1.

A sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of sleep is called

a. Night terrors
b. Narcolepsy
c. Insomnia
d. Sleep apnea

2. A sleep disorder that is characterized by cessation in breathing, which causes a person to wake up repeatedly
throughout the night is called
a. Insomnia
b. Sleep apnea
c. Narcolepsy
d. Night terrors

3. What term is used to describe when a person requires a higher dose of a drug to achieve similar effects?
a. Withdrawal
b. Addiction
c. Physical dependence
d. Tolerance

4. The tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation is called
a. REM rebound
b. Stage 2 sleep
c. NREM sleep
d. Night terrors

5. The dream theory that states that dreaming works out our daily problems and sorts through new memories while
we sleep is called
a. Wish Fulfillment
b. Activation-Synthesis
c. Information Processing
d. Manifest Content Theory

6. How many minutes does the average sleep cycle last?

a. 15
b. 90
c. 60
d. 120

7. Caffeine, cocaine, and Ecstacy are all examples of

a. Neurotransmitters
b. Hallucinogens
c. Opiates
d. Stimulants

8. Court systems frequently ban testimony from witnesses who have been hypnotized because the procedure often
encourages
a. A hidden observer
b. Narcolepsy
c. Hallucinations
d. False memories

9. What brain waves are produced when one is awake but relaxed?
a. Alpha waves
b. Theta waves
c. Beta waves
d. Delta waves

10. According to Freud, the remembered story line of a dream is called the
 a. Manifest content
b. Latent content
c. Withdrawal content
d. Stimulant content

11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of REM sleep?

a. Delta waves
b. Vivid dreams
c. Increased heart rate
d. Paralysis

12. If I dream about falling down the stairs, Freud might argue that it means I feel my life is out of control. Freud is
providing the _____ of the dream.
a. latent content
b. manifest content
c. dualism
d. dissociative content

13. Spindles and K complexes are associated with which stage of sleep?
a. NREM1
b. NREM2
c. Delta
d. REM

14. During which period of the sleep cycle does most dreaming occur?
a. NREM2
b. REM
c. NREM3/4
d. All stages

15. What type of brain waves are associated with deep sleep?
a. Delta Waves
b. Alpha Waves
c. Theta Waves
d. Beta Waves

16. When a person experiences blind panic, screaming, and thrashing around while sleeping, they are experiencing
a. night rhymes.
b. sleep apnea.
c. night terrors.
d. day dreaming.

17. What do we call drugs that calm neural activity and slow body functions? They include alcohol, barbiturates, and
opiates.
a. Depressants
b. Stimulants
c. Hallucinogens
d. Hypnosis

18. The circadian rhythm refers to

a. biological rhythms that occur from 1 month to a year.
b. hibernation.
c. biological rhythms that occur within a 24 hour period.
d. hunger.

19. The only proven clinical use for hypnosis is

a. retrieving repressed memories.
b. age regression.
c. healing PTSD.
 d. pain relief.

20. This group of substances produce relaxation, euphoria, and hallucinations which may explain the common usage
during festivals and concerts
a. Hallucinogens
b. Barbiturates
c. Opiates
d. Amphetamines
21. Heroin and other opiates are so addictive partly because they mimic
a. endorphins.
b. dopamine.
c. adrenaline.
d. serotonin.

22. Consciousness is affected by which of the following?

a. Hypnosis
b. Sleep
c. Drugs
d. All of these

23. What do we call drugs that heighten alertness, arousal, and decrease appetite? They include; cocaine, caffeine,
nicotine, and methamphetamine
a. Hallucinogens
b. Depressants
c. Stimulants
d. Opiates

24. The active ingredient in marijuana is

a. LSD.
b. THC.
c. PCP.
d. PCB.

25. The most addictive stimulant in use today is

a. marijuana.
b. alcohol. (not most commonly USED)
c. nicotine.
d. methamphetamine.

26. As associated with States of Consciousness, what is withdrawal?

a. The discomfort of discontinuing the use of a drug.
b. A drug addiction.
c. Chemical substance that alters perception and mood.
d. Something you do from your bank account.

27. Morphine is an example of a(n)

a. barbiturate.
b. hallucinogen.
c. beta blocker.
d. opiate.

28. In order to help patients control their undesired symptoms or unhealthy behaviors, clinicians would be most likely
to make use of
a. dissociation.
b. REM rebound.
c. posthypnotic suggestion.
d. hypnogogic sensations.

29. Someone who is sleep deprived is at increased risk for

a. viral infection.
b. post-hypnotic suggestion.
c. drug dependency.
 d. sleep apnea.

