Pakistan is a federal republic with three tiers of government: national, provincial and local.

Local government is
protected by the constitution in Articles 32 and 140-A, and each province also has its own local-government-
enabling legislation and ministries responsible for implementation. District councils and metropolitan corporations
are respectively the highest rural and urban tiers of local government in the provinces. Both urban and rural local
government have two or three tiers in all provinces except Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, where councils are not identified
as either urban or rural. There are 129 district councils across the four provinces, 619 urban councils made up of
one city district, four metropolitan corporations, 13 municipal corporations, 96 municipal committees, 148 town
councils, 360 urban union committees, and 1,925 rural councils. Additionally there are 3339 neighbourhood, ‘tehsil’
and village councils in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa

Pakistan is divided into four provinces and 132 districts. KP is divided into seven divisions
and 34 districts; Balochistan into seven divisions and 33 districts; Punjab into nine
divisions and 36 districts; and Sindh into seven divisions and 29 districts. Balochistan
constitutes 44 per cent of Pakistan’s total area but its population density is low.
District[edit]
Main article: Districts of Pakistan

A district (Urdu: ‫ضلع‬, zillah) is the first tier of local government. In total there are 149 districts in Pakistan, of which
several are city districts. A District Government or a City District Government and Zillah Council form the governing
body, with the District Coordination Officer serving as the administrative head.[3] The District Governor or Zila
Nazim used to be the executive head of districts until 2010, when the government shifted power to the District
Coordination Officers. Their role is similar to district governors, with responsibility for implementing government
strategy and developing initiatives arising out of it.[4]
Tehsil[edit]
Among the three tiers of local government, Tesil government is second tier of it. It is where the functions,
responsibilities and authorities of districts government is divided into more smaller units, these units are known as
"Tehsil". The Tehsils are used in all over the Pakistan except Sindh province where the word "Taluka" is used
instead, although the functions and authorities are same. The head of the Tehsil government is "Tehsil Nazim" who
is assisted by the tehsil Naib-Nazim. Every tehsil has a Tehsil Municipal Administration, consisting of a Tehsil
council, Tehsil Nazim, tehsil/taluka municipal officer(TMO), Chief officer and other officials of local council.[citation needed]
Union Council[edit]
Members of Union Council including Union Administrator and Vice Union Administrator are elected through direct
elections based on adult franchise and on the basis of joint electorate. However, for the election to the reserved
seats for Women in Zila Council proportionately divided among Tehsils or Towns shall be all members of the Union
Councils in a Tehsil or Town. It is the responsibility of the Chief Election Commissioner to organize and conduct
these elections.
 When did Municipal committee were formed and under what law
(1) The founder of Scientific Management School of thought was:
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) Herber Simon
(c) Pfiffner John
(d) Mary Parker Follet

(2) The father of Human Relations theory was:

(a) Douglas M. McGregor
(b) Elton Mayo
(c) E.N.Gladden
(d) L. Urwick

(3) The founding father of theory of Bureaucracy was:

(a)Herman Finer
(b) La Palombra
(b) Max Weber
(d) Albert Lepawsky

(4) Systems theory of management is based on the concept of components having:

(a) Independence
(b) Inter- dependence
(c) Dependence
(d) Contingency

(5) Bureaucracy of Pakistan is:

(a) Elitist
(b) Agilitarian
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Paternalistic

(6) Administrative accountability is established in government organizations by:

(a) Executive
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) All the three above

(7) The first book on Public Administration was written by:

(a) Pfiffner and Presthus
(b) L. D. White
(c). Simon, Smithburg and Thompson
(d) E.N. Gladden

(8) Public Administration is the study of:

(a) Maintenance of Law and Order
(b) Control of trade and commerce
(c) Public Policy implementation
(d) Politico-administrative dynamics of the state.

(9) Planning machinery in Pakistan is:

(a) Centralized
(b) Decentralized
(c) Departmentalized
(d) Compartmentalized

(10) Financially the performance of public corporations in Pakistan during the last decade has been:
(a) Excellent
(b) Good
(c) Satisfactory
(d) Poor

(11) Public Personnel Management in Pakistan is based on the principle of:

(a) Spoils
(b) Patronage
(c) Merit
(d) Give and take

(12) Communication runs faster in:

(a) Centralized structure
(b) Decentralized structure
(c) Matrix structure
(d) Line structure
(13) Performance budgeting is based on:
(a) items of expenditure
(b) items of investment
(c) objectives of expenditure
(d) plan of implementation

(14) The concept of Politics-Administration dichotomy was given by:

(a) Frank Henry Goodnow if Woodrow Wilson is not given
His first book, Comparative Administrative Law: An Analysis of the Administrative Systems, National and Local, of
the United States, England France and Germany (1893) brought two important contributions to the emerging field
of political science. It was one of the first systematic studies of public administration

(b) James W. Fes1er

(c) W Paul Appleby
(d) Ordway Tead

(15) The form of Leadership in the bureaucracy of Pakistan js:

(a) Aristocratic
(b) Democratic
(c) Dictatorial
(d) Paternalistic

(16) The President of U. S. who laid the foundation of the study of public administration was:
(a) President Wilson
(b) President Hoover
(c) President Kennedy
(d) President Roosevelt

(17) Formal relationship in an organization is based On:

(a) Friendship
(b) Peer groups
(c) Authority on subordinates
(d) Rules and Regulations

(18) The Ideal Model of bureaucracy is based on authority of:

(a) Tradition
(b) Charisma
(c) Legal rational
(d) Money

(19) Pressure groups in public administration work for:

(a) Public interest
(b) Self interest
(c) Foreign interest
(d) Sectoral interest

(20) The administrative reforms under which various services were merged in occupational groups were
introduced in:
(a)1960
(b) 1973
(c) 1989
(d) 1994

(I) Public Administration may be defined as:

(A) Management of industry
(B) Administration of Public
(C) Management of Property
(D) Administrative Capacity
(E) None of these

(2) The concept of "bounded rationality" was given by:

(A) Wax Weber
(B) F. W. Riggs
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Abraham Maslow
(E) None of these

(3) Bureaucracy is based on:

(A) Traditional Authority
(B) Personal Authority
(C) Charismatic Authority
(D) Corporate Authority
(E) None of these

(4) Behaviorism is associated with:

(A) Rationalism.
(B) Communication.
(C) Socialism.
(D) Humanism
(E) None of these

(5) The author of "The Function of the Executive" is:

(A) F. W. Taylor
(B) Chester Bernard
(C) Mary Parker Follet
(D) Henry Fayol
(E) None of these

(6) Which of the following is not of the core values of public administration?
(A) Equity
(B) Efficiency
(C) Effectiveness
(D) Bureaucracy
(E) None of these

(7) Which of the following is one of the features of bureaucracy conceived by

Max Weber?
(A) Authority
(B) Hierarchy
(C) Publicness
(D) Civil society
(E) None of these.
(8) Which of the following is an essential component of a formal organization?
(A) Decentralization
(B) Formal Structure
(C) Power
(D) Centralization
(E) None of these

(9) Bureaucracy is a form of:

(A) Political Organization.
(B) Social Organization
(C) Community Organization
(D) Private organization
(E) None of these

(10) McGregor's name is most commonly associated with one of the following:
(A) Bureaucratic Theory
(B) Scientific Management
C) Theory X and theory Y
(D) Human Relations
(E) None of these

(11) Legal-rational authority" is a core concept of:

(A) Public Choice Theory
(B) Theory of Emergency
(C) Maslow's Theory of Motivation
(D) Theory of Bureaucracy
(E) None of these

(12}One of the four functional imperative of a system identified by the Talcott Parsons (Talcot Parsons)
(Action Theory and Structural Functionalism) is:
(A) Efficiency
(B) Effectiveness
(C) Adaptation
(D) Entropy
(E) None of these

(13) "Entropy" is a law of nature in which all forms of organizations move towards:
(A) Growth and Continuity
(D) Continuous Improvement
(C) Rebirth and Emergency
(D) Disorganization and Death
(E) None of these

(14) One choice theory is economic explanation of:

(A) Religion
(B) Islam.
(C) Political decision making
(D) Psychology.
(E) None of these.

(15) System. Theory is associated with the work of following:

(A) Leonard While
(B) Mary Parker Follet
(C) Talcott Parsons
(D) F.W. Taylor
(E) None of these

(16) Which one of the following is the foundation of modern Human Resource
(A) Specialization
(B) Compensation
(C) Job Analysis
(D) Job Evaluation
(E) None of these

(17) The process of transmitting the idea or thought into meaningful symbols is called:
(A) Decoding
(B) Feedback
(C) Reception
(D) Encoding
(E) None of theseq

(18) Which of the following will not be considered as a formal organization?

(A) A Hospital
(B) A University
(C) A Group of Friends
(D) A Service Industry
(E) None of these

(19) Which of the following violates the principle of Utility of Command?

(A) Bureaucratic Organization
(B) Functional Organization
(C) Manufacturing Organization
(D) Product Organization
(E) None of these.

(20) Which of the following is not a feature of good governance?

(A) Accountability
(B) Transparency
(C) Nepotism
(D) Rule of law
(E) None or these.

1. An organization which successfully achieve the goals will be considered as:

(a) Efficient
(b) Systemic
(c) Effective
(d) Reasonable
(e) None of these

2. An organization using its resources wisely and in a cost effectively way is considered:
(a) Conservative
(b) Modern
(c) Effective
(d) Efficient
(e) None of these

3. Grouping activities and resources in an organization is a function of:

(a) Leading
(b) Organizing
(c) Coordination
(d) Monitoring
(e) None of these

4. The dominant role in developing Scientific Management was played by:

(a) Henri Fayol
(b) F. W. Taylor
(c) Harrington Emerson
(d) Frank Gilbreth
(e) None of these

5. The most articulate spokesperson of Administrative Management was:

(a) Max Weber
(b) Chester Barnard
(c) Lyndall Urwick
(d) Henri Fayol
(e) None of these

6. Hawthrone studies were mainly conducted by:

(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Hugo Munsterberg
(c) Mary Parker
(d) Henry Gantt
(e) None of these

7. Two or more sub systems working together to produce more than the total of what they might produce
working alone is
(a) Open System
(b) Closed System
(c) Sub System
(d) Synergy
(e) None of these

8. An attempt to integrate common business practices from the United States and Japan into one middle
ground framework has been termed as:
(a) Theory X
(b) Theory Y
(c) Type Z Model
(d) Universal Model
(e) None of these

9. The owners, Employees, Board or Directors and Culture will form the organization's:
(a) Internal Environment
(b) External Environment
(c) Task Environment
(d) General Environment
(e) None of these

10. The appropriate managerial behavior in a given situation depends on a wide variety of elements is:
(a) Classical Approach
(b) Quantitative Approach
(c) Behavioral Approach
(d) Contingency Approach
(e) None of these

11. A goal set by and for top management of the organization is:
(a) Tactical Goal
(b) Strategic Goal
(c) Operational Goal
(d) Specific Goal
(e) None of these

12. Balancing and reconciling possible conflicts among goals is:

(a) Communication
(b) Leading
(c) Inconsistency
(d) Optimizing
(e) None of these

13. A plan that generally covers a span of one year or less is:
(a) Operational Plan
(b) Intermediate Plan
(c) Long range Plan
(d) Short range Plan
(e) None of these

14. Behavior that does not conform to generally social norms will be considered as:
(a) Arrogant Behavior
(b) Arbitrary Behavior
(c) Ethical Behavior
(d) Unethical Behavior
(e) None of these

15. Conceptual and Diagnostic skills in an organization are mostly used by:
(a) General managers
(b) Top managers
(c) Middle managers
(d) First line managers
(e) None of these

16. A theory suggesting that people are motivated by a hierarchy of needs was advanced by:
(a) Douglas Mc Gregor
(b) Arthur D. Little
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) F. W. Riggs
(e) None of these

17. The extent to which an organization complies with local, state and Federal Laws is:
(a) Social Compliance
(b) Philanthropic Awarding
(c) Ethical Compliance
(d) Legal Compliance
(e) None of these

18. The process by which a manager assigns some of his total work load to others is:
(a) Decentralization
(b) Delegation
(c) Division of work
(d) Centralization
(e) None of these

19. Power that has been legitimized by the state is:

(a) Political authority
(b) Charismatic authority
(c) Traditional authority
(d) Legal authority
(e) None of these

20. A condition in which the availability of each alternative and its potential pay off and costs are all
associated with probability estimates is:
(a) State of risk
(b) State of certainty
(c) State of mild certainty
(d) State of high certainty
(e) None of these

(1) The connection between the politics and public administration is:
a) Politics seeks to deal controversial issues and public administration is the means whereby
decisions are implemented.
b) The politicians and administrators do not share unique partnership.
c) Public administrator indulges in party politics.
d) Administrators having strong political conviction, they cannot pursue a carrier of public servant.
e) None of these

2. How the Role of public administration is determined by the people or Government? Can it be a
a) The civilization fails means the breakdown of public administration.
b) Modern democracy can perform this job well.
c) Moral conviction is vital for its role.
d) Social and economical developments are more feasible than any branch of government.
e) None of these

3. Human Relations is the study of the people in action that is:

a) The people work in a team spirit or not.
b) Social factors are equally important besides technical.
c) Human aspect’s ignorance is at management’s risk
d) Human’s dignity is inseparable from human relations.
e) None of these

4. Management improvement is possible by systematic theory if:

a) Investigator helps the decision-maker in solving problem.
b) Systematic theory identifies with operation research.
c) Defence problem’s programming is done smoothly.
d) It ascertains the future performance.
e) None of these

5.The bureaucracy has certain characteristics that are:

a) It is hero or villain or form of social organization.
b) It has pathological tendencies.
c) It has a specialized structure of the nation.
d) It is indispensable in modern country.
e) None of these

6. Bureaucracy is seen as corruptible or otherwise:

a) Bureaucracy is essential and necessary evil.
b) Bureaucracy’s role as a pariah or savior.
c) Bureaucracy is suspected politically.
d) If bureaucracy fails, it is accused as pariah.
e) None of these

7. Administrative leadership’s character inspires confidence when it uses:

a) Force and bargain to achieve goals.
b) Bases adequately built up
c) Leader must become the servant of the people
d) Leader must possess professional ethics.
e) None of these

8. Administrative accountability must be accompanied by:

a) If power is not abused.
b) If Ombudsman is independent and non-partisan.
c) If it brings home through legislature.
d) It can be achieved through responsible government.
e) None of these

9. Judicial control can achieve administrative accountability successfully if:

a) Rule of law is strictly followed.
b) Judicial process should not be cumbersome.
c) Judicial process should be easy and approachable.
d) Administrative action must be under judicial review.
e) None of these

10. Planning and its technique is common to all human activity such as:
a) Unity of programme and timeliness of programme.
b) Peoples following is necessary for successful plan.
c) Planners require reliable data for success.
d) Coordination is must in viable planning.
e) None of these

11. How can effective planning be made meaningful:

a) If it has management support
b) Its objective must be clearly defined.
c) Its feasibility standards mush show wisdom
d) It provides valuable learning experience.
e) None of these

12. Public corporation is the innovation of 20th century. The basic features are:
a) Public corporation is a corporation by courtesy
b) It is created for particular purpose.
c) It is the result of Government’s entry into business.
d) It has virtue of business management.
e) None of these

13. Mechanistic theory is formal structure of organization. Its functions are:

a) Drawing up plan for large-scale enterprises
b) It does not tally with realities.
c) It s the result of Government’s entry into business
d) A human problem requires human solution.
e) None of these

14. The organization is the act of designing administrative structure. It requires:

a) The determination of what activities are necessary.
b) No engineering approach to achieve goal.
c) Staff for managing it.
d) The allocation of functions and responsibilities to individual.
e) None of these

15. Centralization and decentralization are the problems of relationship between higher and lower levels
of government. They can be solved by:
a) Introduction of local bodies in the country.
b) Solving territorial and functional problems
c) Solving the jurisdictional disputes.
d) Active determination of external factors between the two
e) None of these

16. Zero-base budgeting evaluates current and new activities and programs which solve:
a) The governmental programs in detail.
b) The risks involving decision-developing and ranking packages.
c) The organizational services programs.
d) The basic developmental issues.
e) None of these

17. The civil services of Pakistan have become a caste by themselves involving public criticism such as:
a) They are legacies of British colonial rule
b) They have lowered the quality of national life.
c) They have breeded corruption and inefficiencies.
d) They have become professionally incompetent.
e) None of these

18. Communication is a crucial element in administration and felt by:

a) As the heart of management.
b) As it makes administrative procedure smooth.
c) As it is the nerve center of administration.
d) As it is the blood stream of the organization.
e) None of these
19. Co-ordination is the removal of conflicts from the organization by:
a) Securing co-operation and team work
b) Securing organizational goals
c) Securing harmonious organization
d) Removing overlapping and working cross purposes.
e) None of these

20. The Public Services of Pakistan can be made worthwhile if:

a) Young men and women are recruited on merit.
b) They are not used for political ulterior motives.
c) They are trained in nationalistic spirit and religious values
d) They must be awarded equal opportunity of advancement.
e) None of these

(1) In an organization, if uniformity of standards and policies is maintained and the head provides
direction to all activities, then it is sign of:
(a) Efficiency
(b) Decentralization
(c) Centralizations
(d) Effective Coordination
(e) "None of these

(2) Span of Control Means:

(a) Power to control an enterprise
(b) Duration of executive control
(c) Number of subordinates under a superior's direct control
(d) Overall control of an organization
(e) None of these

(3) Public corporations have been created with the objective of:
(a) Increased profits
(b) Handling large scale projects
(c) Creating various job opportunities
(d) Operational flexibility and autonomy
(e) None of these

(4) In United State the practice of making appointments in public services on the basis of political
affiliation and personal relationship is known as:
(a) Party Privilege
(b) Spoils System
(c) Fitness Principle
(d) Discretion System
(e) None of these

(5) In some countries office of the Procurator General, has been created to:
(a) Ensure the working of government departments according to rules and regulations.
(b) Provide legal support to administrative bodies.
(c) Assess the training needs of government departments.
(d) Advocate cases on behalf of the government in the court of law.
(e) None of these.

(6) Rcole National d' Administration of France acts as:

(a) A consulting organization to improve administration.
(b) An institution of higher learning
(c) A recruiting-cum-training agency.
(d) A public complaint office
(e) None of these

(7) The necessary purpose of financial audit should be to focus on:

(a) Whether the expenditure was incurred for right purpose.
(b) Whether the expenditure had the approval of the top management.
(c) Whether the expenditure was in accordance with rules and procedures.
(d) Whether the expenditure was made on proper time.
(e) None of these.

8-fiscal deficit in government budget can be reduced by:

(a) Improving the productivity of the departments.
(b) Closing down some of the expensive projects.
(c) Banning the recreational activities.
(d) Rationalizing expenditure for economy.
(e) None of these.

9-In the Maslovv's hierarchy of needs, the middle level needs have been categorized as:
(a.) Self fulfillment needs
(b) Survival needs
(c) Security needs
(d) Egoistic needs
(e) None of these

10-Motivation is the function of intrinsic factors such as appreciation, recognition etc. who gave this
theory?
(a)Victor Veroom
(b) Herbert Simon
(c) Fredrick Hcrzberg
(d) David Me Clelland
(e) None of these

11-One of the following is not the function of the Cabinet Division of the Federal Government:
(a) Preparation of the agenda for Cabinet meeting.
(b) Recording Ihe decisions of (he Cabinet.
(c) Follow up 'of the implementation of Cabinet decisions.
(d) Provision of staff to Cabinet members.
(e) None of these.

(12) Which of the following is categorized as a strategic decision:

(a) An officer approving the application for driving license.
(b) An executive ordering the transfer of an employee in another department.
(c) A head of the department approving a financial sanction.
(d) A committee approving a new rule to meet the future public requirements.
(e) None of these.

(13) A budget is essentially a statement of:

(a) Identification of targets to be achieved.
(b) Surplus or deficit of the previous budget.
(c) Estimated revenue and expenditure over a period of time.
(d) Allocation of funds in various heads of expenditure.
(e) None of these.

14-The categorization of functions with reference to their direct or indirect concern with the achievement
of organizational goals is called as:
(a) Primary and Secondary functions
(b) Line and Staff functions
(c) Major and Minor functions
(d) Central and Peripheral functions
(e) None of these

15-Who wrote the famous book "Research on the Bureaucracy in Pakistan":

(a) Muneer Ahmad
(b) Brian Chapman
(c) Inayatullah
(d) Ralph Braibanti
(e) None of these

16-Administrative Reforms-have been a consistent effort in Pakistan since independence.

The first Re-organization Committee was constituted in 1947. Who headed the Committee?
(a) Justice Muhammad Muneer
(b) Sir Victor Turner
(c) Akhtar Hussain
(d) Rowland Eggar
(e) None of these

17-In the Constitution of Pakistan, the subjects for legislation have been divided into:
(a) Two Lists
(b) Three Lists
(c) Four Lists
(d) Five Lists
(e) None of these

18-One of (he most significant achievement of the Ford Foundation's technical assistance to Pakistan in
I960, was the establishment of:
(a) Pakistan Administrative Staff College, Lahore.
(b) National Institute of Public Administration Karachi.
(c) Secretariat Training Institute, Islamabad,
(d) National Defence College, Rawalpindi,
(e) None of these.

19-The introduction of the Section Officers Scheme in the Central (Federal) Secretariat in 1961, was
made on the recommendation contained in:
(a) Farooqi Report
(b) Cornelius Report
(c) Shoib Report
(d) G. Ahmed Report
(e) None of these

20-"Leaders are born and not made" is perception based on:

(a) Contingency Theory of leadership
(b) Trait Theory of Leadership
(c) Fiedler's Model of Leadership
(d) Situational Leadership
(e) None of these

1) The study of individuals and groups in organizations is known as:

a) total quality management
b) Human resource maintenance
c) the manager's challenge
d) the contingency approach
e) organizational behaviour

2) Organizational behaviour is:

a) a commitment to continuous improvement

b) a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of work experiences
c) the attempt by scholars to identify how situations can be understood and managed in ways that
respond appropriately to their unique characteristics.
d) the study of individuals and groups in organizations.
e) the attraction and continuation of a viable workforce.

3) Total quality management is:

a) a commitment to continuous improvement.
b) a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of work experiences.
c) the attempt by scholars to identify how situations can be understood and managed in ways that
respond appropriately to their unique characteristics.
d) the study of individuals and groups in organizations.
e) the attraction and continuation of a viable workforce.

4) Each of the following are requirements of twenty-first century managers except that they:
a) must be prepared to deal with people of different ethnic and racial backgrounds.
b) must value quality.
c) contend with a workforce whose skills match new tasks and technologies.
d) must personally do things to add value to the organization's ability to meet customers' needs.
e) value diversity.

5) A relatively permanent change in behaviour that happens as a result of experience is known as:
a) learning
b) life-long learning
c) experiential learning
d) organizational learning
e)the manager's challenge

6) The process of continuous learning from the full variety of one's actual work and life experience is
known as :
a) learning
b) life-long learning
c) experiential learning
d) organizational learning
e) the manager's challenge
7) The individual performance equation is concerned with:
a) capacity, willingness, opportunity
b) capacity , effort, opportunity
c) effectiveness, effort, willingness
d) effort , opportunity, threat
e) opportunity, capacity, intelligence

8) Personality contributes to considerations of:

a) what individuals can be
b) what individuals will do
c) what individuals are like
d) organizational support
e) difference between men and women

9) For people who work hard but still do not achieve high performance levels,there may be:
a) lack of fit between individuals attributes and task requirements.
b) improper allocation of rewards
c) low motivation
d) too much motivation
e) lack of psychological need satisfaction

10) Content motivation theories are represented by:

a) Maslow, Alderfer, Herzberg, and McClland
b) Maslow, Alderfer, Herzberg, and vroom
c) Maslow, Adams, Herzberg, and vroom
d) Alderfer, Adams, McClland,and vroom
e) Alderfer, Maslow, Adams

11) Intrinsic work rewards are:

a) received by an indivdual directly as a result of task performance.
b) externally controlled
c) sometimes internally controlled,sometimes externally controlled.
d) generally less important than extrinsic reward.
e) generally outside the control of managers.

12) Vertical job (Job Enrichment) loading involves:

a) employee planning and evaluating responsibilities.
b) performance of more tasks.
c) performance of different tasks on different days.
d) employee cleanup responsibilities
e) employee promotion up the organization hierarchy

Job enlargement is an increase in job tasks and responsibilities to make a position more challenging. It is a
horizontal expansion, which means that the tasks added are at the same level as those in the current position

13) Job enrichment:

a) must be directed towards individuals
b) must be directed towards groups
c) can be directed toward either groups or individuals.
d) tends to receive strong labor union support
e) can be applied to all workers equally well.

14) Rewarding individual results tends to:

a) increase cohesiveness
b) decrease cohesiveness
c) increase performance norms
d) decrease performance norms
e) have little or no effect on cohesiveness nor performance norms

15) The process whereby individuals or groups are held responsible for making their own decisions is
known as:
a) autonomy
b) empowerment
c) team building
d) multiskilling
e) self-responsibility

16) Which of the following term is used in leadership research to describe a leader who shows a great
degree of emphasis on the welfare of his/her subordinates?
a) employee-centered
b) production-centered
c) compassion-centered
d) work -oriented
e) structure-centered

17) Charisma is related to which type of leadership?

a) managerial
b) transformational
c) relationship motivated
d) employee-centered
e) structuring

18) What are the two basic type of leadership?

a) ethical and programmed
b) programmed and crafted
c) programmed and certain
d) crafted and uncertain
e) non routine and crafted

19) Interpersonal communications is the:

a) process of translating and idea or thought into meaningful symbols.
b) interpretation of symbols sent from sender to the receiver.
c) process by which entities exchange information and establish a common understanding.
d) process of telling someone else how can feels about something the person did or said about the
situation in general.
e) process of sending and receiving symbols with attached meanings--from one person---to
another.

20) Effective communication occurs when:

a) the receiver does as the sender says.
b) job satisfaction is improved
c) the intended meaning of the source is the same as the perceived meaning of the receiver
d) the sender is clear and articulate
e) the receiver provides feedback to the sender.

