NTS-SAT-18 X S5 1 of 48

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to
be given on the separate answer-sheet.

1. Please write your Centre Code and Seat No. very clearly (only one digit in one block).
Before writing your Seat No. get it ascertaine from the Centre Conductor. Please see that
no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing in the Centre Code and Seat No. are
correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the booklet and on the answer sheet.

Example :

For all subsequent purposes your Centre Code and Seat No. shall remain the same. Centre
once alloted will not be changed

2. All questions carry one mark each.

3. Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the whole question paper
before beginning to answer it.

4. Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after another till you finish.

5. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on
to the next one. Time permitting you can come back to the questions which you have left
in the first instance and try them again.

6. Since the time alloted is very short you should make best use of it. The rough work is to
be done in the box given under each page.

7. Remember you have to mark on your answers in “Scholastic Aptitude Test” answer-sheet
only.

8. Answer to each question is to be indicated in the answer-sheet by encircling with black pen
provided to you in the appropriate number of alternative in the answer-sheet from amongst
the ones given for the corresponding question in the test booklet.

9. Do not write anything except Centre Code, Seat No. and rough work anywhere in this
booklet.

10. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.

NTS-MAT-18 X S5 2 of 52
 ÐíÔÝ¢æÓ¢è ©œ¢Úï Î¢Ðê±èü ÐéÉèH S¢êӢݢ ÜU¢fÁ¢èÐê±üÜU ±¢Ó¢¢. ¼é}¢Ó¢è ©œ¢Úï S±¼æ~¢ ©œ¢ÚÐç~¢ÜïU±Ú çH㢱²¢Ó¢è ¥¢ãï¼.

1. ÜëUв¢ ¼é}¢Ó¢¢ ÜïU´Îí S¢æÜïU¼¢æÜU ¥¢ç‡¢ ¥¢S¢Ý RU}¢¢æÜU ¥¢ÜUÇK¢}¢Š²ï S¢éSÐC çHã¢. (»ÜU¢ Ó¢¢ñÜUÅè¼ »ÜUÓ¢ ¥æÜU ²¢ Ðí}¢¢‡¢ï)
S±¼:Ó¢¢ ¥¢S¢Ý RU}¢¢æÜU çHçㇲ¢Ðê±èü ¼¢ï Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú ¥S¢Ë²¢Ó¢è ¶¢~¢è ÜUMÝ Í²¢. ÜU¢ï‡¢¼¢ãè ÚÜU¢Ý¢ çÚv¼ ڢ㇢¢Ú Ý¢ãè
²¢Ó¢è Îÿ¢¼¢ Ͳ¢. ÐíÔÝÐéçS¼ÜU¢ ± ©œ¢ÚÐç~¢ÜU¢ ²¢´Ó¢ï ±ÚèH Ó¢¢ñÜUÅè¼ ¥¢S¢Ý RU}¢¢æÜU ± ÜïU´Îí S¢æÜïU¼¢æÜU ²¢¼èH Ðíy²ïÜU
¥æÜU ¥¢ç‡¢ à¢ê‹²S¢éh¢ ²¢ïx² Á¢¢x¢è çHã¢.

©Î¢ãÚ‡¢¢‰¢ü :

2. Ðíy²ïÜU ÐíÔÝ¢H¢ »ÜU x¢é‡¢ ¥¢ãï.

3. S¢±ü ÐíÔÝ S¢¢ïÇ籇¢ï ¥¢±à²ÜU ¥¢ãï¼.

4. Ðçã˲¢ ÐíÔݢТS¢êÝ S¢éL±¢¼ ÜUÚ¢ ¥¢ç‡¢ »ÜU¢}¢¢x¢êÝ »ÜU ÐíÔÝ S¢¢ïÇ±è¼ à¢ï±ÅвZ¼ ÐíÔÝ S¢¢ïDZ¢.

5. »¶¢ÎK¢ ÐíÔÝ¢Ó¢ï ©œ¢Ú ²ï¼ ÝS¢ïH ¼Ú y²¢±Ú Á¢¢S¼ ±ïf Í¢¢H±ê ÝÜU¢. ÐéÉÓ¢ï ÐíÔÝ S¢¢ïÇ籇²¢S¢ Ͳ¢. S¢±ü ÐíÔÝ S¢¢ïDZêÝ
Û¢¢Ë²¢±Ú ©ÚHï˲¢ ±ïf¢¼ Ú¢ãêÝ x¢ïHï˲¢ ÐíÔÝ¢æ±Ú ¼é}ã¢H¢ Ðé‹ã¢ ç±Ó¢¢Ú ÜUÚ¼¢ ²ï§üH.

6. ÐíÔÝ S¢¢ïÇ籇²¢S¢¢Æè ¼é}ã¢H¢ ç}¢f‡¢¢Ú¢ ±ïf ç±Ó¢¢Ú¢¼ Í¢ïªÝ y²¢Ó¢¢ Á¢¢S¼è¼ Á¢¢S¼ Ó¢¢æx¢Ë²¢ÐíÜU¢Úï ©Ð²¢ïx¢ ÜUÚ¢. ÜUÓÓ¢ï
ÜU¢}¢ Ðíy²ïÜU ÐëD¢±Ú çÎHï˲¢ Ó¢¢ñÜUÅè¼Ó¢ ÜUÚ¢±²¢Ó¢ï ¥¢ãï.

7. Hÿ¢¢¼ Æï±¢ ¼é}ã¢H¢ ©œ¢Úï Ý¢ï´Î籇²¢S¢¢Æè “à¢¢Hï² ÿ¢}¢¼¢ Ó¢¢Ó¢‡¢è” (Scholastic Aptitude Test) Ó¢èÓ¢
©œ¢ÚÐç~¢ÜU¢ ç}¢f¢Hè ¥¢ãï ²¢Ó¢è ¶¢~¢è ÜUÚ¢.

8. Ðíy²ïÜU ÐíÔÝ¢Ó²¢ ©œ¢Ú¢S¢¢Æè ÐíÔÝÐéçS¼ÜïU}¢Š²ï в¢ü² çÎHï ¥¢ãï¼. y²¢ÐñÜUè ¼é}ã¢H¢ ²¢ïx² ±¢ÅïH y²¢ в¢ü²¢Ó¢¢ RU}¢¢æÜU
Ð㢠± y²¢ RU}¢¢æÜU¢Ó²¢ ±¼éüf¢¼ ¼é}ã¢H¢ çÎHï˲¢ ÐïÝ¢Ó¢¢ ±¢ÐÚ ÜUMÝ ¼ï ±¼éüf ÚﶢæçÜU¼ (ÜU¢fï) ÜUMÝ ©œ¢Ú l¢. }¢¢~¢
ãï ÜU¢}¢ ¼é}¢Ó²¢ ©œ¢ÚÐç~¢ÜïU Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú Á¢¢ïÇHï˲¢ OMR Sheet ±Ú ²¢ïx² ÐíÔÝ¢ÐéÉï ÜUÚ¢±²¢Ó¢ï ¥¢ãï ÐíÔÝÐéçS¼ÜïU±Ú Ý¢ãè.

9. ÜëUв¢ ²¢ ÐéçS¼ÜïU¼ ÜïU´Îí S¢æÜïU¼¢æÜU ¥¢ç‡¢ ¥¢S¢Ý RU}¢¢æÜU ± ÜUÓÓ¢ï ÜU¢}¢ ²¢¶ïÚèÁ¢ ¥‹² ÜU¢ãèãè çHãê ÝÜU¢.

10. ¥¢¼¢ ÐíÔÝ¢æÓ¢è ©œ¢Úï Î¢S¢ S¢éL±¢¼ ÜUÚ¢.

NTS-MAT-18 X S5 3 of 52
 Scholastic Aptitude Test

1. Value of acceleration due to gravity on earth is maximum at ..........

(1) poles (2) equator

(3) depth of 60 km below earth’s surface (4) height of 400 km above earth’s surface

2. Magnetic field due to current through a .......... is similar to magnetic field produced by a bar
magnet.

(1) circular loop of conducting wire (2) rectangular loop of conducting wire

(3) solenoid (4) thick copper wire

3. Choose the wrong statement related to refraction of light

(1) Twinkling of stars

(2) Oval shape of sun in morning and evening

(3) Object in water appears bigger in size

(4) Red light undergoes dispersion, while passing through prism

4. How much time the satellite will take to complete one revolution around the earth, if
velocity of satellite is 3.14 km/s and its height above earth’s surface is 3600 km. (Radius
of earth is 6400 km)

(1) 2000 S (2) 20000 S

(3) 1000 S (4) 10000 S

5. A planet in an orbit sweeps out an angle of 1600 from March - May, When it is at an average
distance of 140 million km from sun. If the planet sweeps out an angle of 100 from October
- December, then the average distance from sun is ..........

(1) 56 u 105 km (2) 56 u 106 km

(3) 56 u 107 km (4) 56 u 108 km

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 4 of 48
 ࢢHï² ÿ¢}¢¼¢ Ó¢¢Ó¢‡¢è

1. Ð뉱è±ÚèH x¢éLy± y±Ú‡¢¢Ó¢ï }¢ê˲ S¢±¢ü¼ Á¢¢S¼ .......... ¥¢ãï.

(1) {íé±¢±Ú (2) 籯鱱뜢¢±Ú

(3) Ð뉱èÓ²¢ ÐëD|¢¢x¢¢Ð¢S¢êÝ 60 km ¶¢ïH¢±Ú (4) Ð뉱èÓ²¢ ÐëD|¢¢x¢¢Ð¢S¢êÝ 400 km ©æÓ¢è±Ú

2. .......... }¢{êÝ Á¢¢‡¢¢&²¢ ç±lé¼{¢Úï}¢éfï çÝ}¢¢ü‡¢ ã¢ï‡¢¢Úï Ó¢éæÏ¢ÜUè² ÿ¢ï~¢ Ó¢éæÏ¢ÜUÐ^è}¢éfï ¼²¢Ú ã¢ï‡¢¢&²¢ Ó¢éæÏ¢ÜUè² ÿ¢ï~¢¢Ðí}¢¢‡¢ïÓ¢
¥S¢¼ï.

(1) ç±lé¼ ±¢ãÜU ¼¢ÚïÓ²¢ ±ïÅ¢ïû²¢ (2) ç±lé¼±¢ãÜU ¼¢ÚïÓ²¢ ¥¢²¼¢ÜëU¼è ÚÓ¢Ýï

(3) Ý¢HÜéæU¼H¢ (4) ¼¢æϲ¢Ó²¢ Á¢¢Ç ¼¢Úï

3. ÐíÜU¢à¢¢Ó²¢ ¥Ð±¼üÝ¢S¢æÏ¢æ{èÓ¢ï Ó¢éÜU ç±{¢Ý çݱǢ.

(1) ¼¢&²¢æÓ¢ï HéÜUHéÜU‡¢ï.

(2) S¢ê²¢ïüβ ± S¢ê²¢üS¼¢Ó²¢ ±ïfè S¢ê²¢üÓ¢¢ ¥¢ÜU¢Ú ¥æÇ¢ÜëU¼è ã¢ï‡¢ï.

(3) Т‡²¢¼èH ±S¼êÓ¢¢ ¥¢ÜU¢Ú }¢¢ïÆ¢ |¢¢S¢‡¢ï.

(4) ÜU¢Ó¢ïÓ²¢ H¢ïHÜU¢¼êÝ Á¢¢‡¢¢&²¢ H¢H Úæx¢¢Ó¢ï ÐíÜU¢à¢ çÜUÚ‡¢¢æÓ¢ï ¥ÐSÜUÚ‡¢ ã¢ï‡¢ï.

