Me Ese 2019 Prelims Q and Sol Updated

Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
SET - C
1. A reversed Carnot engine is used for heating Ans. (a)

a building. It supplies 210 × 103 kJ/hr of heat Sol. In electrolux refrigerator, a thermosyphon
to the building at 20°C. The outside air is at bubble pump is used to lift the weak aqua
–5°C. The heat taken from the outside will be solution from the generator to the seperator.
nearly The discharge tube from the generator is
(a) 192 × 103 kJ/hr extended down below the liquid level in the
(b) 188 × 103 kJ/hr generator. The bubbles rise and carry slugs
of weak NH3 – H2O solution into the seperator.
(c) 184 × 103 kJ/hr
(d) 180 × 103 kJ/hr 3. The enthalpy of moist air with normal
notationas is given by
Ans. (a)
(a) h = (1.005 + 1.88W) t + 2500W
Sol. T1 = 273 + 20 = 293 K
(b) h = 1.88Wt + 2500W
T2 = 273 – 5 = 268 K
(c) h = 1.005Wt
Q1 = 210 × 103 kJ/hr
(d) h = (1.88 + 1.005W) t + 2500W
For a reversed Carnot engine,
T1 Ans. (a)
Q1 Q2
Sol. Enthalpy of moist air, h = ha + w hv
T1 = T2 Q1
 h = 1.005 t + w [2500 + 1.88t] kJ/kgda
W
Q1
 Q2 = T  T2  h = [1.005 + 1.88 w] t + 2500W
1 Q2
T2 4. If the relative humidity of atmospheric air is
3 268 100%, then the wet-bulb temperature will be
= 210  10 
293
(a) more than dry-bulb temperature
3
=192 × 10 kJ/hr
(b) equal to dew-point temperature
2. In an Electrolux refrigerator, a thermo-siphon (c) equal to dry-bulb temperature
bubble pump is used to lift the
(d) less than dry-bulb temperature
(a) weak aqua solution from the generator to
Ans. (b, c)
the separator
Sol. If relative humidity of atmospheric air is 100%,
(b) weak aqua solution from the separator to
then air is saturated and for saturated air DBT
the absorber
= WBT = DPT
(c) strong aqua solution from the generator
to the separator 5. During an air-conditioning of a plant, the room
(d) strong aqua solution from the generator sensible heat load is 40 kW and room latent
to the evaporator heat load is 10 kW, ventilation air is 25% of
supply air. At full load, the room sensible heat
factor will be
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 supplied to the rotor
(c) 0.7 (d) 0.6 (d) useful hydrodynamic energy in the fluid
Ans. (b) at final discharge and mechanical energy
supplied to the shaft and coupling
RSH 40
Sol. RSHF =   0.8 Ans. (b)
RSH  RLH 40  10
Head extracted
6. A 2-stroke oil engine has bore of 20 cm, stroke by the rotor
30cm, speed 350 r.p.m., i.m.e.p. 275 kN/m 2, Sol. Hydraulic efficiency =
R
Net load available
net brake load 610 N, diameter of brake drum to the rotor
1m, oil consumption 4.25 kg/hr, calorific value
of fuel 44 × 103 kJ/kg. The indicated thermal work done by the runner
TE
efficiency will be = K.E. of the jet inlet to bucket
(a) 29.1% (b) 31.3% Mechanical energy

(c) 33.5% (d) 35.7% supplied by the rotor
Ans. (a) = Hydrodynamic energy
available from fluid
AS
Sol. D = 20cm
L = 30 cm 8. Consider the following statements regarding
compounding in steam turbines:
N = 350 rpm
1. In impulse turbine, steam pressure
imep = 350 rpm
remains constant between ends of the
CV = 44 × 106 J/kg moving blades.
M
4.25 2. In reaction turbine, steam pressure drops

 =
m kg/s
60  60 from inlet to outlet of the blade.
 2 350 3. In velocity compounding, partial expansion
i.p. = 275  20  102   30  10 2   103 of steam takes place in the nozzle and
4 60
further expansion takes place in the rotor
S
= 15118.9 × 10-3 Watt blades.
115118.9  103 Which of the above statements are correct?