(1) Who has defined Public Administration as a detailed and systematic application of law? Every
particular application of law is an act administration:
(a) L.D. White
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Pfiffner
(d) Luther Guilik
(e) None of these

(2) What is another view of the scope of POSDCORB study of public Administration in modern times?
(a) Subject matter view of Public AD.
(b) principle view of P.Ad
(c) Process view of P. Ad
(d) Coordination view of P.Ad
(e)none of these

(3) The Human-relation approach was the result of over-emphasized the character of scientific -
movement approach. Name the leader of this approach:
(a) Max-Weber
(b) Elton Mayo
(c) F.J Taylor
(d) Roehthlisborge
(e)none of these

(4) The bureaucracy has been defined as a system of administration characterized by expertness,
impartiality and absence of humanity. who defined this.
(a) Charles Kannady
(b) Max-weber
(c) Braibanti Ralph
(d) Peter M . Blau
(e)none of these

(5) What do u assess the status of bureaucracy under devolution plan-2000? whether they have become?
(a) Reformer.
(b) Pariah
(c) more responsible
(d) more nationalist
(e)none of these

(6) The system-theory is mostly applied in militry operations because:

(a) it is most objective

(b) it has many alternatives
(c) it is less costly
(d) it has many major policy alternatives
(e) none of these

(7) The charismatic leadership whose authority has a legitimacy based on charismatic grounds. Do u
think it is suitable in Pakistan on following grounds:
(a) Social - relation grounds
(b) political grounds
(c) Larger mission grounds
(d) organizational grounds
(e) None

(8) There r many bases of administrative leadership, u select one more suitable:
(a) more appropriate base
(b) political base
(c) economic base
(d) dynamic base
(e) institutional base
(f) none

(9) in ur view which is the best way of tackling administrative complaints:

(a) By judiciary
(b)By legislature
(c) By people representation
(d) By professional bodies
(e) none

(10) In the best interest of country, what types of planning is more suitable and appropriate:
(a) Participative
(b) Physical
(c) Social
(d) Economic
(e) None

(11) there are many theories of organization bt all have been classified in two. which theory u consider
viable in present era?
(a) Human relation theory
(b) Mechanistic theory
(c) Behavioural theory
(d) communication theory
(e) None

(12) The units of organization r divided into line unit and staff unit according to their functions. u name
the units accordingly:
(a) Advisory
(b) legislative
(c) judicial
(d) executive
(e) none

(13)`the following r the foundations of modern personal system. which system u preferred most:
(a) tenure system
(b) merit system
(c) public service as a career
(d) system of position classification
(e) none

(14) there r many sources of coordination and control which r mentioned blow. which source u consider
more viable?
(a) human attributes
(b) function differentiation
(c) specialization
(d) delegation of authority
(e) none

(15) the proper continuity of communication system in public administration is a serious problem. u point
out which hindrance blow must be removed first?
(a) language difficulty
(b) frame of mind
(c) status distance
(d) geographical distance
(e) none

(16) you point out correct on in the following:

(a) Deficit-financing is boon in developing countries
(b) Deficit-financing is curse in the developing countries
(c) Deficit-budgeting is a boon in the developing countries
(d) Deficit-budgeting is a curse in the developing countries
(e) none

(17) U tick out the correct one machinery which is most effective in financial admn.
(a) Legislature
(b) the central department concerned with financial Admn.
(c) Principal financial officers in the administrative deptt.
(d) audit organization
(e) none

(18) the oral and written communication of individual is mentioned in the following. u mark out the most
effective communication.
(a) discretion of the individual
(b) individual skills
(c) individual intelligence
(d) personal contacts
(e) none

(19) the followings r some administrative changes r made under administrative reform-1972. u point out
the most sustainable change in it:
(a) reorganization of secretariat and departmental structure
(b) eradication of corruption
(c) steam lining of disciplinary procedure
(d) reorganization of system retirement
(e) none

(20) point out the most important defect in public bureaucracy of Pakistan. some are given below:
(a) Exploitative
(b) Aggrandizing
(c) corrupt
(d) most privileged
(e) none
1. All are the characteristics of Administration except:
a. It is a science and art
b. Has techniques that are universally applicable
c. Is a profession
d. Is not distinct from ownership
e .None of these

2. According to an early definition that kind of management which conducts a business or affairs by
standards established by facts or truth gained through systematic observation experiments or reasoning
is known as
a. Classical management
b. Bureaucratic management
c. Neo-classical management
d. Scientific management
e. None of these

3. H.Foyal, Terry, Koontz and O’ Donnel had the following view regarding Administration and
management
a. Management and Administration are one
b. Administration is a part of Management
c. Management and Administration are different
d. Depends on the type of organization
e. None of these

4. Human Relations approach was a metamorphic step in management theory and practice. The studies
for this movement were carried out at
a. Hawthorne plant at Western Electric Company, Chicago
b. Hawthorne plant at Harvard University
c. HRD Department, Stanford University
d. General Electric Company, New york
e. None of these
5. The Principle of unity of command implies
a. In union there is strength
b. Employees should receive orders from one superior only
c. Group to be assigned the responsibility of commanding
d. Command be equally distributed among horizontal line
e. None of these

6. Which of the following was not enunciated as a principle of management by Henry Fayol
a. Division of work
b. Planning and Organization
c. Authority and responsibility
d. Espirit de corps
e. None of these

7. A Plan is a determined course of action. The first major step in the process is
a. Developing premises
b. Stating organizational objectives
c. Developing plans
d. Putting plans into action
e. None of these
8. Which of the statements given below regarding decision making is false?
a .It is a continuous process
b. It implies a choice
c. It is an intellectual activity
d. Decision making is identical with problem solving
e. None of these

9. Which of the following statements about span of management is false?

a. A manager cannot supervise the activities of an unlimited number of people
b. Span of management directly affects the number of management levels in the organization
c. The capacity and the ability of the executive have absolutely no role in determining the span
of management
d. Higher the degree of decentralization, larger can the span of management be
e. None of these

10. Line organization (Oldest from top to bottom) is most suitable where
a. Business is carried on large scale
b. Methods of operations are complex
c. Where expertise of specialist is required
d. All of these
e. None of these

11. Managerial authority denotes

a. Right to act or direct the action of other in attainment of organizational goals
b. Right to give orders and power to extract obedience
c. Supreme coordinating power
d. All of these
e. None of these

12. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Authority and responsibility co-exist
b. Responsibility can be delegated
c. Accountability arise out responsibility
d. Authority is the Supreme coordinating power
e. None of these

13. Decentralization is (as an organization concept)

a. Delegation of actual performance of work
b. Physical or geographical dispersal of its activities
c. Delegation of decision making
d. All of these
e. None of these

14. Personnel functions is a

a. Line function
b. Staff functions
c. Can be either line or staff
d. Neither line nor staff
e. None of these

15. All of the following statements regarding manpower planning are true except
a. Manpower planning is merely forecasting of demand and supply of humans resources
b. planning of Manpower is a continuous process
c. Manpower plans may be formal or informal
d. Manpower planning is a vital managerial function
e. None of these

16. Job description implies

a. Personal capacities and inclinations deemed necessary for successful job performance.
b. Written statement of the main duties and responsibilities which job entails
c. Process that ensures that right kind of people at the right placed at the right time do thing for which
they are economically most useful
d. None of these

17 .An individual who systematically develops a subordinate’s abilities through intensive tutoring is
named as
a. Mentor
b. Manager
c. supervisor
d. Peer
e. None of these

18. A plan for allowing each employee to determine the make-up of his or her fringe benefit Package is
a. Compensation
b. Salary administration
c. Cafeteria compensation
d. Loaning
e. None of these

19. Which of the following statement regarding the communication is false

a. communication is perception
b. communication is expectation
c. communication provides for feedback mechanism
d. communication and information are synonymous
e. None of these

20. Open door policy is an aid to

a. Downward communication
b. upward communication
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

1.Health and wellness is a currently important work-related value

(a) true
(b) false

2.The cognitive component of an attitude consists of beliefs and values antecedents

(a) true
(b) false

3.The effective component of an attitude is a specific feeling regarding the personal impact of the
antecedents.
(a) True
(b) false
4.An attitude results in intended behavior.
(a) true
(b) false

5. Job satisfaction is closely related to organizational commitment and job environment.

(a) true
(b) false

6.A loyalty response to low job satisfaction occurs when an employee passively waits for conditions to
improve because of a trend in the organization.
(a) true
(b) false

7.Expectancy can have both positive and negative results for a manager.
(a) true
(b) false

8.The earliest studies of leadership tended to focus on leader behavior

(a) true
(b) false

9.Transactional leadership includes charisma.

(a) true
(b) false

10.Leader behaviors for high performance work teams tend to be charismatic.

(a) true
(b) false

11.One major power that bureaucracy has is simply its staying power.
(a) true
(b) false

12.Implement is the most “hands-on” facet of public administration.

(a) true
(b) false

13.A geographical information system is a location-related computer programme data and maps for a
variety of uses.
(a) true
(b) false

14. The most powerful reason for the growing recognition of the global economy is
(a) the growth of international trade groupings and pacts.
(b) that more people are working domestically for foreign employees..
(c) that the major cities of the western world are culturally heterogeneous.
(d) that domestic organization are feeling the impact of international competition.

15. The learned and shared ways of thinking and doing things found among members of a society is
known as:
(a) Parochialism
(b) Culture shock
(c) Culture
(d) Ethnocentrism
(e) Domestic multiculturalism

16. Each of the following is a popular dimension of culture except:

(a) Language
(b) Use of space
(c) Religion
(d) Individualism
(e) Time orientation

17. To help combat selective perception, a manager should:

(a) View the situation as others view it
(b) Give more performance feedback to subordinates
(c) Spend more time helping subordinates learn job skills
(d) Gather additional opinions about a situation from others
(e) Increase feedback to subordinates and train them personally

18. Assigning personal attributes to other individuals is known as:

(a) Stereotyping
(b) The halo effect
(c) Selective perception
(d) Projection
(e) Expectancy

19. The key elements of the communication process include all but which of the following:
(a) An interpreter
(b) A receiver
(c) A source
(d) Feedback
(e) Noise

20. Nonverbal communication is:

(a) The acknowledgment of a message and a response to its reception.
(b) Communication through physical gesture
(c) The same as noise
(d) Anything that interferes with the effectiveness of the communication attempt
(e) Often unimportant during interviews.

(i). The difference between public administration and business administration is :

(a) amount of political and legal constraints on decision making
(b) the emphasis on efficiency
(c) management structure and processes
(d) no difference between public administration and business administration
(e) None of these

(ii) The emphasis of the politics-administration dichotomy is on:

(a) the focus or "what" of public administration
(b) the actors or "who" of public administration
(c) the span or "when" of public administration
(d) the locus or "where" of public administration
(e) None of these
(iii) Gulick and Urwick's POSDCORB anagram was:
(a) reference to the locus of public administration
(b) a listing of when to utilize public administration
(c) an expression of administrative principles to follow
(d) a means of identifying the problem associate with bureaucracy
(e) None of these

(iv) The three components that compromise publicness and privateness in society are:
(a) bureaucracy, consistancy and budget
(b) administration, management and organization
(c) execution, regulation and structure
(d) agency, access, interest
(e) None of these

(v) Simon refuted the administrative

(a) revealing the administrative principles
(b) showing that for every principle there is a counter-principle
(c) explaining that administrative principles can only be used in complex organization
(d) relating that administrative principles always allowed for rational descisions
(e) None of these

(vi) The New Public Management can be best described as:

(a) public administration in 21st century
(b) bureaucratic model of public administration
(c) application of business practices in public management
(d) a mechanism for improving service delivery
(e) None of these

(vii) The open model for organization is referred to as:

(a) hierarchical and militaristic
(b) technological and anti-humanistic
(c) restrictive and rigid
(d) collegial and competitive
(e) None of these

(viii) The aim of Taylor's scientific management was to:

(a) stress individual accomplishment over organizational yield
(b) reduce production and increase morale
(c) improve organizational efficiency and production'
(d) alter machinery to lessen burden on the labour force
(e) None of these

(xi) In comparison to managers of private organizations, public bureaucrats must:

(a) spend less time on external environment and more time on internal management
(b) spend more time on external environment and less time on internal management
(c) spend less time on both external environment and internal management
(d) spend more time on both external environment and internal management
(e) None of these

(x) Supervision as a mechanism of control over subordinates has been founded to be:
(a) the most effective mechanism of control
(b) as effective as input control
(c) the less effective mechanism of control
(d) more effective than behavior control
(e) None of these

(xi) According to Weber, the three types of leadership are:

(a) charismatic, traditional, legal/rational
(b) titular, controllers, organizers
(c) institutionalists, specialists, hybrids
(d) charismatic, institutionalists, specialists
(e) None of these

(xii) In terms of public administration, one defines a system:

(a) according to the organizational structure
(b) according to the administrative effectiveness
(c) according to problem one wishes to resolve
(d) according to the amount of resource available
(e) None of these

(xiii) The advantage of systems approach is:

(a) it allows us to disregard the differences in world views
(b) it allows means and ends to remain ambiguous
(c) it forces us to delineate the differences and similarities in world views and improves
efficiency and effectiveness
(d) it allows for new and fresh solutions to old and distressing problems
(e) None of these

(xiv) According to humanists approach, the management scientist's system is incomplete because:
(a) it fails to factor in the variable of environment and instability
(b) it fails to account for the variable of uniquely human qualities such as genius and despair
(c) it gives too much emphasis to the variable of uniquely human qualities
(d) it does not consider quantifiable and measureable variables
(e) None of these

(xv) The purpose of decision tree is:

(a) decision alternatives
(b) cost analysis
(c) project coordination
(d) time analysis
(e) None of these

(xvi) the line-item budget covers:

(a) inputs only
(b) outputs only
(c) inputs and outputs
(d) neither inputs nor outputs
(e) None of these

(xvii) Performance budget covers:

(a) inputs only
(b) outputs only
(c) neither inputs nor outputs
(d) inputs and outputs
(e) None of these

(xviii) The essential difference between management-by-objectives and planning-programming-budgeting

is that:
(a) MBO does not necessarily focus on inputs
(b) MBO does not necessarily focus on outputs
(b) MBO does not necessarily focus on alternatives
(b) MBO necessarily focus on alternatives
(e) None of these

(xix) one of the salient feature of civil service system of Pakistan is:
(a) preference for contract appointments
(b) preference for professionals
(c) preference for generalists
(d) preference for doctors
(e) None of these

(xx) Public goods differ from private goods on the basis of:
(a) price
(b) delivery
(c) exclusion
(d) public interest
(e) None of these

(i) Public administration refers to:

(a) A process
(b) A discipline
(c) A field of study
(d) All of these

(ii) The concept of “separation between politics and public administration” was first propounded by:
(a) Aristotle
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Machiavelli

(iii) The famous fourteen principles of organization were given by:

(a) Plato
(b) Henri Fayol
(c) Fredrick Taylor
(d) Max Weber

(iv) The author of the famous essay “ The Study of Administration” was:
(a) Dwight Waldo
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Fredrick Taylor
(d) Margaret Thatcher

(v) Span of control means:

(a) Tenure on a post
(b) Geographical jurisdiction
(c) Power to control others
(d) Number of subordinates under a superior

(vi) Job description relates to appointing a suitable person on a job:

(a) True
(b) False

(vii) Job specification defines the parameters of the job to be done:

(a) True
(b) False

(viii) Proper job analysis is based on:

(a) Job description
(b) Job specification
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

(ix) Bureaucracy refers to:

(a) Red tape
(b) The totality of government officials
(c) A specific set of structural arrangement
(d) All of these

(x) The mnemonic POSDCORB for management was introduced by:

(a) James Mooney
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Luther Gulick
(d) None of these

(xi) The famous Hawthorne experiments were conducted by:

(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Abraham H. Maslow
(c) Mark Twain
(d) None of these

(xii) “Hawthorne effect” refers to increase in productivity because of:

(a) Good physical working environment
(b) Secure job
(c) Presence of observers
(d) None of these

(xiii) Maslow’s highest need in his “hierarchy of needs” was:

(a) Love or affiliation needs
(b) Self –actualization needs
(c) Esteem needs
(d) None of these

(xiv) “The average human being inherently dislikes work”

(a) An assumption of theory X
(b) An assumption of theory Y
(c) An assumption of theory Z
(d) None of these
(xv) Spoils system refers to:
(a) Management through objectives
(b) Public sector concept of staffing
(c) Awarding jobs to political supporters
(d) None of these

(xvi) Deficit financing is:

(a) Excess revenues
(b) Excess expenditures
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

(xvii) Performance audit is used as a comparison between:

(a) Actual expenditure and booked expenditure
(b) Revenue collected and potential revenue
(c) Activities of an organization with the assigned objectives
(d) None of these

(xviii) A whistle blower in an organization is a person:

(a) Who reveals bad things about his department to the public
(b) Who is a good singer
(c) Who is assigned security duties
(d) None of these

(xix) The budget cycle is:

(a) The duration for which it is applicable
(b) The process through which it has to go
(c) The time frame of preparation
(d) None of these

(xx) Group dynamics refers to:

(a) Nature of a group
(b) Development of a group
(c) Interrelationship of a group
(d) All of these

Mayo's study was intended to observe the effects of environmental changes on worker productivity and it
was carried-out in the Hawthorne factory of the Western Electricity Company (hence, the "observer
effect" is sometimes called the "Hawthorne Effect").
http://www.sociology.org.uk/mpop.htm

The Hawthorne effect refers to a phenomenon which is thought to occur when people observed during a
research study temporarily change their behavior or performance (this can also be referred to as demand
characteristics). Others have broadened the definition to mean that people’s behavior and performance
change following any new or increased attention. The Hawthorne studies have had a dramatic effect on
management in organizations and understanding the impact of different factors in the workplace.
http://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/...wthorne_effect

(8) Which of the following is an essential component of a formal organization?

(A) Decentralization
(B) Formal Structure
(C) Power
(D) Centralization
(E) None of these

9. The owners, Employees, Board or Directors and Culture will form the organization's:
(a) Internal Environment
(b) External Environment
(c) Task Environment
(d) General Environment
(e) None of these

13. A plan that generally covers a span of one year or less is:
(a) Operational Plan
(b) Intermediate Plan
(c) Long range Plan
(d) Short range Plan
(e) None of these

CSS 2006

5) A relatively permanent change in behaviour that happens as a result of experience is known as:
a) learning
b) life-long learning
c) experiential learning
d) organizational learning
e)the manager's challenge

CSS 2010

(xv) The purpose of decision tree is:

(a) decision alternatives
(b) cost analysis
(c) project coordination
(d) time analysis
(e) None of these

CSS 2011

(viii) Proper job analysis is based on:

(a) Job description
(b) Job specification
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Human Relations approach was a metamorphic step in management theory and practice. The studies for
this movement were carried out at
a. Hawthorne plant at Western Electric Company, Chicago

6. Which of the following was not enunciated as a principle of management by Henry Fayol

Planning and Organization

Transactional Leadership, also known as managerial leadership, focuses on the role of
supervision, organization, and group performance; transactional leadership is a style of leadership
in which the leader promotes compliance of his/her followers through both rewards and punishments.

Fayol has been regarded by many as the father of the modern operational
management theory,
Public administration functions are performed by __________branch.
A. Executive (I'm confused about this option)
B. Legislative and Judiciary
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these

2). There are ________ needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 5

3). How many principles of organization was propounded by Henry Fayol.

A. 10
B. 14
C. 9
D. 16

4). Which one of the following is not a core value of Public Administration?
A. Equity
B. Efficiency
C. Effectiveness
D. Bureaucracy

5). Delegation of authority by a Sales Manager to his Salesman is an example of_________.

A. Upward Delegation
B. Downward Delegation
C. Sideward Delegation
D. None of these

6). The process of transmitting the idea or thought into meaningful symbols is called:
A. Decoding
B. Feedback
C. Reception
D. Encoding

7). In hierarchy, the term “scalar” means_________.

A. Step
B. Ladder
C. Position
D. Process

8). The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is ________.
A. Election
B. Pressure Groups
C. Advisory Committees
D. Public Opinion

9). The “Gang-Plank” refers to ________.

A. Discipline
B. Initiative
C. Equity
D. Level Jumping

10). The classical theory of administration is also known as the _________.

A. Historical Theory
B. Mechanistic Theory
C. Locational Theory
D. Human Relations Theory

11). Negative motivation is based on _______.

A. Fear
B. Reward
C. Money
D. Status

12). The theory of “Prismatic Society” in Public Administration is based on ________.

A. Study of public services in developed and developing countries

B. Institutional comparison of public administration in developed countries

C. Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
D. Historical studies of public administration in different societies

13). Which of the following is not included in in “hygiene” factors in the Herzberg’s two factor theory of
motivation?
A. Salary
B. Working Conditions
C. Company’s Policy
D. Responsibility

14). Which one of the following is not a function of staff agency?

A. Planning
B. Advising
C. Consultation
D. Achieving Goals

15). The principle of “span of control” means ________.

A. An employee should receive orders from one superior only

B. The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct

C. The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
D. The number of people being controlled

16). In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ___________.
A. Direct Recruitment
B. Recruitment by promotion
C. Ordinary Recruitment
D. Passive Recruitment
17). In classical thought, emphasis was not on _______.
A. Technicalities
B. Material & Methods
C. Machines
D. Human Element

18). The first work on the study of public administration is attributed to_______
A. Frederick Taylor
B. Henry L Gant
C. Woodrow Wilson
D. Max Weber

19). The Rule of Lapse means______.

A. All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the year
B. All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
C. The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
D. The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Parliament within 14 days

20). If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to________.
A. Error of law
B. Abuse of power
C. Error of authority
D. Error of fact finding

The Study of Administration an article by Woodrow Wilson Published in: 1885,[1887],1889

Meaning of Bureauphilic [I choosed decreasing political apointees]

The difference between the work of federal, provincial, and district governments depends on:
Size of budget, Scale, Scope, None of these ( i think 1 option was Level something)

The basic building block of Large Interprise is

Organisation, Hierarchy, [Structure]

Humanist is to Leadership as [Pluralist] is to employee. ( i think there were 3 options, one of them was
Pluralist)

Continuous improvement is involved in: Total quality management

17. Which scholar first argued that citizens are not customers, but owners?
a. Gaebler, b. Osborne, c. (), d. None of these
a. Gaebler, b. Osborne, c. Frederickson, d. Hammer (copied from an online source, dont know whether
FPSC dropped option C or D)

The concept of “separation between politics and public administration” was first propounded by: Woodrow
Wilson

Systems theory of management (inter dependence) is based on the concept of components having:
Inter- dependence

Planning machinery in Pakistan is: Centralized

Performance budgeting is based on:

items of expenditure, items of investment, objectives of expenditure, none of the above
Process accountability is concerned with:
Who performed the task, Why it was performed, How it was performed, None of the above
1. Politictal Administration dichotomy given by ? Woodrow Wilson
2. Budget system based on fresh assessment of Process, Methods and resources is ? zero based
budgeting
3. Research on the Budget of Pakistan was conducted by ? Gallup and Gialani
4. The highest economic deciding agency of Pakistan is ? I wrote ECNEC/ECC... please verify
5." Power corrups and absolute power corrupts absolute"Who said it ? according to
brainyqoutes.com: lord acton
6. Bills passed by the Parliament require the assent of which of the following ? President
7. Father of Scintific Management was ? Taylor
8. O & M stands for ? Operation n method (Observation and Measurement)
9. Acronym POSDCORB was coined by ? Luther gulick
10. The system of Superior subordinate relationship in coordination is called ? hierarchy
11. Staff agencies perform which function ? advisory
12. Indirect taxes are not favoured because ? harder to collect
13. Public Administration is closely linked with ? I wrote all of these ... please share your answer
14. Who is the chairman of the planning commision ? prime minister
15. Which of the following is an example of external control ? don't remeber options but external
control is legislative judicial executive and public
16. Public Administration is concerned with ? please share the options and correct answer
17. Chief architect of Beauracratic model was ? weber
18. The natural order of needs in maslow's hierarchy of needs is ? biological safety social egoistic
self-actualization
1) Who defined public administration as "detailed and systematic application of law"?
a)Herbert A.Simon
b)Woodrow Wilson
c)Luther Gullick
d)None of these

2) Government is a "sovereign factor in administration". Stated by:

a)L.D.White
b)J.H.William
c)Herman finer
d)None of these

3) The rules of business of Federal Government are read with the Secretariat Instructions
issued under rule :
a) 5(15)
b) 15(5)
c) 15(15)
d) None of these

4) Management is a -------- use of resources.

a)Systematic
b)proper
c)maximum
d)None of these

5) Who wrote the book "Politics & Administration"?

a)Willoughby
b)Woodrow Wilson
c)Goodnow
d)None of these

6) Who among the following defined Civil services as "professional body of officials,
permanent, paid and skilled"?
a)Ogg and Zink
b)Herman Finer
c)L.D.White
d)None of these

7) The traditional theory of motivation is the theory of :

a)Path goal
b)participation
c)Motivation hygiene
d)Fear and punishment

8) Communication techniques according to Bernard are important, because through them :

a)The zone of indifference of the contributor is enlarged.
b)The foundation for the formal authority structure is laid
c) the form and the internal economy of an organisation is shaped
d)The different patterns of informal organisation are harmonised,

9) A course of action governed by the rules and regulations is known as:

a)Decision as per rule
b)A management decision
c)A guided decision
d)A programmed decision

10) Who among the following has defined leadership as "Activity of influencing people to drive
willingly for group objectives"?
a)Peter Drucked
b)F.Fielder
c)Pfiffner and sherwood
d)None of these ( George R Terry)

11) Who analysed leadership in terms of "Circular response"?

a)C.I.Bernard
b)M.P.Follett
c)Taylor
d)None of these

12) Who wrote the book "Towards a new public administration: The Minnow book
perspective"?
a)Frank Marini
b)Dwight Waldo
c)Charles Worth
d) None of these

13) Who defined organisation as "Consciously coordinated co-operative system?"

a)Henri Fayol
b)Chris Argyris
c)Chester Bernard
d)None of these

14) Who among the following defined coordination as "the integration of several parts into an
ordinary whole to achieve the purpose of undertaking"?

a)L.D.White
b)Charles Worth JC
c)G.R.Terry
d)None of these

15)The 2nd highest decision-making authority in Pakistan is :

a)CDWP
b)NEC
c)ECNEC
d)None of these (NCA)

16) Who among the following defined communication as "shared understanding of shared
purpose"?
a)Tead
b)Sirk H.L
c)J.D.Millet
d)None of these

17) Line agencies perform ---------- activities in an organisation.

a)advisory
b)supervisory
c)Informative
d)None of these(executory)

18) The Relay Assembly Test Room Experiments were conducted to test the relationship
between :
a)Productivity & Working conditions
b)Productivity & Economic incentives
c)Productivity & Social relationship
d)None of these

19) Who among the following founded ZERO-BASED budgeting ?

a) L.D.White
b) Lyndon Johnson
c) Peter Phyrr
d) None of these

20) Span of control means :

a) No of superior over the subordinates
b) No of subordinated under a superior
c) No of officials with a superior
d) None of these
7) The traditional theory of motivation is the theory of :
a)Path goal
b)participation
c)Motivation hygiene
d)Fear and punishment
 8) Communication techniques according to Bernard are important, because through them :
a)The zone of indifference of the contributor is enlarged.
b)The foundation for the formal authority structure is laid
c) the form and the internal economy of an organisation is shaped
d)The different patterns of informal organisation are harmonised,

9) A course of action governed by the rules and regulations is known as:

a)Decision as per rule
b)A management decision
c)A guided decision
d)A programmed decision

18) The Relay Assembly Test Room Experiments were conducted to test the relationship
between :
a)Productivity & Working conditions
b)Productivity & Economic incentives
c)Productivity & Social relationship
d)None of these

15)The 2nd highest decision-making authority in Pakistan is :

a)CDWP
b)NEC
c)ECNEC
d) None of these

13) Who defined organisation as "Consciously coordinated co-operative system?"

a)Henri Fayol
b)Chris Argyris
c)Chester Bernard
d)None of these

1.Public Administration is the study of: Public Policy implementation

2. The concept of Politics-Administration dichotomy was given by: Woodrow Wilson

3. The concept of "bounded rationality" was given by: Herbert Simon

4. "Entropy" is a law of nature in which all forms of organizations move towards: Disorganization and
Death

5. The dominant role in developing Scientific Management was played by: Taylor

6. Two or more sub systems working together to produce more than the total of what they might
produce working alone is: Synergy

7. A goal set by and for top management of the organization is: Strategic Goal

8. A condition in which the availability of each alternative and its potential pay off and costs are all
associated with probability estimates is: State of mild certainty

9. Zero-base budgeting evaluates current and new activities and programs which solve: The basic
developmental issues.

10. Who wrote the famous book "Research on the Bureaucracy in Pakistan": Ralph Braibanti
11. Content motivation theories are represented by: Maslow, Alderfer, Herzberg, and McClland

12. The process whereby individuals or groups are held responsible for making their own decisions is
known as: Autonomy

13. Charisma is related to which type of leadership? Transformational

14. What is another view of the scope of POSDCORB study of public Administration in modern
times? Principle view of Public Administration

15. The bureaucracy has been defined as a system of administration characterized by expertness,
impartiality and absence of humanity. who defined this? Max weber
__________________

MBA MCQs
(i) Fredrick Winslow Taylor’s Principles of Scientific Management suggested the use of scientific methods
to define:
a) The easiest way of doing a job
b) The most complex way of doing a job
c) The best way of doing a job
d) None of these

(ii) The quantitative approach using quantitative techniques in Management is called:

a) Scientific Method
b) Operations Research
c) Quantitative Approach
d) None of these

(iii) The perspective that Managers are directly responsible for an organization’s success is known as:
a) Omnipotent view of management
b) Management orientation
c) Autocratic management
d) None of these

(iv) Effective Management decisions are:

a) Emotional
b) Based on lots of data
c) Rational (doubt)
d) None of these

(v) Breakeven Analysis is a useful technique for:

a) Reducing operating costs
b) Maximizing sales
c) Resource allocation
d) None of these

(vi) Recruitment helps:

a) Improve productivity of HR
b) Reduce number of employees
c) Improve labour relations
d) None of these

(vii) Grapevine is:

a. An office decoration plant
b. An information network
c. An official drink
d. None of these

(viii) Most important asset in an organization is:

a. Money
b. Plant and Machinery
c. Employees
d. None of these

(ix) Employees resist organizational change because it:

a. Reduces their compensation
b. Creates uncertainty
c. Puts more work on them
d. None of these

(x) Strictly observing Corporate Ethics is:

a. Not important in commercial organizations
b. Against the concept of profit maximization
c. An essential requirement of professional business management
d. None of these

(xi) According to Herzberg’s Motivation – Hygiene Theory, employee’s salary is:

a. Hygiene Factor
b. Motivating Factor
c. Employee’s Retention Factor
d. None of these

(xii) Who has the most power in Value Chain?

a. Suppliers
b. Distributors
c. Customers
d. None of these

(xiii) Marketing is:

a. Sales of goods and services
b. The range of services starting and ending with the customer
c. Sales planning and promotion
d. None of these

(xiv) Marketing Strategy is:

a. Activities focused to defeat competitors
b. Activities aimed at creating value and profitable relationship with customers
c. Activities for maximizing sales
d. None of these

(xv) Cost strategy means charging:

a. Highest price for products
b. Lowest price for products
c. Varying prices for products
d. None of these

(xvi) Branding is:

a. Not possible for services
b. Not very useful commercially
c. Useful for building product loyalty
d. None of these

(xvii) Creation of value in a business means:

a. Earning maximum profits
b. Promoting rapid growth in sales
c. Optimizing shareholder’s return in a company
d. None of these

(xviii) Price/Earnings Ratio of a company shows relationship between its:

a. Net profit and Sales
b. Gross profit and Net earnings
c. Market price of its share and Earnings per share
d. None of these

(xix) Free Cash Flows are:

a. Net after tax profit
b. Expected Revenues minus expected costs and capital expenditures
c. Cash in hand and in bank
d. None of these

(xx) Term interest earned is:

a. EBIT ÷ Interest on debt
b. Net profit ÷ Debt
c. Sales ÷ Interest Payable
d. None of these

1. what are the earning per share (EPS) for a company that earned $ 100,000 last year in the after-tax
profits, has 200,000 common shares outstanding and $1.2 million in retained earning at the year end ?
(i) $ 100,000
(ii) $ 6.00
(iii) $ 0.50
(iv) $ 6.50

2. The decision function of financial management can be broken down into the decisions :
(a) financing and investment
(b) investment,financing & asset management
(c) financing and dividend
(d) capital budgeting, cash management and credit management.