4. Á¢Ú ©Ðx¢íã¢Ó¢¢ ±ïx¢ 3.14 km/s ¥¢ç‡¢ |¢êÐëD¢Ð¢S¢êÝÓ¢è ©æÓ¢è 3600 km ¥S¢ïH ¼Ú ©Ðx¢íã¢H¢ »ÜU ÐçÚRU}¢¢ Ðꇢü
ÜUÚ‡²¢S¢ çÜU¼è ¥±{è H¢x¢ïH ? (Ð뉱èÓ¢è ç~¢Á²¢ 6400 km ¥¢ãï.)

(1) 2000 S (2) 20000 S

(3) 1000 S (4) 10000 S

5. }¢¢Ó¢ü ¼ï }¢ï ²¢ ÜU¢H¢±{è¼ S¢ê²¢üТS¢êÝ S¢Ú¢S¢Úè 140 Îà¢Hÿ¢ km ¥æ¼Ú¢±ÚèH »ÜU¢ x¢íã¢Ýï 1600 ÜUÿ¢ï¼êÝ Ã²¢ÐÝ ÜïUHï
¥¢ãï. Á¢Ú ¼¢ï x¢íã ¥¢òvÅ¢ïÏ¢Ú ¼ï çÇS¢ï´Ï¢Ú ²¢ ÜU¢H¢±{è¼ 100 ÜUÿ¢ï¼êÝ Ã²¢ÐÝ ÜUÚè¼ ¥S¢ïH ¼Ú y²¢ x¢íã¢Ó¢ï ²¢ ÜU¢H¢±{è¼èH
S¢Ú¢S¢Úè ¥æ¼Ú ........... ¥¢ãï.

(1) 56 u 105 km (2) 56 u 106 km

(3) 56 u 107 km (4) 56 u 108 km

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 5 of 48
6. Observing the following table, choose the correct alternative

Column I Column II

A (i) Image formed by concave lens

B (ii) Image formed by convex lens with object at 2F

C (iii) Image formed by convex lens with object

beyond 2 F

B
D (iv) Image formed by convex lens with object within
focal length

In Column I AB - principal axis of lens, O - point object, I - point image. Match the two
Columns.

(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) (2) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii)

(3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) (4) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)

7. How much heat energy in Joules is necessary to raise the temperature of 5 kg of water from
200 to 1000 ?

(1) 1672 KJ (2) 167200 J

(3) 16720 J (4) 1672 J

8. A ray falls on a prism ABC (AB = BC) and travels

as shown in figure. If refractive index of glass
with respect to air is 1.5, find Sin r

3 3
(1) (2)
2 2 2

2 2 2
(3) (4)
3 3

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 6 of 48
6. ¶¢HèH ¼vy²¢Ó¢ï çÝÚèÿ¢‡¢ ÜUÚ¢, Á¢¢ïÇK¢ Á¢éf±êÝ ²¢ïx² в¢ü² çݱǢ.
S¼æ|¢ I S¼æ|¢ II

A (i) ¥¢æ¼±üf ô|¢x¢¢m¢Úï ç}¢f‡¢¢Úè Ðíç¼}¢¢

B (ii) 2F ¥æ¼Ú¢±ÚèH Ð΢‰¢¢üÓ¢è Ï¢çã±üRU ô|¢x¢¢m¢Úï ç}¢f‡¢¢Úè Ðíç¼}¢¢

C (iii) 2F ÐHèÜUÇèH Ð΢‰¢¢üÓ¢è Ï¢çã±üRU ô|¢x¢¢m¢Úï ç}¢f‡¢¢Úè Ðíç¼}¢¢

D B (iv) Ý¢|¢è² ¥æ¼Ú¢Ðïÿ¢¢ ÜU}¢è ¥æ¼Ú¢±ÚèH Ð΢‰¢¢üÓ¢è Ï¢çã±üRU ô|¢x¢¢m¢Úï

ç}¢f‡¢¢Úè Ðíç¼}¢¢

(S¼æ|¢ I }¢Š²ï, AB - ô|¢x¢¢Ó¢¢ }¢êw² ¥ÿ¢, O - Ð΢‰¢ü ôÏ¢Îê, I - Ðíç¼}¢¢ ôÏ¢Îê)

(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) (2) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii)

(3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) (4) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)

7. 5 kg ±S¼é}¢¢Ý¢Ó²¢ Т‡²¢Ó¢ï ¼¢Ð}¢¢Ý 200C ТS¢êÝ 1000C вZ¼ ±¢É籇²¢S¢ çÜU¼è Á²êH ©c}¢¢ ÐéÚ±¢±¢ H¢x¢ïH ?

(1) 1672 KJ (2) 167200 J

(3) 16720 J (4) 1672 J

8. »ÜU ÐíÜU¢à¢ çÜUÚ‡¢ ÜU¢Ó¢ïÓ²¢ ΢ïHÜU ABC ±Ú ÐǼ¢ï (AB =

BC) ¥¢ç‡¢ ¼¢ï ¥¢ÜëU¼è Ðí}¢¢‡¢ï Ðí±¢S¢ ÜUÚ¼¢ï. Á¢Ú ÜU¢Ó¢ïÓ¢¢
ã±¢S¢¢Ðïÿ¢ ¥±¼üÝ¢æÜU 1.5 ¥¢ãï, Sin r ࢢï{¢.

3 3
(1) (2)
2 2 2

2 2 2
(3) (4)
3 3

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 7 of 48
9. In a Helium gas discharge tube every second 40 u 1018 He  (ions) move towards the right
through a cross - section of the tube, while n electrons move to the left in the same time.
If the current in the tube is 8A towards right then n = ?

(1) 3 u 1018

(2) 3 u 1019

(3) 3 u 1020

(4) 3 u 1021

10. Device/devices changing electrical energy into mechanical energy is/are .......

I Electric generator II Electric motor

III Voltmeter IV Ammeter

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) only II

1
11. A convex lens produces an image of an object on a screen with a magnification of . When
2
the lens is moved 30 cm away from the object, the magnification of the image is 2. The
Focal length of the lens is
(1) 20 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 35 cm
12. Two plane mirrors at an angle (x0) produces 5 images of a point. The number of images
produced when x0 is decreased to (x-30)0 is

(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 12

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 8 of 48
9. ãïHè¥}¢ ±¢²ê ç±lé‹}¢¢ïÓ¢ ÝHèÜïUÓ²¢ ÜU¢ÅÀï΢¼êÝ Ðíy²ïÜU S¢ïÜæU΢H¢ Ç¢±èÜUÇêÝ ©Á¢±èÜUÇï 40 u 1018 He (¥¢²Ý)
±¢ã¼¢¼, y²¢Ó¢ ±ïfè ©Á¢±èÜUÇêÝ Ç¢±èÜUÇï ‘n’ §¼ÜïU §HïvÅî¢òÝ Ðí±¢çã¼ ã¢ï¼¢¼. ¼Ú ÝHèÜïU¼èH ç±lê¼Ðí±¢ã ©Á¢Ã²¢ çÎà¢ïÝï
8 A §¼ÜU¢ ¥S¢ïH ¼Ú n = ?

(1) 3 u 1018

(2) 3 u 1019

(3) 3 u 1020

(4) 3 u 1021

10. ç±l鼪Á¢ïüÓ¢ï ²¢æç~¢ÜU ªÁ¢ïü¼ LТæ¼Ú ÜUÚ‡¢¢Úï ©ÐÜUÚ‡¢ / ©ÐÜUÚ‡¢ï ¥¢ãï / ¥¢ãï¼.

I ç±lé¼ Á¢çÝ~¢ II ç±lé¼ }¢¢ïÅ¢Ú

III Ãã¢ïËÅ}¢¢Ðè IV ¥ò}¢èÅÚ

(1) I ± II

(2) II ± III
(3) II, III ± IV
(4) ÈUv¼ II

1
11. »ÜU¢ Ð΢‰¢¢üÓ¢ï Ï¢çã±üRU ô|¢x¢¢}¢éfï ÐÇl¢±ÚèH Ðíç¼}¢ïÓ¢ï ç±à¢¢HÝ ÜïUHï Á¢¢¼ï. Á¢Ú ô|¢x¢ Ð΢‰¢¢üТS¢êÝ 30 cm ¥æ¼Ú¢¼êÝ
2
ÎêÚ ÝïHï ¼Ú Ðíç¼}¢ïÓ¢ï ç±à¢¢HÝ 2 ã¢ï¼ï. ¼Ú y²¢ ô|¢x¢¢Ó¢ï Ý¢|¢è² ¥æ¼Ú ........ ¥¢ãï.
(1) 20 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 35 cm

12. ΢ïÝ S¢Ð¢Å ¥¢Úࢢ¼èH ÜU¢ïÝ (x0) }¢éfï »ÜU¢ ôÏ¢ÎêÓ²¢ 5 Ðíç¼}¢¢ ¼²¢Ú ã¢ï¼¢¼. Á¢ïÃ㢠x0 ÜU¢ïÝ (x-30)0 Ýï ÜU}¢è ÜïUH¢
Á¢¢¼¢ï ¼ïÃ㢠Ðí¢# ã¢ï‡¢¢&²¢ Ðíç¼}¢¢æÓ¢è S¢æw²¢ ......... ¥¢ãï
(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 12

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 9 of 48
13. Choose the correct diagram (graph) showing anomalous behaviour of water.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

14. In which year National Chemical laboratory Pune was established ?

(1) 1950 (2) 1995

(3) 2005 (4) 1989

15. Which is the chemical formula of red oxide ?

(1) Fe2O3 (2) FeO3

(3) FeO (4) FeO2

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 10 of 48
13. Т‡²¢Ó²¢ ¥¢S¢æx¢¼ ¥¢Ó¢Ú‡¢¢H¢ Îà¢ü籇¢¢&²¢ ¥¢ÜëU¼è (¥¢Hï¶)H¢ çݱǢ

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

14. Ú¢cÅîè² Ú¢S¢¢²çÝÜU Ðí²¢ïx¢à¢¢f¢ Ðé‡¢ï ²¢ Ðí²¢ïx¢à¢¢fïÓ¢è S‰¢¢ÐÝ¢ ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ S¢¢Hè Û¢¢Hè ?

(1) 1950 (2) 1995

(3) 2005 (4) 1989

15. ÚïÇ ¥¢òvS¢¢§ÇÓ¢ï Ú¢S¢¢²çÝÜU S¢ê~¢ ÜU¢ï‡¢¼ï ?

(1) Fe2O3 (2) FeO3

(3) FeO (4) FeO2

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 11 of 48
16. In water purification Fullerene is used as ........ .

(1) Fuel (2) Insulator

(3) Catalyst (4) Reductant

17. which block elements are called transition elements ?

(1) S - block (2) P - block

(3) D - block (4) F - block

18. What is chemical formula of rust on Iron ?

(1) Fe2O3 (2) Fe2O3H2O

(3) FeO (4) FeO2

19. What is the percentage of Al2O3 is Bauxite ?

(1) 30% to 70% (2) 35% to 70%

(3) 30% to 75% (4) 70% to 75%

20. Chemical formula of lime stone is ........ .

(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) CaCO3

(3) CaCl2 (4) CCl4

21. What is the condensed structural formula of alcohol ?

(1) – OH (2) – CHO

(3) – COOH (4) – NH2

22. In which of the following elements does not consist isotopes ?

(1) Carbon (2) Neon

(3) Chlorine (4) Iodine

23. In which of the following ink silver nitrate is used ?

(1) Voting ink (2) Writting ink

(3) Printing ink (4) Marker pen ink

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 12 of 48
16. Á¢H à¢éhèÜUÚ‡¢¢¼ ÈéUHçÚÝÓ¢¢ ±¢ÐÚ ........ }㇢êÝ ÜUÚ¼¢¼.

