In general, how can flight in direct law be determined?
An amber message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” appears on the PFD.
17. Can the pilot make a flight control input that will over-stress the airplane in direct law?
Yes – there are no protections provided in direct law.
18. In general, how can flight in mechanical backup be determined?
A red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” warning appears on the PFD.
19. High-speed protection will introduce a pitch up load factor demand. Can the pilot override this
command while in normal law?
The pilot cannot override the pitch up command.
20. On approach we select Flaps 1. What flaps/slats combination is received?
0° flaps; 18° slats
21. What happens to extended speed brakes when FLAPS FULL is selected on the A320?
If an inhibiting condition occurs, the speedbrakes retract automatically.

Speedbrake extension is inhibited if:
• SEC 1 and 3 have failed
• An elevator (L or R) has failed (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
• Angle of attack protection is active
• Flaps are in configuration FULL (A319/320) or
• Flaps are in configuration 3 or FULL (A321)
• Thrust levers are above MCT position, or
• Alpha floor is active
22. Are hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup?
Pitch control is achieved through the horizontal stabilizer by using the manual trim wheel. Lateral control is
accomplished using the rudder pedals. Both controls require hydraulic power.
23. A nose-up command is introduced any time the airplane exceeds Vmo/Mmo to keep the speed from
increasing further. During alternate law can this input be overridden?
This command can be overridden by sidestick input.
24. If both pilots press their takeover pushbuttons who gets priority?
The pilot who presses last gets priority.
25. If the takeoff configuration is 1+F and the pilot does not select configuration 0 after takeoff, what
will happen?
The flaps retract automatically at 210 knots.
_____________________________________________________________

Chapter 14: Autoflight System
1. What is the function of the LOC pushbutton?
To arm the LOC capture mode.
2. How do we know the FLIGHT GUIDANCE actually captured the localizer and glideslope?
GS and LOC capture mode annunciations:

• GS* in FMA column 2 annunciates green and
• LOC* in FMA column 3 annunciates green.
3. How do I confirm that I have actually ARMED the approach for the flight director or autopilot to
capture?
GS and LOC armed mode annunciations:

• GS in FMA column 2 annunciates blue and
• LOC in FMA column 3 annunciates blue.
Non-ILS Approach: APP NAV in FMA column 3 annunciates blue.
4. Name some examples when the autopilot will disengage.
• Takeover or corresponding AP switch is pressed.

• Sidestick or rudder pedals are moved beyond the load threshold.
• Trim wheel is moved beyond the load threshold.
• The other autopilot is engaged, except when LOC G/S modes are armed or engaged, or ROLL OUT and GA
modes are engaged.
• Both thrust levers are set to TOGA detent on the ground.
• Reaching DA – 50’ with APPR engaged on a non-ILS approach.
The autopilot will also disengage in normal law when:

• High speed protection is activated.
• Alpha prot is activated.
• Bank angle exceeds 45°.
• Rudder pedal deflection is greater than 10° out of trim.
5. How is Autothrust usually activated?
The system is activated when:

• Thrust levers are set in the active range when A/THR is armed,
• A/THR pb on the FCU is pressed when the thrust levers are in the active range, or
• Alpha floor protection is triggered, regardless of throttle position or arming status.
6. What is Alpha Floor?
A protection that commands TOGA thrust regardless of the positions of the thrust levers. This protection is
available from lift-off to 100’ RA on the approach.
ALPHA FLOOR calls up the following indications:
• A FLOOR in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA and in amber on the E/WD as long as
alpha floor conditions are met.
• TOGA LK in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA when the aircraft leaves the alpha floor
conditions. TOGA thrust is frozen and thrust lever movement will have no effect.
Alpha floor is inhibited:

• Under alternate or direct flight control law.
• In case of engine failure with flaps extended.
To cancel ALPHA FLOOR thrust, disconnect the autothrust.
_____________________________________________________________

7. What happens if the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons are pushed and held for more than 15
seconds?
The autothrust system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight, including alpha floor protection. The
autothrust system can only be reset during the next FMGC power-up (on the ground).
8. Will the G/S mode engage without the LOC mode engaged?
The G/S mode does not engage unless the LOC mode is engaged or if the aircraft is above the G/S and its
trajectory does not intercept the glideslope.
9. An amber THR LK flashes on the FMA. What does this indicate?
The thrust lock function prevents thrust variations when the autothrust system fails and disengages.
The thrust lock function is activated when the thrust levers are in the CL detent (MCT with one engine out) and:
• The pilot disengages A/THR by pushing the A/THR pushbutton on the FCA, or
• The A/THR disconnects due to a failure.
The thrust is locked or frozen at its level prior to disconnection. Moving the thrust levers out of the CL or MCT
detent suppresses thrust lock and allows manual control by means of the thrust levers.
10. How is TOGA LK canceled?
To cancel TOGA LK, disconnect the autothrust.
Chapter 15: Oxygen
1. The passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?
14,000 feet.
2. When crew oxygen is below 1000 psi, what reference chart is used and where is it located?
The Minimum Flight Crew Oxygen Pressure chart located in PHB Chapter 3, Normal Procedures.
3. How is passenger oxygen supplied?
The passenger oxygen system consists of chemical oxygen generators.
4. How long will the passenger oxygen system provide a supply of oxygen?
Once oxygen generation begins, it will continue until the chemicals have been depleted, a process which lasts
approximately 13 minutes.
5. What does the MASK MAN ON pushbutton do when pressed?
The mask doors open. Illumination of the SYS ON light does not necessarily mean all masks have deployed. F/As
may have to manually deploy some masks.
6. When will the flow of oxygen begin for the passengers after the oxygen mask doors open?
Oxygen generation for a particular group of masks begins when a mask is pulled toward the seat.
7. After a crew oxygen mask has been used, will pressing the RESET/TEST control slide cut off the
oxygen mask microphone?
Yes
Updated 1/18/05, PHB Revision 22-04

Send corrections/comments to Bob Sanford, E-mail: busdriver@hky.com
_____________________________________________________________

AIRBUS A319/320/321
2005 – 2006
Updated : 11/19/05 PHB : 27-05
Send corrections/comments to Bob Sanford, E-mail: busdriver@hky.com
Chapter 11: HYDRAULICS
1. Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?
• Eng 1 – Green
• Eng 2 - Yellow
2. When will the YELLOW ELEC pump operate automatically?
When the lever of the cargo door manual selector valve is moved to OPEN or CLOSE.
3. When will the RAT deploy automatically?
If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed is above 100 kts, the RAT automatically deploys and pressurizes
the Blue hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically driven emergency generator. Pressing the EMER ELEC
PWR MAN ON pb has the same effect.
4. What is the purpose of the priority valve in the Blue Hydraulic System?
The priority valve cuts off hydraulic power from the heavy load using units.
• Landing gear
• Normal brakes
• Reverser 1
• ACCU PRESS – pressure in the yellow brake accumulators.

• BRAKES – yellow pressure delivered to the left and right brakes, as measured upstream of the servo
valves.
yellow system?

8. What occurs to the yellow hydraulic system functions when a cargo door is being opened or closed?
The other Yellow system functions are inhibited (except alternate braking and engine 2 reverser).
9. After emergency gear extension do the gear doors remain open?
Yes
10. What is the normal source of power for the landing gear?
Green system
11. Can the RAT be deployed manually?

_____________________________________________________________

The RAT MAN ON pb is used to deploy the RAT manually. Activating this pb will only pressurize the blue system,
but will not activate the emergency generator.
12. What is the purpose of the engine fire shutoff valves?
To isolate the hydraulic pump from its respective reservoir.
13. If an electric hydraulic pump overheats, can it be reset when cooled down?
Yes
Chapter 11: LANDING GEAR
1. What is the maximum gear extension speed (VLO)?
250 KIAS
No
No
4. What does the RED ARROW on the landing gear selector lever indicate?
Illuminates if the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration, and a red
warning appears on the ECAM.
5. Is it possible to extend the gear at any speed (high speed, for example)?
6. What does the red UNLK light in the LDG GEAR indication panel mean?
• Illuminates red if the gear is not locked in the selected position.

• Illuminates green if the gear is locked down.
260 KIAS
8. What is the maximum gear retraction speed VLO?
220 KIAS
9. What is the maximum gear extended speed VLE?
280 KIAS/0.67M
10. What is the maximum gear extension altitude?
25,000 feet
11. When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering during takeoff, the steering angle starts to
reduce at what speed and progressively reduces to zero degrees at _130_ knots?
_____________________________________________________________

13. Is there any visual means to check landing gear position?
No
14. What does illumination of the red arrow near the gear selector lever indicate?
Chapter 11: BRAKES

will begin?

4. What happens to the other brake modes when parking brakes are applied?
All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated (A319/320 only).
5. Where does the crew look to confirm that the parking brake is ON?
The BRAKES pressure gauges on the triple indicator.
6. What is the maximum allowable brake temperature for takeoff?
300° C
7. How many brake systems are on the aircraft?
• Normal (Green)
• Alternate (Yellow)
• Parking Brake (Yellow system or accumulator)
8. When will the Autobrakes activate?
9. What speed must be met or exceeded during rejected takeoff for Autobrakes to activate?
72 knots
_____________________________________________________________

10. What do the indicators on the AUTO BRK pushbuttons mean?
• Blue ON light illuminates to indicate positive arming.

• Green DECEL light illuminates when the actual deceleration is 80% of the selected rate.
• Off: The indicated brake mode is not active.
11. What groundspeed is the antiskid system automatically deactivated?
20 knots
12. On the WHEEL page, if AUTO BRK is displayed in green, what is indicated?
Autobrake system is armed.
Yellow hydraulic system or accumulators supply brake pressure.
14. What controls all normal braking functions?
The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU) controls all normal braking functions (anti-skid, autobrakes, and brake
temperature indications).
Chapter 12: FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. What is the result if both sidesticks are moved at the same time and neither takes priority during
• Both thrust levers are at idle (if the ground spoilers are ARMED), or
• Reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at idle (if the ground spoilers
are not ARMED)
Available in CONF 2,3, or FULL, between 100’ and 2,000’ RA when TOGA not selected.
4. What happens to extended speed brakes when FLAPS FULL is selected?

• SEC 1 and 3 have failed
• An elevator (L or R) has failed (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
• Angle of attack protection is active
• Flaps are in configuration FULL (A319/320) or
• Flaps are in configuration 3 or FULL (A321)
• Thrust levers are above MCT position, or
• Alpha floor is active
5. In general, how do you recognize that you are in Mechanical Law and how does it affect you?
A red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” warning appears on the PFD. Pitch control is achieved through the horizontal
stabilizer by using the manual trim wheel. Lateral control is accomplished through the rudder pedals.
_____________________________________________________________

6. When does partial ground spoiler extension occur?

• Reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at or near idle, and
• One main landing gear strut is compressed.
8. Four Wingtip Brakes are activated in case of asymmetry, over speed, symmetrical runway, or
uncommanded movement. If the WTB's lock the flap or slat surfaces and prevent further movement,
can the remaining surfaces be extended?
• If the flap WTBs are on, the pilot can still operate the slats;
• If the slat WTBs are on, he can still operate the flaps.
9. How many SEC computers are there and what are their functions?
There are 3 SEC computers. The following functions are performed

• Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
• Speed brakes and ground spoilers
• Alternate pitch ( SEC 1 & 2 only)
• Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only)
• Direct roll
• Abnormal attitude
10. Explain, in general terms, High Angle of Attack protection.
When the angle of attack exceeds alpha prot, elevator control switches to alpha protection mode in which angle of
attack is proportional to sidestick deflection. However, alpha max will not be exceeded even if the pilot applies full
aft deflection.
11. Is automatic pitch trim available in alternate law?
12. How can the aircraft be controlled in mechanical backup?
Chapter 14: AUTOFLIGHT
1. What would cause a red AUTOLAND light to illuminate below 200’?
The following situations, when occurring below 200’ RA with the aircraft in LAND mode, trigger the flashing
AUTOLAND red warning, and a triple-click warning:
• Both APs OFF below 200’ RA

• Excessive deviation in LOC (1/4 dot above 15’ RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100’ RA). In addition, LOC and
GLIDE scales flash on the PFD.
• Loss of LOC signal (above 15’ RA) or loss of GLIDE signal (above 100’). In addition, FD bars flash on the
PFD. The LAND mode remains engaged.
• The difference between both radio altimeter indications is greater than 15’.
Go-Around is mandatory during a CAT II/III approach if AUTO LAND caution light illuminates during the approach.
_____________________________________________________________

2. What is Thrust Lock?
• The pilot disengages A/THR by pushing the A/THR pushbutton on the FCA, or
• The A/THR disconnects due to a failure.
When thrust lock is active:

• “THR LK” flashes amber on the FMA
• ECAM “ENG THRUST LOCKED” flashes every 5 seconds
• ECAM displays “THR LEVERS … MOVE”
• A single chime sounds and the MASTER CAUTION light flashes every 5 seconds. All warnings cease when
the thrust levers are moved out of the detent.
3. What is TOGA Lock?
TOGA thrust is frozen and thrust lever movement will have no effect.
ALPHA FLOOR protection commands TOGA thrust regardless of the positions of the thrust levers. This protection is
available from lift-off to 100 feet RA on approach.

• “A FLOOR” in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA and in amber on the E/WD as long as
α floor conditions are met.
• “TOGA LK” in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA when the aircraft leaves the α floor
Note: ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited:

• under alternate or direct flight control law.
• In case of engine failure with flaps extended
4. If GPS function is lost, is navigation accuracy immediately downgraded?
When GPS function is lost, the message GPS PRIMARY LOST is displayed on the ND and MCDU scratchpad. During
an approach a triple click sound is triggered. In this case, navigation accuracy is not downgraded immediately, but
only when EPE exceeds RNP.
5. When is the windshear detection function available?
The Airbus Reactive Windshear Detection function is available during takeoff from liftoff to 1,300 feet AGL, and
on approach from 1.300 feet AGL to 50 feet AGL, when aircraft configuration is 1 or greater.
When a FAC detects windshear conditions, it triggers a warning:
• “WINDSHEAR” in red on both PFD’s (for at least 15 seconds)
• An aural warning, “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”
The Predictive Windshear system operates when the aircraft is below 1,500’ AGL. It scans the airspace within 5
nm forward of the aircraft for windshears. When a windshear is detected, a warning, caution, or advisory message
appears on the PFD and (depending on the range selected on the ND) an icon appears on the ND. Predictive
windshear warning and caution are associated with an aural warning. During takeoff, both warnings and cautions
are available within 3 nm. Alerts are inhibited above 100 knots and up to 50’. During landing, alerts are inhibited
below 50’.
When the WINDSHEAR switch is in AUTO, the Predictive Windshear function is activated. Windshear areas are
detected by the antenna scanning below 2,300’ RA, even if the transceiver selector is set to OFF, and displayed on
the ND if below 1,500’.
Predictive windshear aural alerts have priority over TCAS, EGPWS, and other FWC aural warnings. They are
inhibited by windshear detection by FAC (Reactive) and stall warning aural messages.
_____________________________________________________________

6. How do I confirm that I have actually ARMED the ILS approach for the flight director or autopilot to
capture?
• FMA column 2 (second line): G/S (blue)

• FMA column 3 (second line): LOC (blue)
7. How is the Go-Around mode engaged?
When at least one thrust lever is placed in the TOGA detent, the slats/flaps lever is at least in position 1, and :
• the aircraft is airborne or
• the aircraft has been on the ground for less than 30 seconds.
A protection that commands TOGA thrust regardless of the positions of the thrust levers. This protection is
available from lift-off to 100’ RA on the approach.

• A FLOOR in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA and in amber on the E/WD as long as alpha
floor conditions are met.
• TOGA LK in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA when the aircraft leaves the alpha floor

• In case of engine failure with flaps extended.
9. How is A/THR activation confirmed?
• FMA column 5 (third line): A/THR (white – Active)

• FMA column 5 (third line): A/THR (blue - Armed)
No
11. What is indicated when the FMA displays SRS?
Takeoff or go around mode is engaged.
12. What does Column 1 of the FMA display?
Autothrust operation.
13. Can the autopilot be engaged with both flight directors off?
• If the autopilot is engaged when both flight directors are OFF, the autopilot will engage in either HDG V/S
or TRK FPA mode depending on which mode is selected on the FCU.
• If an autopilot is engaged with at least one FD ON, the autopilot will engage in the active FD mode(s).
14. Define SRS.
Speed Reference System is a vertical mode which controls pitch to maintain a speed defined by SRS guidance
(provided V2 is inserted in the MCDU PERF TO page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft is on the ground). It
engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to TOGA or MCT/FLX detent. It disengages manually when
another vertical mode is engaged, or automatically when the aircraft reaches acceleration altitude or an FCU
selected altitude.
The pitch guidance maintains airspeed at V2 + 10 knots. If an engine failure is detected, pitch guidance maintains
the greater of V2 or current speed. Additionally, the mode protects against high pitch attitude and provides a
minimum climb rate. Go-around mode combines the SRS vertical mode and the GA TRK lateral mode.
_____________________________________________________________

Thrust Lock function is active - See question 2.
Chapter 16: POWERPLANT
3. How is the FADEC powered?
The system has its own alternator rendering it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set
value. If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches over to aircraft electrical power.
4. When is continuous ignition provided automatically?
• ENG ANTI ICE is selected ON

• Engine flameout is detected in flight
• The EIU fails
5. Under what conditions may a manual start be required?

• Stall
• EGT overlimit

6. What takes place when we push the MAN START button?
• The start valve opens if the ENG MODE selector is set to CRANK or IGN/START and N2 < 20%.
• Both pack valves close during the start sequence.
• The blue ON light illuminates.
Note: The start valve closes automatically when N2 ≥ 50%.
7. What is an indication that the start sequence is complete?
At ISA sea level (2-4-6-6):

• N1 approximately 19.5%
• EGT approximately 390°C
• FF approximately 600 lb/hr
• Gray background on N2 indication disappears.
12.5 quarts
_____________________________________________________________

9. Operationally, which engine do we start first? Why?
Engine 1 is started first under the assumption it will be a single engine taxi. This will ensure engine driven Green
hydraulic pump pressure will be available for normal brakes and nosewheel steering.
11. During a manual start of the #1 engine, does the ENG MAN START pushbutton have to be depressed
to close the start valve?
12. Is there a mechanical connection between the thrust levers and the engines?
There is no mechanical connection between the levers and engines. The position of each lever (TLA) is
electronically measured and transmitted to the FADEC, which computes the thrust rating limit.
13. How many channels does the FADEC computer have?
Each FADEC is a dual channel (A&B) computer providing full engine management. One channel is always active
while the other is a backup designed to takeover automatically in case of primary channel failure.
14. If a thrust lever is set between two detents, what rating limit will the FADEC select?
Chapter 16: APU

3. When would the APU MASTER SW pb FAULT light illuminate?
This amber light illuminates and a caution appears on the ECAM when an automatic APU shutdown occurs.
APU will automatically shutdown due to fire on the ground only.
_____________________________________________________________

5. If EXTERNAL POWER were powering the aircraft, what indications would be seen during an APU fire
test?
• A continuous repetitive chime sounds

• The MASTER WARN lights flash
• APU FIRE warning appears on the ECAM
On the APU FIRE panel:
• The APU FIRE pb illuminates red
• The SQUIB light illuminates white
• The DISCH light illuminates amber
Note: The automatic shutdown of the APU on the ground will not occur during the test.
6. What does the APU START pb green AVAIL light signify?
One
8. Will the APU bleed valve close automatically during climb? Will it reopen during descent?
No
9. When an APU auto shut down has occurred, what other indications, in addition to the ECAM
procedure, is received?
APU MASTER SW pb amber FAULT light will illuminate.
10. With battery power only, what would be the indications of an APU fire test?
• APU FIRE pb illuminated

• SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated
11. After depressing the APU MASTER pb, the START pb is pressed. At this time the START pb
illuminates blue. What does that mean?
• When the flap is completely open, the APU starter is energized.

• 1.5 seconds after the starter is energized, the ignition is turned ON.
• When N = 55%, the starter is de-energized and the ignition is turned OFF.
• 2 seconds after N reaches 95%, or when N is above 99%, The ON light on the START pb goes out.
• The APU may now supply bleed air and electrical power to aircraft systems.
• 10 seconds later, the APU page disappears from the ECAM display.
12. Can the APU be shut down from outside the aircraft?
APU SHUT OFF pb on External Power Panel.
Chapter 8: FIRE PROTECTION
1. What are the components of the APU fire detection system?
The APU is equipped with two identical detection loops each of which contain one heat sensing element and a FDU,
located in the APU compartment. The APU is equipped with one fire extinguisher.
2. If a cargo smoke detector fails, does that render the system inoperative?
If one smoke detector fails, the system remains operational with the other detector.
3. When are the cargo fire bottle squibs armed?
When the Smoke Detection Control Unit issues a smoke warning.
_____________________________________________________________

4. Where are the engine fire loops installed?
Engine heat sensing units are located in:

• Pylon nacelle
• Engine core
• Fan section
fire?
6. How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for fighting an engine fire?
Two
Both cargo compartments are equipped with smoke detector loops. The forward compartment contains two smoke
detectors in the A319/320 and four smoke detectors in the A321. In the A319/320, the aft compartment contains
two loops with two detectors each. In the A321, the aft compartment contains three loops with two smoke
detectors in each. A Smoke Detection Control Unit issues a smoke warning when two smoke detectors of one loop
detect smoke. If one smoke detector fails, the system remains operational with the other detector.
Cargo smoke is indicated by an aural CRC, the illumination of the MASTER WARN and CARGO SMOKE light on the
CARGO SMOKE panel.
The agent is discharged by pressing either the FWD or AFT DISCH pb.
If the cargo smoke warning is activated in either compartment, the associated isolation valves close and the
extraction fan stops.
9. What is required for a fire warning to be indicated in an engine or APU?
Each engine is equipped with two identical detection loops (A & B) each of which contain three heat sensing
elements and a computer (Fire Detection Unit). The sensing elements are located in the pylon nacelle, engine core,
and fan section. The FDU issues a fire warning when both loops detect an overheat in a particular area. If one loop
fails, the fire warning system remains operational with the other loop. A fire warning is also issued if both loops fail
within 5 seconds of each other.
The ECAM will issue appropriate messages if any component of the detection system fails. An engine fire is
indicated by an aural CRC, the illumination of the ENG FIRE pb, and MASTER WARN lights.
Each engine is equipped with two fire extinguishers which are discharged by pressing the associated AGENT DISCH
pb on the respective engine FIRE panel.
11. In case of lavatory smoke, would you get a warning in the cockpit?
Lavatory smoke is indicated by:

• Aural CRC
• Illumination of MASTER WARN light
• Red ECAM SMOKE LAVATORY SMOKE
_____________________________________________________________

12. How do you know when an engine fire extinguisher bottle has discharged?
AGENT DISCH illuminates amber when its fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
Chapter 9: FUEL
1. Can fuel be suction fed to the engines?
If the wing tank pumps fail, suction feeding is possible only from the inner wing cells (A319/320), or the wing tank
(A321).
2. The outer wing tank transfer valves (A319&320) automatically open when the wing inner cell fuel
quantity drops to _1,650_ pounds?
3. When and how is fuel normally transferred from the outer to inner wing tanks?
The wing tank transfer valves automatically latch open when the wing inner cell fuel quantity drops to 1,650 lbs
thus allowing the outer cell fuel to drain into the inner cell. The transfer valves open simultaneously in both wings
and remain open until the next refueling operation. During steep descents and acceleration/deceleration, the
transfer valves may open prematurely and trigger a LO LVL warning.
4. Can either wing tank feed either or both engines?
The crossfeed valve permits one engine to be fed by both sides or both engines to be fed from one side. The valve
is operated by two electric motors.
5. What is the normal fuel feed sequencing?
A319/320: Normal fuel feed sequencing is automatic. When there is fuel in all tanks, the center tank feeds the
engines first (even though the wing tank pumps operate continuously).
With the fuel MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the center tank pumps operated for two minutes after both engines are
started to confirm center tank pump operation prior to takeoff. After takeoff, the center tank pumps restart when
the slats are retracted and continue to operate for five minutes after the center tank is empty or until the slats are
extended.
With the MODE SEL pb in MAN, the center tank pumps operate continuously. The crew must select the CTR TK
PUMP pbs OFF when the center tank is empty.
A321: The fuel transfer system controls the flow of fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks, which feed the
engines. The tanks empty in the following sequence:
1. ACT transfers fuel into the center tank
2. Center tank transfers fuel into the wing tanks
3. Wing tanks
With the MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit (FLSCU) has automatic control of the transfer
valve. When the transfer valve is open, fuel from the wing tank pumps flows through the jet pump and creates
suction. This suction moves the fuel from the center tank to the related wing tank. The FLSCU automatically closes
the associated center tank transfer valve when the wing tank is full. The transfer valve reopens the center tank
transfer valve when the engines have used 550 lbs of wing tank fuel.
With the ACT pb in AUTO, automatic control of the transfer occurs after takeoff at slats retraction. It is initiated if
the center tank high level sensor has been dry for 10 minutes and fuel remains in either ACT. Fuel transfer from
the ACTs to the center tank is made by pressurizing the ACT, closing the ACT vent valves, and opening the air
shut-off and inlet valves. ACT2 transfers first.
With the MODE SEL in MAN, the center tank transfer valves open. Wing tank overflow must be prevented by
selecting the CTR TK XFR pbs OFF when the wing tanks are full. They must also be selected OFF when the center
tank is empty.
During transfer, if the center tank high level sensor gets wet, transfer from the ACT stops. The transfer valve opens
when the center tank high sensor is dry for ten minutes.
_____________________________________________________________

IDG cooling is accomplished by fuel. Some fuel from the high pressure pump passes through the IDG heat
exchanger and returns to the respective wing outer cell (A319/320) or wing tank (A321) through a fuel return
valve. The fuel return valve is controlled by the FADEC which regulates IDG temperature.
A319/320: If the outer cell is full, the recirculated fuel overflows to the inner cell. To prevent wing tank overflow
when the center tank is supplying fuel, the center tank pumps automatically stop when the wing inner cell is full.
This allows the wing tanks to feed the engines until approximately 1,100 lbs of fuel has been used from the
applicable wing tank(s); at which time the center tank pumps resume operation.
MODE SEL FAULT (A319/A320/A321): Amber light illuminates, and ECAM caution appears when center tank has
more than 550 lbs of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs.
ACT FAULT (A321): Amber light illuminates and ECAM caution appears when the center tank has less than 6,614
lbs of fuel and one ACT has more than 550 lbs of fuel.
6. What is the maximum fuel imbalance between the left and right wing tanks (outer + inner)?
2,500 lb
7. How do you know when the crossfeed valve is fully open?
Chapter 7: ELECTRIC
1. What is the normal priority for supplying electric power to the aircraft?
• Engine generators
• External power
• APU generator
• Emergency generator (RAT)
• Batteries
2. What does the EMER GEN red FAULT light indicate?
powered.
3. What does the amber FAULT light in either BAT 1, BAT 2 pb indicate?
The charging current for the corresponding battery is outside limits. In this case the battery contactor opens.
4. How long must the IDG pb be held to achieve a disconnect?
disengage solenoid.
5. What does the FAULT light indicate in the AC ESS FEED pb?
The AC ESS BUS is not electrically supplied.
6. Are there any procedures in the Pilot's Handbook which direct us to use the EMER GEN TEST switch?
None that I know of.
7. Can the aircraft batteries be depleted?
Battery automatic cut-off logic prevents complete discharge of the battery when the aircraft is on the ground and
unpowered.
_____________________________________________________________

8. If the blue ON light is present in the EXT PWR pb and a green AVAIL light on the APU START pb, what
is the source of electrical power (with engines shut down)?
EXT PWR
9. What is the purpose of the static inverter?
In the event of total AC power loss, if the aircraft speed is above 50 kts, an inverter is connected to the HOT BAT 1
bus and inverts DC current to single phase AC current which is supplied to the ESS AC bus. This switching will
occur regardless of the position of the BAT pbs. If the airspeed is less than 50 kts, both BAT pbs must be in auto
position for the switching to occur.
10. What does the AVAIL light in the EXT PWR pb mean?

11. If an IDG is disconnected in flight, can it be re-connected?
12. What is the normal source of power for the AC ESS BUS?
13. What is the AUTO function of the GALLEY pb?
Main galley, secondary galley, and in-seat power supply are supplied. The main galley (A319/320), all galleys
(A321), and in-seat power supply are shed automatically when:
• In flight: only one generator is operating
• On the ground: only one generator is operating (All galleys are available when the APU GEN or EXT PWR is
supplying power)
14. Can the APU generator power all AC and DC busses on the ground?
_____________________________________________________________

PART TWO (TGS in Class Outline)
Chapter 10: Pneumatics/Air Conditioning/ Pressurization
1. When would the LO selection on the PACK FLOW selector be used?