30. What term do we use to describe the inability to fall or stay asleep?
a. narcolepsy
b. insomnia
c. sleep apnea
d. REM Rebound

31. Staying up especially late on weekends is most likely to have an influence on

a. narcolepsy.
b. sleep apnea.
c. the circadian rhythm.
d. seasonal affective disorder.

32. Carrie's EEG shows sleep spindles. Which stage is she in?
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. REM
33. A group of drugs that is used as relief from pain
a. Alcohol
b. Barbiturates
c. Opiates
d. Cocaine
34. People with anxiety disorders use certain medications that produces a calming effect, hence relieving anxiety
a. Alcohol
b. Barbiturates
c. Opiates
d. Morphine
35. In preparation for the upcoming exams, Casper decided to take in a stimulant in higher doses for several days so
as to reduce the need for sleep for his review. He was able to perform well in his exams and is able to control his
substance intake, does not have problems in his daily functioning. What is this called?
a. Substance Abuse
b. Substance Use
c. Substance Dependence
d. Substance Withdrawal
36. Aside from using the stimulant to increase alertness in item 38, Casper also smokes another stimulant as this
enhances memory and attention, improve performance on simple repetitive tasks and enhances the mood. What
are these two groups of stimulants?
a. Amphetamine and Barbiturate
b. Alcohol and Amphetamine
c. Amphetamine and Nicotine
d. Marijuana and Amphetamine