3. You want to buy an ordinary annuity that will pay you $4000 a year for next 20 years. You expect
annual interest rate will be 8 percent over that time period. the maximum price you would be willing to
pay for the annuity closest to :
(a) $32,000
(b) $39,272 (doubt)
(c) $40,000
(d) $80,000

4. Which of the following would NOT improve the current ratio ?

(a) Borrow short term to finance additional fixed assets
(b) Issue long term debt to buy inventory
(c) sell common stock to reduce current liabilities
(d) sell fixed assets to reduce accounts payable

5. Alto industry has a debt to equity ratio of 1.6 compared with the industry average if 1.4. this means
that the company :
(a) will not experience any difficulty with its creditors
(b) has less liquidity than other firms in industry'
(c) will be viewed as having high credit worthiness
(d) has greater than average financial risk when compared to other firms in industry.

6. According to the capital-asset pricing model (CAPM), a security's expected (required) return is equal to
the risk free rate plus a premium :
(a) Equal to the security's beta
(b) based on the unsystematic risk of the security
(c) Based on the total risk of the security
(d) Based on the systematic risk of the security

7. " How people feel about corporations, government agencies, trade unions and universities " refers to
which of the following views ?
(a) People's view of others
(b) People's view of societies
(c) People's view of themselves
(d) People's view of organizations

8. Gathering secondary information is one of the steps of developing the research plan. What does the
meaning of secondary information in marketing research?
(a) That does not currently exist in an organized form.
(b) that already exist somewhere, having been collected for another purpose.
(c) that the researcher can obtain through surveys and observation.
(d) that already exist somewhere in an organized form.

9. which one of the following factor is NOT used for measuring the social class ?
(a) Income
(b) Number of children in family
(c) Occupation
(d) Education

10. which one of the following three-steps process represents "perception" ?

(a) Motivation, personality and attitudes
(b) Collecting, eliminating, and organizing information inputs.
(c) Receiving, organizing and interpreting information inputs.
(d) anticipating, classifying and discarding information inputs.

11. Demographic segmentation divides the market into groups based on which of the following variables?
a. size, location, industry, customer
b. size, company, industry, technology
c. location, size, occupation, race
d. customer, technology, industry, company

12. Which of the following are those products purchased for further processing or for use in conducting a
business ?
a. Unsought products
b. specialty products
c. shopping products
d. industrial products

13. After concept testing, a firm would engage in which stage for developing and marketing a new
product ?

a. Marketing strategy development

b. Business analysis
c. Product development
d. Test marketing

14. Fredrik Taylor advocated which of the following management principles?

a. Work and responsibility should be divided almost equally between management and workers.
b. workers should perform all work , while management should maintain responsibility for the
work performed.
c. Managers should perform more work than workers, because managers are generally more skilled.
d. Workers can be highly productive even if they are randomly selected for a job.

15. General administrative theory focuses on ?

a. The entire organization.

b. Managers and administrators
c. The measurement of organizational design relationship.
d. Primarily the accounting function.

16. Bureaucracy is defined as a form of organization characterized by:

(a) Division of labor
(b) Clearly defined hierarchy
(c) Detailed rules and regulations
(d) All of these

17. The quantitative approach involves applications of:

(a) Statistics, information models, and computer simulations
(b) Psychology testing, focus groups, and mathematics
(c) Optimization models, interviews, and questionnaries
(d) Survey, strategic planning, and group problem solving

18. The Hawthorne Studies were initially devised to study:

(a) Productivity levels of groups versus individuals
(b) The effect of noise on employee productivity
(c) The effect of illumination levels on employee productivity
(d) The effect of cooperative versus competitive organizational environments on productivity
19. Which of the following is considered a systems input?
(a) Management activities
(b) Financial results
(c) Operations methods
(d) Raw materials

20. A manager who believes that no one set of principles applies equally to all work environments is most
likely advocating which management approach?
(a) Contingency
(b) Workplace diversity
(c) Organizational behaviour
(d) Knowledge management

1-Non-monetary benefits given to employees include

(A) Bonus

(B) Job enrichment

(C) Pension

(D) Stock options

2-An example of secondary strike is

(A) Listening or cat call strikes

(B) Token or protest strikes

(C) Sympathy strikes

(D) Tool-down or pen down strikes

3-Which method of management training is not a part of ‘off the job method’?
(A) Simulation

(B) Project assignment

(C) Role playing

(D) Case study

4-watered capital means, the difference between

(A) Long term working capital and short term working capital

(B) net working and gross working capital

(C) the book value and the realizable value of assets

(D) the market value and book value of assets

5-As per the WTO agreement, TRIMs allows
(A) foreign investment at par with domestic investment

(B) exclusive marketing rights in domestic market

(C) reduction in tariff duties on marine products

(D) None of the above

6-The technique of acquiring material and manufacturing goods only as needed to satisfy customers orders is
called as
(A) Just in time

(B) Maintaining levels of stock

(C) Buffer stock

(D) Economic Order Quantity

7-What is the participative performance appraisal method?

(A) Human Resource Accounting Method

(B) Management by Objectives Method

(C) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Method

(D) 360 Degree Appraisal

8-The main symptom of undertrading is

(A) Low inventory turnover ratio

(B) High inventory turnover ratio

(C) High current ratio

9-The World Trade Organization (WTO) started functioning from

(A) 1st January 1980
(B) 1st January 1975
(C) 1st January 1995
(D) 1st January 1990

10-Product positioning is an act of

(A) distributing through retailers

(B) distributing through wholesalers

(C) marketing through internet

(D) occupying a distinct image in the customers’ mind

ANSWERS:
1-(B), 2-(C), 3-(B), 4-(D), 5-(A), 6-(A), 7-(B), 8-(C), 9-(C), 10-(D)
11-Terminal cash flow is calculated as

(A) After tax salvage value from new asset – After tax salvage value of old asset (if retained)

(B) Operating cash flow from new asset – Operating cash flow from old asset which is retained

(C) Cost of new asset – Cost of old asset

(D) Cash flow with project – Cash flow without project

12-Select a proper reason for Skimming Price Policy

(A) There is greater elasticity of demand

(B) To discourage rivals to enter in market

(C) At initial stage there is less elastic demand

(D) To have stronghold on the market share

13-Marketing myopia refers to

(A) Broad perception of marketing

(B) Narrow perception of marketing

(C) Scope of marketing

(D) Functions of marketing

14-What will be the dividend per share of a company for the year 2011?
When – EPS – Rs. 3, DPS – Rs. 1.2, Target payout ratio – 0.6, Adjustment ratio – 0.7
Apply Linter Model.
(A) 1.62

(B) 1.26

(C) 1.66

(D) 2.16

15-Which of the following groups would you consider on priority, when a new product is to be introduced
into the market?
(A) Competitors

(B) Consumers

(C) Dealers
(D) Employees

16-Every Day Low Pricing (EDLP) is a type of

(A) Probe pricing

(B) Trial pricing

(C) Value pricing

(D) Standard pricing

17-The standard and the actual requirements of material of a company are as under: Standard – 2400 units
at the rate of Rs. 20 per unit. Actual – 2600 units at the rate of Rs. 19 per unit. The material cost variance is
(A) Rs. 1,400 (adverse)

(B) Rs. 2,400 (adverse)

(C) Rs. 1,400 (favorable)

(D) Rs. 2,600 (adverse)

18-Which of the following statements is correct for formal organization?

(A) There is no need for co-ordination

(B) There is a network of personal and social relations

(C) The main purpose is to develop relationship

(D) There is superior-subordinate relationship throughout the organization

19-Which of the following is not a type of communication?

(A) Formal communication

(B) Vertical communication

(C) Breakout communication

(D) Upward communication

20-Interviewing variables of quality of work life consists of

(A) Individual factors

(B) Job satisfaction

(C) Organizational factors

(D) Job factors

ANSWERS:
11-(A), 12-(C), 13-(B), 14-(A), 15-(A), 16-(C), 17-(A), 18-(D), 19-(C), 20-(B)
21-A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio 1:2. C is admitted and the new profit sharing ratio is
1:2:3. Sacrificing ratio is
(A) 1:3

(B) 2:1

(C) 3:1

(D) 1:2

22-It is sometimes referred to as scalar organization.

(A) Functional organization

(B) Line organizational

(C) Line and Staff organization

(D) Matrix organization

23-LIBOR is related to calculation of

(A) Reserves and Surplus

(B) Depreciation

(C) Amortisation

(D) International Based Interest Rates

24-CRR is related to
(A) Credit Rating Ratio

(B) Courier Representative Relationship

(C) Customer Repo Rate

(D) Controlling Liquidity Ratio

25-Principal of Unity of Command means

(A) The subordinate should receive orders and instructions from only one supervisor

(B) The flow of authority should flow one top to bottom

(C) There must be unity of purpose

(D) All activities must be co-ordinated effectively

26-Excess of average profit earned by the firm over and above its normal profit is
(A) Bumper profit

(B) Normal profit

 (C) Super profit

(D) Excess profit

27-A complex set of forces affects the nature of organization; one of these is
(A) Structure

(B) Goals

(C) Interpersonal relationship

(D) Research

28-MIGA is related to
(A) Cargo insurance

(B) Life Insurance

(C) Non-Life Insurance

(D) FDI Insurance

29-Expectancy theory of motivation was developed by

(A) Victor Vroom

(B) Clayton Alderfer

(C) George Terry

(D) Douglas McGregor

30-Prime cost =
(A) Direct material + Direct labour + Indirect expenses

(B) Indirect labour + Direct expenses + selling expenses

(C) Direct material + Direct labour + Direct expenses

(D) Indirect Material + Direct labour + administrative expenses

ANSWERS:
21-(D), 22-(B), 23-(D), 24-(D), 25-(A), 26-(C), 27-(A), 28-(D), 29-(A), 30-(C)
Question: 753 Management is defined as;

A. getting things done so that demand is fulfilled

B. getting things done through other people
C. to know what actually has been produced and which should have been
D. to work for others.
E.

Question: 754 Management is :

A. an art
B. a science
C. both an art and a science
D. neither an art nor a science
E.

Question: 755 Administrative Management means:

A. coordinating and communicating in the organization with the responsibility for overall operations of the enterprise
B. coordinating the activities of sales and making people
C. a body which is concerned in setting various rules to run a business concern
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 756 The difference between administration and management is that:

A. administration is largely while management is essentially executive

B. management is largely determinative while administration is essentially executive
C. management is performed at higher level of management while administration is performed at lower levels
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 757 The founder of scientific management movement was:

A. Henri Fayol
B. F.W.Taylor
C. Elton Mayo
D. M.P.Follett.
E.

Question: 758 Paternalism refer to :

A. the hiring of many father -son teams of employees

B. the governing of a people in a fatherly manner
C. a very autocratic ,directive leadership pattern
D. the handicraft method of production.
E.

Question: 760 Taylor's pig iron experiment were cost-effective.For example:

A. Schmidt produced four times as much for a 60% incentive

B. Schmidt produced ten times as much for a 100% incentive
C. Schmidt produced the same amount for a 10% incentive
D. Schmidt produced four times as much for no additional pay.
E.
 Question: 761 The person at the top of the organizational hierarchy is least likely to be called;

A. President
B. General Manager
C. Executive officer
D. First-line supervisor.
E.

Question: 762 The primary measure of the effectiveness of a manager is :

A. the number of employees supervised

B. the total size of the organization
C. the results obtained
D. how busy the person is .
E.

Question: 763 A study to Mintzberg characterized the manager's job as:

A. ordered
B. verbal
C. routine
D. structured.
E.

Question: 764 In comparison to top level managers, a first -line supervisor will spend more time in :

A. direction of subordinates
B. policy making
C. public relations
D. long range planning

753 . D 754 . C 755 . B 756 . A 757 . A 758 . C 760 . A 761 . D 762 . C 763 . B 764 . A

Question: 763 A study to Mintzberg characterized the manager's job as:

A. ordered
B. verbal
C. routine
D. structured.
E.

Question: 764 In comparison to top level managers, a first -line supervisor will spend more time in :

A. direction of subordinates
B. policy making
C. public relations
D. long range planning
E.

Question: 765 Technical supervisor will be most needed where:

 A. operations are complex and organizational level is low
B. operations are simple and organizational level is low
C. operations are simple and organizational level is high
D. operations are complex and organizational level is high
E.

Question: 766 In the economic model of the firm,the input that is NOT explicitly included is :

A. materials
B. money
C. information
D. machines.
E.

Question: 767 The lowest management level in the hierarchy is engaged in:

A. adaptation
B. processing
C. coordination
D. operations control
E.

Question: 768 According to Theo Haimann,a managerial linking process would be:

A. communication
B. coordination
C. adaptation
D. representing ,
E.

Question: 769 The managerial task most clearly identified with the external environment is :

A. operations control
B. adaptation
C. coordination
D. processing
E.

Question: 770 The first person to suggest the of functions of management was:

A. Henri Fayol
B. F.W.Taylor
C. Elton Mayo
D. P.F.Drucker.
E.

Question: 771 To the extent that an executive is carrying out the functions of planning ,organizing ,staffing ,directing
and controlling ,he is involved in:

A. managerial activities
B. technical activities
C. financial activities
D. non-managerial activities.
E.

Question: 772 The time spent on technical activities is usually greatest at the --------managerial level:

A. top
B. middle
C. first-line
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 773 Which level of management would be most involved in the function of planning and organizing ?

A. top
B. middle
C. first level
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 774 Which level of management would be most involved in the function of directing and controlling?

A. top
B. middle
C. first level
D. all of these.

763 . B 764 . A 765 . A 766 . C 767 . D 768 . A 769 . B 770 . A 771 . A 772 . C 773
.A 774 . C

Question: 773 Which level of management would be most involved in the function of planning and organizing ?

A. top
B. middle
C. first level
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 774 Which level of management would be most involved in the function of directing and controlling?

A. top
B. middle
C. first level
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 775 The identification of objectives and the formulation of policies,procedures and methods make up the:

A. planning process
B. organizing process
C. directing process
D. controlling process
E.

Question: 776 Planning function of management is relatively more performed by:

A. top management
B. middle management
C. lower management
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 777 The determination and grouping of activities,delegation of authority, span of management etc,are
involved in the function of :

A. planning
B. organizing
C. directing
D. controlling
E.

Question: 778 The result of the process of organising are typically represented by means of an:

A. organization
B. organization manual
C. organization matrix
D. organization committee.
E.

Question: 779 The managerial function of organizing is :

A. to review and adjust plan in the light of changing conditions

B. to establish a program for the accomplishment of objectives
C. to create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people
D. to get things done through and with the help of people.
E.

Question: 780 According to "Scalar Principle of Organization"

A. a manager can directly supervise a limited number of people

B. the line of authority must be clearly defined
C. exceptionally complex problems are referred to higher levels of management
D. each subordinate should have one superior,
E.

Question: 781 Managerial planning should take place:

A. before doing work

B. after facts are known about the future
C. after the constraints of the managerial efforts are minded
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 782 An outstanding characteristic of managerial planning is that it is :

A. made up of variable components only

B. a tentative process
C. impervious to the influence of the human elements
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 783 The chief informational needs required for effective planning are:

A. objective,personnel and political

B. environmental,competitive and of the individual enterprise
C. environmental,political and price levels
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 784 Which of the following represents the proper sequence of events?

A. execution-planning-control
B. planning-control-execution
C. control-executive-planning
D. planning-executive-control

773 . A 774 . C 775 . A 776 . A 777 . B 778 . A 779 . C 780 . B 781 . A 782 . B 783
.B 784 . D

Question: 783 The chief informational needs required for effective planning are:

A. objective,personnel and political

B. environmental,competitive and of the individual enterprise
C. environmental,political and price levels
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 784 Which of the following represents the proper sequence of events?

A. execution-planning-control
B. planning-control-execution
C. control-executive-planning
D. planning-executive-control
E.

Question: 785 Several results are known to be a product of formalized planning .Which is the least likely?

A. the company will grow faster

B. performance will improve
C. the need for control will decrease
D. profits will improve.
E.

Question: 786 When performance is measure and evaluated against the plans,several alternatives may be
pursed.Which of the following would probably NOT be a viable option?

A. modify the measurement technique

B. modify the plans
C. modify operations
D. take no action.
E.

Question: 787 Three types of plans are usually used in large business corporations.Which of the following is least
useful?

A. strategic
B. annuual operating
C. short-range operational
D. informal
E.

Question: 788 What is the typical time horizon for long-range(strategic) plans for most organizations?

A. 3 to 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
E.

Question: 789 The most current flow of formalized planning process is initiated at:

A. the top and flows downwards

B. the middle levels and flows up and down
C. the top and bottom and flows toward the middle
D. the bottom and flows upwards.
E.

Question: 790 The accuracy of a forecast is least dependent upon :

A. the plan
B. the time span involved
C. the number of influencing variables
D. the predictability of the variables
E.

Question: 791 The most popular technological forecasting method is :

A. trend extrapolations
B. scenario writing
C. delphi technique
D. model building .
E.

Question: 792 The best way to keep up with socio-cultural trends is through:

A. delphi technique
B. reading trade journals
C. contacting government agencies
D. wharton econometric model
E.

Question: 793 The forecasting technique involving expert-opinions is:

A. sale force composite

B. time -series forecast
C. correlation analysis
D. econometric model.
E.

Question: 794 MBA evaluates the performance of operating units and individuals in terms of :

A. employee characteristics
B. employee personal traits
C. objective work goals
D. all of these.

783 . B 784 . D 785 . C 786 . A 787 . D 788 . C 789 . A 790 . A 791 . C 792 . B 793
.A 794 . C

Question: 793 The forecasting technique involving expert-opinions is:

A. sale force composite

B. time -series forecast
C. correlation analysis
D. econometric model.
E.

Question: 794 MBA evaluates the performance of operating units and individuals in terms of :

A. employee characteristics
B. employee personal traits
C. objective work goals
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 795 Concern about Government's fiscal and momentary policy has been most prevalent on the ------scene.

A. domestic
B. international
C. both domestic nor international
D. neither domestic nor international.
E.
 Question: 796 The situation which leads to the greatest difficulty in planning is the one in which prices in an industry
are:

A. slowly increasing
B. slowly decreasing
C. subject to change in unanticipated ways
D. subject to no change.
E.

Question: 797 Sales forecast is particularly useful when the market demand for a firm's products or services has been
historically :

A. stable
B. unstable
C. both stable and unstable
D. none of these .
E.

Question: 798 Planning function of management is performed by:

A. top management
B. middle management
C. lower management
D. all of these levels.
E.

Question: 799 The final step in long -range planning is :

A. develop and planning premises

B. control to the plans
C. establish strategies
D. execute the plan.
E.

Question: 800 The statement "We desire to reduce absenteeism to 3.4% by March 15,1990" is an example of:

A. an objective
B. a strategy
C. a policy
D. a rule.
E.

Question: 801 The statement "No smoking in the factory" is an example of :

A. an objective
B. a strategy
C. a policy
D. a rule.
E.

Question: 802 Effecttve polities result in all but which of the following:
 A. provides consistency in company operations
B. refer most decision upto top management
C. a facilitates delegation for decisions to other managers.
D.
E.

Question: 803 The least common,rarely feasible ,approach to developing strategy and long -rang plans is :

A. have top management do it

B. delegate the responsibility to subordinates
C. use of professional staff
D. use a long-range planning committee.
E.

Question: 804 The most accurate statement regarding long-range planning is that:

A. execution follow control

B. strategies follow objectives
C. objectives precede planning staff
D. resource requirements precede program activities.

793 . A 794 . C 795 . A 796 . C 797 . B 798 . D 799 . B 800 . A 801 . D 802 . B 803
.B 804 . B

Question: 803 The least common,rarely feasible ,approach to developing strategy and long -rang plans is :

A. have top management do it

B. delegate the responsibility to subordinates
C. use of professional staff
D. use a long-range planning committee.
E.

Question: 804 The most accurate statement regarding long-range planning is that:

A. execution follow control

B. strategies follow objectives
C. objectives precede planning staff
D. resource requirements precede program activities.
E.

Question: 805 What is the typical time horizon for long-range plans for most organization ;

A. 3 to 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
E.

Question: 806 The best statement of a goal is :

A. increase our sales by 22 percent

B. change our method of assembly by June 17
C. reduce the scrap rate 35% before year end
D. do a better job than we did previously.
E.

Question: 807 The participation rate of large firms (Fortune 's 500 largest U.S .Corporations )in MBO systems has
been:

A. none of them have tried it

B. about 15 percent
C. about 70 percent
D. all of them have tried it .
E.

Question: 808 The proper sequence of MBO activities is :

A. implement the program,define the job,set objectives,evaluate performance

B. evaluate performance,define the job,set objectives,implement the program
C. set objectives,evaluate performance,implement the program
D. define the job ,set objectives, evaluate performance,implement the program.
E.

Question: 809 Advantage of MBO is that :

A. a worker's job tasks become more clarified

B. worker's may adhere rapidly to establish goals
C. appraisals are now based on results
D. Self-evaluation and self-control are emphasized more than before.
E.

Question: 810 The decision to promote the sale of service contrasts with T.V .sales to ensure that customers maintain
the T.V.properly is an example of :

A. imposed policy
B. originated policy
C. appealed policy
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 811 A policy a paying 8.33% of the pay as bonus to employees every years that is formulated because of
"Payment of Bonus Act" is an example of :

A. imposed policy
B. originated policy
C. appealed policy
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 812 A decision to restrict the distribution of sugar,vanaspati etc.before a week to the buget presentation in
the Parliament constitutes a:
 A. production policy
B. finance policy
C. sales policy
D. personnel policy
E.

Question: 813 The decision to locate new plants within a certain distance from the major market area constitutes a:

A. production policy
B. finance policy
C. sale policy
D. personnel policy.
E.

Question: 814 The decision to lease rather than purchase retail sales outlets is an example of the formation of:

A. production policy
B. finance policy
C. sales policy
D. personnel policy.

803 . B 804 . B 805 . C 806 . C 807 . C 808 . D 809 . B 810 . B 811 . A 812 . C 813
.A 814 . B

Question: 813 The decision to locate new plants within a certain distance from the major market area constitutes a:

A. production policy
B. finance policy
C. sale policy
D. personnel policy.
E.

Question: 814 The decision to lease rather than purchase retail sales outlets is an example of the formation of:

A. production policy
B. finance policy
C. sales policy
D. personnel policy.
E.

Question: 815 The decision that applicants should be placed in an apprentice program on the basis of ability test is an
example of a:

A. production policy
B. finance policy
C. sales policy
D. personnel policy.
E.

Question: 816 The basic policy,which is very broad in scope and affects the organization as a whole ,used mainly by:
 A. top managers
B. middle managers
C. first-level managers
D. lower managers
E.

Question: 817 A great deal of which type of policy formulation indicates that top managers have not successfully
anticipated the policy needs of the organization?

A. appealed policy
B. imposed policy
C. originated policy
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 818 A description of how each of a series of takes is to take place when it will take place and by whom it is to
be accomplished is normally included in a statement of :

A. objectives
B. policy
C. procedures
D. methods.
E.

Question: 819 The selection of action represents the culmination of the :

A. control process
B. planning process
C. management process
D. decision-making process
E.

Question: 820 The vast majority of supervisory decision are:

A. intuitive
B. judgemental
C. problem-solving
D. group decisions
E.

Question: 821 The decision making process has several characteristics. Which of the following wing is NOT typically
included?

A. it is goal oriented
B. it occurs in sequential chains
C. it occurs over time
D. it cannot be learned in the classroom
E.

Question: 822 The decision making process is conducted in three different ways .Which is NOT a typically method?
 A. intuitively
B. based on judgement
C. by fate
D. by a problem solving process.
E.

Question: 823 Business firms typically seek ------- solutions to problems:

A. minimal
B. satisfactory
C. maximal
D. optional
E.

Question: 824 The decision making -process is made up of :

A. diagnosis
B. discovery of alternatives
C. analysis of alternatives
D. all of these.

813 . A 814 . B 815 . D 816 . A 817 . A 818 . C 819 . D 820 . B 821 . D 822 . C 823
.B 824 . D

Question: 823 Business firms typically seek ------- solutions to problems:

A. minimal
B. satisfactory
C. maximal
D. optional
E.

Question: 824 The decision making -process is made up of :

A. diagnosis
B. discovery of alternatives
C. analysis of alternatives
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 825 The function of diagnosis is:

A. to identify and clarify a problem

B. to discover various alternatives
C. to analyse the different alternatives
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 826 An accurate diagnosis depends on:

A. a definition of organizational objectives

B. identifying major obstacles
C. definition of objectives and identification of obstacles
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 827 The principle of limiting factor states that in choosing from among alternatives the more individuals
can identify and solve for those factors which are critical to :

A. formulation of organizational policies,rules,procedures and strategies,the more clearly and accurately they can select
the most favourable alternatives
B. the attainment of desired goal,the more clearly and accurately they can select the most favourable alternative
C. organizational efficacy, the more clearly and accurately they can select the most viable alternatives
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 828 Synergy is an important technique of :

A. management of audit
B. performance appraisal
C. decision making
D. financial planning .
E.

Question: 829 Creative behaviour is made more likely:

A. when it is rewarded
B. when the level of stress is appropriate
C. when adequate time is available for considering a problem
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 830 One disadvantage of group participation in decision making is :

A. time required
B. knowledge available
C. motivation of the members
D. effect on morale.
E.

Question: 831 The primary advantage of the nominal group techniques over brain storming is :

A. complex problem can be solved

B. stronger persons have a better chance for impact
C. evaluation is deferred
D. group-think is prevented.
E.

Question: 832 The managerial skill most clearly advocated is :

A. procrastination
B. indecisiveness
C. timidity
D. integration.
E.

Question: 833 Top management decision making is distinctively characterized by:

A. more uncertainty and less reliance on judgement

B. more uncertainly and greater reliance on judgement
C. less uncertainly and greater reliance on judgement
D. less uncertainly and less reliance on judegement.
E.

Question: 834 The least plausible reason for students to study top management decision making is :

A. they will be better able to interact with CEO"S

B. specialised job assignment will not prepare them well for a general management orientation
C. many will probably become CEO's
D. they will gain a broad (systems) perspective

823 . B 824 . D 825 . A 826 . C 827 . A 828 . C 829 . D 830 . A 831 . D 832 . D 833
.B 834 . C

Question: 833 Top management decision making is distinctively characterized by:

A. more uncertainty and less reliance on judgement

B. more uncertainly and greater reliance on judgement
C. less uncertainly and greater reliance on judgement
D. less uncertainly and less reliance on judegement.
E.

Question: 834 The least plausible reason for students to study top management decision making is :

A. they will be better able to interact with CEO"S

B. specialised job assignment will not prepare them well for a general management orientation
C. many will probably become CEO's
D. they will gain a broad (systems) perspective.
E.

Question: 835 The extent of factual analysis, which is based on mathematical model building and which has been
found to be useful in decision making,is called:

A. operations research
B. simultation method
C. linear programing
D. any of the above.
E.

Question: 836 What are the three important organization universal ?

A. people ,purpose and environment

B. people ,purpose and hierarchy
C. purpose,hierarchy and environment
D. hierarchy ,environment and purpose
E.

Question: 837 A foremost in importance in managerial organizing is (are):

A. cost
B. time
C. tasks
D. people.
E.

Question: 838 A key organizational variables is that they :

A. vary across organizations but not over time

B. vary over time but not across organizations
C. neither vary over time nor across organizations
D. both vary over time and across organizations.
E.

Question: 839 All of the are benefits to be expected from organizing expect:

A. provides guidelines for individual performance

B. creates conflict over jurisdictions
C. establishes a promotional for employees
D. establishes channels for communication and decision making
E.

Question: 840 The primary components of organizations include all but;

A. people
B. activities
C. objectives and results
D. company history
E.

Question: 841 The subordinate -acceptance approach to authority is based on:

A. the non-manager recognizing someone must make decisions

B. the opportunity to contribute to group's efforts
C. the manager winning the support
D. all of these
E. none of these.

Question: 842 The responsibility of the foreman is to :

A. maintain the required finished inventory

B. direct the work of operators and fulfill output schedules
C. raise the quality of work
D. control and complete costs.
E.

Question: 843 Formal organization comes into being:

A. when persons are able to communicate,willing to act and share a purpose

B. where persons are able to communicate and willing to act
C. where persons marshall their resources in such fashion as maximum return is ensured
D. when persons are ready to act and share a purpose.
E.

Question: 844 Within organization ,members with common social interests normally band together to form:

A. dysfunctional groups
B. informal groups
C. role groups
D. none of these.

833 . B 834 . C 835 . D 836 . A 837 . D 838 . D 839 . B 840 . D 841 . D 842 . B 843
.B 844 . A

Question: 843 Formal organization comes into being:

A. when persons are able to communicate,willing to act and share a purpose

B. where persons are able to communicate and willing to act
C. where persons marshall their resources in such fashion as maximum return is ensured
D. when persons are ready to act and share a purpose.
E.

Question: 844 Within organization ,members with common social interests normally band together to form:

A. dysfunctional groups
B. informal groups
C. role groups
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 845 Work distribution charging is primarily a technique of :

A. performance appraisal
B. organizational analysis
C. transactional analysis
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 846 The firm's internal organization structure often needs revision because of :

A. the death of a key executive

B. nepotism
C. excessive competition
D. seasonal variation in demand
E. the changing scope of business operations

Question: 847 The descriptive word most clearly associated with the organic approach to structure is :

A. static
B. rigid
C. bureaucratic
D. dynamic.
E.

Question: 848 Principles of absoluteness of responsibility is one of:

A. major control principles

B. major principles of sound organization
C. major principles of staffing
D. major principles of planning.
E.

Question: 849 Organization chart is an important technique of :

A. analysis of any organization

B. analysis of non-formal organization
C. analysis of formal organization
D. analysis of informal organization.
E.

Question: 850 Most organization charts are displayed on which basis:

A. vertical
B. horizontal
C. circular
D. three-dimensional.
E.

Question: 851 A prime example of an integrating mechanism is :

A. organization manual
B. scalar chain
C. job description
D. all of the above.
E.

Question: 852 It is generally agree that the most important activity of the Board of Directors is :

A. trusteeship
B. assisting in public relations
C. selection of executives
D. none of these.
E.
 Question: 853 Guidelines for establishing vertical layers include all but which one of the following:

A. keep the number of levels to a minimum

B. place decision making at the highest level it can be efficiently handled
C. avoid duplication in the chain of command
D. authority and responsibility should be clearly defined.
E.