2. If bleed air is being supplied by the APU, or if one pack fails, what will be the pack flow rate?
4. With the LDG ELEV selector in AUTO, what altitude is used for the landing field pressurization
reference?
FMGS data is used.
5. What are the three supply zones for conditioned air?
• Flight deck
• Forward cabin
• Aft cabin
No
malfunctioning, is it possible to swap controllers?
AUTO.
_____________________________________________________________

Chapter 6: Ice and Rain Protection

pb ON.
5. What happens when Wing Anti-Ice is on and a bleed leak is detected?
They close automatically:

• Upon touchdown,
• If a leak is detected, or
• If electrical power is lost.
6. What affect does Engine Anti-Ice have on engine performance?
engine.
2. With the RDCR GND CTL pb in AUTO when does the CVR and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR)
energize?
At the first engine start.
4. Is the radar display available in all modes of the ND selector on the EFIS Control Panel?
Any ND mode except PLAN.
_____________________________________________________________

6. What does the ON BATT light indicate?
Illuminates amber when one or more IR(s) is supplied only by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates for a few
seconds at the beginning of the alignment, but not for a fast realignment.
If, when the aircraft is on the ground, at least one ADIRU is supplied by aircraft batteries:
• An external horn sounds
• The ADIRU and AVNCS light illuminates blue on the EXTERNAL POWER panel.
7. Where is ILS #1 displayed?
• ILS 1: CAPT PFD and F/O ND

• ILS 2: F/O PFD and CAPT ND
Press the RCL pb on the ECAM control panel. This pb is used to call up the warning messages, caution messages,
and the status page, that may have been suppressed by the activation of the CLR pb or by flight-phase related
inhibition. If the RCL pb is held down for more than 3 seconds, the E/WD shows any caution messages that have
been suppressed by the EMER CANC pb.
9. Why is it very important to maintain a “lights out” condition on the ECAM control panel during flight?

• Speed
• Mach number
12. If all systems were working normally, and a crewmember wanted to remotely tune a VOR through
the RMP, would that have any effect on the FMGC NAV functions?
The RMP NAV key engages the radio navigation backup mode. It takes control of the VOR, ILS, (MLS, and ADF not
installed) receivers away from the FMGC and gives it to the RMP.
14. When would the RMP 1 be used to tune an ILS?
In the event number 1 FMGC/MCDU fails.
_____________________________________________________________

16. Where is the information normally displayed by DMC #1? DMC #2?
• DMC 1: PFD 1, ND 1, upper ECAM DU

• DMC 2: PFD 2, ND 2, lower ECAM DU
• DMC 3: Spare which can replace DMC 1 or DMC 2
Any one RMP can tune any one of the aircraft radios. A green light to the left of the radio key indicates which radio
is selected for tuning.
20. What would a steady FAULT light in the #1 IR indicate?
FAULT
• Steady: The respective IR is lost.
• Flashing: Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
ALIGN
• Steady: Respective IR is operating normally in align mode.
• Flashing
22. What is the purpose of the T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT message?
During takeoff and landing T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT memos are displayed in magenta to remind the crew that
most of the failure titles and the associated checklists are suppressed. This prevents unnecessary distractions
during critical phases of flight.
• The T.O. memo appears 2 minutes after the second engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pb is
• The LDG memo appears below 2,000’ RA and disappears after touchdown (80 knots).
23. What does the green F on the speed scale indicate on the PFD?
• F – Minimum Flap Retraction Speed, appears when flap selector is in position 3 or 2.

• S – Minimum Slat Retraction Speed, appears when the flap selector is in position 1.
24. What is green dot speed?
Engine-out operating speed in clean configuration. This green dot appears when the aircraft is flying in the clean
configuration, showing the speed corresponding to the best lift-to-drag ratio.
25. What information does the Inertial Reference (IR) provide to the PFD?
• Attitude
• Heading
• Track
• Flight Path Vector
_____________________________________________________________

AIRBUS A319/320/321
2006 – 2007
Updated : 10/09/06 PHB : 02-06
Send corrections / comments to Bob Sanford, E-mail: busdriver@hky.com
TGS – PART ONE
Chapter 6: Ice & Rain Protection
1. When should engine anti-ice be used?
Ground and takeoff:

• Outside Air Temperature (OAT) is 10°C (50°F) or below and
• visible moisture in any form is present (i.e., clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet,
or ice crystals), or
• when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, standing water, or slush may be
ingested by the engines or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.
In flight:
• Total Air Temperature (TAT) is 10°C (50°F) or below and
• visible moisture in any form is present (i.e., clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet,
or ice crystals).
Engine anti-ice operation:
• Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are
anticipated (except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40°C SAT).
• Engine anti-ice must be ON prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temps below -40°
SAT).
Caution: Do not rely on airframe visual icing cues to turn engine anti-ice ON. Use the temperature and visual
moisture criteria specified below. Delaying the use of engine anti-ice until buildup is visible from the flight deck
may result in severe engine damage and/or flameout.
2. After takeoff, when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected ON, if needed?

• Select WING ANTI ICE ON after thrust reduction altitude
• If in severe icing conditions, WING ANTI ICE may be left ON for landing
Wing anti-ice is not permitted on the ground or in flight when the TAT exceeds 10°C.

pb ON.
_____________________________________________________________

5. What happens to engine RPM when either engine anti-ice valve is open?
engine.
7. What would happen if the RAIN RPLNT pushbutton was pushed on the ground with the engines shut
down?
The RAIN RPLNT pb is inhibited on the ground with the engines stopped.
8. Is electrical heat applied to the galley/lavatory drain masts anytime there is aircraft electrical power
on the aircraft?
The drain masts are heated any time the electrical system is powered.
10. When are the windshields and side windows heated automatically on the ground?
The windshields and side windows are electrically heated for anti-icing and anti-fogging. The system is controlled
automatically by the Window Heat Computers which provide regulation, protection, and fault indications.
Windshield heat automatically operates at low power on the ground with at least one engine operating. In flight,
the windshield heating system changes to normal. The changeover is automatic. Only one heating level exists for
the windows. The system can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb
ON.
Chapter 10: Pneumatics
2. The APU BLEED pb FAULT light illuminates amber when?
This amber light illuminates and an ECAM caution appears when the system detects an APU bleed leak.
No
4. When does the crossbleed valve open with the X BLEED selector in AUTO?
• The crossbleed valve is open if the APU bleed valve is open.

• The crossbleed valve is closed if the APU bleed valve is closed, or in the case of a wing, pylon, or APU leak
(except during engine start).
5. What controls and monitors the pneumatic system?
Operation of the pneumatic system is controlled and monitored by two Bleed Monitoring Computers. The BMCs
provide indications and warnings to the ECAM and centralized fault display system.
_____________________________________________________________

6. Is it permissible to allow simultaneous introduction of external air with another source supplying the
system?
Do not use external conditioned air simultaneously with the airplane air conditioning packs.
Chapter 10: Air Conditioning
1. What would an amber temperature indication in either the Pack Outlet Temperature or Pack
Compressor Outlet Temperature indicate?
The temperature changes from green to amber if the temperature exceeds the advisory threshold.
2. When would the LO selection on the PACK FLOW selector (A319/320) be used?


4. With the APU supplying bleed air what will be the pack flow if the PACK FLOW (A319/320) selector
is LOW?
• A319/320 – HIGH
• A321 - NORMAL
5. The pack flow control valve automatically closes for engine start when the mode selector is moved to
IGN/START. When does the valve automatically reopen?
Reopening of the valves is delayed for 30 seconds to avoid a supplementary pack closure during second engine
start.
6. How is temperature in the flight deck and cabin controlled?
The zone controller is a dual-channel computer which regulates the temperature of the flight deck and two cabin
zones (FWD & AFT). It receives information from various temperature and flow sensors, compares these signals
with the zone temperatures selected by the crew, and then directs the pack controllers to deliver air at the coolest
demanded temperature to the mixing unit. Individual zone temperature is adjusted by mixing hot bleed air,
through the trim air valves, into the zone distribution network.
7. Can the zone controller override the crew selected pack flow?
The zone controller may override pilot selected pack flow, or it may increase APU speed or engine idle to meet
temperature demands. I guess it just depends on its mood.
8. The ram air inlet flaps, for the ACM heat exchangers, automatically close under two conditions
regardless of heat exchanger requirements. What are those two conditions?
The ram air inlet flaps close temporarily at takeoff thrust application and at touchdown to prevent ingestion of
debris.
_____________________________________________________________

10. What ECAM page should be selected to verify aft cargo compartment temperature?
COND
11. What ground warning notice is given when a problem occurs with the ventilation system when the
engines are stopped?
The external horn sounds.
12. What indications on the ventilation panel are given if smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation
duct?
• The FAULT lights illuminate in both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs
• The SMOKE light illuminates in the GEN 1 LINE pb on the emergency electrical panel.
13. When would we use the ON position of the ECON FLOW selector (A321)?


Note: If the APU is supplying bleed air for air conditioning, pack controllers select high flow (A319/320) or normal
flow (A321) automatically, regardless of selector position.
14. What would the FAULT light in the AFT ISO VALVE pb indicate?
Illuminates amber when either inlet or outlet valve is not in the selected position.
Chapter 10: Pressurization
1. With the LDG ELEV selector at 2, what would be the landing elevation?
2,000 feet
3. If SYS 1 (or SYS 2) were displayed in amber on the CAB PRESS page, what would be indicated?
SYS 1 or SYS 2 appears in green when active and in amber when faulty.
4. What is indicated if the Cabin Vertical Speed is indicated in amber?
The cabin vertical speed is in the advisory range.
_____________________________________________________________

5. What occurs when the DITCHING pushbutton is selected ON?
The system sends a “close” signal to the:

• Outflow valve
• Emergency ram air inlet
• Avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves
• Pack flow control valves
• Forward cargo isolation outlet valve (if installed)
In other words, all exterior openings below the flotation line are closed.
FMGS data is used.
7. What is the one limitation for opening the RAM AIR inlet?
Open only if differential pressure is less than +1 PSI.
8. Will the ram air inlet open if the DITCHING pb has been selected ON?
No
AUTO.
10. If one cabin pressure controller fails, how is pressurization maintained?
controller fails, the backup automatically resumes control.
11. What is the caution about pressing the DITCHING pushbutton ON while on the ground with low
pressure conditioned air connected?
If on the ground, with low pressure conditioned air connected, all doors closed, and the DITCHING pb is switched
ON, a differential pressure will build up.
12. What indications on the ventilation panel are given if smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation
duct?
• The FAULT lights illuminate in both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs
• The SMOKE light illuminates in the GEN 1 LINE pb on the emergency electrical panel.
Chapter 11: Hydraulics
• Landing gear
• Normal brakes
• Reverser 1
yellow system?

_____________________________________________________________

3. How many pumps does the yellow hydraulic system have excluding the PTU?
• ENG 2 Pump
4. What is the purpose of the hand pump?
The hand pump is provided for operation of the cargo doors when electrical power is not available.
5. When does the PTU automatically activate?
When the differential pump pressure output between the green and yellow systems exceeds a predetermined value
(500 psi).
6. Will the PTU operate during Cargo Door operation?
PTU is inhibited for 40 seconds after cargo door operation.
7. When is the PTU tested?
The PTU is inhibited during the first engine start and automatically tested during the second engine start.
8. How are the three hydraulic systems powered?
SOURCE GREEN BLUE YELLOW

Engine Pump 1. Engine 1 pump 1. Engine 2 pump
PTU 2. PTU 2. PTU
Electric Pump 1. Blue Electric pump 3. Yellow Electric pump
RAT 2. Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
Hand Pump 4. Hand pump for cargo door operation
9. Is it possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU?
Yes
10. With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO, the blue pump will be
energized when?
• Ground – pump operates when either engine is running and AC power is available.
• Flight – pump operates continuously unless the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is OFF.
11. What is the purpose of the PTU?
The PTU is a reversible motor-pump located between the green and yellow hydraulic systems. It enables the green
system to pressurize the yellow system, and vice versa, without fluid transfer. The PTU is automatically activated
when the differential pump pressure output between the green and yellow systems exceeds a predetermined value.
On the ground, when the engines are not operating, the PTU enables the yellow system electric pump to pressurize
the green system.
12. If the YELLOW ELEC PUMP pushbutton is OFF, when will it come on automatically?
14. What is the difference in operation of the two RAT extension methods?
• Manual: The RAT MAN ON pb is used to deploy the RAT manually. Activating this pb will only pressurize
the blue system, but will not activate the emergency generator.
• Automatic: If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed is above 100 knots, the RAT automatically
deploys and pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically driven emergency
generator. Pressing the EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb has the same effect.
_____________________________________________________________

Chapter 11: Landing Gear
280 KIAS / 0.67M
25,000 feet
• Illuminates red if the gear is not locked in the selected position.

• Illuminates green if the gear is locked down.
No
5. Is nose wheel steering available with the green hydraulic pressure inoperative?
No
6. Is nose wheel steering available after manual gear extension?
No
7. When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering, the steering angle starts to reduce at _40
knots_ and progressively reduces to zero degrees at _130_ knots?
When using the hand wheels, nose wheel steering angle is reduced above 20 knots ground speed. As speed
increases, the angle decreases progressively to 0º at 70 knots.
The gear doors remain open and the nosewheel steering is deactivated.
10. What sequences, operates, and monitors landing gear operation?
Two Landing Gear Control And Interface Units (LGCIU) provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications
for the landing gear and cargo doors. Landing gear proximity sensors provide signals to the LGCIUs for processing
and monitoring landing gear position, shock absorber status (air/ground mode), and gear doors position. One
LGCIU controls one complete cycle of the gear and then automatically switches to the other unit. If one unit fails,
the other takes over. In case of a proximity sensor failure, the affected LGCIU will provide signals regarding gear
and shock absorber position to the other LGCIU which in turn, automatically assumes control of the landing gear
operation. The cargo doors also have proximity switches that provide position information to the LGCIUs.
260 KIAS
12. How is the landing gear held in place when retracted?
Mechanical uplocks hold the gear in the wheel wells.
13. What message is displayed on ECAM when the towing control lever is in the tow position?
A green NW STRG DISC message
_____________________________________________________________

The NW STRG DISC message changes to amber.
Chapter 11: Brakes

will begin?

4. The green DECEL light on the autobrake pushbutton illuminates when the actual airplane
deceleration corresponds to what percent of the selected rate?
80%
20 knots
6. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, how many brake applications
can the pilot expect?
At least seven full brake applications.
7. Is the anti-skid system operational with yellow alternate brakes?
Antiskid is normally available using the yellow alternate brakes. During alternate braking, the antiskid system
becomes inoperative:
• With electrical power failure,
• With BSCU failure,
• If the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is selected OFF, or
• If the brakes are supplied by the yellow accumulator only.
300° C
10. At the gate you notice brake temperatures above 300°C, you then select BRAKE FANS ON, when
should the pilots turn the BRAKE FANS OFF?
Select brake cooling fans OFF when brake temperature decreases to approximately 250°C.
_____________________________________________________________

11. When will the Autobrakes activate? What speed must be met or exceeded during rejected takeoff to
activate?
Automatic braking is activated when the ground spoilers extend. During a rejected takeoff below 72 knots, the
autobrakes will not activate since the ground spoilers do not extend below that speed.
12. On slippery runways, antiskid operation may prevent reaching the predetermined deceleration, and
the DECEL light will not illuminate. Is the autobrake still operative?
Yes
13. How long will the accumulator maintain adequate parking break pressure?
For at least 12 hours.
14. What happens to the other brake modes when parking brakes are applied (A319/320)?
Chapter 12: Flight Controls
1. What control surfaces do the FACs control?
The Rudder
2. When both sidesticks are operated simultaneously, is the sum of the sidestick inputs limited to
Normal law deflection limits?
Yes – both inputs are algebraically added, however, the sum is limited to single sidestick maximum deflection.
3. Explain, in general terms, Pitch Attitude protection (Normal Law).
• Load factor limitation: Prevents the pilot from overstressing the aircraft, even if full sidestick deflections
are applied.
• Attitude protection: Pitch is limited to 30º up and 15º down.
• High angle of attack protection: When the angle of attack exceeds Alpha Prot, elevator control switches to
alpha protection mode in which angle of attack is proportional to sidestick deflection.
• High speed protection: Prevents exceeding VMO or MMO by introducing a pitch up load factor demand.
• Low energy warning
4. Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?
Yes – if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the slats are extended.
The FACs perform the following functions:

• Normal roll (coordinating turns and damping dutch roll)
• Rudder trim
• Rudder travel limit
• Alternate yaw
5. What are the maximum winds for automatic approach, landing, and roll out?
Maximum Winds for Automatic Approach, Landing, and Rollout

Headwind 30 knots
Tailwind 10 knots
Crosswind other than CAT II/III 20 knots
_____________________________________________________________

6. With the high angle of attack protection in mind, what will the airplane slow to if the sidestick is held
full aft?
When the angle of attack exceeds Alpha Prot, elevator control switches to alpha protection mode in which angle of
attack is proportional to sidestick deflection. However, Alpha Max will not be exceeded even if the pilot applies full
aft deflection. The aircraft will not stall, but will descend at Alpha Max speed which is indicated by the top of the
red strip on the airspeed scale.
7. The FLAP lever sends signals to what computer to command movement?
Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC)
8. What will the aircraft do in alternate law with speed stabilities, if the Vmo or Mmo is exceeded?
9. If the flight controls degrade to alternate law, what will happen when the landing gear is extended
(if no autopilots are engaged)?
Direct law automatically becomes active. If an autopilot is engaged, the airplane will remain in alternate law until
the autopilot is disconnected.
10. Can the pilot make a flight control input that will over-stress the airplane in direct law?
Yes – there are no protections provided in direct law.
11. Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions?
No
12. High-speed protection will introduce a pitch up load factor demand. Can the pilot override this
command while in normal law?
The pilot cannot override the pitch up command.
13. When is the low energy warning (SPEED, SPEED, SPEED) available?
Available in CONF 2, 3, or FULL, between 100’ and 2,000’ RA when TOGA not selected.
14. A nose-up command is introduced any time the airplane exceeds Vmo/Mmo to keep the speed from
increasing further. During alternate law can this input be overridden?
This command can be overridden by sidestick input.
15. In case of complete loss of electrical flight control signals, can the aircraft be temporarily
controlled by mechanical mode?
accomplished using the rudder pedals. Both controls require hydraulic power. A red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
warning appears on the PFD.
16. If the takeoff configuration is 1+F and the pilot does not select configuration 0 after takeoff, what
will happen?
The flaps retract automatically at 210 knots.
_____________________________________________________________

17. How does the crew know whose sidestick has priority?
Sidestick priority logic:

• When only one pilot operates the sidestick, it sends control signals to the computers
• When the other pilot operates his sidestick in the same or opposite direction, the system adds the signals
of both pilots algebraically. The total is limited to the signal that would result from the maximum
deflection of a single sidestick.
• Both green CAPT and F/O SIDE STICK PRIORITY lights flash and a “DUAL INPUT” audio voice message is
given every 5 seconds as long as both pilots operate their sidesticks simultaneously.
• A pilot can deactivate the other sidestick and take full control by keeping his priority takeover pb
depressed.
• To latch the priority condition, press the takeover pb for more than 40 seconds. This allows the pilot to
release his takeover pb without losing priority. However, a pilot can at any time reactivate a deactivated
sidestick by momentarily pressing the takeover pb on either sidestick.
• If both pilots press their takeover pbs, the pilot that presses last gets priority.
• In a priority situation:
o A red light illuminates in front of the pilot whose sidestick is deactivated.
o A green light illuminates in front of the pilot who has taken control, if the other sidestick is not in
the neutral position (indicates a potential and unwanted control demand).
o A “PRIORITY LEFT” or “PRIORITY RIGHT” audio message is given each time priority is taken.
1. When would the GPWS FLAP MODE pushbutton be selected?
Flap mode is inhibited to avoid nuisance warning when landing with a reduced flap setting.
3. When will the Digital Flight Data Recorder operate?
On the ground, flight information and operational data is furnished automatically for five minutes after electrical
power is supplied to the airplane, or when at least one engine is operating. It operates continuously in flight,
whether or not the engines are operating. The system stops automatically five minutes after the last engine is shut
down. The recorder can be manually activated by the GND CTL pb on the overhead panel.
4. What does the APPR pushbutton do?
Arms, disarms, engages, or disengages the approach modes:

• LOC and G/S modes if an ILS approach is selected in the active F-PLN.
• APP NAV-FINAL modes if a non-precision approach is selected in the active F-PLN.
6. With the TERR ON ND pushbutton off, what happens if a terrain caution is generated?
If the system generates a caution or warning while the TERR ON ND is not switched ON, the terrain data is
automatically displayed on the ND and ON light illuminates on the TERR ON ND pb.
_____________________________________________________________

8. When the TO CONFIG pushbutton is depressed, a take-off power application is simulated. What are
some of the systems are being checked by this test?
If the airplane is not properly configured for takeoff, the following warnings and cautions are triggered when the TO
CONFIG pb is pressed or when takeoff power is applied:
• SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN T.O. RANGE
• PITCH TRIM NOT IN T.O. RANGE
• SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED
• SIDESTICK FAULT
• HOT BRAKES
• DOORS NOT CLOSED (tested only if engines are operating)
9. What components are not checked by the T.O. CONFIG test, but will trigger a warning when TOGA
power is applied?
The following are only triggered when takeoff power is applied:

• PARK BRAKE ON
• FLEX TEMP NOT SET (not displayed if thrust levers are set in the TOGA detent)
10. When is side stick position and max sidestick deflection displayed on PFD?
The stick position indicator is displayed by both PFDs on the ground with at least one engine running. It only
displays the combined stick input, not the actual flight control positions. This display cannot be used for flight
control checks.
The ECAM F/CTL page must be used for flight control checks. When full sidestick (or rudder deflection greater than
22º) is applied, the F/CTL page is automatically shown for 20 seconds.
11. If continuous spurious caution messages are received that are known to be incorrect, is there any
way to cancel this caution?
Press the EMER CANC pb on the ECAM control panel.

• Speed
• Mach number
14. How many VOR and DME receivers are on board the aircraft?
• GPS, VOR, ILS, DME, RA: 2 each

• Marker Beacon: 1
15. Must the flight director be on for the windshear function of the FACs to operate normally?
No
_____________________________________________________________

16. Can the EMER CANC pb cancel any aural warning?
Warnings:
• Cancels (stops) an aural warning for as long as the failure condition continues.
• Extinguishes the MASTER WARN lights.
• Does not affect the ECAM message display.
Cautions
• Cancel any present caution (single chime, MASTER CAUT lights, and ECAM message) for the rest of the
flight.
• Automatically calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the title of the failure
that is inhibited.
The EMER CANC pb should only be used in flight to suppress spurious MASTER CAUTIONS.
17. The predictive windshear system operates when the aircraft is below _1,500_ feet AGL.
The Predictive Windshear System operates when the aircraft is below 1,500’ AGL. It scans the airspace within 5
below 50’.
The Reactive Windshear Detection function is available during takeoff from liftoff to 1,300 feet AGL, and on
approach from 1,300 feet AGL to 50 feet AGL, when aircraft configuration is 1 or greater.

• “WINDSHEAR” in red on both PFD’s (for at least 15 seconds)
• An aural warning, “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”
18. If the TERR ON ND pushbutton is selected ON, will this inhibit the weather radar display?
The weather radar image is not displayed although the weather radar is ON.
Chapter 14: Auto Flight System
1. What is the normal mode of FMGC operation?
The FMGC has three modes of operation:

• Dual Mode (normal mode of operation)
• Independent Mode
• Single Mode
2. What is the function of the LOC pushbutton?
To arm the LOC capture mode.
3. How do we know the FLIGHT GUIDANCE actually captured the localizer and glideslope?
GS and LOC capture mode annunciations:

• GS* in FMA column 2 annunciates green, and
• LOC* in FMA column 3 annunciates green.
_____________________________________________________________

4. Name some examples when the autopilot will disengage?
• Takeover or corresponding AP switch is pressed.

• Sidestick or rudder pedals are moved beyond the load threshold.
• Trim wheel is moved beyond the load threshold.
• The other autopilot is engaged, except when LOC G/S modes are armed or engaged, or ROLL OUT and GA
modes are engaged.
• Both thrust levers are set to TOGA detent on the ground.
• Reaching DA – 50’ with APPR engaged on a non-ILS approach.
The autopilot will also disengage in normal law when:

• High speed protection is activated.
• Alpha prot is activated.
• Bank angle exceeds 45°.
• Rudder pedal deflection is greater than 10° out of trim.
5. When can the second autopilot be engaged?
Only one autopilot can be engaged in flight except when the ILS approach (APPR) is armed or engaged. The second
autopilot will remain engaged until the completion of the Go-Around phase. AP1 is active and AP2 is standby.
6. How is the Autothrust system usually armed on the ground?
The A/THR System is armed on the ground by:

• Pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are not running, or
• Setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.
The system is armed in flight by:

• Pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU while the thrust levers are out of the active range (A/THR pb light
illuminates green),
• Engaging the go-around mode, or
• If A/THR is active, setting both thrust levers beyond the CL detent or at least one lever beyond the MCT
detent will also cause it to revert to armed.
7. Does one FMGC acts as the “master” while the other acts as “slave”?
The master FMGC logic (Dual Mode) is as follows:
• If one AP switch is engaged, the related FMGC is the master

• If two AP switches are engaged, FMGC 1 is the master
• If neither AP is engaged:
o FMGC 1 is master when the captain’s FD pb is selected on
o FMGC 2 is master when the FO’s FD pb is selected on and the captain’s FD pb is selected off
• If neither AP/FD is engaged, the A/THR is controlled by FMGC 1


_____________________________________________________________

9. What happens if the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons are pushed and held for more than 15
seconds?
The autothrust system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight, including alpha floor protection. The
autothrust system can only be reset during the next FMGC power-up (on the ground).
10. What are the flight guidance modes called that are used for temporary lateral, vertical and speed
revisions?
• Selected Modes: Used for temporary lateral, vertical, and speed revisions. The aircraft is guided according
to values selected by the crew on the FCU. Selected modes are engaged by pulling the respective knob on
the FCU.
• Managed Modes: Used for long term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS and
modified by entries on the MCDU. During takeoff, managed modes engage automatically when the pilot
sets the thrust levers to TO or FLEX detent. In flight, managed guidance modes are armed or engaged by
pressing the respective knob on the FCU.
11. On the ground with slats extended, when is the SRS Mode automatically engaged?
The Speed Reference System (SRS) vertical mode controls pitch to maintain a speed defined by SRS guidance
selected altitude.
the greater of V2 or current speed. This mode also protects against high pitch attitude and provides a minimum
rate of climb.
12. During the ROLL OUT mode of an autoland approach, how is nose wheel steering controlled?
The autopilot provides inputs to the nosewheel steering unit during the ROLL OUT mode of an autoland approach.
ROLL OUT mode engages at touchdown and guides the aircraft along the runway centerline. The PFD displays the
yaw bar and no FD bars.
13. When will the autopilot automatically disengage during a RNAV approach?
When FINAL APP NAV modes are engaged, the AP will disengage at DA – 50’ (if entered), or 400’ AGL if no DA was
entered. The FDs will revert to basic modes (HDG V/S).
14. At what altitude is the red AUTOLAND warning light “armed”?
• Both APs OFF below 200’ RA

• Excessive deviation in LOC (1/4 dot above 15’ RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100’ RA). In addition, LOC and
• Loss of LOC signal (above 15’ RA) or loss of GLIDE signal (above 100’). In addition, FD bars flash on the
• The difference between both radio altimeter indications is greater than 15’.
15. When ALT CRZ is displayed on the FMA, the autopilot allows altitude to vary by how much to
minimize thrust variations?
When the autopilot is maintaining the MCDU entered cruise altitude (ALT CRZ), the A/THR holds the target Mach,
and the altitude varies ± 50 feet to minimize thrust variations.
16. At least one Flight Director must be on to arm the A/THR System on the ground.
See question #6 above.
_____________________________________________________________

17. How is TOGA LK canceled?


_____________________________________________________________

TGS – PART TWO
4. Continuous ignition is provided automatically when:
• ENG ANTI ICE is selected ON

• Engine flameout is detected in flight
• The EIU fails
5. Name some reasons that a manual start may be required?