37. Overdose of this stimulant can cause restlessness and insomnia, tremors, headaches, nausea, convulsions,
hallucinations, delusions, cardiorespiratory collapse
a. Alcohol
b. Barbiturates
c. Opiates
d. Cocaine
1. The process by which sensory receptors convert stimulation into neural impulses is called
A. Transduction
B. Perception
C. Photoreception
D. Sensation
E. Olfaction
2. Which term refers to interpreting incoming sensory information?
A. Sensation
B. Kinesthesias
C. Transduction
D. Gustation
E. Perception
3. Visual acuity refers to our ability to:
A. see all the colors that make up visible light
B. determine how far away an object is
C. see objects in three dimensions rather than flat
D. discriminate visual details
4. The __________ refers to the smallest amount of physical energy needed to produce a sensory experience.
A. Difference threshold
B. Signal detection
C. Absolute threshold
D. Equilibrium constant
E. Transduction threshold
5. It may take your favorite teacher a few seconds to recognize you when you see her in the grocery store. This
experience illustrates the importance of
A. Perceptual sets
B. Context
C. Closure
D. Contiguity
E. Common fate
6. Shannon reads the words "folk," "soak," and "joke" to Jason. She then asks him what you call the white of an egg?
He replies by saying "yolk" when it is really an egg white. Jason's incorrect answer was due to
A. Bottom-up processing
B. A perceptual illusion
C. Closure
D. A perceptual set
E. The law of common fate
7. Annie is working on a new perfume which has hints of lavender and rose. She has just added enough lavender for her
to detect a change. This is an example of
A. Fechner's Law
B. Absolute threshold
C. Just noticable difference
D. Sensory reception
E. Transduction
8. The principle that predicts that parents of newborns will hear their children crying while siblings sleep through the night
is known as
A. Weber's Law
B. Sensory adaptation
C. Absolute threshold
D. Signal detection theory
E. Difference threshold
9. Whether a sound has high or low ____ depends on the frequency of the sound waves.
A. Tone
B. Amplitude
C. Pitch
D. Gigahertz
E. Timbre
10. Which of the following is matched correctly with its location in the ear?
A. cochlea...outer ear
B. ear drum...inner ear
C. oval window...middle ear
D. organ of Corti...outer ear
 11. The _____ sense allows us to orient our body with respect to gravity.
A. Vestibular (Vestibular senses detect gravity, linear acceleration (such as speeding up or slowing down on a
straight road), and rotary acceleration)
B. Gustatory
C. Olfactory
D. Kinesthetic (Kinesthesia is the perception of the positioning of the parts of the body, commonly known as “body
awareness.”)
E. Analgesic
13. A shadow falls on the newspaper Vanilla Ice is reading, but Vanilla Ice does not seem to notice the change. This is an
example of:
A. an absolute threshold
B. a contrast effect
C. perceptual constancy
D. distal stimulation
14. A researcher showed a drawing of a woman that could be perceived as young or as old to a group of participants.
Participants were more likely to see the picture as a young woman if they:
A. had just seen pictures of other young women
B. were women themselves
C. were not anxious about growing old
D. were young
15. You are at a movie with a date. You want to impress your date with your knowledge of psychology, so you mention
that the illusion of motion in a movie comes from:
A. the autokinetic effect
B. stroboscopic motion
C. the phi phenomenon
D. dark adaptation
16. What is the major difference between the major theories of color vision?
A. locating color vision in rods or cones
B. specifying different types of color reception within cones
C. determining the number of types of color receptors
D. explaining primary versus tertiary colors
17. What are Weber's constants used to express?
A. difference thresholds
B. positive adaptation to constant stimuli
C. wavelengths on the electromagnetic spectrum
D. additive color mixtures
18. Quentin Tarantino is researching the effect of pheromones on behavior for a movie he will be producing. With what
sense is he primarily concerned?
A. hearing
B. taste
C. smell
D. touch
19. Imagine a teaspoon of sugar is dissolved in two gallons of water. You can detect this level of sweetness at least half
the time. This level is called the:
A. distal stimulus
B. perceptual constant
C. response bias
D. absolute threshold
20. The Gestalt principle of continuity refers to our tendency to perceive:
A. figures rather than ground
B. elements that move together as belonging together
C. objects in groups when they are similar
D. a series of points or lines as having unity
21. The theory that the pitch of a sound is determined by the section of the basilar membrane that vibrates in response to
the sound is the:
A. frequency theory
B. opponent-process theory
C. place theory
D. duplicity theory
22. What information do we get from the vestibular sense?
A. what the temperature of a substance is
B. where pain is coming from
 C. whether our body is upright
D. what will happen in the future
23. You have normal color vision. You look at a strange flag that has a yellow background with black stars, and green and
black stripes for 1-minute. Then, you shift your gaze to a white piece of paper. On this piece of white paper, you will
see a:
A. red, white, and blue flag
B. no change
C. green, brown, and orange flag
D. pink, purple, and white flag
24. Janet is sitting in her garden at twilight. She can easily distinguish the shapes of flowers, but their colors seem to fade
in the dusk. Why does this phenomenon occur?
A. Cones are less sensitive to light than rods
B. There are more cones than rods in the retina
C. The mixture of lights is an additive process
D. The fovea is less sensitive in low light conditions
25. You perceive these lines: ||||| ||||| as two groups of five, rather than as 10 separate lines due to the Gestalt principle of:
A. common fate
B. proximity
C. closure
D. openess
26. What is the name for the opening in your eye through which light passes?
A. the iris
B. the retina
C. the pupil
D. the fovea
27. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of an absolute threshold?
A. A person following the melody of a song
B. A scientist measuring the amount of light in a room
C. An artist choosing between two shades of blue
D. A person hearing the tick of a watch 20 feet away
28. You are looking at attractive members of the opposite sex 15 feet away and they are clearly in focus. As you walk
toward them, they remains in focus. They remain in focus because the ________ of your eyes are accommodating to
the image of these attractive people by changing their shape.
A. corneas
B. irises
C. lenses
D. pupils
29. The reason that you probably stopped feeling the pressure of your clothes on your skin within a few minutes of
dressing this morning was due to:
A. Weber's constant
B. desensitization
C. saturation
D. size constancy
30. Although Beaver was sitting right next to his brother Wally and Eddie Haskell, he smelled a skunk minutes before they
did. Apparently, the Beaver has a slower ________ for skunk.
A. accommodation level
B. tolerance level
C. olfactory saturation level
D. absolute threshold
31. Consistent with Weber's law, if the just noticeable difference (j.n.d.) for a 10 pound weight is 1 pound, then the j.n.d.
for an 80 pound weight would be ________ pound(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
32. We have about ________ taste buds.
A. 10
B. 100
C. 10,000
D. 10,000,000
33. Although it is getting dark outside, you still perceive your friend's shirt as red. This is due to the phenomenon of:
A. desensitization
 B. color constancy
C. brightness constancy
D. saturation
34. As Mr. Greenjeans looked across his field, the parallel rows of young corn plants appeared to converge in the
distance. This provides him with a distance cue known as:
A. proximity
B. linear perspective
C. closure
D. continuity
35. Which receptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different wavelengths of light?
A. Rods
B. Cones
C. Feature detectors
D. Bipolar cells
36. A young swimmer does not like to dive into the pool, because the water feels too cold. What would you advise the
swimmer to do before diving into the pool so the water will feel less cold?
A. take a hot shower
B. take a cold shower
C. exercise vigorously
D. meditate
37. The color of light, as determined by its wavelength, is called its:
A. brightness
B. pitch
C. hue
D. saturation
38. Which pairs of colors is complementary?
A. red and green
B. red and blue
C. red and orange
D. red and white
39. When you walk into the Colonial Mall at Valdosta, you are overwhelmed by a strange smell you cannot identify. After
a few minutes, you are no longer aware of the smell. This process is called:
A. proximity
B. closure
C. sensitization
D. desensitization
40. Your friend George is a dichromat. This means that he is:
A. totally color blind
B. able to see only black and white
C. partially color blind
D. totally blind. He cannot see anything.
41. In the Muller-Lyer illusion, two lines are the same length, but the line with the reversed arrowheads appears longer.
Our assumption that one line is longer is related to our experience and the principle of:
A. negative adaptation
B. opponent-process theory
C. size constancy
D. convergence
42. The view that pain messages may not get through to the brain when the switchboard that transmits pain messages
becomes flooded is termed:
A. gate theory
B. opponent-process theory
C. the volley principle
D. acupuncture
43. Which of the following is a chemical sense?
A. vision
B. hearing
C. smell
D. kinesthesis
44. Sensation and perception are closely related processes. Which is affected by a person's culture and experiences?
A. both sensation and perception
B. only sensation
C. only perception
D. neither sensation nor perception
1.Which of these is NOT a step in the shaping process?
A. Reinforcing a response that closely approximates the terminal behavior
B. Stopping the reinforcement of previously reinforced responses.
C. Punishing behavior that deviates from the terminal behavior.
D. Reinforcing any response that resembles the terminal behavior.