(1) §æ{Ý (2) ç±S¢æ±¢ãÜU

(3) ©yÐíïÚÜU (4) ÿ¢Ð‡¢ÜU¢ÚÜU

17. ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ ¶æÇ¢¼èH }¢êHÎíò¢æÝ¢ S¢æRU¢}¢ÜU }¢êHÎíòï }㇢¼¢¼.

(1) »S¢-¶æÇ (2) Ðè-¶æÇ

(3) Çè-¶æÇ (4) »ÈU-¶æÇ

18. H¢ï¶æÇ¢Ó²¢ x¢æÁ¢¢Ó¢ï Ú¢S¢¢²çÝÜU S¢ê~¢ ........ ¥¢ãï.

(1) Fe2O3 (2) Fe2O3H2O

(3) FeO (4) FeO2

19. Ï¢¢òvS¢¢§Å}¢Š²ï çÜU¼è ÅvÜïU Al2O3 ¥S¢¼ï ?

(1) 30% ¼ï 70% (2) 35% ¼ï 70%

(3) 30% ¼ï 75% (4) 70% ¼ï 75%

20. Ó¢éݶÇèÓ¢ï Ú¢S¢¢²çÝÜU S¢ê~¢ ........ ¥¢ãï.

(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) CaCO3

(3) CaCl2 (4) CCl4

21. ¥ËÜU¢ïã¢ïHÓ¢ï S¢æçÿ¢Œ¼ ÚӢݢS¢ê~¢ ÜU¢ï‡¢¼ï ?

(1) – OH (2) – CHO

(3) – COOH (4) – NH2

22. ¶¢HèHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ }¢êHÎíò¢H¢ S¢}¢S‰¢¢çÝÜU Ý¢ãè.

(1) ÜU¢Ï¢üÝ (2) çÝ¥¢òÝ

(3) vH¢ïÚèÝ (4) ¥¢²¢ïçÇÝ

23. çS¢ËÃãÚ Ý¢²ÅîïÅÓ¢¢ ±¢ÐÚ ¶¢HèHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ ࢢ§ü}¢Š²ï ÜïUH¢ Á¢¢¼¢ï ?

(1) }¢¼Î¢Ý¢Ó²¢ ࢢ§ü}¢Š²ï (2) çH¶¢‡¢¢Ó²¢ ࢢ§ü}¢Š²ï

(3) ôÐí‹ÅÚÓ²¢ ࢢ§ü}¢Š²ï (4) }¢¢ÜüUÚÓ²¢ ࢢ§ü}¢Š²ï

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 13 of 48
24. To prevent the misuse of the important commercial solvent ethanol is mixed with ........

(1) Methanol (2) Propanol

(3) Ethanoic acid (4) Propane

25. Chemical formula of cryolite is.......

(1) NaAlF (2) Na3AlF6

(3) Na2AlF3 (4) Na2AlF2

26. Which of the following is not Dobereiner’s Traide ?

(1) Li, Na, K (2) Cl, K, Cr

(3) Ca, Sr, Ba 4) Cl, Br, I

27. By using only one of the two strands of DNA, mRNA is produced this process is called
as ..........

(1) Transcription (2) Translation

(3) Translocation (4) Replacement

28. Identify phase in mitosis shown by : centromeres split and thereby sister chromatids of each
chromosome seperates and they are pulled apart in opposite direction.

(1) Telophase (2) Prophase

(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase

29. If the embryonic cells are divided into two groups 8 days after the zygote formation then
there is high possiblity of formation of ..........

(1) Genetically different twin girls (2) Siamese twins

(3) Genetically different twin boys (4) Genetically different one boy one girl

30. Which is the sequence of four whorls of flower from outside to inside ?

(1) calyx o corolla o androceium o gynoceium

(2) gynoceium o androceium o corolla o calyx

(3) calyx o androceium o corolla o gynoceium

(4) gynoceium o corolla o androceium o calyx

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 14 of 48
24. §ü‰¢ïÝ¢òH ²¢ }¢ãœ±¢Ó²¢ ¥¢ñl¢ïçx¢ÜU Îí¢±ÜU¢Ó¢¢ x¢ñÚ±¢ÐÚ Å¢f‡²¢S¢¢Æè y²¢¼ ÜU¢ï‡¢¼ï Îíò ç}¢S¢f¼¢¼ ?

(1) }¢è‰¢ïÝ¢òH (2) Ðí¢ïÐïÝ¢òH

(3) §‰¢ïÝ¢ò§üÜ ¥òçS¢Ç (4) Ðí¢ïÐïÝ

25. RU¢²¢ïH¢§ÅÓ¢ï ÚêS¢ê~¢ .......... ¥¢ãï.

(1) NaAlF (2) Na3AlF6

(3) Na2AlF3 (4) Na2AlF2

26. ¶¢HèHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢¼ï Ç¢ïÏ¢ïÚ¢²ÝÚÓ¢ï ç~¢ÜU Ý¢ãè.

(1) Li, Na, K (2) Cl, K, Cr

(3) Ca, Sr, Ba 4) Cl, Br, I

27. DNA Ó²¢ ΢ïÝ {¢x²¢æÐñÜUè »ÜU¢ {¢x²¢Ó¢¢ ±¢ÐÚ ÜUMÝ mRNA Ó¢è çÝ<}¢¼è ÜïUHè Á¢¢¼ï ²¢ ÐíçRU²ïH¢ .......... }㇢¼¢¼.

(1) Ðíç¼Hï¶Ý (2) |¢¢¯¢æ¼Ú‡¢

(3) S‰¢¢Ý¢æ¼Ú‡¢ (4) Ðíç¼S‰¢¢ÐÝ

28. S¢ê~¢è Ðïà¢è ç±|¢¢Á¢Ý¢}¢Š²ï {¢x²¢æÓ²¢ }¢Î¼èÝï x¢é‡¢S¢ê~¢ôÏ¢ÎêÓ¢ï ç±|¢¢Á¢Ý ã¢ïªÝ Ðíy²ïÜU x¢é‡¢S¢ê~¢¢æÓ¢è ¥‰¢üx¢é‡¢S¢ê~¢ Á¢¢ïÇè ±ïx¢fè
ã¢ïªÝ ç±Lh çÎà¢ïH¢ ¥¢ïÉHè Á¢¢¼ï. 㢠x¢é‡¢{}¢ü ΢¶ç±‡¢¢Úè S¢ê~¢è Ðïà¢è ç±|¢¢Á¢Ý¢¼èH ¥±S‰¢¢ ¥¢ïf¶¢.
(1) ¥æy²¢±S‰¢¢ (2) Ðê±¢ü±S‰¢¢

(3) }¢Š²¢±S‰¢¢ (4) Ðಢ±S‰¢¢

29. |¢íꇢÐïà¢è´Ó¢è ç±|¢¢x¢‡¢è Á¢Ú ²éx}¢Á¢ ¼²¢Ú Û¢¢Ë²¢Ð¢S¢êÝ 8 çαS¢¢Ýæ¼Ú Û¢¢Hè ¼Ú ........ Á¢‹}¢¢H¢ ²ï‡²¢Ó¢è à¢v²¼¢ ¥S¢¼ï.

(1) Á¢ÝéÜUè² ÎëC²¢ ±ïx¢û²¢ ΢ïÝ }¢éHè (2) S¢¢²¢ç}¢Á¢ Á¢éfï

(3) Á¢ÝéÜUè²ÎëC²¢ ±ïx¢fè ΢ïÝ }¢éHï (4) Á¢ÝéÜUè²ÎëCK¢ ±ïx¢fï »ÜU }¢éHx¢¢, »ÜU }¢éHx¢è.

30. ±ÝSмèÓ²¢ ÈéUH¢æ}¢{èH Ó¢¢Ú }¢æÇH¢æÓ¢è ÚӢݢ ¥¢¼êÝ Ï¢¢ãïÚ ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ RU}¢¢Ýï ¥S¢¼ï ?

(1) çÝÎHÐéæÁ¢ o ÎHÐéæÁ¢ o Ðé}¢æx¢ o Á¢¢²¢æx¢

(2) Á¢¢²¢æx¢ o Ðé}¢æx¢ o ÎHÐéæÁ¢ o çÝÎHÐéæÁ¢

(3) çÝÎHÐéæÁ¢ o Ðé}¢æx¢ o ÎHÐéæÁ¢ o Á¢¢²¢æx¢

(4) Á¢¢²¢æx¢ o ÎHÐéæÁ¢ o Ðé}¢æx¢ o çÝÎHÐéæÁ¢

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 15 of 48
31. Sunderban sanctuary of West Bengal is reserved for which animals ?

(1) Rhino (2) Bison

(3) Tiger (4) Asiatic lion

32. From the following which animal is warm blooded, presence of mammary glands and body
divided into head, neck, trunk and tail.

(1) Penguin (2) Tortoise

(3) Pigeon (4) Bat

33. In process of fermentation of production of wine from grapes which micro organism is
used ?

(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Aspergillus oryzae

(3) Lactobacillus brevis (4) Aspergillus niger

34. Given below pairs proteins of produced by biotechnology and disease they are used against.
Find the odd pair.

Proteins Produced Diseases

(1) Insulin - Diabetes

(2) Erythropoietin - Anemia

(3) Interleukin - Cancer

(4) Interferon - Hemophilia

35. Which factor from the following decreases efficiency of nervous system, liver as well as
lifespan of person.

(1) Tobacco (2) Gutkha

(3) Alcohol (4) Stress

36. Who is responsible at the district level disaster management and implementation of
rehabilitation schemes ?

(1) Chief Minister

(2) Home Minister

(3) Collector

(4) Tahsildar

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 16 of 48
31. Ðçp}¢ Ï¢æx¢¢H}¢{èH S¢éæÎÚÏ¢Ý ¥|¢²¢Ú‡² ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ Ðí¢‡²¢S¢¢Æè Ú¢¶è± ¥¢ãï ?

(1) »ÜU¢ôà¢x¢è x¢ï´Ç¢ (2) Ú¢Ýx¢±ï

(3) ±¢Í¢ (4) ¥ïçࢲ¢§ü ôS¢ã

32. ¶¢HèH ÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢¼¢ Ðí¢‡¢è ©c‡¢Úv¼è ¥S¢êÝ y²¢æÝ¢ Îê{ d±‡¢¢&²¢ x¢íæ‰¢è ¥S¢¼¢¼. ¼S¢ïÓ¢ y²¢æÓ²¢ à¢çÚÚ¢Ó¢ï Ç¢ïÜïU, }¢¢Ý,
{Ç ± à¢ïÐêÅ ¥S¢ï |¢¢x¢ ¥S¢¼¢¼.
(1) Ðï´x±èÝ (2) ÜU¢S¢±

(3) ÜUÏ¢é¼Ú (4) ±Å±¢{êf

33. Îí¢ÿ¢¢æТS¢êÝ ±¢§üÝ ¼²¢Ú ÜUÚ‡²¢S¢¢ÆèÓ²¢ çÜU‡±Ý ÐíçRU²ï}¢Š²ï ÜU¢ï‡¢¼¢ S¢êÿ}¢Á¢è± ±¢ÐÚ¼¢¼ ?