• Stall
• EGT overlimit

• The start valve opens if the ENG MODE selector is set to CRANK or IGN/START and N2 < 20%.
• Both pack valves close during the start sequence.
• The blue ON light illuminates.

• EGT approximately 390°C
• FF approximately 600 lb/hr
• Gray background on N2 indication disappears.
13 quarts
_____________________________________________________________

11. During a manual start of the #1 engine, does the ENG MAN START pushbutton have to be depressed
to close the start valve?
Each FADEC is a dual channel (A & B) computer providing full engine management. One channel is always active
while the other is a backup designed to takeover automatically in case of primary channel failure.
Chapter 16: APU

APU will automatically shutdown due to fire on the ground only.
5. If EXTERNAL POWER were powering the aircraft, what indications would be seen during an APU fire
test?
• A continuous repetitive chime sounds

• The MASTER WARN lights flash
• APU FIRE warning appears on the ECAM

• The APU FIRE pb illuminates red
• The SQUIB light illuminates white
• The DISCH light illuminates amber
_____________________________________________________________

One
No
9. When an APU auto shut down has occurred, what other indications are received in addition to the
ECAM procedure?
10. With battery power only, what would an APU fire test look like?
• APU FIRE pb illuminated

• SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated
11. After depressing the APU MASTER pb, the START pb is pressed. At this time the START pb
illuminates blue. What does that mean?
• When the flap is completely open, the APU starter is energized.

• 1.5 seconds after the starter is energized, the ignition is turned ON.
• When N = 55%, the starter is de-energized and the ignition is turned OFF.
• 2 seconds after N reaches 95%, or when N is above 99%, The ON light on the START pb goes out.
• The APU may now supply bleed air and electrical power to aircraft systems.
• 10 seconds later, the APU page disappears from the ECAM display.
13. Can you name some of the possible reasons for an APU auto shutdown?
Yes I can … see question #2.
The APU is equipped with two identical detection loops each of which contain one heat sensing element and a FDU,
located in the APU compartment. The APU is equipped with one fire extinguisher.

• Pylon nacelle
• Engine core
• Fan section
_____________________________________________________________

fire?
Two
CARGO SMOKE panel.

• Aural CRC
• Illumination of MASTER WARN light
• Red ECAM SMOKE LAVATORY SMOKE
12. How do you know when the engine fire extinguisher bottle has discharged?
_____________________________________________________________

Chapter 9: FUEL
(A321).
quantity drops to _1,650_ pounds.
The crossfeed valve permits one engine to be fed by both sides or both engines to be fed from one side. The valve
extended.
3. Wing tanks
tank is empty.
_____________________________________________________________

Operational maximum fuel imbalance will be indicated by an ECAM advisory condition.
7. How can you know when the crossfeed valve is fully open?
Chapter 7: ELECTRIC
• 1. Engine generators
• 2. External power
• 3. APU generator
• 4. Emergency generator (RAT)
• 5. Batteries
2. What does the EMER GEN red FAULT light indicate when illuminated?
powered.
3. What does the amber FAULT light in either BAT 1, BAT 2 pushbutton indicate?
4. How long must the IDG pushbutton be held to achieve a disconnect?
disengage solenoid.
5. What does the FAULT light indicate in the AC ESS FEED pushbutton?
6. Are there any procedures in the Pilot's Handbook, which direct us to use the EMER GEN TEST switch?
7. Can the batteries be depleted?
unpowered.
8. If the blue ON light is present in the EXT PWR pushbutton and a green AVAIL light on the APU START
pb, what is the source of electrical power (with engines shut down)?
EXT PWR
_____________________________________________________________

In the event of total AC power loss, if the aircraft speed is above 50 knots, an inverter is connected to the HOT BAT
1 bus and inverts DC current to single phase AC current which is supplied to the ESS AC bus. This switching will
occur regardless of the position of the BAT pbs. If the airspeed is less than 50 knots, both BAT pbs must be in auto

• In flight: only one generator is operating
• On the ground: only one generator is operating (All galleys are available when the APU GEN or EXT PWR is
supplying power)
14. Can the APU generator power all busses on the ground?
_____________________________________________________________

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7(? :
Airbus Technical Ground School
AIRBUS A319/320/321
2008 – 2009
Updated : 04/02/08
Send corrections / comments to:
Bob Sanford, E-mail: busdriver@hky.com
Chapter 11: HYDRAULICS
1. Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?
 Eng 1 – Green
 Eng 2 - Yellow
If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed is above 100 kts, the RAT automatically deploys and pressurizes the Blue
hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically driven emergency generator. Pressing the EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb
has the same effect.
 Landing gear
 Nosewheel steering
 Normal brakes
 Reverser 1
 Various actuators on flaps, slats, rudder, elevator, stabilizer, ailerons, and spoilers.
 ACCU PRESS – pressure in the yellow brake accumulators.

 BRAKES – yellow pressure delivered to the left and right brakes, as measured upstream of the servo valves.
7. The yellow system has an engine driven pump, what other means do we have to pressurize the yellow
system?
 Yellow electric pump

 Power Transfer Unit
 Hand pump for cargo doors
Yes
10. What is the normal source of power for the landing gear?
Green system
______________________________________________________________________________

The RAT MAN ON pb is used to deploy the RAT manually. Activating this pb will only pressurize the blue system, but will
not activate the emergency generator.
12. What is the purpose of the engine fire shutoff valves?
The valves isolate the hydraulic pump from its respective reservoir.
13. If an electric hydraulic pump overheats, can it be reset when cooled down?
Yes
Chapter 11: LANDING GEAR
1. What is the maximum gear extension speed (VLO)?
250 KIAS
No
No
Illuminates if the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration, and a red warning
appears on the ECAM.
A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the gear when indicated airspeed is above 260 knots. The valve opens again
when the airspeed decreases below 260 knots, provided the gear lever is placed down.
 Illuminates red if the gear is not locked in the selected position.

 Illuminates green if the gear is locked down.
260 KIAS
220 KIAS
280 KIAS/0.67M
25,000 feet
11. When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering during takeoff, the steering angle starts to reduce
at what speed and progressively reduces to zero degrees at _130_ knots?
______________________________________________________________________________

12. When the towing control lever is in the tow position, a green NW STRG DISC message is displayed on
ECAM. What happens to the message after the first engine is started?
13. Is there any visual means to check landing gear position?
No
14. What does illumination of the red arrow near the gear selector lever indicate?
Illuminates if the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration, and a red warning
appears on the ECAM.
Chapter 11: BRAKES
 To check brake efficiency,

 That green pressure has taken over, and
 Yellow pressure is at zero on the brake pressure triple indicator.
2. After touchdown, with the autobrakes selected, what control surface must move before autobraking will
begin?

Note: During a rejected takeoff below 72 knots, the autobrakes will not activate since the ground spoilers do not extend
below that speed.
4. What happens to the other brake modes when parking brakes are applied?
300° C
 Normal (Green)
 Alternate (Yellow)
 Parking Brake (Yellow system or accumulator)
8. When will the Autobrakes activate?
72 knots
______________________________________________________________________________

10. What do the indicators on the AUTO BRK pushbuttons mean?
 Blue ON light illuminates to indicate positive arming.

 Green DECEL light illuminates when the actual deceleration is 80% of the selected rate.
 Off: The indicated brake mode is not active.
20 knots
12. On the WHEEL page, if AUTO BRK is displayed in green, what is indicated?
Autobrake system is armed.
Chapter 12: FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. What is the result if both sidesticks are moved at the same time and neither takes priority during flight
with the autopilot OFF?
Both green CAPT and F/O SIDE STICK PRIORITY lights flash and a “DUAL INPUT” audio voice message is given every 5
seconds as long as both pilots operate their sidesticks simultaneously.
Full ground spoiler extension automatically at touchdown of both main gear or in the case of a rejected takeoff (speed
above 72 knots) when:
 Both thrust levers are at idle (if the ground spoilers are ARMED), or
 Reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at idle (if the ground spoilers are not
ARMED)
4. What happens to extended speed brakes when FLAPS FULL is selected?

 SEC 1 and 3 have failed
 An elevator (L or R) has failed (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
 Angle of attack protection is active
 Flaps are in configuration FULL (A319/320) or
 Flaps are in configuration 3 or FULL (A321)
 Thrust levers are above MCT position, or
 Alpha floor is active
A red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” warning appears on the PFD. Pitch control is achieved through the horizontal stabilizer by
using the manual trim wheel. Lateral control is accomplished through the rudder pedals.
______________________________________________________________________________


 Reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at or near idle, and
 One main landing gear strut is compressed.
8. Four Wingtip Brakes are activated in case of asymmetry, over speed, symmetrical runway, or
uncommanded movement. If the WTB's lock the flap or slat surfaces and prevent further movement, can the
remaining surfaces be extended?
 If the flap WTBs are on, the pilot can still operate the slats;
 If the slat WTBs are on, he can still operate the flaps.
9. How many SEC computers are there and what are their functions?
There are 3 SEC computers. The following functions are performed

 Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
 Speed brakes and ground spoilers
 Alternate pitch ( SEC 1 & 2 only)
 Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only)
 Direct roll
 Abnormal attitude
When the angle of attack exceeds alpha prot, elevator control switches to alpha protection mode in which angle of attack
is proportional to sidestick deflection. However, alpha max will not be exceeded even if the pilot applies full aft deflection.
In alternate law, automatic pitch trim is available and yaw damping (with limited authority) is also available. Turn
coordination is lost.
Pitch control is achieved through the horizontal stabilizer by using the manual trim wheel. Lateral control is accomplished
using the rudder pedals. Both controls require hydraulic power.
Chapter 14: AUTOFLIGHT
1. What would cause a red AUTOLAND light to illuminate below 200’?
The following situations, when occurring below 200’ RA with the aircraft in LAND mode, trigger the flashing AUTOLAND red
warning, and a triple-click warning:
 Both APs OFF below 200’ RA

 Excessive deviation in LOC (1/4 dot above 15’ RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100’ RA). In addition, LOC and GLIDE
scales flash on the PFD.
 Loss of LOC signal (above 15’ RA) or loss of GLIDE signal (above 100’). In addition, FD bars flash on the PFD. The
LAND mode remains engaged.
 The difference between both radio altimeter indications is greater than 15’.
______________________________________________________________________________

 The pilot disengages A/THR by pushing the A/THR pushbutton on the FCA, or
 The A/THR disconnects due to a failure.

 “THR LK” flashes amber on the FMA
 ECAM “ENG THRUST LOCKED” flashes every 5 seconds
 ECAM displays “THR LEVERS … MOVE”
 A single chime sounds and the MASTER CAUTION light flashes every 5 seconds. All warnings cease when the
thrust levers are moved out of the detent.
The thrust is locked or frozen at its level prior to disconnection. Moving the thrust levers out of the CL or MCT detent
suppresses thrust lock and allows manual control by means of the thrust levers.

 “A FLOOR” in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA and in amber on the E/WD as long as  floor
conditions are met.
 “TOGA LK” in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA when the aircraft leaves the  floor

 under alternate or direct flight control law.
 In case of engine failure with flaps extended
4. If GPS function is lost, is navigation accuracy immediately downgraded?
When GPS function is lost, the message GPS PRIMARY LOST is displayed on the ND and MCDU scratchpad. During an
approach a triple click sound is triggered. In this case, navigation accuracy is not downgraded immediately, but only when
EPE exceeds RNP.
5. When is the windshear detection function available?
The Airbus Reactive Windshear Detection function is available during takeoff from liftoff to 1,300 feet AGL, and on
approach from 1.300 feet AGL to 50 feet AGL, when aircraft configuration is 1 or greater.
 “WINDSHEAR” in red on both PFD’s (for at least 15 seconds)
 An aural warning, “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”
The Predictive Windshear system operates when the aircraft is below 1,500’ AGL. It scans the airspace within 5 nm
forward of the aircraft for windshears. When a windshear is detected, a warning, caution, or advisory message appears on
the PFD and (depending on the range selected on the ND) an icon appears on the ND. Predictive windshear warning and
caution are associated with an aural warning. During takeoff, both warnings and cautions are available within 3 nm. Alerts
are inhibited above 100 knots and up to 50’. During landing, alerts are inhibited below 50’.
When the WINDSHEAR switch is in AUTO, the Predictive Windshear function is activated. Windshear areas are detected by
the antenna scanning below 2,300’ RA, even if the transceiver selector is set to OFF, and displayed on the ND if below
1,500’.
Predictive windshear aural alerts have priority over TCAS, EGPWS, and other FWC aural warnings. They are inhibited by
windshear detection by FAC (Reactive) and stall warning aural messages.
______________________________________________________________________________

capture?
 FMA column 2 (second line): G/S (blue)

 FMA column 3 (second line): LOC (blue)
7. How is the Go-Around mode engaged?
When at least one thrust lever is placed in the TOGA detent, the slats/flaps lever is at least in position 1, and:
 the aircraft is airborne or
 the aircraft has been on the ground for less than 30 seconds.
A protection that commands TOGA thrust regardless of the positions of the thrust levers. This protection is available from
lift-off to 100’ RA on the approach.

 A FLOOR in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA and in amber on the E/WD as long as alpha floor
conditions are met.
 TOGA LK in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA when the aircraft leaves the alpha floor conditions.

 Under alternate or direct flight control law.
 In case of engine failure with flaps extended.
9. How is A/THR activation confirmed?
 FMA column 5 (third line): A/THR (white – Active)

 FMA column 5 (third line): A/THR (blue - Armed)
No
11. What is indicated when the FMA displays SRS?
Takeoff or go around mode is engaged.
12. What does Column 1 of the FMA display?
Autothrust operation
 If the autopilot is engaged when both flight directors are OFF, the autopilot will engage in either HDG V/S or TRK
FPA mode depending on which mode is selected on the FCU.
 If an autopilot is engaged with at least one FD ON, the autopilot will engage in the active FD mode(s).
14. Define SRS.
Speed Reference System is a vertical mode which controls pitch to maintain a speed defined by SRS guidance (provided V2
is inserted in the MCDU PERF TO page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft is on the ground). It engages automatically
when the thrust levers are set to TOGA or MCT/FLX detent. It disengages manually when another vertical mode is
engaged, or automatically when the aircraft reaches acceleration altitude or an FCU selected altitude.
The pitch guidance maintains airspeed at V2 + 10 knots. If an engine failure is detected, pitch guidance maintains the
greater of V2 or current speed. Additionally, the mode protects against high pitch attitude and provides a minimum climb
rate. Go-around mode combines the SRS vertical mode and the GA TRK lateral mode.
______________________________________________________________________________

Thrust Lock function is active - See question 2.
The FADEC provides full monitoring during manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures for
the crew to follow in the event of a start fault; however, automatic start interruption (except if on the ground and the start
EGT limit is exceeded before reaching 50% N2) and auto-crank are not available.
The system has its own alternator rendering it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value.
If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches over to aircraft electrical power.
4. When is continuous ignition provided automatically?
 ENG ANTI ICE is selected ON

 Engine flameout is detected in flight
 The EIU fails
5. Under what conditions may a manual start be required?

 Stall
 EGT overlimit
 Low start air pressure

 Degraded bleed performance due to a hot condition or at a high altitude airfield.
 A mature engine in hot condition or at a high altitude airfield.
 Marginal performance of external pneumatic power.
 Tailwind greater than 10 knots.
 The start valve opens if the ENG MODE selector is set to CRANK or IGN/START and N2 < 20%.
 Both pack valves close during the start sequence.
 The blue ON light illuminates.

 N1 approximately 19.5%
 EGT approximately 390°C
 FF approximately 600 lb/hr
 Gray background on N2 indication disappears.
13 quarts
______________________________________________________________________________

Engine 1 is started first under the assumption it will be a single engine taxi. This will ensure engine driven Green hydraulic
pump pressure will be available for normal brakes and nosewheel steering.
11. During a manual start of the #1 engine, does the ENG MAN START pushbutton have to be depressed to
close the start valve?
When the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON, the FADEC controls the start sequence, including both fuel valves, ignition,
and closing of the start valve.
There is no mechanical connection between the levers and engines. The position of each lever (TLA) is electronically
measured and transmitted to the FADEC, which computes the thrust rating limit.
Each FADEC is a dual channel (A&B) computer providing full engine management. One channel is always active while the
other is a backup designed to takeover automatically in case of primary channel failure.
If the thrust lever is set between two detents, the FADEC selects the rating limit corresponding to the higher limit. This
limit is displayed on the upper ECAM.
Chapter 16: APU
 APU generator – 100% load up to 25,000 feet (Note: APU GEN is available up to 39,000 feet).
 APU Bleed – Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is 20,000 feet.
 Fire (on ground only)  Reverse flow

 Air inlet flap not open  Low oil pressure
 Overspeed  High oil temperature
 No acceleration  ECB failure
 Slow start  Loss off overspeed protection
 EGT overtemperature  Underspeed
 No flame  DC power loss
APU will automatically shut down due to fire on the ground only.
______________________________________________________________________________

5. If EXTERNAL POWER were powering the aircraft, what indications would be seen during an APU fire test?
Flight deck:
 A continuous repetitive chime sounds
 The MASTER WARN lights flash
 APU FIRE warning appears on the ECAM
 The APU FIRE pb illuminates red
 The SQUIB light illuminates white
 The DISCH light illuminates amber
6. What does the APU START pb green AVAIL light signify?
One
No
9. When an APU auto shut down has occurred, what other indications, in addition to the ECAM procedure, is
received?
10. With battery power only, what would be the indications of an APU fire test?
 APU FIRE pb illuminated

 SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated
11. After depressing the APU MASTER pb, the START pb is pressed. At this time the START pb illuminates blue.
What does that mean?
 When the flap is completely open, the APU starter is energized.

 1.5 seconds after the starter is energized, the ignition is turned ON.
 When N = 55%, the starter is de-energized and the ignition is turned OFF.
 2 seconds after N reaches 95%, or when N is above 99%, The ON light on the START pb goes out.
 The APU may now supply bleed air and electrical power to aircraft systems.
 10 seconds later, the APU page disappears from the ECAM display.
The APU is equipped with two identical detection loops each of which contain one heat sensing element and a FDU, located
in the APU compartment. The APU is equipped with one fire extinguisher.
______________________________________________________________________________


 Pylon nacelle
 Engine core
 Fan section
5. If an APU fire occurs on the ground, what must be done to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire?
On the ground, detection of an APU fire causes automatic APU shutdown and extinguisher discharge. In flight, there is no
automatic APU shutdown, and the extinguisher must be manually discharged.
Two
detectors in the A319/320 and four smoke detectors in the A321. In the A319/320, the aft compartment contains two
loops with two detectors each. In the A321, the aft compartment contains three loops with two smoke detectors in each. A
Smoke Detection Control Unit issues a smoke warning when two smoke detectors of one loop detect smoke. If one smoke
detector fails, the system remains operational with the other detector.
Cargo smoke is indicated by an aural CRC, the illumination of the MASTER WARN and CARGO SMOKE light on the CARGO
SMOKE panel.
One extinguisher bottle supplies one nozzle in the forward compartment and two nozzles in the aft compartment. The
agent is discharged by pressing either the FWD or AFT DISCH pb.
If the cargo smoke warning is activated in either compartment, the associated isolation valves close and the extraction fan
stops.
Each engine is equipped with two identical detection loops (A & B) each of which contain three heat sensing elements and
a computer (Fire Detection Unit). The sensing elements are located in the pylon nacelle, engine core, and fan section. The
FDU issues a fire warning when both loops detect an overheat in a particular area. If one loop fails, the fire warning
system remains operational with the other loop. A fire warning is also issued if both loops fail within 5 seconds of each
other.
The ECAM will issue appropriate messages if any component of the detection system fails. An engine fire is indicated by an
aural CRC, the illumination of the ENG FIRE pb, and MASTER WARN lights.
Each engine is equipped with two fire extinguishers which are discharged by pressing the associated AGENT DISCH pb on
the respective engine FIRE panel.
 The red APU FIRE light illuminates and an external warning horn sounds
 The APU fire extinguisher discharges automatically 3 seconds after the appearance of the fire warning.
 The light extinguishes when the fire has been extinguished.

 Aural CRC
 Illumination of MASTER WARN light
 Red ECAM SMOKE LAVATORY SMOKE
______________________________________________________________________________

12. How do you know when an engine fire extinguisher bottle has discharged?
Chapter 9: FUEL
(A321).
2. The outer wing tank transfer valves (A319&320) automatically open when the wing inner cell fuel quantity
drops to _1,650_ pounds?
The wing tank transfer valves automatically latch open when the wing inner cell fuel quantity drops to 1,650 lbs thus
allowing the outer cell fuel to drain into the inner cell. The transfer valves open simultaneously in both wings and remain
open until the next refueling operation. During steep descents and acceleration/deceleration, the transfer valves may open
prematurely and trigger a LO LVL warning.
The crossfeed valve permits one engine to be fed by both sides, or both engines to be fed from one side. The valve is
operated by two electric motors.
A319/320: Normal fuel feed sequencing is automatic. When there is fuel in all tanks, the center tank feeds the engines
first (even though the wing tank pumps operate continuously).
With the fuel MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the center tank pumps operated for two minutes after both engines are started to
confirm center tank pump operation prior to takeoff. After takeoff, the center tank pumps restart when the slats are
retracted and continue to operate for five minutes after the center tank is empty or until the slats are extended.
With the MODE SEL pb in MAN, the center tank pumps operate continuously. The crew must select the CTR TK PUMP pbs
OFF when the center tank is empty.
A321: The fuel transfer system controls the flow of fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks, which feed the engines.
The tanks empty in the following sequence:
3. Wing tanks
With the MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit (FLSCU) has automatic control of the transfer valve.
When the transfer valve is open, fuel from the wing tank pumps flows through the jet pump and creates suction. This
suction moves the fuel from the center tank to the related wing tank. The FLSCU automatically closes the associated
center tank transfer valve when the wing tank is full. The transfer valve reopens the center tank transfer valve when the
engines have used 550 lbs of wing tank fuel.
With the ACT pb in AUTO, automatic control of the transfer occurs after takeoff at slats retraction. It is initiated if the
center tank high level sensor has been dry for 10 minutes and fuel remains in either ACT. Fuel transfer from the ACTs to
the center tank is made by pressurizing the ACT, closing the ACT vent valves, and opening the air shut-off and inlet
valves. ACT2 transfers first.
With the MODE SEL in MAN, the center tank transfer valves open. Wing tank overflow must be prevented by selecting the
CTR TK XFR pbs OFF when the wing tanks are full. They must also be selected OFF when the center tank is empty.
During transfer, if the center tank high level sensor gets wet, transfer from the ACT stops. The transfer valve opens when
the center tank high sensor is dry for ten minutes.
______________________________________________________________________________

IDG cooling is accomplished by fuel. Some fuel from the high pressure pump passes through the IDG heat exchanger and
returns to the respective wing outer cell (A319/320) or wing tank (A321) through a fuel return valve. The fuel return valve
is controlled by the FADEC which regulates IDG temperature.
A319/320: If the outer cell is full, the recirculated fuel overflows to the inner cell. To prevent wing tank overflow when
the center tank is supplying fuel, the center tank pumps automatically stop when the wing inner cell is full. This allows the
wing tanks to feed the engines until approximately 1,100 lbs of fuel has been used from the applicable wing tank(s); at
which time the center tank pumps resume operation.
MODE SEL FAULT (A319/A320/A321): Amber light illuminates, and ECAM caution appears when center tank has more than
550 lbs of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs.
ACT FAULT (A321): Amber light illuminates and ECAM caution appears when the center tank has less than 6,614 lbs of
fuel and one ACT has more than 550 lbs of fuel.
Outer Tank maximum allowed imbalance is 1,168 lbs

Exception: The maximum outer wing tank imbalance (one full/one empty) is allowed provided:
 The fuel content of one side (outer + inner) is equal to the content of the other side (outer + inner), or
 On the side of the lighter outer tank, the inner tank fuel quantity is higher than the opposite inner tank quantity,
up to a maximum of 6,614 lbs. higher.
7. How do you know when the crossfeed valve is fully open?
Chapter 7: ELECTRIC
 Engine generators
 External power
 APU generator
 Emergency generator (RAT)
 Batteries
2. What does the EMER GEN red FAULT light indicate?
powered.
3. What does the amber FAULT light in either BAT 1, BAT 2 pb indicate?
4. How long must the IDG pb be held to achieve a disconnect?
Press IDG pb until the GEN FAULT light comes on but for not more than 3 seconds to avoid damage to the disengage
solenoid.
5. What does the FAULT light indicate in the AC ESS FEED pb?
6. Are there any procedures in the Pilot's Handbook which direct us to use the EMER GEN TEST switch?
7. Can the aircraft batteries be depleted?
unpowered.
______________________________________________________________________________

8. If the blue ON light is present in the EXT PWR pb and a green AVAIL light on the APU START pb, what is the
source of electrical power (with engines shut down)?
EXT PWR
In the event of total AC power loss, if the aircraft speed is above 50 kts, an inverter is connected to the HOT BAT 1 bus
and inverts DC current to single phase AC current which is supplied to the ESS AC bus. This switching will occur regardless
of the position of the BAT pbs. If the airspeed is less than 50 kts, both BAT pbs must be in auto position for the switching
to occur.

 External power is plugged in, and
 External power parameters are normal.
Note: In case of total loss of main generators, the AC ESS BUS is automatically supplied by the emergency generator or
by the static inverter if the emergency generator is not available.
Main galley, secondary galley, and in-seat power supply are supplied. The main galley (A319/320), all galleys (A321), and
in-seat power supply are shed automatically when:
 In flight: only one generator is operating
 On the ground: only one generator is operating (All galleys are available when the APU GEN or EXT PWR is
supplying power)
14. Can the APU generator power all AC and DC busses on the ground?
______________________________________________________________________________

PART TWO (TGS in Class Outline)
Chapter 10: Pneumatics/Air Conditioning/ Pressurization

 LO: if number of pax is less than 50 or for long haul flights.
 HI: for abnormally hot and humid conditions.
 NORM: for all other operating cases.

 ON: ECON FLOW if number of pax is less than 140.
 OFF: for normal flow
2. If bleed air is being supplied by the APU, or if one pack fails, what will be the pack flow rate?
During single pack operation or if the APU is supplying bleed air for air conditioning, pack controllers select high flow
(A319/320) or normal flow (A321) automatically, regardless of selector position.
In the automatic mode, one cabin pressure controller is active and the other serves as a backup. If the active controller
fails, the backup automatically resumes control. After each landing, the two controllers swap roles.
4. With the LDG ELEV selector in AUTO, what altitude is used for the landing field pressurization reference?
FMGS data is used.
5. What are the three supply zones for conditioned air?
 Flight deck
 Forward cabin
 Aft cabin
Air is normally bled from the Intermediate Pressure stage of the high pressure compressor. When IP stage pressure and
temperature are insufficient, a high pressure bleed valve opens to supply bleed air from the High Pressure stage. In flight,
if the pressure is insufficient even with the HP stage valve open, the engine speed is automatically increased to provide
adequate air pressure.
During flight, if both packs fail, or in case of smoke in the cabin, a ram air inlet may be opened allowing ambient air to
enter the mixing unit.
No
9. When operating pressurization in AUTO, if the pilot suspects the selected controller is malfunctioning, is it
possible to swap controllers?
Attempt to select the other system by switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN for at least 10 seconds, then return it to AUTO.
______________________________________________________________________________

Chapter 6: Ice and Rain Protection

 Select WING ANTI-ICE ON after thrust reduction altitude
 Normally, WING ANTI ICE should be selected OFF at the FAF
 If in severe icing conditions, WING ANTI-ICE may be left ON for landing
 On the ground, low power is applied to the heaters when at least one engine is operating.
 In flight, the heating system automatically changes to high.
 The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb ON.

