ENT MIDTERMS SAMPLEX

Dr. OC MOVES

MIDTERM EXAMINATION C 22. Cyst lined by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and
FEBRUARY 20, 2007 may contain keratin and any skin appendages, like hair follicles,
sweat or sebaceous glands
A. MEDIAN RHOMBOID GLOSSITIS D. MACROGLOSSIA A. Nasoalveolar
B. ANKYLOGLOSSIA E. MICROGNATHIA C. Dermoid
C. PROGNATHISM B. Nasopalatine
D 1. Differential Diagnosis would include Neurofibromatosis D. Retention
A 2. Embryonic failure of the tuberculum impart to be covered by C 23. An enlarged retention cyst
the lateral lingual tubercles A. mucocele B. mucomyst
C 3. Anterior placement of the lower jaw which maybe absolute or C. ranula D. dermoid
relative D 24. Not true of granuloma pyogenieum
B 4. Affects speech sounds “A”, “D” and “N” A. a sequel of dental pulp infection
E 5. Due to the failure in the Growth center in the condyle B. appears as reddish fleshy mass attached to the gingivae,
usually near the incisors
A. FIRST POUCH D. SECOND BRANCHIAL ARCH C. managed by excision and tooth extraction
B. FIRST BRANCHIAL ARCH E. THIRD POUCH D. none of the above
C. SECOND POUCH C 25. Tongue characterized by small fissures dividing the papillae into
E 6. Where the Thymus develops groups/clumps
D 7. This is the Hyoid or Reichert’s Cartilage A. black hairy tongue
A 8. The Eustachian Tubes and the Middle Ear Develops from _____. C. scrotal tongue
B 9. The Malleus, Incus and Sphenomandibular ligament are derived B. geographic tongue
C 10. Where the Tonsillar Fossa develops D. median rhomboid glossitis
C 26. Not true of ameloblastomas
A. PHARYNGEAL BURSAE D. EPIGLOTITTIS A. may arise from dentigerous cysts
B. VALLECULAE E. TORUS TUBARIUS B. managed like a malignant tumor because of aggressive
C. PALATOGLOSSUS F. PALATOPHARYNGEUS behavior
B 11. Anatomical pill pocket C. usually found in the maxilla
E 12. Protruding Posterior part of the Tubal Cartilage anterior to the D. surgical defect may be repaired with fibula, iliac bone or
Eustachian tube ribs
F 13. Posterior Tonsillar Pillar B 27. This lesion is frequently monostotic, affects females, found in
D 14. Action is to protect the glottis and prevents aspiration the maxilla, “burns out” in late adolescence, producing painless
A 15. Embryological remnant of the notochord presenting as a sac- facial asymmetry
like depression in the posterior wall A. Myxoma C. cementifying fibroma
C 16. Anterior Tonsillar Pillar B. fibrous dysplasia D. epulis
D 28. Not true of choanal atresia
ORAL CAVITY, OROPHARYNX AND NASOPHARYNX A. often caused by a persistent bony plate in the choana
D 17. Do not usually require treatment B. presents as an emergency at birth if bilateral
A. median rhomboid glossitis C. torus mandibularis C. may be managed temporarily with a plastic oral airway
B. mild ankyloglossia D. all of the above in the mouth
B 18. Not true of the cleft lip and palate D. unilateral atresia needs immediate correction
A. correction of ear/hearing problems are important for B 29. The best way to diagnose a juvenile nasopharyngeal
speech development angiofibroma includes the following, EXCEPT:
B. cleft palate is usually repaired at the age ten weeks A. Biopsy B. clinical examination
C. enlarged tonsils and adenoids are not removed to C. CT Scan D. MRI
reduce nasality of voice D 30. Peritonsillar abscess may be managed by
D. Managed by “team approach.” A. Incision and Drainage C. Tonsillectomy after 1 month
A 19. Characterized by micrognathia, cleft palate and glossoptosis B. Intravenous Antibiotics D. All of these
A. Robin anomaly C. Crouzon Disease C 31. Not an absolute indication for tonsillectomy
B. Apert syndrome D. None of these A. Cor Pulmonale C. Chronicity (3 – 4 times year)
D 20. True of dentigerous cysts B. Peritonsillar Abscess D. Suspicion of Malignancy
A. contain the crown of an unerupted tooth C 32. Abscess common in infants & children, found anterior to the
B. usually involves the premolars, molars or caines prevertebral fascia, characterized by dysphagia, pain on swallowing
C. often solitary and presents as an airway obstruction
D. all of the above A. Masticator B. Ludwig’s
B 21. Not true of radicular cysts C. Peritonsillar D. Retropharyngeal
A. epithelial rests of Malassez proliferate in the apical D 33. Not part of the treatment of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
granuloma A. tracheostomy & tonsillectomy
B. enlarge and cause mandibular deformity C. Avoidance of Alcohol
C. may result from dental caries B. CPAP
D. most common of oral cysts D. Sedatives