(1) S¢òÜUÚ¢ï}¢¢²çS¢S¢ S¢ïÚïçÃãS¢è (2) ¥òSÐÚçÁ¢HS¢ ¥¢ïÚ¢²Û¢è

(3) HòvÅ¢ïÏ¢òS¢èHS¢ Ï¢íé§üS¢ (4) ¥òSÐÚçÁ¢HS¢ Ý¢²x¢Ú

34. ¶¢Hè çÎHï˲¢ Ðíç‰¢Ý ©yТÎÝï ± ¼è ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ Ú¢ïx¢¢±Ú ©Ð²¢ïx¢è ÐǼ¢¼ ²¢æÓ²¢ Á¢¢ïÇK¢æ}¢{êÝ ç±S¢æx¢¼ Á¢¢ïÇè ¥¢ïf¶¢.

Ðíç‰¢Ý ©yТÎÝ Ú¢ïx¢

(1) §‹à¢éçHÝ - }¢{é}¢ïã
(2) §çÚ‰¢í¢ïТò²ïçÅÝ - ¥òçÝç}¢²¢
(3) §æÅÚ˲éÜUèÝ - ÜUò‹S¢Ú
(4) §æÅÚÈïUÚ¢òÝ - çã}¢¢ïçÈUçH²¢
35. ¶¢HèH ÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ Í¢ÅÜU¢æ}¢éfï }¢¢‡¢S¢¢Ó¢ï ²ÜëU¼ ± ӢＢS¢æS‰¢¢ ²¢æÓ¢è ÜU¢²üÿ¢¹¼¢ ¼S¢ïÓ¢ ¥¢²éc²}¢¢Ý ÜU}¢è ã¢ï¼ï ?

(1) ¼æÏ¢¢¶ê (2) x¢éŶ¢

(3) ¥ËÜU¢ïã¢ïH (4) ¼¢‡¢¼‡¢¢±

36. çÁ¢Ëã¢S¼Úè² ¥¢Ðœ¢è ò±S‰¢¢ÐÝ¢S¢¢Æè ± ¥¢Ðœ¢è çݱ¢Ú‡¢ ²¢ïÁ¢Ý¢æÓ²¢ ÐçÚÐꇢü¼ïS¢¢Æè ÜU¢ï‡¢ Á¢Ï¢¢Ï¢Î¢Ú ¥S¢¼¢¼ ?

(1) }¢éw²}¢æ~¢è

(2) x¢ëã}¢æ~¢è

(3) çÁ¢Ëã¢ç{ÜU¢Úè

(4) ¼ãçS¢H΢Ú

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 17 of 48
37. Identify the adrenal gland from the following figure

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

38. Identify the correct sequence for process of energy production from carbohydrates.

(1) Carbohydrates o Glycolysis o Pyruvic acid o AcetylCoA o Krebs cycle o

CO2 + H2O + energy

(2) Carbohydrates o Glycolysis o Pyruvic acid o Krebs cycle o AcetylCoA o

CO2 + H2O + energy

(3) Carbohydrates o Glycolysis o AcetylCoA o Pyruvic acid o Krebs cycle o

CO2 + H2O + energy

(4) Carbohydrates o Glycolysis o AcetylCoA o Krebs cycle o Pyruvic acid o

CO2 + H2O + energy

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 18 of 48
37. ¶¢HèH ¥¢ÜëU¼è}¢{èH ±ëvÜUS‰¢ x¢íæ‰¢è ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

38. ÜUÏ¢¢ïüÎÜU¢æÓ¢ï ¥¢òçvà¢ES¢Ý ÜUMÝ ªÁ¢¢ü ç}¢f籇²¢Ó²¢ ÐíçRU²ï¼èH ²¢ïx² RU}¢ ¥¢ïf¶¢

(1) ÜUÏ¢¢ïüÎÜïU o xHéÜU¢ïÁ¢ ç±Í¢ÅÝ o Т²Mç±ÜU ¥¢}H o ¥òS¢ïÅèH-ÜU¢ï-»‹Û¢¢§ü}¢-A o RïUÏ¢Ó¢RU o

CO2 + H2O + ªÁ¢¢ü

(2) ÜUÏ¢¢ïüÎÜïU o xHéÜU¢ïÁ¢ ç±Í¢ÅÝ o Т²Mç±ÜU ¥¢}H o RïUÏ¢Ó¢RU o ¥òS¢ïÅèH-ÜU¢ï-»‹Û¢¢§ü}¢-A o

CO2 + H2O + ªÁ¢¢ü

(3) ÜUÏ¢¢ïüÎÜïU o xHéÜU¢ïÁ¢ ç±Í¢ÅÝ o ¥òS¢ïÅèH-ÜU¢ï-»‹Û¢¢§ü}¢-A o Т²Mç±ÜU ¥¢}H o RïUÏ¢Ó¢RU o

CO2 + H2O + ªÁ¢¢ü

(4) ÜUÏ¢¢ïüÎÜïU o xHéÜU¢ïÁ¢ ç±Í¢ÅÝ o ¥òS¢ïÅèH-ÜU¢ï-»‹Û¢¢§ü}¢-A o RïUÏ¢Ó¢RU o Т²Mç±ÜU ¥¢}H o

CO2 + H2O + ªÁ¢¢ü

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 19 of 48
39. Identify the function of columnar epithelium

(1) Selective transport of substances (2) Prevention of wearing of organs

(3) Secretion of digestive juice (4) Reabsorption of useful materials from urine

40. Body structure of different animals is given below. Identify to which phylum the animal
belongs

1 Long, cylindrical, metamerically segmented.

2 Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, eucoelomate.

3 They have setae or parapodia or suckers for locomotion.

(1) Arathropoda (2) Annelida

(3) Aschelminthes (4) Mollusca

41. Who was the founder of modern Historiography ?

(1) Voltair (2) Michel Foucault

(3) Karl Marx (4) Rene Descartes

42. Identify the wrong pair from the pairs given below.

(1) Who were the shudras - History of Subaltern

(2) Stri - Purush Tulana - Feminist writing

(3) Cambridge History of India - Colonial Historiography

(4) The Indian war of Independence - Marxist History

43. The Main Office of National Film Archives of India is at ........

(1) Mumbai (2) Pune

(3) Kolkata (4) Delhi

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 20 of 48
39. S¼æç|¢² ¥ç|¢S¼Ú ª¼è´Ó¢ï ÜU¢²ü ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(1) ÆÚ¢ç±ÜU Ð΢‰¢¢üÓ¢ï ±ãÝ ÜUÚ‡¢ï (2) ¥±²±¢æÓ¢è Û¢èÁ¢ ڢﶇ¢ï.

(3) ТӢÜUÚS¢ d±‡¢ï (4) }¢ê~¢¢¼èH ©Ð²év¼ Í¢ÅÜU ࢢ﯇¢ï.

40. ¶¢HèH ÐíÜU¢ÚÓ¢è à¢çÚÚ ÚӢݢ ¥S¢‡¢¢Úï Ðí¢‡¢è ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ Ðí¢‡¢èS¢æÍ¢¢¼ ²ï¼¢¼ ¼ï ¥¢ïf¶¢.

1 H¢æÏ¢Å, ÎæÇ¢ÜëU¼è, ÜU¢²¶æÇ - ¶æÇè|¢±Ý ²év¼ à¢çÚÚ ÚӢݢ

2 ãï Ðí¢‡¢è ç~¢S¼Úè², Îìç±Ð¢Eü S¢}¢ç}¢¼ ¥¢ç‡¢ S¢y² Îïãx¢é㢲év¼ ¥¢ãï¼.

3 ÐíÓ¢HÝ¢S¢¢Æè ÎëÉÚ¢ï}¢ ôÜU±¢ ÐڢТΠôÜU±¢ Ó¢ê¯ÜU ²¢S¢¢Ú¶ï ¥±²± ¥S¢¼¢¼.

(1) S¢æç{ТΠ(2) ±H²è

(3) x¢¢ïHÜëU}¢è (4) }¢ëÎéÜU¢²

41. ¥¢{éçÝÜU §ç¼ã¢S¢ Hï¶Ý¢Ó¢¢ Á¢ÝÜU ÜU¢ï‡¢¢S¢ }㇢¼¢¼ ?

(1) Ãã¢òËÅï¥Ú (2) }¢¢§ÜUH ÈéUÜU¢ï

(3) ÜU¢Hü }¢¢vS¢ü (4) ÚïÝï ÎïÜU¢¼ü

42. ÐéÉèH ÐñÜUè Ó¢éÜUèÓ¢è Á¢¢ïÇè ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(1) ãê ±ï¥Ú Î à¢éÎí¢Á¢ - ±æçÓ¢¼¢Ó¢¢ §ç¼ã¢S¢

(2) ›è ÐéL¯ ¼éHÝ¢ - ›è ±¢Îè Hï¶Ý

(3) ÜïU´Ï¢íèÁ¢ çãSÅÚè ¥¢òÈU §æçDz¢ - ±S¢¢ã¼±¢Îè §ç¼ã¢S¢

(4) Î §æçÇ²Ý ±¢òÚ ¥¢òÈU §ç‹ÇÐï‹ÇS¢ - }¢¢vS¢ü±¢Îè §ç¼ã¢S¢

43. Ú¢cÅîè² çÈUË}¢ S¢æx¢íã¢H² (Ýòà¢ÝH çÈUË}¢ ¥ÜU¢ü§Ãã) ²¢ S¢æS‰¢ïÓ¢è }¢éw² ÜUÓ¢ïÚè ...... s¢ à¢ãÚ¢¼ ¥¢ãï.

(1) }¢éæÏ¢§ü (2) Ð釢ï

(3) ÜU¢ïHÜU¢¼¢ (4) çÎËHè

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 21 of 48
44. Identify the style of the temple architecture that has been shown in the above picture ?

(1) Dravid (2) Vesara

(3) Nagara (4) Bhoomija

45. Who started the First English Newspaper in India ?

(1) Alen Hume (2) Sir John Marshal

(3) James Augustus Hickey (4) Michel Foucault

46. Who is known - as the first Keertankar of Maharashtra ?

(1) Saint Dnyaneshwar (2) Saint Tukaram

(3) Saint Namdev (4) Saint Eknath

47. Write the name of the Wooden dolls made in Maharashtra.

(1) Thaki (2) Kali Chandika

(3) Gangavati (4) Champavati

48. ‘Bhilar’ - the village near Mahableshwar is famous as the ‘village of .......... ’

(1) Plants (2) Books

(3) Forts (4) Mangoes

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 22 of 48
44. S¢¢ïÏ¢¼Ó²¢ çÓ¢~¢¢¼èH }¢æçÎÚ S‰¢¢Ðy²¢Ó¢ï çà¢¶Ú ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ à¢ñHèÓ¢ï ¥¢ãï ?

(1) Îíç±Ç (2) ±ïS¢Ú

(3) Ý¢x¢Ú (4) |¢êç}¢Á¢

45. |¢¢Ú¼¢¼èH ÐçãHï §æx¢íÁ¢è ±¼ü}¢¢ÝÐ~¢ ÜU¢ï‡¢è S¢éL ÜïUHï ?

(1) ¥òHÝ ãì²ê}¢ (2) S¢Ú Á¢¢òÝ }¢¢à¢üH

(3) Á¢ï}S¢ ¥¢òx¢SÅS¢ çãÜUè (4) }¢¢²ÜïUH ÈéUÜU¢ï

46. }¢ã¢Ú¢cÅî¢Ó¢ï ¥¢l çÜU¼üÝÜU¢Ú ......... ²¢æÝ¢ }¢¢Ý¼¢¼.

(1) S¢æ¼ ¿¢¢ÝïEÚ (2) S¢æ¼ ¼éÜU¢Ú¢}¢

(3) S¢æ¼ Ý¢}¢Îï± (4) S¢æ¼ »ÜUÝ¢‰¢

47. Ðê±èü }¢ã¢Ú¢cÅ ¼²¢Ú ã¢ï‡¢¢&²¢ H¢ÜUÇè Ï¢¢ãéHèH¢ ÜU¢² }㇢¼¢¼ ?