 Upon touchdown,
 If a leak is detected, or
 If electrical power is lost.
The N1 limit for that engine is automatically reduced, and if necessary, the idle N1 is automatically increased for both
engines in order to provide the required pressure. Additionally, continuous ignition is activated for that engine.
This amber light illuminates, along with an ECAM caution, if the terrain detection function fails. The terrain is not shown on
the ND. The basic EGPWS modes 1 to 5 are still operative.
2. With the RDCR GND CTL pb in AUTO when does the CVR and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) energize?
______________________________________________________________________________

The enhanced function is based on a worldwide terrain database. It provides Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) which
predicts terrain conflict and displays the terrain on the ND, and Terrain Clearance Floor which triggers a warning. The TAD
function computes a caution and warning envelope ahead of the aircraft and when the boundaries of this envelope conflict
with the database terrain information, it generates alerts.
6. What does the ON BATT light indicate?
Illuminates amber when one or more IR(s) is supplied only by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates for a few seconds at
the beginning of the alignment, but not for a fast realignment.
 An external horn sounds
 The ADIRU and AVNCS light illuminates blue on the EXTERNAL POWER panel.
7. Where is ILS #1 displayed?
 ILS 1: CAPT PFD and F/O ND

 ILS 2: F/O PFD and CAPT ND
Press the RCL pb on the ECAM control panel. This pb is used to call up the warning messages, caution messages, and the
status page, that may have been suppressed by the activation of the CLR pb or by flight-phase related inhibition. If the
RCL pb is held down for more than 3 seconds, the E/WD shows any caution messages that have been suppressed by the
EMER CANC pb.
9. Why is it very important to maintain a “lights out” condition on the ECAM control panel during flight?
E/WD has priority over the SD. If the upper ECAM screen fails (or is selected off), E/WD data is automatically transferred
to the lower screen.

 Barometric altitude
 Speed
 Mach number
Note: The displayed vertical speed information is normally inertial. If inertial data is not available, barometric information
replaces it automatically. In this case, the window around the numerical value becomes amber.
12. If all systems were working normally, and a crewmember wanted to remotely tune a VOR through the
RMP, would that have any effect on the FMGC NAV functions?
14. When would the RMP 1 be used to tune an ILS?
In the event number 1 FMGC/MCDU fails.
______________________________________________________________________________

 DMC 1: PFD 1, ND 1, upper ECAM DU

 DMC 2: PFD 2, ND 2, lower ECAM DU
 DMC 3: Spare which can replace DMC 1 or DMC 2
Any one RMP can tune any one of the aircraft radios. A green light to the left of the radio key indicates which radio is
selected for tuning.
FAULT
 Steady: The respective IR is lost.
 Flashing: Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
ALIGN
 Steady: Respective IR is operating normally in align mode.
 Flashing
22. What is the purpose of the T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT message?
During takeoff and landing T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT memos are displayed in magenta to remind the crew that most
of the failure titles and the associated checklists are suppressed. This prevents unnecessary distractions during critical
phases of flight.
 The T.O. memo appears 2 minutes after the second engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pb is
 The LDG memo appears below 2,000’ RA and disappears after touchdown (80 knots).
23. What does the green F on the speed scale indicate on the PFD?
 F – Minimum Flap Retraction Speed, appears when flap selector is in position 3 or 2.

 S – Minimum Slat Retraction Speed, appears when the flap selector is in position 1.
25. What information does the Inertial Reference (IR) provide to the PFD?
 Attitude
 Heading
 Track
 Flight Path Vector
______________________________________________________________________________

2009 – 2010 TGS Study Guide
___________________________________________________________________________________________

AIRBUS A319/320/321
2009 – 2010
Updated : 04/18/09
Send corrections/comments to:
Part 1 (Prior to Class)
Pneumatics/Air Conditioning/ Pressurization

 LO: if number of pax is less than 90 or for long haul flights.
 HI: for abnormally hot and humid conditions.
 NORM: for all other operating cases.

 ON: ECON FLOW if number of pax is less than 140.
 OFF: for normal flow
FMGS data is used.
No
Select the other system by switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN for at least 10 seconds, then return it to AUTO.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Ice and Rain Protection

 Select WING ANTI-ICE ON after thrust reduction altitude
 Normally, WING ANTI ICE should be selected OFF at the FAF
 If in severe icing conditions, WING ANTI-ICE may be left ON for landing
 On the ground, low power is applied to the heaters when at least one engine is operating.
 In flight, the heating system automatically changes to high.
 The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT
pb ON.

 Upon touchdown,
 If a leak is detected, or
 If electrical power is lost.
engine.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Autoflight
1. What would cause a red AUTOLAND light to illuminate below 200'?
 Both APs OFF below 200’ RA

 Excessive deviation in LOC (1/4 dot above 15’ RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100’ RA). In addition, LOC and
 Loss of LOC signal (above 15’ RA) or loss of GLIDE signal (above 100’). In addition, FD bars flash on the
 The difference between both radio altimeter indications is greater than 15’.
 The pilot disengages A/THR by pushing the A/THR pushbutton on the FCA, or
 The A/THR disconnects due to a failure.

 “THR LK” flashes amber on the FMA
 ECAM “ENG THRUST LOCKED” flashes every 5 seconds
 ECAM displays “THR LEVERS … MOVE”
 A single chime sounds and the MASTER CAUTION light flashes every 5 seconds. All warnings cease when
the thrust levers are moved out of the detent.

 “A FLOOR” in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA and in amber on the E/WD as long as
 floor conditions are met.
 “TOGA LK” in green surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA when the aircraft leaves the  floor

 Under alternate or direct flight control law.
 In case of engine failure with flaps extended
4. What should be done if GPS primary is lost during an RNAV approach?
A go-around is mandatory.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
5. When is the predictive windshear detection available?
The Predictive Windshear system operates when the aircraft is below 1,500’ AGL. It scans the airspace within 5
below 50’.
The Airbus Reactive Windshear Detection function is available during takeoff from liftoff to 1,300 feet AGL, and
on approach from 1.300 feet AGL to 50 feet AGL, when aircraft configuration is 1 or greater.
 “WINDSHEAR” in red on both PFD’s (for at least 15 seconds)
 An aural warning, “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”
capture?
 FMA column 2 (second line): G/S (blue)

 FMA column 3 (second line): LOC (blue)
7. How is the Go Around mode engaged?
When at least one thrust lever is placed in the TOGA detent, the slats/flaps lever is at least in position 1, and:
 the aircraft has been on the ground for less than 30 seconds.
No
9. What is the speed referenced when the FMA displays SRS during a normal takeoff?
Speed Reference System is a vertical mode which controls pitch to maintain a speed defined by SRS guidance
selected altitude.
the greater of V2 or current speed. Additionally, the mode protects against high pitch attitude and provides a
minimum climb rate.
10. What is the speed referenced when the FMA displays SRS during a go-around?
During go-around, the reference speed is Vapp or the speed which existed at go-around initiation, whichever is
higher. Go-around mode combines the SRS vertical mode and the GA TRK lateral mode.
 If the autopilot is engaged when both flight directors are OFF, the autopilot will engage in either HDG V/S
or TRK FPA mode depending on which mode is selected on the FCU.
 If an autopilot is engaged with at least one FD ON, the autopilot will engage in the active FD mode(s).
Thrust Lock function is active - See question 2 above.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Hydraulics
If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and the airspeed is above 100 kts, the RAT automatically deploys and pressurizes
the Blue hydraulic system, which drives the hydraulically driven emergency generator. Pressing the EMER ELEC
PWR MAN ON pb has the same effect.
 ACCU PRESS – pressure in the yellow brake accumulators.

 BRAKES – yellow pressure delivered to the left and right brakes, as measured upstream of the servo
valves.
yellow system?
 Yellow electric pump

 Power Transfer Unit
 Hand pump for cargo doors
Yes
The RAT MAN ON pb is used to deploy the RAT manually. Activating this pb will only pressurize the blue system,
but will not activate the emergency generator.
Landing Gear
1. What is the maximum gear extension speed VLO?
250 KIAS
 Non-enhanced: No
 Enhanced: Yellow hydraulic system is used by NWS and will be available after a landing gear manual
extension.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
 Illuminates red if the gear is not locked in the selected position.

 Illuminates green if the gear is locked down.
220 KIAS
280 KIAS/0.67M
25,000 feet
9. When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering during takeoff, the steering angle starts to
reduce at what speed and progressively reduces to zero degrees at _130_ knots?
The BSCU receives inputs from the captain's and F/O's steering handwheels (which are algebraically summed),
rudder pedals, or autopilot. When using the handwheels, nosewheel steering angle is reduced above 20 knots
ground speed. As speed increases, the angle decreases progressively to 0° at 70 knots. When using the rudder
pedals, nosewheel steering angle is reduced above 40 knots ground speed. As speed increases, the angle
decreases progressively to 0° at 130 knots.
Brakes
 To check brake efficiency,

 That green pressure has taken over, and
 Yellow pressure is at zero on the brake pressure triple indicator.
2. After touchdown, with autobrakes selected, what control surface must move before autobraking will
begin?

 300° C (Brake fans OFF)

 150° C (Brake fans ON)
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
 Normal (Green)
 Alternate (Yellow)
 Parking Brake (Yellow system or accumulator)
72 knots
Flight Controls
1. What is the result if both side-sticks are moved at the same time and neither takes priority during
 Both thrust levers are at idle (if the ground spoilers are ARMED), or
 Reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at idle (if the ground spoilers
are not ARMED)
3. What is indicated by the low energy warning "SPEED, SPEED, SPEED"?
A red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” warning appears on the PFD. Pitch control is achieved through the horizontal
stabilizer by using the manual trim wheel. Lateral control is accomplished through the rudder pedals.

 Reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at or near idle, and
 One main landing gear strut is compressed.
When the angle of attack exceeds alpha prot, elevator control switches to alpha protection mode in which angle of
attack is proportional to sidestick deflection. However, alpha max will not be exceeded even if the pilot applies full
aft deflection.
In alternate law, automatic pitch trim is available and yaw damping (with limited authority) is also available. Turn
coordination is lost.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
10. After touchdown, what should the stabilizer trim do?
Instruments/Navigation/Communication
2. With the RDCR GND CTL pushbutton in AUTO when does the CVR and Digital Flight Data Recorder
(DFDR) energize?
5. Does the EGPWS use radar signals to "ground map" terrain?
6. Why is it very important to maintain a 'lights out' condition on the ECAM control panel during flight?
8. If all systems were working normally, and a crewmember wanted to remotely tune a VOR through
the RMP, would that have any effect on the FMGC NAV functions?
10. What does the amber "=" sign mean on the airspeed tape?
 DMC 1: PFD 1, ND 1, upper ECAM DU

 DMC 2: PFD 2, ND 2, lower ECAM DU
 DMC 3: Spare which can replace DMC 1 or DMC 2
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Non-Enhanced:
FAULT
 Flashing: Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
ALIGN
 Steady: Respective IR is operating normally in align mode.
 Flashing
Enhanced:
IR pb:
 OFF: Inertial data output disconnected.
 FAULT Light: Illuminates amber ECAM caution triggered when a fault affects the respective IR.
 Flashing: Attitude/heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
IR 1 (2) (3) Mode Rotary Selector

 OFF: The MSU is not energized. ADR and IR data are not available.
 NAV: Normal mode of operation Supplies full inertial data to aircraft systems.
 ATT: IR mode supplying only attitude and heading information when the system loses its ability to
navigate. The heading must be entered through the MCDU and must be reset frequently (approximately
every 10 minutes).
 Non-enhanced: Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

 Enhanced: Illuminates amber ECAM caution triggered when a fault affects the respective IR.
16. The Inertial Reference (IR) provides what information to the PFD?
 Attitude
 Heading
 Track
 Flight Path Vector
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Part 2 (On cycle - In Class)
Electrical
1. What does the EMER GEN red FAULT light indicate when illuminated?
powered.
2. What does the amber FAULT light in either BAT 1, BAT 2 pushbutton indicate?
3. What does the FAULT light indicate in the AC ESS FEED pushbutton?
4. Are there any procedures in the Pilot's Handbook, which direct us to use the EMER GEN TEST switch?
In the event of total AC power loss, if the aircraft speed is above 50 kts, an inverter is connected to the HOT BAT 1
bus and inverts DC current to single phase AC current which is supplied to the ESS AC bus. This switching will
occur regardless of the position of the BAT pbs. If the airspeed is less than 50 kts, both BAT pbs must be in auto

 External power is plugged in, and
 External power parameters are normal.
 In flight: only one generator is operating
 On the ground: only one generator is operating (All galleys are available when the APU GEN or EXT PWR is
supplying power)
10. Can the APU generator power all busses on the ground?
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Fire Protection
fire?
Two
CARGO SMOKE panel.
 The red APU FIRE light illuminates and an external warning horn sounds
 The APU fire extinguisher discharges automatically 3 seconds after the appearance of the fire warning.
 The light extinguishes when the fire has been extinguished.

 Aural CRC
 Illumination of MASTER WARN light
 Red ECAM SMOKE LAVATORY SMOKE
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9. How do you know when the engine fire extinguisher bottle has discharged?
APU
 APU generator – 100% load up to 25,000 feet (Note: APU GEN is available up to 39,000 feet).
 APU Bleed – Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is 20,000 feet.
APU will automatically shut down due to fire on the ground only.
No
6. With battery power only, what would an APU fire test look like?
 APU FIRE pb illuminated

 SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated
8. Can you name some of the possible reasons for an APU auto shutdown?

Powerplant
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3. Continuous ignition is provided automatically when:
 ENG ANTI ICE is selected ON

 Engine flameout is detected in flight
 The EIU fails
4. Name some reasons that a manual start may be required?

 Stall
 EGT overlimit
 Low start air pressure

 Degraded bleed performance due to a hot condition or at a high altitude airfield.
 A mature engine in hot condition or at a high altitude airfield.
 Marginal performance of external pneumatic power.
 Tailwind greater than 10 knots.
 The start valve opens if the ENG MODE selector is set to CRANK or IGN/START and N2 < 20%.
 Both pack valves close during the start sequence.
 The blue ON light illuminates.

 EGT approximately 390°C
 FF approximately 600 lb/hr
 Gray background on N2 indication disappears.
13 quarts
9. If the #1 ENG MAN START pb is depressed, will the engine begin to motor?
Fuel
(A321).
quantity drops to _1,650_ pounds?
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The crossfeed valve permits one engine to be fed by both sides, or both engines to be fed from one side. The valve
extended.
3. Wing tanks
tank is empty.
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Outer Tank maximum allowed imbalance is 1,168 lbs

 On the side of the lighter outer tank, the inner tank fuel quantity is higher than the opposite inner tank
quantity, up to a maximum of 6,614 lbs. higher.
7. How can you know when the crossfeed valve is fully open?
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AIRBUS A319/320/321
2010 – 2011
Updated : 04/09/10
Part 1 (Prior to Class)
Pneumatics/Air Conditioning/ Pressurization
Scenario #1: This A320 aircraft with CFM engines is on a return leg to CLT. After receiving the Final
W/B it is revealed the takeoff is predicated on APU BLEED ON.
1. Describe the configuration of the AIR COND panel to accomplish the APU BLEED ON take off
procedure. Reference: PH 4.4.1
Use the following procedures when an “APU BLEED ON” takeoff is required:
If the APU bleed system is operational:
Before takeoff:
1. APU BLEED............................................................................ON
After thrust reduction:

1. APU BLEED...........................................................................OFF
2. APU.........................................OFF (Unless operationally required)
3. APU BLEED ON Takeoff Procedure ...................................Complete
2. If the APU was MEL'd, how would you configure the AIR COND panel? Reference: PH 4.4.1
If the APU bleed system is inoperative:
Before takeoff:
1. PACK 1 and 2 .......................................................................OFF
3. With the APU BLEED system inoperative, when would the PACK pbs be selected ON? Reference: PH
4.4.1

1. One PACK..............................................................................ON
Selecting both packs ON simultaneously may affect passenger comfort.
After flap retraction:

1. Other PACK ...........................................................................ON
2. APU BLEED ON Takeoff Procedure ...................................Complete
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Push back is complete, Captain calls for the #1 engine to be started. The FO places the ENG MODE
selector to IGN/START.
4. Prior to the engine start dispatch calls with a request to delay engine start for a few minutes. After
30 seconds you notice the PACK valves have reopened. How will you close the PACK valves for starting?
Reference: TM 7b.3.1
Each pack is controlled by a pack controller which sends electrical signals to the pack flow control valve. Absence of
air pressure causes the spring-loaded valve to close. The flow control valve can be controlled with the PACK pb on
the air conditioning panel. It closes automatically in case of:
 low air pressure
 pack overheat
 engine start
 activation of the engine fire pb, or
 activation of the ditching pb
The pack flow control valve is automatically controlled. It opens except in the following cases:
 upstream pressure below minimum
 compressor outlet overheat
 engine start sequence:
1. If the crossbleed valve is closed, the valve located on the starting engine side immediately
closes, when the MODE selector is set to IGN (or CRK).
2. It remains closed on the starting engine side (provided the crossbleed valve is closed) when:
 the MASTER switch is set to ON (or MAN START pb is set to ON),
 the start valve is open, and
 N2 < 50%. On some aircraft if the crossbleed valve is open at engine start, both pack flow
control valves close.
3. On ground, reopening of the valves is delayed for 30 seconds to avoid an immediate pack closure
during second engine start.
5. Thirty minutes into the cruise segment an ENG 1 BLEED fault light illuminates. What are some
conditions that cause this light to illuminate? Reference: TM 7b.2
ENG BLEED FAULT: This amber light illuminates and an ECAM caution appears, if any of the following conditions are
met:
 There is an overpressure downstream of the bleed valve.
 There is a bleed air overheat.
 There is a wing or engine leak on the related side.
 The bleed valve is not closed during engine start.
 The bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed ON.
 It extinguishes when the ENG BLEED pb is OFF if the fault has disappeared.
6. With the APU operating and the bleed valve open would a leak in the left wing cause the APU BLEED
fault light to illuminate? Reference: TM 7b.1.7 No, only if the leak was in the APU ducting.
The leak detection system senses high temperatures from air leaks near the hot air ducts in the fuselage, engine
pylons, and wings. The sensing elements for the pylons and APU are connected in a single loop. The wings are
protected by a double loop. A wing leak is detected when both loops detect the leak, or when one loop detects a
leak with the other loop inoperative.
If a leak is detected in the wings:

 the bleed air valve closes on the affected side
 the associated ENG BLEED FAULT light illuminates
 the crossbleed valve closes (except during engine start)
 the APU bleed valve closes (except during engine start) if the leak involves the left wing
If a leak is detected in an engine pylon:

If a leak is detected in the APU ducting:

 the APU bleed air valve closes
 the APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates
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Scenario #1: The aircraft is an A320 with CFM engines; it is the first flight of the day. ATIS is reporting
a temperature of +3 degrees with rain showers in the immediate area.
1. Due to the cold weather operation, the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb is selected ON. At what power will
the windshield heat be operating? Reference: TM 7l.1.4
The windshields and side windows are electrically heated for anti-icing and anti-fogging. The system is controlled
automatically by the Window Heat Computers (WHC) which provide regulation, protection, and fault indications.
Windshield heat automatically operates at low power on the ground with at least one engine operating. In flight,
the windshield heating system changes to normal. The changeover is automatic. Only one heating level exists for
the side windows. The system can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the PROBE/WINDOW
HEAT pb ON.
2. After engine start the FO selects the EAI pushbutton ON. The FAULT light illuminates, what does this
FAULT light indicate? Reference: TM 7l.2
Amber FAULT light illuminates and caution message appears on ECAM if position of anti-icing valve disagrees with
ENG 1 (2) pb selection.
Note: The amber FAULT light illuminates briefly as valve transits.
3. (True or False) With EAI selected ON (CFM) the ignition memo may or may not appear. Reference:
TM 7l.1.3
Each engine nacelle is anti-iced by high pressure engine bleed air. The engine anti ice ducting is independent of the
pneumatic system ducting. Each engine anti ice valve is electrically controlled by an associated ENG ANTI ICE pb. If
there is no air pressure, the valve closes automatically. If AC electrical power is lost, the valve opens automatically.
When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the N1/EPR limit for that engine is automatically reduced and, if necessary,
the idle N1/EPR is automatically increased for both engines in order to provide the required pressure.
Additionally, continuous ignition is activated for that engine (IAE) or may be actuated depending on
FADEC standard (CFM).
4. While operating in icing conditions electrical power for the ice protection systems is lost, are EAI and
WAI still available? Reference: TM 7l.1.2
 WAI – No: The wing anti-ice valves close automatically if electrical power is lost.
 EAI – Yes: The engine anti-ice valve opens automatically if electrical power is lost.
5. After landing with icing conditions present when should the EAI system be selected OFF? Reference:
PH 3.6.10
When icing conditions exist after landing, leave ENG ANTI-ICE ON until engine shutdown.
Instruments/Navigation/Communication
Scenario #1: Arriving at aircraft XXX, an A320 that is scheduled LAX - CLT, it is the first flight of the
day.
1. The captain is accomplishing the Flightdeck Preparation flow. While performing the alignment
procedure an incorrect city pair is entered. How will the crew be alerted to this error? Reference: TM
7n.2
IR ALIGN light flashing indicating difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1° of
latitude or longitude.
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2. While accomplishing the exterior inspection the FO hears a horn in the nose wheel area, the AVNCS
(blue) light on the external power panel is illuminated. What does this indicate? Reference: TM 7n.2
 an external horn sounds
 the ADIRU light illuminates amber on the SERVICE INTERPHONE panel
The number 1 IR fails in flight
3. What indications will be displayed on the Captain’s PFD? Reference: TM 7i.2.7 / TM 7i.2.8
 Red ATT flag: The PFD has lost all attitude information. The attitude sphere will disappear.
 Red HDG flag: The heading information has failed. The HDG flag replaced the heading scale.
4. How will the Captain regain ATT and HDG information? Reference: TM 7i.2.7 / TM 7i.2.8
Select ATT HDG on Switching panel to CAPT 3 (ADR3 or IR3 replaces ADR1 or IR1).
If both MCDUs fail in flight:
5. How will the radios be tuned for navigation? Reference: PH 4.7.1
Tune Standby Navigation Radios:
1. RMP ON/OFF Switch (both RMPs)....................................Check ON
2. NAV Key (guarded) (both RMPs).......................................... Press

Green light illuminates.
An illuminated STBY NAV key indicates which system had been selected earlier in the radio-nav standby mode and
the LEDs show which frequencies were selected.
On the RMP associated with the receiver to be tuned:
1. VOR (or ILS) Key .............................................................. Press

Green light illuminates
Both LEDs display frequencies previously selected in the radio-nav standby mode.
2. Rotating Knob ....................................................... Set frequency

Set the desired frequency in the STBY/CRS window.
3. Transfer Key .................................................................... Press

The ACTIVE window displays the selected frequency.
The previous VOR (ILS) course is displayed in the STBY/CRS window.
4. Rotating Knob ........................................................... Set course

Set the course in the STBY/CRS window.
The receiver is now tuned to the frequency of the new station and the course is selected.
5. To select another station, press the transfer window (both windows will now display the previously selected
frequency) before retuning the VOR (or ILS).
Note: When the radio-nav standby mode is active (NAV key ON) and VHF or HF tuning is required, select the VHF
or HF key on the RMP. Use normal radio communications procedures. The NAV key, which has no effect on the
selection of a VHF or HF frequency, must remain in the ON position to prevent communications tuning from
changing NAV receiver frequencies.
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Electrical
Scenario #1: At cruise altitude the ECAM ELEC IDG 1 OVHT is issued, accompanying this message is the
FAULT light in the IDG pb.
1. Per ECAM a disconnect of the IDG is required, how long should the IDG pb be held? Reference: TM
7f.2.1
Holding this pb in for more than approximately 3 seconds may damage the disconnection mechanism. Do not
disconnect the IDG when the engine is not operating (or not windmilling) because starting the engine after having
done so will damage the IDG.
The IDG pbs are normally spring loaded out. Pressing this pb disconnects the IDG from its driveshaft; only
maintenance personnel can reconnect it.
2. In flight with the loss of GEN 1, what is now powering AC Bus 1? Reference: TM 7f.1.2
During normal operation if an engine driven generator fails, The Bus Tie Contactor closes and the other generator
(GEN 2) resumes supplies the entire system. When available, APU will automatically supply power to the side of
the failed generator.
Scenario #2: Adding to the above scenario, GEN 2 fails.
3. When will the RAT automatically extend? Reference: TM 7f.1.7
If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and airspeed is above 100 kts the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) automatically
deploys. The RAT pressurizes the blue hydraulic system which drives the emergency generator. Emergency
generator output (5 kva) is considerably lower than the main generators (90 kva).
Once the emergency generator is up to speed (approximately 8 seconds) it supplies power to the AC ESS BUS and
DC ESS BUS (via the ESS TR). During RAT deployment and prior to emergency generator coupling the batteries
supply power to these buses.
The RAT can be deployed manually by pressing the EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb on the overhead panel. The
RAT can only be stowed on the ground.
In flight with normal electrical supply, with the RAT deployed the emergency generator will supply the AC and DC
ESS and ESS SHED buses. All other buses continue to be powered by their normal channels.
The RAT can be extended by depressing the RAT MAN ON pb, on the hydraulic panel. This pb causes pressurization
of the blue hydraulic system and does not provide emergency electrical power.
4. During the approach when the landing gear is extended will the electrical system revert to battery
power only? Reference: TM 7f.1.7
On some A320 aircraft (reference in QRH old FWC software) when the landing gear is extended the emergency
generator is no longer powered. The emergency batteries supply power and the system automatically sheds AC
SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS buses. On the remaining A319/A320/A321 aircraft the RAT is powered after gear is
down.
5. On landing below 50 knots the Captains PFD is lost, why? Reference: TM 7f.1.7
After landing the DC BAT bus is automatically connected to the batteries when airspeed drops below 100 knots.
When the airspeed decreases below 50 knots the AC ESS bus is automatically shed, and power is lost to
the CRTs.
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Fire Protection
Scenario #1: The aircraft is at the gate; it is the first flight of the day external power is not available.
1. The Safety and Power ON Checklist requires an APU fire test, what indications will be seen?
Reference: PH 2a.7.3
 APU FIRE pushbutton illuminated.

 SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated.
 MASTER WARN lights illuminated, CRC, APU FIRE warning on E/WD, and APU page on SD. (Only available
with AC power)
2. When the captain accomplishes the flight deck preparation flow, will a full APU FIRE test be
required? Reference: PH 2a.7.3
If Full APU FIRE TEST was done in conjunction with the Safety & Power On Checklist, then this check is considered
complete and not done during the Flightdeck Preparation Flow. Otherwise this check is considered not
accomplished and must be done now.
Scenario #2: In flight at FL 350 an ECAM appears. ENG 1 FIRE LOOP A FAULT.
3. If a fire occurred in engine number 1, will the crew receive fire warnings? Reference: TM 7g.1.2
Each engine is equipped with two identical detection loops (A & B). Each loop contain three heat sensing elements
and a Fire Detection Unit (FDU). The sensing elements are located in the pylon nacelle, engine core, and fan
section. The FDU issues a fire warning when both loops detect an overheat. If one loop fails, the fire warning
system remains operational with the other loop. A fire warning is also issued if both loops fail within five
seconds of each other (flame effect).
An engine fire is indicated by an aural CRC and illumination of the ENG FIRE pb, MASTER WARN lights, and FIRE
light on the engine panel (pedestal).
Each engine is equipped with two fire extinguishers. They are discharged by pressing the associated AGENT DISCH
pb on the respective overhead engine FIRE panel.
4. If ENG 1 FIRE LOOP B were to fail within 5 seconds of LOOP A, what indications would the crew see?
Reference: TM 7g.1.2
A fire warning is issued if both loops fail within five seconds of each other.
Scenario #3: The aircraft parked at the gate and cargo is being off loaded. Unexpectedly, the CRC
sounds, the Master Warning lights illuminate and ECAM displays SMOKE (FWD) CARGO SMOKE.
5. Will the steps displayed on ECAM be followed? Reference: QRH back cover
If on the ground with the cargo door open, do not initiate AGENT DISCH. Request ground crew to investigate and
eliminate the smoke source.
APU
Scenario #1: 15 minutes prior to departure an APU start is attempted.
1. If unsuccessful, how many additional start attempts can be made? Reference: PH 1.13.1
APU Starter Limit: After 3 starter motor duty cycles, wait 60 minutes before attempting 3 more cycles.
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2. The APU shuts down almost immediately after coming up to speed, the shutdown is accompanied by
a fault light in the Master switch pb, an ECAM, and a single chime. What are some possible causes for
the shutdown? Reference: TM 7c.2
The amber fault light illuminates and a caution appears on ECAM, when an automatic APU shutdown occurs, which
happens in case of:
Fire (on ground only) Reverse flow

Air inlet flap not open Low oil pressure
Overspeed High oil temperature
No acceleration ECB failure
Slow start Loss of overspeed protection
EGT overtemperature Underspeed
No flame Over current sensor failure
Oil system shutdown1 Inlet overheat1
Clogged oil filter1 Loss of EGT thermocouples1
DC power loss. (BAT OFF when aircraft on batteries only)
1
Enhanced aircraft.
Scenario #2: Maintenance repaired the APU. In flight, a dual bleed fault occurs. The QRH procedure
directs use of the APU for a bleed source.
3. What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed operations? Reference: TM 7c.1.1
The APU has a gearbox driven generator that can power all AC electrical buses. It has a compressor for pneumatic
bleed air for air conditioning and engine start. The APU can operate up to the aircraft’s maximum service ceiling of
39,000 feet.
The APU generator can supply 100% of electrical load up to 25,000 feet. Above this altitude, there is a scheduled
reduction in electrical load. Electrical output has priority over bleed air. APU bleed air may be used up to
20,000 feet. In order to improve engine thrust output, the APU can be used to pressurize the aircraft during
takeoff.
4. During the Securing Checklist the APU is shutdown and only battery power remains, how long will it
take for the APU flap to fully close? Reference: PH 2.H.10
Do not turn the batteries to OFF until the APU flap is fully closed (about two minutes after APU AVAIL light
extinguishes, or check APU on ECAM).
Powerplant
Scenario #1: The aircraft is departing DEN enroute to CLT. It is an A321 (IAE engines) that has just
pushed back from the gate and has been given clearance to start.
1. During the start procedure with the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START when will the ENG master
switch be selected ON? Reference: PH 2b.11.3
 CFM: Do not place the ENG master switch ON before all amber crosses and messages have disappeared
on engine parameters.
 IAE: Do not place the ENG master switch ON before all amber crosses (except N1 and N2) and
messages have disappeared on engine parameters. The N1 and N2 indications show amber crosses,
until the actual N1 and N2 reach between 3.5% and 6%.
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Scenario #2 Due to a tailwind of greater than 10 knots the crew elects to accomplish the Manual Engine
Start procedure.
2. Give examples of other conditions that may require a Manual Engine Start. Reference: PH 4.8.4
Manual engine starting is recommended in the following cases:

 After aborting a start because of:
o STALL
o EGT OVERLIMIT
o NO N1 ROTATION
IAE Only
o HUNG START
o LOW START AIR PRESS
 When expecting a start abort because of:

o Degraded bleed performance due to a hot condition or at a high altitude airfield.
o A mature engine in hot condition or at a high altitude airfield.
o Marginal performance of external pneumatic power.
o Tailwind greater than 10 knots.
o Starting in tailwind may fail due to N1 counter-rotation hot gas back flow. Fuel should be ON at
N2 maximum motoring speed provided N1 has stopped and is turning clockwise (confirmed by
ground crew).
Note: In the event of a start fault, during manual start, complete the ECAM actions and refer to the appropriate
procedure in the QRH or ECAM Non-Normal Supplemental Manual.
3. After pushback the Captain states “start number one”. Which pilot is required to perform the Manual
Engine Start procedure? Reference: PH 4.8.4
The captain will start the engines when using this procedure.
4. Final W/B is received. Line 7 of the W/BS indicates BMP. What does BMP indicate and what actions
must be accomplished? Reference: PH 2c.8.3
If performance requires the use of thrust bump, depress either pushbutton to activate.
Note: Do not engage thrust bump until both engines are running. Ensure “B” is illuminated in upper ECAM.
Thrust Bump is used to obtain additional thrust during takeoff. Maximum thrust increase is obtained with TLA at
TOGA position. It is armed by a guarded pushbutton on each thrust lever.
Thrust bump is armed when:

 aircraft is on ground,
 corresponding engine is running,
 the engine is in EPR mode (IAE)
 either thrust bump pushbutton depressed
Thrust bump is disarmed when:

 at engine shutdown
 on the ground by depressing either bump pushbutton and thrust levers are not above FLX/MCT
Activation - Deactivation.
Thrust bump becomes active when:
 thrust lever is set above MCT position
Note: When thrust bump is used for takeoff it will in case of go around (TOGA) selection. If thrust bump is engaged
in the EPR mode and an N1 mode reversion occurs during takeoff, thrust bump will remain active for takeoff.
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Fuel
Scenario #1: The captain is accomplishing the Flightdeck Preparation flow. When the Fuel is checked it
is noted that the Left Outer Wing Tank is full and the Right Outer Wing Tank is empty. Left wing and
right wing tanks are equal and there is 3000 lbs of fuel in the center tank.
1. Is this considered BALANCED? Reference: PH 1.6.3 No.
Maximum Allowed Wing Fuel Imbalance: A319/320 Outer Tanks
Outer Tank maximum allowed imbalance is 1,168 lbs.
2. After engine start, will the center fuel pumps run? Reference: TM 7j.1.8
Yes. With the fuel MODE SEL pb in AUTO the center tank pumps operate for two minutes after both engines are
started to confirm center tank operation prior to takeoff.
CTR TK FEEDG appears in green, if a least one center tank pump is energized.
3. After takeoff, “CTR TK FEEDG” appears on the E/WD. When did the center tank fuel begin feeding the
engines? Reference: TM 7j.1.8 or 7j.2.3
During takeoff and approach fuel feed is wing tank to respective engine. After takeoff the center tank pumps
restart when the slats are retracted.
CTR TK FEEDG appears in green, if a least one center tank pump is energized. The center tank pumps operate for
five minutes after fuel low level is sensed by the auto shut off.
4. During the descent “OUTER TK FUEL XFDR” appears. What causes this memo to appear? Reference:
TM 7j.1.8 or 7j.2.3
The wing tank transfer valves automatically latch open when the wing inner cell fuel quantity drops to
1,650 lbs thus allowing the outer cell fuel to drain into the inner cell. The transfer valves open
simultaneously in both wings and remain open until the next refueling operation. During steep descents and
acceleration/deceleration, the transfer valves may open prematurely and trigger a LO LVL warning.
OUTR TK FUEL XFRD appears in green, if at least one transfer valve is open in one wing tank.
5. Checking the FUEL page, an amber line across the last two digits of a fuel quantity indicator is
displayed. What does that indicate? Reference: TM 7j.2.3
Fuel quantity indication:

 Normally green
 An amber line appears across the last two digits when FQI is inaccurate. The outer cell indication
is boxed amber if both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell at low level.
 The center tank indication is boxed amber if both center tank pumps are failed or switched off.
 Advisory from first engine start to application of takeoff power and during cruise, when difference between
fuel quantities in the two wings is greater than 3300 lbs. The indications of the wing inner and outer tanks
with the highest fuel level pulses.
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Aircraft Systems Review (In Class)

This section contains aircraft systems that will be discussed in TGS class this year, along with the learning
objectives that will be satisfied as a result of the classroom discussions. There are no questions that must be
answered before attending class. However, your efforts to review the following information before class will better
prepare you for classroom participation. Furthermore, some of this information is integrated into your two days in
the flight simulator. These systems are:
 Autoflight
 Hydraulics
 Landing Gear
 Brakes
 Flight Controls
Autoflight
1. When would a takeoff shift be entered into the PERF TO page? Reference: PH 2c.3.10
a. Only required if on Final W/B.
b. When departing from a runway intersection.
c. Noted on 10-9 page or on Airport Advisory page.
If takeoff is to be from an intersection, enter takeoff SHIFT distance. This is essential for position updating at
takeoff. Note: Refer to the TPS or request from ATC the runway remaining distance from the intersection.
2. In flight with dual FMGCs failure, could we still navigate and complete our flight? Reference: QRH
105, 106
a. Yes, select the ROSE mode on the EFIS control panel.
b. Yes, by using the RMP. Lift the guard and depress the NAV switch and you can dial appropriate
frequencies.
c. No, declare an emergency and advise ATC. Expect vectors to destination.
FMGC Dual Failure (FMS2):

 “MAP NOT AVAIL” is displayed on both NDs.
 FM and FG capability are lost.
 MCDU MENU page is displayed and FMGC prompt is no longer available.
 AP/FD and A/THR are lost.
 Flight Path Vector is available
 FMGS Navaid tuning is not performed.
 The following ECAM messages are displayed:
o “AUTO FLT AP OFF” (if AP was engaged)
o “AUTO FLT A/THR OFF” (if A/THR was engaged)
Remote Tune Navaids:

a) RMP 1 NAV (guarded) .......................................... Press On
b) RMP 2 NAV (guarded) .......................................... Press On
c) RMP VOR or ILS Key (as required) ......................... Press On
Note: Green lights illuminate. Both windows display previously selected frequencies. RMP 1 tunes VOR 1,
RMP 2 tunes VOR 2. Either RMP 1 or RMP 2 tunes the ILS receivers.
d) Set the VOR or ILS frequency in the STBY/CRS window

e) Transfer Key.........................................................Press The active window displays the selected
frequency
f) Set the course in the STBY/CRS window
Note: The receiver is now tuned to the frequency of the new station and the course is selected. To select
another station, press the transfer key (both windows now display the previously selected frequency)
before retuning the VOR or ILS.
g) To tune Comm radios, select the appropriate VHF or HF key.
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3. Do any procedures require the use of the EXPED button? Reference: PH 2e.3.3
a. Yes, used in conjunction with FPV approaches.
b. Yes, but only if directed by ATC
c. No, there is no requirement to use EXPED pb.
Maximum angle climbs are normally used for obstacle clearance, or to reach a specified altitude/flight level in a
minimum distance. Its value varies with gross weight. GREEN DOT speed approximates the maximum angle
climb speed.
EXPED Climb: Should it be required to increase the climb to maximum angle, an expedited climb may be selected
by pressing the EXPED pb on the FCU. Maximum climb thrust is applied and the maximum angle climb speed
(green dot) is controlled by the elevator. The speed will revert to ECON speed upon altitude capture.
Caution: Use of the EXPED pb may produce a rapid change in aircraft attitude and acceleration and is not intended
for routine use. Its use above FL250 should be avoided.
4. (Yes or No) Is V/S “0” altitude hold? Reference: TM 7d.3.5
When the pilot pushes in the V/S or FPA knob the system commands immediate level off by engaging the V/S or
FPA mode with a target of zero. The flight mode annunciator (FMA) then displays “V/S - 0” in green when V/S or
FPA is pulled.
5. Must the flight director be on for the windshear function of the FAC's to operate normally?
Reference: TM 7d.1.11
a. No, the windshear function is controlled by IRS #1
b. No, the windshear function of the FAC's is independent of the flight director on/off switch.
c. Yes, the windshear system is dependent on the flight director guidance.
Two FACs provide four main functions:

1. Yaw Function
 Yaw damping and turn coordination
 rudder trim
 rudder travel limitation
2. Flight Envelope Function

 PFD speed scale management
o Minimum/maximum speed computation
o Maneuvering speed computation
The FAC computes the stall speed at any given configuration. From this stall speed, it calculates the
aircraft gross weight. Once the gross weight is calculated, the various minimum and maneuvering speeds
are computed.
 Alpha-floor protection
Alpha-floor protection is triggered when the aircraft reaches its critical angle of attack. The alpha-floor
protection automatically sets TOGA thrust regardless of the position of the thrust levers. Alpha-floor
protection is available from lift-off until 100′ RA during the approach.
3. Low-Energy Warning Function

The aural low-energy warning, “SPEED SPEED SPEED” is triggered when the pilot needs to increase thrust in order
to achieve a positive flight path through pitch. This protection is available in configurations 2, 3, and FULL
between 2000′ and 100′ RA. During deceleration, the low-energy warning is triggered before alpha-floor (unless
alpha-floor is triggered by sidestick deflection).
4. Windshear Detection Function

Whenever a FAC detects windshear conditions, it triggers a warning:
 “WINDSHEAR” in red on both PFDs (for at least 15 seconds)
 an aural warning, “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”
When the aircraft configuration is 1 or more, the windshear detection function is operative during:
 Takeoff: from lift-off up to 1,300′
 Approach: from 1,300′ to 50′
In performing these four functions, the FAC uses independent channels. Each FAC interfaces with the Elevator
Aileron Computers (ELACs) when the APs are disengaged or the FMGS when at least one AP is engaged. Both
computers engage automatically at aircraft power up. If a failure is detected in any channel of FAC 1, FAC 2 takes
over the corresponding channel.
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Hydraulics
1. Name some of the major users of the GREEN system. Reference: TM 7k.3
a. Slats and Flaps.
b. Landing gear, nose wheel steering.
c. PTU, alternate braking, cargo door accumulator
Hydraulic System Distribution

Green Blue Yellow
NWS (Basic) NWS (Enhanced)
Landing Gear
Slats & Flaps Slats Flaps
REV ENG 1 REV ENG 2
Normal Brakes ALT/PARK Brake
Yaw Damp 1 Yaw Damp 2
Rudder Rudder Rudder
Stabilizer Stabilizer
L Elevator L & R Elevator R Elevator
L Aileron L Aileron
R Aileron R Aileron
L & R SPLR 1 L & R SPLR 4
L & R SPLR 5 L & R SPLR 3 L & R SPLR 2
L & R SLAT WTB L & R SLAT WTB
R Flap WTB L & R Flap WTB L Flap WTB
EMER GEN
2. The yellow system has an engine driven pump. What other means do we have to pressurize the
yellow system? Reference: TM 7k.1.3
a. Electric pump, PTU, and a hand pump for the cargo doors.
b. Electrically power override pump
c. RAT that would only be available in flight above 140 kts.
SOURCE GREEN BLUE YELLOW

Engine Pump 1. ENG 1 pump 1. ENG 2 pump
PTU 2. PTU 2. PTU
Electric Pump 1. Blue Electric pump 3. Yellow Electric pump
RAT 2. Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
Hand Pump 4. Hand pump for cargo door operation
3. When does the PTU operate? Reference: TM 7k.1.5

a. The PTU would automatically activate when the differential pressure between the blue and
yellow system is greater than 500 psi.
b. With split ENG master switches.
c. When pressure between the green and yellow system drops to a predetermined level.
The PTU is a reversible motor-pump located between the green and yellow hydraulic systems. It enables the green
system to pressurize the yellow system, and vice versa, without fluid transfer. The PTU is automatically activated
when the differential pump pressure output between the green and yellow systems exceeds a predetermined value.
On the ground, when the engines are not running, the PTU enables the yellow system electric pump to pressurize
the green system. Operation of the PTU is displayed on the ECAM hydraulic page and also indicated via an ECAM
memo.
The PTU is inhibited on the ground with one ENG MASTER on and one ENG MASTER off, with the PARK BRK ON and
NWS disconnected. PTU is also inhibited during and 40 seconds following cargo door operation.
4. (Yes or No) Can fluid be transferred between hydraulic systems? Reference: TM 7k.1.5
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___________________________________________________________________________________________
5. With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO, when will the blue pump
be energized? Reference: TM 7k.1.4
a. Automatically with cargo door operation.
b. With one engine running.
c. Only in flight after the loss of AC BUS 1 and 2.
The blue system is pressurized by the blue electric pump or the Ram Air Turbine (RAT). The system shares
components with the other two systems and exclusively powers the emergency generator during electrical
emergencies. On the ground, with the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb in AUTO, the electric pump operates when either engine
is running and AC power is available. In flight, the pump operates continuously unless the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is
OFF.
Landing Gear
1. To emergency extend the gear the crew has to turn the gear crank 3 turns clockwise. What does this
action accomplish? Reference: TM 7m.1.4
a. Provides a separate source of hydraulic power to extend the landing gear.
b. Hydraulically releases the gear uplocks, allowing the gear to freefall.
c. This shuts off hydraulic pressure to the gear, opens the doors, and unlocks the gear.
If the normal gear extension system fails gravity extension is available. A hand crank on the control pedestal is
turned clockwise to shut off hydraulic pressure to the gear, open the doors, and unlocks the gear to extend by
gravity. The main gear are downlocked by locking springs and the nose gear is downlocked by aerodynamic forces.
The gear doors remain open and nose wheel steering is deactivated (Basic aircraft only).
2. (Yes or No) After emergency extension do the gear doors remain open? Reference: TM 7m.1.4
3. (Yes or No) Is nose wheel steering available after emergency gear extension? Reference: TM 7m.1.5
See QRH page 62:

 Basic aircraft: Steering is not available
 Enhanced aircraft: Steering is available
Nose wheel steering is electrically controlled by the Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU) and hydraulically
operated by the green hydraulic system on basic aircraft and yellow hydraulic system on enhanced aircraft.
Hydraulic pressure is delivered to the steering system when:
 nose landing gear doors are closed (on basic aircraft)
 A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is ON
 towing lever is in the normal position
 at least one engine is operating, and
 the aircraft is on the ground
4. What does the UNLK light in the LDG GEAR indicate? Reference: TM 7m.2.1
a. UNLK in red indicates gear is not locked in selected position, or in transition.
b. Illuminates 30 seconds after gear handle is selected down and gear remain locked.
c. Gear is up and locked with radio altitude at or below 800ft.
LDG GEAR Indications:

 UNLK: Illuminates red if the gear is not locked in the selected position.
 Triangle Symbol: Illuminates green if the gear is locked down.
 Light Off: indicates gear is retracted and uplocked with landing gear lever selected up.
5. Will the lights on the LDG GEAR panel illuminate if the LGCIU #1 fails? Reference: TM 7m.2
a. Yes, the BSCU is the computer that provides input to the LDG GEAR panel.
b. Yes, LGCIU 2 supplies power to the LDG GEAR panel. Failure of LGCIU 1 has no affect on
indications.
c. No, LGCIU 1 must be supplied with power for the LDG GEAR panel to illuminate.
This panel is connected to LGCIU1, which receives signals from proximity detectors. The lights on the LDG GEAR
indicator panel do not illuminate when LGCIU1 is not supplied with electricity.
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___________________________________________________________________________________________
Brakes
1. Where does the crew look to verify that the parking brake is on? Reference: PH SOPs
a. ECAM Memo.
b. Triple Indicator
c. Handle position
Reference: PH 2c.3.6
a. Confirmation that the yellow hydraulic system is now powering normal brakes.
b. Ensures a transition from brake by wire to mechanical braking.
c. Checks brake efficiency, confirms green pressure has taken over and that yellow pressure is
zero on the triple indicator.
3. What does “HOT” in the BRK FAN light indicate? Reference: TM 7m.2.5
a. Illuminates when brakes are too hot, accompanied by ECAM.
b. Temperature differential between the right and left gear differs by more than 100 degrees.
c. Brake temperatures have exceeded 200 degrees.
4. Does the alternate brake system have the same capabilities as normal brakes? Reference: TM
7m.1.10
a. No, anti-skid is not available with alternate brakes.
b. Yes, except auto brakes are inoperative.
c. No, both anti-skid and autobrakes would be inoperative with only the alternate brake system.
Braking capability is the same as normal brakes, except for autobraking.
5. The green DECEL light on the autobrake switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration
corresponds to what percent of the selected rate? Reference: TM 7m.2.5
a. 70% of the selected rate.
b. 80% of the selected rate.
c. 90% of the selected rate.
The DECEL light illuminates green only if the autobrake function is active and when actual aircraft deceleration
corresponds to predetermined rate. (In LO or MED: 80% of the selected rate). On slippery runways, the
predetermined deceleration may not be reached due to antiskid operation. In this case DECEL light will not
illuminate. This does not mean that autobrake is not working.
Flight Controls
1. What indicators would the First Officer reference during the Flight Control Check? Reference: PH
SOPs
a. Free and correct movement of the sidestick in conjunction with Aileron and Elevator movement
on the Flight Control SD page.
b. Aileron, Elevator and Rudder deflection, spoilers are inhibited at taxi speeds.
c. Flight Control Position Indications for Aileron, Elevator, Spoilers and Rudder.
2. What would the FAULT light in the ELAC 1 pushbutton indicate? Reference: TM 7h.2.3
a. ELAC 2 is the primary flight control computer, ELAC 1 is now secondary.
b. Indicates a failure has been detected, may occur during power up.
c. Indicates a failure in one of the flight controls systems controlled by ELAC 1.
ELAC 1 (2) performs the following functions:

 normal pitch and roll
 alternate pitch
 direct pitch and roll
 abnormal attitude
 aileron droop
 acquisition of autopilot orders
FAULT Illuminates amber, along with a caution advisory on ECAM:

 when a failure is detected
 during ELAC power-up test (eight seconds)
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3. How many SEC computers are installed and what are their functions? Reference: TM 7h.2.3
a. Three spoiler elevator computers provide spoiler control and standby elevator and stabilizer
control.
b. Three spoiler computers, SEC 1 powers ground spoilers only while SEC 2 and 3 operate the
flight spoilers.
c. Three spoiler computers, elevator control is their primary function with spoilers being
secondary.
SEC 1 (2) (3) performs the following functions:

 normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
 speed brakes and ground spoilers
 alternate pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)
 direct pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)
 direct roll
 abnormal attitude
4. Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative? Reference: TM 7h.1.3
a. Yes, ELAC computer is responsible for rudder operation.
b. Yes, mechanically.
c. No, the rudder would fail in the neutral position.
The ELACs compute yaw orders for coordinating turns and dampening yaw oscillations and sends them to the FACs.
In flight with the autopilot engaged automatic rudder trim is through inputs from the FACs and FMGCs. The rudder
is electrically controlled by trim motors or mechanically controlled by two pairs of interconnected rudder pedals. It
is hydraulically actuated by a green, yellow and blue hydraulic actuator. Rudder deflection is limited according to
airspeed. If both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection is limited until the slats are extended. Manual rudder trim is
accomplished using the electric RUD TRIM switch. A button located on the rudder trim panel resets rudder trim to
0. The RUD TRIM switch and RESET button are deactivated with the autopilot engaged.
Both FACs perform the following functions:

 normal roll (coordinating turns and damping dutch roll)
 rudder trim
 rudder travel limit
 alternate yaw
5. What would result if both sidesticks were moved at the same time during flight with the autopilot
OFF? Reference: TM 7h.2.2
a. Both inputs are summed algebraically, the DUAL INPUT warning will sound and the green side-
stick priority lights will flash.
b. Priority Left would be announced, defaulting to captain control.
c. Attitude would not change.

 When only one pilot operates the sidestick, it sends his control signals to the computers.
 When the other pilot operates his sidestick in the same or opposite direction, the system adds the signals
deflection of a single sidestick. In this condition, on some aircraft, both green CAPT and F/O SIDE STICK
PRIORITY lights flash and a “DUAL INPUT” audio voice message is given every five seconds as long as
both pilots operate their sidesticks simultaneously.
A pilot can deactivate the other sidestick and take full control by keeping his priority takeover pb depressed. To
latch the priority condition, press the takeover pb for more than 40 seconds. This allows the pilot to release his
takeover pb without losing priority. However, a pilot can at any time reactivate a deactivated sidestick by
momentarily pressing the takeover pb on either sidestick. If both pilots press their takeover pbs, the pilot that
presses last gets priority. If an autopilot is engaged, the first action on a takeover pb disengages it. If the aircraft is
on the ground commencing its takeoff run and one sidestick is deactivated, the takeoff “CONFIG” warning will
activate.
In a priority situation:
 A red light illuminates in front of the pilot whose sidestick is deactivated.
 A green light illuminates in front of the pilot who has taken control, if the other sidestick is not in the
neutral position (indicates a potential and unwanted control demand).
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___________________________________________________________________________________________
6. (Yes or No) Are hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup? Reference: TM 7h.1.6
Mechanical Backup: In case of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the aircraft can be temporarily
controlled by mechanical mode. Pitch control is available through the horizontal stabilizer using manual trim
wheel(s). Lateral control is accomplished using the rudder pedals. Both controls require hydraulic power. A red
“MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” warning appears on the PFD.
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___________________________________________________________________________________________

AIRBUS A319/320/321
2011 – 2012
Updated : 04/01/11
Hydraulics
Scenario #1: In preparation for pushback, the crew fails to observe that the "NW
STRG DISC" memo is not in view. The pushback is started without this memo.
1. What would cause the "NW STRG DISC" memo not to appear? Reference: TM
7m.1.5
A lever on the towing electrical box on the nose gear deactivates the steering system for
towing. When the lever is in the tow position a green “NW STRG DISC” message is displayed
on the upper ECAM.
2. What effect would this have during the pushback while starting engine one?
Reference: TM 7k.1.5, TM 7m.1.5
The message changes to amber after the first engine is started.
Scenario #1 continued: The pushback is complete. Engine 1 is running and the

parking brake is ON.
3. Is the PTU inhibited? Reference: TM 7k.1.5
The PTU is inhibited on the ground with one ENG MASTER on and one ENG MASTER off, with
the PARK BRK ON and NWS disconnected.
4. If either cargo door is operated after the pushback is complete, the PTU will be
inhibited for 40 seconds. What will occur if the number 2 engine is started during
this 40 second period? Reference: TM 7k.1.5, QRH 93
HYD PTU FAULT is triggered if the second engine is started within 40 seconds following the
end of cargo door operation. In this case, reset the warning by switching the yellow elec
pump ON then OFF.
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___________________________________________________________________________________________
5. Why is the Y ELEC PUMP turned ON during the FO's AFTER START FLOW when
the aircraft is single engine taxied? Reference: TM 7k.1.5
Y ELEC PUMP must be selected ON for single-engine taxi operations to limit PTU operation.
The PTU will cycle on under high hydraulic loads.
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) is a reversible motor-pump located between the green and
yellow hydraulic systems. It enables the green system to pressurize the yellow system, and
vice versa, without fluid transfer. The PTU is automatically activated when the differential
pump pressure output between the green and yellow systems exceeds a predetermined
value. On the ground, when the engines are not running, the PTU enables the yellow system
electric pump to pressurize the green system. Operation of the PTU is displayed on the
ECAM hydraulic page and also indicated via an ECAM memo.
Scenario #1 continued: The crew is told to expect a delay of 1 hour. The parking
brake is set and the crew shuts down the number 1 engine but leaves the Y ELEC
PUMP ON.
6. Since the parking brake is set, will the PTU be inhibited? Reference: TM 7k.1.5
The power transfer unit runs automatically when the differential pressure between the green
and yellow systems is more than 500 PSI. However, The PTU is inhibited on the ground with
one ENG MASTER on and one ENG MASTER off, with the PARK BRK ON and NWS
disconnected.
Scenario #2: While flying at cruise altitude, an ECAM message "HYD G RSVR LO
AIR PR" message is received. This is a reservoir fault requiring the PTU and the
GREEN ENG 1 PUMP to be turned OFF.
7. While accomplishing the ECAM, the first blue action item is PTU....OFF. Why is this step
necessary? Reference: TM 7k.1.5.
PTU FAULT - This amber light illuminates, and a caution appears on the ECAM, if:
 the green or the yellow reservoir overheats
 the green or the yellow reservoir has low air pressure
 the green or the yellow reservoir has a low fluid level
The light extinguishes when the crew selects OFF, except during an overheat. (The light
remains illuminated as long as the overheat lasts).
8. Are there any other reservoir faults which would require the PTU to be OFF?
Reference: TM 7K.2.1
See question 7 above.
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Landing Gear and Brakes
Scenario #1: The Airbus fleet uses carbon brakes as opposed to steel brakes.
Carbon brakes are much lighter than steel brakes and the wear characteristics
improve at higher temperatures. The number of brake applications is the primary
factor in determining carbon brake life.
1. When using carbon brakes, what is the best brake technique for landing?
Reference: PH 2g.12.8
The following procedure will give optimum manual braking for all runway conditions:
 The pilot’s seat and rudder pedals should be adjusted so it is possible to apply
maximum braking with full rudder deflection.
 Smoothly apply a constant brake pedal pressure for the desired braking. For short or
slippery runways, use full brake pedal. Pumping the brakes will degrade braking
effectiveness. Keep a steadily increasing brake pressure applied, allowing the anti-
skid system to function at its optimum.
 The anti-skid system will stop the airplane for all runway conditions in a shorter
distance than is possible with either anti-skid off or brake pedal modulation. The
anti-skid system adapts pilot-applied brake pressure to runway conditions by sensing
an impending skid condition and adjusting the brake pressure to each individual
wheel for maximum braking effort. When brakes are applied on a slippery runway,
several skid cycles will occur before the anti-skid system establishes the right
amount of brake pressure for the most effective braking.
 Do not attempt to modulate, pump, or improve the braking by any other special
techniques. If the pilot modulates the brake pedals, the anti-skid system is forced to
readjust the brake pressure to establish optimum braking. During this readjustment
time, braking efficiency is lost.
 Do not release the brake pedal pressure until the airplane speed has been reduced to
a safe taxi speed.
2. Use of the autobrake system in MED or LOW, if available, is normal procedure

under what circumstances? Reference: PH 2g.12.8
Use of the autobrake system, if available, in MED or LOW is normal procedure for:
 All landings on wet and slippery runways
 When landing rollout distance is limited
 When aircraft configuration requires use of higher than normal approach speeds
 A crosswind component greater than 10 knots
 All CAT II/III landings
When LO is selected, autobraking begins four (4) seconds after the ground spoilers are
deployed and two (2) seconds after deployment if MED is selected. During the landing roll, if
deceleration is not suitable for the stopping distance, manual braking must be used.
Transition to manual braking by applying gradually increasing pressure to the brake pedals.
Manual braking should begin before coming out of reverse thrust. Both crewmembers must
be alert for autobrake disengagement indications during the landing roll. The PM will
monitor autobrake operation and call "No Autobrakes" should the system fail to operate as
planned.
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Scenario #2: During taxi before takeoff an ECAM memo "WHEEL N.W. STEER
FAULT" or "WHEEL N/W STRG FAULT" is received. The aircraft is stopped and the
parking brake is set. There are no blue action items associated with this ECAM.
3. Since there are no blue action items, would it be acceptable for the pilots to
turn the A/SKID & NW STRG switch OFF and then ON without using non-normal
methodology? Reference: PH 9 Non-Normal Methodology
No - Accomplish ECAM Follow-Up procedures, if applicable. ECAM cautions and warnings

requiring QRH follow up are contained in a QRH index on yellow pages following the
Immediate Action Items. After completing the ECAM checklist, complete the associated QRH
Follow-Up checklist if the ECAM caution or warning is listed in this index. If the ECAM
checklist returns the system to normal, the associated Follow-Up procedures are not
accomplished
4. The Non-Normal Methodology Follow-up procedure requires the A/SKID & NW