TRANSCOM| CLINGY |CHANG  MD 1

 ENT MIDTERMS SAMPLEX
Dr. OC MOVES

C. cricothyroid
LARYNX C 46. Intrinsic laryngeal muscle which act as adductor and tensor
B 34. A baby girl was delivered by NSD with an APGAR score of 9, 10 A. posterior cricoarytenoid D. thyroarytenoid
rd
and was discharge from the hospital on the 3 hospital day. She was B. interarytenoid E. lateral cricoarytenoid
th
well until on her 6 week of life, patient as noted to have “noisy” C. cricothyroid
breathing on inspiration. She has good cry and there were no E 47. TRUE of the laryngeal innervations EXCEPT:
episodes of aspiration or cyanosis during feeding. What do you A. Right laryngeal nerve hook around the right subclavian
expect to find on direct laryngoscopy? nerve
A. diminished subglottic diameter B. The superior laryngeal (internal branch) pierces the
B. Soft, collapsible epiglottis thyrohyoid membrane while the recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Bleeding in a dark, purplish subglottic mass enter the subglottis just below the cricothyroid articulation
D. None of the above C. both the superior and inferior branch have both motor
E 35. Management on this patient would be: and sensory innervations
A. Elective tracheostomy since no episode of cyanosis is D. the left laryngeal nerve is more prone to injury than the
noted right
B. Laser excision E. none of the above
C. Surgery E 48. The following structures can be seen/visualize in Indirect
D. Steroid therapy laryngoscopy EXCEPT:
E. None of the above A. Vallecula C. Epiglottis E. arytenoids
E 36. Fluid filled cystic lesion in the laryngeal ventricle B. aryepiglottic folds D. False vocal cords
A. laryngoceles C. epiglottic cyst
B. saccular cyst D. subglottic stenosis TRACHEA
E. none A. CROUP D. TRACHEOMALACIA
C 37. The superior laryngeal nerve gives a motor branch to the: B. TRACHE-ESOPHAGEAL FISTULA E. NONE OF THESE
A. posterior cricoarytenoid C. cricothyroid C. TRACHEAL STENOSIS
B. lateral cricoarytenoid D. thyroarytenoid C 49. Intrinsic narrowing lumen, walls are rigid and non-distensible;
C 38. The only complete circular cartilage in the laryngeal structure Sx: Respiratory Distress
A. Epiglottis C. cricoid cartilage A 50. Tachypnea, Barking cough, cyanosis, stridor caused by
B. thyroid cartilage D. arytenoids Influenza Type A
E 39. Extrinsic muscles of the larynx EXCEPT: D 51. Affecting part of all parts tracheal wall, softening of supporting
A. Mylohyoid C. Digastric cartilages; Sx: Stridor, barking cough, recurrent respiratory infection
B. Omohyoid D. Stylohyoid
E. None TRUE OF FALSE
B 40. Strap muscles of the larynx: F 52. Tracheotomy is a surgical opening into the trachea through
A. Mylohyoid C. Digastric which a tube can be passed
B. Omohyoid D. Stylohyoid F 53. Trachea begins superior border of Cricoid cartilage, ends at
A 41. Congenital laryngeal lesion associated with pectum excavatum Carina with 10 – 14 hyaline cartilages
A. Laryngomalacia C. Subglottic hemangioma T 54. During Deep Inspiration Thoracic Part widens
B. subglottic stenosis D. Congenital laryngeal paralysis F 55. During Forced Expiration Thoracic part widens
C 42. Most common location of the congenital laryngeal web: F 56. Trachea is a fibromuscular tube with 10 – 14 hyaline cartilages
A. Supraglottis F 57. The length of the trachea is 14 – 20 cm
C. Subglottis T 58. The diameter of the trachea is 17 – 24 cm
B. Glottis T 59. Tracheo-esophageal fistula are immediate and delayed
D. Trachea complications
E 43. Out patient laryngoscopy can be done through the following, F 60. Tracheostomy is a surgical procedure use to create and opening
EXCEPT: D 61. Delayed Complications, EXCEPT:
A. Indirect laryngoscopy laryngoscopy A. Tracheomalacia D. Aspiration of Gastric Contents
B. Direct laryngoscopy B. Tracheocultaneous fistula E. Delayed Hemorrhage
C. Rigid endoscopic laryngoscopy C. Tracheal Stenosis
D. Flexible endoscopic C 62. Immediate complications, EXCEPT:
E. None of these A. Hemorrhage D. Pneumothorax
B 44. Straps muscles acts as: B. Subcutaneous Emphysema E. Apnea
A. clevators of the larynx D. adductors of the larynx C. Tracheal Stenosis
B. depressors of the larynx E. none of these C 63. Papilloma, EXCEPT:
C. tensors of the larynx A. most common benign tumor D. Chronic cough
B. papovavirus E. Hoarseness
C 45. The only Intrinsic muscles supplied by the motor branch of the C. rhinovirus
superior laryngeal nerve is:
A. posterior cricoarytenoids D. vocalis thyroarytenoid
B. lateral cricoarytenoids E. thyroarytenoid