ip =  60  60
IE
4.25  44  106 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
= 0.291 = 29.1% (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)
7. The hydraulic efficiency of a turbine is the
Sol. • In impulse turbine inlet pressure = outlet
ratio of
pressure and blade is equiangular
(a) mechanical energy in the output shaft at
So, change in relative component is zero
coupling and hydrodynamic energy
and hence relative component is same,
available from the fluid
so no reaction takes place.
(b) mechanical energy supplied by the rotor
• In reaction turbine steam pressure drops
and hydrodynamic energy available from
from inlet to outlet of the blade
the fluid
• In velocity compounding whole expansion
(c) useful hydrodynamic energy in the fluid
takes place in nozzle and velocity is
at final discharge and mechanical energy
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
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reduced subsequent stages. In 50% reaction turbine for maximum '  '
9. In a lawn sprinkler, water leaves the jet with U
 2  90 , 3   2 , V  cos 
an absolute velocity of 2m/s and the sprinkler 1
arms are 0.1 m in length. The sprinkler rotates
at a speed of 120 r.p.m. The utilization factor 11. In axial flow pumps and compressors, the
of this sprinkler will be nearly combined velocity diagram with common base
is used to determine change in
(a) 0.72 (b) 0.64
(a) absolute velocity (V2 – V1)
(c) 0.56 (d) 0.49
Ans. (a*) (b) relative velocity  Vr2  Vr1 
R
Sol. (c) tangential velocity (U2 – U1)
Consider sprinkles asradial blade
(d) whirl velocity  Vu2  Vu1 
TE
2
 2N 
  0.1 Ans. (d)
 60 
 =  2 2 Sol.
2 Vw2
Vw1
1.578
AS
=  0.788
2
10. Which one of the following statements is Vr2

Vr1
correct with respect to axial flow 50% reaction V1
turbine? V2
(a) The combined v elocity diagram is

M
symmetrical. Vw  Vw 2  Vw1
(b) The outlet absolute velocity should not be 12. In a steam turbine with steam flow rate of
axial for maximum utilization 1 kg/s, inlet velocity of steam of 100 m/s, exit
(c) Angles of both stator and rotor are not velocity of steam of 150 m/s, enthalpy at inlet
S
identical. of 2900 kJ/kg, enthalpy at outlet of 1600

(d) For maximum utilization, the speed ratio kJ/kg, the power available from the turbine
will be nearly
U
IE
 sin2 . (a) 1575.5 kW (b) 1481.6 kW

v1
(c) 1387.7 kW (d) 1293.8 kW
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
Sol. Sol.
h0 = stagnation enthalpy
Vr1 Vr2
V2  v2   v2 
=  h1  1    h2  2 
1  2   2 
2 1 2
 1 2 1 2
=  2900  100   1600  150  
for maximum '  '  2 2 
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
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= 1293.8 kW Ans. (d)
13. In an isentropic flow through a nozzle, air flows Sol.

at the rate of 600 kg/hr. At inlet to nozzle, the Vb cos 
pressure is 2 MPa and the temperature is =  0.4755  0.48
V1 2
127°C. The exit pressure is of 0.5 MPa. If the
initial velocity of air is 300 m/s, the exit velocity  V1 cos 1  Vb  1  K   Vb = 120×103
will be 94 
 V1 cos18  0.48V1   1    0.48 V1 = 120 × 103
R
(a) 867 m/s (b) 776 m/s  100 
(c) 685 m/s (d) 594 m/s
V12  cos18  0.48  1.94   0.48 = 120×103
Ans. (d)
V1  515.1 m/s
TE
Sol.
15. An air compressor compresses atmospheric
T1 = 127°C = 273 + 127 = 400 K
air at 0.1 MPa and 27°C by 10 times of air
P1 = 2MPa, P2 = 0.5 MPa, V1 = 300 m/se inlet pressure. During compression, the heat
 1 1.41
lost to the surrounding is estimated to be 5%
T1  P1    2  1.4 of compression work. Air enters the
AS

T2 =  P2  
 0.5  compressor with a velocity of 40 m/s and
leaves with 100 m/s. The inlet and exit cross-
=  4 0.285  1.484 sectional areas are 100 cm 2 and 20cm 2
respectively. The temperature of air at the exit
T1
T2 =  269.54K from the compressor will be
1.484
(a) 1498 K (b) 1574 K
M
V2 V2
h1  1 = h2  2 (c) 1654 K (d) 1726 K
2 2
Ans. (a)
2
V2 = 2  h1  h2    300 
P1 0.1 106
Sol. 1 = 
S
= 2 RT1 0.287  103  300

