Earth Sciences

Geology Practice Sample Test
Geology Practice Sample Test

Model Question Paper Geology
Q.1. A right circular cylinder open at the top is filled

with liquid (specific gravity 1.2) and rotated about its
vertical axis at such speed that half the liquid spills out.
Pressure at the centre of bottom is
(a) Zero
(b) One eighth of its value when cylinder was full
(c) One fourth of its value when cylinder was full
(d) Half of its value when cylinder was full
ANSWER: (c)
Q.2. Velocity of fluid particle at the centre of pipe section is

(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Average
(d) R.M.S.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.3. Tranquil flow must always occur

(a) At normal depth
(b) Above normal depth
(c) Below normal depth
(d) Above critical depth
ANSWER: (d)
Q.4. Boundary layer separation is caused by

(a) Reduction of pressure gradient to zero
(b) An adverse pressure gradient
(c) Sudden entrapping of air
(d) Rough surface conditions
ANSWER: (a)
Q.5. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to

(a) Regulate the flow
(b) Increase discharge
(c) Increase velocity
(d) Avoid an interruption in the flow
ANSWER: (d)
Q.6. Ratio of inertia force to pressure forces is related

with u non-dimensional number called
(a) Reynolds number
(b) Eulers number
(c) Nusselt number
(d) Match number
ANSWER: (d)
Q.7. Process of diffusion of one liquid into other

through a semi-permeable membrane is called
(a) Viscosity
(b) Osmosis
(c) Surface tension
(d) Cohesion
ANSWER: (b)
Q.8. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical

sluice gate 2 rn X 1 m with its top 2 m, surface being
0.5 m below the water level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
ANSWER: (a)
Q.9. To replace a compound pipe by a new pipe, the

pipes will be equivalent when both the pipes have same
(a) Length and flow
(b) Diameter and flow
(c) Loss of head and flow
(d) Length and loss of head
ANSWER: (d)
Q.10. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and

tends to contract to smallest possible area due
to the force of
(a) Adhesion
(b) Cohesion
(c) Friction
(d) Diffusion
ANSWER: (c)
Q.11. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a

floating body is equal to the weight of fluid displaced
by the body. This definition is according to,
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes’s principle
(d) Bernoulli’s theorem
ANSWER: (a)
Q.12. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is

greater than adhesion between fluid and glass,
then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube
will be
(a) Higher than the surface of liquid
(b) Same as the surface of liquid
(c) Lower than the surface of liquid
(d) Unpredictable
ANSWER: (b)
Q.13. The point in the immerse body through which

the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken
to act is known as
(a) Metacentric
(b) Centre of pressure
(6) Centre of buoyancy
(d) Centre of gravity
ANSWER: (a)
Q.14: The Bench Mark fixed at the end of a day’s work is called as:
(a) Arbitary BM
(b) Temporary BM.
(c) Permanent BM.
(d) G T S BM.
Answer. (b)
15: The operation of levelling from any BM to the starting point of any project is known as:
(a) Continuous levelling.
(b) Longitudinal levelling.
(c) Fly levelling.
(d) Parallel leveling.
Answer. (c)
Q.16: The vertical distance between two adjacent contour lines is called:
(a) Contour interval.
(b) Contour gradient.
(c) Vertical equivalent.
(d) Horizontal equivalent.
Answer. (a)
Q17: A contour line intersects a ridge line or valley line:

(a) Parallely.
(b) Perpendicularly
(c) Obliquely.
(d) Vertically.
Answer. (b)
Q.18: Ring contours of higher values outward represent a:

(a) Hin.
(b) Slope.
(c) Depression.
(d) Level ground.
Answer. (c)
Q.19: For contouring a hilly terrain which method is most suitable:

(a) Tacheometric method.
(b) Indirect method.
(c) Direct method.
(d) Square method.
Answer. (a)
Q.20: When a contour internal is fixed between 0.25 and 0.50 m, it indicates:
(a) A sleep slope.
(b) A Flattish slope.
(c) Almost level ground.
(d) Fairly horizontal ground.
Answer. (b)
Q.21: When contours of different elevation cross each other, it indicates a/an:
(a) Overhanging cliff.
(b) Vertical cliff.
(c) Saddle.
(d) Valley.
Answer. (a)
Q.22: A Theodolite in which the telescope can be revolved through a complete revolution in a
vertical plane is known as:
(a) Non-transit Theodolite.
(b) Transit Theodolite.
(c) Tilting Theodolite.
(d) Levelling Theodolite.
Answer. (b)
Q.23: The face left position is also called:

(a) Telescope reversed.
(b) Telescope inverted.
(c) Telescope normal.
(d) Telescope right.
Answer. (c)
Q.24: Balancing of traverse is done according to the:

(a) Prismoidal rule.
(b) Transit rule.
(c) Trapezoidal rule.
(d) Gales rule.
Answer. (b)
Q.25: The horizontal distance between two consecutive contours is termed as a:

(a) Horizontal interval.
(b) Horizontal equivalent.
(c) Vertical surface.
(d) Plain ground.
Answer. (b)
GK Sample Paper for All Competitive Exams.
Model Test Paper GK

1. World's largest producer of Jute is:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Burma
Answer. (c)
2. The Keil canal links the:
(a) Pacific and Atlantic Ocean
(b) Mediterranean and Red sea
(c) Mediterranean and Black Sea
(d) North Sea and Baltic Sea
Answer. (d)
3. The land area of India in comparison to the
Whole world is:
(a) 1/54 th
(b) 1/45 th
(e) 1/34th
(d) 1/42 th
Answer. (d)
4. The smallest planet is:
(a) Mercury
(b) Pluto
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
(e) Venus
Answer. (b)
5. Isotherms are:
(a) Contour lines showing equal amount of Sunshine

(b) Lines on a map joining places which have the same mean temperature
(c) Contour lines of equal rainfall
(d) Contour lines of equal air pressure
Answer. (b)
6. The great temple of Sun God at Konark inThe Puri district was built by:
(a) Narasimha I
(b) Kapilendra
(c) Purushottama
(d) Choda Ganga
Answer. (a)
7. Which of the following substance is bad Conductor of
Electricity but good conductor of heat?
(a) Celluloid
(b) Asbestos
(c) Purspecks
(d) Mica
Answer. (a)
8. The atmospheric layer farthest from the
Earth’s surface is known as:
(a) Exosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesophere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer. (a)
9. In which of the following city Charminar is situated?
(a) Mysore
(b) Rajkot
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Lucknow
Answer. (c)
10. How many Judges are there in the International Court of Justice?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 15
Answer. (d)
11. An essential attribute of inflation is:
(a) The absence of the black-market
(b) The presence of black-market
(c) Increase in prices
(d) Fall in production
Answer. (c)
12. Devaluation of currency basically helps to Promote:
(a) National Income
(b) Savings
(c) Imports at lower cost
(d) Exports
Answer. (d)
13. The salient feature of socialism is:
(a) Private ownership of means of production
(b) Abolition of property
(c) State ownership of all means of production
(d) State control over distribution and Consumption
Answer. (c)
14. Who was the first Indian to be the President of U.N. General Assembly?
(a) Natwar Singh

(b) V.K. Krishna Menon
(c) Smt. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
(d) Ramesh Bhandari
Answer. (c)
15. General Assembly of the United Nations
Meets:
(a) Once a year
(b) Twice a year
(c) Once in two years
(d) Occasionally
Answer. (a)
16. The term 'Carat' is -used to express purity of gold. The purest form of gold is:
(a) 18 carats
(b) 20 carats
(c) 22 carats
(d) 24 carats
Answer. (d)
17. The national award instituted for sports Coaches is:
(a) Arjun Award
(b) Dronacharya Award
(c) Dhanwantari Puraskar
(d) Vyas Samman
Answer. (b)
18. Who among the following is the Chairman
Of the ll th Finance Commission ‘?
(a) L. C. Jain
(b) J. C; Jetly
(c) A. M. Khusro
(d) T. N. Srivastava
Answer. (c)
19. After a watch has been wound, it:
(a) Possesses mechanical energy stored in it
(b) Had heat energy store in it
(c) Has electrical energy stored in it
(d) Has magnetic energy stored in it
Answer. (a)
20. Hygrometer is used for the measurement Of:
(a) Density
(b) Potential energy of something
(c) Relative humidity
(d) Specific gravity
Answer. (c)
21. On increasing the pressure, the melting point of ice is lowered. This phenomenon
Is called:
(a) Condensation
(b) Regelation
(c) Fusion of ice
(d) Expansion of ice
Answer. (b)
22. When milk is skimmed, the cream gets
Separated from it due to the?
(a) Cohesive force
(b) Centrifugal force
(c) Centripetal force
Answer. (c)
23. Which of the following is a wrong Statement?

(a) Light travels with a speed greater than
That of sound
(b) Light cannot travel through vaccum
(c) Light travels in straight-line
(d) Light is a wave motion
Answer. (b)
24. In which year did the man first land on the Moon?
(a) 1968
(b) 1969
(c) 1970
(d) 1971
Answer. (b)
25. ‘Servants of India Society’ was founded by:
(a) Sriniwas Shastri
(b) Pandit Hirdaya Nath Kunzru
(c) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer. (c)
Geology Practice Test Paper
Geology Practice Test Paper
Sample Paper of Geology
1. Points of contraflexure is the point where
(a) Positive bending moment is maximum
(b) Negative bending moment is maximum
(c) Point of zero shear force
(d) Point of change in sign of bending moment

Answer. (d)
2. Ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its
own weight (W) as compared to when it is applied
another similar bar carrying an additional weight (W)
will be
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:3
(c) 1:4
(d) 1:25
Answer. (b)
3. In the case of hinged support reaction
(a) Acts perpendicular to beam
(b) Perpendicular to surface of hinge
(c) Along the surface of beam
(d) In any direction depending upon the loads
Answer. (d)
4. Bending moment on a section is maximum where
shear force is
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) Does not depend upon shear force
Answer. (c)
5. The number of members in a perfect frame
having J number of joints is equal to
(a) 2J-1
(b) 3J-2
(c) 2J-3
(d) 3J-1
Answer. (c)
6. The strain energy stored in a body due to
suddenly applied load compared to when it is
applied gradually is
(a) Same
(b) Twice
(c) Four times
(d) Eight times
Answer. (c)
7. Radius of gyration for ii circular section is
(a) Directly proportional to the diameter of the section
(b) Square root of the diameter of the section
(c) Inversely proportional to the diameter of the section
(d) None of the above
Answer. (c)
8. Statically determinate beams are
(a) Simply supported cantilevers and overhang beams
(b) Cantilevers and fixed beams
(c) Continuous beams and beams carrying uniformly distributed loads
(d) All the above
Answer. (a)
9. Shape of the bending moment diagram for a
beam carrying to external load is
(a) Parabolic
(b) Linear
(c) Arc of a circle

Answer. (b)
10. A beam is loaded a cantilever. If the load at the
end is increased the failure will occur
(a) In the middle
(b) At the tip below the load
(c) At the support
(d) Anywhere
Answer. (c)
11. Rivets are made of
(a) Tough material
(b) Hard material
(c) Resilient material
(d) Ductile material
Answer. (d)
12. If the areas of cross-sections of square and
circular beams are same and both are subjected
to equal bending moment, then
(a) Circular beam is more economical
(b) Square beam is more economical
(c) Both the beams are equally strong
(d) Both the beams are equally economical
Answer. (b)
13. When a strip made of iron and copper is heated, it
(a) Does not bend
(b) Gets twisted
(c) Bends with iron on concave side
(d) Bends with iron on convex side
Answer. (c)
14. When a beam is subjected to a transverse shearing
force, the shear stress in the upper fibres will be
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) Depends on other data
Answer. (a)
15. Coefficient of cubical expansion is
(a) Equal to the coefficient of linear expansion
(b) Twice coefficient of linear expansion
(c) Thrice the coefficient of superficial expansion
(d) 1.5 times the coefficient of superficial
Expansion
Answer. (d)
16. Rupture stress is
(a) Breaking stress
(b) The stress obtained by dividing the load at the
moment of incipient fracture, by the area supporting that load
(c) Never allowed to reach in members
(d) Highest stress in a test
Answer. (b)
17. In a thin cylinder, all along the thickness of the cylinder
(a) Hoop stress and longitudinal stress are almost constant
(b) Hoop stress and longitudinal stress are equal
(c) Hoop stress is constant and longitudinal stress varies considerably
(d) Longitudinal stress is constant and hoop stress varies considerably
Answer. (a)
18. A beam strongest in flexural is one which has

(a) Maximum bending stress
(b) Maximum area of cross-section
(c) Maximum section modulus
(d) Maximum moment of inertia
Answer. (c)
19. A non-yielding support implies that the
(a) Support is frictionless
(b) Support can take any amount of reaction
(c) Support holds member firmly
(d) Slope of the beam at the support is zero
Answer. (d)
20. Proof resilience per unit volume of a material is
known as
(a) Resilience
(b) Proof resilience
(c) Modulus of resilience
(d) Toughness
Answer. (c)
21. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversebf,
the maximum compressive stress develops on
(a) Bottom fibre
(b) Top fibre
(c) Neutral axis
(d) Every cross-section
Answer. (b)
22. Deformation of any structure takes place in such
a manner that the work of deformation is a minimum,
This is according to
(a) Castigliano’s theorem
(b) Principle of least work
(c) Maxwell"s theorem
(d) Theory of flexure
Answer. (b)
23. The load at which the column first buckles, is known as
(a) Buckling load
(b) Cryppling load
(c) Critical load
(d) Any of the above
Answer. (d)
24. If a beam is cut in halves horizontally and the
two halves laid side by side, then the later in
comparison to the original beam will carry
(a) Same load
(b) Double load
(c) Half load
(d) One fourth load
Answer. (c)
25. The bulk modulus of a material is defined as the ratio of
(a) Volume change to modulus of elasticity
(b) Stress intensity to volumetric strain
(c) Volume change to original volume
(d) Pressure applied to the change in volume
Answer. (b)
Geology Questions IOCL Exams

Geology Questions IOCL Exams
Geology (Earth Science) MCQ Test Paper
Q.1: Jhamarkotra phosphoresce deposits are located in:
(a) Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Gujrat.
(d) Rajasthan.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.2: Hirapur phosporite deposits are found associated both with Chert and dolomite rock,
are in :
(a) Gujrat.
(b) Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Rajasthan.
(d) Uttar Pradesh.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.3: Choose the correct 'L' statement regarding Kaladungar phosphoresce

Occurrence of Jaisalmer district (Rajasthan):
(a) It represents the Jaisalmer-Baisalmer-Baisakhi transition zone.
(b) It belongs to middle to upper Jurassic age.
(c) The phosphor tic nodules are sporadically distributed in marls.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.4: The biogenous deposits Include:

(a) Beach deposits.
(b) Oozes, Coral and shell deposits.
(c) Phosporite and polymetallic deposits.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.5: Requisite necessary for the biochemical changes to produce Ignite from peat:
(a) Periodic wetness and dryness of the peat.
(b) A moderate degree of area ion.
(d) All the above.