(1) ÆÜUè (2) ÜU¢HèÓ¢æÇèÜU¢

(3) x¢æx¢¢±¼è (4) Ó¢æТ±¼è

48. }¢ã¢Ï¢fïEÚ Á¢±fèH ç|¢H¢Ú ãï x¢¢æ± ÜUࢢS¢¢Æè ÐíçS¢h ¥¢ãï ?

(1) ±ÝSмè (2) ÐéS¼ÜïU

(3) çÜUËHï (4) ¥¢æÏ¢ï

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 23 of 48
49. Identify the wrong pair from the famous museums and its location in India.

(1) Kolkata - Indian Museum (2) Delhi - National Museum

(3) Hyderabad - Salarjang Museum (4) Mumbai - The Calico Museum of Textiles

50. Who said that, ‘the prevailing practice of arranging historical events in a chronological order
is not right ?’

(1) Michel foucault (2) Seamaw The Bolva

(3) Leopold von Ranke (4) George Wilhelm friendrich Hegel

51. Which style of architecture has been used to build, ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway
Terminus’ ?

(1) Muslim (2) Nagara

(3) Dravid (4) Indo - Gothic

52. 6th January is celebrated as ......... Day.

(1) Right to Information (2) Journalist

(3) Human rights (4) Cleanliness

53. .......... is the birthdate of Major Dhyan Chand is celebrated as the ‘National Sports Day’ in
India.

(1) 28 October (2) 29 August

(3) 10 December (4) 14 April

54. Under the leadership of Socialist leader .......... women in Mumbai participated in a
demonstration which came to be known as ‘Laatne Morcha’

(1) Pramila Dandavate (2) Mrinal Gore

(3) Gaura Devi (4) Dr. Phulrenu Guha

55. Which industry is known as ‘Sunrise Sector’ of India ?

(1) Jute industry (2) Automobile industry

(3) Cement Industry (4) Khadi and village industry

56. In the year 1983, The Indian cricket team won the World Cup under the captainship of .........

(1) Sunil Gavaskar (2) Sandip Patil

(3) Sayyed Kirmani (4) Kapil Dev

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 24 of 48
49. |¢¢Ú¼¢¼èH ÐíçS¢h S¢æx¢íã¢H²ï ²¢¼èH Ó¢éÜUèÓ¢è Á¢¢ïÇè ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(1) ÜU¢ïHÜUœ¢¢ - §æçÇ²Ý }²éçÛ¢²}¢ (2) çÎËHè - Ýòà¢ÝH }²éçÛ¢²}¢

(3) ãñÎí¢Ï¢¢Î - S¢¢H¢ÚÁ¢æx¢ }²éçÛ¢²}¢ (4) }¢éæÏ¢§ü - Î ÜUò çHÜU¢ï }²éçÛ¢²}¢ ¥¢òÈU ÅïvS¢Å¢§üËS¢

50. §ç¼ã¢S¢¢Ó¢è ÜU¢HRU}¢¢ÝéS¢¢Ú ¥¶æÇ }¢¢æLJ¢è ÜUÚ‡²¢Ó¢è Ðh¼ Ó¢éÜUèÓ¢è ¥¢ãï, ¥S¢ï ÜU¢ï‡¢è Ðíç¼Ð¢ÎÝ ÜïUHï ?

(1) }¢¢²ÜïUH ÈéUÜU¢ï (2) S¢è}¢¢¡-Î-Ï¢¢ïÃã¢

(3) çH¥¢ïТò‹Ç Ãã¢òÝ Ú¢æÜïU (4) Á¢¢òÁ¢ü ç±Ëãï}¢ ÈUíïÇçÚÜU ãïx¢ïH

51. }¢éæÏ¢§üÓ¢ï À~¢Ðç¼ çࢱ¢Á¢è }¢ã¢Ú¢Á¢ Úï˱ï Å<}¢ÝS¢ ãè §}¢¢Ú¼ ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ S‰¢¢Ðy² à¢ñHèÓ¢ï ©yÜëUC ©Î¢ãÚ‡¢ ¥¢ãï ?

(1) }¢éçSH}¢ (2) Ý¢x¢Ú

(3) Îí¢ç±Ç (4) §æÇ¢ï x¢¢ï牢ÜU

52. 6 Á¢¢Ýï±¢Úè 㢠çαS¢ .......... }㇢êÝ S¢¢Á¢Ú¢ ÜïUH¢ Á¢¢¼¢ï.

(1) }¢¢çã¼è ¥ç{ÜU¢Ú (2) Ð~¢ÜU¢Ú

(3) }¢¢Ý±è ãvÜU (4) S±ÓÀ¼¢

53. }¢ï…Ú Š²¢Ý™æÎí ²¢æ™¢ .......... 㢠…‹}¢çα„ ‘Ú¢cÅîè² RUèÇ¢çα„’ }㇢êÝ „¢…Ú¢ ÜUïH¢ …¢¼¢ï.

(1) 28 ¥¢òvÅ¢ïÏ¢Ú (2) 29 ¥¢òx¢SÅ

(3) 10 çÇ„ïæÏ¢Ú (4) 14 »çÐíH

54. }¢éæÏ¢§ü¼ .......... ²¢æÓ²¢ Ýï¼ëy±¢¶¢Hè }¢çãH¢æÝè H¢Å‡¢ï }¢¢ïÓ¢¢ü ÜU¢ÉH¢

(1) Ðíç}¢H¢ ÎæDZ¼ï (2) }¢ë‡¢¢H x¢¢ïÚï

(3) x¢¢ñÚ¢Îï±è (4) Ç¢ò. ÈéUHÚé x¢éã¢

55. |¢¢Ú¼¢¼èH ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ ©l¢ïx¢¢H¢ ‘S¢ÝÚ¢§üÁ¢ ÿ¢ï~¢’ ¥S¢ï }ãÅHï Á¢¢¼ï ?

(1) ¼¢x¢ (2) ±¢ãÝ

(3) çS¢}¢ï´Å (4) ¶¢Îè ± x¢í¢}¢¢ïl¢ïx¢

56. 1983 }¢Š²ï ÜU¢ï‡¢¢Ó²¢ Ýï¼ëy±¢¶¢Hè |¢¢Ú¼¢Ýï ç±EÓ¢¯ÜU çRUÜïUÅ SÐ{¢ü ôÁ¢ÜUHè ?

(1) S¢éÝèH x¢¢±SÜUÚ (2) S¢æÎèРТÅèH

(3) S¢Ä²Î çÜUÚ}¢¢‡¢è (4) ÜUçÐH Îï±

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 25 of 48
57 . Several attempts were made towards democratic decentralisation. One of these attempts was
the .......... amendment to Indian constitution.

(1) 71 and 72 (2) 72 and 73

(3) 73 and 74 (4) 74 and 75

58. Identify the article of the Indian Constitution, which has established Election Commission
as autonomous body ?

(1) Art. - 314 (2) Art. - 324

(3) Art. - 334 (4) Art. - 344

59. Who appoints the Election Commissioner in India ?

(1) President (2) Prime Minister

(3) Speaker of Loksabha (4) Vice President

60. Which one of the following is incorrect / wrong pair in concern with the region & the
movement raised in it ?

(1) Chota Nagpur - Ramoshi

(2) Orissa - Gond

(3) Maharashtra - Koli

(4) Bihar - Munda

61. Which one of the following is irrelevant to the challenges faced by the Indian Democracy ?

(1) Terrorism

(2) Corruption

(3) Naxlism

(4) Environmental Degradation

62. The essence of Democracy is ...........

(1) Universal Adult Franchise.

(2) Decentralisation of Power.

(3) Policy of reservation of seats.

(4) Judicial decisions.

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 26 of 48
57 . |¢¢Ú¼¢¼ H¢ïÜUࢢãè ç±ÜïU‹ÎíèÜUÚ‡¢¢Ó¢¢ S¢±¢ü¼ }¢¢ïÆ¢ Ðí²yÝ ......... ò¢ Í¢ÅÝ¢ ÎéLS¼è¼ Û¢¢H¢

(1) 71 ± 72 (2) 72 ± 73

(3) 73 ± 74 (4) 74 ± 75

58. ‘çݱLJ¢êÜU ¥¢²¢ïx¢’ ²¢ |¢¢Ú¼¢¼èH S±¢²œ¢ ²æ~¢‡¢ïÓ¢è çÝ<}¢¼è S¢æç±{¢Ý¢Ó²¢ ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ ÜUH}¢¢Ýï Û¢¢Hè ?

(1) ÜUH}¢ - 314 (2) ÜUH}¢ - 324

(3) ÜUH}¢ - 334 (4) ÜUH}¢ - 344

59. |¢¢Ú¼¢}¢Š²ï çݱLJ¢êÜU ¥¢²év¼¢æ™è Ýï}¢‡¢êÜU ÜU¢ï‡¢ ÜUÚ¼¢¼ ?

(1) Ú¢cÅîмè (2) Ðí{¢Ý}¢æ~¢è

(3) H¢ïÜU„|¢¢ „|¢¢Ð¼è (4) ©ÐÚ¢cÅîмè

60. ÐéÉèHÐñÜUè ÐíÎïࢠ± ¥¢çα¢S¢è ©Æ¢± ²¢æÓ²¢¼èH ¥²¢ïx² Á¢¢ïÇè ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(1) À¢ïÅ¢ Ý¢x¢ÐêÚ - Ú¢}¢¢ïà¢è

(2) ¥¢ïçÇࢢ - x¢¢ï´Ç

(3) }¢ã¢Ú¢cÅî - ÜU¢ïfè

(4) çÏ¢ã¢Ú - }¢éæÇ¢

61. ‘|¢¢Ú¼è² H¢ïÜUࢢãè S¢}¢¢ïÚèH ¥¢Ãã¢Ýï’ }¢{èH ç±S¢æx¢¼ Í¢ÅÜU ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(1) Îãࢼ±¢Î

(2) |¢íC¢Ó¢¢Ú

(3) Ýÿ¢H±¢Î

(4) в¢ü±Ú‡¢¢Ó¢¢ &ã¢S¢

62. H¢ïÜUࢢã虢 x¢¢|¢¢ ÜUࢢ„ }㇢¼¢¼ ?

(1) Ðí¢ñÉ }¢¼¢ç{ÜU¢Ú

(2) „|¢ï™ï ç±ÜUïæÎíèÜUÚ‡¢

(3) Ú¢¶è± …¢x¢¢æ™ï {¢ïÚ‡¢

(4) ‹²¢²¢H²èÝ ç݇¢ü²

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 27 of 48
63. Identify the Nation which is not a Member of ‘BRICS’ - an International Orgranization ?

(1) India (2) England

(3) China (4) Russia

64. In 2005 The Indian. U.S. Civil Nuclear Agreement was signed by .......... the Prime Minister
of India and George W. Bush - the American President

(1) Rajiv Gandhi (2) P. V. Narsimha Rao

(3) Dr. Manmohan Singh (4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

65. India has no coastline along the ........ direction

(1) East (2) West

(3) South (4) North

66. Identify the oddman out

(1) Snow (2) hailstone

(3) Ice (4) rainFall

67. Though India has a higher national income as compared to Brazil, the per capita income of
India is lower than Brazil because ..........

(1) The Population of India is more. (2) The Population of India is less.

(3) The Population of Brazil is more. (4) The Population of Brazil and India is equal.

68. Identify the wrong statement, regarding Importance of Population .........

(1) Expansion of trade. (2) Rapid Industrialization

(3) Tourism Development. (4) Lack of employment opportunities.