Question: 854 Traditional principles authority are limited by the fact that they are:

A. too general to provide guidance needed in application

B. too complex by involving the by dynamics of human behaviour
C. too flexible in the organization that results
D. too personal in their inclusion of motivational considerations.

843 . B 844 . A 845 . A 846 . E 847 . D 848 . B 849 . C 850 . A 851 . A 852 . A 853
.B 854 . A

Question: 853 Guidelines for establishing vertical layers include all but which one of the following:

A. keep the number of levels to a minimum

B. place decision making at the highest level it can be efficiently handled
C. avoid duplication in the chain of command
D. authority and responsibility should be clearly defined.
E.

Question: 854 Traditional principles authority are limited by the fact that they are:

A. too general to provide guidance needed in application

B. too complex by involving the by dynamics of human behaviour
C. too flexible in the organization that results
D. too personal in their inclusion of motivational considerations.
E.

Question: 855 The removal of an unpleasant stimulus is called:

A. punishment
B. positive reinforcement
C. negative reinforcement
D. the law of effect.
E.

Question: 856 Among the following ,the term with the broadest scope is :

A. authority
B. influence
C. power
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 857 The source of power most likely to be used by a person with charisma is :
 A. reward
B. coercive
C. referent
D. expect.
E.

Question: 858 Which regard to power and authority ,we may conclude all but which one of the following :

A. authority is only one source of influence among many

B. supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results
C. constant reliance on authority indicates a potential supervisory problem
D. group acceptance of authority is necessary for it to become useful influence.
E.

Question: 859 The process of delegation ideally includes all but which task ?

A. specification of decisions to be made

B. statement of the method of accomplishment to be used
C. definition of assignment
D. delincation of expected results.
E.

Question: 860 The ratio of the number of subordinates that a manager can effectively supervise is :

A. six to one
B. eight to one
C. twelve to one
D. it depends on a number of other factors.
E.

Question: 861 Given a fixed number of employees in an organization:

A. a board span of management to result in a flat structure

B. a narrow span tends to result in few levels in a hierarchy
C. a broad span tends to result in several (more)levels in a hierarchy
D. there is no relationship between span of management and shape of structure or number of levels.
E.

Question: 862 Centralization is a system of:`

A. planning
B. organizing
C. staffing
D. directing.
E.

Question: 863 An advantage of centralization is :

A. it reduces the workload of over burdened executives

B. it helps develop managerial talent
C. it achieves more conformity and coordination
D. decision can be made more quickly.
E.

Question: 864 Line function are concerned with those activities which are connected with the discharge of ;

A. direct responsibility for accomplishing the subsidiary objectives of the organization

B. direct responsibility for accomplishing the main objectives of the organization
C. direct responsibility for taking and implementing all decisions
D. none of these.

853 . B 854 . A 855 . C 856 . B 857 . C 858 . B 859 . B 860 . D 861 . A 862 . B 863
.C 864 . B

Question: 863 An advantage of centralization is :

A. it reduces the workload of over burdened executives

B. it helps develop managerial talent
C. it achieves more conformity and coordination
D. decision can be made more quickly.
E.

Question: 864 Line function are concerned with those activities which are connected with the discharge of ;

A. direct responsibility for accomplishing the subsidiary objectives of the organization

B. direct responsibility for accomplishing the main objectives of the organization
C. direct responsibility for taking and implementing all decisions
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 865 With regard to the differentation of line and staff,we may conclude;

A. line has total authority ;staff is limited to an advisory role

B. power is shifting away from staff toward line and appropriately so
C. the continued distinction creates unfortunate psychological batters
D. there is a sharp difference between the two.
E.

Question: 866 Among large firms,committees have been reported to be used in:

A. less than 10 percent

B. about one -third
C. about two-thirds
D. over 90 percent.
E.

Question: 867 Several guides to committee management exist .Which is NOT normally advocated?

A. keep them small

B. define their purpose,goals and authority
C. distribute agendas and reports at the beginning of the meeting
D. select a strong,impartial chairperson.
E.

Question: 868 A disadvantage of the committee is :

A. the speed with which they act

B. their capacity to represent diverse interests
C. their use for developing managerial talent
D. their capacity for obtaining committee of the people involved.
E.

Question: 869 Committee are not well suited for work pertaining to :

A. review of past activities

B. innovation for improved control
C. evaluations of working conditions
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 870 Among the common approaches to departmentation are:

A. bottom-up and derivative

B. top-down and bottom-up
C. derivative and integrative
D. top-down and derivative.
E.

Question: 871 A task force is a mechanism best suited for :

A. sub-dividing the organization horizontally

B. establishing vertical layers and delegating authority
C. obtaining lateral coordination and integration
D. fitting in the individual.
E.

Question: 872 Matrix organizations are really a combination of the:

A. product and process bases

B. process and geographic bases
C. customer and functional bases
D. functional and product bases
E.

Question: 873 Span of management means :

A. a good organization should consist of departments

B. authority of each person must be clearly defined
C. each subordinate should have one superior
D. a manager can supervise a limited number of executives.
E.
 Question: 874 Which of the following is the oldest type of organization?

A. functional organization
B. line organization
C. line and staff organization
D. committee organization.

863 . C 864 . B 865 . C 866 . D 867 . C 868 . A 869 . B 870 . B 871 . C 872 . D 873
.D 874 . B

Question: 873 Span of management means :

A. a good organization should consist of departments

B. authority of each person must be clearly defined
C. each subordinate should have one superior
D. a manager can supervise a limited number of executives.
E.

Question: 874 Which of the following is the oldest type of organization?

A. functional organization
B. line organization
C. line and staff organization
D. committee organization.
E.

Question: 875 The defining characteristics of a group include all but which of the following :

A. cohesion
B. identity
C. shared interests
D. interaction.
E.

Question: 876 Due to the need for face-to -face contact,group membership seldom rises above:

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
E.

Question: 877 The need level least likely to be satisfied in most group contexts is :

A. physiological
B. security
C. social
D. esteem.
E.

Question: 878 The structure property of groups that supervisors should be most concerned about is:
 A. goals
B. norms
C. roles
D. status.
E.

Question: 879 Groups are more cohesive when;

A. they are large

B. they are isolated from outside contact
C. they have little opportunity to interact
D. their membership is heterogeneous.
E.

Question: 880 Which of the following is a dysfunctional feature of group?

A. they tend to contribute to stability

B. they are primary sources of control
C. they are important sources of need satisfactory
D. they tend to become close systems.
E.

Question: 881 A good rule to follow when organizing a group is :

A. make it large to maximise a sense of belonging

B. match the objective with the relative homogeneity of the group
C. disregard previous informal relationships and watch the new one appear
D. prevent dissidents from joining or participating .
E.

Question: 882 With regard to the nature-nature controversy , a supervisor can ;

A. control neither heredity nor the environment

B. control heredity but not the environment
C. control the environment but not heredity
D. control both heredity and the environment .
E.

Question: 883 The process of perception typically includes all but which of following?

A. interpreting data
B. creating data
C. selecting data
D. organizing data.
E.

Question: 884 Distortions in perception may as a product of :

A. the information processing mechanisms only

B. the accuracy of the processing
C. both the mechanisms and the accuracy of the processing
D. neither,perception is individualized therefore is never truly incorrect or distorted.

873 . D 874 . B 875 . A 876 . D 877 . A 878 . B 879 . B 880 . D 881 . B 882 . C 883
.B 884 . C

Question: 883 The process of perception typically includes all but which of following?

A. interpreting data
B. creating data
C. selecting data
D. organizing data.
E.

Question: 884 Distortions in perception may as a product of :

A. the information processing mechanisms only

B. the accuracy of the processing
C. both the mechanisms and the accuracy of the processing
D. neither,perception is individualized therefore is never truly incorrect or distorted.
E.

Question: 885 A supervisor is most likely to be able to directly affect an employees:

A. task assignments
B. work habits
C. personal aspirations
D. attitudes and values.
E.

Question: 886 Within an organization,members with common social intersts normally band together to form:

A. dysfunctional groups
B. informal groups
C. role status group
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 887 The emphasis of the informal organization is on :

A. the positions
B. role
C. status
D. people and their relationships.
E.

Question: 888 Leadership authority in the informal organization flows from:

A. above
B. top
C. below
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 889 The major functions performed by informal groups are:

A. helping group members to attain their specific objectives

B. providing social satisfaction to get members
C. serving as a communication medium
D. serving as the agency for social control of behaviour
E. all of these.

Question: 890 The control that informal groups exert over the behaviour of members of the group itselg:

A. internal social control

B. external social control
C. functional control
D. self-control.
E.

Question: 891 Sociogram is a technique adopted for;

A. understanding degree of social responsibility of a business unit

B. analysing an informal organization
C. understanding technical characteristic of a work group
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 892 The grapevine is often :

A. completely accurate
B. 80 percent accurate
C. 20 percent accurate
D. never accurate.
E.

Question: 893 Dysfunctions are best defined as :

A. informal organization characteristics that permit non-formal behaviour to exist

B. formal organization characteristics that permit formal behaviour to exist
C. formal organization characteristics that permit behaviour to exist
D. informal organization characteristics that permit formal behaviour to exist.
E.

Question: 894 Personal problems exist:

A. only in large firms

B. in all firms regardless of size
C. only in firms that have no personal departments
D. only in unionized firms.
 883 . B 884 . C 885 . A 886 . B 887 . D 888 . B 889 . E 890 . A 891 . B 892 . B 893
.B 894 . B

Question: 893 Dysfunctions are best defined as :

A. informal organization characteristics that permit non-formal behaviour to exist

B. formal organization characteristics that permit formal behaviour to exist
C. formal organization characteristics that permit behaviour to exist
D. informal organization characteristics that permit formal behaviour to exist.
E.

Question: 894 Personal problems exist:

A. only in large firms

B. in all firms regardless of size
C. only in firms that have no personal departments
D. only in unionized firms.
E.

Question: 895 Staffing function of management comprises the activities of :

A. selecting the suitable person for positions

B. defining the requirements with regard to the people for the job to be done
C. training and developing staff to accomplish their task more effectively
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 896 The employee services department would probably NOT have responsibility for :

A. publications
B. recreation programs
C. safety
D. grievance handing.
E.

Question: 897 The process involved in terminating an employee would most likely be handled by:

A. employment
B. employment services
C. labour relations
D. training.
E.

Question: 898 Suppose you are the General Manager of a company and as such have to deal with people and
resources.An idea strikes your mind which is bound to improve the productivity of the organization ,but you know that
employees will resent it.

A. try to implement the idea inspite of their resentment

B. drop the idea since you know that they will not welcome it
C. educate your employees gradually and wait for such a time when it might be implemented conveniently
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 899 Of the following ,the poorest advice for a job seeker is to :

A. prepare a professional resume

B. identify potential employee through classified advertisement s
C. make potential job contacts through your friends
D. establish career and pursue them flexibly.
E.

Question: 900 The selection interview often focuses on all but the candidate's

A. ability to communicate
B. age
C. education
D. work experience.
E.

Question: 901 The proportion of terms using selection tests today is approximately:

A. none
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E.

Question: 902 Psychological tests for executive selection are helpful ,but have a serious imitation ,which is :

A. cost in terms of time and of interpretative grading

B. lack of agreement on what traits should be included
C. dislike of many competent managerial candidates in being subjected to them
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 903 One of the main reasons for obtaining a manager from outside an enterprise is :

A. to obtain fresh idea and new applications of management

B. to enhance the public image of the enterprise being good place to work
C. to avoid a moral problem among old employees
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 904 The favouring of relatives of the firm's excutives when promotions come up is known as:

A. partiality
B. patronage
C. nepotism
D. red tappism.
 893 . B 894 . B 895 . D 896 . D 897 . A 898 . C 899 . B 900 . B 901 . C 902 . B 903
.A 904 . C

Question: 903 One of the main reasons for obtaining a manager from outside an enterprise is :

A. to obtain fresh idea and new applications of management

B. to enhance the public image of the enterprise being good place to work
C. to avoid a moral problem among old employees
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 904 The favouring of relatives of the firm's excutives when promotions come up is known as:

A. partiality
B. patronage
C. nepotism
D. red tappism.
E.

Question: 905 The procedure followed in discovering all of the facts about a group of jobs is ;

A. job analysis
B. job specification
C. job evaluation
D. job rotation.
E.

Question: 906 The shifting of an employee from one of another that does not involve the assumption of greater
responsibilities is know as:`

A. shifting
B. transfer
C. exchange
D. termination.
E.

Question: 907 When an employee is temporarily separated from a company this is called:

A. discharge
B. exclusion
C. lay off
D. termination.
E.

Question: 908 A collection of tasks,duties and responsibilities assigned to and performed by a single individual is a :

A. job
B. occupation
C. position
D. grade.
E.
 Question: 909 Process of collecting and analysing information about the duties,responsibilities and conditions of a
specific work assignment is :

A. job analysis
B. job evaluation
C. activity analysis
D. occupation analysis
E.

Question: 910 Work assignment having a specific of duties, responsibilities and conditions differing those of other
assignments is :

A. an occupation
B. an assignment
C. job
D. a position.
E.

Question: 911 Performance appraisal is useful for determining the employees:

A. retention
B. promotion
C. training
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 912 An unlikely goal of performance appraisal is :

A. to uncover training needs

B. to identify psychological problems
C. to identify candidate for promotion
D. to discuss way in which performance can be improved.
E.

Question: 913 Traditional approach to appraisal, now-a-days, have increasingly emphasized the evaluation of:

A. employee characteristics
B. employee performance
C. employee relations
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 914 One difficulty of trait-oriented appraisal system is that they:

A. fail to focus on performance

B. are not directly linked to performance
C. seldom result in improving performance
D. all of the above.

903 . A 904 . C 905 . A 906 . B 907 . C 908 . C 909 . B 910 . A 911 . D 912 . B 913
.B 914 . D
 Question: 913 Traditional approach to appraisal, now-a-days, have increasingly emphasized the evaluation of:

A. employee characteristics
B. employee performance
C. employee relations
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 914 One difficulty of trait-oriented appraisal system is that they:

A. fail to focus on performance

B. are not directly linked to performance
C. seldom result in improving performance
D. all of the above.
E.

Question: 915 The traditional method of appraisal whereby the rate lists the employees according to their level of
performance is called the:

A. ranking method
B. critical incident method
C. check list method
D. graphic scales method
E. forced distributing method.

Question: 916 The method in which the relative percentage ranking of each employee is indicated in respect to each
factor,rather than on an overall basis ,is the:

A. ranking method
B. critical incidents method
C. check list method
D. graphic scales method
E. force distribution method.

Question: 917 The method of appraisal in which the employee is rated in respect to a quantitative for each factor is
the:

A. ranking method
B. critical incidents method
C. check list method
D. graphic scales method
E. force distribution the method.

Question: 918 The method in which the rate indicates which statements in a prepared list are descriptive of the
employee or his performance is the :

A. ranking method
B. critical incidents method
C. check list method
D. graphic scales method
E. force distributing method.
 Question: 922 The method of appraisal in which the rater is required to keep a record of notable instance and failure
for each employee during the ranking period is the :

A. ranking incidents method

B. critical method
C. check list method
D. graphical scales method
E. forced distribution method

Question: 923 A relatively recent development in the area of performance appraisal by which the performance review
is oriented toward mutually established job objectives,is:

A. goal oriented appraisal

B. check list method
C. critical incidents method
D. graphical scales method.
E.

Question: 925 The formal meeting and discussion between the rater and the employee,which is held in conjunction
with a periodic appraisal of performance ,is called :

A. depth interview
B. stress interview
C. appraisal interview
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 926 A job specification would be unlikely to specify requirements for:

A. level of performance expected

B. knowledge
C. previous experience
D. physical characteristics.
E.

Question: 927

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Question: 929 The process of determining the correct rate of pay for a position is called:

A. job analysis
B. job evaluation
C. job description
D. job specification
 913 . B 914 . D 915 . A 916 . E 917 . D 918 . C 922 . B 923 . A 925 . A 926 . C 927
.A 929 . B

Question: 929 The process of determining the correct rate of pay for a position is called:

A. job analysis
B. job evaluation
C. job description
D. job specification
E.

Question: 930 The process of determining the correct rate of pay for a position is called:

A. job analysis
B. job evaluation
C. job description
D. job specification.
E.

Question: 932 Of the on-the-job methods of development ,the method which is most widely used and which concerns
the development of knowledge and skill in a particular job is :

A. coaching
B. position rotation
C. special projects
D. committee assignments.
E.

Question: 934 The on-the -job methods of development which involves assignment to additional research studies or
tasks that are not part of the usual job routine is called:

A. coaching
B. position rotation
C. special projects
D. committee assignments.
E.

Question: 935 Of the off-the -job methods of training and development,the method most frequently used to convey
special areas of knowledge is known as:

A. special training courses

B. business games
C. role playing
D. sensitive training .
E.

Question: 936 The method of participants are placed in a simulated competitive environment and operate as executive
team is :

A. special training courses

B. business games
C. role playing
D. sensitive training.
E.

Question: 937 The developmental method in which the participants have the opportunity to learn human relations
skill in a laboratory setting is :

A. special training courses

B. business games
C. role playing
D. sensitive training .
E.

Question: 938 The method in which participants meet as a group for a relatively extended period for the purpose of
achieving better self-knowledge and awareness of social interaction is :

A. special training courses

B. business games
C. role playing
D. sensitive training.
E.

Question: 939 Sensitivity training sessions:

A. are proven to be effective OD techniques

B. encourage people to express and examine their feelings and behaviour
C. work best with 20 - 30 members
D. are highly structured sessions.
E.

Question: 941 Directing functions of management embraces activtes of :

A. issuing of orders to subordinates

B. supervising of subordinates
C. communicating with subordinates
D. proving adequate leadership and motivation to subordinates
E. all of these.

Question: 945 The direction process has several characteristics.Which of the following is not typically included?

A. it is goal oriented
B. it occurs in sequential chains
C. it occurs over time
D. it cannot be learned in the classroom.

927 . A 929 . B 930 . B 932 . A 934 . C 935 . A 936 . B 937 . C 938 . D 939 . B 941
.E 945 . D

Question: 941 Directing functions of management embraces activtes of :

A. issuing of orders to subordinates

B. supervising of subordinates
C. communicating with subordinates
D. proving adequate leadership and motivation to subordinates
E. all of these.

Question: 945 The direction process has several characteristics.Which of the following is not typically included?

A. it is goal oriented
B. it occurs in sequential chains
C. it occurs over time
D. it cannot be learned in the classroom.
E.

Question: 947 In comparison to top level manager,a first-line supervisor will spend more time in :

A. direction of subordinates
B. policy making
C. public relations
D. long-range planning.
E.

Question: 949 Technical skill of a supervisor will be most needed where:

A. operations are complex and organizational level is low

B. operations are simple and organizational level is low
C. operations are simple and organizational level is high
D. operations are complex and organizational level is high.
E.

Question: 950 The vast majority of supervisory decisions are:

A. intuitive
B. judgmental
C. problem-solving
D. group decisions.
E.

Question: 951 One disadvantage of group participation in directing is :

A. time required
B. knowledge available
C. motivation of the members
D. effect on morale.
E.

Question: 953 Execution involves all of the following steps except:

A. providing direction
B. initiating operations
C. providing support resources
D. measuring performance against the plan.
E.

Question: 954 A supervisor is most likely to be able to directly affect an employees:

A. task assignment
B. work habits
C. personal aspirations
D. attitudes and values.
E.

Question: 955 The element that is a linking process of managerial functions is :

A. planning
B. controlling
C. communicating
D. representing
E.

Question: 959 Successful communication involves the occurrence of a :

A. desire change
B. undesired change
C. no change
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 961 The proportion of a time manager spends communicating is probably about:

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
E.

Question: 962 The proper sequence of elements in the expanded communication model is :

A. sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning
B. message-sender-signal-receiver-decode
C. sender-transmission-message-decode-meaning
D. message-transmission- encode-receiver-decode.

941 . E 945 . D 947 . A 949 . A 950 . B 951 . A 953 . D 954 . A 955 . C 959 . A 961
.C 962 . A

Question: 961 The proportion of a time manager spends communicating is probably about:

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
E.

Question: 962 The proper sequence of elements in the expanded communication model is :

A. sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning
B. message-sender-signal-receiver-decode
C. sender-transmission-message-decode-meaning
D. message-transmission- encode-receiver-decode.
E.

Question: 963 Among several communication options,managers are known to spend the most time in:

A. writing
B. speaking
C. reading
D. listing.
E.

Question: 966 All of the following are useful guides to listening expect:

A. stop talking
B. restate the other's comment as you heard it
C. avoid the use of idle chatter
D. show genuine concern and a willingness to listen.
E.

Question: 967 Listener's retention of information immediately after hearing it is about:

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
E.

Question: 968 Leadership implies the existence of the:

A. followers
B. leader
C. community of interests between the two
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 970 A reader typically :

A. seeks to understand and problems of his followers

B. puts plans into action and generates enthusiasm for them
C. motivates others to accomplish the required work
D. none of these
E. all of these.
 Question: 971 The relationship between leadership and management is most accurately stated as:

A. leadership is a subset of management

B. leadership and management are synonymous terms
C. there is nor relationship between leadership and management
D. mamngement is a subset of leadership.
E.

Question: 972 Leadership is best described as being :

A. creative and continuous

B. dynamic and continuous
C. decisive and dynamic
D.
E.

Question: 973 In two polls regarding business leadership in 16 social and economic areas,it was found that:

A. business should take more leadership in all areas

B. business should take more leadership in some areas, less in others
C. business should take less leadership in all areas
D. people really had little strong feeling .
E.

Question: 975 The assuming that a leader and his behaviour can not be analysed and that " a leader is leader" are
consistent with the -------approach to studying leadership.

A. great-man
B. trait
C. situational
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 976 Difficulties in defining and measuring personality characteristics of leader are problems encountered in
conjunction with the:

A. great-man approach
B. trait approach
C. situational approach
D. none of these.
E.

961 . C 962 . A 963 . D 966 . C 967 . B 968 . D 970 . E 971 . A 972 . C 973 . A 975
.A 976 . B

Question: 975 The assuming that a leader and his behaviour can not be analysed and that " a leader is leader" are
consistent with the -------approach to studying leadership.

A. great-man
B. trait
C. situational
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 976 Difficulties in defining and measuring personality characteristics of leader are problems encountered in
conjunction with the:

A. great-man approach
B. trait approach
C. situational approach
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 977 Shifring the emphasis from what the leader is to what leader does is consistent with the :

A. great-man approach
B. trait approach
C. behavioural approach
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 978 The study of leadership has focused primarily on three areas, NOT include:

A. traits
B. leadership
C. attitude and emotions
D. situational factors.
E.

Question: 979 George Homans suggest that what a leader needs is :

A. a method for analyzing the social situation

B. absolute principles for managing people
C. concepts that do not change over time or because of new conditions
D. a good set of rules.
E. a

Question: 980 The manager who motivates people by offering them greater satisfaction of their own motives they
work towards the organization 's goals is utilising:

A. positive leadership
B. negative leadership
C. centralised leadership
D. decentralised leadership
E.

Question: 982 The manager who motivates people by explicitly or implicitly threatening punishment of some kind for
non-cooperation is using:

A. positive leadership
B. negative leadership
C. centralised leadership
D. decentralised leadership
E.

Question: 983 In which leadership climate would the employee tene to " look for a way out "of the situation?

A. positive
B. negative
C. both positive and negative
D. neither positive nor negative.
E.

Question: 984 Bureaucratic leader is -------- leadership.`

A. boss centred
B. group centred
C. subordinates centred
D. rule centred.
E.

Question: 985 Democratic leadership is characteristics by:

A. decentralisation
B. two-way communication
C. participation
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 986 Autocratic leadership is characterised by :

A. maximum centralisation of authority

B. unilateral decision making
C. one-way communication
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 987 One who holds his position because of force of prestige attached to his office is called:

A. intellectual leader
B. institutional leader
C. democratic leader
D. creative leader.

975 . A 976 . B 977 . C 978 . C 979 . A 980 . A 982 . B 983 . B 984 . D 985 . D 986
.D 987 . B

Question: 986 Autocratic leadership is characterised by :

A. maximum centralisation of authority

B. unilateral decision making
C. one-way communication
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 987 One who holds his position because of force of prestige attached to his office is called:

A. intellectual leader
B. institutional leader
C. democratic leader
D. creative leader.
E.

Question: 989 Industrial leaders are developed by improving the natural talents which individuals possess through:

A. formal education
B. industrial training
C. self-development
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 991 Which motives would be most important in guiding a person's behaviour at a particular time,those that
are -----?

A. satisfied
B. unsatisfied
C. both of these
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 992 For which socio-economic group of people would the physical dimension of motiveation be most
important?

A. upper income
B. middle income
C. lower income
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 993 Achievement for its own sake and sacrifice of personal com-fort for the good of someone else or for a
cause typify the --------dimension of motivation.

A. physical
B. social
C. psychic
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 994 Needs theory of motivation was enunciated by:

A. Abraham
B. David Mc Clelland
C. Kurt Lewin
D. Herzberg.
E.

Question: 995 A.H Maslow suggested that in modern society needs are:

A. completely satisfied (100%)

B. largely satisfied (70%)
C. partially satisfied(30%)
D. unsatisfied.
E.

Question: 996 What in your opinion would be the most powerful personal objective of a Noble Prize winning chemist
working in the research department of a medical concern?

A. money
B. status
C. pride of creativity
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 997 Arrange these needs in a hierarchy in order of their power to motivate behaviour:

A. love
B. esteem
C. physiological
D. self-actualization
E. safety.

Question: 999 An employee working under a financial incentive system,who would like to produce more in order to
earn more money but would thereby loose the friendship of those in the work group,faces an--------.

A. approach -approach conflict

B. approach -avoidance conflict
C. avoidance-avoidance conflict
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1000 The junior executive who faces the choice of either working in the evening or missing a due date for a
job assignment is involved in an ----conflict situation.

A. approach -approach
B. approach-avoidance
C. avoidance-avoidance
D. none of these.

986 . D 987 . B 989 . D 991 . B 992 . C 993 . C 994 . A 995 . B 996 . C 997 . A 999
.B 1000 . C

Question: 999 An employee working under a financial incentive system,who would like to produce more in order to
earn more money but would thereby loose the friendship of those in the work group,faces an--------.

A. approach -approach conflict

B. approach -avoidance conflict
C. avoidance-avoidance conflict
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1000 The junior executive who faces the choice of either working in the evening or missing a due date for a
job assignment is involved in an ----conflict situation.

A. approach -approach
B. approach-avoidance
C. avoidance-avoidance
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1001 The foreman who"gets made" at an inspector for rejecting parts manufacture in this department
thereby exhibits:

A. aggressive response
B. withdrawal response
C. compromise response
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1002 A woman employee who" breaks down and cries"when repairman who " hits sensitive mechanism
with a wrench because he is unable to loosen it both illustrate the reaction called:

A. aggressive response
B. withdrawal response
C. compromise response
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1003 Who propunded Theory X and Theory Y?

A. Douglas Mc Gregor
B. A.H Maslow
C. Frederick Herzberg
D. David Mc Clelland.
E.

Question: 1004 The managerial assumption that people basically dislike work ,prefer to be directed,and want to avoid
responsibility has been called:

A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Theory Z
D. None of these.
E.

Question: 1031 Theory Y approach imply that great reliance should be placed on :
 A. external control
B. internal control
C. production control
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1032 Peter Drucker has been critical of Theory y for :

A. its attempt to control employees by psychological manipulation

B. totally discarding Theory X
C. stressing work as natural as play or rest
D. stressing on virtues of human nature.
E.

Question: 1035 In considering the hard or punitive verse the soft or human relations,reactions to handing the
consequences of Theory X,Mc Gregor suggest that the best alternative is :

A. hard
B. soft
C. both hard and soft
D. neither hard not soft.
E.

Question: 1036 Who propounded " Motivation Maintenance Theory?"

A. A.H.Maslow
B. Douglas Mc Gregor
C. Frederick Herzberg
D. F.W.Taylor.
E.

Question: 1038 The set of factors which is primarily concerned with things that "surround" the job are called:

A. motivational factors
B. maintenance factors
C. motivational and maintenance factors
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1040 A set of factors which are concerned with the job itself are called:

A. motivational factors
B. maintenance factors
C. both of these
D. none of these.

999 . B 1000 . C 1001 . A 1002 . B 1003 . A 1004 . A 1031 . B 1032 . A 1035 . D 1036
.C 1038 . B 1040 . A

Question: 1052 Execution involves all of the following steps except:

 A. providing direction
B. initiating operations
C. providing support resources
D. measuring performances against the plans.
E.

Question: 1053 When performance is measured and evaluated against the plans,several alternatives may be
pursued.Which of the following would probably NOT be a viable option?