TRANSCOM| CLINGY |CHANG  MD 2

 ENT MIDTERMS SAMPLEX
Dr. OC MOVES

B. Narrowing of LES
ESOPHAGUS C. Propensity to develop Esophageal Cancer
COLUMN A D. Generalized Motor Disorder of the Esophagus
A. Laimer Triangle E. All of these
B. Killian – Jamieson F. None of these
C. Achalasia
D. Gastroesophageal Junction LARYNX AND HYPOPHARYNX
E. Killian’s Dehiscence B 84. Radiologica tool for the assessment of the larynx following
F. Anterior Compression external trauma
G. Diffuse Esophageal Spasm A. Laryngogram C. Polytomography E. Xerogram
H. Acid Burn B. Computed Tomography (CT) D. Soft tissue tissue
I. Alkali Burn radiographs
J. Oral Phase Deglutition E 85. The patient who has ingested a caustic material,
K. Pharyngeal Phase Deglutition esophagoscopy
L. Esophageal Phase Deglutition A. is contraindicated
M. Upper Esophageal Sphincter B. is indicated if a stricture is apparent by x-ray
C. is unnecessary in the presence of oral burns
M 64. 15 – 20 cm from upper incisor D. is indicated if dysphagia persists after steroid therapy
nd
A 65. 2 potentially weak area in poster midline E. should be carried out within 48-hours
J 66. Preparatory, Voluntary Control A 86. True for foreign bodies of the esophagus, EXCEPT:
D 67. 40 – 45 cm from Upper Incisor A. most frequently lodge where the aorta crosses the
E 68. Weakness between Interior Pharyngeal Constrictor esophagus
Muscle and Cricopharyngeus B. should be removed as soon as possible
K 69. Reflex portion of Deglutition C. if flat, commonly present in the coronal plane
H 70. Coagulation Necrosis D. if pointed, can cause perforation
I 71. Liquefaction Necrosis E. usually removed with a rigid esophagoscope
C 72. Bird’s Beak Esophagus by X-ray A 87. What is the best indicator of the anatomic level of airway
L 73. Bolus of Food descends into esophagus obstruction
F 74. 20 – 25 cm from upper incisor A. association with eating difficulties D. respiratory rate
B 75. Lateral Dehiscence B. posturing E. dyspnea
G 76. Cork-Screw Esophagus by X-ray C. respiratory phase during which stridor occurs
G 77. Repetitive High Amplitude Contraction E 88. Gastroesophageal reflux is etiologically implicated with:
C 78. Dilatation High Amplitude Contraction A. contact granuloma
B. laryngeal cancer
C 79. H – Type Congenital Disorder of Esophagus C. leukoplakia of the vocal cors
A. Esophageal Atresia with Distal Tracheo-Esophageal D. Zenker’s
Fistula (TEF) E. All of the above diverticulum
B. Esophageal Atresia with Proximal TEF A 89. The most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux
C. Tracheo-Esophageal Fistula without Atresia disease (GERD) is
D. Esophageal Atresia without TEF A. substernal chest pain C. back pain E. epigastric pain
E. None of these B. sour taste D. regurgitation
F. All of these A 90. The most common benign and malignant lesions of the