69. India too has a large longitudinal extent. The difference between the two extreme most
points is ........

(1) 110 (2) 120

(3) 130 (4) 140

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 28 of 48
63. ‘BRICS’ ²¢ ¥¢æ¼ÚÚ¢cÅîè² S¢æÍ¢ÅÝï¼ ÐéÉèHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ ÎïࢢӢ¢ S¢ã|¢¢x¢ Ý¢ãè ?

(1) |¢¢Ú¼ (2) §æxHæÇ

(3) çÓ¢Ý (4) Úçࢲ¢

64. 2005 }¢Š²ï |¢¢Ú¼ ¥¢ç‡¢ ¥}¢ïçÚÜU¢ ²¢æÓ²¢¼èH Ý¢x¢Úè ¥‡¢éS¢ãÜU¢²ü ÜUÚ¢Ú¢H¢ |¢¢Ú¼¢Ó¢ï ¼yÜU¢HèÝ Ðí{¢Ý}¢æ~¢è ..........
¥¢ç‡¢ ¥}¢ïçÚÜïUÓ¢ï ¥Š²ÿ¢ Á¢¢òÁ¢ü Ï¢éࢠ²¢æÝè }¢¢‹²¼¢ çÎHè.

(1) Ú¢Á¢è± x¢¢æ{è (2) Ðè. Ããè. ÝÚôS¢ãÚ¢±

(3) Ç¢ò. }¢Ý}¢¢ïãÝ ôS¢x¢ (4) ¥ÅHçÏ¢ã¢Úè ±¢Á¢Ðï²è

65. |¢¢Ú¼¢Ó²¢ ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ çÎà¢ïH¢ S¢¢x¢Úè çÜUÝ¢Ú¢ Ý¢ãè ?

(1) Ðê±ü (2) Ðçp}¢

(3) Îçÿ¢‡¢ (4) ©œ¢Ú

66. x¢Å¢¼ Ý Ï¢S¢‡¢¢Ú¢ Í¢ÅÜU/à¢ÏÎ ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(1) çã}¢ (2) x¢¢Ú¢

(3) Ï¢ÈüU (4) ÐÁ¢ü‹²

67. |¢¢Ú¼¢Ó¢ï S‰¢êH Ú¢cÅîè² ©yÐ‹Ý Ï¢í¢Û¢èHÐïÿ¢¢ Á¢¢S¼ ¥S¢êÝãè |¢¢Ú¼¢Ó¢ï ÎÚÇ¢ï§ü ©yÐ‹Ý Ï¢í¢Û¢èHÓ²¢ ¼éHÝï¼ ÜU}¢è ¥¢ãï ÜU¢Ú‡¢
........

(1) |¢¢Ú¼¢Ó¢è H¢ïÜUS¢æw²¢ Á¢¢S¼ ¥¢ãï. (2) |¢¢Ú¼¢Ó¢è H¢ïÜUS¢æw²¢ ÜU}¢è ¥¢ãï.

(3) Ï¢í¢Û¢èHÓ¢è H¢ïÜUS¢æw²¢ Á¢¢S¼ ¥¢ãï. (4) |¢¢Ú¼ ± Ï¢í¢Û¢èH H¢ïÜUS¢æw²¢ S¢}¢¢Ý ¥¢ãï.

68. ±¢ã¼êÜUèÓ¢ï }¢ãy± - ¥²¢ïx² ç±{¢Ý ÜU¢ï‡¢¼ï ¥¢ãï ?

(1) ò¢Ð¢Ú ç±S¼¢Ú (2) Á¢HÎ ¥¢ñl¢ïçx¢ÜUèÜUÚ‡¢

(3) вüÅÝ ç±ÜU¢S¢ (4) Ú¢ïÁ¢x¢¢Ú S¢æ{èÓ¢è ÜU}¢¼Ú¼¢

69. |¢¢Ú¼¢¼èH ¥ç¼ Ðê±ü ± ¥ç¼ Ðçp}¢ Å¢ïÜU¢æ±ÚèH Úﶢ±ëœ¢¢}¢{èH ±ïfïÓ¢¢ ÈUÚÜU çÜU¼è ç}¢çÝÅ¢æÓ¢¢ ¥¢ãï ?

(1) 110 (2) 120

(3) 130 (4) 140

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 29 of 48
70. Find out the odd man out from given options.

(1) Ganga

(2) Sabarmati

(3) Sindhu

(4) Yamuna

71. Which type of settlement has been found at the uneven topography of Himalaya ?

(1) Nucleated

(2) Linear

(3) Dispersed

(4) Star - Shaped

72. Which one is not the mean of Communication ?

(1) Computer

(2) Mobiles

(3) Internet

(4) Encyclopeadia.

73. Identify the correct option from pairs given below

State Travel Place

(A) Maharashtra (I) Udagmandalam

(B) Rajasthan (II) Masoori
(C) Uttarakhand (III) Aajintha
(D) Tamilnadu (IV) Jaisalmer

(1) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

(2) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

(3) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

(4) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 30 of 48
70. ¶¢HèH ÐñÜUè ±ïx¢f¢ Í¢ÅÜU ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(1) x¢æx¢¢

(2) S¢¢Ï¢Ú}¢¼è

(3) ôS¢{ê

(4) ²}¢êÝ¢

71. çã}¢¢H²¢Ó²¢ ©æÓ¢S¢¶H ÐíÎïࢢ¼ ÜU¢ï‡¢¼¢ ±S¼è ÐíÜU¢Ú ¥Éf¼¢ï ?

(1) ÜïU´Îíè¼

(2) ÚﯢÜëU¼è

(3) 籶êÚHïH¢

(4) ¼¢Ú¢ÜëU¼è

72. ¶¢HèHÐñÜUè S¢æÎïࢱãÝ S¢¢{Ý¢æÓ¢¢ ÐíÜU¢Ú ÜU¢ï‡¢¼¢ Í¢ÅÜU Ý¢ãè ?

(1) S¢æx¢‡¢ÜU

(2) |¢í}¢‡¢Š±Ýè

(3) §æÅÚÝïÅ

(4) ç±EÜU¢ïà¢

73. Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú Á¢¢ïÇK¢ ¥S¢HïH¢ ÐíÜU¢Ú ¥¢ïf¶¢.

Ú¢Á² вüÅÝ S‰¢fï

(¥) }¢ã¢Ú¢cÅî (I) ©Îx¢}¢æÇH
(Ï¢) Ú¢Á¢S‰¢¢Ý (II) }¢S¢éÚè
(ÜU) ©œ¢Ú¢¶æÇ (III) ¥ôÁ¢Æ¢
(Ç) ¼ç}¢fÝ¢Çê (IV) Á¢ñS¢H}¢ïÚ

(1) ¥ - III, Ï¢ - IV, ÜU - II, Ç - I

(2) ¥ - IV, Ï¢ - III, ÜU - I, Ç - II

(3) ¥ - II, Ï¢ - I, ÜU - III, Ç - IV

(4) ¥ - I, Ï¢ - II, ÜU - IV, Ç - III

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 31 of 48
74. Which country do not share their border with Brazil ?

(1) Argentina (2) Myanmar

(3) Peru (4) French Guiana

75. Identify the correct options of pairs given below.

‘A’ Group ‘B’ Group

(A) Temperate Grasslands (I) Savanna

(B) Thorny Shrubs (II) Amazon River Basin

(C) Tropical Grasslands (III) Coatinga

(D) Equatorial forests (VI) Pampas

(1) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

(2) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

(3) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

(4) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

76. Which river has been shown with letter ‘A’ in the given outline map of Brazil ?

(1) Paraguay

(2) Paraniba

(3) Urugway

(4) Purus

77. ............. is a large coastal island located between the mouths of River Amazon and River
Tocantins.

(1) Sao Francisco (2) Marajo

(3) Marcos (4) Rio

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 32 of 48
74. ¶¢çHHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢¼¢ ÎïࢠϢí¢Û¢èHÓ²¢ S¢è}¢ïHx¢¼ Ý¢ãè ?

(1) ¥Á¢ïZçÅÝ¢ (2) }²¢Ý}¢¢Ú

(3) ÐïM (4) ÈUíï´Ó¢ çx¢²¢Ý¢

75. ²¢ïx² Á¢¢ïÇK¢æÓ¢¢ в¢ü² ¥¢ïf¶¢.

S¼æ|¢ ‘¥’ S¼æ|¢ ‘Ï¢’

(A) S¢}¢à¢è¼¢ïc‡¢ x¢±¼¢f ÐíÎïࢠ(I) S¢òÃã¢Ý¢

(B) ÜU¢ÅïÚè Û¢éÇÐè ±Ýï (II) ¥ò}¢ïÛ¢¢òÝ ÝÎèÓ¢ï ¶¢ïÚï

(C) ©c‡¢ x¢±¼¢f ÐíÎïࢠ(III) ÜUôÅx¢¢

(D) ç±¯é±±ëœ¢è² ±Ýï (VI) ÐæТS¢

(1) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

(2) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

(3) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

(4) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

76. S¢¢ïÏ¢¼Ó²¢ ÝÜU¢à¢¢ ¥¢Ú¢¶ÇK¢¼ ‘A’ ²¢ ¥ÿ¢ÚS‰¢¢Ýè Ï¢í¢Û¢èH}¢{èH ÜU¢ï‡¢¼è ÝÎè ¥¢ãï ?

(1) ÐòÚ¢x±ï

(2) ÐÚ¢çÝÏ¢¢

(3) ©Mx±ï

(4) ÐéLS¢

77. ¥ò}¢ïÛ¢¢òÝ ± Å¢ïÜUòçÅ‹S¢ ÝÎì²¢æÓ¢¢ }¢é¶¢ÎÚ}²¢Ý ........ ãï }¢¢ïÆï çÜUÝ¢Úè Ï¢ïÅ ¼²¢Ú Û¢¢Hï ¥¢ãï.

(1) S¢¢±¢ï ÈUí¢ç‹S¢SÜU¢ï (2) }¢¢Ú¢Á¢¢ò

(3) }¢¢ÚÜU¢ïS¢ (4) çÚ¥¢ï

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 33 of 48
78. Identify the correct option of pairs given below

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’ Group ‘C’

Region Average Rain fall Type of Forest

(A) Giana Highlands (I) 1500 mm (P) Temperate Grasslands

(B) Amazon Basin (II) 600 mm (Q) Deciduous Forests

(C) Paraguay-Parana Basin (III) 1600 mm (R) Tropical Forests

(D) Brazilian Highland (IV) 2000 mm (S) Equatorial Forests

(1) A - III - R, B - IV S, C - I - Q, D - II - P

(2) A - IV - S, B - III - R, C - II - P, D - I - Q

(3) A - I - P, B - II - Q, C - III - R, D - IV - S

(4) A - II - Q, B - I - P, C - IV - S, D - III - R

79. Choose the correct option of favaurable factors for highest population density ........

(1) fertile land - plain lands - availability of water

(2) fertile land - agricultural development - dry desert area

(3) plain lands - development of industry - hilly regions

(4) hilly regions - dense forest area - fertile land.

80. In which district of Meghalaya - the highest rainfall place Mawsynram is situated ?

(1) Garo (2) Jaitiya

(3) Khasi (4) Dispur

81. Which of the following two linear equations have only one unique solution x = 2 and
y = –3

(1) x  y 1; 2 x  3 y 5 (2) 2 x  5 y 11; 4 x  10 y 22

(3) 2 x  y 1; 3x  2 y 0 (4) x  4 y  14 0 ; 5 x  y  13 0

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 34 of 48
78. ¶¢HèH Ï¢¢Ï¢è´Ó²¢ ²¢ïx² Á¢¢ïÇK¢æÓ¢¢ в¢ü² ¥¢ïf¶¢.