A. modify the measurement technique

B. modify the plans
C. modify operations
D. take no action.
E.

Question: 1055 If control are work ,they must be specially tailored:

A. to plans and positions

B. to the individual managers and their personalities
C. to the needs for efficiency and effectiveness
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 1056 Several means are available for the determination of performance:

A. observations
B. reports
C. summaries
D. statistical data
E. all of these.

Question: 1058 All of the following are dangers inherent in over control except:

A. accenting shortrun results and ignoring longrun outcomes

B. the reduction of personal freedom and independence at work
C. the creation of anxiety and stress among workers
D. a tendency toward increased flexibility.
E.

Question: 1059 The weekenesses of direct personal observations are:

A. time consuming
B. observer's purpose may be misunderstood
C. data aquired tend to be general rather than precise
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 1060 In terms of the three focal points of control systems,people in our society generally like-----best.

A. self control
B. centralized control
C. personal control
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1062 Which focal point in the operation of control system has the classic approach to organization theory
tended to emphasize?

A. centralized control
B. personal control
C. self-control
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 1063 Which focal point in the operation of control systems does the behavioural point of view emphasize?

A. centralize control
B. personal
C. self-control
D. man-oriented.
E.

Question: 1064 For best management,controlling should be

A. profit-oriented
B. cost-oriented
C. objective-oriented
D. man-oriented.
E.

Question: 1065 In controlling ,a common means for determining performance is by means of:

A. reports
B. personal objectives
C. standards
D. key cases.
E.

Question: 1066 Customer orders received and shipments are illustrative of :

A. the input and the controlling within an enterprise

B. the close relationship between planning and controlling
C. the key points for controlling
D. the exceptional cases of controlling.

1052 . D 1053 . A 1055 . D 1056 . E 1058 . D 1059 . D 1060 . A 1062 . A 1063 . C 1064
.C 1065 . A 1066 . C

Question: 1065 In controlling ,a common means for determining performance is by means of:

A. reports
B. personal objectives
C. standards
D. key cases.
E.

Question: 1066 Customer orders received and shipments are illustrative of :

A. the input and the controlling within an enterprise

B. the close relationship between planning and controlling
C. the key points for controlling
D. the exceptional cases of controlling.
E.

Question: 1067 Included in the category of overall controls are:

A. sales budget,strategic points and organization pattern

B. ratios,break even analysis and return one investment
C. authority,standards and PERT
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1068 The control function of management embraces:

A. cost control
B. financial control
C. budgetary control
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 1070 Several types of control systems rely on quantitaive data in their measurement process
.Which type does NOT?

A. social control
B. financial control
C. production control
D. quality control.
E.

Question: 1071 A budget often appears as a projected:

A. trial balance
B. balance sheet
C. income statement
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1072 The direction of budgeting procedure is a task for :

A. operating management
B. middle management
C. top management
D.
E.

Question: 1073 One of the following budgets is probably most closely allied to the sales budget:

A. labour budget
B. production budget
C. advertising budget
D. cash budget.
E.

Question: 1074 A budget that serves as a guide to the activities of the pur-chasing department is :

A. the cash budget

B. the materials budget
C. the production budget
D.
E.

Question: 1075 The budget that is most directly concerned with the distribution of overhead expenses is
the :

A. production budget
B. cash budget
C. manufacturing budget
D.
E.

Question: 1076 Control of a departmental budget by a finance staff is an example of:

A. centralized control
B. personal control
C. self-control
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1077 The period selected for a budget should:

A. coincide with the period used for the profit and loss statement
B. include the complete cycle of activity being budget
C. be guided by the limits of the forecasts about the activities
D. all of these.

1065 . A 1066 . C 1067 . B 1068 . D 1070 . A 1071 . A 1072 . B 1073 . C 1074 . C 1075
.C 1076 . A 1077 . D

Question: 1076 Control of a departmental budget by a finance staff is an example of:

 A. centralized control
B. personal control
C. self-control
D. none of these.
E.

Question: 1077 The period selected for a budget should:

A. coincide with the period used for the profit and loss statement
B. include the complete cycle of activity being budget
C. be guided by the limits of the forecasts about the activities
D. all of these.
E.

Question: 1079 long range company budgeting is difficult because of :

A. changes in internal organization structure

B. unanticipated union wage demands
C. hampering government regulations
D. inability to forecast costs and sales volume far in advance.s
E.

Question: 1080 Robert Anthony suggests that a budgeting process is:

A. more critical in private than than public institution

B. more critical in public than private institutions
C. equally critical for both public and private
D. not critical in either one.
E.

Question: 1082 The type of budget most common in public institutions is :

A. fixed
B. variable
C. semi-variable
D. flexible.
E.

Question: 1083 Flexible budgets eliminate which cause(use)of variance?

A. from a poor estimate (or inaccurate standard)

B. from unexpected efficiency
C. from unexpected inefficiency
D. from a change in level of activity.
E.

Question: 1084 The Gantt chart is a control device for:

A. maintaining quality
B. arranging floor plans
C. machine-loading
D. scales forecasting.
E.

Question: 4145 One conclusion from the Hawthorne studies was that:

A. moral declines when employees are allowed to voice their grievances

B. workers produce at the pace dictated by the formal organic
C. social interaction with fellow workers influences job satisfaction
D. providing recognition to employees has little positive impact on productivity
E.

Question: 4146 The area of behavioral science application that emphasizes the importance of common understanding
and its assessment is ;

A. communication
B. motivation
C. leadership
D. development
E.

Question: 4147 The area of behavioral science research that focuses on the personal factors underlying high
productivity ,as well as high morale,is the area of employee:

A. communication
B. motivation
C. leadership
D. development
E.

Question: 4148 The area having to do with identifying personal characteristics and situational factors leading to
managerial success is that of:

A. communication
B. motivation
C. leadership
D. development
E.

Question: 4149 The situational variable organizations,the systems approach to management has resulted in particular
interest being given to:

A. economic
B. political
C. socio-culture
D. technological

1076 . A 1077 . D 1079 . B 1080 . B 1082 . A 1083 . D 1084 . C 4145 . C 4146 . A 4147
.B 4148 . C 4149 . D
 Question: 4148 The area having to do with identifying personal characteristics and situational factors leading to
managerial success is that of:

A. communication
B. motivation
C. leadership
D. development
E.

Question: 4149 The situational variable organizations,the systems approach to management has resulted in particular
interest being given to:

A. economic
B. political
C. socio-culture
D. technological
E.

Question: 4150 As applied in business organizations,the systems approach to management has resulted in particular
being given to:

A. behavioural factors
B. formal authority
C. information and decision process
D. none of the above
E.

Question: 4151 The first step in a situational analysis of managrial problems is :

A. decipher the situation to known which factors are significant

B. know the trade off associate with each concept
C. match appropriate concepts and techniques with the situation
D. be knowledge of the various management concepts and techniques
E.

Question: 4152 With regard to situational management,managers should:

A. adopt the practice and style of someone else who is effect

B. develop their own natural style
C. disregard their own personality in their choice of a style
D. recognise that what works well in one situation should works equally well in another situation
E.

Question: 4153 The principle that a subordinate should receive order and be responsible to only one boss is known as:

A. unity of command
B. unity of direction
C. unity of control
D.
E.
 Question: 4154 When management pays attention to more important areas and when day-to -day routine problems
are looked after by lower-level of management ,this is known as:

A. Management By Objectives(MBO)
B. Management of Exception (MBE)
C. Unity of Command
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E.

Question: 4155 Division of labour :

A. reduces efficiency
B. affects the authority-responsibility relationship
C. increases efficiency
D. causes every employee to have only one boss
E.

Question: 4156 Fayol stated that:

A. discipline is over emphasized as a need for the manager

B. the individual 's interest and desire should control the goals of the organization
C. staff is not especially important when a strong manager is available
D. the degree of centralization varies
E.

Question: 4157 Hierarchy:

A. is sometimes called a chain of command

B. should always be followed in communications
C. is never responsible for red tape
D. means fairness combined with equity
E.

Question: 4158 Current management theory is a combination of:

A. process and behaviour school

B. quantitative and systems school
C. process and systems school
D. process,quantitative and behavioural school
E.

Question: 4159 Modern management theory does not include:

A. a reduction in the application of systems theory

B. modern organization structure
C. increased research on human behaviour
D. greater attention to the management of change

4148 . C 4149 . D 4150 . C 4151 . C 4152 . B 4153 . A 4154 . B 4155 . C 4156 . D 4157
.A 4158 . C 4159 . A Question: 4158 Current management theory is a combination of:
 A. process and behaviour school
B. quantitative and systems school
C. process and systems school
D. process,quantitative and behavioural school
E.

Question: 4159 Modern management theory does not include:

A. a reduction in the application of systems theory

B. modern organization structure
C. increased research on human behaviour
D. greater attention to the management of change
E.

Question: 4160 Systems theory:

A. is believed to be the basis of a school in itself

B. is the basis for systems management
C. provides the general base for the use of computers in business
D. all of the above
E.

Question: 4161 A managerial approach that uses those aspects of management schools that meet the unique of the
individual manager is called

A. eclectic
B. behavioural
C. quantitative
D. process
E.

Question: 4162 Functionalism involves:

A. a scalar chain of command

B. assigning tasks to certain people
C. compulsory staff consultation
D. none of the above
E.

Question: 4163 An open system does not include;

A. input
B. output
C. transformation process
D. resistance to change
E.

Question: 4164 Social systems are

A. mechanical
B. biological
C. contrived
D. all of the above
E.

Question: 4165 Management functions do not include

A. developing strategy
B. formulating objectives
C. being a company spokesman
D. developing technology
E.

Question: 4177 Staffing function of management comprises the actives of :

A. selecting suitable persons for positions

B. defining the requirements with regard to the people for the job to be done
C. training and developing staff to accomplish their tasks more effectively
D. all of these
E.

Question: 4178 Staffing function of management needs to be performed:

A. only in new enterprises

B. only in going enterprises
C. both in new and going enterprises
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4179 Guiding and supervising the efforts of subordinates towards the attainment of the organization 's goals
describes the function of :

A. planning
B. organizing
C. directing
D. controlling
E.

Question: 4180 Directing function of management embraces activities of :

A. issuing orders to subordinates

B. supervising subordinates
C. guiding and teaching the subordinates
D. providing leadership and motivation to subordinates
E. all of these

4158 . C 4159 . A 4160 . C 4161 . A 4162 . B 4163 . D 4164 . C 4165 . D 4177 . D 4178
.C 4179 . C 4180 . E

Question: 4179 Guiding and supervising the efforts of subordinates towards the attainment of the organization 's goals
describes the function of :
 A. planning
B. organizing
C. directing
D. controlling
E.

Question: 4180 Directing function of management embraces activities of :

A. issuing orders to subordinates

B. supervising subordinates
C. guiding and teaching the subordinates
D. providing leadership and motivation to subordinates
E. all of these

Question: 4181 Adequate motivation of employees results in:

A. fostering in-disciplines among the subordinates

B. boosting the morale of the subordinates
C. decreasing the productivity of subordinates
D. all of these
E.

Question: 4182 "Unity of Command " principle of effective direction means:

A. subordinates should be responsible to one superior

B. there should be unity amongst subordinates
C. there should be unity amongst superiors
D. a superior can supervise a limited number of subordinates
E.

Question: 4184 Establishing standards,comparing actual results with standards and taking corrective actions are the
steps included in the process of

A. planning
B. controlling
C. directing
D. organizing
E.

Question: 4185 Control function of management cannot be performed without:

A. planning
B. organizing
C. staffing
D. motivation
E.

Question: 4187 Successful coordination of activities results from effectively carrying out the function:

A. planning
B. organizing
C. staffing
D. directing
E. all of these

Question: 4188 Line functions are concerned with those activities which are connected with the discharge of:

A. direct responsibility for accomplishing the subsidiary objectives of the organization

B. direct responsibility for accomplishing the main objectives of the organization
C. direct responsibility for accomplishing both main and subsidiary objectives of the organization
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4189 Main functions of administrative management are:

A. planning,organizing ,staffing,directing and controlling

B. planning ,organizing,directing and controlling
C. planning ,organizing,staffing and directing
D. planning,organizing,controlling and represntation
E.

Question: 4192 In terms of the sequential relationship, the first function requiring managerial attention is:

A. planning
B. coordinates
C. directing
D. controlling
E.

Question: 4194 The last function in the sequence,which culminates in the attainment of organization objectives,is:

A. organizing
B. coordinating
C. controlling
D. planning
E.

Question: 4195 Which of the following management functions are closely related?

A. planning and organizing

B. staffing and control
C. planning and control
D. planning and staffing

4179 . C 4180 . E 4181 . B 4182 . A 4184 . B 4185 . A 4187 . E 4188 . B 4189 . B 4192
.A 4194 . C 4195 . C

Question: 4179 Guiding and supervising the efforts of subordinates towards the attainment of the organization 's goals
describes the function of :

A. planning
B. organizing
C. directing
D. controlling
E.

Question: 4180 Directing function of management embraces activities of :

A. issuing orders to subordinates

B. supervising subordinates
C. guiding and teaching the subordinates
D. providing leadership and motivation to subordinates
E. all of these

Question: 4181 Adequate motivation of employees results in:

A. fostering in-disciplines among the subordinates

B. boosting the morale of the subordinates
C. decreasing the productivity of subordinates
D. all of these
E.

Question: 4182 "Unity of Command " principle of effective direction means:

A. subordinates should be responsible to one superior

B. there should be unity amongst subordinates
C. there should be unity amongst superiors
D. a superior can supervise a limited number of subordinates
E.

Question: 4184 Establishing standards,comparing actual results with standards and taking corrective actions are the
steps included in the process of

A. planning
B. controlling
C. directing
D. organizing
E.

Question: 4185 Control function of management cannot be performed without:

A. planning
B. organizing
C. staffing
D. motivation
E.

Question: 4187 Successful coordination of activities results from effectively carrying out the function:

A. planning
B. organizing
C. staffing
D. directing
E. all of these

Question: 4188 Line functions are concerned with those activities which are connected with the discharge of:

A. direct responsibility for accomplishing the subsidiary objectives of the organization

B. direct responsibility for accomplishing the main objectives of the organization
C. direct responsibility for accomplishing both main and subsidiary objectives of the organization
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4189 Main functions of administrative management are:

A. planning,organizing ,staffing,directing and controlling

B. planning ,organizing,directing and controlling
C. planning ,organizing,staffing and directing
D. planning,organizing,controlling and represntation
E.

Question: 4192 In terms of the sequential relationship, the first function requiring managerial attention is:

A. planning
B. coordinates
C. directing
D. controlling
E.

Question: 4194 The last function in the sequence,which culminates in the attainment of organization objectives,is:

A. organizing
B. coordinating
C. controlling
D. planning
E.

Question: 4195 Which of the following management functions are closely related?

A. planning and organizing

B. staffing and control
C. planning and control
D. planning and staffing

4179 . C 4180 . E 4181 . B 4182 . A 4184 . B 4185 . A 4187 . E 4188 . B 4189 . B 4192
.A 4194 . C 4195 . C

Question: 4194 The last function in the sequence,which culminates in the attainment of organization objectives,is:

A. organizing
B. coordinating
C. controlling
D. planning
E.

Question: 4195 Which of the following management functions are closely related?

A. planning and organizing

B. staffing and control
C. planning and control
D. planning and staffing
E.

Question: 4196 Which of the following functions of management are more closely related?

A. planning
B. coordination
C. motivation
D. control
E.

Question: 4198 The corporate president's job could be described as requiring:

A. high technical ability

B. high administrative ability
C. accounting operations ability
D. an aptitude for security operations
E.

Question: 4199 Which of the following is not an element of administration?

A. planning
B. organizing
C. coordinating
D. initiative
E.

Question: 4203 According to Barnard,the executive,s primary job is:

A. to establish and maintain a communication system

B. to develop and improve technical skills
C. to develop job descriptions
D. to create a climate in which production workers will increase productivity
E.

Question: 4206 Which of the following is not one of the three executive functions described by Barnard?

A. establish and maintain a communication system

B. get workers to make the necessary effort for the organization
C. develop authority relationships
D. formulate purposes and objectives of the organization
E.
 Question: 4209 Referring to staff:

A. employees can being immediately to perform productively on the job

B. it is useful to continually shift staff people from one job to another
C. a mediocre administrator who has been on the job for a while is more productive than a competent manager who has been
moving around
D. none of the above apply
E.

Question: 4211 In order to get workers to make a maximum effort,they must:

A. have excellent leadership

B. be intimidated by first line supervisors
C. be part of the overall executive communication network
D. identify with the organization
E.

Question: 4214 Understanding authority is important because:

A. authority is enough to get workers to obey

B. workers will faithfully obey any instructions if they understand them
C. the instructions must be consistent with the purpose of the organization
D. having authority is not enough to get workers to obey instructions
E.

Question: 4223 The activity of an executive manager in which we given careful consideration to future even is known
as:

A. planning
B. controlling
C. appraising
D. organizing
E. developing

Question: 4251 Goal congruence refers to a situation where:

A. personal interests of the employees are not looked after at the time of fixing company objectives
B. the goals of the company and the personal goals of the employees are in conflict with each other
C. the goals of the and the personal goals of the employees are in conflict with each other
D. none of these

4194 . C 4195 . C 4196 . D 4198 . B 4199 . D 4203 . A 4206 . C 4209 . D 4211 . A 4214
.B 4223 . A 4251 . C

Question: 4223 The activity of an executive manager in which we given careful consideration to future even is known
as:

A. planning
B. controlling
C. appraising
D. organizing
E. developing

Question: 4251 Goal congruence refers to a situation where:

A. personal interests of the employees are not looked after at the time of fixing company objectives
B. the goals of the company and the personal goals of the employees are in conflict with each other
C. the goals of the and the personal goals of the employees are in conflict with each other
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4255 The principle of limiting factor states that in choosing from among alternatives the more individuals
can identify and solve for those factors which are critical to:

A. formulation of organizational policies,rules ,procedures and strategies,the more clearly and accurately they can select
the most favourable alternative
B. the attainment of desired goal,the more clearly and accurately they can select the most favourable alternative
C. organizational efficiency and efficacy,the more clearly accurately they can select most favourable alternative
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4256 Most managers have:

A. no objectives
B. multiple objectives
C. single objectives
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4262 By " satisficing "objectives is meant:

A. accomplishing the targeted work within time and cost allowed

B. having an objective that the manager finds easy to attain
C. maintaining present competitive and profit positions
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4264 Arranging the data in a matrix form is most characteristic of:

A. monto carlo
B. linear programming
C. simultation
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4265 Within an enterprise,existent plans do not :

A. need to be considered interdependent

B. tend to beget plans
C. apply to simple,repetitive work
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4269 The responsibility of the "Production Planning and Control" department is to :

A. offset seasonal variations

B. keep work in process at a minimum
C. formulate production policy
D. schedule output to fulfill sales needs
E. avoid inventory losses

Question: 4271 Thinking in term of phases in planning helps to:

A. reduce the plan to a simple series of actions

B. keep the planned efforts on schedule
C. coordinate the separate activities within the plan
D. insurance acceptance of the plan by all concerned or affected by it
E. all of these

Question: 4274 With regard to Gantt charts:

A. they ignore costs

B. they ignore the time factor
C. they show dependent relationships between activities
D. they explicitly show quantity and quality considerations
E.

Question: 4276 Which is not type of economic forecasting?

A. extrapolation
B. user expectations
C. lead and lag indicators
D. econometrice
E.

Question: 4277 Sales may be anticipated by:

A. jury of executive opinion

B. grass-roots method
C. current sales information
D. all of the above

4223 . A 4251 . C 4255 . A 4256 . B 4262 . C 4264 . B 4265 . D 4269 . D 4271 . E 4274
.A 4276 . C 4277 . B

Question: 4276 Which is not type of economic forecasting?

A. extrapolation
B. user expectations
C. lead and lag indicators
D. econometrice
E.
 Question: 4277 Sales may be anticipated by:

A. jury of executive opinion

B. grass-roots method
C. current sales information
D. all of the above
E.

Question: 4278 An econometric model;

A. uses no - mathematical techniques

B. is not used in forecasting
C. can suggest the results of using various strategies
D. determines lag indictors.
E.

Question: 4279 An each system in the planning function is made up of four elements.The are:

A. objectives ,policies,procedures,plans
B. procedures,feedback,control plans
C. standards,inputs ,outputs, controls
D. inputs,process,outputs,feedback
E.

Question: 4280 The specified of XYZ Ltd.can accept gifts from suppliers except token gifts of purely nominal or
advertising value.It is a:

A. objectives
B. policy
C. procedure
D. method
E.

Question: 4343 Management by objectives:

A. is the opposite of job enrichment

B. does not related to establishing goals
C. is not related to establishing goals
D. gives subordinates a voice in what is goint on
E.

Question: 4344 A policy is best defined as:

A. an unwritten objective
B. a rule
C. a guide to action and decision making
D. a regulation not be violated
E.

Question: 4345 Operation research :

 A. is a research at the operation level
B. is a non-mathematical concept
C. shows how to conduct research on various manufacturing operations
D. helps broaden management 's vision and perspective in selecting alternative strategies and solutions to problems
E.

Question: 4346 In its approach to decision making,operations research emphasizes the use of .......... point of view

A. departmental
B. inter-departmental
C. inter-firm
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4347 The steps involved in OR analysis are:

A. identification and quantification of goals of the system

B. identification and quantification of variables that affect goals attainment
C. selection or construction of the appropriate mathematical models
D. all of these
E.

Question: 4348 Selective probability is:

A. the product of benefits times probability

B. the product of costs times probability
C. based on known probabilities
D. based on limited knowledge or experience
E.

Question: 4349 The probability of a new product's success is 0.6 ,with an expected value of Rs.21,600.What is
projected savings?

A. Rs.12,960
B. Rs.21,600
C. Rs.34,560
D. Rs.36,800

4276 . C 4277 . B 4278 . C 4279 . D 4280 . D 4343 . D 4344 . C 4345 . D 4346 . B 4347
.D 4348 . D 4349 . A

Question: 4348 Selective probability is:

A. the product of benefits times probability

B. the product of costs times probability
C. based on known probabilities
D. based on limited knowledge or experience
E.

Question: 4349 The probability of a new product's success is 0.6 ,with an expected value of Rs.21,600.What is
projected savings?
 A. Rs.12,960
B. Rs.21,600
C. Rs.34,560
D. Rs.36,800
E.

Question: 4350 The method that is appropriate when costs associated with idle capacity must be balanced costs of
waiting is:

A. queuing theory
B. probability analysis
C. game theory
D. linear programming
E.

Question: 4352 The manager who attaches quantitative estimates of the likelihood of various events as an aid to
decision making is utilising

A. queuing theory
B. probability analysis
C. game theory
D. linear programming
E.

Question: 4354 Determining a decision -making strategy by anticipating what a major competitor will do involves the
use of :

A. queuing theory
B. probability analysis
C. game theory
D. linear programming
E.

Question: 4356 The mathematical method that would be appropriate when we want to determine how many units
each of a number of limitations so as to maximize revenue is :

A. queuing theory
B. probability analysis
C. game theory
D. linear programming
E.

Question: 4357 The most complex of the programming (charting) techniques for non-repetitive action is:

A. PERT
B. Gantt
C. Impact
D. Milestone
E.
 Question: 4361 If, in PERT,the optimistic time estimate for an activity is 3 days, the most likely is 6 and the pessimistic
12, what is the expected time if all three have equal probability?

A. 7 days
B. 9 days
C. 12 days
D. 21 days
E.

Question: 4363 Assume an 80 percent learning curve. If it takes an average of 50 hours assemble 2 units,how many
hours (average/unit) would it take to assemble 4?

A. 25
B. 32
C. 40
D. 50
E.

Question: 4364 EDP is an acronym for:

A. efficient data processing

B. electronic data processing
C. elementary data processing
D. elementary data processing
E.

Question: 4365 Which of the following is not a step in decision making?

A. identifying the problem

B. talking about the problem but refusing to analyze relevant data
C. determining possible solutions
D. implementation of a solution
E.

Question: 4367 Quantitative methods of decision making received a big boost during:

A. World War II
B. World War I
C. The Korean War
D. The Indo-Pak War

4348 . D 4349 . A 4350 . A 4352 . B 4354 . C 4356 . D 4357 . A 4361 . A 4363 . C 4364
.B 4365 . B 4367 . A

Question: 4365 Which of the following is not a step in decision making?

A. identifying the problem

B. talking about the problem but refusing to analyze relevant data
C. determining possible solutions
D. implementation of a solution
E.
 Question: 4367 Quantitative methods of decision making received a big boost during:

A. World War II
B. World War I
C. The Korean War
D. The Indo-Pak War
E.

Question: 4369 Inventory costs include

A. clerical and administrative costs

B. storage costs
C. carrying cost
D. all of the above
E.

Question: 4370 Game theory involves:

A. economic order quantity

B. conflict of interest situations
C. linear programming
D. waiting-line theory
E.

Question: 4371 Saddle point zero-sum games:

A. can included two party zero-sum games

B. use minimax
C. use maximin
D. all of these
E.

Question: 4380 Monto Carlo technique uses:

A. subjective technique
B. calculated payoffs
C. simulation
D. assigned probability
E.

Question: 4415 Linear programming technique can be applied for:

A. optimisation of systems
B. minimisation of cost
C. minimisation of effort
D. improving human relations
E.

Question: 4416 Simulation technique will be useful :

 A. when the problems are complex
B. when the problem cannot be solved mathematically
C. where a precise solution is required
D.
E.

Question: 4417 The most correction statement about punishment is that :

A. it should always be delayed to allow time to reflect and cool off

B. it should never be used
C. if employed more often,we could have greater productivity
D. its costs and benefits must be carefully evaluated before using it
E.

Question: 4418 The organizational level of management requires data about:

A. production scheduling
B. inventory control
C. inventory measurement
D. formulating budgets
E.

Question: 4419 Which of the following is not a basic function of every business

A. financing
B. distributing
C. research
D. creating a utility
E.

Question: 4420 The organization chart will not show:

A. the informal organization

B. how the work is divided
C. the nature of the work performed by the components
D. chain of command

4365 . B 4367 . A 4369 . D 4370 . B 4371 . A 4380 . C 4415 . A 4416 . B 4417 . D 4418
.D 4419 . C 4420 . A

Question: 4419 Which of the following is not a basic function of every business

A. financing
B. distributing
C. research
D. creating a utility
E.

Question: 4420 The organization chart will not show:

A. the informal organization

B. how the work is divided
C. the nature of the work performed by the components
D. chain of command
E.

Question: 4421 "Unity of command" is violated under:

A. line organization
B. line and staff organization
C. functional organization
D.
E.

Question: 4422 While delegating a super delegates:

A. only authority
B. authority and responsibility
C. authority,responsibility and accountability
D. authority and responsibility but on the accountability
E.

Question: 4423 Decentralization :

A. increases the importance of superiors

B. decreases the importance of superiors
C. increases the importance of subordinates
D. decreases the importance of subordinates
E.

Question: 4424 Which of the following is not a kind of departmentalization?

A. time
B. customer
C. ad hoc
D. equipment
E.

Question: 4425 The role of "staff" in line and staff organization is:

A. authoritative
B. advisory
C. responsibilitive
D.
E.

Question: 4426 Span of control is narrow when the:

A. posts in the top management increases

B. posts in the middle management increases
C. posts in the first-level increases
D.
E.

Question: 4427 Project organization:

A. is a close system
B. is long -lived
C. has rigid organization
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4428 Committees are most effectine in handing?

A. jurisdictional questions
B. communications
C. decision making
D. all of the above
E.

Question: 4429 Disadvantages of committees do not include:

A. motivation of participation
B. decisions as a result of compromise
C. general inefficiency in some areas
D. waste of executive time
E.

Question: 4430 Disadvantages of committees do not include:

A. motivation of participation
B. decisions as a result of compromise
C. general inefficiency in some areas
D. waste of executive time

4419 . C 4420 . A 4421 . C 4422 . D 4423 . A 4424 . C 4425 . B 4426 . A 4427 . C 4428
.D 4429 . A 4430 . A

Question: 4429 Disadvantages of committees do not include:

A. motivation of participation
B. decisions as a result of compromise
C. general inefficiency in some areas
D. waste of executive time
E.

Question: 4430 Disadvantages of committees do not include:

A. motivation of participation
B. decisions as a result of compromise
C. general inefficiency in some areas
D. waste of executive time
E.

Question: 4431 What procedures should be employed to make committees operate effectively?

A. define objectives
B. prepare and distribute agenda before meetings
C. keep size to management number
D. all of the above
E.

Question: 4432 The study of group dynamics shows that when group members select their fellow employees the result
is:

A. job satisfaction increases

B. productivity decreases
C. wants satisfaction increases
D. productivity increases
E. a,b

Question: 4433 which factor does not cause or reduce dysfunctional behaviour?

A. redefinition of departmental boundaries

B. alternation of the informal structure
C. advance warning of impending change
D. lack of consideration for the fears of the personnel
E.

Question: 4434 Which motives would be most important in guiding a person's behavior at a particular time, those that
are------?

A. satisfied
B. unsatisfied
C. both of these
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4435 for which socio-economic group of people would the physical dimension of motivation be most
important?