E 80. Alkali esophagus are:
A. Penetrates more rapidly in the esophagus A. leiomyoma, squamous cell carcinoma
B. Penetrates more rapidly in the stomach B. neurofibroma, squamous cell carcinoma
C. Liquefaction necrosis C. fibroma, squamous cell carcinoma
D. Coagulation Necrosis D. leiomyoma, adenocarcinoma
E. A and C E. fibroma, adenocarcinoma
F. All of these D 91. The most common esophageal foreign body found in children
B 81. Bird’s Beak Deformity on Barium Study is:
A. Diffuse esophageal spasm D. Laryngeal Web A. fish spine B. meat C. toy
B. Achalasia E. None of these D. coin E. thumbtacks
C. Zenker’s Diverticulum D 92. Laryngitis associated airway compromise is more common in
F. All of these children because:
B 82. Lateral Dehiscence of the Pharyngo-esophageal segment A. organisms are more virulent D. the airway is smaller
A. Killian’s Dehiscence D. All of these B. vaccinations are ineffective E. antibiotics are less effective
B. Killian – Jamieson E. A and B only C. the immune system is immature
C. Laimer – Hackerman Triangle F. None of these A 93. At what level does the normal pharynx become continuous
F 83. Achalasia, EXCEPT: with the cervical esophagus
A. Dilatation and Elongation of LES A. C-4 B. C-5 C. C-6

TRANSCOM| CLINGY |CHANG  MD 3

 ENT MIDTERMS SAMPLEX
Dr. OC MOVES

D. T-1 E. T-2 b. Lateral cricoarythenoids

C 94. In an adult with epiglottitis, which indicates a need for airway c. Both
intervention d. Neither
A. Opisthotonus C. Leucocytosis of > 25,000 E. productive coug
B. Fever of 40C D. rapid onset of symptoms 5. The following are intrinsic muscles
a. Sternothyroid
C 95. Which is the earliest sign of respiratory failure? b. Cricothyroid
A. Tachypnea C. cyanosis E. fatigue c. Both
B. Substernal retractions D. biphasic stridor d. Neither
C 96. Which of the following is a relative contraindication of
Cricothyrotomy? 6. Nerve innervations of the larynx
A. drowning C. laryngeal infectio E. possible cervical spine injury a. CN 7
B. midface trauma D. age less than 16 years b. CN 8
c. CN 10
E 97. Which of the following seem NOT to contribute to laryngeal d. CN 12
stenosis
A. length of intubation time 7. Visualization of the larynx can be done at the OPD except:
B. ischemic necrosis can be caused by a. Direct laryngoscopy
endotracheal tube pressure b. Indirect laryngoscopy
C. superimposed respiratory tract infection c. Both
D. gastroesophageal reflux d. neither
E. the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the airway 8. Most common cause of stridor in infants
A or B 98. What is the most common early complication of pediatric a. Subglottis stenosis
tracheotomy b. Laryngeal web
A. Bleeding C. Tube displacement E. granulation tissue formation c. Laryngomalesia
B. Pneumothorax D. Tube obstruction d. Epiglositis