S¼æ|¢ ‘¥’ S¼æ|¢ ‘Ï¢’ S¼æ|¢ ‘ÜU’

ÐíÎïࢠS¢Ú¢S¢Úè ÐÁ¢ü‹² ±Ý¢æÓ¢¢ ÐíÜU¢Ú

(A) çx¢²¢Ý¢ ©ÓÓ¢|¢êç}¢ (I) 1500 ç}¢}¢è (P) S¢}¢à¢è¼¢ïc‡¢ ±Ýï

(B) ¥ò}¢ïÛ¢¢òÝÓ¢ï ¶¢ïÚï (II) 600 ç}¢}¢è (Q) ТÝÛ¢Çè ±Ýï

(C) ÐòÚ¢x±ï - Ðòڢݢ ÝÎèÓ¢ï ¶¢ïÚï (III) 1600 ç}¢}¢è (R) ©c‡¢ ÜUçÅÏ¢æ{è² ±Ýï

(D) Ï¢í¢Û¢èHÓ¢è ©ÓÓ¢|¢êç}¢ (IV) 2000 ç}¢}¢è (S) ç±¯é±±ëœ¢è² ±Ýï

(1) A - III - R, B - IV S, C - I - Q, D - II - P

(2) A - IV - S, B - III - R, C - II - P, D - I - Q

(3) A - I - P, B - II - Q, C - III - R, D - IV - S

(4) A - II - Q, B - I - P, C - IV - S, D - III - R

79. H¢ïÜUS¢æw²ïÓ¢è ͢ݼ¢ Á¢¢S¼ ¥S¢‡²¢S¢¢Æè ¶¢HèHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ Í¢ÅÜU¢æÓ¢¢ ²¢ïx² в¢ü² ¥¢ãï ?

(1) S¢éÐèÜU Á¢}¢èÝ - }¢ñ΢Ýè ÐíÎïࢠ- Т‡²¢Ó¢è ©ÐHÏ{¼¢

(2) S¢éÐèÜU Á¢}¢èÝ - à¢ï¼èÓ¢¢ ç±ÜU¢S¢ - à¢écÜU±¢f±æÅè ÐíÎïà¢

(3) }¢ñ΢Ýè ÐíÎïࢠ- ©l¢ïx¢¢æÓ¢¢ ç±ÜU¢S¢ - Ç¢ï´x¢Ú¢f ÐíÎïà¢

(4) Ç¢ïæx¢Ú¢f ÐíÎïࢠ- Í¢Ý΢Š±Ýÿ¢ï~¢ - S¢éÐèÜU Á¢}¢èÝ

80. }¢ïÍ¢¢H²¢}¢{èH }¢¢ñçS¢ÝÚ¢}¢ ãï S¢±¢üç{ÜU ÐÁ¢ü‹²±ëCèÓ¢ï çÆÜU¢‡¢ ¶¢HèHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ çÁ¢Ës¢¼ ¥¢ãï ?

(1) x¢¢Ú¢ï (2) Á¢¢ñç¼²¢

(3) ¶¢S¢è (4) çÎS¢ÐêÚ

81. ¶¢HèHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ ΢ïÝ Úï¯è² S¢}¢èÜUÚ‡¢¢æÓ²¢ Á¢¢ïÇèÓ¢è »ÜU}¢ï± ©ÜUH x = 2 ¥¢ç‡¢ y = –3 ¥¢ãï.

(1) x  y 1; 2 x  3 y 5 (2) 2 x  5 y 11; 4 x  10 y 22

(3) 2 x  y 1; 3x  2 y 0 (4) x  4 y  14 0 ; 5 x  y  13 0

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 35 of 48
 5
82. If D  E 3 and DE  then find the quadratic equation whose roots are D and E ?
2

(1) 2 x 2  5 x  6 0 (2) 2 x 2  6 x  5 0

(3) 2 x 2  6 x  5 0 (4) 2 x 2  6 x  5 0

83. What is the probability of having 53 Thursdays in ordinary year (except leap year) ?

2 3
(1) (2)
7 7

1 4
(3) (4)
7 7

84. How many natural numbers between 15 to 500 when divided by 6 leave remainder 5 ?

(1) 80 (2) 81

(3) 82 (4) 83

5 7
3 2
85. 3 3 Choose correct alternative for the value of determinat.
4 2

1 1
(A) (B)
8 8

3
§ 1 · 1
(C) ¨ ¸ (D) 3
© 2 ¹ 512

(1) A and C (2) B, C and D

(3) A, B and C (4) A, C and D

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 36 of 48
 5
82. Á¢Ú D  E 3 ± DE  ¥S¢ïH ¼Ú D ¥¢ç‡¢ E ãè }¢êfï ¥S¢‡¢¢Úï ±x¢üS¢}¢èÜUÚ‡¢ ÜU¢ï‡¢¼ï ?
2

(1) 2 x 2  5 x  6 0 (2) 2 x 2  6 x  5 0

(3) 2 x 2  6 x  5 0 (4) 2 x 2  6 x  5 0

83. HèÐ ±¯ü S¢¢ïÇêÝ ÜU¢ï‡¢y²¢ãè ±¯¢ü¼ 53 x¢éL±¢Ú ²ï‡²¢Ó¢è S¢æ|¢¢Ã²¼¢ çÜU¼è ¥¢ãï ?

2 3
(1) (2)
7 7

1 4
(3) (4)
7 7

84. 15 ¼ï 500 ÎÚ}²¢ÝÓ²¢ ÝñS¢<x¢ÜU S¢æw²¢æÝ¢ 6 Ýï |¢¢x¢Hï ¥S¢¼¢ Ï¢¢ÜUè 5 ¥S¢‡¢¢&²¢ »ÜêU‡¢ S¢æw²¢ çÜU¼è ?

(1) 80 (2) 81

(3) 82 (4) 83

5 7
3 2
85. 3 3 ²¢ çÝp²ÜU¢Ó²¢ ôÜU}¢¼èS¢¢Æè ©œ¢Ú¢æÓ¢ï ²¢ïx² в¢ü² çݱǢ.
4 2

1 1
(¥) (Ï¢)
8 8

3
§ 1 · 1
(ÜU) ¨ ¸ (Ç) 3
© 2 ¹ 512

(1) ¥ ± ÜU (2) Ï¢, ÜU ± Ç

(3) ¥, Ï¢ ± ÜU (4) ¥, ÜU ± Ç

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 37 of 48
86. If roots of the quadratic equation 3ax 2  2bx  c 0 are in the ratio 2 : 3 then which of the
following statement is true ?

(1) 8ac 25b (2) 8ac 9b 2

(3) 8b 2 9ac (4) 8b 2 25ac

87. In Arithmetic Progression there are n terms (n is odd) and middle term is m then what is
Sn = ?

mn
(1) (2) mn
2

(3) 2mn (4) mn 2

88. If N 70, h 10, c. f . 22, f 10, L 30 then using this information find median ?

(1) 42 (2) 45

(3) 43 (4) 34

89. Two dice are rolled simultaneously. what is the probability of getting sum of the digits on
the upper face as a prime number ?

5 5
(1) (2)
36 12

5 11
(3) (4)
18 36

90. The number formed when 5 is subtracted after multiplying by 8 to the sum of digits of a two
digit number is equal to the number formed when 3 is added after multiplying by 16 to the
difference of digits in a number. what is the number ?

(1) 83 (2) 84

(3) 85 (4) 78

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 38 of 48
86. 3ax 2  2bx  c 0 ãì²¢ ±x¢üS¢}¢èÜUÚ‡¢¢æÓ²¢ }¢éf¢æÓ¢ï x¢é‡¢¢ïœ¢Ú 2 : 3 ¥¢ãï ¼Ú ¶¢HèHÐñÜUè ÜU¢ï‡¢¼ï ç±{¢Ý ¶Úï ¥¢ãï ?

(1) 8ac 25b (2) 8ac 9b 2

(3) 8b 2 9ac (4) 8b 2 25ac

87. »ÜU¢ ¥æÜUx¢ç‡¢¼è² Ÿ¢ïÉè¼ n ÐÎï ¥¢ãï¼ (n 㢠籯}¢) ¥¢ç‡¢ Ÿ¢ïÉèÓ¢ï }¢{Hï ÐÎ m ¥S¢Ë²¢S¢ y²¢ Ÿ¢ïÉèS¢¢Æè
Sn = çÜU¼è ?

mn
(1) (2) mn
2

(3) 2mn (4) mn 2

88. Á¢Ú N 70, h 10, c. f . 22, f 10, L 30 ¼Ú ãì²¢ }¢¢çã¼èÓ²¢ ¥¢{¢Úï }¢Š²ÜU¢Ó¢è ôÜU}¢¼ çÜU¼è ?

(1) 42 (2) 45

(3) 43 (4) 34

89. ΢ïÝ ÈU¢S¢ï »ÜU¢Ó¢ ±ïfè ÈïUÜUHï ¥S¢¼¢, ÐëD|¢¢x¢¢±Ú ²ï‡¢¢&²¢ S¢æw²¢æÓ¢è Ï¢ïÚèÁ¢ }¢êf S¢æw²¢ ¥S¢‡²¢Ó¢è S¢æ|¢¢Ã²¼¢ çÜU¼è ?

5 5
(1) (2)
36 12

5 11
(3) (4)
18 36

90. ΢ïÝ ¥æÜUè S¢æw²ï¼èH ¥æÜU¢æÓ²¢ Ï¢ïÚÁ¢ïH¢ 8 Ýï x¢é‡¢Hï ± y²¢¼êÝ 5 ±Á¢¢ ÜïUHï ¼Ú ç}¢f‡¢¢Úè S¢æw²¢ ãè y²¢ S¢æw²ï¼èH
¥æÜU¢æÓ²¢ ±Á¢¢Ï¢¢ÜUèS¢ 16 Ýï x¢é‡¢êÝ y²¢¼ 3 ç}¢f±êÝ ¼²¢Ú ã¢ï¼ï ¼Ú ¼è S¢æw²¢ ÜU¢ï‡¢¼è ?

(1) 83 (2) 84

(3) 85 (4) 78

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 39 of 48
91. In the adjoining figure 'ABC is a right angled triangle. Point D is the midpoint of hypotenuse
AC. Segment DE A side BC. m‘ ABD 70 0 then find m‘CDE  m‘DBE ?

(1) 700 (2) 200

(3) 500 (4) 300

92. Observe the adjoing figure. From the given information the perimeter of the triangle is given
below. Choose the correct alternative.

(A) 18 2  6 6

(B) 6 3  12 2

(C) 18  6 3 2

(D) 18  6 6 2

(1) A and B (2) A and C

(3) C and D (4) only D

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 40 of 48
91. ¥¢ÜëU¼è}¢Š²ï 'ABC ÜU¢ÅÜU¢ïÝ ç~¢ÜU¢ï‡¢ ¥S¢êÝ ôÏ¢Îê D 㢠ÜU‡¢ü AC Ó¢¢ }¢Š²ôÏ¢Îê ¥¢ãï. Úﶢ DE A Ï¢¢Á¢ê BC
¥¢ç‡¢ m‘ ABD 70 0 ¥¢ãï. ¼Ú m‘CDE  ‘DBE çÜU¼è ?

(1) 700 (2) 200

(3) 500 (4) 300

92. 'ABC }¢Š²ï çÎHï˲¢ }¢¢çã¼è±MÝ 'ABC Ó²¢ ÐçÚç}¢¼èS¢¢Æè ¶¢Hè çÎHïHè ÜU¢ï‡¢¼è ©œ¢Úï Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú ¥¢ãï¼ ?