A. upper income
B. middle income
C. lower income
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4436 Achievement for its own sake and sacrifice of personal comfort for the good of someone else or for a
cause typify the ------ dimension of motivation

A. physical
B. social
C. psychic
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4437 Needs theory of motivation was enunciated by

A. A braham Maslow
B. David Me Clelland
C. Kurt Lewin
D. Herzberg
E.

Question: 4438 the factor which is not normally included as a primary motive is

A. sleep
B. love
C. hunger
D. thirst
E.

Question: 4439 A.H. Maslow suggested that in modern society, safety needs are

A. completely satisfied (100%)

B. largely satisfied (70%)
C. partially satisfied (30%)
D. unsatisfied
E.

Question: 4440 An employee working under a tinancial incentive system, who would like to produce more in order to
earn more money but would thereby loose the friendship of those in the work group, faces an ------

A. approach-approach conflict
B. approach-avoidance conflict
C. avoidance-avoidance conflict
D. none of these

4429 . A 4430 . A 4431 . D 4432 . E 4433 . A 4434 . B 4435 . C 4436 . C 4437 . A 4438
.B 4439 . B 4440 . B

Question: 4439 A.H. Maslow suggested that in modern society, safety needs are

A. completely satisfied (100%)

B. largely satisfied (70%)
C. partially satisfied (30%)
D. unsatisfied
E.

Question: 4440 An employee working under a tinancial incentive system, who would like to produce more in order to
earn more money but would thereby loose the friendship of those in the work group, faces an ------

A. approach-approach conflict
B. approach-avoidance conflict
C. avoidance-avoidance conflict
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4441 What in your onion would be the most powerful personal objective of a Noble Prize winning chemist
working in the research department of medical concern?

A. money
B. status
C. pride of creativity
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4442 The junior executive who faces choice of either working in the evenings or missing a due date for a job
assignment is involved in an ------ conflict situation

A. approach-approach
B. approach-avoidance
C. avoidance-avoidance
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4443 The junior executive who faces choice of either working in the evenings or missing a due date for a job
assignment is involved in an ------ conflict situation

A. approach-approach
B. approach-avoidance
C. avoidance-avoidance
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4444 A woman employee who "breaks down and cries" when reprimanded and a repairman who "hits a
sensitive mechanism illustrate the reaction called

A. aggressive response
B. withdrawal respnose
C. compromise response
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4445 The foreman who "get mad"at an inspector for rejecting parts manufactured in his department
thereby exhibits

A. aggressive response
B. withdrawal response
C. compromise response
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4446 The managerial assumption that people basically dislike work, prefer to be directed, and want to avoid
responsibility has been called
 A. theory X
B. theory Y
C. theory Z
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4447 Who propounded theory X and theory Y

A. Douglas Mc Gregor
B. A.H. Maslow
C. Frederik Herzberg
D. David Mc Clelland
E.

Question: 4448 The managerial assumption that work is as natural as play or rest, and that higher order needs are the
ones particularly relevant to successful motivation, is called

A. theory X
B. theory Y
C. theory Z
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4449 Peter Drucker has been critical of Theory Y for

A. its attempted to control employees by psychological manipulation

B. totally discarding theory X
C. stressing work as natural as play or rest
D. stressing on virtues of human nature
E.

Question: 4450 Theory Y approach imply that greater reliance should be placed on

A. external control
B. internal control
C. production control
D. none of these

4439 . B 4440 . B 4441 . C 4442 . C 4443 . C 4444 . B 4445 . A 4446 . A 4447 . A 4448
.B 4449 . A 4450 . B

Question: 4449 Peter Drucker has been critical of Theory Y for

A. its attempted to control employees by psychological manipulation

B. totally discarding theory X
C. stressing work as natural as play or rest
D. stressing on virtues of human nature
E.

Question: 4450 Theory Y approach imply that greater reliance should be placed on
 A. external control
B. internal control
C. production control
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4451 Who propounded "Motivation-Maintenance Theory ?"

A. A.H. Maslow
B. Douglas Mc Gregor
C. Frederick Herzberg
D. F.W. Taylor
E.

Question: 4452 In In considering the hard or punitive versus the soft or human relations, reactions to handling the
consequences of the theory X, Mc Gregor suggest that the best alternative is

A. hard
B. soft
C. both hard and soft
D. neither hard not soft
E.

Question: 4453 A set of factors which are concerned with the job itself are

A. motivation factors
B. maintenance factors
C. both of these
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4454 The set of factors which is primarily concerned with things.that "surround" the job are called

A. motivational factors
B. maintenance factors
C. motivational and maintenance factors
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4455 A set of factors which are concerned with the job itself are

A. motivation factors
B. maintenance factors
C. both of these
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4456 A set of factors which are concerned with the job itself are

A. motivational factors
B. maintenance factors
C. both of these
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4457 The two factor theory of motivation has been much criticised. Which statement is least valid?

A. the study design (method) influenced the results

B. all people have strong drives for growth and accomplishment
C. the job content and job context factor are not mutually exclusive
D. satisfied workers are not necessarily the most productive.
E.

Question: 4458 The expectancy model of motivation includes each of the following except

A. outcome probability
B. reward probability
C. magnitude of the reward
D. effort to be expended
E.

Question: 4459 When need, environmental and expectancy theories are combined

A. no significant factors emerge as important to consider

B. the individual becomes the dominant factor to analyze and understand
C. the environment becomes the dominant factors to analyze and understand
D. the combination of forces in the individual and the environment emerge as important
E.

Question: 4460 If employee feel inequity between expectations and rewards

A. morale will predictably be high.

B. satisfaction will result.
C. their contributions will be reduced.
D. they will lower their expectations.

4449 . A 4450 . B 4451 . C 4452 . D 4453 . A 4454 . B 4455 . A 4456 . A 4457 . B 4458
.C 4459 . D 4460 . C

Question: 4459 When need, environmental and expectancy theories are combined

A. no significant factors emerge as important to consider

B. the individual becomes the dominant factor to analyze and understand
C. the environment becomes the dominant factors to analyze and understand
D. the combination of forces in the individual and the environment emerge as important
E.

Question: 4460 If employee feel inequity between expectations and rewards

A. morale will predictably be high.

B. satisfaction will result.
C. their contributions will be reduced.
D. they will lower their expectations.
E.

Question: 4461 Job context factors include

A. working conditions
B. growth opportunities
C. challenging job
D. recognition
E.

Question: 4462 A supervisor is most likely to be able to directly affect an employees

A. task assignments
B. work habits
C. personal aspirations
D. attitudes and values
E.

Question: 4463 Role conflict is a type of :

A. interpersonal conflict
B. inter group conflict
C. intrapersonal conflict
D.
E.

Question: 4464 Which factor does not cause of reduce dysfunctional behaviour?

A. redefinition of departmental boundaries

B. alternation of the informal structure
C. advance warning of impending change
D. lack of consideration for the fears of the personnel
E.

Question: 4467 The study and application of knowledge about how people act within organizations is called:

A. psychology
B. organization behaviour
C. sociology
D. all of the above
E.

Question: 4470 For growth and survival, all social system about have to be open because:

A. closed systems do not grow as fast as open systems do

B. closed systems are subject to entropy i.e ,tendency to be in discorded state
C. workers like open system
D.
E.

Question: 4474 "Grapevine" is a term used in relation to :

A. formal communication
B. informal communication
C. both formal and informal communication
D. this term is not used in relation to communication
E.

Question: 4477 If a firm has a high labour turnover,the presumption is that its personnel relations are:

A. poor
B. fair
C. excellent
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4480 Poor working conditions plus overtime and Sunday work sometimes produce a condition among
employees known as:

A. gold bricking
B. industrial fatigue
C. occupational malaise
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4486 The test of the adequacy of any wage level is in the :

A. real wages
B. time wages
C. money wages
D. none of these

4459 . D 4460 . C 4461 . A 4462 . A 4463 . C 4464 . A 4467 . B 4470 . B 4474 . B 4477
.A 4480 . C 4486 . A

Question: 4480 Poor working conditions plus overtime and Sunday work sometimes produce a condition among
employees known as:

A. gold bricking
B. industrial fatigue
C. occupational malaise
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4486 The test of the adequacy of any wage level is in the :

A. real wages
B. time wages
C. money wages
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4489 One of the purposes of profit-sharing is:

A. to reward workers for extra production

B. to induce loyalty to the company
C. to compensate for a low wage scale
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4490 If the workers productivity is decreased at the same time that their wages are raised,unit costs will be:

A. raised
B. the same
C. lowered
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4491 The determination of human asset does not include:

A. cost of training
B. cost of hiring
C. obsolescence
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4492 Job enrichment mean:

A. giving individual wider variety of duties in order to reduce monotony

B. addtitional motivators are added to a job to make it more rewarding
C. increasing the span of control of the individual
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4494 Wage floor is:

A. centralised control and stabilisation of wages

B. a minimum wage,established by contract or by law
C. a limit on salary increase,usually imposed by a government
D.
E.

Question: 4496 Induction is :

A. making forecasts of manpower requirement in future

B. an added consideration to convince an individual to make an agreement
C. a formal process of introducing and training new employees on their job
D.
E.
 Question: 4501 Real wages are:

A. wages divided by a cost of living of consumer price index

B. earnings minus deduction for taxes,PF etc.
C. total of all compensation ,including wages and special pay,interest,dividends etc
D.
E.

Question: 4505 Job classification is :

A. the duties,functions and responsibilities for a given job

B. a study of personal qualities needed to perform a given job
C. evaluation of job content and required skills,for the purpose of setting up wage brackets.
D.
E.

Question: 4510 A cause of job dissatisfaction is:

A. salary
B. fringe benefits
C. the use of human resource accounting
D. the conflict between worker expectations and the organizations conditions
E.

Question: 4513 Man-to-man rating is :

A. an employee evaluation technique whereby usually two employees are compared at a time ,in terms of their work
effectiveuess etc.
B. a selection technique
C. a training technique

4480 . C 4486 . A 4489 . A 4490 . A 4491 . C 4492 . B 4494 . B 4496 . C 4501 . A 4505
.C 4510 . D 4513 . A

Question: 4510 A cause of job dissatisfaction is:

A. salary
B. fringe benefits
C. the use of human resource accounting
D. the conflict between worker expectations and the organizations conditions
E.

Question: 4513 Man-to-man rating is :

A. an employee evaluation technique whereby usually two employees are compared at a time ,in terms of their work
effectiveuess etc.
B. a selection technique
C. a training technique
D.
E.
 Question: 4518 Vestibule training is :

A. provided in an area that is removed from the factory floor,where similar equipment is available and teachers function
without disturbing other workers
B. training provided on the job
C. offered to prepare employees for position,they may fill in the future
D.
E.

Question: 4522 Sensitivity training :

A. involves small group interaction under stress

B. is an unstructed encounter group
C. aids people,s sensitivity to one another
D. all of these
E.

Question: 4530 When considering the loss of retention at successively lower organizational levels,we may conclude
that:

A. the greatest loss occurred at the vice-presidential level

B. the greatest loss occurred at the plant manager level
C. the greatest loss occurred at the general foreman level
D. the greatest loss occurred at the rank and file worker
E.

Question: 4532 The minimal use of status symbols tends to improve organizational communication by reducing the
barrier of:

A. pressure of time
B. psychological distance
C. filtering
D. premature evaluation
E.

Question: 4535 A system of decision centers inter-connected by a communication channels is a :

A. communication network
B. communication process
C. communication barriers
D. communication methods
E.

Question: 4539 The tendency that listeners have to arrive at judgements before all relevent information has been is
called:

A. filtering
B. premature evaluation
C. psychological distance
D. pressure of time
E.
 Question: 4544 A sender,a receiver,a flow of information to the receiver,and a flow of feedback to the sender at
included in the ........... model

A. circuit communication
B. circuit communication
C. centralised communication
D. chain communication
E.

Question: 4548 The pattern in which every person has someone " to each side of him " with whom he can
communicate is the:

A. circular pattern
B. chain pattern
C. centralised pattern
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4550 The communication pattern which was generally fastest and most accurate for simple problems was
the :

A. circular
B. chain
C. centralized
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4552 Effective communication requires:

A. a sender
B. a receiver
C. information and sender
D. information and understanding

4510 . D 4513 . A 4518 . A 4522 . B 4530 . A 4532 . B 4535 . A 4539 . B 4544 . A 4548
.A 4550 . C 4552 . D

Question: 4550 The communication pattern which was generally fastest and most accurate for simple problems was
the :

A. circular
B. chain
C. centralized
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4552 Effective communication requires:

A. a sender
B. a receiver
C. information and sender
D. information and understanding
E.

Question: 4554 One of the steps of effective communication is:

A. acceptance
B. written presentation
C. oral presentation
D. body language
E.

Question: 4579 Transactional analysis refers to all of the following ego states expect:

A. Parent
B. Adult
C. Supervisors
D. Child
E.

Question: 4585 Words are a type of communication medium,as are:

A. typewriters
B. pictures
C. single strand
D. all of these
E.

Question: 4596 Correct or acceptable behaviour is rewarded in:

A. behaviour modification
B. sensitivity training
C. transactional analysis
D. none of the above
E.

Question: 4600 The best analogy of communication in an organization with respect to human body is:

A. circulatory system
B. nervous system
C. respiratory system
D. digestive system
E.

Question: 4610 An informal leader usually has no basis for influence from:

A. knowledge
B. coercise
C. charisma
D. position
E.
 Question: 4614 Which style of leadership represents the extreme of centralised decision making authority?

A. authoritarian
B. democratic
C. free-rein
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4617 The leadership method in which the leader determines all policy himself and assigns specific work
tasks to each group member is the :

A. authoritarian
B. democratic
C. free-rein
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4618 The conclusion that when a leader ceases to lead,disorganisation in group behaviour results is
suggested by the findings associated method:

A. free-rein method
B. authoritarian method
C. democratic methods
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4619 People -centered leadership is described as:

A. democratic
B. permissive
C. follower -oriented
D. all of these

4550 . C 4552 . D 4554 . D 4579 . C 4585 . B 4596 . C 4600 . B 4610 . D 4614 . A 4617
.A 4618 . A 4619 . D

Question: 4618 The conclusion that when a leader ceases to lead,disorganisation in group behaviour results is
suggested by the findings associated method:

A. free-rein method
B. authoritarian method
C. democratic methods
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4619 People -centered leadership is described as:

A. democratic
B. permissive
C. follower -oriented
D. all of these
E.

Question: 4621 The analytical engine

A. was designed for specific computations

B. was to be capable of performing any computation
C. was used to help process census data
D. none of the above
E.

Question: 4622 The difference engine was to be

A. an clectronic digital computer

B. an electromechanical device
C. power by system
D. none of the above
E.

Question: 4623 Babbage's analytical engine

A. was never completed

B. incorporated most of the ideas behind modern computers
C. both a and b
D. none of the above
E.

Question: 4624 Herman Hollerith designed machines

A. that could create astronomical tables

B. that were capable of performing any computation
C. that could sort and tabulate punched cards
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4625 A person credited with inventing the first electronic computer is

A. Konre Zuse
B. John Atanasoff
C. John Mauchly
D. All of the above
E.

Question: 4658 The set of factors which is primarily concerned with things that " surround" the job are called:

A. motivational factors
B. maintenance factors
C. motivational and maintenance factors
D. none of these
E.
 Question: 4659 A set of factors which are concerned with the job itself are called :

A. motivational factors
B. maintenance factors
C. both of these
D. none of these
E.

Question: 4660 The two factor theory of motivation has been much criticised, Which statement is least valid?

A. the study design(method) influenced the results

B. all people have strong drivers for growth and accomplishment
C. the job content and job context factors are not mutually exclusive
D. satisfied workers are not necessarily the most productive

4618 . A 4619 . D 4621 . B 4622 . C 4623 . C 4624 . C 4625 . D 4658 . B 4659 . A 4660 . B

MCQs on Basic Marketing Test 1

Price augments of product impact sales

A. positively
B. natural
C. a&b
D. negatively

Idea of advertising efficiency initial come to prominence in the

A. 1990

Incremental trades are parts of

A. marketing-mix models
B. base and incremental volume model
C. base Sales
D. all of above

Push cash also recognized as

A. sampling
B. point-of-purchase displays
C. spiffs
D. glorifier

Prime cause that several firms

A. they can generate more advertising

 B. they can please top management.
C. they can gain tax advantages
D. they can set lower prices that result in greater sales and profits

A marketing strategy in which low-priced unconventional resources are used, often in a local
fashion or large system of person cells, to express or encourage a manufactured goods or a plan
are

A. right-time marketing
B. demand chain
C. services marketing
D. guerrilla marketing

When every party has something that might be of worth to other party, it results into

A. marketing activity
B. exchange process
C. market place
D. money exchange

Sales advertising targeted at retailers and wholesalers are known

A. trade sales promotions

B. consumer sales promotions
C. sales
D. marketing mix

Short period incentive presented to persuade a retailer to stock up on manufactured goods are

A. trade contest
B. dealer loader
C. trade allowances
D. push money

Raising consumer awareness of a commodities or product, produces sales, and makes brand
reliability is

A. promotion
B. location
C. product
D. decision

Technical root for targeting results is

A. optimization
 B. segmentation
C. accountability
D. targeting

Sales advertising targeted at customers are called

A. trade sales promotions

B. sales
C. consumer sales promotions
D. all of above

A product which uses name of vendor or store where it

A. Co-brand
B. manufacturer brand
C. private brand
D. multi brand

An approach to advertising which chooses an suitable period and place for delivery of a
advertising message is

A. services marketing
B. right-time marketing
C. guerrilla marketing
D. demand chain

Choice of a commodities sales and proceeds over its lifetime is known

A. product life cycle

B. sales chart
C. dynamic growth curve
D. adoption cycle

A official approach to this consumer-focused marketing is identified as

A. product
B. information
C. access
D. SIVA

Worth of how marketers go to marketplace with aim of optimizing their expenditure to attain
product results for together short-term and long-term is

A. marketing mix
B. marketing ROI
 C. marketing effectiveness
D. marketing decision

Primary item to decide is

A. services marketing
B. segmentation
C. location
D. all of above

To raise demand is purpose of

A. location
B. segmentation
C. services
D. promotion

MCQs on Brand Marketing Test 1

Private tag brands, moreover entitled

A. own brands
B. store brands
C. a&b
D. none of these

NOT single of five phases of buyer choice procedure is

A. purchase decision
B. need recognition
C. brand identification
D. information search

Marketing of services, as opposite to physical products is

A. services marketing
B. marketing mix
C. advertising
D. right-time marketing

Determine your brand

A. managing your brand right

B. measuring your strategies
C. maintaining your brand position
 D. maintaining your brand picture

A influential brand has high

A. brand equity
B. brand loyalty
C. brand strategy
D. brand marketing

MCQ: Word "brand" is frequently used as a

A. customers
B. marketing
C. advertising
D. metonym

Answer
MCQ: Mainly, chief resource of authority throughout allocation channel is

A. company
B. brand
C. distributor
D. customer

Answer
MCQ: Firm buy either wholesale from other firms or directly from manufacturer on
agreement or is

A. c 2 c
B. a 2 a
C. a & b
D. b 2 b

Answer
MCQ: Clearness regarding proportions of brands is clarity in

A. functions of brand
B. aspects of differentiation
C. both of given options
D. none of given options
 Answer
MCQ: Careful brand management look for to build product or services related to the

A. target audience
B. cost
C. profit
D. all of answers are correct

MCQ: Visual trade name that recognized brand is

A. logo
B. customer
C. sounds
D. slogan

Answer
MCQ: Recognize additional cash flow in a branded firm when evaluated to an
unbranded, and equivalent, firm is a technique of

A. income split method

B. multi-period excess earnings method
C. a & b
D. incremental cash flow method

Answer
MCQ: In estimates messages for publicity, telling how good is best than challenging
brands aspires at creating ad is

A. meaningful
B. distinctive
C. believable
D. remembered

Answer
MCQ: Observation of consumers that several brands are equal to

A. brand extension
B. brand parity
 C. symbols
D. brand trust

Answer
MCQ: Identification and observation of a brand is extremely influenced by its

A. marketing
B. loyalty
C. visual presentation
D. a & b

MCQ: Conducts used to clarify reliance of customers' common behaviour is

A. herd behaviour
B. herd behaviour
C. a & b
D. none of all of these

Answer
MCQ: Assess importance of a brand by volume premium it produce when evaluate to
a alike but unbranded product or service is way of

A. income split method

B. multi-period excess earnings method
C. volume premium method
D. a & c

Answer
MCQ: Thing that can be presented to a market for concentration, acquirement,
utilize, or spending that may persuade a want or want, recognized as

A. brand
B. loyalty
C. need
D. product

Answer
MCQ: When manufacturer, wholesalers, and retailers perform as a unified method,
they encompass a

A. vertical marketing system

B. horizontal marketing system
C. power-based marketing system
D. conventional marketing system

Answer
MCQ: Prices of lavishness product fall in

A. plus-one pricing
B. strategic account pricing
C. skim pricing
D. segment pricing

MCQ: Procedure of communicating worth of a manufactured goods or service to

clients, for reason of selling that manufactured goods or service is

A. marketing
B. finance
C. human Resources
D. information Technology

Answer
MCQ: Plan to make an emotional relationship among products, firms and their
clients and constituent are

A. brand name
B. brand culture
C. brand image
D. brand management

Answer
MCQ: Brand equity related to worth of a

A. consumer
B. franchise
C. brand
 D. none of these

Answer
MCQ: Everything that can be presented to a marketplace for concentration,
attainment, use, or utilization that may satisfy a desire or want is called a

A. idea
B. demand
C. product
D. service

Answer
MCQ: Each of following parts can influence attractiveness of a market sector
EXCEPT

A. presence of many strong and aggressive competitors

B. likelihood of government monitoring
C. actual or potential substitute products
D. power of buyers in segment

MCQ: A product name facilitates an firm distinguish itself from its

A. customers
B. competitors
C. a & b
D. none of these

Answer
MCQ: Brands that is rigid to create

A. good brands
B. local brands
C. private brands
D. all of given options

Answer
MCQ: Brand assets contain

A. name of brand
 B. reputation, relevance, and loyalty
C. less quality complaints
D. all of given options

Answer
MCQ: Several brands make their name by using a silly pun, such as Lord of Fries,
Wok on Water or Eggs Eggscetera are illustration of brand name sort

A. puny
B. foreign word
C. personification
D. descriptive

Answer
MCQ: Single distinguish feature among a product name and a brand mark is that a
product name is

A. identifies only one item in product mix

B. consists of words
C. creates customer loyalty
D. implies an organization's name
MCQ: Assess significance of a brand by price premium it creates when contrast to an alike but
unbranded product or service is technique of

A. price premium
B. royalty relief method
C. volume premium method
D. incremental cash flow method

MCQ: Promotion aims are

A. to present information to consumers as well as others

B. to increase demand
C. to differentiate a product
D. all of options

Answer
MCQ: Push money also known as
 A. spiffs
B. promotion
C. commodities
D. all of options

Answer
MCQ: A good can be categorized as tangible or

A. raw materials
B. commodities
C. intangible
D. services

Answer
MCQ: Step which is not related to product life cycle is

A. growth stage
B. cash cow stage
C. maturity stage
D. introduction stage

Answer
MCQ: Good at a place which is easy for customers to access is

A. product
B. price
C. promotion
D. distribution

Customers are offered money back if receipt and barcode are mailed to manufacturer
is

A. price skimming
B. rebates
C. coupons
D. price deal

Answer
MCQ: In economics and commerce, products relate to a broader class of

A. marketing mix
B. raw materials
C. commodities
D. goods

Answer
MCQ: Ways are categorized by number of intermediaries among manufacturer and

A. employees
B. consumer
C. producer
D. employers

Answer
MCQ: Intermediaries that buy and resell goods are

A. merchants
B. sellers
C. a & b
D. none of these

Answer
MCQ: A short-term decline in price, like 50% off is

A. loyal Reward
B. coupons
C. price deal
D. price-pack deal

Seller must also deem the

A. product life-cycle
B. customer perceived value
C. product
D. product mix

Answer
MCQ: When setting a price, seller must be known of the

A. employees perceived value for product

B. customer perceived value for product.
C. marketers perceived value for product
D. a & b

Answer
MCQ: Four P

A. 1962
B. 1960
C. 1965
D. 1970

Answer
MCQ: Three fundamental pricing approaches are market skimming pricing, market
penetration pricing and

A. word-of-mouth pricing
B. neutral pricing
C. fair pricing
D. niche pricing

Answer
MCQ: An additional commission paid to sell employees to shove products are

A. revenue
B. rebates
C. push money
D. loyal money

One of five features of promotional mix is

A. promotion
B. sales promotion
C. place
D. product
 Answer
MCQ: A thing that persuade what a customer demands is

A. product
B. price
C. place
D. promotion

Answer
MCQ: Short term encouragements offered to persuade a trader to stock up on good is

A. trade allowances
B. push money
C. Trade contest
D. price deal

Answer
MCQ: Sales advertising targeted at customer are called

A. consumer sales promotions.

B. trade sales promotions
C. a & b
D. all of options

Answer
MCQ: Charge dissimilar prices in diverse markets for same product is

A. marketing mix
B. psychographic factors.
C. price discrimination
D. price skimming

In retailing, goods known as

A. merchandise
B. manufacturing
C. a & b
D. raw materials
 Answer
MCQ: 4 P's are sometime called as the

A. product life cycle

B. parallel pricing
C. price discrimination
D. marketing mix

Answer
MCQ: Informal statement about good by average individuals, contented consumers
or people particularly engaged to build word of mouth force is

A. product
B. advertising
C. word-of-mouth promotion
D. all of options

Answer
MCQ: Training of managing widen of information among an entity or a firm and
public is

A. public care
B. public relations
C. a & b
D. customer care centre

Answer
MCQ: Quantity of money that a firm receives from its usual buy and sell activities is

A. revenue
B. cost
C. price
D. a & b

Putting right good in right place, at accurate price, at right

A. market
B. customer
 C. price
D. time

Answer
MCQ: Allocation of goods takes place by ways of

A. place
B. promotion
C. channels
D. All of options

Answer
MCQ: Short run or long run method by which a company settle on price and output
rank that returns maximum profit is

A. product enhancement
B. short run pricing
C. profit
D. profit maximization

Answer
MCQ: Four P's was initially expressed by

A. E J McCarthy
B. Kotler
C. Rob Gray
D. Mishkin

Answer
MCQ: Something widely offered in open market is

A. commodity
B. product
C. raw materials
D. a & b

Features of a workforce, like age, gender or societal group is

A. diversity
 B. demographics
C. skills
D. selection

Answer
MCQ: Human capital management is occasionally used synonymously among

A. marketing
B. finance
C. information Technology
D. human resources

Answer
MCQ: Method of an applicant being selected from existing employees to get up a
latest job in same firm is refers to

A. external recruitment
B. internal recruitment
C. within organization recruitment
D. b & c

Answer
MCQ: SHRM stand for

A. Soft Human Resource Management

B. Sophisticated Human Resource Management
C. Superior Human Resource Management
D. Strategic Human Resource Management

Answer
MCQ: What is expected by acronym VET

A. Vocational Expertise and Training.

B. Vocational Education and Training.
C. Voluntary Education and Training.
D. none of these

Aim of a human resource supervisor is to support the

 A. employer-employee relationship
B. employee-employee relationship
C. employer-employer relationship
D. customer-employee relationship

Answer
MCQ: Dissimilarity among peoples/workplace is

A. skills
B. demographics
C. diversity
D. a & b

Answer
MCQ: Face book, Twitter, and LinkedIn are used for recruiting which is known as

A. internal recruiting
B. social recruiting
C. external recruiting
D. media recruiting

Answer
MCQ: Actions that result in candidates coming to identify of a chance on their own
are

A. fun activities
B. power activities
C. pull activities
D. none of these

Answer
MCQ: Which of following might be associated to forecasting manpower needs

A. job vacancy advertisements

B. mathematical projections
C. staffing
D. hiring
Written evidence of tasks, responsibilities and circumstances of employment is

A. human resources
B. skills Inventory
C. job analysis
D. job Description

Answer
MCQ: Complete method of attracting, choosing and hiring suitable applicants to one
or more posts within firm, either permanent or short-term is

A. selection
B. screening
C. sourcing
D. recruitment

Answer
MCQ: Appointment of somebody on a post that is at same managerial rank or wages
refers to

A. sourcing
B. lateral hiring
C. internal recruiters
D. employee referral

Answer
MCQ: How could era 1850-1930 best be explained

A. paternalist capitalism.
B. emergence of new modern bureaucratic companies.
C. scientific and less moralistic personnel outlook.
D. advent of HRM

Answer
MCQ: Human Resource is related to human relations movement of early

A. 20th century
B. 21st century
 C. 19th century
D. none of these

Procedure of doing recruitment using electronic means, like internet is

A. e-recruitment
B. selection
C. screening
D. a & b

Answer
MCQ: Members of a firm and usually working in human resources section are

A. sourcing
B. external recruiters
C. internal recruiters
D. account employee

Answer
MCQ: Role was primarily dominated by transactional work such as

A. payroll
B. benefits administration
C. a & b
D. globalization

Answer
MCQ: Which of following conditions was also used prior to language of recent
Human Resource Management

A. labour relations
B. personnel management.
C. industrial relations
D. personal management

Answer
MCQ: Early roots of modern Human Resource Management can be traced to which era

A. 2000s
 B. 1940s.
C. 1890s.
D. 1970s.

Termination of employment by an owner beside will of worker is

A. dismissal
B. screening
C. firing
D. a & c

Answer
MCQ: Utilization of one or more approaches to attract or recognize applicants to fill
up job posts is

A. sourcing
B. recruitment
C. selection
D. screening

Answer
MCQ: Human relations movement grew from study of

A. David McClelland
B. Elton Mayo
C. Kurt Levin
D. Max Weber

Answer
MCQ: A method where existing workers recommend potential applicants for post
offered, and in some firms if suggested applicant is hired, worker gets a cash bonus
refers to