ANSWER: (d)
Q.6: Rank of coal can be determined by:

(a) Volatile matter yield .of a density fraction or whole coal.
(b) Average reflectivity of the vitrinite/hominine minerals of a coal seam.
(c) Chemical analysis of carbonificaiion.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 7: The evolution from peat to anthracite ls called coalificatlon, which is a:

(a) Geological process.
(b) Chemical process.
(c) Geochemical process.
(d) Geophysical process.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.8: Sholapur coal field ls a remnant of the:

(a) Narmada Valley basin.
(b) Tapti valley basin.
(c) Son valley basin.
(d) Godavari valley basin.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.9: Desulphurization of coal can be done by:

(a) Bacteria. .
(b) Chemicals.
(c) Physic-chemical means.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.10 : The coal deposits of Rajmahal basin occur in the :

(a) Talchir formation.
(b) Barakar formation.
(c) Raniganj formation.
(d) Maharashtra formation.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.11 : The Gondwana coals of lndia is of :

(a) ln situ origin.
(b) Drift, origin.
(c) Both ln situ and Drift origin.
(d) Mechanical origin.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.12 : Raniganj coals are having :

(a) High moisture and Low volatile.
(b) Low moisture and Low volatile.
(c) High moisture and High volatile.
(d) Low moisture and High volatile.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.13: “Brown coal” is another name of:

(a) Peat.
(b) Lignite.
(c) Bituminous coal.
(d) Anthracite coal.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.14: The internal structure of the earth can be understood by:

a) Resistivity study.
b) Seismic wages study.
c) Gravity study.
d) Deep drill methods.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.15: The place vertically above the focus on the earth’s surface is called:
a) Antic enter
b) Focus
c) Epicenter
d) Hypocenter
ANSWER: (c)
Q.16: The Epicentral distance ( A )‘expressed in degree and one degree is equal to:
a) 110.2340 Kms.
b) 111.1953 Kms.
C) 113.2690 Kms.
d) 150.4963 km.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.17: The highest intensity area in the Epicentral zone is called:

a) lsoseismal area.
b) Mesoseismal area.
c) Ant central area.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 18: The events form Epicentral distance less than 10° are called:
a) Teleseismal events.
b) Epicentral events.
c) Mesoseismal events.
d) lsoseismal events.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 19: Intensity of an earthquake is based on:

a) Amplitudes.
b) Energy released.
c) Destruction on the earth's surface.
d) Distance between epicenter and focus.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 20 : The earthquake energy is :

a) Based on the distraction.
b) Inversely proportional to the amplitude of ground motion.”
c) Directly proportional to the amplitude of ground motion.
d) Depends upon the Epicentral distances.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 21: ln an earthquake the following relation exists between rates of stress and strain:
a) Quick stressing and quick straining.
b) Quick stressing and slow straining.
c) Slow stressing and quick straining.
d) Slow stressing and slow straining.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 22 : S -Waves can travel in :

a) Liquid media only.
b) Solid media only.
c) Both liquid & solid media.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 23: Which of the following are most destructive?

a) P - Waves.
b) S - Waves.
c) L – Waves.
d) None of the above.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 24: P and S waves are referred as:

a) Body waves.
b) Surface waves.
c) Internal waves.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 25: The Richter scale is based on:

a) Intensity.
b) Magnitude.
c) Density. .
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Geology Solved Practice Paper

Geology Solved Practice Paper
Geology Sample Test Paper
Q.1: Piezometric surfaces are much smoother as compared to water table, the statement is:
a) True.
b) False.
c) Doubtful.
d) Partly true, partly false.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.2: The magnitude and the timing of groundwater level changes are related to:
a) The magnitude and location of change in flow or change in surface water storages.
b) The hydraulic properties of the aquifer.

c) The dimensions of the aquifer.
d) All the above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.3: Well effectiveness is high if :
a) Specific capacity is high.
b) Well loss is negligible.
c) Drawdown in negligible.
d) Formation less is negligible.
ANSWER:(c)
Q.4: In the case of confined aquifers, the groundwater flow lines are:
a) Terminating at the water table.
b) Parallel to the impermeable confining beds.
c) Perpendicular to the impermeable confining beds.
d) Inclined tithe impermeable confining beds.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.5: The Water table fluctuation shows:
a) Gains to groundwater storages.
b) Losses to groundwater storages.
c) Flow direction of groundwater.
d) Both gains and losses to groundwater storage.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.6: Piezometric surface depends upon:
a) Atmospheric pressure.
b) Hydrostatic pressure in the aquifer.
c) Elevation of aquifer.
d) Hydrostatic pressure in the aquifer and elevation ofthe aquifer.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.7: What is the range of storage coefficient in the case of unconfined aquifer?
a) 0.001 to 0.03
b) 0.01 to 0.3
c) 0.05 to 0.5
d) 0.5 to 1.5.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.8: Darcy’s law is valid for:
a) Laminar flow only.
b) Turbulent flow only.
c) Both laminar and turbulent flows.
d) None of these. .
ANSWER: (a)
Q.9: The rate of flow through a unit cross sectional area under a unit hydraulic gradient is
Known as:
a) Darcy velocity.
b) Hydraulic conductivity.
c) Specific discharge.
d) Interstitial velocity.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.10: Cavity wells are preferred in:
a) Weathered gravity at shallow depth.
b) Thin, permeable confined aquifer occurring at shallow depth.
c) Deep confined aquifer.
d) Thin aquifer comprising loose materials below hard clay at a depth of 50m
ANSWER:(d)
d) Volume percentage of pose space.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.11: The intrinsic permeability ls mainly applied in:
a) Groundwater theories.
b) Petroleum and natural gas industries.
c) Both groundwater and petroleum industries.
d) Groundwater and sea water theories.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.12: "Intrinsic" permeability depends on the:
a) Fluid properties only.
b) Properties of material in medium only.
c) Both fluid and medium properties.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.13: The approximate average permeability of gravel is:
a) 41.0 m/day
b) 4100.0 m/day.
c) 410.0 m/day
d) 4.10 m/day.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.14: "Point dilution method “is a:
a) Groundwater, quality determination method.
b) pH of groundwater determination method.
c) Determination of hydraulic conductivity of an aquifer by tracer’s method.
d) Porosity deters. ‘Nation method.’
ANSWER: (c)
Q.15: Water moves vertically down ward from the unconfined aquifer, through the Aquitard,
Into the confined aquifer, when:
a) The water table stands above the piezometric surface.
b) The piezometric surface stands above the water table.
c) Both the water table and the piezometric surface stand at a same level.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.16: ln a water table map, areas with wide contour spacing’s possess:
a) Low hydraulic conductivity.
b) High hydraulic conductivity.
c) Low recharging capacity.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.17: In the theory of groundwater movement Dupult-Forchhlelmer assumed:
a) The flow is horizontal and' uniformly distributed in a vertical section.
b) The velocity of flow is proportional to the tangent of the hydraulic gradient instead of sine of the Hydraulic gradient.
c) The velocity of flow is proportional to the site of the hydraulic gradient.
d) Both (a) and (b).
ANSWER: (d)
Q.18: A recharging well is:
a) Same as a pumping well.
b) The reverse of a pumping well
c) A type of discharge well.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.19: Match the following columns i & ii
1. Effluent stream i) neither receives from nor contributes to ground water.
2. Influent stream ii) Water table lies above stream bed.
3. Insulated stream iii) Water table lies below stream bed.
4. Ephemeral stream iv) Maintains base flow through.
5. Perennial stream. v) Flows in response to precipitation.
a) 1-ii,2-iii,3-i,4-v,5-iv.
b) 1-iii,2-ii,3-v,4-iV,5-i.
c) 1 -iv,2-v,3-iii,4-11,5-1.
d) 1-i,2-ii,3-iii,4-iv,5-v.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.20: Which condition is preferable for construction of collector wells?
a) Weathered granite at shallow depth.
b) Deep confined aquifer.
c) Thin saturated alluvium below river bed.
d) All the above.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.21: In which configuration the spacing between electrodes is kept equal:
a) Werner
b) Schlumberger
c) Both wenner and schlumberger
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.22: Which seismic method is/are more commonly used for groundwater surveys?
a) Seismic reflection.
b) Seismic refraction.
c) Both seismic refraction and seismic reflection.
d) Seismic‘reflection with gravity method.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.23 : Determination of changes in bore hole diameter is done by :
a) Caliper log
b) Sonic log
c) Temberatitre log.
d) Neutron- Gamma log.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.24 : When gravel and silt of clay are under similar moisture conditions, then :
a) Gravel will have a lower resistivity than silt or clay.

b) Gravel will have a higher resistivity than silt or clay.
c) Both Gravel and silt or call will have same resistivity.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.25 : During pumping test ,ass the water table ls lowered, gravity drainage of water from the unsaturated zone proceeds
at a variable rate, known as:
a) Yield.
b) Delayed yield.
c) Residual yield.
d) Unconfined yield.
ANSWER: (b)
Geology Solved Practice Question Paper
Geology Solved Practice Question Paper

Model Test Paper Engineering Geology
Q. 1: The preparation of surface of stones to stone of required shape and size is known as:
(a) Quarrying of stone
(b) Blasting of stone
(c) Dressing of stone.
(d) Seasoning of stone.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 2: A stone is rejected if the water absorption is more than:

(a) 30%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 1 5%
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 3: Stone generally: used for railway ballast is:

(a) Sandstone
(b) Limestone
(c) Marble
(d) Basalt or trap basalt.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 4: An artificial stone made from pieces of marble and cement and used for floors facing
of walls etc. is known as :
(a) Mosaic
(b) Terrazzo
(c) Marble
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 5: Specific gravity for most of the building stone lies between:

(a) 1.5 to 2.o
(b) 2.0 to 2.5
(c) 2.5 to 3.0
(d) 3.0 to 3.5
ANSWER: (c)
Q.6: Quarrying of stones is the process of:

(a) Breaking it from its natural outcrop. »
(b) Giving a suitable shape and size to the stone.
(c) Applying a coat of a chemical to save it from deterioration.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 7: Attrition test on stone is done to find out:

(a) Toughness
(b) Rate of wear
(c) Compressive strength
(d) Durability.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.8: Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because:

(a) lt cannot be polished
(b) lt is not a tire proof material
(c) It is costly
(d) lt has less crushing strength.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 9: The stone, which exhibits more fire resisting characteristics, is:

(a) Marble
(b) Limestone
(c) Granite
(d) Compact sandstone.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 10: The compressive strength of stone is found out by:

(a) Impact test
(b) Hardness test
(c) Crushing test
(d) Attrition test
ANSWER: (c)
Q.11: The constituent responsible for strength in granite is:

(a) Mica
(b) Feldspar
(d) Quartz
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.12: The tool used for quarrying of stones is:

(a) Jumper
(b) Dipper
(c) Spelling hammer
(d) Priming needle
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 13: The famous sun temple at Konark is made up of:

(a) Granites
(b) Gneisses
(c) Sandstones
(d) Khondalites.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 14 : The part where the dam comes in contact with the ground on the upstream side is
called :
(a) Heel
(b) Toe
(c) Abutment
(d) Sluice
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 15: The part where the dam comes in contact with the ground on the downstream side is
Called:
(a) Abutment
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Spill way.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 16 : A dam in which entire forces acting on it are directly transmitted to the foundation
rock is known as :
(a) Gravity dam
(b) Arch dam
(c) Buttress dam
(d) Earthen dam
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 17: What type of rivers is most suitable for construction of dams?

(a) Influent
(b) Effluent
(c) Insulated
(b) All the above.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.18: A multipurpose reservoir is:

(a) Planned and constructed to serve various purposes
(b) Designed for one purpose but serves for more purposes.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 19: Sediment deposit in reservoir can be reduced by:

(a) Providing vegetal cover
(b) Adopting soil conservation measures in the catchment area.
(c) Avoiding reservoir sites, which are prolific source of sediment.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 20: When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is
Produced:
(a) At the toe
(b) At the heat
(c) At the centre of base
(d) With the middle third of base
ANSWER:(a)
Q. 21: The uplift pressure acting on a dam is controlled by:

(a) Pressure grouting in foundation.
(b) Constructing cutoff under stream face
(c) Constructing drainage channels between dam and its foundation.
(d) All ofthe above.
ANSWER:(d)
Q. 22: Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in:

(a) Hydrodynamic pressure
(b) Inertia force into the body of the dam.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
ANSWER:(c)
Q. 23: Out of the following which one is the arch dam:

(a) Bhakra dam
(b) Tungabhadra darn
(c) Indukki dam
(d) Koyna dam
ANSWER:(c)
Q. 24: As compared to gravity dam earthen dams require:

(a) Sound rock foundation
(b) Less skilled labour
(c) Skilled labour
(d) More cost
ANSWER:(b)
Q. 25: An excavation in the base of a dam filled with relatively impervious material to
reduce percolation, is called :
(a) Cutoff trench
(b) Key trench
(c) Sluice
(d) Both (a) and (b)
ANSWER :(d)
Geology Solved Question Paper

Geology Solved Question Paper
Geology Sample Paper
Q.1: Minerals are:
a) Inorganic substances.
b) Having definit chemical composition.
c) Having fixed atomic structures.
d) All statements are correct.
Answer. (d)
Q.2: Orthoclase shows:

(a) Low birefringence.
(b) Optically negative.
(C) High refractive index.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer. (d)
Q.3: Acicular habit is shown by:

a) Calcite
b) Orpiment
c) Natrolite
d) Zircon
Answer. (c)
Q.4: Which plate is generally used to determine the optical sign of Plagioclare?
(a) Quartz plate.
(b) Syenite plate.
(C) Mica plate.
(d) Bedeck compensator.
Answer. (b)
Q.5: Match the following

I ll
1) Hematite 1) White streak
2) Chalcopyrite 2) Black streak
3) Pyrite 3) Greenish-black streak
4) Siderite 4) Cherry-red-streak.
a) 1-ii,2-iii,3-iv,4-i.
b) 1-iv,2-iii,3-ii,4-i.
c) 1-iii,2-i,3-iii,4-iv.
d) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Answer. (b)
Q.6: Which of the followlng generally form homeomorphs?

a) Rutile and Zircon
b) Corundum and Baryte
c) Topaz and Sulphuoz
d) Gypsum and Angite
Answer. (a)
Q.7: The Orthopyroxenes show interference colour of:

(a)1st order.
(b) 2nd order.
(c) 3rd order.
(d) 2nd and 3rd orders.
Answer. (a)
Q.8: When one mineral alters to another form in such a way that the Internal structure is
changed but the external form of the original crystal is retained, the specimen is called a:
a) Pseudomorph
b) Homeomorph
c) Iso-morphous
d) Iso-Structiral.
Answer. (a)
Q.9: When the form of a mineral is thread like, it is termed as:

a) Acicular
b) Filiform
c) Capillary
d) Dendritic
Answer. (b)
Q.10: The birefringence in Quartz is:

(a) 0.08
(b) 0.09
(c) 0.009.
(d) 0.01.
Answer. (c)
Q.11: The form of a mineral is said to be reticulated when.

a) The crystals are slender and in lattice like group.
b) The crystals are hair like.
c) The crystals exist in tree-like form.
d) The crystals are fine needle like.
Answer. (a)
Q.12: The mineral which can be cut and powdered are known as:
a) Sectile
b) Ductile
c) Elastic
d) Reptile
Answer. (a)
Q.13: Bladed habit is shown by:

a) Calcite
b) Kyanite
c) Felspass
d) Olivine
Answer. (b)
Q.14: A crescent-shaped dune with two tapering arms is known as:

(a) Moraine.
(b) Barchans
(c) Parabolic dunes.
(d) Drumlins.
Answer. (b)
Q.15: The space between the dunes is known as:

(a) Oasis.
(b) Gasses.
(c) Col.
(d) Wadies.
Answer. (b)
Q.16: Orthoclase is distinguished from Quartz in thin section by:

(a) Low refractive index.
(b) Type of twinning.
(c) Negative sign.
(d) All the above.
Answer. (d)
Q.17: Variation in Colour of a mineral may be due to:

a) Composition difference
b) Presence of impurities
c) Surface alteration
d) All the above
Answer. (d)
Q.18: The Michael-Levy method is used to determine the extinction angle of:
(a) Hornblende.
(b) Quartz.
(C) Plagioclare.
(d) Hypersthene.
Answer. (c)
Q.19: Mark the correct statement regarding olivine:

(a) High refractive index.
(b) Strong birefringence.
(c) Straight extinction.
(d) All the above.
Answer. (d)
Q.20: Admantive lusture is shown by:

a) Calcite
b) Felspar
c) Sphalerite
d) Diamond
Answer. (d)
Q.21: ln Hypersthene, a well-marked Pleochroism which shows:

(a) X-pink, Y-green and Z-yellow.
(b) X-pink, Y-yellow and Z- green.
(c) X-yellow, Y-pink and Z-green.
(d) X-green, Y- yellow and Z-pink.
Answer. (b)
Q.22: Enstatite is distinguished from Hypersthene ln thin section by :

(a) Extinction angle.
(b) Lack of Pleochroism.
(c) Presence of Pleochroism.
(d) High refractive index.
Answer. (b)
Q.23: Polymorphous elements like carbon are called:

a) Semi-Polytropic
b) Poly tropic
c) Allotropic
d) None of the above
Answer. (c)
Q24: Nepheline is distinguished from Quartz by it’s:

(a) Positive sign only.
(b) Negative sign and lower birefringence.
(C) Negative sign and higher birefringence.
(d) Higher birefringence only.
Answer. (b)
Q.25: Which type of extinction is often shown by Quartz mineral?

(a) Straight.
(B)Oblique.
(c) Symmetrical.
(d) Wavy.
Answer. (d)
Geology Test Paper for ONGC Exams.