E 99. Characteristics of laryngotracheitis (croup) include all of the 9. Arises from the ____ of the laryngeal ventricle
following, EXCEPT: a. Laryngeal web
A. Hoarseness C. age less than 2 years E. gradual onset b. Laryngeal cyst
B. steeple sign by X-ray D. drooling c. Laryngomalacia
d. Laryngocele
A 100. What is the main advantage of Flexible Bronchoscopy over
Rigid Bronchoscopy? 10. Most common location of laryngeal web
A. more distal bronchial segments can be examined a. Glottis
B. allows for an airway b. Subglottis
C. ability to remove foreign bodies c. Supraglottis
D. better optics d. Infraglottis
E. expense of equipment
11. Congenital anomalies are usually found
1. True/ Complete ring in the airways a. Interarythenoid area
a. Cricoid
b. Thyroid 12. Radiogleal tone for internal trauma
c. Cricothyroid a. X-ray
d. Thyroarythenoid b. MRI

2. Strap muscles that act as depressors 13. Esophagoscopy in caustic ingesti___ is done
a. Omohyoid a. <12 hours
b. Sternohyoid b. <24 hours
c. Sternothyroid c. Within 24-32 hours
d. AOTA d. Within 48 hours

3. Levators of the larynx except 14. True of foreign bodies except:

a. Mylohyoid a. Lodges in the upper esophageal sphincter
b. Omohyoid b. Lodges in GE junction
c. Genioglossus c. Lodges in the aorta as it cross the esophagus
d. Stylohyoid d. none

4. Abductors of the larynx 15. Anatomic level of stridor

a. Posterior crycoarythenoids a. Respiratory phase

TRANSCOM| CLINGY |CHANG  MD 4

 ENT MIDTERMS SAMPLEX
Dr. OC MOVES

16. Associated w/ tracheopharyngeal cleft a. Treacher Collin’s Syndrome

All (labo… wala naman choices. Haha) b. Apert’s Syndrome
c. Crouzon’s Syndrome
17. Gastroesophageal junction d. Congenital choanal atresia
a. 40-45 cm from the upper incisor
b. In the exophagus 28. Emergency situation at birth that cause pallor cyanosis
c. Walang nakalagay Treacher Collin’s Syndrome
d. all Apert’s Syndrome
Crouzon’s Syndrome
18. Most common symptom of GERD Congenital choanal atresia
a. Vomiting
b. Nausea 29. The mandible is always hypoplastic in which the angle is
c. Epigastric pain more obtuse than the normal
d. ulceration a. Treacher Collin’s Syndrome
b. Apert’s syndrome
19. Most common benign and malignant lesion c. Crouzon’s Syndrome
a. Leiomyoma and squamous cell CA d. Congenital Choanal atresia
b. Leiomyoma and clear cell CA
c. Leiomyocercoma and Squamous Cell Ca 30. Characterized by… di ko mabasa
d. Leiomyocercoma and clear cell CA 31. Characterized by exopthalmos with normal intelligence
a. Craniofacial depostosis
20. Laryngitis complication is common in infants because b. Mandibulofacial depostosis
a. Airway is short c. Acrocephalosyndactyly
b. Airway is small d. AOTA
c. Larynx is not well developed
d. Larynx is short 32. Due to embryonic failure of the tuberclum impar to be
covered by the lateral tubercles
21. Normal pharynx is continuous with the esophagus at the a. Macroglossia
level of b. Median rhomboid glossitis
a. C5 c. Cleft lip and cleft palate
b. C6 d. Ankyglossia
c. C7
d. T1 33. Differential diagnosis in neurofibromatosis
a. Macroglossia
22. Adult w/ epiglotitis has: b. Cleft lip and cleft palate
a. Glottis inflammation c. Prognathism
b. Abrupt onset of symptoms d. Ankyloglossia
c. Caused by type A influenza virus
34. Syndrome of rule of 10
23. Earliest sign of respiratory future a. Macroglossia
a. Tachypnea b. Cleft lip and cleft palate
b. Bradycardia c. Prognathism
c. Cyanosis d. Ankyglossia
d. Tachycardia
24. Relative contraindication in cricothyroidectomy 35. Lobular or bony outgrowth in the oral cavity
c. Possible cervical spine injury a. Oral tori
25. Laryngeal stenosis except b. Prognathism
a. Most common in adults c. Micrognathia
b. Cricoid ring is the narrowed portion of airway d. Macroglossia
c. Glottis is the narrowed portion of airway
d. Scar tissue narrowing the airway is a sequel of the 36. Failure of the growth of the mandible
disease a. Oral tori
26. Croup includes the following except b. Prognathism
a. Subglottic swelling c. Micrognathia
b. Stiple sign on x-ray d. Macroglosia
c. Tachypnea
d. Drooling Matching type