A. employee referral
B. internal recruitment
C. sourcing
D. screening

Answer
MCQ: Set of persons who build up labour force of a firm, business sector, or nation
is

A. human resources
B. finance
C. information technology
D. none of these

Role usually don

A. pay and reward

B. training and development.
C. accounting
D. recruitment and selection

Answer
MCQ: Human Resource divisions and components in firms are usually liable for a
number of deeds, including employee

A. recruitment
B. training
C. development
D. all of answers are correct

Answer
MCQ: Phrase procurement stands for

A. recruitment and selection

B. training and development
C. pay and benefits
D. health and safety

Answer
MCQ: Word

A. power
B. unique
C. strength
D. force
 Answer
MCQ: Employee relationships are a large element of occupation of the

A. finance manger's
B. marketing manger's
C. human resources manager
D. account manger's

Global bond market consists of all bonds sold by issued companies, governments, or
other firms

A. within their own countries

B. outside their own countries
C. to London banks
D. to developing nations only

Answer
MCQ: More instability in currency is called as

A. country risk
B. financial risk
C. currency risk
D. liquidity risk

Answer
MCQ: Foreign bonds issued in Japan are known

A. bulldog bonds
B. dragon bonds
C. Yankee bonds
D. samurai bonds

Answer
MCQ: Largest number of buyers and sellers, greater the

A. liquidity
B. speculation
C. hedging
 D. forward rate

Answer
MCQ: Exchange rate entail delivery of trade currency within two business days know
as

A. forward rate
B. future rate
C. spot rate
D. bid rate

Differences in nominal interest rates are removed in exchange rate is

A. fisher effect
B. Leontief paradox.
C. combined equilibrium theory.
D. purchasing power parity

Answer
MCQ: Simplicity with which bondholders and shareholders can change their
investments into cash is known

A. barter
B. hedging
C. arbitrage
D. liquidity

Answer
MCQ: Eurobonds are admired because

A. they are less risky than traditional bonds

B. European companies are considered very stable
C. of absence of government regulation
D. they are always denominated in euro

Answer
MCQ: Bid quote is for

A. seller
 B. buyer
C. hedger
D. speculator

Answer
MCQ: Bid-ask spread in foreign exchange market is the

A. price of currency in foreign exchange market

B. difference between bid and ask quotes for a currency
C. price at which a bank will buy a currency
D. price a bank will pay for a currency

Not aim of international capital market is

A. preserving hard currencies to finance trade deficits

B. reducing cost of money to borrowers
C. reducing investor risk
D. expanding money supply for borrowers

Answer
MCQ: Which of following causes do investors employ foreign exchange market

A. currency hedging
B. currency speculation
C. currency conversion
D. all of above

Answer
MCQ: In 1944 international accord is recognized as

A. Breton Wood Agreement

B. Exchange Agreement
C. International Trade
D. Fisher Effect

Answer
MCQ: If a company agreements today for several future date of real currency
exchange, they will be building use of a
 A. stock rate
B. stock rate
C. futures rate
D. forward rate

Answer
MCQ: International Money Market is for about

A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 1 years

In a quote exchange rate, currency that is to be purchase with another currency is

called :

A. liquid currency
B. foreign currency
C. local currency
D. base currency

Answer
MCQ: Holding an inventory have

A. buying cost
B. selling cost
C. opportunity cost
D. exchange rate risk

Answer
MCQ: Today, important factor that result in augmentation in international bond
market is

A. low interest rates

B. high interest rates
C. moderate interest rates
D. all of above

Answer
MCQ: World

A. interbank market
B. Eurocurrency market
C. securities exchanges
D. over-the-counter market

Answer
MCQ: Governments enforce currency limitations to

A. protect a currency from speculators

B. keep resident individuals and businesses from investing in other nations
C. preserve hard currencies to finance trade deficits or repay debts
D. all of above

Expected worth is the

A. inverse of standard deviation

B. correlation between a security
C. same as discrete probability distribution
D. weighted average of all possible outcomes

Answer
MCQ: Liquidity risk is:

A. is risk investments bankers face

B. is lower for small OTC
C. is risk associated with secondary market transactions
D. increases whenever interest rates increases

Answer
MCQ: Bondholders usually accept interest payments each

A. 1 year
B. six months
C. 2 months
D. 2 years

Answer
MCQ: A corporate bond is a corporation's write undertaking that it will refund a
specific amount of money plus

A. premium
B. interest
C. nothing
D. security

Answer
MCQ: A price weighted index is an arithmetic mean of

A. future prices
B. current prices
C. quarter prices
D. none of these

Political constancy is chief aspect concerning

A. exchange risk
B. systematic risk
C. non-systematic risk
D. country risk

Answer
MCQ: Capital Market Line is firstly initiated by

A. Mohsin
B. Linter
C. Markowitz
D. William Sharpe

Answer
MCQ: Most favourable portfolio is proficient portfolio with the

A. lowest risk
B. highest risk
C. highest utility
D. least investment
 Answer
MCQ: Ambiguity introduced by way by which organization finances its investments
is

A. country risk
B. liquidity risk
C. financial risk
D. business risk

Answer
MCQ: If generally interest rates in nation increase, a corporate bond with a fixed
interest rate will usually

A. increase in value
B. remain unchanged
C. decrease in value.
D. be returned to corporation.

A main difference among real and nominal interest proceeds is that

A. real returns adjust for inflation and nominal returns do not

B. real returns use actual cash flows and nominal use expected cash flows
C. real interest adjusts for commissions and nominal returns do not
D. real returns show highest possible return and nominal returns show lowest
possible returns

Answer
MCQ: Financial hazard is most related with

A. use of equity financing by corporations

B. use of debt financing by corporations
C. equity investments held by corporations
D. debt investment held by corporations

Answer
MCQ: Standard deviation determine

A. systematic risk of a security

 B. unsystematic risk of security
C. total risk of security
D. premium of security

Answer
MCQ: Trustee is a self-governing organization that operates as bondholders

A. partner
B. guardian
C. broker
D. representative

Answer
MCQ: In order to settle on compound growth rate of an investment over period, an
investor determine the

A. geometric mean
B. calculus mean
C. arithmetic mean
D. arithmetic median

Who concern with relations between security returns

A. Markowitz diversification
B. random diversification
C. Friedman diversification
D. correlating diversification

Answer
MCQ: Superior portfolio is not basically a collection of individually

A. good portfolio
B. good investments
C. negative securities
D. all of answer correct

Answer
MCQ: Investments would grade uppermost with regard to protection is
 A. government bonds
B. common stock
C. preferred stock
D. real estate

Answer
MCQ: Choice of correlation coefficient is between

A. 0 to 1
B. 0 to 2
C. Minus 1 to +1
D. Minus 1 to 3

Answer
MCQ: Markowitz model presumed generally investors are

A. risk averse
B. risk natural
C. risk seekers
D. risk moderate

Political hazard is related to danger of loss of worth due to

A. Government or Public actions

B. Exchange rate movements
C. Poor corporate governance
D. Unfavourable trade negotiations

Answer
MCQ: Which of following is not a means in which agency troubles can be lessen
through corporate rule?

A. Executive compensation
B. Threat of hostile takeover
C. Acquisition of a foreign subsidiary
D. Monitoring by large shareholders

Answer
MCQ: Investors take political hazard as

A. Encouraged
B. Discouraged
C. Attracted
D. Make them happy

Answer
MCQ: A merely household organization may be influenced by exchange rate
variations if it faces at slightest some

A. Domestic Competition
B. Foreign competition
C. Joint ventures
D. All of answers are correct
Snyder Golf Co desire to build a golf club in Brazil they will do

A. Exporting
B. Importing
C. Direct Forging Investment
D. Licensing

Licensing permits firms to employ their expertise in foreign marketplace without a

A. Investment
B. Acquisition of Subsidiary
C. International trade
D. Major investment in foreign countries

Answer
MCQ: Portfolio Investment is dealing in

A. Same securities
B. Short term investment
C. Different securities
D. Don

Answer
MCQ: A specified country
 A. Other Country
B. Other People
C. Parent Company
D. Other Subsidiary

Answer
MCQ: Subsidiary may be favourable to acquisitions because

A. Easy to incorporate
B. Can be tailored
C. Can't be tailored
D. Easy to manage

Answer
MCQ: Effective tool of excellent corporate governance corporation are

A. Board of directors
B. Common stock shareholders
C. Top executive officers
D. All of answers are correct

In real world, all factors of production are perfectly

A. Mobile
B. Immobile
C. Somewhat mobile
D. All of answers are correct

Answer
MCQ: Impact of 9/11 is

A. Political Instability
B. Terrorist Attack
C. More foreign investment
D. Economic Instability

Answer
MCQ: Aim of MNC is to boost accounting profitability by shifting funds around the
 A. Country
B. Region
C. World
D. Market

Answer
MCQ: We multiply foreign revenue with rate with respect to that country is

A. Forward rate
B. Spot rate
C. Cash Flows
D. Portfolio Investment

Answer
MCQ: Slightest hazardous method by which organizations carry out international
trade is

A. Licensing
B. Franchising
C. International Trade
D. The establishment of new subsidiaries

One of generally prevalent aspects conflicting with recognition of ambition of an

MNC is existence of

A. Agency problem
B. Licensing
C. Corporate Governance
D. Management

Answer
MCQ: Agency problem is between

A. Manager and Employees

B. Manager and Government
C. Manager and Shareholders
D. Parent to Subsidiary

Answer
MCQ: Most unsafe mode by which firms perform worldwide business is

A. Licensing
B. Franchising
C. International Trade
D. The establishment of new subsidiaries

Answer
MCQ: Which of following is not a cause for global investment?

A. To gain access to important raw materials.

B. To produce products and/or services more efficiently than possible
domestically.
C. To provide an expected risk-adjusted return in excess of that required.
D. International investments have less political risk than domestic
investments.

Answer
MCQ: Greater exposure bigger the

A. Investment
B. Spot rate
C. Forward rate
D. Risk
Comparative edge is specializing actions in which they are

A. More efficient
B. Less Efficient
C. Somewhat efficient
D. Least Efficient

Below Product Cycle Theory, overseas demand can be primarily contented by

A. Exporting
B. Importing
C. Licensing
D. Mobility of funds

Answer
MCQ: Features of international business that a organization may be exposed to

A. Exchange rates
B. Foreign economic conditions
C. Political risk
D. All of answers are correct

Answer
MCQ: Example of a market deficiency is

A. Restrictions on transfer of labor

B. Restrictions on transfer of funds
C. Restrictions on capital flows during currency crisis
D. All of answers are correct

Answer
MCQ: Joint venture is

A. Not jointly owned by

B. Jointly owned by two or more firms
C. Acquired by firm
D. It is licensing

Answer
MCQ: Mainly general type of Direct Foreign Investment (DFI) is

A. Franchising
B. The establishment of new subsidiaries
C. International trade
D. Patent

Perfect Competition
Companies are supposed to sell where marginal costs meet marginal revenue, where
largely profit is generated is

A. perfect factor mobility

B. zero transaction costs
C. profit maximization
 D. property rights

Answer
MCQ: If an authoritarian agency follows a rule of normal cost pricing, then an
ordinary monopolist will

A. be forced to shut down.

B. produce more than it would if it were unregulated.
C. earn economic profit greater than zero.
D. earn more profit that it would if it were unregulated.

Answer
MCQ: In short run, balance will be affected by

A. price
B. demand
C. supply
D. cost

Answer
MCQ: In small run, perfectly-competitive places are not

A. productively efficient
B. inefficient
C. imperfect market
D. productively inefficient

Answer
MCQ: Costs or advantages of an action do not influence third parties are

A. perfect information
B. imperfect market
C. no externalities
D. property rights

An model of a monopolistically competitive company is

A. Farmer Jones's wheat farm

B. Post Breakfast Cereals
 C. TCI Cablevision, a supplier of cable T.V. services
D. T.J.'s Clothes, a local retail clothing store

Answer
MCQ: A firm will get only usual profit in long run at the

A. marginal revenue point

B. cost cut profit point
C. equilibrium point
D. oligopoly point

Answer
MCQ: Industry is most probably to be monopolistically competitive is

A. automobile industry
B. steel industry
C. car repair industry
D. electrical generating industry

Answer
MCQ: Supply curve for a ideal competitor is its

A. marginal Revenue curve

B. average total cost curve
C. marginal cost curve
D. marginal cost curve above its average variable cost curve

Answer
MCQ: Each of following are means monopolistically competitive companies
distinguish their commodities EXCEPT

A. selling with slightly different physical characteristics.

B. offering different levels of service that come with a product.
C. creating a special aura or image for product with advertising.
D. none of above are exceptions they are all ways of differentiating products.

A price- and quantity-fixing accord is well-known as

A. price concentration
 B. price leadership
C. collusion
D. game theory

Answer
MCQ: In monopolistic competition, companies attain some level of market power

A. by producing differentiated products.

B. because of barriers to exit from industry.
C. because of barriers to entry into industry.
D. by virtue of size alone.

Answer
MCQ: Markets such that no contributors are great adequate to have market authority
to put prices of a uniform product are

A. factors of production
B. perfect competition
C. pure competition
D. b & c

Answer
MCQ: All customers and manufacturers are supposed to have ideal knowledge of
price, usefulness, worth and manufacturing ways of products are

A. perfect utility
B. less information
C. perfect information
D. imperfect information

Answer
MCQ: In distinguish to a monopoly or oligopoly, it is impractical for a company in
perfect competition to produce economic profit in the

A. short run
B. year
C. a&b
D. long run
An industry appears closest to perfect competition

A. automobile manufacturing
B. fast food
C. wheat farming
D. computer software

Answer
MCQ: No entrance and way out obstacle creates it exceptionally simple to enter or
exit a

A. perfectly competitive market

B. imperfect market
C. competitive market
D. imperfect competitive market

Answer
MCQ: Monopolistic competition is different from perfect competition mainly
because

A. in monopolistic competition, there are relatively few barriers to entry.

B. in monopolistic competition, firms can differentiate their products.
C. in perfect competition, firms can differentiate their products.
D. in monopolistic competition, entry into industry is blocked.

Answer
MCQ: Mutually demand and supply of a good will influence balance in perfect
competition in

A. short run
B. long run
C. half run
D. a& b

Answer
MCQ: When we state a good or service is alike, we imply that

A. all buyers think it is identical

 B. all sellers think it is identical
C. a & b
D. all buyers and sellers think it is identical

Supply and Demand

Supply-and-demand model is a partial equilibrium model of

A. partial equilibrium
B. equilibrium
C. economic equilibrium
D. price equilibrium

Answer
MCQ: Evaluate sensitivity of quantity variable, Q, to vary in price variable, P is

A. elasticity of demand
B. price elasticity of demand
C. price elasticity of supply
D. elasticity

Answer
MCQ: Scrutinize possible effect on equilibrium of a change in outer surroundings
affecting marketplace is

A. changes in market equilibrium

B. demand curve shifts
C. partial equilibrium
D. comparative static analysis

Answer
MCQ: Expression "supply and demand" was initially used by

A. Adam Smith
B. David Ricardo
C. John Locke's
D. James Denham-Stuart

Answer
MCQ: Under supposition of ideal competition, supply is determined through

A. marginal cost
B. marginal revenue
C. marginal curve
D. supply curve

Price, at which sellers mutually are ready to sell identical amount as buyers
collectively are agreeable to buy, identified as

A. price
B. equilibrium price
C. market clearing price
D. b & c

Answer
MCQ: Restrictions of law of demand are

A. change in taste or demand

B. discovery of substitution
C. b & c
D. population size and composition

Answer
MCQ: Basic rule of economic theory which declares that, all else equal, an augment
in price results in a boost in quantity supplied is

A. law of demand
B. law of marginal utility
C. law of supply
D. none of all of these

Answer
MCQ: If demand remains unaffected and supply diminish (supply curve shifts to
left), a deficiency arise, leading to a

A. lower equilibrium price

B. equilibrium price
C. higher equilibrium price
 D. higher

Answer
MCQ: If demand increases (demand curve shifts to right) and supply have no
alteration, a lack happens, leading to a more

A. equilibrium price
B. equilibrium
C. equilibrium sale
D. curve of demand

Aspect affecting supplies are

A. good's own price

B. prices of related goods
C. price of inputs
D. all of these are shifters

Answer
MCQ: Augmented demand can be characterized on graph as curve being moved to
right is associated to

A. supply curve shifts

B. curve shifts
C. demand increase
D. Demand curve shifts

Answer
MCQ: Tastes & first choices are determinants of

A. supply
B. demand
C. demand curve
D. elasticity

Answer
MCQ: Company expectations regarding upcoming prices are determinants of

A. supply
 B. elasticity
C. law of supply
D. marginal utility

Answer
MCQ: Measures reaction of quantity supplied to changes in price, as proportion
change in quantity supplied persuades by a one percent alteration in price is

A. price elasticity of supply

B. price elasticity of demand
C. elasticity
D. law of marginal utility

Circumstances in a marketplace when price is such that quantity that customers

demand is exactly balanced by quantity that organizations desire to supply is

A. equilibrium supply
B. partial equilibrium
C. market equilibrium
D. equilibrium demand

Answer
MCQ: Price-quantity pair where quantity demanded is equivalent to extent supplied,
characterized by intersection of demand and supply curves is

A. equilibrium
B. equilibrium demand
C. equilibrium supply
D. equilibrium curve

Answer
MCQ: A table that demonstrate association among price of a good and quantity
supplied is

A. demand schedule
B. supply schedule
C. demand
D. supply
 Answer
MCQ: Customers will be ready to purchase a specified quantity of a product, at a
specified price, if marginal utility of further spending is equivalent to the

A. cost
B. opportunity cost
C. revenue
D. product cost

Answer
MCQ: How much (quantity) of a commodities or service is wanted by buyers is

A. supply
B. demand
C. elasticity
D. law of demand

COMPENSATION
compensation quartile strategy' in which 75% of employers pay below than market
and remaining 25% pay compensations higher than market is called

A. forth quartile strategy

B. third quartile strategy
C. second quartile strategy
D. first quartile strategy

Answer
MCQ: Concept in which whole or part of yearly pay increase is paid as single
payment, is called

A. consumer price index adjustment

B. lump sum increase
C. cost of living adjustment
D. all of the above

Answer
MCQ: Factors such as earnings level, discretionary authority and percentage of spent
time in manual work are factors that must be held to define

A. overtime pay status

B. exempt status
C. non-exempt status
D. distributive status

Answer
MCQ: Perceived fairness between what person receives and what person did is
classified as

A. procedural justice
B. distributive justice
C. recency justice
D. equity

Answer
MCQ: Key issues related to internal equity are

A. distributive justice
B. procedural justice
C. primacy justice
D. both A and B

Collection of data consisting compensation rates of all workers, who perform similar
jobs in other organizations are classified as

A. KSA survey
B. pay survey
C. job survey
D. skills survey

Answer
MCQ: Basic compensations given to employees as salaries or wages are called

A. base pay
B. wages
C. variable pay
 D. salaries

Answer
MCQ: According to total rewards approach, variable pay of employee is

A. added into base pay

B. subtracted from base pay
C. multiplied to base pay
D. divided to base pay

Answer
MCQ: Systematic way of determining worth of all jobs within any organization is
called

A. compensable evaluation
B. job evaluation
C. benchmark job
D. job promotion structure

Answer
MCQ: Employee who is paid more than specified range for job is classified as

A. green circled employee

B. red circled employee
C. blue circled employee
D. white circled employee

Outcomes of competency based system such as improved and higher employee

satisfaction and commitment are classified as

A. quartile strategy based outcome

B. organization-related outcomes
C. employee-related outcomes
D. percentiles strategy outcomes

Answer
MCQ: Situation in organization in which differences of individual pay with different
level of performance becomes small is classified as
 A. pay compression
B. grade compression
C. equity compression
D. matrix compression

Answer
MCQ: Factors that are common in group of jobs and are used to identify value of job
are called

A. primacy factors
B. exemption factors
C. compensable factors
D. equity factors

Answer
MCQ: Tangible components of compensation programs usually designed by
organization consists of

A. indirect compensation
B. recency compensation
C. direct compensation
D. both A and C

Answer
MCQ: Graph which shows relationship between job value, which is determined rates
of pay survey and job evaluation points is classified as

A. market line
B. pay line
C. regression line
D. pay structure line

In an organization, base pay is classified as being part of

A. direct compensation
B. primacy compensation
C. indirect compensation
D. recency compensation
 Answer
MCQ: According to traditional compensation approach, perks and bonuses are

A. for CEO only

B. for all employees
C. for executive only
D. not for executives

Answer
MCQ: Curve which is used to represent relationship between pay rate and experience
is classified as

A. equity curve
B. maturity curve
C. experience curve
D. seniority curve

Answer
MCQ: Procedure of using less and more broad pay grades than traditional system of
compensation is classified as

A. salary banding
B. structure banding
C. broad banding
D. grade banding

Answer
MCQ: Compensation philosophy according to which organization increase salary of
employees every year is called

A. primacy orientation philosophy

B. entitlement orientation philosophy
C. performance orientation philosophy
D. recency orientation philosophy

Compensation quartile strategy in which 50% of employers pays below than market
and remaining pays compensations higher than market is called
 A. second quartile strategy
B. first quartile strategy
C. forth quartile strategy
D. third quartile strategy

Answer
MCQ: Jobs in organization that require similar knowledge, abilities and skills and are
performed by individuals having similar duties are classified as

A. benchmark job
B. job promotion structure
C. compensable evaluation
D. job evaluation

Answer
MCQ: Employees to whom overtime is not paid under restriction of Fair Labor
Standards Act are called

A. exempt employees
B. non-exempt employees
C. salaried exempt employees
D. salaried nonexempt employees

Answer
MCQ: Type of rewards employees get in form of monetary or non-monetary benefits
are classified as

A. extrinsic rewards
B. leniency rewards
C. primacy rewards
D. intrinsic rewards

Answer
MCQ: Compensation philosophy according to which compensations are not paid
according to span of service, but considering performance level is called

A. performance orientation philosophy

B. recency orientation philosophy
 C. primacy orientation philosophy
D. entitlement orientation philosophy

Employees to whom overtime is must to be paid under restriction of Fair Labor

Standards Act are called

A. salaried exempt employees

B. salaried nonexempt employees
C. exempt employees
D. non-exempt employees

Answer
MCQ: Indirect rewards given to employees of organization for being member of
organization are called

A. productivity compensation
B. effectivity compensation
C. benefits
D. philosophical compensation

Most common and usual form of direct compensation paid in organizations is

A. base pay and benefits

B. base and variable pay
C. variable pay and benefits
D. all of the above

Answer
MCQ: Type of rewards employees get in form of praise for successfully
accomplishing goals or completing project is classified as

A. primacy rewards
B. intrinsic rewards
C. extrinsic rewards
D. leniency rewards

Answer
MCQ: According to compensation programs, benefits such as retirement pensions
and life insurances are classified in category of
 A. direct compensation
B. primacy compensation
C. indirect compensation
D. recency compensation

Answer
MCQ: Types of compensation employees get from organization after timely
completion of work includes

A. intrinsic rewards
B. extrinsic rewards
C. strictness reward
D. both a and b

Answer
MCQ: According to compensation programs designed for employee, variable pay
other than base pay is classified as part of

A. indirect compensation
B. recency compensation
C. direct compensation
D. primacy compensation

Buying and selling of products and services from firms in other countries is called

A. importing and exporting

B. regional alliances
C. national alliances
D. international alliances

Answer
MCQ: If employee is citizen of a country where company headquarters are located
and work in other country where its operation is located then employee is considered
as

A. third country nationals

B. third world employees
C. expatriates
D. host country nationals
 Answer
MCQ: Dimension of culture which refers to preference of people about unstructured
and structured situations is classified as

A. certainty followers
B. uncertainty avoidance
C. certainty non-avoidance
D. uncertainty follower

Answer
MCQ: Global assignments in which employees are sent to understand global
operations and are required to have intercultural understanding are called

A. development assignments
B. non development assignments
C. strategic assignments
D. managerial assignments

Answer
MCQ: Global assignments in which employees are sent to other countries for
extended projects and return back after completing project are classified as

A. technical assignments
B. distant assignments
C. functional assignments
D. nonfunctional assignments

Process of training, planning and reassignment of employees to their belonging

countries is classified as

A. repatriation
B. foreign advancement
C. distant assignments
D. expatriation

Answer
MCQ: In managing international compensation, approach in which package
compensation equalizes cost between home country and international employees is
called

A. headquarters approach
B. cash flow approach
C. income statement approach
D. balance-sheet approach

Answer
MCQ: Type of organization which has operating units in some foreign countries is
classified as

A. alliance enterprise
B. global enterprise
C. interdependence enterprise
D. multinational enterprise

Answer
MCQ: Practice by which representatives of unions is given position in board of
directors of company is classified as

A. co-functional agreement
B. mutual union contract
C. co-determination
D. mutual agreement

Answer
MCQ: Possible global assignments do not include

A. functional assignments
B. technical assignments
C. development assignments
D. transnational assignments

If employee is citizen of country where operation is located but headquarters are

located in another country then employee is classified as

A. expatriates
 B. host country nationals
C. third country nationals
D. third world employees

Answer
MCQ: Process of sending and preparing global employees for any of foreign
assignments is classified as

A. distant assignments
B. expatriation
C. repatriation
D. foreign advancement

Answer
MCQ: Compensation plan which is used to protect expatriate employees from any
negative consequence of tax is classified as

A. cash flow equalization plan

B. tax equalization plan
C. balance equalization plan
D. income equalization plan

Answer
MCQ: In global assignments, if individuals are sent to perform some limited tasks
and then return to their home country then this assignment is called

A. functional assignments
B. technical assignments
C. development assignments
D. transnational assignments

Answer
MCQ: Concept which defines inequality among nation explained in cultural
dimension is classified as

A. power distance
B. orientation distance
C. expatriation distance
 D. repatriation distance

Dimension of culture which defines extent of people how they act as individuals
instead of representing as groups is classified as

A. orientation distance
B. power distance
C. individualism
D. certainty avoidance

Answer
MCQ: Dimension of culture in which masculine values prevail over feminism values
is classified as

A. masculinity ⁄ femininity
B. power distance
C. orientation distance
D. none of above

Answer
MCQ: All societal forces that affect values, actions and beliefs of different groups of
people are altogether called

A. expatriation
B. repatriation
C. culture
D. economy

Performance Management
Performance appraisals are basically used by organizations to

A. defining needed capabilities

B. administered wages and salaries
C. recruiting employees
D. fulfilling staffing needs

Answer
MCQ: Employee evaluation, performance evaluation, performance review and
employee rating are all terms used to define

A. criterion appraisal
B. employee development appraisal
C. performance appraisal
D. subjective appraisal

Answer
MCQ: Information type which focuses on accomplishments of employees is
classified as

A. trait based information

B. behavior based information
C. results based information
D. coaching based information

Answer
MCQ: Performance appraisal measurement error, in which prejudices of rater distort
results of rating is classified as

A. rater bias
B. halo effect
C. contrast error
D. sampling error

Answer
MCQ: Forced distribution and ranking are considered as methods of

A. comparative methods
B. narrative methods
C. behavioral methods
D. category rating methods

Type of central tendency error occurs while appraising performance, when

employee's rating falls at higher side of scale is classified as

A. strictness error
B. leniency error
 C. halo effect
D. contrast error

Answer
MCQ: Graphic rating scale and checklist are classified as method of

A. behavioral methods
B. category rating methods
C. comparative methods
D. narrative methods

Answer
MCQ: Third step in process of management by objectives is to

A. review job and agreement

B. develop performance standards
C. guided setting of objective
D. ongoing performance discussion

Answer
MCQ: Type of central tendency error occur while appraising performance when
employee rating falls at lower side of scale is classified as

A. halo effect
B. contrast error
C. strictness error
D. leniency error

Answer
MCQ: Benchmarks of job performances are considered as

A. subjective standards
B. criterion standards
C. performance standards
D. profitability standards

Actions that employees do not do or must do, in a job is classified as

A. profitability
 B. productivity
C. performance
D. development

Answer
MCQ: Procedural method which describes goals to individual employees and
manager try to attain goals within specified length of time is classified as

A. combination method
B. critical incident method
C. behavioral rating approach
D. management by objectives

Answer
MCQ: Appraising performance measurement error which results when whole job is
rated on basis of selected job criterion is classified as

A. contrast error
B. sampling error
C. rater bias
D. halo effect

Answer
MCQ: Appraising error which occurs when performance of individuals are rated
relative to others rather than set standards is classified as

A. rater bias
B. halo effect
C. contrast error
D. sampling error

Answer
MCQ: Performance appraisal error effect created when rater gives more preferences
to recent appraisals while appraising employees' performance is classified as

A. recency effect
B. primacy effect
C. central tendency error
 D. rater bias

Appraisal methods which consists of approaches such as essay writing, field review
method and critical incident are classified as

A. narrative method
B. informative method
C. administrative method
D. impulsive methods

Answer
MCQ: If relationship between employee and manager during performance appraisal,
this type of appraisal is classified as

A. systematic appraisal
B. administrative appraisal
C. subjective appraisal
D. administrative appraisal

Answer
MCQ: Tool used in performance appraisal which use a list of words or statement that
must be checked while rating performance of employees is called