Geology Test Paper for ONGC Exams.
Engineering Geology Model Test Paper
Q.1: Stress is expressed as: (P = Load & A = Area):
(a) P/A
(b) A/P
(c) A.P.
(d) A/P x 100
Answer: (a)
Q.2: The strain at a point is a:
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c) Tensor
(d) None of these.
Answer: (c)
Q.3: A viscous-elastic material:
(a) Has a viscous surface
(b) ls elastic all the time
(c) Has a time dependent stress strain relation
(d) Has a small plastic zone.
Answer: (c)
Q.4: Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of:
(a) Stress to strain
(b) Shear stress to shear strain
(c) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain.
(d) Compressive stress to compressive strain.
Answer: (b)
Q.5: Shear strain is defined as:
(a) Change in angle between planes at right angle
(b) Distortion of fiber
(c) Change in angle between two angles.
(d) Strain that normally occurs.
Answer: (a)
Q.6: The elastic strain energy stored by a member is known as:
(a) Potential strain

(b) Resilience
(c) Proof resilience
(d) None of these.
Answer: (b)
Q.7: A material which undergoes no deformation till its yield point is reached and then it
flows a constant stress known as:
(a) Elastic-plastic
(b) Pasto-elastic
(c) Rigid-elastic
(d) Rigid-plastic
Answer: (d)
Q. 8. The materials which exhibit the elastic properties in all directions are called as:
(a) Inelastic
(b) Isentropic
(c) Homogeneous
(d) Isotropic.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 9: The average Uniaxial compressive strength of an intact rock is found to be more than 2250kg/cm square Based on this
value the rock may classify as:
(a) Low strength
(b) Medium strength
(c) High strength
(d) Very high strength.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 10 : Schist rock shows :
(a) Plastic - elastic - plastic curve
(b) Plastic - elastic curve
(c) Elastic curve
(d) Elastic - plastic - elastic curve.

ANSWER: (a)
Q. 11 : Smith’s test is done for :
(a) Durability.
(b) Frost and tire resistance
(c) Density
(d) Porosity
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 12: Impact testing of a stone is done to known its:
(a) Density
(b) Specific gravity
(c) Durability
(d) Toughness
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 13: Quartzites and sandstones are generally unsuitable to be used as road aggregates
because they are :
(a) Hydrophilic
(b) Hydrophilic
(c) Soft
(d) Sensitive to the sun light.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 14: A stone is rejected if the water absorption is more than:
(a) 30%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 1 5%
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 15: Good quality building stones should not contain soluble salts more than:
(A) 0%
(b) 1 %
(c) 2%
(d) 3 %
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 16: The preparation of surface of stones to stone of required shape and size is known as:
(a) Quarrying of stone
(b) Blasting of stone
(c) Dressing of stone.
(d) Seasoning of stone.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 17: Smith’s test is performed on stones for determining:
(a) Water absorption
(b) Hardness
(c) Density
(d) Soluble and Clayey matter.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.18: Quarrying of stones is the process of:
(a) Breaking it from its natural outcrop. »
(b) Giving a suitable shape and size to the stone.
(c) Applying a coat of a chemical to save it from deterioration.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 19: Attrition test on stone is done to find out:
(a) Toughness
(b) Rate of wear
(c) Compressive strength
(d) Durability.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 20: Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because:
(a) lt cannot be polished
(b) lt is not a tire proof material
(c) It is costly
(d) lt has less crushing strength.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 21: The stone, which exhibits more fire resisting characteristics, is:
(a) Marble
(b) Limestone
(c) Granite
(d) Compact sandstone.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 22: The compressive strength of stone is found out by:
(a) Impact test
(b) Hardness test
(c) Crushing test
(d) Attrition test
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 23: The constituent responsible for strength in granite is:
(a) Mica
(b) Feldspar
(d) Quartz
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 24: The tool used for quarrying of stones is:
(a) Jumper
(b) Dipper
(c) Spelling hammer

(d) Priming needle
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 25 : The famous sun temple at Konark is made up of:
(a) Granites
(b) Gneisses
(c) Sandstones
(d) Khondalites.
ANSWER: (d)
Geology, Earth Science Solved Test

Geology, Earth Science Solved Test
Paleontology Sample Paper
Q. 1: Which man is called Horn sapiens?

(a) Piltdown man
(b) Rhodesian man
(c) Heidelberg man
(d) Cro-Magnon man
ANSWER.(d)
Q. 2: Which ode belongs to proboscides order?

(a) Man
(b) Elephant
(c) Horse
(d) Fish.
ANSWER.(b)
Q. 3: What is the correct sequence of the evolution of Elephant?

(a) Moeritherium, Tetralophodon, Trilophodon, Philomel, Alphas and Luxodont
(b) Moeritherium, Philomel, Trilophodon, Tetralophodon, Luxodont and Alphas
(c) Philomel, Moeritherium, Luxodont, Tetralophodon, Trilophodon and Alphas
(d) Alphas, Philomel, Moeritherium,fIetralophodon and Luxodont.
ANSWER.(b)
Q. 4: Alphas is:
(a) African elephant
(b) Ethiopian elephant
(c) Indian Elephant
(d) Australian elephant
ANSWER.(c)
Q. 5: Which is the primitive ancestor of elephant?

(a) Mastoid on
(b) Dinotherium
(c) Moeritherium
(d) Trilophodon
ANSWER.(c)
Q. 6: Absence of upper tusk is the characteristic of:

(a) Dinotherium
(b) Trilophodon
(c) Platybelodon
(d) Philomel
ANSWER.(a)
Q. 7: The earliest appearance of elephant was in the:

(a) Upper Eocene and lower Oligocene
(b) Paleocene
(c) Miocene and Pliocene
(d) Pleistocene.
ANSWER.(a)
Q. 8: The living elephants in Africa are:

(a) Elephas
(b) Luxodont
(c) Stegodon
(d) Amedelodon
ANSWER.(b)
Q. 9 : The oldest elephant types were reported in India from the

(a) Dwarka beds
(b) Pinjor stage
(c) Pliocene siwalikbeds.
(d) Upper manchhar formation.
ANSWER.(c)
Q. 10 : Wl1ich were the predominant flora in the Gondwana time -

(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) B0th Gymnosperms and Pteridophytes
(d) Angiosperms and spermatophyte.
ANSWER.(c)
Q. 11: Gondwana rocks are characterised by the presence of

(a) Glossopteris
(b) Cordials
(c) Cycadophyta
(d) Sphenophyllales.
ANSWER.(a)
Q. 12 : The study of fossil spores and pollens is known as :

(a) Palaeoecology
(b) Palynplogy
(c) Phylogeny
(d) Sporangologs.
ANSWER.(b)
Q. 13: Lower Gondwana is characterised by:

(a) Ptilophyllum flora
(b) Dicroidium
(c) Glossopteris flora
(d) Ptilophyllum.
ANSWER. (c)
Q. 14: Which is/are the leaf genera?

(a) Glossopteris
(b) Gangamopteris
(c) Vartebraria
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (d)
Q. 15: A leaf which bears fructification is called:

(a) Disc form
(b) Frond
(c) Cilia
(d) Meadow.
ANSWER. (b)
Q. 16: Which plant fossil is represented by fronds?

(a) Pteridospers
(b) Cordials
(c) Glossopteris
(d) Vartebraria
ANSWER. (c)
Q. 17: Gangamopteris is similar to glossopteris but the difference is:

(a) Gangamopteris is without any mid-rib.
(b) Gangamopteris is having midrib.
(c) Gangamopteris is leaf genera.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (a)
Q. 18: Which one is the earliest fish fossil in India recorded from carboniferous
(a) Souring heinous
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Telcenodon
(d) Antelopes.
ANSWER.(a)
Q. 19: The geological age of the "Holster” is:

(a) Jurassic to present day
(b) Cretaceous
(c) Tertiary to present day
(d) Cretaceous to present day
ANSWER. (c)
Q.20: Graptolites are very useful index fossils of:

(a) Cretaceous age
(b) Permian and Triassic ages
(c) Carboniferous age
(d) Ordovician and Silurian
ANSWER. (d)
Q.21: The floating variety of the foraminifera is known as:

(a) Plank tonic variety
(b) Benthonic variety
(c) Pectin ate variety
(d) None of these
ANSWER. (a)
Q.22: The shell or skeleton of radiolarian is:

(a) Caleareous
(b) Siliceous
(c) Chitin us
(d) Gelatinous
ANSWER. (b)
Q.23: The common forms of foraminifer’s tests range in size from:

(a) 0.01 to 0.1 mm
(b) 0.1 to 0.3 mm
(c) 0.1 to 2- mm
(d) 0.1 to 5 mm
ANSWER. (d)
Q.24: Dinosaurs are found in the rocks of:

(a) Mesozoic group
(b) Paleozoic group
(c) Precambrian group.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.25: The ancient biggest lizard bird is:

(a) Mystriosuchus
(b) Seymouria
(c) Archaeopteryx
(d) Eros
ANSWER.(c)
Geology, Seismology Objective Test

Geology, Seismology Objective Test
Geology Sample Paper
Q.1: The origin place of an earthquake is known as:
a) Focus
b) Epicenter
c) Mesoseismal
d) Antic enter
ANSWER: (a)
Q.2: The angle subtended at the center of the earth by the arc between the source and the
Receiver is known, as:
a) Seismic angle.
b) Epicentral angle.
c) Epicentral distance.
d) Mesoseismal angle.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.3: Antic enters is:

a) The point vertically above the focus on the surface
b) The point vertically down the focus in the core.
c) The point located at 90° form the epicenter.
d) The point located at opposite side of the epicenter on the earth's surface.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.4: Line joins the points of same intensity is called:

a) Mesoseismal line.
b) Teleseismal line.
c) lsoseismal line.
d) Epicentral line.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.5 : Logarithm of the maximum amplitude on a seismogram written by on instrument or

Specified standard type at a ‘distance of 100km fond the epicenter is known as:
a) Intensity.
b) Magnitude.
c) Seismograph.
d) Seismogram.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 6: Foreshocks caused by:

a) l initial stresses in the rock material.
b) lncipient rupture in the strained and cracked material along the fault.
c) Very high frictional force.
d) Incomplete fault plane.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.7: A zero magnitude earthquake is a finite size earthquake which will write a record on
a standard wood-Anderson seismograph at a distance of 100 km. :
a) One micron.
b) Ten micron.
c) Hundred micron.
d) Thousand micron.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 8: The total signal duration in seconds from the onset time until the amplitude merges
in the background noise level is called:
a) Amplitude noise.
b) Event.
c) Seismic moment.
d) Coda length.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.9: “Elastic rebound theory" is related to:

a) Earthquake.
b) Volcanoes.
c) Plate tectonics.
d) Continental drifts.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 10: Match time following:

I ll
1. Focus i. Origin point of earthquake.
2. Epicenter. ii. Point on the surface above focus.
3. lsoseismal lines. iii. Some earthquake intensity lines.
4. Homoseismals. iv. Some arrival time of shocks.
a)1-i,2-ii,3-iii,4-iv.
b)1-ii,2-i,3-iv,4-iii.
c)1-ii,2-i,3-iii 4-iv.
d)1-1,2-ll,3-iv’,4-iii.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 11 : St- Waves and P - Waves are having :

a). Short wavelength and high frequency.
b) Short wavelength and low frequency.
c) Long wavelength and high frequency.
d) Long wavelength and low frequency.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 12: Seismic waves in which the particles vibrate at right angles to the direction of
probation is called on:
a) P - Waves:
b) S - Waves.
c) L - Waves.
d) Love Waves.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 13: Waves in which the particles motion is retrograde elliptical in a direction of vertical
plane through the propagation are:
a) P - Waves.
b) S - Waves.
c) Lover waves.
d) Ray Leigh waves.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 14: Magnitude - 8 earthquake on‘-Richter- scale will be how many times larger than a
magnitude-7 earthquake:
a) 5 times.
b) 10 times.
c) 100 times.
d) 150 times.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 15: The earthquakes which are generally occurred are of:

a) Shallow type.
b) Intermediate type.
c) Deep seated type.
d) None of these
ANSWER: (a)
Q.16 : Match the following :

I ll
1. P - Waves i. lnstrument for recording of seismic
shocks.
2. S - Waves ii. Sound waves.
3. Seismograph. iii. Light waves.
4. Seismogram iv. Record of seismic shocks.
a)1-i,2-ii,3-iii,4-iv.
b)1-iv,2-iii,3-iv,4-i.
c)1-iii,2-ii,3-i,4-iv.
d)1-ii,2-iii,3-i,4-iv.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 17: The angle at which earthquake waves meet the horizontal plane is called:
a) Angle of repose.
b) Angle of emergence.
c) Angle of interference.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 18 : The acceleration produced due to catastrophic shock is :

a) Over 250 cm/sec/sec.
b) Over 500 cm/sec/sec.
c) Over 750 cm/sec/sec.
d) Over 980 cm/sec/sec.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 19 : A large wave of oscillation set up in an enclosed basin, by the motion of an

earthquake is known as :
a) Serif.
b) Rip current.
c) Steichen.
d) lsograde.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 20: P - waves are also known as:

a) Longitudinal waves.
b) Compressional waves.
c) Push - Pull waves.
d) All the/above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 21: The speed of P - waves depend on the:

a) Density only.
b) Elastic parameters only.
c) Density and elastic parameters both.
d) Density and specific gravity.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 22: The order of arrival of various phases on a seismogram is:

a) P, LQ, S and LR.
b) P, S, LR and LQ.
c) P, LR, LQ and S.
d) P, S, LQ and LR.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 23: The surface waves are generated:

a) At the focus.
b) At the epicenter.
c) When body waves strike any discontinuity.
d) When P-waves and S-wave collide.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 24 : Shadow zone lies between :

a) 90° and 110°
b) 100° and 120°
c) 105° and 142°
d) 101° and 155°
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 25: Wadati diagram is useful to find out:

a) Velocity of the seismic waves.
b) Origin time of an earthquake.
c) The arrival time of the seismic waves.
d) The epicentral distance.
ANSWER: (b)
Model Test Paper GK
1. World's largest producer of Jute is:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Burma
Answer. (c)
2. The Keil canal links the:
(a) Pacific and Atlantic Ocean
(b) Mediterranean and Red sea
(c) Mediterranean and Black Sea
(d) North Sea and Baltic Sea
Answer. (d)
3. The land area of India in comparison to the
Whole world is:
(a) 1/54 th
(b) 1/45 th
(e) 1/34th
(d) 1/42 th
Answer. (d)
4. The smallest planet is:
(a) Mercury
(b) Pluto
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
(e) Venus
Answer. (b)
5. Isotherms are:
(a) Contour lines showing equal amount of Sunshine
(b) Lines on a map joining places which have the same mean temperature
(c) Contour lines of equal rainfall

(d) Contour lines of equal air pressure
Answer. (b)
6. The great temple of Sun God at Konark inThe Puri district was built by:
(a) Narasimha I
(b) Kapilendra
(c) Purushottama
(d) Choda Ganga
Answer. (a)
7. Which of the following substance is bad Conductor of
Electricity but good conductor of heat?
(a) Celluloid
(b) Asbestos
(c) Purspecks
(d) Mica
Answer. (a)
8. The atmospheric layer farthest from the
Earth’s surface is known as:
(a) Exosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesophere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer. (a)
9. In which of the following city Charminar is situated?
(a) Mysore
(b) Rajkot
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Lucknow
Answer. (c)
10. How many Judges are there in the International Court of Justice?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 15
Answer. (d)
11. An essential attribute of inflation is:
(a) The absence of the black-market
(b) The presence of black-market
(c) Increase in prices
(d) Fall in production
Answer. (c)
12. Devaluation of currency basically helps to Promote:
(a) National Income
(b) Savings
(c) Imports at lower cost
(d) Exports
Answer. (d)
13. The salient feature of socialism is:
(a) Private ownership of means of production
(b) Abolition of property
(c) State ownership of all means of production
(d) State control over distribution and Consumption
Answer. (c)
14. Who was the first Indian to be the President of U.N. General Assembly?
(a) Natwar Singh
(b) V.K. Krishna Menon
(c) Smt. Vijay Laxmi Pandit