2.How would Mrs. Purdue implement learning by observation in her class?

A. Mrs. Purdue can assign her students to write an essay to help them better understand the concepts that she is
teaching.
B. Mrs. Purdue can assign readings to her students to help them better understand the concepts that she is
teaching.
C. Mrs. Purdue can use demonstrations in class to help her students better understand the concepts that she is
teaching.
D. Mrs. Purdue can assign her students to write in a journal to help them better understand the concepts that she is
teaching.

3. Why is scheduling useful in reinforcement?

A. Rewarding or punishing behavior every time is more effective than if done selectively.
B. Rewarding or punishing behavior every time is less effective than if done selectively.
C. Rewarding or punishing is most easily facilitated when using a schedule.
D. While rewarding is most effective if done every time, punishing is most effective if done selectively.

4. When the dog is trained to catch a ball, you can give the animal a food reinforcer each time it approaches the ball until
finally the dog mouths and grabs the ball referring to.
A. Sensitization
B. Omission training
C. Shaping
D. Extinction

5. Which one of the following is an example of negative reinforcement

a. going to the dentist and having a toothache relieved
b. spanking a child for swearing (negative reinforcement for swearing?)
c. taking away a child’s favorite toy when the child misbehaves
d. making a child watch while another child is punished

6. Suppose that you have taught your dog to roll over for the reward of a dog biscuit. Then, one day you run out of the
dog biscuits. Which schedule of reinforcement would keep your dog responding longer without a biscuit?
a. continuous reinforcement
b. partial reinforcement
c. negative reinforcement
d. noncontingent reinforcement

7. Which one of the following is a conditioned reinforcer for most people?

a. money
b. food
c. sex
d. a sharp pain in the back

8. Operant conditioning, in contrast with classical conditioning, emphasizes events (such as rewards and punishments)
that occur
a. before the behavior
b. after the behavior
c. during the behavior
d. at the same time as another stimulus
9. Learning may be defined as a ______ change in behavior that occurs as the result of experience.
A. Relatively permanent
B. Sensitization
C. Fixed
D. Continuous

10. If leaving your apartment removes you from an unpleasant environment, then the time you spend away from your
apartment will increase referring to..
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Positive punishment
D. Negative punishment

11. Which is correct about sensitization?

A. It is a type of nonassociative learning.
B. There is increase in a behavioral response.
C. It typically occurs when noxious or fearful stimuli are presented.
D. All of the above

12. If the UCS is subsequently omitted, the CR will experience

A. Reinforcement
B. Extinction
C. Learning
D. Association
13. It reflects the preservation of the original CS-UCS association after extinction training.
A. Reinforcement
B. Spontaneous recovery
C. Generalization
D. Discrimination

14. The best description for UCS is..

A. A stimulus that automatically elicits a response
B. A previously neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a conditioned response
C. Produced by association
D. Influenced by the intensity of learned response

15. In Pavlov’s experiment, ___ is considered an unconditioned response.

A. Meat powder
B. Sleeping
C. Food
D. Salivation

16. The child may expect playfulness only from dogs that look like hers. This refers to..
A. Association
B. Discrimination
C. Generalization
D. Extinction

17. Punishment is the _____ of reinforcement.

A. Opposite
B. Principle
C. Basis
D. Equivalent
18. Skinner box is also known as..
A. Simple latch
B. Operant chamber
C. Omission training
D. Black box

19. Reinforcement is provided after a fixed number of responses.

A. Fixed ratio
B. Variable ratio
C. Fixed interval
D. Variable interval