27. Characterized by underdevelopment of the midface Part Origin

nd
associated with relative mandibular prognathism Hyoid cartilage 2 brachial arch

TRANSCOM| CLINGY |CHANG  MD 5

 ENT MIDTERMS SAMPLEX
Dr. OC MOVES
st
Anterior tongue 1 brachial region d. Epidermoid cyst
Pharynx and esophagus primitive foregut
tongue Posterior brachial 54. Not true of granuloma pyogenicum
a. Sequelae to dental pulp infection
b. Persists in area of residual infection
Roof of hypopharynx epiglottis
c. Both
Anterior boundary of larynx d. Neither
hypopharynx
Floor of the nasopharynx oropharynx 55. This condition is characterized by tongue papilla divided into
Superior boundary of choana groups and clumps by small fissures that may not be apparent
oropharynx until the tongue is folded
Posterior boundary of choana a. Geographic tongue
nasopharynx b. Black hairy tongue
Anterior Boundary is the oral oropharynx c. Scrotal tongue
cavity d. macroglossia

Do not actually require treatment 56. True about ameloblastoma

a. Macroglossia a. High incidence in 20-49 y.o.
b. Akyloglossia b. Tumor does not arise in the mandible
c. Median rhomboid glossitis c. Not found in maxilla
d. Cleft lip d. Sensitive to radiation treatment

Not true of cleft lip and palate 57. Lesion is monostatic affects most often the females in
a. Body weight >10lb childhood or early adolescence mass is painless and non-
b. Corrected <2 years old tender facial asymmetry
c. 70%of cases common on the left side a. Fibrous dysplasia
d. 25% bilateral b. Infantile cortical hyperostosis
c. Median rhomboid glossitis
Pierre Robin Anomaly d. ___oma?
a. Micrognathia
b. Glossoptosis 58. Congenital choanal atresia, the ff. are true
c. Post cleft palate a. Definitive treatment includes giving taped tube in
d. Mandibular hypoplasia airway
e. AOTA b. Not need immediate attention if unilateral
c. Both
50. Dentigenous cyst d. Neither
a. Usually solitary
b. Associated with ____ basal cell CA 59. True about juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma except
c. Di ko mabasa a. Exclusively in adolescent ___
d. AOTA b. Epistaxis nasal obstruction
c. Treatment includes radion therapy, surgery, hormonal
51. Not true of radicuar cyst therapy but not biopsy
.(CAN NOT READ CHOICE A… yun ang sagot) d. Highly vascular tumor
e. NONE
a.
b. Sequel of dental caries 60. Peritonsillar abscess is managed by
c. Most common of oral cyst a. Incision and drainage
d. Inflammatory in origin b. Gram stain
c. Culture sensitivity
52. Dermoid cyst d. Tonsillectomy
a. _______ surface of the tongue e. AOTA
b. ____ by epidermis and cutaneous appendages
c. Disappears in adult age 61. Not an absolute indication for tonsillectomy
d. Lined by columnar epithelium a. Sleep apnea syndrome
b. Development of cor pulmonale
53. Enlarged retention cyst that encloses the sublingual salivary c. ______ 3-4 times a year
gland d. Functional dysphagia
a. Mucocele
b. Ranula 62. Abscess most common in infants and children
c. ____ a. Peritonsillar abscess