(d) Ramesh Bhandari
Answer. (c)
15. General Assembly of the United Nations
Meets:
(a) Once a year
(b) Twice a year
(c) Once in two years
(d) Occasionally
Answer. (a)
16. The term 'Carat' is -used to express purity of gold. The purest form of gold is:
(a) 18 carats
(b) 20 carats
(c) 22 carats
(d) 24 carats
Answer. (d)
17. The national award instituted for sports Coaches is:
(a) Arjun Award
(b) Dronacharya Award
(c) Dhanwantari Puraskar
(d) Vyas Samman
Answer. (b)
18. Who among the following is the Chairman
Of the ll th Finance Commission ‘?
(a) L. C. Jain
(b) J. C; Jetly
(c) A. M. Khusro
(d) T. N. Srivastava
Answer. (c)
19. After a watch has been wound, it:
(a) Possesses mechanical energy stored in it
(b) Had heat energy store in it
(c) Has electrical energy stored in it
(d) Has magnetic energy stored in it
Answer. (a)
20. Hygrometer is used for the measurement Of:
(a) Density
(b) Potential energy of something
(c) Relative humidity
(d) Specific gravity
Answer. (c)
21. On increasing the pressure, the melting point of ice is lowered. This phenomenon
Is called:
(a) Condensation
(b) Regelation
(c) Fusion of ice
(d) Expansion of ice
Answer. (b)
22. When milk is skimmed, the cream gets
Separated from it due to the?
(a) Cohesive force
(b) Centrifugal force
(c) Centripetal force
Answer. (c)
23. Which of the following is a wrong Statement?
(a) Light travels with a speed greater than
That of sound
(b) Light cannot travel through vaccum
(c) Light travels in straight-line
(d) Light is a wave motion
Answer. (b)
24. In which year did the man first land on the Moon?
(a) 1968
(b) 1969
(c) 1970
(d) 1971
Answer. (b)
HYDROGEOLOGY (Geology) Test Paper

Hydrogeology Test Paper
Solved Geology Practice Test
Q.1: Groundwater flow map is also known as:
a) Isopach map.
b) Isocontour map.
c) Potentiometric map.
d) Flydraulic map.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.2: The maximum permissible limit of iron (as Fe) in ppm, in drinking water is:
a) 0.5
b) 0.8
c) 0.1
d) 1.5
ANSWER: (d)
Q.3: In the well development is the mechanical surging, the surge block should be operated:
a) Within the casing above the screen.
b) Within the casing below the screen.

c) Above the casing.
d) Below the casing.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.4 : Screen size is the size 81 the sieve which separates :
a) 40 % of coarser material.
b) 60 % of coarser material.
c) 90 % of coarser material.
d) 25 % of finer material.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.5: When the effective size and uniformity coefficient of aquifer material less than 0.25 mm
and 2 respectively then :
a) Gravel packing not necessary.
b) Gravel packing not effective.
c) Sand pumping
d) Well effectiveness is high.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.6: When salinity changes occur ln a vertical profile:
a) The lower portion of the aquifer should be tapped.
b) The upper portion of the aquifer should be tapped.
c) The middle portion of the aquifer should be tapped.
d) The whole aquifer should be tapped.
ANSWER:(b)
Q.7: The length of the screen is selected on the basis of the:
a) Thickness of the aquifer.
b) Anticipated drawdown and decline in the water levels.
c) Stratification of the aquifer.
d) All the above.
ANSWER:(a)
Q.8 Match the rock type with the 'drilling method Suitable:
I Ill
1. Granite i) Direct rotary.
2. Boulder Lrgravel ii) Reverse rotary. .
3. Loose Sired, clay iii) Down -the - hole hammer.
4. SEMCO dilated iv) Percussion
a) 1-ii,2 -iii, 3-i,4-iv.
b) 1-iii,2-iv,3-ii,4-i.
c) 1-i,2-ii,3-iii,4-iv.
d) 1-iv,2-iii,3-ii,4-i.
ANSWER:(b)
Q.9: A well consists of a large diameter concrete caisson, sealed at the bottom, with
radiating perforated casing in called :
a) Tube well
b) Rainey well
c) Cavity well
d) Bore well.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.10: A well through which water ls added to an aquifer ls called:
a) Discharge well.
b) Pumping well.
c) Qantas.
d) Recharging well.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.11 : Study flow implies that :
a) No change occurs with time in the aquifer.
b) Change occurs with time in the aquifer.
c) Change in the aquifer depends upon the aquifer characteristics.

d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.12 : ln electrical resistive method, used for groundwater investigation, a current is generated In the field of frequency :
a) Less than 1 cycle per second.
b) Less than 5 cycles per second.
c) More than 5 cycles per second.
d) More than 10 cycles per second.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.13: ln gamma ray log method the gamma radiations is general increases with:
a) Increasing quartz contents.
b) Decreasing clay contents.
c) Increasing clay contents.
d) Increasing calcareous contents.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.14: Resistivity prattling technique helps in finding the:
a) Vertical in homogeneities.
b) Lateral in homogeneities for particular depth range.
c) Both vertical and lateral in homogeneities.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.15: Electrical sounding surveys give information about:
a) Lateral variation.
b) Both lateral and vertical variations.
c) Vertical Variation.
d) None of these.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.16: Match the following columns:
I II
1. lsobaths i) Equal thickness.
2. lsohyets ii) Equal pressure surface.
3. lsopacn. iii) Equal rainfall.
4. Isopiestic iv) Equal depth to water table.
a)1-ii,2-i,3-iv,4-iii.
b)1-i,2-ii,3-iii,4-iv.
c) 1-iv,2-iii,3-i,4-il.
d)1-iv,2-ii,3-iii,4-i.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.17: Residual drawdown is related to:
a) Recovery of groundwater.
b) Loss of groundwater.
c) No change in groundwater.
d) All of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.18: Darcy’s law is:
a) The discharge is inversely proportional to head loss.
b) The discharge is inversely proportional to head loss and directly proportional to the length.
c) The discharge is directly proportional to head loss and inversely proportional to area of flow and
to the length of the path.
d) The discharge is directly proportional to head; loss and area of
flow and inversely proportional to the length of the path.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.19: Groundwater boundary exists where:
a) There is a flow across a water table.
b) The inflow and outflow are equal.
c) There is no flow crosses a water table.
d) Groundwater boundary exists at any condition mentioned above.

ANSWER: (c)
Q.20: .................. indicate regions of groundwater recharge and..............
associated with groundwater discharge :
a) Concave contours / Convex contours.
b) Convex contours/ Concave contours.
c) Concave contours/ Concave contours.
d) Convex contours/ convex contours.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.21: in confined aquifer, water is released due to..........
.... Of rocks and........... of water
a) Decompression/comprehensive.
b) Decompression / Decompression.
C) Compression/ Decompression.
d) Compression / Compression.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.22: The change in the head per unit distance is:
a) The hydraulic gradient.
b) The equipotential gradient.
c) The flow gradient.
d) The Hydraulic head.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.23: The rate of groundwater movement ls gaveled by the:
a) Hydraulic conductivity of an aquifer.
b) Hydraulic gradient.
c) Storage capacity of an aquifer.
d) Both (a) and (b).
ANSWER: (d)
Q.24: Usually the configuration of the “Water table" indicates the:

a) Loss of groundwater.
b) Recharge of groundwater.
c) Direction of groundwater flow.
d) Fluctuation of groundwater.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.25: The approximate average penneabillty of clay is:
a) 0.004 m/day
b) 0.041 m/day
c) 4.10 m/day
d) 0.0004 m/day.
ANSWER: (d)
IOCL Test Geology MCQ Paper

IOCL Test Geology MCQ Paper
Earth Science Practice Paper
Q.1: Twinned crystals are characterised by:
(a) Solid angle.
(b) Re-entrant angle.
(c) Extinction angle.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)
Q.2: Butterfly twinning is found in:

(a) Rutile.
(b) Gypsum.
(c) Aragonite.
(d) Pyrite.
Answer. (b)
Q.3: Minerals are:

a) Inorganic substances.
b) Having definit chemical composition.
c) Having fixed atomic structures.
d) All statements are correct.
Answer. (d)
Q.4: Acicular habit is shown by:

a) Calcite
b) Orpiment
c) Natrolite
d) Zircon
Answer. (c)
Q.5: Variation in Colour of a mineral may be due to:

a) Composition difference
b) Presence of impurities
c) Surface alteration
d) All the above
Answer. (d)
Q.6: Match the following

I ll
1) Hematite 1) White streak
2) Chalcopyrite 2) Black streak
3) Pyrite 3) Greenish-black streak
4) Siderite 4) Cherry-red-streak.
a) 1-ii,2-iii,3-iv,4-i.
b) 1-iv,2-iii,3-ii,4-i.
c) 1-iii,2-i,3-iii,4-iv.
d) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Answer. (b)
Q.7: Admantive lusture is shown by:

a) Calcite
b) Felspar
c) Sphalerite
d) Diamond
Answer. (d)
Q.8: When one mineral alters to another form in such a way that the Internal structure is
changed but the external form of the original crystal is retained, the specimen is called a:
a) Pseudomorph
b) Homeomorph
c) Iso-morphous
d) Iso-Structiral.
Answer. (a)
Q.9: When the form of a mineral is thread like, it is termed as:

a) Acicular
b) Filiform
c) Capillary
d) Dendritic
Answer. (b)
Q.10: The property of mineral by which it offers the resistance to breaking, crushing,
bending or tearing, is known as:
a) Parting
b) Fracture
c) Cleavage
d) Tenacity
Answer. (d)
Q.11: Litharge is an ore for the extraction of:

a) Copper
b) Antimony
c) Lead
d) Manganese
Answer. (c)
Q.12: Schillerization is shown by:

a) Plagoclarge
b) Angite
c) Hypersthene
d) Diamond
Answer. (c)
Q.13: Mark the correct statement:

a) The presence of the cleavage planes indicate the same strength of bonds between atoms in the
crystal.
b) The presence of the cleavage planes indicate the difference in strength of bonds between atoms
in the crystal.
c) For cleavage strength of bonds between atoms in the crystal is not responsible.
d) Both a) & c) are correct.
Answer. (b)
Q.14: Generally pyroxenes and Ampliboles show the

a) Pinacoidal Cleavage
b) Prismatic Cleavage
c) Octahedral Cleavage
d) Pyramidal Cleavage
Answer. (b)
Q.15: When a mineral breaks with curved concavities the fractured surface is known as:
a) Uneven
b) Even
C) Conchoidal
d) Hackly
Answer. (c)
Q.16: Which instrument is used to determine the accurate hardness of a mineral:

a) Scalerometer
b) X-ray spectrometer
c) Pycnometer
d) Electron microscope
Answer. (a)
Q.17: Presence of some elements in small amounts may cause the mineral to be deeply
coloured such elements are called:
a) Chromophore
b) Allochromatic
c) lndichromatic
d) None of these
Answer. (a)
Q.18: The property of development of electric charges on crystallized mineral by pressure is

called:
a) Pyro electricity
b) Piezo-electricity
c) Photo-electricity
d) None of there
Answer. (b)
Q.19: Which mineral shows pyro-electric property:

a) Quarts
b) Tonrmaline
c) Flvorite
d) Diamond
Answer. (a)
Q.20: Silicate crystals are generally:

a) lsotropic
b) Isodesimic
c) Mesodesmic
d) Anisodesmic
Answer. (c)
Q.21: Tekto-silicates are three-dimensional frame work of tetrahedral with:

a) All four oxygen atoms shared
b) Any Three oxygen atoms shared
c) Any two oxygen atoms shared.
d) lt is not certain
Answer. (a)
Q.22: Melilite is an example of:

a) Neso-silicate
b) Soro - silicate
c) Cyclo - silicate
d) lno – silicate
Answer. (b)
Q.23: Peridot is the gem-variety of:

a) Galena
b) Felspar
c) Olivine
d) Hyperstone
Answer. (c)
Q.24: The phase trans formation from Andalusite to kyanite is due to:
a) Thermal process
b) Mechanical process
c) Chemical process
d) Radioactive emission
Answer. (b)
Q.25 :Which silicate structure is found in garnets:

a) Neso-silicates
b) Soro-silicates
c) lno-silicates
d) Phyllosilicates
Answer. (a)
MCQ Geology Practice Solved Paper

MCQ Geology Practice Solved Paper
Sample Paper Geology
Q. 1: Barren island volcano is characterized by:
(a) Submarine volcanism
(b) Resurgent volcanism
(c) Continentals volcanism
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)
Q. 2 : The present phase of the Barren lava (errupted in 1991) is :

(a) Olivine basalt
(b) Alumina olivine basalt
(c) Olivine - bearing basaltic andsite.
(d) None of these.
Answer (C)
Q. 3 : Which of following feature does not belong to positive relief features :

(a) Lava cone
(b) Hornitos
(c) Lava-tunnel
(d) Self volcano.
Answer ( C )
Q. 4 : The calcareous deposits formed from hot springs are called as :

(a) Agglomerates
(b) Cinders ' ‘
(c) Ash N
(d) Tufa. .
Answer ( D)
Q. 5 : The geosynclines in which the pile of sediments are found with an abundance of
volcanic rocks is known as
(a) Orthogeosyncline
(b) Eugeosyncline
(c) Miogeosyncline
(d) Para geosynclines
Answer ( B )
Q. 6 : The geosynclines are associated with the :

(a) Episrogeny
(b) Grogeny
(c) Both a and b.
(d) None of these
Answer ( B)
Q. 7 : Craton term is applied for:

(a) Unstable interior of the continent.
(b) Stable interior of the continent
(c) Continent made up of gneiss of schist rocks.
(d) None of these.
Answer ( B)
Q. 8: On a stratigraphic cross section a line drawn through all points where sediment depo-
sition was occurring simultaneously is known as :
(a)` lsograd
(b) Isogram
(c) lsochrone
(d) lsobath.
Answer (C)
Q. 9 The smallest unit of an elevated land-mass described commonly as a :

(a) Hill
(b) Hillock
(c) Mountain
(d) Range
Answer ( B)
Q. 10 : The ‘Aravalli’ should be described as :

(a) Hill
(b) Mountain
(c) Range
(d) System.
Answer (C)
Q. 11: The block mountains and rift-valleys occur together and formed due to operation of :
la) Compression force
fb) Tensile force
(c) Frictional force
(d) None of these.
Answer ( B )
Q. 12 : The crystallmovements like folding, faulting etc. take place during which stage of
the development ota complex mountain :
(a) initial stage
(b) Youth stage
(c) Mature slage
(d) All the above.
Answer ( B )
Q. 13 : Hawaii island are :

(a) Coral islands
(b) Flacial islands
(c) Continentals islands
(d) Volcanic islands having risen from ocean floor.
Answer ( D)
Q. 14: According to Wagener the Himalayas and Alpin mountain belts were formed due
(a) Polar movement of India and Africa.
(b) Equatorial movement of lndia and Africa.
(c) Equatorial movement of India and China.
(d) None of these.
Answer ( B )
Q. 15: In ‘Contraction hypothesis’ which fact has not been taken into account :
(a) Frictional heat.
(b) Magnetic heat.
(c) Radioactive disintegration heat.
(d) Geothermal gradient.
Answer (C )
Q. 16 : The dome mountains are generally associated with :

(a) Laccolith.
(b) Phacolith.
(c) Lopolith.
(d) Batholith.
Answer (a)
Q. 17:Which mountain range is sifqated between the Narbada and the Tapti rivers :
(a) Aravalli.
(b) Vindhyan.
(c) Satpura.
(d) Kaimur range.
Answer (C)
Q. 18 :Which mountain separates the southern India from Northern India :

(a) Satpura.
(b) Vindhayan.
(c) Aravalli.
(d) None of these.
Answer (B)
Q. 19: The convection currents flow from the :

(a) Poles to Equator.
(b) Equator to poles. '
(c) South pole to North pole.
(d) North pole to Equator.
Answer (B)
Q. 20: The I-limalalyan rage is .... in length and .... in width :

(5) 2500 km/250400 km.
(0) 2500 km/100 km.
(c) 2000 km/400~500 km.
(d) 1500 km/1000 km.
Answer (a)
Q. 21 : Geophysical datas prov‘es that the ratio between height above the surface and root be-
low the surface of the Himalaya mountain is about :
(a) 1:3.
(0) 1;5.
(c) 1:6
(d) 1:10.
Answer (D)
Q. 22: The Pratt’s theory states that the :

(a) Higher blocks have a lower density than the lower blocks.
(b) Higher blocks have a high density than the lower blocks.
(c) Lower blocks have low density than the higher blocks.
(d) None of these.
Answer (a)
Q. 23: ‘Isostasy’ term was first used by :