2  1.005  1000  400  269.5   300 
= 594 m/sec = 1.1614 kg/m3
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14. In a steam turbine, the nozzle angle at the  = 1A1V1  1.1614  100  10 4  40
m
inlet is 18°. The relative velocity is reduced to = 0.4646 kg/s
the extent of 6% when steam flows over the
moving blades. The output of the turbine is P2
 = 2 A 2 V2  RT A 2 V2
m
120 kJ/kg flow of steam. If the blades are 2
equiangular, the speed ratio and the absolute
P2 A 2 V2
velocity of steam ratio and the absolute  T2 = 
mR
velocity of steam at inlet for maximum
utilization are nearly
1 106  20  104  100
(a) 0.42 and 230.2 m/s =
0.4646  0.287  103
(b) 0.48 and 230.2 m/s
= 1499.9 K
(c) 0.42 and 515.1 m/s
(d) 0.48 and 515.1 m/s
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Mechanical
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16. A compressor delivers 4 m3 of air having a Ans. (a)
mass of 5 kg. The specific weight and specific Sol.
volume of air being delivered will be nearly
(a) 12.3 N/m3 and 0.8 m3/kg  1 
W = Cp T0  rp   1
(b) 14.6 N/m3 and 0.4 m3/kg
(c) 12.3 N/m3 and 0.4 m3/kg  0.4
= 1.005  288 5  1.4  1 
(d) 14.6 N/m3 and 0.8 m3/kg = 1.005 × 288 × 0.5819
= 168.45 kW/kg
Ans. (a)
R
W ideal= 167.615 ×30 = 5053.62
weight mg Wideal
Sol. Specific weight = 
volume V st = W
actual
TE
5  9.81
=  12.26 N/m3 Wideal 5053.62
4 W actual = 
st 0.85
volume
Specific volume = = 5964 kW
mass
4 19. The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is
AS
=  0.8 m3 /kg higher than that of simple Rankine cycle
5
because
17. In centrifugal compressors, there exists a loss (a) the enthalpy of main steam is higher for
of energy due to the mismatch of direction of superheat cycle
relative velocity of fluid at inlet with inlet blade
angle. This loss is known as (b) the mean temperature of heat addition is
higher for superheat cycle
M
(a) frictional loss (b) incidence loss

(c) the temperature of steam in the condenser
(c) clearance loss (d) leakage loss is high
Ans. (b) (d) the quality of steam in the condenser is
Sol. Additional losses that occur in a row of blades low
S
in a centrifugal compressor stage on account Ans. (b)

of incidence (mismatch of direction of relative
velocity of fluid of inlet with inlet blade angle) 20. In steam power cycle, the process of removing
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termed as incidence losses. It is conventionally non-condensable gases is called

known as shock losses. (a) scavenging process
18. A centrifugal compressor develops a pressure (b) deaeration process
ratio of 5 and air consumption of 30 kg/s. The (c) exhaust process
inlet temperature and pressure are 15°C and
1 bar respectively. For an isentropic efficiency (d) condensation process
of 0.85, the power required by the compressor Ans. (b)
will be nearly
21. The internal irreversibility of Rankine cycle is
(a) 5964 kW (b) 5778 kW
caused by
(c) 5586 kW (d) 5397 kW 1. fluid friction
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2. throttling
 1 1  ma  1  
3. mixing 20 = 353  35    
 305 638  ma  
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.  1 1  ma  1  
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1.618 × 10–3 =  305  638  m 
  a 
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ma = 16.9 kg/kg of fuel
R
Ans. (d)
24. A 2 kg of steam occupying 0.3 m 3 at 15 bar
22. A 1 g sample of fuel is burned in a bomb is expanded according to the law pv 1.3 =
calorimeter containing 1.2 kg of water at an constant to a pressure of 1.5 bar. The work
TE
initial temperature of 25°C. After the reaction, done during the expansion will be
the final temperature of the water is 33.2°C.
The heat capacity of the calorimeter is (a) 602.9 kJ (b) 606.7 kJ
837 J/°C. The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/ (c) 612.5 kJ (d) 618.3 kJ
°C. The heat released by the fuel will be nearly Ans. (d)
(a) 36 kJ/g (b) 42 kJ/g
AS
Sol. P1V11.3 = P2 V21.3
(c) 48 kJ/g (d) 54 kJ/g
1.3
Ans. (c) P1  V2 
P2 = V 
Sol.  w × 4.18 × (33.2 – 25)
Qwater = m  1
1
= 1.2 × 4.18 × 8.2  P1 1.3
M
 V2 =    V1
= 41.3 kJ  P2 
Qcalorimeter = 837  T  837   33.2  25  1
 15bar 1.3 3 3
= 6.8634 kJ  V2 = 
1.5 bar   0.3 m  1.7634 m
 