STRG switch to be turned OFF and then ON. When this step is complete, if the
ECAM message is no longer displayed is dispatch permitted? Reference: QRH 10
If NW STRG FAULT and NW STRG DISC memo are no longer displayed dispatch is permitted.
Flight Controls
Scenario #1: During takeoff, an audio voice message "DUAL INPUT" is given.
1. What would cause the "DUAL INPUT" audio voice message? Reference: TM
7h.2.2

 When only one pilot operates the sidestick, it sends his control signals to the
computers.
 When the other pilot operates his sidestick in the same or opposite direction, the
system adds the signals of both pilots algebraically. The total is limited to the signal
that would result from the maximum deflection of a single sidestick. In this
condition, on some aircraft, both green CAPT and F/O SIDE STICK PRIORITY lights
flash and a “DUAL INPUT” audio voice message is given every five seconds as long as
2. How could the PF take priority of the sidestick? Reference: TM 7h.2.2
A pilot can deactivate the other sidestick and take full control by keeping his priority
takeover pb depressed.
In a priority situation:
 A red light illuminates in front of the pilot whose sidestick is deactivated.
 A green light illuminates in front of the pilot who has taken control, if the other
sidestick is not in the neutral position (indicates a potential and unwanted control
demand).
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___________________________________________________________________________________________
3. How can a sidestick priority be latched? Reference: TM 7h.2.2
To latch the priority condition, press the takeover pb for more than 40 seconds. This allows
the pilot to release his takeover pb without losing priority. However, a pilot can at any time
reactivate a deactivated sidestick by momentarily pressing the takeover pb on either
sidestick. If both pilots press their takeover pbs, the pilot that presses last gets priority.
4. What warning would activate when commencing a takeoff and one sidestick is
deactivated? Reference: TM 7h.2.2
If the aircraft is on the ground commencing its takeoff run and one sidestick is deactivated,
the takeoff “CONFIG” warning will activate.
Scenario #2: During the approach briefing, you discuss the landing performance.
The aircraft weight is below both the CONF 03 and CONF FULL weights listed in the
LAND section of the weight and balance.
5. When should CONF FULL be selected for landing? Reference: PH 2f.2.7
CONF 3 is the standard flap setting for landing. CONF FULL landing should be considered in
the following situations:
 short runway (6000 FT or less)
 low visibility approaches
 wet or icy runways
 tailwind landings
 steep approaches
 when operating with an MEL item or abnormal system condition that impacts landing
performance
When planning a normal landing with CONF 3 the GPWS LDG FLAP 3 pb must be selected
ON and CONF 3 must be selected in the MCDU PERF APPR page.
6. Doesn't CONF 3 result in a higher approach speed and a longer landing roll?
Reference: PH 2g.12.9
Landing with CONF 3 rather than CONF FULL will increase the normal landing roll by
approximately 500 feet, depending upon landing weight.
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Autoflight
Scenario #1: The aircrew executes the required Close-In takeoff from KSFO and
climbs to cruise altitude.
1. What are the 8 vertical FMGS phases of flight? Reference: TM page 7d-49
The vertical flight plan is divided into flight phases. For each phase, the FMGS computes the
optimum Speed or Mach Profile. The flight phases are:
 Preflight
 Takeoff
 Climb
 Cruise
 Descent
 Approach
 Go-Around
 Done
2. In the TAKEOFF phase with SRS annunciated on FMA, what airspeed is

maintained for 2 engine/single engine operation? Reference: TM page 7d-4
SRS Mode controls pitch to maintain a speed defined by SRS guidance (provided V2 is
inserted in the MCDU PERF TO page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft is on the
ground). It engages automatically when the thrust levers are set to TOGA or MCT/FLX
detent. It disengages manually when another vertical mode is engaged, or automatically
when the aircraft reaches acceleration altitude or an FCU selected altitude.
The pitch guidance maintains airspeed at V2 + 10 knots. If an engine failure is detected,

pitch guidance maintains the greater of V2 or current speed. Additionally, the mode protects
against high pitch attitude and provides a minimum climb rate.
3. At what AGL altitude will the FMGS switch from the TAKEOFF to CLIMB phase
and what is the name for this switching condition? Reference: PH 2c.3.10/PH
2e.3.2/TM page 7d-49
The FMS CLIMB phase begins at acceleration altitude or by engagement of another vertical
mode and ends when the top of climb (T/C) is attained.
THR RED/ACC Altitude:

 Distant: Field elevation plus 1,000 feet/Field elevation plus 1,000 feet
 Close-in: Field elevation plus 1,500 feet/Field elevation plus 3,000 feet
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Scenario #2: The aircrew executes a descent from cruise altitude and flies the
ILS27R CAT II Autoland at KPHL.
4. FMS2 switches automatically from CRUISE to DESCENT phase when the PF

initiates the descent and any of these conditions are met;
 The aircraft is less than 200 flight plan miles from destination airport or
reaches T/D
 A descent is selected to an altitude below FL 200
 A descent is selected to an altitude equal to or below any flight plan altitude
constraint
Which is the only switching condition used by FMS 1? Reference: TM 7d-49
No step descent and distance to destination < 200 NM.
5. After an autopilot(s) is engaged in the APPR mode, what are the only two
authorized FMA indications that may be displayed in column 4 for a CAT 2
Autoland? Reference: PH 2f.6.2
The following are required:

 CAT II - At least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 3 SINGLE or
CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA
 CAT III FAIL PASSIVE - At least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode and
CAT 3 SINGLE must be displayed on the FMA
 CAT III FAIL OPERATIONAL - Two autopilots must be engaged in APPR mode and
CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA
6. After LAND is engaged below 400' AGL, will deselecting the APPR pb or an A/P
pb on the FCU disengage the LAND mode? Reference: TM page 7d-5
The LAND mode engages automatically when the LOC and G/S modes are engaged and the
aircraft is below 400' RA. The FMA displays LAND and no action on the FCU will disengage
LAND. FLARE and ROLL OUT modes will engage.
7. If by mistake the Captain selects FLEX/MCT instead of the TOGA for a go

around, will the LAND mode disengage and will the aircraft execute a G/A?
Reference: TM page 7d-5/6
Go-around mode combines the SRS vertical mode and the GA TRK lateral mode. It engages
when at least one thrust lever is placed in the TOGA detent, the slats/flaps lever is at least
in position 1, and:
 the aircraft has been on the ground for less than 30 seconds
8. What airspeed or pitch limit (no windshear) is targeted by the SRS vertical
mode during the GO AROUND phase? Reference: TM pg 7d-6
SRS pitch guidance maintains the current speed at go-around engagement, or VAPP,
whichever is higher. Additionally, it provides a minimum climb rate and protects against
high pitch attitude (18 degrees maximum, 22.5 degrees during windshear). This high pitch
attitude protection can result in excessive speed during go-arounds at low aircraft weights.
When SRS mode disengages, the target speed becomes Green Dot Speed.
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9. After landing, at what indicated speed does the Captain disconnect the autopilot
to cancel the ROLLOUT mode? Reference: PH 2f.6.2
The pilots should monitor the quality of the approach, flare, landing roll-out, including
spoiler deployment and autobrake application. After landing, monitor the deceleration.
Allowing the ROLLOUT function to provide nosewheel steering along the runway centerline,
slow the airplane to approximately 60 knots before disconnecting the autopilot. If ROLLOUT
is not available, disconnect the autopilot after touchdown.
APU
Scenario #1: At the 15 MINUTE TRIGGER prior to the BEFORE START FLOW, the
crew prepares to start the APU.
1. What lights would be illuminated on the overhead panel if the automatic

shutdown was a result of an APU Fire on the ground? Reference: TM 7c.1.6
The APU may be operated on the ground without supervision. In case of fire in the APU
compartment:
 APU fire warnings activate in the cockpit
 horn in nose gear bay sounds
 AVAIL light extinguishes
 FAULT light (in APU MASTER SW) illuminates
 APU shuts down
 APU fire extinguisher discharges
2. During a normal start, what light indicates the APU is up to speed and can
supply the entire AC electrical load? Reference: TM 7c.2.1
The AVAIL light in the START pb illuminates green when the APU is up to speed.
3. On the ECAM APU page, what does an amber or red numerical indication in the
APU EGT GAGE mean? Reference: TM 7c.2.2
 Becomes amber at EGT MAX

 Becomes red when EGT > EGT MAX (automatic shutdown begins)
Scenario #2: During the TPS validation and review, the crew agrees that APU
BLEED ON will be required for takeoff performance.
4. What chapter in the PH can the crew find the APU Bleed On Takeoff procedure?
Reference: PH 4.1
Section 4.4.1
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5. How could takeoff performance be attained if the APU auto-shutdown on taxi-

out? Reference: PH 4.4.1
If the APU bleed system is inoperative:

Before takeoff:
1. PACK 1 and 2 ... OFF
1. One PACK ... ON
Selecting both packs ON simultaneously may affect passenger comfort.
After flap retraction:
1. Other PACK ... ON
2. APU BLEED ON Takeoff Procedure ... Complete
6. If the PM neglects to complete the Supplemental procedure after thrust

reduction altitude, what is the next barrier to ensure the air conditioning / bleed
system is properly configured? Reference: PH 2e.1.4
During the After Takeoff Flow:

 AIR COND ... Checked
Ensure aircraft bleed system is properly configured (e.g., APU BLEED OFF if used for
takeoff).
7. Can wing anti-ice be used with APU Bleed on? Reference: PH 1.13.3
APU Pneumatic Limits:

 Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is 20,000 feet.
 Air bleed extraction for wing anti-icing is not permitted.
Electrical
Scenario #1: First flight of the day and external AC power is not available. The
crew completes the Safety and Power On Checklist using APU power. The F/O then
accomplishes the Flightdeck Equipment Flow.
1. What busses, in addition to the HOT BATT busses, are the batteries powering
before the APU MASTER SW is selected ON for APU start? Reference: TM 7f.2.1
The battery charge limiter automatically controls the connection and the disconnection of
the corresponding battery to the DC BAT BUS by closing and opening of the battery line
contactor.
2. On battery power only, are any of the following screens powered; FMGCs, PFDs,
NDs, MCDUs, Upper ECAM, Lower ECAM? Reference: QRH pg 18/19
BAT ONLY
IN FLIGHT ON THE GROUND
PFD 1 Norm Norm (Lost when speed < 50 kt)
ND 1 Inop Inop
Upper ECAM Norm Norm (Lost when speed < 50 kt)
Lower ECAM Inop Inop
FMGS (NAV Function) Inop Inop
MCDU Inop Inop
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3. In addition to an APU start, what are 2 other reasons for the batteries to
connect to the DC BAT BUS? Reference: TM 7f.2.1
The batteries are connected to the DC BAT BUS in the following cases:
 APU starting (MASTER SW at ON and N < 95%). Note: The connection is limited to 3
minutes when the emergency generator is running.
 Battery voltage below 26.5 V (battery charge). The charging cycle ends when battery
charge current goes below 4 amps:
o on ground, immediately
o in flight, after a time delay of 30 minutes.
 Loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when below 100 kts (EMER GEN not supplying).
4. On the overhead panel, what is the purpose of the 2 yellow capped circuit
breakers (if installed), observed closed, during the F/O Flightdeck Equipment
Flow? Reference: TM 7f.1.10
 Green C/Bs are monitored by the ECAM system. The ECAM displays “C/B TRIPPED
ON OVHD PNL (or REAR PNL)” warning when a green circuit breaker is tripped for
more than 1 minute.
 Black C/B’s are not ECAM monitored.
 Yellow collared C/Bs are pulled by procedure when flying on battery power only.
 Red caps are installed on the wing tip brakes C/Bs to prevent in-flight reset.
5. Is a logbook (FDML) entry required if a circuit breaker is reset (re-engaged) on

the ground as well as if the Captain uses emergency authority to reset a c/b when
airborne? Reference: FOM 4.9.1
On the Ground:
 Resetting Tripped CB. A circuit breaker tripped by an unknown cause may be reset
as part of an approved maintenance trouble-shooting process or after maintenance
determines the cause of the tripped circuit breaker and that it may be safely reset. A
logbook entry is required if a circuit breaker is reset.
 Cycling CB. A circuit breaker may be cycled when part of a written flight crew
procedure or an approved maintenance trouble-shooting procedure. In addition, a
circuit breaker may be cycled one time on the ground, when necessary, to assist with
general trouble-shooting or as instructed by Maintenance.
In Flight:
 Resetting or Cycling a Tripped CB. Do not reset a tripped circuit breaker or cycle a
circuit breaker unless consistent with an approved maintenance troubleshooting
process, written flight crew procedure, or unless the captain deems the reset/cycle
necessary to safely complete the flight. A logbook entry is required if a tripped circuit
breaker is reset.
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Scenario #2: Airborne, an A320 experiences a loss of AC bus 1 and 2.

Automatically the RAT deploys and approximately 8 seconds later the emergency
generator provides essential power. The crew completes all non-normal ECAM and
QRH Follow-up checklists and lands without further complication. (For West
aircrews use tail number 602 and East crews use 113).
6. What busses will the batteries power during the 8 seconds between RAT
extension and emergency generator coupling? What essential busses are powered
once the emergency generator is coupled? Reference: TM 7f.1.6
If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and airspeed is above 100 kts the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
automatically deploys. The RAT pressurizes the blue hydraulic system which drives the
emergency generator. Emergency generator output (5 KVA) is considerably lower than the
main generators (90 KVA). Once the emergency generator is up to speed (approximately 8
seconds) it supplies power to the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS (via the ESS TR). During
RAT deployment and prior to emergency generator coupling the batteries supply power to
these buses.
7. What does a red FAULT light on the EMER ELEC PWR panel indicate? Reference:
TM 7f.2.3
This light illuminates red if the emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1
and AC BUS 2 are not powered.
8. Which (#1 and/or #2) MCDU, FMGC, EFIS, and ECAM screens will be available
on battery power only and which will be available with the EMERG GEN operating?
Reference: QRH page 18/19
EMER GEN BAT ONLY

IN FLIGHT ON THE GROUND
PFD 1 Norm Norm Norm (Lost when speed < 50 kt)
ND 1 Norm Inop Inop
Upper ECAM Norm Norm Norm (Lost when speed < 50 kt)
Lower ECAM Inop Inop Inop
FMGS (NAV Function) #1 only Inop Inop
MCDU #1 only Inop Inop
9. If a go around occurs, what must be done to recover the emergency generator?

Reference: QRH page 113
For aircraft with old FWC software installed: When L/G up-locked, reset emergency
generator (EMER ELEC PWR ... MAN ON).
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Powerplant
Scenario #1: You report for duty in PHX for a flight to CLT and find that the aircraft
is an A321 with IAE engines. The OAT is 38°C and the TPS indicates the flight will
be full. The final W & B arrives as the pushback begins and indicates THRUST
BUMP is required for takeoff. The FO places the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START
for engine start.
1. The engine start sequence is controlled by the FADEC. What powers the FADEC
and how many channels does it have? Reference: TM 7p.1.3.
Each engine has a Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) which performs complete
engine management for start sequencing, maintains operating limits in both forward and
reverse thrust, and provides optimum fuel efficiency. Each FADEC has two-channel (A & B)
redundancy. One channel is always active while the other is a backup designed to take over
automatically in case of primary channel failure. The system has its own alternator making
it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 rpm is above a set value. If this
alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches over to aircraft electrical power.
Each FADEC has an Engine Interface Unit (EIU) which receives signals from various systems
and sources and transmits appropriate data to the FADEC for engine management. The
FADEC maintains a reference N1 computed as a function of thrust lever position, ambient
conditions, and bleed configuration. It increases idle speed for bleed demands, high engine
or IDG temperatures, and approach configuration. It also limits engine
acceleration/deceleration thus preventing engine stalls or flameouts. Except during engine
start, the FADEC does not provide warning for exceeding EGT limits.
2. The FO places the ENG MASTER to ON and as the engine starts, N2 turns green
and increases to 15% but N1 still displays amber crosses. Is this normal?
Reference: PH 2b.11.3
 CFM: Do not place the ENG master switch ON before all amber crosses and messages
have disappeared on engine parameters.
 IAE: Do not place the ENG master switch ON before all amber crosses (except N1
and N2) and messages have disappeared on engine parameters. The N1 and N2
indications show amber crosses, until the actual N1 and N2 reach between 3.5% and
6%.
3. When and how is Thrust Bump engaged (armed) and what is the indication?
Reference: PH 2c.8.2, PH 2c.8.3
If performance requires the use of thrust bump, depress either pushbutton to activate
during the Captains Taxi flow.
Note: Do not engage thrust bump until both engines are running. Ensure “B” is illuminated
in upper ECAM.
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4. If the crew were to receive a new W & B that does not require the use of Thrust
Bump, how would you disengage (disarm) Thrust Bump prior to takeoff?
Reference: TM 7p.1.4
The thrust bump is used to obtain additional thrust during takeoff. Maximum thrust increase
is obtained with TLA at TOGA position. It is armed by a guarded pushbutton on each thrust
lever. Thrust bump is armed when:
 aircraft is on ground,
 corresponding engine is running,
 the engine is in EPR mode (IAE)
 either thrust bump pushbutton depressed
 on the ground by depressing either bump pushbutton and thrust levers are not
above FLX/MCT
Activation - Deactivation
Thrust bump becomes active when:
 thrust lever is set above MCT position
Note: When thrust bump is used for takeoff it will in case of go around (TOGA) selection. If
thrust bump is engaged in the EPR mode and an N1 mode reversion occurs during takeoff,
thrust bump will remain active for takeoff.
Scenario #2: When cleared for takeoff, the PF mistakenly places the thrust levers
in the CLIMB Detent, resulting in a thrust lever angle corresponding to 72% N1.
5. Both engines stop accelerating after reaching 60% N1. Why? Reference: TM
7p.1.3, PH 2d.1.2
On the ground at low airspeeds the Electronic Engine Computer (EEC) protects against fan
blade flutter. The EEC prevents the engine from stabilizing between an approximate range
of 60% to 74% N1. During engine acceleration on the ground, the pilot may notice a non-
linear response to thrust lever movement.
Caution: Due to N1 fan blade flutter, IAE engines should not maintain prolonged thrust
settings between 61%-74% N1 while on the ground. Asymmetric thrust can occur if the
pilot incorrectly stabilizes thrust settings above 1.05 EPR.
6. Will an ECAM warning appear and are there normal FMA indications when a
takeoff is attempted with the thrust levers in the CLIMB detent? Reference: TM
7d.1.12, PH 2d.1.2
If a FLEX temperature was not entered in the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in
the FLEX detent, a warning will be generated. In this case, move the thrust levers to TOGA
detent and execute a max thrust takeoff. When the thrust levers are moved to the TOGA
detent, the warning will be cancelled.
The system is armed on the ground by setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent
when the engines are running. A/THR activation is confirmed when “A/THR” is displayed in
white in the column five of the FMA. The operating mode of the A/THR is displayed in green
in column one.
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7. When is Thrust Bump activated? Reference: TM 7p.1.4
Thrust bump becomes active when thrust lever is set above MCT position.
8. Thrust Bump remains engaged (armed) for the entire flight. How is Thrust
Bump disengaged (disarmed) after landing? Reference: TM 7p.1.4

 on the ground by depressing either bump pushbutton and thrust levers are not
above FLX/MCT
Fire Protection
Scenario #1: You report for duty to a "cold" airplane. This is the first flight of the
day and there is no ground electric power available. You begin by accomplishing
the Safety & Power On Checklist.
1. What are the indications when you accomplish the APU fire test prior to
establishing electrical power? Reference: PH 2a.7.3, TM 7g.2.2
Check:
 MASTER WARN lights illuminated, CRC, APU FIRE warning on E/WD, and APU page
on SD. (Only available with AC power)
2. Is the Captain required to accomplish another APU fire test during his
Flightdeck Preparation Flow? Reference: PH 2a.7.3
If Full (AC power must be available to accomplish a full APU FIRE TEST) APU FIRE TEST was
not done in conjunction with the Safety & Power On Checklist, then this check is considered
not accomplished and must be done now.
Scenario #1 continued: You are now in cruise at FL360.
3. If the following ECAM appears: ENG 1 FIRE LOOP A FAULT, will you still receive
a fire warning if a fire occurs in engine 1? Reference: TM 7g.1.2
Each engine is equipped with two identical detection loops (A & B). Each loop contain three
heat sensing elements and a Fire Detection Unit (FDU). The sensing elements are located in
the pylon nacelle, engine core, and fan section. The FDU issues a fire warning when both
loops detect an overheat. If one loop fails, the fire warning system remains operational with
the other loop. A fire warning is also issued if both loops fail within five seconds of each
other (flame effect).
An engine fire is indicated by an aural CRC and illumination of the ENG FIRE pb, MASTER
WARN lights, and FIRE light on the engine panel (pedestal). Each engine is equipped with
two fire extinguishers. They are discharged by pressing the associated AGENT DISCH pb on
the respective overhead engine FIRE panel.
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4. How many smoke detectors must detect cargo smoke to issue the following
ECAM: SMOKE FWD CARGO SMOKE? Reference: TM 7g.1.4
Both cargo compartments are equipped with smoke detector loops. The forward
compartment contains two smoke detectors in the A319/320 and four smoke detectors in
the A321. On the A319/320, the aft compartment contains two loops each with two smoke
detectors each. On the A321, the aft compartment contains three loops each with two
smoke detectors in each. A Smoke Detection Control Unit (SDCU) issues a smoke
warning when two smoke detectors on one loop detect smoke. If one smoke detector fails,
the system remains operational with the other detector.
Cargo smoke is indicated by an aural CRC, the illumination of the MASTER WARN and
CARGO SMOKE light on the overhead CARGO SMOKE panel. One extinguisher bottle supplies
one nozzle in the forward compartment and two nozzles in the aft compartment. The agent
is discharged by pressing either the FWD or AFT DISCH pb. If the cargo smoke warning is
activated in either compartment, the associated isolation valves close and the extraction
fan stops
5. Is the ECAM action for SMOKE FWD CARGO SMOKE: "AGENT … DISCH" a confirm
item? If so, why? Reference: PH 9.1.5, TM 7g.1.4
Confirm correct items before performing the ECAM action:

 Thrust Lever
 Engine Master
 Engine Fire pb
 Cargo Smoke DISCH pb
 IR pbs/Selectors
 IDG
6. Do the lavatories have any fire protection? Reference: TM 7g.1.5.
Each lavatory is equipped with a smoke detector. If smoke is detected, a signal is sent to
the Smoke Detection Control Unit (SDCU) which triggers a smoke warning. Lavatory smoke
is indicated by an aural CRC, the illumination of the MASTER WARN light, a red ECAM
message SMOKE LAVATORY SMOKE, and to the CIDS panel for warning in the cabin. Each
lavatory waste bin is protected by a self-contained extinguisher which discharges
automatically in case of fire.
7. You receive an AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM, along with BLOWER and EXTRACT fault
lights on the overhead VENTILATION panel, and a SMOKE light on the overhead
EMER ELEC PWR panel. Where is the correct procedure found? Reference: QRH
QRH Immediate Actions Index directs you to page iv: SMOKE/AVIONICS SMOKE/FUMES
Immediate Actions.
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Fuel
Scenario #1: Your aircraft is an A320 and your fuel at the gate is 35,000 pounds.
1. During the Flightdeck Preparation Flow the Captain notes the center tank fuel
quantity is 11,000 pounds. Are the wing tanks full? Reference: PH 1.6.1, TM 7j.1.6
A319/320 A321
Wing Tanks 27,500 lbs. 27,500 lbs.
Center Tank 14,500 lbs. 14,500 lbs.
ACT N/A 10,500 lbs.
Total 42,000 lbs. 52,500 lbs.
35,000 lbs. Gate Fuel – 11,000 lbs. Center Tank Fuel = 24,000 lbs. Wing Tank Fuel
Since the A320 Wing tank capacity is 27,500 lbs., the wing tanks are not full.
2. With fuel in the center tank, will the center tank pumps operate after each
engine start? Reference: TM 7j.1.8
A319/320 tanks empty in the following fuel feed sequence:

1. center tank
2. inner tanks (down to 1650 lbs. in the center tank)
3. outer tanks (fuel transferred into the inner tanks)
With the fuel MODE SEL pb in AUTO the center tank pumps operate for two minutes after
both engines are started to confirm center tank operation prior to takeoff. During takeoff
and approach fuel feed is wing tank to respective engine. After takeoff the center tank
pumps restart when the slats are retracted.
With the fuel MODE SEL pb in MAN, the center tank fuel pumps operate continuously. The
crew must select the CTR TK PUMP pbs OFF when the center tank is empty.
The center tank pumps operate for five minutes after fuel low level is sensed by the auto
shut off.
The wing tank transfer valves automatically latch open when the wing inner cell fuel
quantity drops to 1,650 lbs thus allowing the outer cell fuel to drain into the inner cell. The
transfer valves open simultaneously in both wings and remain open until the next refueling
operation. During steep descents and acceleration/deceleration, the transfer valves may
open prematurely and trigger a LO LVL warning.
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3. With the center tank supplying fuel in flight, why would the center tank pumps
stop and allow the wing tanks to feed the engines? Reference: TM 7j.1.9
Fuel Recirculation System - Integrated Drive generator (IDG) cooling is accomplished by

fuel. Fuel from the high pressure pump passes through the IDG heat exchanger and returns
to the respective wing outer cell (A319/320) or wing tank (A321) through a fuel return
valve. The FADEC regulates IDG cooling.
A319/320: If the outer cell is full, the re-circulated fuel overflows to the inner cell. To
prevent wing tank overflow when the center tank is supplying fuel, the center tank pumps
automatically stop when the wing inner cell is full. The wing tanks feed the engines until
approximately 1100 lbs. of fuel has been used from the wing tank(s) and the center tank
pumps restart.
Scenario #2: You are now flying an A321 in cruise with fuel in all tanks.
4. If both fuel pumps in either wing tank fail, can you still use that wing tank fuel?
Reference: TM 7j.1.5
On the A319/320 there are six main pumps; two in each wing tank inner cell and two in the
center tank. The A321 has four main pumps; two in each wing tank and two jet pumps in
the center tank. The wing tank pumps operate continuously when selected on. If the wing
tank pumps fail, gravity feed is possible only from the inner wing cells (A319/320), or the
wing tanks (A321).
All wing tank pumps remain on throughout the flight. They are fitted with pressure relief
sequence valves which ensures that, when all pumps are running, the center tanks will
deliver fuel preferentially.
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5. Which fuel tank(s) should empty first and what powers the transfer? Reference:
TM 7j.1.8
A321: The wing tanks feed fuel to the engines. The tanks empty in the following sequence:
1. Aft ACT (2) transfers fuel into the center tank
2. Forward ACT (1) transfers fuel into the center tank
4. Wing tanks
With the MODE SEL pb in AUTO, the Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit (FLSCU) has automatic
control of the transfer valves. When either transfer valve is open, fuel from the wing tank
pumps flows through the jet pump and creates suction. This suction moves the fuel from
the center tank to the related wing tank. The FLSCU automatically closes the associated
center tank transfer valve when the wing tank is full. The transfer valve reopens the center
tank transfer valve when the engines have used 550 lbs of wing tank fuel.
With the MODE SEL pb in MAN, the center tank transfer valves open. Wing tank overflow
must be prevented by selecting the CTR TK XFR pbs OFF when the wing tanks are full. They
must also be selected OFF when the center tank is empty.
With the ACT pb in AUTO, automatic control of the transfer occurs after takeoff at slats
retraction. It is initiated if the center tank high level sensor has been dry for 10 minutes and
fuel remains in either ACT. Fuel transfer from the ACTs to the center tank is made by
pressurizing the ACT by closing the ACT vent valves, and opening the air shutoff and inlet
valve. During transfer, if the center tank high level sensor gets wet, transfer from the ACT
stops. The transfer valve opens when the center tank high sensor is dry for 10 minutes.
6. Does the center tank feed the engines? Reference: TM 7j.1.8
No – See question 5 above.
7. What powers the fuel transfer from the center tank to the wing tanks?
Reference: TM 7j.1.8
When either transfer valve is open, fuel from the wing tank pumps flows through the jet
pump and creates suction. This suction moves the fuel from the center tank to the related
wing tank. See question 5 above.
8. While checking the fuel page during the HEFOE check, the crew notices an
amber line across the last two digits of a fuel quantity indication. What does this
mean? Reference: TM 7j.2.4
An amber line appears across the last two digits when the FQI is inaccurate.
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AIRBUS A319/320/321
2012 – 2013
Updated : 04/01/12
Hydraulics
Scenario #1: During the Flightdeck Preparation Flow the captain notes the ACCU PRESS is not in the
green band.
1. How can the brake accumulator be recharged? Reference: TM 7k.1.5, PH 2a.7.3
The accumulator must be in the green band. If required, use the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to recharge the brake
accumulator.
WARNING: Yellow and green hydraulic systems are pressurized from the yellow electric pump through the PTU.
Check with ground crew prior to activating the pump.
2. Does activating the Y ELEC pump power the green and/or blue hydraulic systems as well?
Reference: TM 7k.1.5, PH 2a.7.3
The PTU is a reversible motor-pump located between the green and yellow hydraulic systems. It enables the
green system to pressurize the yellow system, and vice versa, without fluid transfer. The PTU is automatically
activated when the differential pump pressure output between the green and yellow systems exceeds a
predetermined value. On the ground, when the engines are not running, the PTU enables the yellow system electric
pump to pressurize the green system. Operation of the PTU is displayed on the ECAM hydraulic page and indicated
via an ECAM memo.
The PTU is inhibited on the ground with one ENG MASTER on and one ENG MASTER off, and PARK BRK ON or NWS
STRG DIS. PTU is inhibited during and 40 seconds following cargo door operation.
3. (True or False) It is a requirement to check the triple indicator when the landing gear handle is
positioned down, per SOPs. Reference: PH 2.5.3
After landing gear extension, the PM will ensure no residual brake pressure on the triple indicator.
Note: On Enhanced aircraft, as part of system self-tests, brake pressure indications may be observed on the triple
indicator for a brief period after landing gear extension.
Landing Gear and Brakes
Scenario #1: With extension of the landing gear the WHEEL page is automatically displayed. An amber
cross at the nose gear indicator has the pilots' attention.
1. What does an amber cross in place of a normally viewed green triangle mean? Reference: TM 7m.2.6
The landing gear positions are indicated by 2 triangles for each gear. Each triangle is controlled by one LGCIU.
 green triangle when one LGCIU detects landing gear downlocked
 red triangle when one LGCIU detects landing gear is in transit/ not locked in selected position
 no triangle when one LGCIU detects landing gear uplocked
 amber crosses in one case of LGCIU failure
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2. Does the failure of a single LGCIU affect gear and / or gear door operation? Reference: TM 7m.1.2
Two LGCIUs provide operation, sequencing, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear and cargo doors.
Landing gear proximity sensors provide signals to the LGCIUs for landing gear position, shock absorber status
(air/ground mode), and gear doors position. One LGCIU controls one complete cycle of the gear and then
automatically switches control to the other unit. If one LGCIU unit fails, the other unit takes over. In the case
of a proximity sensor failure, the affected LGCIU continues to provide signals on gear and shock absorber position
to the other LGCIU now in control of landing gear operation.
The cargo doors have proximity switches that provide position information to the LGCIUs. If an electrical failure of
the cargo door locking shaft, locking handle or safety shaft is detected, a non-locked condition is displayed on the
ECAM.
Scenario #2: As the aircraft begins to taxi away from the gate a brake check is required.
3. What is the purpose of this brake check? Reference: PH 2c.3.6
The purpose of the brake check is to check brake efficiency, that green hydraulic pressure has taken over, and that
yellow hydraulic pressure is at zero on the brake pressure triple indicator.
Caution: If the aircraft has been parked in wet conditions for a long period, the efficiency of the first brake
application at slow speed may be reduced.
4. If the aircraft fails to slow (green hydraulics has not taken over) what procedure should be
accomplished? Reference: PH 2c.3.6, TM 7m.2.5.
In case of complete loss of braking, accomplish Loss of Braking procedure:
If Autobrake is selected:
1. Brake Pedals … Press
If no braking available:
1. REV … MAX
2. Brake Pedals … Release
Brake pedals should be released when the A/SKID & N/W STRG selector is switched OFF, since pedal force
produces more braking action in alternate mode than in normal mode.
3. A/SKID & N/W STRG … OFF
4. Brake Pedals … Press
Apply brakes with care since initial pedal force or displacement produces more braking action in alternate
mode than normal mode.
5. MAX BRK PR … 1000 psi
Monitor brake pressure on BRAKES PRESS indicator. Limit brake pressure to approximately 1000 psi and
at low ground speed adjust brake pressure as required.
If still no braking:
1. Parking Brake … Short & Successive Application
Use short and successive brake applications to stop the aircraft. Brake onset asymmetry may be felt at
each parking brake application. If possible delay use of parking brake until low speed, to reduce the risk of
tire burst and lateral control difficulties.
5. The Loss of Braking procedure requires A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF. How will this action give the
pilot brakes again? Reference: PH 2i.13
Normal brakes are available on the ground with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch ON and green hydraulic pressure
available. Normal braking is applied manually by brake pedal pressure or automatically by the autobrake system. A
dual channel Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU) controls normal braking and antiskid. The BSCU checks
residual pressure in the brake system, monitors brake temperatures and provides wheel speed information to other
systems. Normal brake pressure indication is not displayed to the crew. A changeover between the two BSCU
channels takes place at each landing gear DOWN selection.
Alternate braking capability is the same as normal brakes, except autobrakes are not available. The yellow
hydraulic system is automatically selected if green hydraulic system pressure is insufficient. The yellow
hydraulic system is backed-up by a hydraulic accumulator. The alternate braking system is controlled by the BSCU
on basic aircraft and by an Alternate Braking Control Unit (ABCU) on enhanced aircraft.
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6. (True or False) On some aircraft (enhanced) brake pressure is auto limited to 1000 psi with the
A/SKID and N/W STRG switch OFF. Reference: TM 7m.2.5, TM 7m.1.10
Alternate Brakes without Anti-Skid or accumulator pressure only: Without anti-skid, brake pressure must be limited
by monitoring the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS indicator (Basic AC). On enhanced aircraft, the ABCU automatically
limits brake pressure to 1,000 psi. If green and yellow hydraulic pressure is insufficient, the yellow hydraulic
system accumulator can provide pressure for at least seven full brake applications.
Scenario #3: The crew is preparing for a CAT III approach into KPHL. As part of the approach briefing,
autobrake usage is discussed.
7. Are autobrakes recommended for a CAT III landing? Reference: Reference: PH 2g.12.8
Use of the autobrake system, if available, in MED or LOW is normal procedure for:
 All landings on wet and slippery runways
 When landing rollout distance is limited
 When aircraft configuration requires use of higher than normal approach speeds
 A crosswind component greater than 10 knots
 All CAT II/III landings
8. If MED is selected, when would the autobrake system engage? Reference: Reference: PH 2g.12.8
When LO is selected, autobraking begins four (4) seconds after the ground spoilers are deployed and two (2)
seconds after deployment if MED is selected.
9. If the DECEL light fails to illuminate green, does this mean the autobrake system has faulted?
Reference: Reference: TM 7m.2.5
The DECEL light illuminates green only if the autobrake function is active and when actual aircraft deceleration
corresponds to predetermined rate. In LO or MED: 80% of the selected rate.
Note: On slippery runways, the predetermined deceleration may not be reached due to antiskid operation. In this
case DECEL light will not illuminate. This does not mean that autobrake is not working.
Flight Controls
Scenario #1: There have been multiple failures of redundant systems, this has placed the aircraft in
Alternate Law. ECAM displays the message “ALTN LAW: PROT LOST”.
 Ground Mode: The ground mode is identical to normal law.

 Flight Mode: In pitch alternate law the flight mode is a load factor demand law similar to the normal law
flight mode with reduced protections. In alternate law, automatic pitch trim is available and yaw damping
(with limited authority) is available. Turn coordination is lost. There is no roll alternate law. Pitch law
degrades from normal law roll degrades into direct law. In this case roll rate depends on airspeed.
1. What protections are lost? Reference: TM 7h.1.6
All protections except for load factor maneuvering protection are lost. Amber X’s replace the green “=” attitude
limits on the PFD. Bank angle protection is lost.
2. If the aircraft entered the low speed regime a nose down command would be introduced. Can this
command be overridden with sidestick input? Reference: TM 7h.1.6
A low speed stability function replaces the normal angle-of-attack protection. The system introduces a progressive
nose-down command which attempts to keep the speed from slowing further. This command can be overridden by
sidestick input.
Some failures cause the system to revert to alternate law without speed stability. Only load factor protection is
provided.
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3. Can the aircraft be stalled in alternate law? Reference: TM 7h.1.6
The airplane can be stalled in alternate law. An audio stall warning consisting of “crickets” and a “STALL” aural
message is activated.
In alternate law the PFD airspeed scale is modified. While VLS remains displayed, Valpha prot and Valpha max are
removed. They are replaced by a red and black barber pole. The top of the pole indicates the stall warning speed
(VSW).
4. Will alpha floor engage to help prevent a stall? Reference: TM 7h.1.6
The alpha floor function is inoperative.
Scenario #2: Something has caused the autopilot to disconnect while descending to FL250. The PF
reaches for the sidestick and finds the response incorrect. When the PM moves his sidestick a “DUAL
INPUT” audio message occurs.
5. What does DUAL INPUT mean? Reference: TM 7h.2.2

 When only one pilot operates the sidestick, it sends his control signals to the computers.
 When the other pilot operates his sidestick in the same or opposite direction, the system adds the signals
deflection of a single sidestick. In this condition, on some aircraft, both green CAPT and F/O SIDE STICK
PRIORITY lights flash and a “DUAL INPUT” audio voice message is given every five seconds as long as
6. How does the PM deactivate the faulted sidestick to become the PF? Reference: TM 7h.2.2
A pilot can deactivate the other sidestick and take full control by keeping his priority takeover pb depressed.
7. The priority condition becomes latched after _40_ seconds? Reference: TM 7h.2.2
To latch the priority condition, press the takeover pb for more than 40 seconds. This allows the pilot to release his
takeover pb without losing priority. However, a pilot can at any time reactivate a deactivated sidestick by
momentarily pressing the takeover pb on either sidestick. If both pilots press their takeover pbs, the pilot that
presses last gets priority.
8. What light illuminates in front of the pilot who has lost authority? Reference: TM 7h.2.2
A red light illuminates in front of the pilot whose sidestick is deactivated.
9. If the first officer lost priority, what audio message would be given when the captain took priority?
Reference: TM 7h.2.2
“PRIORITY LEFT”
10. What light would illuminate in front of the captain once he takes priority? Reference: TM 7h.2.2
A green light illuminates in front of the pilot who has taken control, if the other sidestick is not in the neutral
position (indicates a potential and unwanted control demand).
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Autoflight
Scenario #1: “RW 36L, line up and wait”: The aircraft is departing KCLT with a FLEX takeoff
programmed into the FMGC.
1. To ensure the aircraft has entered the takeoff phase, what FMA indication will be displayed in
column 2? Reference: TM 7d.3.3
SRS is displayed in column 2.
FMGS Phase change – Preflight to Takeoff: The FMGS transitions automatically from the preflight phase to the
takeoff phase when the following conditions are met:
 Thrust levers are set to the FLEX or TOGA detent, and
 Left or right EPR is above a defined value, or
 Ground speed is above 90 knots
When the FMGS switches from the PREFLIGHT phase to TAKEOFF phase the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA)
displays MAN TOGA or MAN FLEX XX in column 1.
2. At what altitude AGL does the FMGC switch from the takeoff to climb phase and what is the name for
this switching condition? Reference: TM 7d.3.4
The FMGS switches automatically from TAKEOFF to CLIMB phase when:

 the aircraft reaches Acceleration Altitude (ACC), or
 by engagement of another vertical mode of flight
3. When will the FMGC switch from the CRUISE phase to the DESCENT phase? Reference: TM 7d.3.6
The FMGS switches automatically from CRUISE to the DESCENT phase when:
 Reaching TOP of DESCENT (TOD) as computed in the ACTIVE F-PLN, or
 A lower ALT is selected on the FCU control panel at less than 200 NM to the destination, or
 An ALT is selected on the FCU control panel that is at or below the higher of FL200 or the highest DES ALT
constraint
4. When the aircraft switches automatically from the Approach to the Go Around phase, what indication
will be displayed in column 2 on the FMA? Reference: TM 7d.3.8
Entering the GO-AROUND phase, SRS pitch guidance maintains the current speed at go-around engagement, or
VAPP, whichever is higher. SRS will be displayed in column 2.
The FMGS is designed to switch automatically from the APPROACH phase to the GO-AROUND phase when all of the
following conditions are met:
 Aircraft is in flight or has been on the ground for less than 30 seconds
 Flap lever is in at least CONF 1
 At least one thrust lever has been set to TOGA detent
Scenario #2: The aircraft is being hand flown on a visual approach, autopilot is OFF, flight directors are
ON. The PF is looking outside ignoring the FD command to pitch down. Airspeed slows to VLS -2 kts.
If the DES, OP DES or EXP DE SFD guidance is not flown and speed reaches VLS-2:
 the FD disengages
 V/S mode engages (as installed)
 Speed mode engages
 A/THR increases thrust to regain target speed
5. What will happen to the FD command bars at this low airspeed? Reference: TM 7d.1.18
The FD disengages and the command bars will disappear.
6. The thrust mode changes from _THR IDLE_ to _SPEED_ on the FMA and A/THR _increases_.
Reference: TM 7d.1.18
7. (True or False) The use of speedbrakes could alter the speed at which the mode reversion would
happen? Reference: TM 7d.1.18
If speedbrakes are extended, both FDs disengage between VLS-2 and VLS-19, depending on speedbrake position.
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Pneumatics
Scenario #1: The aircraft is descending with a high bleed demand; packs are in high flow and the wing
/ engine anti-ice is selected ON.
1. If the Bleed Management Computer (BMC) detects that bleed air from the IP stage of the compressor
is insufficient, how is the bleed demand satisfied? Reference: TM 7b.1.2
The BMCs select the compressor stage to use as a source depending on system demand. Bleed air temperature and
pressure are regulated prior to introduction into the pneumatic system. The Pre-cooler, an air-to-air heat
exchanger, utilizes fan air to precool the bleed air. Bleed air is normally bled from the Intermediate Pressure (IP)
stage of the high pressure compressor. When IP stage pressure and temperature are insufficient, a high
pressure bleed valve opens to supply bleed air from the High Pressure (HP) stage.
2. If HP air is still not sufficient to operate the air conditioning and ice protection systems, how would
the demand be satisfied? Reference: TM 7b.1.2
In flight, if the pressure is insufficient even with the HP stage valve open (i.e., engine at idle), the engine idle
speed is automatically increased to provide adequate air pressure.
3. Which source has a higher priority on the pneumatic system; APU bleed air or Engine bleed air?
Air from the APU load compressor is available both on the ground and in flight. The APU bleed air valve operates as
a shutoff valve and is electrically controlled and pneumatically operated. When the APU BLEED pb is ON the
BMCs command the crossbleed valve to open (X BLEED selector in AUTO), and the engine bleed valves
to close. The APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system provided APU speed is more than 95%. The APU can be
used to supply bleed air for air conditioning operation during takeoff, allowing additional thrust to be obtained from
the engines. The maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is 20,000 feet. Additionally, APU air bleed for wing
anti-ice is not permitted.
Scenario #2: After level off at an intermediate altitude, the ECAM alert AIR L ENG BLEED LEAK displays.
4. Will the left engine bleed valve close automatically? Reference: TM7b.1.7



5. What other valve(s) should automatically close when an ENG bleed leak is detected? Reference: TM
7b.1.7
The crossbleed valve closes (except during engine start)
6. Bleed leak detection is available in what other areas of the aircraft? Reference: TM 7b.1.7
Wings, engine pylon, and APU ducting.
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7. (True or False) Hydraulic reservoir and water tank pressurization would be lost. Reference: TM
7b.1.6
Bleed air pressure is supplied to the hydraulic reservoir and water tank from both the left and right systems,
independent of the crossbleed valve position.
Air Conditioning
Scenario #1: The A flight attendant requests another temperature increase in the forward cabin. This is
already the warmest compartment but the pilots make the adjustment.
1. Does increasing the forward zone temperature change the output temperature of the packs?
No, individual zone temperature is adjusted by mixing hot bleed air, through the trim air valves, into the zone
distribution network.
The air conditioning system operates automatically. It uses air from the engine(s), APU, or external air cart to
maintain the selected temperature in the following three zones:
 flight deck
 forward cabin
 aft cabin
Air from the crossbleed manifold flows to a pack flow control valve and is directed to two air conditioning packs.
Conditioned air from the packs flows into a mixing unit where it is mixed with filtered air returned from the cabin
by recirculating fans. The mixed air is then discharged into the cabin. Pack output temperature regulation is
determined by the zone requiring the coldest air. Hot trim air is tapped upstream of the packs and added to the
individual zone distribution plumbing to maintain desired zone temperatures.
Temperature regulation is achieved through one zone controller and two pack controllers, or through two air
conditioning system controllers, as installed. Temperature selectors on the cockpit air conditioning panel
allow the crew to set the desired temperature for each zone. Enhanced aircraft allow the cabin crew, using
the flight attendant panel, to modify each cabin zone temperature that is selected from the cockpit with a limited
authority of +/-4° F.
zones. It receives information from various temperature and flow sensors, compares these signals with the zone
temperatures selected by the crew, and then directs the pack controllers to deliver air at the coolest demanded
temperature to the mixing unit. Individual zone temperature is adjusted by mixing hot bleed air, through
the trim air valves, into the zone distribution network. The temperature selection range is from 64°F to 86°F
There are two dual-channel pack controllers, one for each pack. These controllers receive commands from the
zone controller and adjust the associated pack outlet temperature to the coldest demanded zone
temperature. The controllers regulate bleed air flow through the packs by modulating the associated pack flow
control valve.
2. How does the system increase temperature in the forward zone? Reference: TM 7b.2.1
Individual zone temperature is adjusted by mixing hot bleed air, through the trim air valves, into the zone
distribution network.
3. Is there a way the crew could directly control the output temperature of the packs individually?
No, Temperature regulation is achieved through one zone controller and two pack controllers, or through two air
conditioning system controllers, as installed. Temperature selectors on the cockpit air conditioning panel allow the
crew to set the desired temperature for each zone.
4. If both PACK controllers failed, how would the cabin be ventilated? Reference: TM 7b.2.1
If both channels of a pack controller fail, pack outlet temperature is controlled by the respective pack anti-ice
valve. ECAM signals related to the corresponding pack are lost.
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Scenario #2: Just after the aircraft lands in KPHL heavy rain showers begin. The crew considers the
significance of the weather on the avionics ventilation system.
5. How would the pilots prevent water from entering the avionics bay through the open skin air inlet
valve? Reference: PH 3.2.5
When the aircraft is parked during heavy rain, water can enter the avionics ventilation system via the open skin air
inlet valve. After Landing:
1. EXTRACT Pushbutton ... OVRD
2. PACKS 1 and 2 Pushbuttons ... Check ON (Adds air conditioning system air to the ventilation air)
6. Will the blower fan continue to operate and provide cooling with the extract valve in OVRD?
Reference: TM 7b.8
Yes - When either BLOWER or EXTRACT pb is in OVRD:

 The system goes to closed circuit configuration.
 Air from the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.
The blower fan stops ONLY if the BLOWER pb is in the OVRD position.
When both pbs are in OVRD:

 Air flows from the air conditioning system and then overboard.
 The extract fan continues to operate.
7. If outside air temperature was above 45°C, what would be the time limit in this configuration?
Reference: PH 3.2.5
If bleed air is not available, this arrangement can function for a limited time as follows:
 OAT <= 39°C: no limit
 39°C > OAT < 45°C: 3 hours
 OAT >= 45°C: 30 minutes
Pressurization
Scenario #1: During the FHPED check, the crew notes SYS 1 is the active pressurization controller.
1. If, during flight, the pilot suspects SYS 1 is not performing properly, how can SYS 2 be selected?
Reference: TM 7b.7
If the pilot suspects the operating pressurization system is not performing properly, attempt to select the other
system by switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN for at least 10 seconds, then returning it to AUTO.
2. When do the pressurization controllers normally swap control of the system? Reference: TM 7b.3.2
In the automatic mode, one cabin pressure controller is active and the other serves as backup. If the active
controller fails, the backup automatically assumes control. After each landing, the two controllers swap roles.
Scenario #2: Due to an inflight emergency, the aircraft is diverting to an airport that is not stored in
the FMGC database.
3. Where would the pressurization system receive destination airport elevation from if not available
from FMGCs? Reference: TM 7b.3.2
The active controller receives signals from the ADIRS, FMGC, and other sources to optimize cabin pressurization by
maintaining a predetermined profile. Departure and destination elevations are received from the FMGC. If FMGC
data are not available, the crew must select the destination airport elevation on the LDG ELEV selector. The
pressurization system then uses the manually-selected landing field elevation for internal pressurization schedules.
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Scenario #1: The aircraft has been at FL330 for a prolonged period of time, the crew notes the wing
inner fuel tank temperature has decreased to -37°.
1. What options should be considered to increase fuel temperature? Reference: PH 3.6.8
The company normally uses fuel types with freeze point of –40°C. During prolonged flight in very cold
environment, monitor fuel temperature. If wing inner tank fuel temperature approaches the fuel freeze point plus
3°C, consider the following:
 change altitude into a warmer air mass
 change course into a warmer air mass
 increase Mach number, which results in higher TAT
Scenario #1 continued: Without warning the flighdeck windshield cracks. The crew refers to the QRH
Flightdeck Windshield or Window Cracked procedure.
2. If the crack is NOT on the interior surface, should an immediate descent be initiated (per the
procedure)? Reference: QRH 16
The interior window surface is not affected. Therefore, the window/windshield is still able to sustain the maximum
differential pressure at the current flight level and normal operation may be continued.
3. If the crack IS on the interior surface, the maximum flight level is FL230, Why? Reference: QRH 16
The maximum flight level is restricted to FL230 to obtain 5 PSI cabin pressure differential without excessive cabin
altitude and EXCESS CAB ALT warning.
Instruments/Navigation/Communications
Scenario #1: Departing KSAN, climbing through 7000ft., an airspeed discrepancy is noted between the
captain and first officers PFDs. Unreliable airspeed has been identified by the crew. Reference is made
to the Unreliable Speed Indication / ADR Check procedure in the QRH.
1. The initial pitch attitude is _10°_, thrust should be set at _CLB_? Reference: QRH Immediate Action
2. Where could the crew monitor an alternate source of speed while taking the time to determine the
reliable data source? Reference: TM 7i.2.6, QRH 69
To monitor speed, refer to IRS Groundspeed variations or GPS Ground Speed (as installed) variations.
The ground speed is displayed in the upper left-hand corner of the ND.
3. Is the attitude and heading information still valid with unreliable ADR data? Reference: TM 7n.1.3
Yes - There are three identical ADIRUs installed on the airplane. Each ADIRU consists of two parts: an Air Data
Reference (ADR) and a laser gyro Inertial Reference (IR). The ADR and IR parts of each ADIRU may operate
independently and failure of one system does not render the other inoperative.
Air Data Reference (ADR): Supplies barometric altitude, speed, Mach number, angle of attack, temperature, and
overspeed warnings and vertical velocity indicated with IR failure.
Backup Speed and Altitude Scale (As installed): When all three ADR’s are selected OFF in flight backup speed and
altitude scales replace the normal PFD scales. The backup speed scale displays optimum speeds based on angle-of
attack and slat/flap configuration. The backup altitude scale displays GPS altitude.
Inertial Reference (IR): Supplies attitude, heading, track, acceleration, groundspeed, vertical speeds, aircraft
position, and flight path vector. Navigational computations are processed by the FMGCs based on position data
supplied by the IR.
Sensors: The ADIRU receives inputs from several sensors (pitot/static probes, AOA sensors, TAT probes) and
provides information to various aircraft systems including the flight management system, flight control computers,
EFIS displays, and engine controllers (FADEC).
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4. (True or False) ADIRU #3 supplies data to the ISIS / STBY instrument system. Reference: TM 7n.1.3
The ISIS / STBY system is supplied by inputs from separate STBY pitot/static ports.
Scenario #2: Along the route of flight there is significant traffic congestion. ATC begins rerouting
several aircraft for spacing. Currently your aircraft is on a heading of 360°, 300 miles from destination.
5. If the aircraft was assigned to fly the 160° radial to the next waypoint (XYZ VOR), what MCDU page
would be used to complete the modification? Reference: TM 7d.3.4 Lateral route revisions
Using the DIR key, the pilot may select the option of proceeding Direct To, with Abeam Points, or a Radial In or
Radial Out of a reference waypoint. Select RADIAL IN (160) to proceed directly to intercept a Radial TO a reference
fix.
6. The next ATC assignment has the aircraft crossing 20 miles north of the XYZ VOR (TO waypoint) at
FL220, what must be entered into the scratchpad to create this pilot defined waypoint? Reference: TM
7d.3.4 Pilot defined (PD) WPTs function
XYZ/-20
7. After the vertical constraint of FL220 is entered in the flight plan a magenta circle is displayed
around the PD waypoint on the ND, what does the magenta circle indicate? Reference: TM 7d.3.4
Vertical Guidance
 Circled magenta when entered altitude constraint is matched

 Circled amber if the altitude constraint is missed
8. ATC changes their mind for the final time, the new vertical clearance is to cross XZY AT or BELOW
FL220, descend to FL200. How is an AT or BELOW constraint entered in the FMS? Reference: TM 7d.3.4
Building an altitude constraint
For “AT OR BELOW” altitude constraints, enter the altitude or FL preceded or followed by a minus “–” sign.
Scenario #3: The aircraft experiences a dual FMGC failure and the flight is diverting to an alternate
airport. Weather conditions are VMC but the crew would like to tune the ILS approach for situational
awareness.
9. How is the ILS remotely tuned? Reference: TM 7e.2.1
The pilot presses the NAV key on the RMP to select navigation receivers and courses through the RMP. It does not
affect the selection of communication radios and their frequencies.
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10. Does remote tuning affect communication capabilities? Reference: TM 7e.2.1
Pressing the NAV key on the RMP does not affect the selection of communication radios and their frequencies.
11. Since the FMGCs failed to auto-reset, is there a manual reset procedure and where would you find
that procedure? Reference: QRH
QRH page 95. Computer Resets – MCDU/FMGC (listed as Miscellaneous in the QRH Alphabetical Index)
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AIRBUS A319/320/321
2013 – 2014
Updated : 04/05/13
Pneumatics
Scenario #1: The aircraft is descending with a high bleed demand; packs are in high flow and the wing
/ engine anti-ice is selected ON.
1. If the Bleed Management Computer (BMC) detects that bleed air from the IP stage of the compressor
is insufficient, how is the bleed demand satisfied?
Reference: TM 3.3.2
The BMCs select the compressor stage to use as a source depending on system demand. Bleed air temperature and
pressure are regulated prior to introduction into the pneumatic system. The Pre-cooler, an air-to-air heat
exchanger, utilizes fan air to precool the bleed air. Bleed air is normally bled from the Intermediate Pressure (IP)
stage of the high pressure compressor. When IP stage pressure and temperature are insufficient, a high pressure
bleed valve opens to supply bleed air from the High Pressure (HP) stage.
2. If HP air is still not sufficient to operate the air conditioning and ice protection systems, how would
the demand be satisfied?
Reference: TM 3.3.2
In flight, if the pressure is insufficient even with the HP stage valve open (i.e., engine at idle), the engine idle
speed is automatically increased to provide adequate air pressure.
3. Which source has a higher priority on the pneumatic system; APU bleed air or Engine bleed air?
Reference: TM 3.3.3
Air from the APU load compressor is available both on the ground and in flight. The APU bleed air valve operates as
a shutoff valve and is electrically controlled and pneumatically operated. When the APU BLEED pb is ON the BMCs
command the crossbleed valve to open (X BLEED selector in AUTO), and the engine bleed valves to close. The APU
bleed air supplies the pneumatic system provided APU speed is more than 95%.
The APU can be used to supply bleed air for air conditioning operation during takeoff, allowing additional thrust to
be obtained from the engines. The maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is 20,000 feet. Additionally, APU air
bleed for wing anti-ice is not permitted.
Scenario #2: After level off at an intermediate altitude, the ECAM alert AIR L ENG BLEED LEAK displays.
4. Will the left engine bleed valve close automatically?