TRANSCOM| CLINGY |CHANG  MD 6

 ENT MIDTERMS SAMPLEX
Dr. OC MOVES

b. Retropharyngeal abscess 78. Bolus of food discards into Esophageal phase

c. Parapharyngeal abscess the esophagus
d. Submandibular abscess 79. 40-45 cm from the upper GE junction
incisor
63. In obstructive sleep apnea, which is not done 80. Lateral dehiscence between Killian-Jamieson area
a. Tonsillectomy cricopharyngeus muscle and
b. Elevated pillows circular esophageal fibers
c. sedation 81. Generalized motor disorder achalasia
d. all of the above of the esophagus

64. Intrinsic narrowing of the lumen, which are rigid and non (weird lang… 81 yung last number sa matching type tapos
distensible 81 ulit dito)
a. Tracheomalacia 81. Fluids returning through Esophageal atresia with
b. Tracheoesophageal fistula the nose and mouth distal
c. Tracheal stenosis tracheoesophageal
d. Tracheal rigidity fistula
82. Second most common Esophageal atresia with
65. Characterized by tachypnea, barking cough, inspiratory stridor, trachea esophageal
drooling, tachypnea and airway obstruction fistula
a. Croup 83. H-type Tracheoesophageal
b. Laryngomalacia fistula w/o atresia
c. Laryngeal web
84. Feeding results in choking Esophageal atresia w/
d. Epiglottis
and coughing _________
tracheoesophageal
66. Characterized by softening of the supporting cartilages and
fistula
abnormal widening of the posterior wall
a. Tracheomalacia Mechanical Obstruction
b. Croup 1. Obstruction tumors
c. Laryngeal web 2. Inflammation
d. Tracheal stenosis 3. Congenital anomalies
4. Trauma to larynx and trachea
67. Tracheostomy is surgical opening into the trachea through 5. Musculo facial trauma
which a tube is passed 6. Bilateral vocal cord paralyses
7. Foreign bodies
TRUE
8. Sleep apnea syndrome
68. Trachea begins at the inferior border of the esophagus
FALSE Secretional Obstruction
1. Retained secretions; inadequate ___
Matching type 2. Alveolar hypoventilation

69. Upper esophageal sphincter 18-20 cm from upper Immediate Complications

incisor 1. Hemorrhage
2. Emphysema
70. Second potential weak area Laimer’s triangle or 3. Malpositioned tube
Laimer 4. Aerophagia
71. Preparatory phase , Oral phase 5. Aspiration of gastric contents
voluntary control 6. Laryngeal nerve paralysis
7. Tracheoesophageal fistula
72. 20-25cm from upper incisors Anterior 8. Pneumothorax/ pneumomediastinum
9. Apnea
compression of aorta
73. Weakness between inferior Killian’s Dehiscence Delayed Complications
pharyngeal constrictor or triangle 1. Delayed hemorrhage
muscle and cricorlaryngeus 2. Tracheoesophageal fistula
muscle 3. Tracheocutaneous fistula
74. Reflex portion of deglutition Pharyngeal phase 4. Displacement of tube
75. Liquifaction necrosis Alkali burns 5. Atelectasis
6. Tracheomalacia
7. Dysphagia
76. Coagulation necrosis Acid burns 8. Difficult decannulation
9. Tracheal stenosis
77. Repetitive high amplitude Diffuse esophageal 10. Neck Scar
contractions spasms
_________

TRANSCOM| CLINGY |CHANG  MD 7