(a) Dulton.
(b) Wagner.
(c) Airy.
(d) Pratt.
Answer (a)
Q. 24: Dutton suggested that the elevated masses are characterised by low density and
the depressed basins are characterised by high density, which are responsible for
‘lsostasy‘, because of :
(a) Low density masses give low ‘value of gravity and high density masses give high value of gravity.
(b) Low density masses give high value of gravity and high density masses give low value of gravity.
(c) Low density masses and hi h density masses are not responsible ~for low and high values of
gravity.
(d)None of these.
Answer (a)
Q. 25: If a portion is cut from any block assumed in Airy’s theory and Pratt’s theory re-garding lsostary and placed on the other
then :
(a) Equilibrium will not be disturbed.
(b) Equilibrium will be distributed.
(c) Equilibrium disturbance depends upon the material used in blocks.
(d) All the above are not correct.
Answer ( B )
MCQ Objective Geology for UPSC IFS Exam

MCQ Objective Geology for UPSC IFS Exam
UPSC Exam Questions for IFS geology Subject
Geology MCQ Practice Solved Question Paper For UPSC IFS
Q. 1 : ln cuts and free-standing excavations in clay pore water pressure changes because
of :
(a) Stress increases due to excavation
(b) Stress releases due to excavation.
(c) Prevailing ground water conditions
(d) None of these.
ANSWER:(b)
Q. 2: The strength of the foundation rocks can be improved by:

(a) Grouting
(b) Rock bolting
(c) Cable anchorage
(d) All the above.
ANSWER:(d)
Q. 3: ln the packer method of grouting the grouting is started from:

(a) Top of the hole
(b) Bottom of the hole
(c) Middle of the hole
(d) Any portion ofthe hole.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 4: For strengthenin¢5f the rock mass a fluid mixture of fine sand, cement and water is
Applied through nozzle ejecting at a high velocity is known as:
(a) Grouting
(b) Grunting
(c) Pasting
(d) Anchoring.
ANSWER: (b)
Q. 5: Rock bolting is very common in:

(a) Mining
(b) Tunneling
(c) Both mining and tunneling
(d) Reservoir construction.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.6. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in

mercury of picnic gravity 13.6. What fraction
of its volume is under mercury
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.515
(d) 0.5
ANSWER: (c)
Q.7. A cylinder is kept on a horizontal boundary past

which an ideal fluid flows perpendicular to the
cylinder axis. It will experience
(a) No lift force
(b) Some lift force
(c) Lift force in vertically downward direction
(d) Lift force in vertically upward direction
ANSWER: (a)
Q.8. A critical depth meter is always associated with

(a) Surge
(b ) Water hammer
(c) Hydraulic jump
(d) Steep gradient
ANSWER: (c)
Q.9. Hammer blow in pipe occurs when

(a) Pipe bursts under high fluid pressure
(b) Excessive leakages occurs in pipe
(c) Flow of fluid through pipe is gradually
brought to rest by the closing of valve
(d) Flow of fluid through pipe is suddenly
brought to rest by the closing of the valve.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.10. In laminar flow

(a) Experimentation is required for the simplest
flow cases
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity applies
(c) Fluid particles move in irregular and
haphazard paths
(c) Viscosity is unimportant
ANSWER: (b)
Q.11. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise

in temperature
(a) Increases
(b) decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Unpredictable
ANSWER: (b)
Q.12. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Centre of buoyancy is located at the centre of gravity of the displaced liquid
(b) For stability of a submerged body, centre of gravity of body must lie directly below the centre
of buoyancy
(c) If c. g. and centre of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium
for all positions
(d) All floating bodies are stable.
ANSWER: (d)
Q. 13 :Which planets have retrograde rotation :

(a) Mercury and plato
(b) Venus and Uranus
(c) Saturn and mars
(d) Jupiter and Neptune
ANSWER:(b)
Q. 14 : Siderolites are :
(a) Iron meteorites
(b) Stony irons meteorites
(c) Stony meteorites
(d) Silicate meteorites.
ANSWER:(b)
Q. 15 :Variations in the abundances of hydrogen and helium in stars gives evidence that
(a) They are in same stages of their evolution
(b) They are in different stages of their evolution
(c) They are of same composition.
(d) They are much closer to each other.
ANSWER:(b)
Q. 16: lsobars are:
(a) Different elements with same atomic weight and neutrons number but different protons number.
(b) Different elements with thqsame 'atomic weight but different values of neutrons and protons.
(C) Different elements with same atomic weight neutrons number and protons number.
(d) Different element with different atomic weight but same values of nektons and protons. ,
ANSWER :(b)
Q. 17: Eclogites is a:
(a) Olivine rock
(b) Olivine and pyroxene rock
(c) Garnet and pyroxene rock
(d) Gamet and olivine rock
ANSWER :(c)
Q.18 : Hydrology encompasses the domains of :

a) Agronomy
b) Hydrology and Geohydrology.
c) Geomorphology.
d) All the above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.19: Which one is known as “fossil water”?

a) Meteoric Water.
b) Connate Water.
c) Juvenile Water.
d) Plutonic Water.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.20: At all points on the water table the pressure is:

a) Hydrostatic.
b) Atmospheric.
c) Combination of hydrostatic and atmospheric.
d) Capillary. .
ANSWER: (b)
Q.21: Props are:

a) Mining methods.
b) Support between roof and floor in mine.
c) Type of lamps used in mine.
d) Type of drilling method.
Answer:(b)
Q.22: ANFO stands for:

a) Ammonium Nitrate for ore.
b) Ammonium Nitrate Fuel oil.
c) Ammonium Nitrogen Fuel oil.
d) Asiatic Native Fuel oil.
Answer:(b)
Q.23: The operation of levelling to determine the elevation between two points is known as:
(a) Differential levelling.
(b) Simple levelling.
(c) Fly levelling.
(d) Indirect levelling.
Answer. (a)
Q.24: Contours when unite together form a:

(a) Ridge.
(b) Valley.
(c) Cliff.
(d) Overhanging cliff.
Answer. (c)
Q.25: The contour internal is inversely proportional to the:

(a) Scale of the map.
(b) Steepness of the area.
(c) Extent of the area.
(d) All the above.
Answer. (b)
ONGC Geology (Mineralogy) Test Paper

ONGC Geology (Mineralogy) Test Paper
Mineralogy Solved Paper
Q.1: Garnets are characterized by their:
a) Rhombododecahedron form
b) Trapezohedran form
c) Octahedron form
d) Both (a) 8. (b)
Answer. (d)
Q.2: Which is orthorhombic Epidote:

a) Zoisite
b) Clinozoisite
c) Orthite
d) Piedmontite
Answer. (a)
Q.3: Transparent and red colour gem variety of zircon is known as:
a) Jargoon
b) Hyacinth
c) Zirconite
d) Monazite
Answer. (b)
Q.4: Sphene is:

a) Magnesium silicate
b) Calcium iron silicate
c) Calcium titanosilicate
d) lron titanosilicate
Answer. (c)
Q.5: Andalusite and sillimanite crystallise in:

a) Monoclinic system
b) Triclinic system
c) Orthorhombic system
d) Hexagonal system
Answer. (c)
Q.6: What is the hardness of staurolite:

a) 5 - 5.5
5) 5 - 6
c) 6 - 6.5
d) 7 - 7.5
Answer. (d)
Q.7: Tourmaline belongs to:

a) Neso-silicate
b) Soro-silicate
c) Cyclosilicate
d) Phyllosilicate
Answer. (c)
Q.8: Colourless variety of Tourmaline is:

a) Rebellite
b) Achroite
c) Schorl
d) None of these
Answer. (b)
Q.9: Pyroxenes belong to:

a) Single chain structure (lnosilicate)
b) Double chain structure (lnosilicate)
c) Nesosilicate
d) Sorosllicate
Answer. (a)
Q.10: Which is calcium poor pyroxene found in volcanic rocks:

a) Pigeonite
b) Angite
c) Diopsite
d) Hedenbergite
Answer. (a)
Q.11: What are the cleavage angles in pyroxenes:

a) Exactly 90°
b) 80° and 100°
c) 87° and 93°
d) 84° and 96°
Answer. (c)
Q.12: Emerald is a pale green variety of:

a) Topaz.
b) Zircon.
c) Beryl.
d) Tourmaline
Answer. (c)
Q.13: Schillerization is characteristic of:

a) Diopside
b) Hypersthene
c) Enstatite
d) Hedenbergite
Answer. (b)
Q.14: What is the hardness of pyroxenes:

a) 4-5
b) 5-6
c) 6-7
d) 7-8
Answer. (b)
Q.15: Amphiboles are:

a) Hydrous ferro - magnesian silicates
b) Ferro – magnesian siIicates
c) Potassium - aluminium silicates
d) Hydrated alumio silicates
Answer. (a)
Q.16: What are the cleavage angles in amphiboles:

a) 70° and 110°
b) 67° and 113°
c) 56° and 124°
d) 54° and 126°
Answer. (c)
Q.17: Mica belongs to:

a) Nesosilicate
b) Sorosilicate
c) Phyllosilicate
d) lnosilicate
Answer. (c)
Q.18: Lepidolite mica is:

a) Cr - bearing
b) Fl - bearing.
c) Li - bearing.
d) Fe - bearing.
Answer. (c)
Q.19. Cations from soil moisture are attracted to the surface of clay minerals to:
a) Balance the unsatisfied valence bonds.
b) Balance the negative electrical charge
c) Form diffuse - double layer
d) Replace the low valence bonds
Answer. (b)
Q.20: Which mineral does not belong to chlorite group:

a) Penninite
b) Clinochlore
c) Prochlorie
d) Fayalite
Answer. (d)
Q.21: Kaolinite results from the alteration of the:

a) Quartzs
b) Felspars
c) Micas
d) Ampliboles
Answer. (b)
Q.22: Bentonite is belived to result from the:

a) Weathering of granites.
b) Decomposition of syenite
c) Decomposition of volcanic ash.
d) Decomposition of Fe-bearing rocks.
Answer. (c)
Q.23: Dravite is:

a) Ca - pyroxene
b) Mg - Tourmaline
c) Fe - Tourmaline .
d) Mg – Angite
Answer. (b)
Q.24: Hyalophane isomorphous series is between:

a) K - felspar and Na felspar
b) K - felspar and Ca felspar
c) K - felspar and Ba felspar
d) Na - felspar and Ca felspar
Answer. (c)
Q.25 : Low-temperature orthoclase is known as:

a) Sanidine
b) Adularia
c) Aventurine
d) Moonstone
Answer. (b)
ONGC Geology Practice Test

ONGC Geology Practice Test
Free Online Earth Science Paper
Q.1: Andalusite converts at temperature between 1380 and into:
(a) Kaolinite.
(b) Lillie.
(c) Mullet.
(d) Muscovite.
ANSWER: (c)
Q. 2: Neutral refractory minerals are:

(a) Chromite and graphite.
(b) Kyanite and sillimanite.
(C) Magnesite and dolomite.
(d) Silica and fireclay.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.3: High-grade natural abrasives are:

(a) Diamond and corundum.
(b) Diamond, emery and garnet.
(c) Corundum, emery and garnet.
(d) Diamond, corundum, emery and garnet.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.4: Kaolin is also known as:

(a) China clay.
(b) Ball clay.
(c) Fire clay.
(d)Fuller’s earth.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.5: Multan matte is:

(a) China clay.
(b) Ball clay.
(c) Terracotta.
(d) Fuller’s earth.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.6: The essential basic raw material for manufacture of glass is:
(a) Feldspar.
(b) Quartz.
(c) Feldspar and Quartz.
(d) Quartz and Mica.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.7: The principal mineral source of fertilizer industry is / is:

(a) Gypsum.
(b) Pyrite.
(c) Flock phosphates.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.8 : Mark the correct statement about the phosphoresce deposits ot Jhabua district (M.P.) :
(a) lt is a sedimentary-Stromatolite type deposits.
(b) It occurs within the Precambrian met sediments.
(c) It belongs to the Aravalli super group.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.9 : Apatite deposits of singhbhum occur in the form ot veins and lenses in the :
(a) Granulose rocks.
(b) Gneissose rocks.
(c) Schistose rocks.
(d) Granitic rocks.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.10: Deposits of phosphoresce and the polymetallic nodules in the Indian Ocean are:
(a) Terrigenous deposits.
(b) Biogeneous deposits.
(c) Authigenic deposits.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.11: The chief raw material of the cement industry is:

(a) Sand.
(b) Clay.
(c) Limestone.
(d) Quartz.
ANSWER: (c)

(a) Framboidal pyrite contributes a great deal to the formation of pyritic sulphur in coal.
(b) ln a coal seam sulphur increased form bottom to the top.
(c) In a sequence of coal seams the younger seam contains greater amount of sulphur than the
Underlying older seam.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.13: Flank of coal means:

(a) The degree of maturation.
(b) The water content in the coal.
(d) None of these.

ANSWER: (a)
Q 14: The lignite deposits of Neville associated with the:

(a) Lower part of Ranaghat formation.
(b) Upper part of the Cuddalore formation.
(c) Kankawati series.
(d) Rajahmundry sandstone.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.15: The coalificatlon process is caused mainly by:

(a) Rise of temperature.
(b) Long Geological time.
(c) Rise of temperature and geological time.
(d) Constant temperature and greater depth.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.16 : Which ls the most prominent structural element In the sohagpur coal field
(a) Chaila trust.
(b) Bamhani-chilpa fault.
(c) Murree thrust.
(d) Chapman fault.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.17: lndia’s known coal resources have been assessed to be about:

(a) 100 billion tones.
(b)136 billion tones.
(c) 196 billion tones.
(d) 230 billion tones.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.18: Most of the coal in the Gondwana is found in the:

(a) Damuda system.
(b) Talchir series.
(c) Maharashtra series.
(d) Jabalpur series.
ANSWER: (a)
Q. 19: Mark the correct statement about the Barakar coals:

(a) Low moisture.
(b) Low volatile.
(c) High fix carbon.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.20 :The process of conversion of vegetable matter to coal involves

(a) Concentration of oxygen and hydrogen.
(b) Loss of oxygen and carbon.
(c) Loss of oxygen and carbon and concentration of hydrogen. `
(d) Loss of oxygen and hydrogen and concentration of carbon.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.21 : Choose the essential characters of cannel coal :

(a) lt is tough and of uniform texture.
(b) lt has no banded structure and essentially a drift deposit.
(c) lt is Dull black in colour and does not soil the finger.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.22: The chief raw material of ceramic industry is:

(a) Silt.
(b) Clay.
(C) Kyanite.
(d) Quartz.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.23: Terracotta is a/an:

(a) Grey coloured variety of ball clay.
(b) Type of terra-rossa.
(c) Impure, buff or brown coloured variety of china clay.
(d) White, soft at 'J earthy variety of fuller’s earth.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.24: The variety of plastic clay known as:

(a) Terra cotta.
(b) Fuller’s clay.
(c) Bentonite.
(d) Ball clay.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.25: Aluminium in common glass may be permitted upto:

(a) 2 %.
(b) 4 %.
(c) 6 %.
(d) 10 %.
ANSWER: (b)
ONGC Solved Geology Practice Test

ONGC Solved Geology Practice Test
Geology MCQ Paper
Q.1: Ankerites are:
(a) Ca Mg carbonate
(b) Ca Fe carbonate
(c) Ca Mg Fe carbonate
(d) Ca Mg Fe Al carbonate
ANSWER. (c)
Q.2: Micrite is formed of grains:

(a) Less than two microns in size.
(b) Less than four microns in size.
(c) Less than ten microns in size.
(d) Less than fifty microns in size.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.3: Guano are:

(a) Calcareous deposits.
(b) Ferrugenous deposits.
(c) Phospatic deposits.
(d) Siliceous deposits.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.4: When a lacustrine environment is affected by marine conditions, then the environment
is known as:
(a) Esturine
(b) Paludal
(c) Paralic
(d) Limnic
ANSWER. (c)
Q.5: Which is the most Important Indicator of ancient climate:

(a) Radioactivity of the deposits.
(b) Type of cementing material.
(c) Order of superposition of beds.
(d) Type and distribution of fossils.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.6: “Shingle” is characteristic of ....... environment:

(a) Littoral.
(b) Terrestrial.
(c) Neritic.
(d) Abyssal.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.7: Where the modern turbidity current deposits (turbidlties) are generally found:
(a) At the base of continental shelf.
(b) On and at the base of continental shelf.
(c) On the continental rise.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.8: Sediments which are formed by slow precipitation of minerals from sea water in place
by crystallisation, are called as:
(a) Terrigenous marine sediments.
(b) Pelagic marine sediments.
(c) Authigenic marine sediments.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.9: Fracturing of quartz grains is commonly developed in:

(a) A high energy conditional transport system.
(b) A low energy conditional transport system.
(c) A linear flow conditional transport system.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.10: Mark the correct statement regarding sedimentary facies:

(a) These are lateral variations in sediments type in a sedimentary formation.
(b) They are the result of variations in current velocity.
(c)They are variable in the basin of deposition.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.11: Diagenesis is a:
(a) Pre-depositional process.
(b) Post-depositional process.
(c) Inter-depositional process.
(d) Simultaneous-depositional process.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.12: Among quartzose sandstones the initial stage of diagenesis is characterised by:
(a) Rounding of quartz.
(b) Rounding and solution pitting of quartz.
(c) Colour changes.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.13: According to Dopples, which of the following stage of diagenesis is responsible for the
colour of the rock:
(a) Automorphic.
(b) Synomorphic.
(c) Locomorphic.
(d) Redoxomorphic.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.14: Metamorphism is a:
(a) Solid - State reconstitution
(b) Solid -liquid state reconstitution
(c) Solid -liquid - gas - stare reconstitution.
(d) Liquid - state reconstitution.
Answer. (a)
Q.15: Isotropic fabrics of metamorphic rocks form:

(a) Under nonhydrostatic stress condition.
(b) Under hydrostatic stress condition.
(c) Due to ductile flow
(d) Due to chemical reactions.
Answer. (b)

(a) P-T values often are above the peak metamorphic conditions.
(b) P-T values often are below the peak metamorphic condition.
(c) P-T values often are equal the peak metamorphic condition.
(d) There is no relation between P-T values and peak metamorphic conditions.
Answer. (b)
Q.17: Granulite facies rocks represent:

(a) Shallow crystal materials
(b) Deep crystal materials.
(c) Oceanic materials
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)
Q18: Green schists are:

(a) Low pressure and low temperature rock.
(b) High pressure and high temperature rock.
(c) High pressure and low temperature rock.
(d) Low pressure and high temperature rock.
Answer. (c)
Q.19: Staurolite forms by the reaction of:

(a) Chlorite and sillimanite
(b) Muscovite and chloritoid
(c) Chlorite and mucosvite
(d) Chloritoid and sillimanite.
Answer. (c)
Q.20: A metamorphic rock, containing very high content (more than 80%), would
indicate that the rock was originally a:
(a) Granite
(b) Syenite
(c) Sandstone
(d) Shale
Answer. (c)
Q.21: ln the lowest grades metamorphism, which variety of garnet is present:

(a) Spessartite
(b) Pyrope
(c) Andradite
(d) Grossularite.
Answer. (a)
Q.22: The products of thermal and high grade regional metamorphism, generally containing:
(a) Two - coordinated aluminum
(b) Four - coordinated aluminum.
(c) Six - coordinated aluminum
(d) Eight- coordinated aluminum
Answer. (b)
Q.23: Mineralogical rearrangement of high temperature assemblage to a low temperature

one takes place then the metamorphism is known as:
(a) Puro metamorphism
(b) Contact metamorphism
(c) Retrograde metamorphism
(d) Plutonic metamorphism
Answer. (c)
Q.24: Metamorphism involves process of:

(a) Liquid - state recrystallisation.
(b) Solid -liquid - state recrystallisation
(c) Solid-state recrystallisation
(d) Solid - gas - state recrystallisation.
Answer. (c)
Q.25: The predominant agent in contact metamorphism is:

(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Chemical fluid
(d) None of these.
Answer. (a)
Paleontology Practice Test Geology Paper

Paleontology Practice Test Geology Paper
Geology Mcq Paper
Q.1: Match the following:

l ll
1. Disconformity. i. Non-depositional unconformity.
2. Non-conformity. ii. Between residual soil and under lying rocks
3. Local-unconformity. iii. Parallel unconform.
4. Blended unconformity. iv. Heterolithic unconformity.
(a) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii.
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(c) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i.
(d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4- iii.
Answer. (a)
Q.2: lnlier structure is formed:

(a) When the younger rocks surrounded by older rocks.
(b) When the older rocks surrounded by younger rocks.
(c) When both older and younger rocks are surrounded by a ring dyke.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)
Q.3: Which unconformity shows very less age difference between the overlying and
underlying beds:
(a) Angular unconformity.
(b) Non conformity.
(c) Disconformity.
(d) Local unconformity.
Answer. (d)
Q.4: One of the plate of the apical disc in an echinoid shell is perforated, this plate is
Known as:
(a) Ocular plates
(b) Genital plate
(C) Med reproach plate
(d) Ambulacra plate
ANSWER. (c)
Q.5: Blind valleys are found in:

(a) Aeolian topography.
(b) Karst topography.
(c) Glacier topography.
(d) All of these.
Answer. (b)
Q.6: Macedon in an echinoid is associated with:

(a) Tubercle
(b) Apical
(c) Corona
(d) Periscope
ANSWER. (a)
Q.7: The whole skeleton of a simple colony of graptolites is known as:

(a) Rhomboid
(b) Rhabdosome
(c) Phenotype
(d) Hierarchy
ANSWER. (b)
Q.8: Which form of the graptolites is well known during upper Cambrian age?
(a) Tetragraptus
(b) Clonograptus
(c)Bryograptus
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.9: Benthonic foraminifera’s were distributed all over the world during the:
(a) Paleozoic era
(b) Mesozoic era
(c) Tertiary era
(d) Cenozoic era
ANSWER. (c)
Q.10: The earliest fossils of foraminifera are found in:

(a) Permian rocks
(b) Carboniferous rocks
(c) Silurian rocks
(d) Upper Cambrian rocks
ANSWER. (d)
Q.11: A new genus 'indomarssoneIla" has been discovered from the Jurassic rocks of
Katch is:
(a) Gastropod
(b) Ammonites
(c) Foraminifera
(d) Trilobite.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.12: Remain of Dinosaurian bones have been found from the ...... formation of Godavari valley:
(a) Pachmari
(B) Maleri
(c) Bagra
(d) Kota
Q.13: The fossils of the Archaeopteryx were discovered from:

(a) Triassic rocks Assam
(b) Jurassic rocks of Bavaria
(c) Cretaceous rocks of Texas
(d) Permian rocks of Russia.
ANSWER.(b)
Q.14: The discovery of Dinosaurian bones from the lntertrappean beds of a jar, Gujarat,
Indicating that the Dinosaurs have survived in India even during the:
(a) Permian
(b) Paleocene
(c) Miocene
(d) Pleistocene.
ANSWER.(b)
Q.15: Which was the first horse in old word:

(a) Merychippus
(b) Equips
(c) Eohippus
(d) Mesohippus
ANSWER.(c)
Q.16: Mesohippus and Mesohippus are the:

(a) Miocene horses
(b) Cretaceous horse
(c) Eocene horses
(d) Oligocene horses.
ANSWER.(d)
Q.17: Hyperion was the:

(a) Upper Pliocene horse
(b) Lower Pliocene horse
(c) Lower Cambrian horse
(d) Upper Permian horse.
ANSWER.(b)
Q.18 : Horse belongs to:
(a) Primates
(b) Perissodactyla
(c) Artiodactyla
(d) Tubulidnta
ANSWER.(b)
Q.19: Eohippus is also known as:

(a) Modern horse
(b) Mountain horse
(c) Dawn horse
(d) None of these
ANSWER.(c)
Q.20: During the evolution of horse the changes took place:

(a) Increase in size
(b) Lengthening of legs
(c) Reduction of number of toes.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER.(d)
Q.21: Which one belongs to similar family?

(a) Horse
(b) Elephant
(c) Man
(d) Fish
ANSWER.(c)
Q.22: The brain capacity of modem man is:

(a) 1500 cubic centimeters
(b) 1000 cubic centimeter
(c) 800 cubic centimeters
(d) 400 cubic centimeters
ANSWER.(a)
Q.23: The most ancient ancestors of man seem to have appeared during:
(a) Paleocene age
(b) Oligocene age
(c) Pliocene age
(d) Pleistocene age
ANSWER.(c)
Q. 24 : Which man is known as Java man :

(a) Ramapithecus
(b) Australopithecus
(c) Pithecanthropus
(d) Sinanthropus
ANSWER.(c)
Q. 25 :Which was the last of old stone age man :

(a) Cro-Magnon man
(b) Piltdown man
(c) Rhodesian man
(d) Neanderthal man.
ANSWER.(a)
PETROLOGY Geology ONGC MCQ
PETROLOGY Geology ONGC MCQ

Geology Model Test Paper
Q.1: Batholiths are generally associated with:
(a) Island arcs.
(b) Folded structures.
(C) Orogenic belts.
(d). Earthquake zones.
Answer. (c)
Q.2: The process of conversion of glassy material to crystallised material is known as:
(a) Crystallisation.
(b) Devitrification.
(c) Eutectic process.
(d) Assimilation.
Answer. (b)
Q.3: A rock made up of euhedral crystals, the texture is described as:

(a) Allotriomorphic.
(b)Hypidiomorphic.
(c) Panidomorphic.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)
Q.4: Ophitic texture is commonly shown by:

(a) Trachyte.
(b) Lamprophyres.
(C) Andesite.
(d) Dolerite.
Answer. (d)
Q.5: The Deccan trap basalt, as it is porphyric in nature, the phenocrysts are:
a) Plagioclase.
b) Plagioclase and olivine.
c) Plagioclase, olivine and clinopyroxene.
d) Olivine and clinopyroxene.
Answer. (c)
Q.6: Calc-alkaline plutonic rocks are chiefly composed of:
(a) Felspars and pyroxenes.
(b) Felspars and micas.
(c) Quartz and pyroxenes.
(d) Felspar and Quartz.
Answer. (d)
Q.7: When the groundmass is glassy in a porphyritic texture, it is called:

(a) Poikilitic texture.
(b) Orthophyric texture.
(c) Vitrophyric texture.
(d) Felsophyric texture.
Answer. (c)
Q.8: Jungel metavolcanic suite (central India) predominantly known for:

(a) Acidic basalt.
(b) Alkali basalt.
(c) Platean basalt.
(d) Tholiitic basalt
Answer. (b)
Q.9: Which one is a pure natural glass of granitic composition:

(a) Rhyolite.
(b) Pitchstone.
(c) Obsidian.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)
Q.10: A common decomposition in basaltic rocks involve:

(a) Oxidation of Mg.
(b) Oxidation of Fe.
(c) Hydration of Fe.
(d) Hydration of K.
Answer. (b)
Q.11: Aplite is a:
a) Fine-grained, unequigranular rock.
b) Fine-grained, equigranular, paniodiomorphic form of a plutonic rocks.
c) Fine-grained, equigranular, allotriomorphic form of a plutonic rock.
d) Volcanic rock.
Answer. (c)
Q.12: Plutonic lgneous rocks are formed under:
(a) Deep seated and moderate temp-pressure conditions.
(b) Near the earth’s surface and high temperature pressure conditions.
(c) Deep seated high temperature pressure and fast cooling conditions.
(d) Deep seated, high temperature pressure and slow cooling conditions.
Answer. (d)
Q.13: Anorthosite dominantly composed of:
(a) Oligoclase felspar.
(b) Anorthoclase felspar.
(C) Labrodorite felspar.
(d) Orthoclase felspar.
Answer. (c)
Q.14: Lamprophyres generally occur as:

(a) Batholiths.
(b) Dykes and sills.
(c) Plutons.
(d) Laccolith.
Answer. (b)

I II
1. A coarse-grained, light-coloured rock. i. Rhyolite
2. A coarse-grained, dark-coloured rock. ii. Gabbro.
3. A fine-grained, light-coloured rock. iii. Granite
4. A fine-granied, dark-coloured rock. iv. Basalt.
(a) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i.
(b) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv.
(c) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
(d) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 3-i.
Answer. (b)
Q.16: Name the coarse-grained (plutonic) rock consisting primarilly of sodic plagioclase and
hornblende:
(a) Syenite.
(b) Diorite.
(c) Gabbro.
(d) Granite.
Answer. (b)
Q.17: Ultrabasic basalt rich ln augite is called:

a) Oceanite.
b) Diabase.
c) Kimberlite.
d) Ankaramite.
Answer. (d)
Q.18: A rock composed of about 50% nephaline and rest consisting of other matic minerals
is generally known as:
(a) Dunite.
(b) Kimberlite
(c) Iiolite.
(d) Pulaskite.
Answer. (c)
Q.19: The first minerals to crystallise from a completely or almost anhydrous melt at high
temperature are called:
(a) Hydatogenetic minerals.
(b) Pyrogenetic minerals.
(c) Pegmatitic minerals.
(d) Orthomagmatic minerals.
Answer. (b)
Q.20 Present of water in the melt causes:

(a) Lowering of the solidus and liquidus temperatures.
(b) Rising of the solidus and liquidus temperatures.
(c) No change of the solidus and liquidus temperature.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (a)
Q.21: What is the evidence of devitrification:
(a) Corona structure.
(b) Orbicular structure.
(c) Perlitic.
(d) Percussion figure.
Answer. (c)
Q.22: Sagenitic texture is shown by:

(a) Rutile.
(b) llmemite.
(C) Ijolite.
(d) Microcline.
Answer. (a)

I ll
1. Leucocratic. i. Dark coloured rock.
2. Mesocractic. ii. Light coloured rock.
3. Melanocratic. iii. Extremely dark coloured rock.
4. Hypermolanocratic. iv. Intermediate in colour.
a) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4- iii.
b) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i.
c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
Answer. (a)
Q.24: The larger crystals in the core of zoned pegmatites are the result of the .... of the magma:
(a) Higher viscosity.
(b) Lower viscosity.
(c) More ion concentration.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)
Q.25: The grain-size variation is more or less continuous from smallest to largest, the
texture is called:
(a) Seriate.
(b) Porphyritic.
(C) Poikilitic.
(d) Miarolitic.
Answer. (a)
Petrology, Geology Test Paper

Petrology, Geology Test Paper
Geology Question Paper
Q.1: Igneous rocks with high concentration of Mg and Fe are likely to have formed from
magmas originally derived from:
(a) SIAL.
(b) SIMA.
(c) MANTLE.
(d) Outer Core.
Answer. (c)
Q.2: At constant chemical composition, in the absence of volatiles, the melting temperature
shifts to:
(a) Lower temperatures at higher pressures.
(b) Higher temperatures at higher pressures.
(c) Higher temperatures at lower pressure.
(d) There is no change in melting temperature.
Answer. (b)
Q.3: The crystallization of magma is governed by the factor/factors:

(a) Temperature and pressure.
(b) Composition of magma.
(c) Viscosity of magma.
(d) All the above.
Answer. (d)
Q.4: The minerals that crystallise from a particular melt, and their sequence, depend entirely
upon the:
(a) Pressure only.
(b) Pressure and Temperature only.
(c) Pressure, Temperature and constituents concentration.
(d) Temperature and constituents concentration only.
Answer. (c)
Q.5: Early crystallised biotites and amphlboles can decomposed into fine aggregates of
felspars, pyroxenes and Fe-Tl oxides , because of:
(a) Water-deficient magma systems.
(b) Very high temperature in the system.
(c) Very high pressure in the system.
(d) Variable magma systems.
Answer. (a)
Q.6: At what ratio, the intergrowth of orthoclase and quartz minerals give a graphic texture:
(a) 48 : 68.
(b) 52.5 : 60.5.
(c) 65: 78.
(d) 72.5: 27.5.
Answer. (d)
Q.7: The temperature range, for which the Bowen’s Reaction series has been worked out is
from:
(a) 1200°c to 635°c.
(b) 1100°c to 450°C.
(c) 1100°C to 573°C.
(d) 900°C to 573°C.
Answer. (c)
Q.8: Phase diagrams are graphic devices illustrating equilibrium between:

(a) Temperature and pressure in the magma.
(b) Different phased and their compositions.
(c) Different compositions of the magma.
(d) Volalites saturation and composition of the magma.
Answer. (b)
Q.9: Forsterite and quartz react to form:

(a) Olivine.
(b) Oiopside.
(c) Ferrosilite.
(d) Enstatite.
Answer. (d)
Q.10: Pipes or narrow, funnel-shaped bodies filled with accidental and gas-charged juvenile
magmatic material are known as:
(a) Xenoliths.
(b) Diatrames.
(c) Mafurite.
(d) Dike.
Answer. (b)
Q.11: Zoned crystals are formed under the condition of:

(a) Rapid cooling
(b) Slow cooling
(c) Intermediate cooling
(d) Any rate of cooling
Answer. (c)
Q.12: lf a magma crystallises at a temperature of about 1500°C, its likely composition will be:
(a) Mafic.
(b) Felsic.
(c) Mixture of mafic and felsic.
(d) More felsic less mafic.
Answer. (a)
Q.13: Large crystals in pegmatite are formed due to:

(a) lnfluence of cooling rate.
(b) The presence of abundant volatiles in magma.
(c) Very high pressure.
(d) All the above.
Answer. (b)
Q.14: Rise of magma in shallow regions of the brittle crust is permitted by:
(a) Stoping and Assimilation.
(b) Diatreme formation.
(c) Uplift of roof rocks.
(d) All the above.
Answer. (d)
Q.15: CFBP stands for:

(a) Coal Fields Bio-product.
(b) Continental Flood Basal provision.
(c) Continental Frontal Basal platform.
(d) Chlorine Florine Bio-products.
Answer. (b)
Q.16: Deccan traps are predominantly tholeiitic characterised by:

(a) Higher Fe and Ti.
(b) Lower Fe and Ti.
(C) Higher AI and Ca.
(d) Higher Mg and Na.
Answer. (a)
Q.17: Which volcanic rock contains the lowest percentage of silica:

(a) Basalt
(b) Andesite.
(c) Trachyte.
(d) Rhyolite.
Answer. (a)
Q.18: Which volcanic rocks are characteristics of orogenic regions:

(a) Calc-volcanic rocks.
(b) Calc-Alkali volcanic rocks.
(c) Alkali-volcanic rocks.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)
Q.19: Pipe amygdales, commonly occur at the:

(a) Top of the flow.
(b) Middle of the flow.
(c) Base of the flow.
(d) Contact of two flows.
Answer. (c)
Q.20: The forms of the igneous bodies, depends upon:

(a) Mode of formation.
(b) Viscosity of magma.
(c) Nature of the country rocks.
(d) All the above.
Answer. (d)
Q.21: Stock, bosses and roof-pendants are related to:

(a) Dyke.
(b) Sill.
(c) Batholiths.
(d) Lopolith.
Answer. (c)

I II
1. Laccolith. i. Saucer shaped intrusive body.
2. Lopolith. ii. Cressentric shaped igneous body
3. Bysmalith. iii. Convex top and flat bottom.
4. Phacolith iv. Broken intrusive body.
a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
b) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
Answer. (a)
Q.23: Basaltic lavas can flow to greater distances because of:

a) High viscosity.
b) Low viscosity.
c) High temperature.
d) Low temperature.
Answer. (b)
Q.24: Myrmekite structure is produced by intergrowth of:

a) Quartz and plagioclase.
b) Quartz and orthoclase.
c) Plagioclase and Angite.
d) Albite and oligoclase.
Answer. (a)
Q.25: The Myrmekite structure is generally found in:

(a) Basaltic rocks.
(b) Granitic rocks.
(C) Diorite rock.
(d) Dunite rock.
Answer. (b)
Physical Geology Model Test Paper

Physical Geology Model Test Paper
Sample Paper Geology
Q. 1 : In the continental drift theory who gave the idea that the continent broke due to
Tidal force of moon:
(a) Wegener
(b) Henry Hess.
(c) Taylor.
(d) Du Toit.
Answer ( C )
Q. 2: According to the Wegener the vast master continent was named

(a) Panthalassa.
(b) Pan gea.
(c) Gondwana.
(d) Laurasia.
Answer ( B )
Q3. :Match The following :

I , ll
1. Bombs (i) 4 mm to 32 mm
2. Cinders (ii) Less than 0.25 mm
3. Ash (iii) Above 32 mm
4. Fine ash (iv) 0.25 mm to 4 mm
(a)1-i,2-ii,3-iii,4-iv .
(b)1-ii,2-iii,3-iv,4-l
(c) 1-iv, 2-4, 3-ii, 4-iii
(d) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
Answer ( D)
Q. 4 : A great elongate rough in the earth's crust that accumulates a great thickness of
sediment that may ultimately results into a major system of mountain is known as :
(a) Anticlinorium
(b) Synclinorium
(c) Greanticline
(d) Geosyncline.
Answer ( D)
Q. 5 : The geosyncline which lies with the craton is known as

(a) Orthogeosyncline ~
(b) Miogeosyncline
(c) Para geosyncline
(d) Autogeosyncline.
Answer (C )
Q. 6 : The miogeosyncline may actually represent only a transitional zone along the :
(a) Subsiding edge of the continent.
(b) Rising edge of the continent
(c) Stable position of the continent.
(d) None of these.
Answer (A )
Q. 7 : In a geosynclinals basin the following relation exists between rate of subsidence and
rate of sedimentation :
(a) Quick deposition and quick subsidence.
(b) Quick deposition and slow subsidence
(c) Slow deposition and quick subsidence.
(d) Slow deposition and slow subsidence.
Answer (D)
Q. 8 : The topography of the globe is characterized by :

(a) The presence of elevations
(b) The presence of plains,
(c) The presence of depressions
(d) All the above.
Answer ( D)
Q. 9 : Mark correct order of the terms to describe the elevated land-masses :

(a) Hillock, mountain, range, system, chain and cordillera
(b) Hillock, mountain, range, chain, system and cordillera
(c) Hillock, mountain, chain, range, cordillera and system
(d) Hillock, mountain, chain, range, system and cordillera.
Answer (A )
Q. 10: The deccan plateau and the chhota Nagpur plateau are the examples :
(a) Fold mountain
(b) Fault mountain
(c) Residual mountain
(d) Volcanic mountain.
Answer ( C)
Q. 11 : The Himalayas in India are the examples of :

(a) Fold mountain
(b) Block mountain
(c) Volcanic mountain
(d) Complex mountain.
Answer ( D)
Q. 12 : The largest mountain rangelin the world is :

(a) Alps
(b) Andes
(c) Himalayas
(d) Rockies
Answer ( B)
Q. 13 : According to wagener, the rockies and andies were formed by :

(a) West ward drifting of the continents
(b) Eastward drifting of the continents
(c) North-westward drifting of the continues
(d) Convectional currents.
Answer (A )
Q. 14 : According to plate tectonics theory the Himalayas were formed because of the :
(aj Southward movement of the Chinese-plate against Indian- plate.
(b) East ward movement of the Chinese-plate and westward movement of the Indian-plate.
(c) Northward movement of the indian-plate against Chinese-plate.
(d) None of these.
Answer ( C )
Q. 15 : Complex fold mountains are generally associated with :
(a) Laccolith.
(b) Lopolith.
(c) Phacotilh.
(d) Batholith.
Answer ( D)
Q. 16: Which is the oldest mountain range in India :

(a) Satpura.
(b) Vindhayan.
(c) Aravalli.
(d) Himalaya.
Answer ( C )
Q.18. Nallamali hill belongs to :

(a) The Eastern ghats.
(b The Westem ghats.
(c) The Rajmahal hills.
(d) None of these.
Answer (a)
Q. 19 : _‘Sahyadris’ also known as :

(a) Eastern ghats.
(b) Rajmahal hills.
(c) Western ghats.
(d) Vindhalayan mountain.
Answer (C)
Q. 20 : The mountain which forms the Western boundary of the Indian sub-continent is
known as : -
(a) Sahyadris.
(b) Satpura.
(c) Hindukush.
(d) Aravalli.
Answer (C)
Q. 21. : The Airy’s theory states that the different crystal blacks are of :
(a) Equal density and equal thickness.
(b) Equal density and unequal thickness.
(c) Unequal density and equal thickness.
(d) Unequal density and unequal thickness.
Answer ( B)
Q. 22 : According to the Airy’s theory :

(a) The lighter mountains floating on the ligher sub-stratum.
(b) The ligher mountains floating on the denser sub-stratum.
(c) The denser mountain floating on the denser sub-stratum.
(d}The denser mountain tloating on the lighter sum-stratum.
Answer ( B )
Q. 23: The term ‘lsostasy’ is not related with:

(a) Gravity.
(b) Equipoise. ,
(c) Balance.
(d) Drifting.
Answer ( D)
Q. 24 : lsostasy exists in the :

(a) Crust only. '
(b) Crust and upper mantle only#
(c) Crust and transition zone only.
(d) Crust and lower mantle only.
Answer ( B )
Q. 25: A level, where the pressure due to the elevated masses and depressed areas is
equal is called the :
(a) lsostatic level.
(b) lsopiestic level.
(c) Isotary level.
(d) None df these.
Answer (B )
Solved Geology Question Paper

Solved Geology Question Paper
Geology Objective Test Paper
1. In short columns failure occurs by
(a) Pure buckling
(b) Combination of bending and direct compression
(c) Direct compression only
Answer. (c)
2. If the shear force is zero along a section, bending moment at that section will be
(a) Minimum
(b) Maximum
(c) Zero
(d) Either minimum or maximum
Answer. (d)
3. Point of contraflexure in a cantilever of spane l,
carrying a u.d.l. w/m occurs at
(a) Mid spane
(b) Free end
(c) Fixed end
(d) Does not exist
Answer. (d)
4. Maximum bending stress in a cantilever of rectangular cross-section occurs at
(a) Free end
(b) Mid span
(c) Fixed end

Answer. (c)
5. In a rectangular beam, the maximum shear stress occurs at
(a) Top fibre of the section
(b) Anywhere cross the depth
(c) Bottom of the section
(d) Only at neutral axis
Answer. (d)
6. Difference in ordinate of shear force diagram
between any two points is equal to the area under
(a) Shear curve between these points
(b) Bending moment diagram between these points
(c) Load diagram between these points
Answer. (c)
7. For a simply supported beam having a load at
the centre, the bending moment will be
(a) Minimum at support
(b) Minimum at the centre
(c) Maximum at the supports
(d) Minimum and maximum could be any where,along the length
Answer. (a)
8. The central deflection in a fixed beam i.e., supported firmly
at both ends and loaded in the centre compared to a freely
supported beam will be
(a) Same
(b) Double
(c) One-half
(d) One-fourth
Answer. (d)
9. If the compressive stress in a tower due to a load and its own
weight is to be constant at all sections, then its cross-section at
various sections should be of
(a) Uniform shape
(b) Tapering shape
(c) Parabolic shape
(d) Some other shape
Answer. (d)
10. In order to determine whether a column is long or short, one should know
(a) Length
(b) Cross-section
(c) M.I.
(d) Slenderness ratio
Answer. (d)
11. Proof stress
(a) Is the safest stress
(b) Cause a specified permanent deformation in a material, usually 0.01% or less
(c) Is used in connection with materials like mild steel
(d) Does not exist
Answer. (a)
12. During the tensile test of a glass rod the nature of stress-strain curve is
(a) Straight and droping
(b) Sudden break
(c) Straight line
(d) Parabolic
Answer. (b)
13. A continuous beam is one which is
(a) Infinitely long
(b) Supported at two places
(c) Supported at one point
(d) Supported at more than two supports
Answer. (d)
14. The extension of uniform bar by its own weight
as compared to a bar loaded by same weight at the free end will be
(a) Same
(b) Half
(c) One-fourth
(d) One-third
Answer. (b)
15. Ratio of length of column to the minimum radius of
gyration of the cross sectional area of the column is
known as
(a) Slenderness ratio
(b) Buckling factor
(c) Crippling factor
(d) Compressive factor
Answer. (a)
16. Strain rosettes are used to
(a) Produce strains for testing purpose
(b) Relieve strain in heavily loaded components
(c) Measure strain
(d) Analyse property of materials
Answer. (c)
17. Shear stress on mutually perpendicular planes are

(a) Zero
(b) Minimum
(c) Maximum
(d) Equal
Answer. (d)
18. As the slenderness ratio of a column increases, its compressive strength
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Unpredictable
Answer. (b)
19. For biaxial stress the maximum shear stress
occurs on plane inclined at following angle to
the principal normal plane
(a) 90°
(b) 45°
(c) 145°
(d) 135°
Answer. (b)
20. The extremities of any diameter on Mohr’s circle
represent
(a) Principal stresses
(b) Normal stresses on planes at 45°
(c) Shear stresses on planes at 45°
(d) Normal and shear stresses on a plane
Answer. (b)
21. Shear stress along the principal plane subjected
to maximum principal stress is

(a) Minimum
(b) Maximum
(c) Zero
(d) Negative
Answer. (c)
22. On the planes having maximum or minimum principal
stresses, the tangential stress will be
(a) Minimum
(b) Maximum
(c) Zero
(d) Infinity
Answer. (c)
23. A long column fails by
(a) Crushing
(b) Tension
(c) Shearing
(d) Buckling and crushing
Answer. (b)
24. Normal stress on the planes of minimum stress
in of plane stress problems will be
(a) Zero
(b) Maximum
(c) Half the difference of two mutually perpendicular stresses
(d) Principal stress
Answer. (a)
25. Stress at the boundary of the kern is
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Zero
(d) Any value
Answer. (c)
Structural Geology Practice Quiz

Structural Geology Practice Quiz
Free Online Geology Test
Q.1: Mark the the correct statement:
(a) An increase in lithostatic pressure caused a increase in the volume of rocks and an increase in
the density.
(b) An increase in Iithostatic pressure causes decrease in the volume of rocks but an increase in the
density.
(c) An increase in lithostatic pressure causes a decrease in the volume of rocks but an increase in
the density.
(d) An increase in lithostatic pressure causes no effect on the volume of rocks and in the density.
Answer. (c)
Q.2: “strain is proportional to stress in elastic deformation" is known as:

(a) Poisson’s ratio.
(b) Hooke’s law.
(c) Smith’s law.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)
Q.3: The probable ranges of compressive strength for common rocks are given below; mark
one of the most probable combination:
(a) Basalt 800-4200
(b) Sandstone 200-1700
(c) Granite 1000-2800
(d) Shale 100-1000
Answer. (c)
Q.4: ln a stress-strain binary diagram where the ordinate represents the increasing stress
and the abscissa represents the increasing strain, a line almost parallel to the abscissa is
characteristic of:
(a) Plastic material.
(b) Brittle material.
(c) Elastoplastic material.
(d) Ductile material.
Answer. (a)
Q.5: Factors which increase the ductility ot a rock are:

(a) Temperature and pressure.
(b) Rate of application of stress and temperature.
(c) Temperature and amount of intergranular fluids present in the rock.
(d) Pressure, rate of application of stress, temperature and amount of intergranular fluids present in
the rock.
Answer. (d)
Q.6: Width of outcrop of a bed on the ground depends upon:

(a) Thickness of the bed.
(b) Dip of the bed.
(c) Slope of the ground.
(d) All the three above.
Answer. (d)

(a) Topography has no influence on the pattern of vertical beds.
(b) The out crop pattern of vertical bed forms straight lines.
(c) The straight lines formed by outcrop pattern of vertical beds are parallel to the strike of the beds.
(d) All above are correct.
Answer. (d)
Q.8: Dip of a bed is a vector quantity because it has got:

(a) Direction.
(b) Magnitude.
(C) Direction and magnitude.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)
Q.9: Strike of a bed is determined by:

(a) Finding the direction in which the dip is nil.
(b) Bearing the dip where the ground is horizontal.
(c) Bearing the maximum angle of dip.
Answer. (a)
Q.10: The line of maximum curvature in a fold is known as:

(a) Crest.
(b) Axis.
(c) Hinge.
(d) Trough.
Answer. (c)
Q.11: An anticline fold may be defined as a fold that:

(a) Is convex upward.
(b) Has older rocks in the centre.
(c) The two limbs dip away from each other.
(d) All above definitions are correct.
Answer. (d)
Q.12: Drag folds:

(a) Occur within the competent beds.
(b) Within the competent beds.
(c) Within the incompetent beds are overlain by competent beds.
(d) When vertical stresses act on horizontal beds.
Answer. (c)
Q.13: A recumbent-syncline fold may be determined by observing:

(a) Its concave upwards.
(b) Its limbs dip towards the axial plane.
(c) Younger beds in the centre of the fold.
(d) Cannot be determined.
Answer. (c)
Q.14: When the axis plungs directly down the dip of the axial plane; the fold is known as:
(a) Plunging fold.
(b) Periclinal fold.
(c) Reclined fold.
(d) Flexure fold.
Answer. (c)
Q.15: Ptygmatic folding is a type of:

(a) Flexure folding.
(b) Shear-folding.
(c) Flow-folding.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)
Q.16: Salt domes are the best examples of:

(a) Diapiric fold.
(b) Reclined fold.
(c) Drag fold.
(d) Pericline fold.
Answer. (a)
Q.17: Lines joining points of equal limb dip in successive layers through the fold profile are
known as:
(a) Agonic lines.
(b) Isohyetes.
(c) Dip isogans.
(d) Contour lines.
Answer. (c)
Q.18: Choose the correct statement:
(a) ln class 1A folds, the isogons making an angle greater than limb dip.
(b) In class 1B folds, the isogons making an angle equal to the limb dip.
(c) ln class 1C folds, the isogons making an angle less than limb dip.
(d) All the above statements are correct.
Answer. (d)
Q.19: A Fold in which the anticlines become sharper and synclines become broader with
depth is known as:
(a) Parallel fold.
(b) Similar fold.
(c) Recumbent fold.
(d) Box fold.
Answer. (a)
Q.20: Which told is a type of conjugate fold:

(a) Fan fold.
(b) Chavron fold.
(c) Box fold.
(d) Kink bands.
Answer. (c)
Q.21: The minimum thickness between two tangents tor a given value of limb dip on two
surfaces of a folded layer is called:
(a) Isogonal thickness.
(b) True thickness.
(c) Orthogonal thickness. .
(d) All the above terms may be applied.
Answer. (c)
Q.22: The plung and pitch are equal when the beds are:
(a) Horizontal.
(b) Inclined.
(c) Inclined at 45°.
(d) Vertical.
Answer. (d)
Q.23: Two sets of related folds whose axial surfaces are inclined towards one another are called:
(a) Parallel folds.
(b) Similar folds.
(c) Conjugate folds.
(d) Complex folds.
Answer. (c)

l ll
1. Hade. i. Vertical slip.
2. Throw. ii. Total displacement.
3. Heave. iii. Angle between fault plane and vertical plane.
4. Net slip. iv. Horizontal dip slip.
(a) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4=iv
(c) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
(d) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii.
Answer. (c)
Q.25: Choose the correct statement:

(a) Vertical faults have a footwall in downthrow side and hanging wall in upthrow side.
(b) Vertical faults have a hanging Wall in downthrow side and foot wall in downthrow side.
(c) Vertical faults have neither a footwall nor a hanging wall.
(d) All the statements are wrong.
Answer. (c)
Multiple Choice Quiz

For each question below, choose the letter corresponding to the BEST answer.
1 Which of the following is NOT a type of plate boundary?
transform
A)
translational
B)
divergent boundary
C)
convergent boundary
D)
2 In which scenario below would you be likely to hire a geologist to help better understand the situation?
A spacecraft uses radar to map the surface of a planet in our Solar System.
A)
A volcano is erupting on a Pacific island.

B)
A small community is worried about contamination of their water wells from an industrial waste site.
C)
Geologists might be employed in all of these scenarios!

D)
3 In which of the following is geological knowledge useful?
protecting the environment

A)
avoiding geologic and other natural hazards

B)
Supplying things we need.

C)
All of these are areas where geological knowledge is useful!
D)
4 What process caused the greatest number of fatalities during the 2004 Indonesian earthquake?
City sewer systems failed causing epidemics of diseases like cholera and typhoid.
A)
Fires erupted following the earthquake, trapping many people in burning buildings.
B)
a tsunami along coastal areas of the Indian Ocean.

C)
Great chasms opened in the Earth and swallowed people whole.

D)
5 Earth's external heat engine is driven by what source of energy?
the Sun
A)
coal
B)
natural gas
C)
petroleum
D)
6 The most voluminous portion of the Earth is known to geologists as
the lithosphere.
A)
the mantle.
B)
the core.
C)
the crust.
D)
7 The lithosphere is that portion of the Earth where rocks behave as
rocks.
A)
fluids.
B)
plastic solids.
C)
brittle solids.
D)
8 Many divergent plate boundaries coincide with
the Mid-Ocean Ridge.

A)
the edges of the continents.

B)
explosive volcanic eruptions.

C)
transform faults.
D)
9 At transform plate boundaries,
two plates are subducted beneath each other.

A)
two plates move in opposite directions toward each other.

B)
two plates move in opposite directions away from each other.

C)
two plates slip horizontally past each other.
D)
10 A typical rate of plate motion is
1,000 kilometers per year.

A)
1 kilometer per year.

B)
1 - 18 centimeters per year.

C)
3 - 4 centimeters per year.

D)
11 The division of geology that is concerned with Earth materials, changes in the surface and interior of the Earth, and the
dynamic forces that cause those changes is
paleontology.
A)
geophysics.
B)
historical geology.
C)
physical geology.
D)
12 Which of the following are geologic hazards?
waves pounding on a coast

A)
earthquakes
B)
volcanoes
C)
all of these are geologic hazards
D)
13 Plate tectonics is
the rawest of speculation.

A)
a theory.
B)
a conjecture.
C)
an hypothesis.
D)
14 Geologists are generally agreed that Earth is
about 100 million years old.

A)
about 4.55 billion years old.

B)
about 6,000 years old.

C)
as old as the hills and twice as dusty.

D)
15 A subduction zone is most likely to be encountered
at a translational plate boundary.

A)
at a divergent plate boundary

B)
at a transform plate boundary

C)
at a convergent plate boundary.
D)
16 Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic are
three types of plate boundaries.

A)
three words composed of multiple syllables.

B)
three words that I never heard before.

C)
the three major classes of rocks.

D)
17 What volcanic process or phenomenon was responsible for the greatest number of fatalities during the eruption of Nevado del
Ruiz in 1985?
lava flows
A)
impacts of large rocks hurled hundreds of meters

B)
mudflows
C)
pyroclastic flows
D)
18 Which field of endeavor might employ a geologist?
oceanography
A)
environmental science
B)
petroleum industry
C)
all of these fields employ geologists
D)
19 Volcanic island arcs are associated with
transform boundaries.
A)
ocean-continent convergence.
B)
divergent boundaries.
C)
ocean-ocean convergence.
D)
20 Which of the following is NOT a subdivision of Earth's interior?
the magnetosphere
A)
the lithosphere
B)
the core
C)
the mantle
D)
Multiple Choices (chose the correct or the best answer)
1. Which of the following best defines a mineral and a rock?
A) A rock has an orderly, repetitive, geometrical, internal arrangement of minerals; a mineral is a

lithified or consolidated aggregate of rocks.
B) A mineral consists of its constituent atoms arranged in a geometrically repetitive structure; in

a rock, the atoms are randomly bonded without any geometric pattern.
C) In a mineral the constituent atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure;
a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of different mineral grains.
D) A rock consists of atoms bonded in a regular, geometrically predictable arrangement; a

mineral is a consolidated aggregate of different rock particles.
2. Which of the following is not a mineral?
A) olivine B) limestone C) calcite D) quartz
3. Which geologic concept is described by "the present is the key to the past"?
A) biblical prophesy B) uniformitarianism C) Aristotelian logic D)

catastrophism
4. The average thickness of the continental crust is about
A) 35-40 km B) 100-200 km C) 1000-2000 km D) 5-10 km
5. In correct order from the center outward, Earth includes which layers?
A) core, inner mantle, outer mantle, crust B) inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
C) inner core, crust, mantle, hydrosphere D) core, crust, mantle, hydrosphere
6. The tectonic plates
A) are the outermost shell of the solid Earth. B) are a rigid, solid layer about 100 km thick
C) includes the crust and the uppermost mantle D) all of the above
7. At mid-ocean ridges, two plates are
A) moving towards each other. B) moving away from each other.

C) sliding along each other. D) stationary.
8. According to Plate Tectonics theory, most active volcanoes occur
A) on continents. B) in large tectonic plates.
C) along plate boundaries. D) randomly over continents.
9. What are the two most abundant elements in the Earth’s crust?
A) iron and magnesium B) oxygen and silicon
C) nitrogen and oxygen D) silicon and calcium
10. Atoms of the same element (oxygen, for example) have the same number of __________.
A) electrons in the nucleus B) protons in the nucleus
C) neutrons in the outer nuclear shell D) electrons in the valence bond level
11. In table salt (NaCl), sodium and chlorine atoms bond by
A) sharing the electrons in their outer shells.
B) transferring an electron in the outer shell of the sodium atom to the outer shell of the
chlorine atom.
C) having valence electrons freely migrating among the ions of sodium and chlorine.
D) all above.
12. What mineral is the hardest known substance in nature?
A) graphite B) native gold C) diamond D) muscovite

13. Why is basalt finer grained than gabbro?
A) gabbro formed from quick cooling of magma.
B) basalt formed from quick cooling of magma.
C) basalt has a mafic composition.
D) gabbro has a mafic composition.
14. Visible quartz and potassium feldspar grains are the main constituents in a ____________.
A) granite B) gabbro C) basalt D) rhyolite
15. Which of the following minerals would crystallize early from a cooling silicate magma?
A) biotite B) quartz C) olivine D) muscovite
16. Magma generation in subduction zones are mainly caused by
A) releasing of water and volatiles from the subducting plate
B) pressure release in the subducting plate
C) temperature increase in the surrounding mantle
D) all above
17. Which of the following tend to increase the explosive potential of a magma body beneath a
volcano.
A) High viscosity and dissolved gas
B) High viscosity; low dissolved gas content
C) Low silica content, low viscosity
D) Low viscosity; low dissolved gas content

18. Eruptions dominated by basaltic lava flows typically form what type of volcanoes?
A) composite B) stratospheric
C) cinder cone D) shield
19. Why do magmas rise toward Earth's surface?
A) Magmas are more viscous than solid rocks in the crust and upper mantle.
B) Most magmas are richer in silica than most crustal and upper mantle rocks.
C) Magmas, being melts and having gases, are less dense than the adjacent solid rock.
D) magmas have higher content of pyroxenes than the surrounding rocks.
20. Which of the following is NOT a process of physical (mechanical) weathering?
A) Frost wedging
B) unloading
C) thermal expansion
D) dissolution
21. Which of the following silicate minerals are most resistant to chemical weathering?
A) quartz B) olivine C) hornblende D) potassium feldspar
22. In the soil profile, the A horizon
A) is located below the O horizon B) is called the zone of leaching
C) is part of the “top soil” D) all above

23. What is probably the single most important, original, depositional feature in sedimentary
rocks?
A) sizes of the sand grains
B) degree of lithification
C) bedding or stratification
D) compaction of the mud and clay
24. What is the main difference between a conglomerate and a sedimentary breccia?
A) Breccia clasts are angular; conglomerate clasts are rounded.
B) A breccia is well stratified; a conglomerate is poorly stratified.
C) Breccia clasts are the size of baseballs; conglomerate clasts are larger.
D) Breccia has a compacted, clay-rich matrix; conglomerate has no matrix.
25. Detrital sedimentary rocks are classified (named) based on the _________
A) colors of the cementing minerals
B) grain sizes of the detrital particles
C) compositions of soluble minerals
D) degree of compaction and lithification
26. Flint, chert, and jasper are microcrystalline forms of __________.
A) quartz; (SiO2) B) hematite (Fe2O3)
C) halite (NaCl) D) calcite (CaCO3)

27. Which of the following is the most common type of chemical sedimentary rock.
A) Limestone B) Chert
C) Phosphate rock D) Quartz sandstone
28. Which of following sedimentary rocks indicate long-distance transportation of the

sediements?
A) quartz sandstone
B) breccia
C) arkose (sandstone with lots of feldspar particles)
D) none of above
29. Which of the following forms at the highest grade of regional metamorphism?
A) gneiss B) schist
C) slate D) phyllite
30. What major change occurs during metamorphism of limestone to marble?
A) calcite grains recrystallize to larger and interlocked grains.
B) clays crystallize to micas, forming a highly foliated, mica-rich rock
C) limestone grains react to form quartz and feldspars
D) calcite grains are dissolved away leaving only marble crystals
31. What type of foliation results from the parallel alignment of abundant, coarse-grained, mica
flakes in a metamorphic rock?
A) schistosity B) gneissic banding

C) slaty cleavage D) phyllitic structure
32. Metamorphic rocks can form from
A) sedimentary rocks B) igneous rocks C) metamorphic rocks D) all above.
33. For undisturbed, horizontal strata of sedimentary rocks, their age
A) increases from top to bottom
B) decreases from top to bottom
C) can be determined from their color
D) is the same
34. What makes a good index fossil?
A) big and easy to see in the field
B) with a hard shell that can be easily preserved
C) spans over a long geological time period
D) widespread geographically and limited to a short span of geological time.
35. An igneous rock contains a radioactive isotope that has a half-life of 10 million years. Careful analysis shows
that only one quarter of the original concentration of the parent isotope is left. How old is this igneous rock?
A) 5 million years old B) 20 million years old C) 40 million years old D) 2.5 million years old
36. Which of the geological era is the youngest in the geologic time scale?
A) Precambrian. B) Mesozoic. C) Paleozoic. D) Cenozoic.
37. Lateral offset in drainage lines is commonly associated with
A) normal faults. B) reverse faults.

C) thrust faults. D) strike-slip faults.
38. Ductile deformation become important when
A) the temperature is hign
B) the confining pressure is high
C) deformation happens slowly
D) all above
39. In an structural basin, the youngest strata is found
A) at the center of the basin
B) on the margins of the basin
C) half-way between the center and the margins of the basin
D) beneath the older strata.
40. Which statement best describes motion on a normal fault?
A) The hanging wall block moved downward relative to the footwall block.
B) The hanging wall block moved upward relative to the footwall block.
C) The hanging wall block moved horizontally relative to the footwall block.
D) Faults are simple breaks in the crust along which no movement has occurred.

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Geology Practice Sample Test

Geology Practice Sample Test

Q.1. A right circular cylinder open at the top is filled

Q.2. Velocity of fluid particle at the centre of pipe section is

Q.3. Tranquil flow must always occur

Q.4. Boundary layer separation is caused by

Q.5. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to

Q.6. Ratio of inertia force to pressure forces is related

Q.7. Process of diffusion of one liquid into other

Q.8. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical

Q.9. To replace a compound pipe by a new pipe, the

Q.10. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and

Q.11. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a

Q.12. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is

Q.13. The point in the immerse body through which

Q17: A contour line intersects a ridge line or valley line:

Q.18: Ring contours of higher values outward represent a:

Q.19: For contouring a hilly terrain which method is most suitable:

Q.23: The face left position is also called:

Q.24: Balancing of traverse is done according to the:

Q.25: The horizontal distance between two consecutive contours is termed as a:

GK Sample Paper for All Competitive Exams.

GK Sample Paper for All Competitive Exams.

Model Test Paper GK

2. The Keil canal links the:

(a) Pacific and Atlantic Ocean

(b) Mediterranean and Red sea

(c) Mediterranean and Black Sea

(d) North Sea and Baltic Sea

3. The land area of India in comparison to the

Whole world is:

4. The smallest planet is:

(a) Contour lines showing equal amount of Sunshine

(c) Contour lines of equal rainfall

(d) Contour lines of equal air pressure

(d) Choda Ganga

7. Which of the following substance is bad Conductor of

Electricity but good conductor of heat?

8. The atmospheric layer farthest from the

Earth’s surface is known as:

9. In which of the following city Charminar is situated?

11. An essential attribute of inflation is:

(a) The absence of the black-market

(b) The presence of black-market

(c) Increase in prices

(d) Fall in production

12. Devaluation of currency basically helps to Promote:

(a) National Income

(c) Imports at lower cost

13. The salient feature of socialism is:

(a) Private ownership of means of production

(b) Abolition of property

(c) State ownership of all means of production

(d) State control over distribution and Consumption

(a) Natwar Singh

(c) Smt. Vijay Laxmi Pandit

(d) Ramesh Bhandari

15. General Assembly of the United Nations

(a) Once a year

(b) Twice a year

(c) Once in two years

17. The national award instituted for sports Coaches is:

(a) Arjun Award