Reference: TM 3.3.7

5. What other valve(s) should automatically close when an ENG bleed leak is detected?
Reference: TM 3.3.7
The crossbleed valve closes (except during engine start)
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6. Bleed leak detection is available in what other areas of the aircraft?

Reference: TM 3.3.7


7. (True or False) Hydraulic reservoir and water tank pressurization would be lost.
Reference: TM 3.3.6
The hydraulic reservoir and water tank is pressurized from either side of the crossfeed valve.
Air Conditioning
Scenario #1: The A flight attendant requests another temperature increase in the forward cabin. This is
already the warmest compartment but the pilots make the adjustment.
1. Does increasing the forward zone temperature change the output temperature of the packs?
Reference: TM 3.2.1
zones. It receives information from various temperature and flow sensors, compares these signals with the zone
temperatures selected by the crew, and then directs the pack controllers to deliver air at the coolest demanded
temperature to the mixing unit.
2. How does the system increase temperature in the forward zone?

Reference: TM 3.2.1
Individual zone temperature is adjusted by mixing hot bleed air, through the trim air valves, into the zone
distribution network. The temperature selection range is from 64°F to 86°F
3. Is there a way the crew could directly control the output temperature of the packs individually?
Reference: TM 3.2.1
No
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4. If both PACK controllers failed (both packs lost), how would the cabin be ventilated?
Reference: TM 3.2.1
The ram air valve is an air scoop at the bottom of the fuselage. It allows ventilation of the cabin in the event of a
dual pack failure or for smoke removal. It is activated by the RAM AIR pb on the air conditioning panel. When the
pb is selected ON, the ram air inlet opens and ram air is directed to the mixing unit, provided the DITCHING switch
is not selected ON. To enhance ventilation, the outflow valve opens when the differential pressure is less than 1
psi, if the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL is in AUTO. If the differential pressure is greater than 1 psi, the check valve
located downstream will not open, even if the ram air door has been selected open, and no airflow will be supplied.
If the primary channel of the pack controller fails, the backup secondary channel automatically takes over. Flow
modulation and optimized temperature regulation are no longer available and pack air flow is fixed at the pre-
failure setting.
If the secondary pack controller channel fails, with the primary pack controller channel functioning normally, pack
regulation is not affected. The ECAM BLEED page displays “XX” for the failed component(s).
If both channels of a pack controller fail, pack outlet temperature is controlled by the respective pack anti-ice
valve. ECAM signals related to the corresponding pack are lost.
Scenario #2: Just after the aircraft lands in KPHL heavy rain showers begin. The crew considers the
significance of the weather on the avionics ventilation system.
The avionics ventilation system provides cooling for the avionics compartment, instrument and circuit breaker
panels. System operation is fully automatic and has three configurations depending on the phase of operation and
ambient conditions. An avionics equipment ventilation computer controls the fans and valves.
Two electric fans operate continuously to circulate cooling air through the various avionics. One fan acts as a
blower, forcing cooling air in, and the other fan extracts (draws) air from the avionics equipment and panels. A skin
heat exchanger cools the air as it recirculates through the system. An air inlet valve allows ambient air to be drawn
into the system, and an extract valve allows overboard exhaust of the cooling air.
 Open configuration. This configuration is functional only during ground operations. Ambient air is drawn
through the inlet valve by the blower fan, circulates through the avionics equipment and then exhausted
overboard through the extract valve by the extract fan. The skin heat exchanger is bypassed.
 Closed configuration. This is the normal in-flight configuration. It is functional during ground operations
with low ambient temperatures. Both inlet and extract valves are closed. Air is drawn from the avionics by
the extract fan, circulates through the skin heat exchanger and then forced back into the avionics
equipment by the blower fan. A portion of the cooling air is exhausted through the cargo underfloor.
 Intermediate configuration. This configuration is functional only in flight when ambient temperatures are
warm. It is the same as the closed configuration, except the extract valve is partially open to allow some
overboard exhaust of cooling air.
5. How would the pilots prevent water from entering the avionics bay through the open skin air inlet
valve?
Reference: PH 3.2.5
When the aircraft is parked during heavy rain, water can enter the avionics ventilation system via the open skin air
inlet valve.
After Landing:
1. EXTRACT Pushbutton ... OVRD
2. PACKS 1 and 2 Pushbuttons ... Check ON
(Adds air conditioning system air to the ventilation air)
6. Will the blower fan continue to operate and provide cooling with the extract valve in OVRD?
Reference: TM 3.5.2 (abnormal configuration)
When the BLOWER or the EXTRACT pushbutton switch is set at the OVRD (override) position, the system is in
closed-circuit configuration and adds air from the air conditioning system to the ventilation system.
 When the EXTRACT pushbutton switch is set at OVRD, the extract fan is controlled directly from the
pushbutton. Both fans continue to run.
 When the BLOWER pushbutton switch is set at OVRD, the blower fan is stopped and the extract fan
continues to run.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
7. If outside air temperature was above 45°C, what would be the time limit in this configuration?
Reference: PH 3.2.5
If bleed air is not available, this arrangement can function for a limited time as follows:
 OAT ≤ 39°C: no limit
 39°C ≤ OAT ≤ 45°C: 3 hours
 OAT ≥ 45°C: 30 minutes
Pressurization
Scenario #1: During the FHPED check, the crew notes SYS 1 is the active pressurization controller.
The aircraft is equipped with two identical, independent controllers which regulate cabin altitude automatically. The
system consists of a control panel, cabin pressure controllers (CPCs), an outflow valve, and two safety valves to
protect against excessive differential pressure. The outflow valve is actuated by three DC motors. One motor is
primary, the second serves as backup, and the third is used for manual operation. The system operates in
automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes. In normal operation, cabin pressurization is fully automatic.
1. If, during flight, the pilot suspects SYS 1 is not performing properly, how can SYS 2 be selected?
Reference: TM 3.8
If the pilot suspects the operating pressurization system is not performing properly, attempt to select the other
system by switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN for at least 10 seconds, then returning it to AUTO.
2. When do the pressurization controllers normally swap control of the system?

Reference: TM 3.4.2
In the automatic mode, one cabin pressure controller is active and the other serves as backup. If the active
controller fails, the backup automatically assumes control. After each landing, the two controllers swap roles.
Scenario #2: Due to an inflight emergency, the aircraft is diverting to an airport that is not stored in
the FMGC database.
3. Where would the pressurization system receive destination airport elevation from if not available
from FMGCs?
Reference: TM 3.4.2
The active controller receives signals from the ADIRS, FMGC, and other sources to optimize cabin pressurization by
maintaining a predetermined profile. Departure and destination elevations are received from the FMGC. If FMGC
data are not available, the crew must select the destination airport elevation on the LDG ELEV selector. The
pressurization system then uses the manually-selected landing field elevation for internal pressurization schedules.
Scenario #1: The aircraft has been at FL330 for a prolonged period of time, the crew notes the wing
inner fuel tank temperature has decreased to -37°.
1. What options should be considered to increase fuel temperature?

Reference: PH 3.6.8
The company normally uses fuel types with freeze point of –40°C. During prolonged flight in very cold
environment, monitor fuel temperature. If wing inner tank fuel temperature approaches the fuel freeze point plus
3°C, consider the following:
 change altitude into a warmer air mass
 change course into a warmer air mass
 increase Mach number, which results in higher TAT
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Scenario #1 continued: Without warning the flightdeck windshield cracks. The crew refers to the QRH
Flightdeck Windshield or Window Cracked procedure.
2. If the crack is NOT on the interior surface, should an immediate descent be initiated (per the
procedure)?
Reference: QRH
The interior window surface is not affected. Therefore, the window/ windshield is still able to sustain the maximum
differential pressure at the current flight level and normal operation may be continued.
3. If the crack is on the interior surface, the maximum flight level is FL230, Why?
Reference: QRH
The maximum flight level is restricted to FL230 to obtain ∆5 PSI without excessive cabin altitude and EXCESS CAB
ALT warning.
Instruments/Navigation/Communications
Scenario #1: Departing KSAN, climbing through 7000ft., an airspeed discrepancy is noted between the
captain and first officers PFDs. Unreliable airspeed has been identified by the crew. Reference is made
to the Unreliable Speed Indication / ADR Check procedure in the QRH.
1. The initial pitch attitude is _10˚, thrust should be set at _CLB_

Reference: QRH Immediate Action
2. Where could the crew monitor an alternate source of speed while taking the time to determine the
reliable data source?
Reference: QRH Considerations for unreliable speed
Considerations:
 Respect Stall Warning.
 To monitor speed, refer to IRS Groundspeed, or GPS Groundspeed (as installed) variations.
 If remaining altitude indication is unreliable:
o Do not use FPV or V/S.
o ATC altitude is affected. Notify ATC.
o Refer to GPS altitude (as installed). Altitude variations may be used to control level flight, and is
an altitude cue.
o Radio Altimeter indications can provide valuable short term information at low altitude.
3. Is the attitude and heading information still valid with unreliable ADR data?
Reference: TM 15.1.3
There are three identical ADIRUs installed on the airplane. Each ADIRU consists of two parts: an Air Data Reference
(ADR) and a laser gyro Inertial Reference (IR). The ADR and IR parts of each ADIRU may operate independently
and failure of one system does not render the other inoperative.
 Inertial Reference (IR): Supplies attitude, heading, track, acceleration, groundspeed, vertical speeds,
aircraft position, and flight path vector. Navigational computations are processed by the FMGCs based on
position data supplied by the IR.
 Air Data Reference (ADR): Supplies barometric altitude, speed, Mach number, angle of attack,
temperature, and overspeed warnings and vertical velocity indicated with IR failure.
4. (True or False) ADIRU #3 supplies data to the ISIS / STBY instrument system.
No. ADR1 and ADR2 information are displayed on the captain's and F/O's PFD and ND respectively. ADR3 is used as
backup and is selected through the ECAM switching panel.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Scenario #2: Along the route of flight there is significant traffic congestion. ATC begins rerouting
several aircraft for spacing. Currently your aircraft is on a heading of 360°, 300 miles from destination.
5. If the aircraft was assigned to fly the 160° radial to the next waypoint (XYZ VOR), what MCDU page
would be used to complete the modification?
Reference: TM 5.4.4 DIR TO (Direct To)
Using the DIR key, the pilot may select the option of proceeding Direct To, with Abeam Points, or a Radial In or
Radial Out of a reference waypoint.
When the pilot uses the DIR TO function, the present position (PPOS) becomes the “FROM” waypoint and the
ACTIVE F-PLN shows it as “T-P” (turn point).
When a waypoint option is inserted into a MCDU field, on a DIR TO page, a TMPY F-PLN page is created. A dashed
yellow line represents the projected flight path route on the ND.
No revisions are allowed to the TMPY F-PLN as long as a DIR TO is in process. If another revision is attempted on
the TMPY F-PLN page a white “DIR TO IN PROCESS” MCDU scratchpad message is triggered.
The different capabilities of using the DIR TO page function are:

 DIRECT TO: proceed directly to a reference fix
 ABEAM PTS: creation of abeam point along the Direct To leg
 RADIAL IN: proceed directly to intercept a Radial TO a reference fix
 RADIAL OUT: proceed directly to intercept a Radial FROM a reference fix
6. The next ATC assignment has the aircraft crossing 20 miles north of the XYZ VOR (TO waypoint) at
FL220, what must be entered into the scratchpad to create this pilot defined waypoint?
Reference: TM 5.4.4 Pilot defined (Place Distance PD) WPTs function
To enter a PBD Waypoint:

 Enter the desired WPT/BRG/DIST into the MCDU scratchpad (XYZ/-20)
 Select (using the Left LSK) the desired PBD WPT insertion point on the F-PLN page. Insertion of the
PLACE/BRG/DIST waypoint will create a TMPY F-PLN and a DISCONTINUITY after the insertion point of the
PBD WPT.
 Clear the F-PLN DISCONTINUITY that is created after inserting the PBD WPT
 Select TMPY ERASE or TMPY INSERT (6L or 6R)
Altitude constraints may be entered directly through the F-PLN A page. To enter or modify an altitude constraint at
a waypoint on the F-PLN A page:
 Enter a slash (/) then the desired altitude value (220) into the MCDU scratchpad. Note: If the slash is
omitted, the value will be considered as a speed constraint (if it is within the range value) and not the
desired altitude constraint.
 Select the right LSK at the desired constraint waypoint
7. After the vertical constraint of FL220 is entered in the flight plan a magenta circle is displayed
around the PD waypoint on the ND, what does the magenta circle indicate?
Reference: TM 5.4.4 Vertical Guidance
Waypoint(s) are displayed with the associated altitude constraint value in magenta color.
If the vertical mode is MANAGED mode, the affected waypoint is displayed as:
 Circled magenta when entered altitude constraint is matched
 Circled amber if the altitude constraint is missed
If OPEN mode is selected, the affected waypoint(s) is displayed as circled white and the constraint, while displayed,
is ignored by the flight guidance.
An Altitude Constraint (ALT CSTR) is considered missed by the FMS if the ALT ERROR is more than or equal to 250
ft. The altitude constraint remains missed until the ALT ERROR decreases to 200 ft.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
8. ATC changes their mind for the final time, the new vertical clearance is to cross XZY AT or BELOW
FL220, descend to FL200. How is an AT or BELOW constraint entered in the FMS?
Reference: TM 5.4.4 Building an altitude constraint
To enter or modify an altitude constraint at a waypoint:

 Press the F-PLN key
 Select VERT REV page by using the right LSK at the desired waypoint on the F-PLN page
 Enter the new constraint altitude in the scratchpad then select ALT CSTR (3R)
o for “AT” altitude constraints, enter the altitude or Flight Level (FL)
o for “AT OR ABOVE” altitude constraints, enter the altitude or FL preceded or followed by a plus
“+” sign
o for “AT OR BELOW” altitude constraints, enter the altitude or FL preceded or followed
by a minus “–” sign (-200)
Scenario #3: The aircraft experiences a dual FMGC failure and the flight is diverting to an alternate
airport. Weather conditions are VMC but the crew would like to tune the ILS approach for situational
awareness.
9. How is the ILS remotely tuned?

Reference: TM 6.2.1
NAV key (with transparent switch guard): The pilot presses this key to select navigation receivers and courses
through the RMP.
10. Does remote tuning affect communication capabilities?

Reference: TM 6.2.1
It does not affect the selection of communication radios and their frequencies.
11. Since the FMGCs failed to autoreset, is there a manual reset procedure and where would you find
that procedure?
Reference: QRH
FMGC Resets (General): The system is very reliable and in the event of an interruption of the operational software
processing each unit will attempt up to 5 auto-resets and resychronization with the operating FMGC. In nearly all
cases a reset does not normally require pilot action, however:
 FMGC Single Failure - after three or more successive resets of one FMGC, although the F-PLAN is not lost,
to recover predictions the CI (Cost Index) must be reentered.
 FMGC Dual Failure - After three or more successive resets of both FMGC’s without result, all pilot entered
data (F-PLN, GW, CRZ FL, CI etc.) is lost and must be reentered.
 In the rare case of a fifth reset of either one or both FMGC’s, pilot action is required to reset the FMGC(‘s)
by recycling the associated circuit breaker(s). See various reset procedures in QRH.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
APU
Scenario #1: Prior to departure an APU start is attempted.
1. If unsuccessful, how many additional start attempts can be made?

Reference: PH 1.13.1
After 3 starter motor duty cycles, wait 60 minutes before attempting 3 more cycles.
2. The APU shuts down almost immediately after coming up to speed, the shutdown is accompanied by
a fault light in the Master switch pb, an ECAM, and a single chime. What are some possible causes for
the shutdown?
Reference: TM 4.2.1

Scenario #2: Maintenance repaired the APU. In flight, a dual bleed fault occurs. The QRH procedure
directs use of the APU for a bleed source.
3. What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed operations?

Reference: PH 1.13.3
Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is 20,000 feet.

Air bleed extraction for wing anti-icing is not permitted.
4. During the Securing Checklist the APU is shutdown and only battery power remains, how long will it
take for the APU flap to fully close?
Reference: PH 2h.10
Do not select the batteries to OFF less than 2 minutes after the APU AVAIL light extinguishes to allow for proper
APU oil scavenging and the APU flap to close.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Electrical
Scenario #1: At cruise altitude the ECAM ELEC IDG 1 OVHT is issued, accompanying this message is the
FAULT light in the IDG pb.
1. Per ECAM a disconnect of the IDG is required, how long should the IDG pb be held?
Reference: TM 7.2.1
Holding this pb in for more than approximately 3 seconds may damage the disconnection mechanism.
Do not disconnect the IDG when the engine is not operating (or not windmilling) because starting the engine after
having done so will damage the IDG.
2. In flight with the loss of GEN 1, what is now powering AC Bus 1?

Reference: TM 7.1.2
Gen 2. During normal operation if an engine driven generator fails, The BTC closes and the other generator
supplies the entire system. When available APU or external will automatically supply power to the side of the failed
generator.
In flight (A319/320), with one generator supplying the entire system, part of the galley load is shed. In flight
(A321), with one generator supplying power to the entire system, all the galleys load is shed.
Scenario #2: Adding to the above scenario, GEN 2 fails.
3. When will the RAT automatically extend?

Reference: TM 7.1.7
If both AC bus 1 and 2 are lost and airspeed is above 100 kts the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) automatically deploys.
The RAT pressurizes the blue hydraulic system which drives the emergency generator. Emergency generator output
(5 kva) is considerably lower than the main generators (90 kva). Once up to speed the emergency generator
supplies power to the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS via the ESS TR. During RAT deployment prior to emergency
generator coupling (8 sec) the batteries supply power to the ESS buses.
After landing the DC BAT bus is automatically connected to the batteries when airspeed drops below 100 knots.
When the airspeed decreases below 50 knots the AC ESS bus is automatically shed, and power is lost to the CRTs.
The RAT can be deployed manually by pressing the EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb on the overhead panel. The
RAT can only be stowed on the ground.
In flight with normal electrical supply, and the RAT deployed the emergency generator will supply the AC and DC
ESS and ESS SHED buses. All other buses continue to be powered by their normal channels.
The RAT can be extended by depressing the RAT MAN ON pb, on the hydraulic panel. This pb causes pressurization
of the blue hydraulic system and does not provide emergency electrical power.
4. During the approach when the landing gear is extended will the electrical system revert to battery
power only?
Reference: TM 7.1.7
On some A320 aircraft when the landing gear is extended the emergency generator is no longer powered. The
emergency batteries supply power and the system automatically sheds AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS buses. On
the remaining A319/A320/A321 aircraft the RAT remains powered down to 140 kts minimum.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Powerplant
Scenario #1: The aircraft is departing DEN enroute to CLT. It is an A321 (IAE engines) that has just
pushed back from the gate and has been given clearance to start.
1. During the start procedure with the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START when will the ENG master
switch be selected ON?
Reference: PH 2b.11.2
 IAE: Do not place the ENG master switch ON before all amber crosses (except N1 and N2) and messages
have disappeared on engine parameters. The N1 and N2 indications show amber crosses, until the actual
N1 and N2 reach between 3.5% and 6%.
 CFM: Do not place the ENG master switch ON before all amber crosses and messages have disappeared
on engine parameters.
Scenario #2: Due to a tailwind of greater than 10 knots the crew elects to accomplish the Manual
Engine Start procedure.
2. Give examples of other conditions that may require a Manual Engine Start.
Reference: PH 4.8.4

 Engine stall
 Engine EGT overlimit
 No N1 rotation
 Hung start (IAE only)
 Low start air pressure (IAE only)
When anticipating a likely automatic start abort because of:

 Degraded bleed performance, due to hot conditions, or at a high altitude airfields.
 An engine with a reduced EGT margin, in hot conditions, or at a high altitude airfields.
 Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power unit.
 Tailwind greater than 10 kt. Automatic starting may fail in tailwind due to N1 counter-rotation and hot gas
back flow.
3. After pushback the Captain states “start number one”. Which pilot is required to perform the Manual
Engine Start procedure?
Reference: PH 4.8.4
The captain will start the engines when using this procedure.
4. Final W/B is received. Line 7 of the W/BS indicates BMP. What does BMP indicate and what actions
must be accomplished?
Reference: PH 2c.8.3
If performance requires the use of thrust bump, depress either pushbutton to activate.
Note: Do not engage thrust bump until both engines are running. Ensure “B” is illuminated in upper ECAM.
Fire Protection
Scenario #1: The aircraft is at the gate; it is the first flight of the day external power is not available.
1. The Safety and Power ON Checklist requires an APU fire test, what indications will be seen?

 MASTER WARN lights illuminated, CRC, APU FIRE warning on E/WD, and APU page on SD. (Only available
with AC power)
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
2. When the captain accomplishes the flight deck preparation flow, will a full APU FIRE test be
required?
If Full1 APU FIRE TEST ___ done in conjunction

Then this check is considered ...
with the Safety & Power On Checklist ...
complete and not done during
was
the Flightdeck Preparation Flow.
was not not accomplished and must be done now.
1
AC power must be available to accomplish a full APU FIRE TEST.
Scenario #2: In flight at FL 350 an ECAM appears. ENG 1 FIRE LOOP A FAULT.
3. If a fire occurred in engine number 1, will the crew receive fire warnings?
Reference: TM 8.1.2
Each engine is equipped with two identical detection loops (A & B). Each loop contains three heat sensing elements
and a Fire Detection Unit (FDU). The sensing elements are located in the pylon nacelle, engine core, and fan
section. The FDU issues a fire warning when both loops detect an overheat. If one loop fails, the fire warning
system remains operational with the other loop.
An engine fire is indicated by an aural CRC and illumination of the ENG FIRE pb, MASTER WARN lights, and FIRE
light on the pedestal engine panel. Each engine is equipped with two fire extinguishers. They are discharged by
pressing the associated AGENT DISCH pb on the respective overhead engine FIRE panel.
4. If ENG 1 FIRE LOOP B were to fail within 5 seconds of LOOP A, what indications would the crew see?
Reference: TM 8.1.2
A fire warning is issued if both loops fail within five seconds of each other.
Scenario #3: The aircraft parked at the gate and cargo is being off loaded. Unexpectedly, the CRC
sounds, the Master Warning lights illuminate and ECAM displays SMOKE (FWD) CARGO SMOKE.
5. Will the steps displayed on ECAM be followed?

Reference: QRH back cover
No – This is an ECAM Exception.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________
Fuel
Scenario #1: The captain is accomplishing the Flightdeck Preparation flow. When the Fuel is checked it
is noted that the Left Outer Wing Tank is full and the Right Outer Wing Tank is empty. Left wing and
right wing tanks are equal and there is 3000 lbs. of fuel in the center tank.
1. Is this considered BALANCED?

Reference: PH 1.6.3
Maximum Allowed Wing Fuel Imbalance - A319/320 Outer Tanks

Outer Tank maximum allowed imbalance is 1,168 lbs.
The A319/320 wing tank quantity is 13,750 lb. This question does not give the actual fuel quantity in either of the
inner tanks. Although the perceived assumption here is since there is 3000 lb in the center tank the mains must be
full, this is not always the case. If these values were known it would be possible to determine if the second clause
of the assumption would apply.
2. After engine start, will the center fuel pumps run?

With the fuel MODE SEL pb in AUTO the center tank pumps operate for two minutes after an engine is
started. With the fuel MODE SEL pb in MAN, the center tank fuel pumps operate continuously. The crew must
select the CTR TK PUMP pbs OFF when the center tank is empty. The center tank pumps operate for five minutes
after fuel low level is sensed by the auto shut off.
3. After takeoff, “CTR TK FEEDG” appears on the E/WD. When did the center tank fuel begin feeding the
engines?
During takeoff and approach when slats are extended fuel feed is wing tank to respective engine. After takeoff the
center tank pumps restart when the slats are retracted
4. During the descent “OUTER TK FUEL XFDR” appears. What causes this memo to appear?
Reference: TM 11.1.9 / TM 11.2.3 ECAM Upper Display
The wing tank transfer valves automatically latch open when the wing inner tank fuel quantity drops to 1,650 lbs
allowing the outer tank fuel to drain into the inner tank. The transfer valves open simultaneously in both wings and
remain open until the next refueling operation. During steep descents and acceleration/deceleration, the transfer
valves may open prematurely and trigger a LO LVL warning.
5. Checking the FUEL page, an amber line across the last two digits of a fuel quantity indicator is
displayed. What does that indicate?
Fuel on board (FOB) indication:

 It is normally green
 An amber line appears across the last two digits when the FQI is inaccurate.
 The indication is boxed amber if:
o center tank pumps failed or switched off
o both transfer valves fail to open when wing inner tank at low level.
____________________________________________________________________________________________

A320 System Questions

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AIRBUS A319/320/321

Technical Ground School Study Guide

Chapter 6: Ice & Rain Protection

1. Is it permitted to select WING ANTI-ICE pushbutton on the ground?

2. On approach, when should WING anti-ice be selected OFF?

Wing anti-ice operation:

3. When will probe heat automatically come on?

5. What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air?

The three outboard slats on each wing.

On the ground, the heat is reduced to prevent injury to ground personnel.

Unofficial Airbus Study Site www.airbusdriver.net

1. What does the EXT PWR pb AVAIL light mean?

AVAIL light illuminates green if:

2. If an IDG is disconnected, can it be reconnected in flight?

A battery charging cycle of 20 minutes is required.

BAT 1 and 2 … AUTO

If battery voltage ≥ 25.5V:

7. How long must the IDG pushbutton be held to achieve a disconnect?

8. What are the cautions regarding the disconnecting of an IDG?

Unofficial Airbus Study Site www.airbusdriver.net

14. What buses will the emergency generator supply?

Chapter 8: Fire Protection

1. What action arms the engine fire extinguishing squibs?

The ENG FIRE pb:

3. If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available?

Unofficial Airbus Study Site www.airbusdriver.net

Chapter 9: Aircraft Fuel

1. What is the total fuel capacity of the Airbus 319/320/321?

Unofficial Airbus Study Site www.airbusdriver.net

8. How can you know the crossfeed valve is fully open?

Chapter 10: Pneumatics, Air Conditioning, & Pressurization

PACK FLOW Selector (A319/320)

ECON FLOW Selector (A321)

3. When does the pressurization system switch auto-controllers?

FMGS data is used.

7. In flight, what happens if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient?

Unofficial Airbus Study Site www.airbusdriver.net

Open only if differential pressure is less than +1 PSI.

15. Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment?

Chapter 13: Instruments/Navigation/Communication

Check all pb lights are extinguished.

5. What does the APPR pushbutton do?

Arms, disarms, engages, or disengages the approach modes:

Unofficial Airbus Study Site www.airbusdriver.net

On top of the windshield center post.

8. Does the EGPWS use radar signals to “ground map” terrain?

The following are only triggered when takeoff power is applied:

11. What does STS indicate when displayed on the EWD?

12. How would the flight deck crew command an evacuation?

• ON BAT Light … Extinguished

Press the EMER CANC pb on the ECAM control panel.

Unofficial Airbus Study Site www.airbusdriver.net

No - DIM EFIS, ECAM, and MCDU display units.

The status page displays NORMAL for 5 seconds.

22. What information from the ADR is displayed on the PFD?

The Air Data Reference displays:

25. How can a failed DMC be determined?

26. Can any communications radio be controlled from any RMP?

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28. Which RMP is functional in the emergency electrical configuration?

Only RMP 1 is operational in EMER ELEC CONFIG.

Note – the altitude alert is also inhibited:

33. How could the pilot cancel an altitude alert (C CHORD)?

• Selecting a new altitude,