(A) 18 2  6 6

(B) 6 3  12 2

(C) 18  6 3 2

(D) 18  6 6 2

(1) A ± B (2) A ± C

(3) C ± D (4) ÈUv¼ D

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 41 of 48
93. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternative.

(A) The ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter is denoted by the Greek
letter S .

22 § 22 ·
(B) S is non - terminating, recurring decimal fraction and its exact value is ¨S ¸.
7 © 7¹

Alternatives :

(1) Statements A and B false (2) Statement A and B correct

(3) Statement A correct but B false. (4) Statement A false but B correct

94. Read the following statement carefully and choose the correct alternative.

x2  x1
(A) The slope of the line parallel to X - axis can be derived by the formula y  y .
2 1

(B) The slope of the line parallel to Y - axis is 1

(C) The cotangent ratio of an angle made by the line with the positive direction of X - axis
is called the slope of that line.

(D) The slope of the line which makes acute angle with X - axis is less than zero and the
slop of the line making obtuse angle with X - axis is greater than zero.

Alternative :

(1) Statement A and B correct (2) Statement C and D correct

(3) only statement C is wrong (4) All statements are wrong

95. In the adjoing figure ray BD bisects ‘ABC of 'ABC seg ED|| side BC m‘ AED 40 0
and m‘BDC 110 0 then find the measurments of ‘EDB and ‘DCB respectively. Choose
the correct alternative from the following.

(1) 200 and 500

(2) 500 and 200

(3) 400 and 500

(4) 400 and 700

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 42 of 48
93. ¶¢Hè çÎHï˲¢ ç±{¢Ý¢æÓ¢¢ ç±Ó¢¢Ú ÜUMÝ ©œ¢Ú¢Ó¢¢ ²¢ïx² в¢ü² çݱǢ.

(¥) »ÜU¢Ó¢ ±¼éüf¢Ó¢¢ ÐÚèÍ¢ ± ò¢S¢ ²¢æÓ¢ï x¢é‡¢¢ïœ¢Ú S (Т²) ²¢ x¢íèÜU ¥ÿ¢Ú¢Ýï Îà¢üç±¼¢¼.

22 § 22 ·
(Ï¢) S ãï x¢é‡¢¢ïœ¢Ú ¥¶æÇ ¥¢±¼èü ¥S¢êÝ y²¢Ó¢è çÝçp¼ ôÜU}¢¼ ¨S ¸ ¥¢ãï.
7 © 7¹

в¢ü²
(1) ç±{¢Ý ¥ ¥¢ç‡¢ Ï¢ Ó¢êÜU (2) ç±{¢Ý ¥ ¥¢ç‡¢ Ï¢ Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú

(3) ç±{¢Ý ¥ Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú ÐÚæ¼é Ï¢ Ó¢êÜU (4) ç±{¢Ý ¥ Ó¢êÜU ÐÚæ¼é Ï¢ Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú

94. ¶¢Hè ÜU¢ãè ç±{¢Ýï çÎHè ¥¢ãï¼. y²¢±MÝ ²¢ïx² в¢ü² çݱǢ.

x2  x1
(A) X – ¥ÿ¢¢H¢ S¢}¢¢æ¼Ú Úï¯ïÓ¢¢  y  y ²¢ S¢ê~¢¢Ýï ÜU¢É¼¢¼.
2 1

(B) Y – ¥ÿ¢¢H¢ S¢}¢¢æ¼Ú Úï¯ïÓ¢¢  1 ¥S¢¼¢ï.

(C) Úï¯ïÝï X – ¥ÿ¢¢Ó²¢ {Ý çÎà¢ïà¢è ÜïUHï˲¢ ÜU¢ïÝ¢Ó¢ï ÜU¢ïÅ¡Á¢‹Å (cotangent) x¢é‡¢¢ïœ¢Ú }㇢Á¢ï y²¢ Úï¯ïÓ¢¢  ¥S¢¼¢ï.

(D) X – ¥ÿ¢¢à¢è HÍ¢éÜU¢ïÝ ÜUÚ‡¢¢&²¢ Úï¯ïÓ¢¢  à¢ê‹²¢Ðïÿ¢¢ Hã¢Ý ¼Ú ç±à¢¢HÜU¢ïÝ ÜUÚ‡¢¢&²¢ Úï¯ïÓ¢¢  à¢ê‹²¢Ðïÿ¢¢
}¢¢ïÆ¢ ¥S¢¼¢ï.
(1) ç±{¢Ý A ± B Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú (2) ç±{¢Ý C ± D Ï¢Ú¢ïÏ¢Ú

(3) ÈUv¼ ç±{¢Ý C Ó¢êÜU ¥¢ãï. (4) S¢±ü ç±{¢Ýï Ó¢êÜU ¥¢ãï¼.

95. ¥¢ÜëU¼è}¢Š²ï çÜUÚ‡¢ BD 㢠'ABC Ó²¢ ÜU¢ïÝ ‘B Ó¢¢ Îé|¢¢Á¢ÜU ¥¢ãï. Úﯢ ED|| Ï¢¢Á¢ê BC ¥¢ç‡¢ m‘ AED 40 0
± m‘BDC 1100 ¥S¢ïH ¼Ú ‘EDB ± ‘DCB Ó¢è ¥ÝéRU}¢ï }¢¢Ðï ÜU¢ï‡¢¼è ¥¢ãï¼ ?

(1) 200 ± 500

(2) 500 ± 200

(3) 400 ± 500

(4) 400 ± 700

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 43 of 48
96. In 'PQR M ‘R 900 , M ‘P 300 PQ 13 . From the given information find the value

of cos ec600  sec 600 ?

§ 2 1 ·
(1) ¨  ¸
© 3 3¹

§ 13 39 ·
(2) ¨  ¸
© 2 2 ¹

§ 39 13 ·
(3) ¨  ¸
© 2 2 ¹

§ 1 ·
(4) 2 ¨  1¸
© 3 ¹

97. In right angled triangle ABC M ‘B 900 'ABC is in the first and second quadrant on
the graph paper. The co-ordinater of the points A and C are (2, 5) and (–2, 3) respectively.
Find the possible pairs of co-ordinates of point B from the following alternatives.

(1) (–2, 5) or (2, 3)

(2) (5, –2) or (3, 2)

(3) (–2, 2) or (5, 3)

(4) (2, –2) or (5, 3)

98. Choose the correct figure that has all the following properties.

(A) Both the diagonals are congraent

(B) It is called as rectangle

(C) The perimeter of the figure is four times its length or breadth

(D) It is a rhombus

(1) Rhombus (2) Rectangle

(3) Trapezium (4) Square

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 44 of 48
96. ç~¢ÜU¢ï‡¢ PQR }¢Š²ï m‘ R 90 0 , m‘ P 30 0 ¥¢ç‡¢ PQ 13 çÎHï ¥¢ãï. çÎHï˲¢ }¢¢çã¼è±MÝ

cos ec600  sec 600 Ó¢è ôÜU}¢¼ çÜU¼è ²ï§üH ?

§ 2 1 ·
(1) ¨  ¸
© 3 3¹

§ 13 39 ·
(2) ¨  ¸
© 2 2 ¹

§ 39 13 ·
(3) ¨ 2  2 ¸
© ¹

§ 1 ·
(4) 2 ¨  1¸
© 3 ¹

97. ÜU¢ÅÜU¢ïÝ ç~¢ÜU¢ï‡¢ ABC }¢Š²ï m ‘ B 90 0 㢠'ABC ¥¢Hï¶ ÜU¢x¢Î¢±ÚèH ¥¢Hﶢ¼ Ðçã˲¢ ± ÎéS¢&²¢
Ó¢Ú‡¢¢¼ S¢}¢¢ç±C ¥¢ãï. ôÏ¢Îê A ± C Ó¢ï çÝÎïüà¢ÜU ¥ÝéRU}¢ï (2, 5) ± (–2, 3) ¥S¢¼èH ¼Ú ôÏ¢Îê B Ó²¢ çÝÎïüà¢ÜU¢Ó²¢
S¢æ|¢¢Ã² Á¢¢ïÇK¢ ¶¢HèH в¢ü²¢¼êÝ à¢¢ï{¢.
(1) (–2, 5) ôÜU±¢ (2, 3)

(2) (5, –2) ôÜU±¢ (3, 2)

(3) (–2, 2) ôÜU±¢ (5, 3)

(4) (2, –2) ôÜU±¢ (5, 3)

98. ÐéÉï çÎHï˲¢ S¢±ü x¢é‡¢{}¢¢ü±MÝ ²¢ïx² ¥¢ÜëU¼è ¥¢ïf¶¢.

(A) y²¢Ó¢ï ΢ï‹ãè ÜU‡¢ü »ÜULÐ ¥S¢¼¢¼.

(B) y²¢H¢ ÜU¢ÅÜU¢ïÝ Ó¢¢ñÜU¢ïÝ }㇢¼¢¼.

(C) y²¢Ó¢è ÐçÚç}¢¼è H¢æÏ¢è ôÜU±¢ MæÎèÓ²¢ Ó¢¢ÚÐÅ ¥S¢¼ï.

(D) ¼¢ï S¢}¢|¢éÁ¢ Ó¢¢ñÜU¢ïÝ ¥S¢¼¢ï.

(1) S¢}¢|¢éÁ¢ Ó¢¢ñÜU¢ïÝ (2) ¥¢²¼

(3) S¢}¢HæÏ¢ Ó¢¢ñÜU¢ïÝ (4) Ó¢¢ñÚS¢

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 45 of 48
99.

In the figure. semi-circles are drawn whose centre are X, Y, Z respectively. Points
(X, Y, Z); are collinear points (X – Y – Z) AX = 2.5, BY = 6.5, CZ = 8.5 and AP + QC
= 16; QC + CR = 27 and CR + AP = 19 then find the value of AP + PB + BQ + QC + CR
+ RD = ?

(1) 37

(2) 41

(3) 53

(4) 47

100. In the figure PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral.

72
If the area of the shaded part is sq. units
7
then find the radius of the circle.

(1) 7 units

(2) 4 units

(3) 3 units

(4) 2 units

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 46 of 48
99.

¥¢ÜëU¼è}¢Š²ï X, Y, Z ÜïU´ÎíôÏ¢Îé ¥S¢‡¢¢Úè ¥{ü±¼éüfï ΢¶ç±Hè ¥¢ãï¼. ôÏ¢Îê X, Y, Z »ÜUÚï¯è² ¥¢ãï¼. (X – Y – Z);
AX = 2.5, BY = 6.5 ± CZ = 8.5 ¥¢ç‡¢ AP + QC = 16; QC + CR = 27 ± CR + AP = 19
¥S¢ïH ¼Ú AP + PB + BQ + QC + CR + RD = çÜU¼è ?
(1) 37

(2) 41

(3) 53

(4) 47

100. ¥¢ÜëU¼è}¢Š²ï PQRS 㢠ӢRUè² Ó¢¢ñÚS¢ ΢¶ç±H¢ ¥¢ãï. Á¢Ú

72
ÚﶢæçÜU¼ |¢¢x¢¢Ó¢ï ÿ¢ï~¢ÈUf ¥S¢ïH ¼Ú, ±¼éüf¢Ó¢è ç~¢Á²¢
7
çÜU¼è ?

(1) 7 »ÜUÜU

(2) 4 »ÜUÜU

(3) 3 »ÜUÜU

(4) 2 »ÜUÜU

NTS-SAT-18 X S5 47 of 48
NTS-SAT-18 X S5 48 of 48