A. forced distribution
B. checklist scale
C. graphic rating scale
D. ranking

Answer
MCQ: Important elements in a job given to employees is classified as

A. job redefinition
B. job criteria
C. job cultivation
D. job initiation

Answer
MCQ: Target coaching, work planning, mutual goal setting and performance
objectives are all terms used to specify concept called

A. behavioral rating approach

B. management by objectives
C. combination method
D. critical incident method

Systematic process which is used to identify, measure, evaluate, encourage and

improve employee performance is classified as

A. coaching management system

B. training management system
C. performance management system
D. development management system

Answer
MCQ: Uses of performance appraisals such as coaching and career planning,
identifying strengths and areas for growth are classified as uses of

A. systematic uses
B. subjective uses
C. development uses
D. administrative uses

Answer
MCQ: First step in process of management by objectives is to

A. review job and agreement

B. develop performance standards
C. guided setting of objective
D. ongoing performance discussion

Answer
MCQ: Important elements such as cooperativeness, presence at work, timeline of
work, quality and quantity of output are classified as

A. employee performance variables

B. employee recruitment variables
 C. employee training variables
D. employee development variables

Answer
MCQ: Fourth step in process of management by objective is to

A. guided setting of objective

B. ongoing performance discussion
C. review job and agreement
D. develop performance standards
ool used in performance appraisal measurement which distribute ratings of performance along
bell shaped curve is classified as

A. graphic rating scale

B. ranking
C. forced distribution
D. checklist scale

Methods of performance appraisals do not include

A. comparative methods
B. objective methods
C. systematic methods
D. subjective methods

Answer
MCQ: Types of performance information include

A. results based information

B. trait based information
C. behavior based information
D. all of above

Answer
MCQ: Expected level of job performance is classified as

A. performance standards
B. profitability standards
C. subjective standards
 D. criterion standards

Answer
MCQ: Listing of performance of employees according to specific order from high
performer to lower performer is classified as

A. forced distribution
B. checklist scale
C. graphic rating scale
D. ranking

Answer
MCQ: Process of evaluating performance of employees, comparing performances to
set standards and communicating it to employees is called

A. performance appraisal
B. subjective appraisal
C. criterion appraisal
D. employee development appraisal

Sources used for internal recruiting includes

A. organizational databases
B. job posting
C. job transfers
D. all of the above

Answer
MCQ: Type of staffing that uses workers as recruiting sources who are not
considered as traditional employees is classified as

A. compression staffing
B. flexible staffing
C. affirmative staffing
D. marginal staffing

Answer
MCQ: Internal recruitment method in which employers notify job opening to
employees is classified as

A. job affirmation
B. job analysis
C. job posting
D. job margin

Answer
MCQ: Individuals from which selection can be done after applying all recruitment
strategies are classified as

A. labor force population

B. applicant population
C. applicant pool
D. labor market

Answer
MCQ: Rate which is used to represent that how much organization is successful at
hiring candidates is classified as

A. selection rate
B. yield rate
C. success base rate
D. acceptance rate

In an organization, process of qualified individuals' pool generation for specific job is

classified as

A. staffing
B. recruiting
C. analyzing
D. leading

Answer
MCQ: In recruitment costs, costs such as salaries of operating managers and public
relation managers are classified as

A. direct costs
 B. indirect costs
C. labor costs
D. marginal costs

Answer
MCQ: Workers in a firm who perform job services on contractual basis are classified
as

A. affirmative contractors
B. compression contractors
C. dependent contractors
D. independent contractors

Answer
MCQ: Supply pool outside organization to attract individuals for job is classified as

A. compression market
B. affirmative market
C. applicant market
D. labor market

Answer
MCQ: Individual hiring percentage from group of candidates is classified as

A. success base rate

B. acceptance rate
C. selection rate
D. yield rate

In recruitment costs, agency fees, recruitment advertisement and salaries of recruiters

is classified as

A. direct costs
B. indirect costs
C. pool collection cost
D. none of above

Answer
MCQ: Comparison between numbers of applications at each preceding stage of
recruitment process is classified as

A. initialization ratio
B. resultant ratio
C. application ratio
D. yield ratios

Answer
MCQ: Subset population of total labor force population is classified as

A. applicant pool
B. labor market
C. labor force population
D. applicant population

Answer
MCQ: Rate which is used to measure long term effectiveness of employees is
classified as

A. success base rate

B. acceptance rate
C. selection rate
D. yield rate

Answer
MCQ: Total number of individuals who are selected for actual evaluation are
classified as

A. labor force population

B. applicant population
C. applicant pool
D. labor market

Process in which employer of organization identify problems, set new standards and
take positive steps for corrections is classified as

A. confirmative action
B. reverse action
 C. affirmative action
D. protective action

Answer
MCQ: Concept that focuses on availability of jobs to all individuals without any
discrimination is classified as

A. equal employment opportunity

B. nondiscrimination opportunity
C. opportunity of equality
D. All of the above

Answer
MCQ: Kind of validity in which employer measures performance of employees on
job and correlates performance rating scores is classified as

A. predictive validity
B. concurrent validity
C. correlation validity
D. criterion validity

Answer
MCQ: Type of discrimination in which applicants for a job are refused and protected
class individuals are prioritized, is classified as

A. individualistic discrimination
B. affirmative discrimination
C. diversified discrimination
D. reverse discrimination

Answer
MCQ: Validity test which is used to represent relationship between job performance
of employees and abstract characteristic is classified as

A. inverse validity
B. direct validity
C. correlated validity
D. construct validity
Index number which represents relationship between criterion variable and predictor
variable is classified as

A. reliability coefficient
B. correlation coefficient
C. validity coefficient
D. prediction coefficient

Answer
MCQ: Validity test in which applicants test results are compared with relevant
performance of job is classified as

A. predictive validity
B. concurrent validity
C. correlation validity
D. criterion validity

Answer
MCQ: Safe, efficient and effective practices necessary for smooth and lawful
business operations are classified as

A. retaliation necessity
B. business necessity
C. disparate necessity
D. all of the above

Answer
MCQ: In criterion-related validity, if correlation coefficient of validity test is 0.85
then test is classified as

A. bad criterion
B. good criterion
C. good predictor
D. bad predictor

Answer
MCQ: Fundamental duties related to a person performing a particular job are
classified as
 A. job functions
B. organization efforts
C. legislative rights
D. none of the above

Situation in which punitive steps are taken by employers against employees who
exercise legal rights is classified as

A. disparate treatment
B. discrete behavior
C. affirmative behavior
D. retaliation behavior

Answer
MCQ: Type of analysis which gives insights about availability of protected class
members in labor markets is classified as

A. availability analysis
B. utilization analysis
C. affirmation analysis
D. disparate analysis

Answer
MCQ: In an organization, differential treatment for members of protected class is
classified as

A. disparate treatment
B. discrete behavior
C. affirmative behavior
D. retaliation behavior

Answer
MCQ: Differences among individuals performing jobs at same workplace are
classified as

A. diversity
B. opportunity
C. employment
D. cultural unemployment
 Answer
MCQ: Test which provides basis for making decisions related to employment is
classified as

A. employment test
B. employer test
C. affirmative test
D. legislative test

In an organization, expenses made by employer while making reason accommodation

for disable individuals are classified as

A. equity hardships
B. legislative hardship
C. affirmative hardship
D. undue hardship

Answer
MCQ: Kind of analysis which gives insights about protected class members and jobs
types in any organization is classified as

A. affirmation analysis
B. disparate analysis
C. availability analysis
D. utilization analysis

Answer
MCQ: Process in which settlement negotiations are assisted by a third party is
classified as

A. rehabilitation
B. validation
C. mediation
D. intervention

Answer
MCQ: Type of validity in which non-statistical method are used to test skills,
abilities and knowledge to perform a specific job is classified as
 A. construct validity
B. predictive validity
C. content validity
D. concurrent validity

Step in recruitment process in which candidates are shortlisted fulfilling minimum

requirements of job is classified as

A. placement screening
B. pre-employment screening
C. compensatory screening
D. affirmative screening

Answer
MCQ: Process of matching characteristics of job to skills, abilities and knowledge of
individual is classified as

A. selection yield fit

B. success-acceptance fit
C. person-organization fit
D. person-job fit

Answer
MCQ: Procedure of fitting right person into right job is classified as

A. placement of employees
B. interviewing applicants
C. maintaining records
D. administering tests

Answer
MCQ: Correspondence between organizational factors and individual employees is
classified as

A. person-organization fit
B. person-job fit
C. selection yield fit
D. success-acceptance fit
 Answer
MCQ: Types of testing used in employee selection includes

A. personality tests
B. ability tests
C. integrity testing
D. all of the above

In selection of assembly line workers, test which is used to measure manual dexterity
for selection is classified as

A. Macquarie cognitive test

B. personality oriented integrity test
C. functional capacity test
D. Myers-Briggs test

Answer
MCQ: Kind of interviews which creates anxiety among interviewees by putting
pressure to see how applicant respond is classified as

A. panel interview
B. stress interview
C. directive interview
D. non-directive interview

Answer
MCQ: Personality oriented integrity tests and overt integrity tests are considered as
types of

A. controversial tests
B. ability tests
C. personality tests
D. honesty and integrity testing

Answer
MCQ: Type of question in which answer asked by interviewers have obvious
question in way question asked is classified as
 A. leading questions
B. obvious questions
C. reliability questions
D. validity questions

Answer
MCQ: Type of tests which are not part of ability test are

A. Myers-Briggs test
B. work sample tests
C. physical ability tests
D. psychomotor tests

In employee selection, tests that are used to measure coordination between hand and
eye and steadiness between arm and hand are called

A. cognitive ability tests

B. physical ability tests
C. psychomotor tests
D. work sample tests

Answer
MCQ: Test which is used to measure psychological concepts such as respect for
authority and dependability is classified as

A. Macquarie cognitive test

B. personality oriented integrity test
C. functional capacity test
D. Myers-Briggs test

Answer
MCQ: Non-directive interviews and stress interviews are considered as types of

A. structured interviews
B. cognitive interviews
C. less structured interviews
D. unstructured interviews

Answer
MCQ: Systematic process through which an accurate picture of job is given to
applicant's job is classified as

A. realistic job preview

B. realistic job placement
C. realistic job criterion
D. realistic job administration

Answer
MCQ: Tests in which applicants of job are required to perform simulation of any of
job related task are classified as

A. psychomotor tests
B. work sample tests
C. cognitive ability tests
D. physical ability tests

Type of interview in which specific job situations are told to employees to know how
they will respond to that situation is classified as

A. non-directive interview
B. stress interview
C. situational interview
D. behavioral interview

Answer
MCQ: Purpose of selection for an organization is

A. maintain records
B. administering tests
C. placement of employees
D. interviewing applicants

Answer
MCQ: Type of questions in which interviewers already know question asked to
applicant is classified as

A. reliability questions
B. validity questions
 C. leading questions
D. obvious questions

Answer
MCQ: Type of employee selection tests in which abilities such as endurance,
muscular movement and strength are measured is classified as

A. cognitive ability tests

B. physical ability tests
C. psychomotor tests
D. work sample tests

Answer
MCQ: Approach in which minimum point is set off for each predictor and minimum
level must be achieved is classified as

A. placement hurdles
B. selection hurdles
C. compensatory hurdle
D. multiple hurdles

Type of interview in which applicants explain how they have handled certain work
related tasks or problems in job is classified as

A. situational interview
B. behavioral interview
C. non-directive interview
D. stress interview

Answer
MCQ: Type of questions in which information is asked about gender, marital status,
race and age are classified as

A. validity questions
B. illegal questions
C. legal questions
D. leading questions

Answer
MCQ: In predictors combination, approach in which scores from each predictor is
added to compensate lower score of any of predictor is classified as

A. multiple hurdles
B. collective approach
C. compensatory approach
D. none of above

Answer
MCQ: Interview type in which questions are asked by members of team with whom
selected candidates work is classified as

A. team interview
B. functional interview
C. cognitive interview
D. none of above

Answer
MCQ: Behavioral interviews and situational interviews are considered as types of

A. structured interviews
B. cognitive interviews
C. less structured interviews
D. unstructured interviews
Procedure of choosing individuals who have all skills, abilities and knowledge needed for a job
is classified as

A. costing
B. selection
C. acceptance
D. yielding

Kind of bargaining in which workers and management representative negotiate

working hours, wages and employment conditions is classified as

A. union bargaining
B. distributive bargaining
C. descriptive bargaining
D. collective bargaining
 Answer
MCQ: Process in which members of union vote to accept terms of labor agreement,
usually negotiated is called

A. mediation
B. arbitration
C. ratification
D. conciliation

Answer
MCQ: Kind of strikes that occur when workers and employers failed to reach any
agreement after collective bargaining are called

A. sympathy strikes
B. jurisdictional strikes
C. economic strikes
D. wildcat strikes

Answer
MCQ: Rights reserved with employers such as direct, control and manage its
business are called

A. management rights
B. provision rights
C. mandatory provisions
D. union security provision

Answer
MCQ: Practice in which unions pay and hire individuals to apply job for certain
organizations is classified as

A. decertification
B. authorization unit
C. bargaining unit
D. salting

Contract negotiation is also called as

 A. descriptive bargaining
B. union bargaining
C. collective bargaining
D. distributive bargaining

Answer
MCQ: In organizations, employee dissatisfaction is indicated by

A. complaint
B. employee ownership
C. grievance arbitration
D. grievance strike

Answer
MCQ: Process in which a union is removed from position of representative of
workers is classified as

A. certification
B. decertification
C. unionization
D. all of the above

Answer
MCQ: All employees who are eligible to select one union to bargain and represent
their collective needs are altogether called as

A. bargaining unit
B. authorization unit
C. open authorization unit
D. closed authorization unit

Answer
MCQ: Bargaining issues that are identified by laws and court decisions are classified
as

A. provision security issues

B. illegal issues
C. permissive issues
 D. mandatory issues

Situation in which disputes arose from labor's contract and different interpretations
are settled by third party is called

A. grievance conciliation
B. grievance procedures
C. grievance arbitration
D. grievance ratification

Answer
MCQ: Process in which a neutral third party got involved for negotiation is classified
as

A. mediation
B. arbitration
C. ratification
D. conciliation

Answer
MCQ: Kind of strikes that occurs when union members try to force employer to
assign them work instead of assigning task to another union is called

A. economic strikes
B. wildcat strikes
C. sympathy strikes
D. jurisdictional strikes

Answer
MCQ: Types of strikes does not include

A. whistle blower strikes

B. wildcat strikes
C. sympathy strikes
D. economic strikes

Answer
MCQ: Concept in which organization requires all individuals to become a member of
union before individuals are hired for job is called

A. closed shop
B. membership shop
C. open shop
D. emergency shop

Concept in which workers are not restricted to pay dues to unions is classified as

A. membership shop
B. open shop
C. closed shop
D. emergency shop

Answer
MCQ: Clauses of union contract that help in retaining and obtaining members are
classified as

A. distributive security provision

B. union security provision
C. mandatory security provision
D. permissive security provision

Answer
MCQ: Card which is signed by individuals to designate union as their collective
agent of bargaining is classified as

A. national authorization card

B. open authorization card
C. union authorization card
D. closed authorization card

Answer
MCQ: Union whose members perform one type of work using special training and
skills is classified as

A. craft union
B. industrial union
 C. distributive union
D. competing union

Answer
MCQ: Strike of union employees which results in loss to national economy is
classified as

A. local emergency strike

B. national emergency strike
C. economic strike
D. closed emergency strike

An easy-to-use approach that is well-adapted to evaluating risk in certain situations is

known as

A. Indirect Simulation
B. Vague Simulations
C. Monte Carlo simulation
D. Modulated Simulations

Answer
MCQ: Projects involving a "disruptive" technology that is known to industry or that
organization has been developing over time, are

A. Breakthrough Projects
B. Derivative Projects
C. Platform Projects
D. R & D projects

Answer
MCQ: A process change's matrix called aggregate project plan was developed by
Wheelwright in

A. 1992
B. 1998
C. 1982
D. 1988

Answer
MCQ: Commitment to project portfolio process, supporting process and results is
done at

A. Collect Project Data

B. Organizing the process
C. Implement the Process
D. Reserving the process

Answer
MCQ: Short-term, medium-term, and long-term returns needs to

A. Misaligned
B. Prioritized
C. Balanced
D. Reviewed

PPP can serve its purpose, if we eliminate projects that incur excessive

A. Risk
B. Validity
C. Cost
D. Both A & C

Answer
MCQ: Size of projects plotted on array indicates the

A. Resource needs
B. Shape
C. Criteria
D. Categories

Answer
MCQ: Projects that are visionary endeavors oriented toward using newly developed
technologies are known as

A. Platform Projects
B. R & D projects
C. Breakthrough Projects
D. Derivative Projects
 Answer
MCQ: A mix of projects funded by organization will be spread appropriately across
areas making organization's goals, is

A. Identification of Project Categories

B. Data Collection
C. Prioritizing the projects
D. Accessing Resources and skills

Answer
MCQ: Application of scores and criterion weights to rank projects within each
category is a part of

A. Prioritize the Projects

B. Reduce the Criteria Set
C. Projects held in Reserve
D. Assembling

Second step in Project Portfolio Process (PPP) is

A. Assess Resource
B. Identify Project Criteria
C. Collect Data
D. Prioritized the projects

Answer
MCQ: If decision maker's information is not so complete, then decision making is
under conditions of

A. Risk
B. Failure
C. Uncertainty
D. Minimum Cost

Answer
MCQ: R & D projects may not have expected monetary return of

A. Breakthrough Projects
 B. Platform Projects
C. Derivative Projects
D. Plain projects

Answer
MCQ: Extent to which a piece of information actually means what we believe it to
mean is known as its

A. Validity
B. Invalidity
C. Reliability
D. Unreliability

Answer
MCQ: Inefficient use of corporate resources results in peaks and valleys of

A. Resource Allocation
B. Resource Utilization
C. Resource Availability
D. Resource lockage

Risk analysis describes nature of problem but doesn't

A. Remove the ambiguity

B. Provides techniques
C. Reduce the uncertainty
D. Both A and C

Answer
MCQ: There is no way to solve problems under uncertainty without altering the

A. Data flow of the problem

B. Cash flow of the problem
C. Decision making abilities
D. Nature of the problem

Answer
MCQ: Term that describes uncertainties in a way that provides decision maker with a
useful insight into nature is called

A. Flow analysis
B. Risk analysis
C. Data analysis
D. Computation analysis

Answer
MCQ: Bottlenecks in resource availability or lack of required technological inputs
results in

A. Project's quality
B. Project's Efficiency
C. Project Deliverables
D. Project delays

Answer
MCQ: Output of any decision depends on what decision makers does and

A. Nature
B. Cash flows
C. Timing
D. Actions

Reduction in turnover rate, rise in production, change in attitudes and less

supervisory needs are classified as

A. post measure variables

B. pre-measures variables
C. typical costs
D. typical benefits

Answer
MCQ: Elementary way of employee's learning in which employees of an
organization copy behaviors of someone else is classified as

A. behavioral modeling
B. active modeling
 C. spaced modeling
D. massed modeling

Answer
MCQ: Completion time of training, cost of resources and number of trainees are
variables, that must be considered in

A. selection of employees
B. delivery of productivity
C. delivery of training
D. delivery of performance

Answer
MCQ: Process in which organizational client and job trainer work together to support
business goals is classified as

A. performance and training integration

B. performance identification
C. performance consulting
D. individual interaction

Answer
MCQ: Usage of internet for training employees of an organization is classified as

A. compression training
B. e-learning
C. outsource learning
D. supported learning

Concept of four level training evaluation (reaction, learning, behavior and results) is
given by

A. Donald Kirkpatrick
B. Robert Mathis
C. John (No Suggestions)
D. none of above

Answer
MCQ: Type of learners who focus on graphics and process and purpose of training
are classified as

A. massed learners
B. visual learners
C. auditory learners
D. tactile learners

Answer
MCQ: Business strategy in which company builds image by creating identity on
features such as quality, new technology and exceptional service is classified as

A. differentiation strategy
B. low cost leader strategy
C. performance positioning strategy
D. both A and B

Answer
MCQ: Step in employee training in which trainees utilize all knowledge learned in
training sessions, on job is classified as

A. transfer of training
B. development of training
C. regularity of training
D. all of the above

Answer
MCQ: Type of practice in learning which considers performance of trainees of all
duties and tasks related to job is classified as

A. active practice
B. spaced practice
C. massed practice
D. spatial practice

Systematic procedure in which people contribute in organizational goals achievement

by acquiring capabilities is classified as

A. training
 B. planning
C. staffing
D. hiring

Answer
MCQ: In an organization, technique which plays significant role in person-
organization fit after employee selection is classified as

A. job enhancement
B. job orientation
C. job enrichment
D. job enlargement

Answer
MCQ: Concept in training of employees in which reason of training must be told to
trainees, that why it is necessary is classified as

A. whole learning
B. tactile learning
C. gestalt learning
D. both A and C

Answer
MCQ: Private organizational network which limits access of information to
authorized users is classified as

A. informal network
B. wide area network
C. extranet
D. intranet

Answer
MCQ: Type of practice which considers several sessions scheduled on different
intervals of time such as days or hours is classified as

A. active practice
B. spaced practice
C. massed practice
 D. spatial practice

Type of practice in learning of employees do not include

A. affirmation practice
B. massed practice
C. active practice
D. spaced practice

Answer
MCQ: Employee learning concept which states that employees learn best with
training if feedback and reinforcement is given is classified as

A. massed confirmation
B. spaced confirmation
C. spatial confirmation
D. immediate confirmation

Answer
MCQ: Training done in guidance of instructor on one place and having trainees at
different locations is classified as

A. tactile training
B. instructor led classroom training
C. distance training
D. e-training

Answer
MCQ: Most flexible type of training in which employees are trained while
performing tasks and responsibilities associated with job is classified as

A. informal training
B. formal training
C. on the job training
D. off the job training

Answer
MCQ: Technique in which employees repeat their actions to get positive reward and
avoid actions resulting negative consequences is classified as

A. confirmation
B. reinforcement
C. technical modeling
D. active modeling

In employee training, last stage for trainee's on-the-job training is to

A. present the information

B. prepare the learners
C. do the follow up
D. practice of trainees

Answer
MCQ: Training which is done through feedback among employees and interactions
between coworkers is classified as

A. informal training
B. formal training
C. on the job training
D. off the job training

Answer
MCQ: In training evaluation, measurement of how much of concepts, attitudes and
theories learned have made impact on job is classified as

A. learning evaluation step

B. behavior evaluation step
C. reaction evaluation step
D. results evaluation step

Answer
MCQ: Kind of training which addresses issues such as lack of interpersonal skills
and supervisory skills is classified as

A. required training
B. innovative training
 C. problem solving training
D. developmental training

Answer
MCQ: In training evaluation, measurement of training effect on performance and
observation of job performance is classified as

A. reaction evaluation step

B. results evaluation step
C. learning evaluation step
D. behavior evaluation step

Type of cooperative training in which trainees have on-the-job experience with

guidance of skilled supervisor is classified as

A. school-to-work transition
B. distance training
C. internships
D. apprentice training

Answer
MCQ: If trainers of employees are hired from some external sources such as external
consultants and training firms, then this is classified as

A. in sourcing of training
B. e-training
C. outsourcing of training
D. all of above

Answer
MCQ: In employee training, third stage for trainee's on-the-job training is to

A. do the follow up
B. practice of trainees
C. present the information
D. prepare the learners

Answer
MCQ: Kind of training given to employees about product procedures, customer
relations and product knowledge is classified as

A. innovative training
B. technical training
C. interpersonal training
D. problem solving training

Answer
MCQ: In employee training, first stage for trainees' on-the-job training is to

A. do the follow up
B. practice of trainees
C. present the information
D. prepare the learners

Concept which states that trainee must have belief to learn content of training
program is classified as

A. intervening efficacy
B. auditory efficacy
C. learner readiness
D. self-efficacy

Answer
MCQ: Cooperative training method which combines on-the-job experiences and
classroom training is classified as

A. internships
B. apprentice training
C. school-to-work transition
D. distance training

Answer
MCQ: Business strategy in which company lowers its prices for products or services
to increase market share is classified as

A. differentiation strategy
B. low cost leader strategy
 C. performance positioning strategy
D. both A and B

Answer
MCQ: Outsourced training and government supported job training are types of

A. external training
B. internal training
C. off-the-job training
D. online training

Answer
MCQ: Practice kind in learning of employees which considers practice of
performance of all job related tasks all at once is classified as

A. active practice
B. spaced practice
C. massed practice
D. spatial practice

Comparison between productivity increased after training and money spent on

training is classified as

A. learning-practice analysis
B. cost-benefit analysis
C. person-organization fit
D. person-organization gap analysis

Answer
MCQ: In employee training, second stage for trainee's on-the-job training is to

A. present the information

B. prepare the learners
C. do the follow up
D. practice of trainees

Online development, coaching, committee assignments and job rotation are methods
for development approach called

A. psychological testing
 B. succession planning method
C. job site methods
D. off-site methods

Answer
MCQ: Career period in which individuals have gained external rewards and are
concerned about contribution, integrity and values is classified as

A. late career period

B. career end period
C. early career period
D. mid-career period

Answer
MCQ: Psychological testing, performance appraisals and assessment centers are
methods used to assess

A. development needs
B. staffing needs
C. tactile learning
D. massed learning

Answer
MCQ: Organizational restructurings and downsizings in any firm lead to

A. early retirement
B. increase in salary
C. self-assessment
D. reality feedback

Answer
MCQ: Techniques such as class room courses, business games, outdoor trainings and
sabbaticals are classified as

A. psychological test techniques

B. succession planning techniques
C. job site techniques
D. off-site techniques
Process in which immediate supervisors give training and feedback to employees is
classified as

A. coaching
B. job rotation
C. job enrichment
D. job enlargement

Answer
MCQ: In mentoring relationships, first mentoring stage which consists of six to
twelve months period is classified as

A. initiation
B. cultivation
C. separation
D. redefinition

Answer
MCQ: In development approaches, procedure of shifting one employee from one job
to another is classified as

A. job enrichment
B. job enlargement
C. coaching
D. job rotation

Answer
MCQ: First step of Human Resource development in any organization is

A. determining development approaches

B. assessing the needs for development
C. identifying capabilities
D. formulate HR plans

Answer
MCQ: In career planning of employees, strong vocational interest inventory and
Lindsey study of values are tests used for
 A. reality feedback
B. self-assessment
C. spaced assessment
D. massed assessment

Feedback in career planning which focuses how well employees fit in future
organizational plan is classified as

A. reality feedback
B. massed feedback
C. spaced feedback
D. tactile feedback

Answer
MCQ: One of development technique in which participants used to analyze situation
and decide best action must be taken, is classified as

A. job enrichment
B. coaching
C. simulation
D. communication

Answer
MCQ: Career period in which individuals are more concerned about external rewards
and focus on acquiring different capabilities is considered as

A. early career period

B. mid-career period
C. late career period
D. career end period

Answer
MCQ: Type of career planning which prioritize career of individuals over needs of
organization is classified as

A. compression career planning

B. tactile career planning
C. organization centered career planning
D. individual-centered career planning
 Answer
MCQ: In general career periods, individuals who are in their early career stage
belong to age group of

A. 20 years
B. 30-40 years
C. 50 years
D. 60-70 years

In general career periods, individuals who are in there mid-career stage belongs to age
group of

A. 50 years
B. 60-70 years
C. 20 years
D. 30-40 years

Answer
MCQ: In mentoring relationships, second mentoring stage which consists of two to
five years and helps employees gaining self-confidence is considered as

A. separation
B. redefinition
C. initiation
D. cultivation

Answer
MCQ: Series of positions that a person occupies throughout life regarding job is
classified as

A. organization planning
B. careers
C. career planning
D. learning plans

Answer
MCQ: In mentoring relationships, third mentoring stage in which employees
experiences independence but with little anxiety is considered as
 A. initiation
B. cultivation
C. separation
D. redefinition

Answer
MCQ: In general career periods, individuals who are in there end of career stage
belongs to age group of

A. 50 years
B. 60-70 years
C. 20 years
D. 30-40 years

Career period in which individuals are concerned about part time employment and
retirement is classified as

A. late career period

B. career end period
C. early career period
D. mid-career period

Answer
MCQ: Development of replacement charts which ensures sufficient capabilities of
individuals is one of activity to begin

A. regression planning
B. succession planning
C. training and staffing
D. assessment planning

Answer
MCQ: Promotion are made available from within and competitive advantages based
on human resources are focuses of

A. regression planning
B. aggressive planning
C. development
D. training
 Answer
MCQ: Self-assessment test in which employees were asked about preferences
regarding occupation is classified as

A. tactile interest inventory

B. swat test of career
C. strong vocational interest inventory
D. Lindzey study of values

Answer
MCQ: Type of career planning which considers jobs and identifiable career paths
leading to progression of people within an organization is called

A. organization centered career planning

B. individual-centered career planning
C. compression career planning
D. tactile career planning

Career period in which individuals are concerned about organization continuance and
mentoring and have gained external rewards and integrity is said to be

A. early career period

B. mid-career period
C. late career period
D. career end period

Answer
MCQ: Self-assessment test for individual career planning in which individual's
dominant values are identified is classified as

A. strong vocational interest inventory

B. Lindzey study of values
C. tactile interest inventory
D. swat test of career

Answer
MCQ: Third step of HR development process in any organization is
 A. determining development approaches
B. carrying succession planning
C. identifying capabilities
D. formulate HR plans

Answer
MCQ: Characteristics that must be taken into consideration while making career
choices are

A. interests
B. self-image and personality
C. social backgrounds
D. all of the above