S
Qfuel = Qwater + Qcalorimeter Pv 1.3 = constant = C (say)

= 41.3  6.8634  48kJ C
 P=
V1.3
IE
23. A boiler is having a chimney of 35 m height.

V2 V2
The draught produced in terms of water C
column is 20 mm. The temperature of flue work done W =  Pdv   V1.3 dV
V1 V1
gas inside the chimney is 365°C and that of
V2
air outside the chimney is 32°C. The mass of V2
V 0.3
1.3
air used will be nearly =  CV dV  C
0.3 V1
V1
(a) 10.3 kg/kg of fuel (b) 12.5 kg/kg of fuel
(c) 14.7 kg/kg of fuel (d) 16.9 kg/kg of fuel C
= V20.3  V10.3
0.3
Ans. (d)
1  1.3 0.3 1.3 0.3
= P2 V2  V2  P1V1  V1 
1 1  m  1 0.3
Sol. 20 = 3531     a 
T
 a Tg  ma  
 1 P V P V
= P2 V2  P1V1   1 1 2 2 
0.3  0.3 
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= [15×105 × 0.3 – 1.5 × 105 × 1.7634]/0.3 the steam turbine, the steam passes to
= 618.3 kJ condenser which is maintained at a vacuum
of 250 mm of mercury by means of pumps.
25. Which of the following statements is/are The inlet and exhaust steam pressures will
correct regarding superheater in boilers? be nearly
1. It is heat exchanger in which heat is (a) 2101 kPa and 68 kPa
transformed to the saturated steam to (b) 2430 kPa and 78 kPa
increase its temperature.
(c) 2101 kPa and 78 kPa
2. It raises the overall efficiency.
(d) 2430 kPa and 68 kPa
R
3. It reduces turbine internal efficiency.
Ans. (a)
Select the correct answer using the code given Sol. Inlet pressure = 20 bar guage
below.
Absolute inlet pressure = Guage Pr. +
TE
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 atmospheric
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only = (20 × 102 + 101) kPa
Ans. (a) = 2101 kPa
Sol. The superheater is a heat exchanger in which Exit pressure = 250 mm of mercury (vaccum)
AS
heat is transferred to the saturated steam to
Absolute exit pressure = Atmospheric pressure
increase its temperature. It raises the overall
– vaccum pressure
efficiency. It reduces the moisture content in
last stages of the turbine and thus increases = (101 – 13.6 × 9.81 × 0.25) kPa
the turbine internal efficiency. = 67.64 kPa
26. Water vapour at 90 kPa and 150°C enters a 28. In a power plant, the efficiencies of the electric
M
subsonic diffuser with a velocity of 150 m/s generator, turbine, boiler, thermodynamic cycle
and leaves the diffuser at 190 kPa with a and the overall plant are 0.97, 0.95, 0.92, 0.42
velocity of 55 m/s, and during the process, and 0.33 respectively. The total electricity
1.5 kJ/kg of heat is lost to the surrounding. generated for running the auxiliaries will be
For water vapour, Cp is 2.1 kJ/kgK. The final nearly
S
temperature of water vapour will be

(a) 4.9% (b) 5.7%
(a) 154°C (b) 158°C
(c) 6.5% (d) 7.3%
(c) 162°C (d) 166°C
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Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
Sol. Overall efficiency = g  t  b  c  a
Sol. Applying S.F.E.E. at inlet and exit of diffuser
0.33 = 0.97 × 0.95 × 0.92 × 0.42 × a
V2 V2
h1  1  qcv = h2  2 a = 0.926
20w 2000
The total electricity generated for running
V12  V22
Cp(T2 – T1) =  1.5 auxilliarities = 1 – 0.926 = 0.073 or 7.3%
2000
 T2 = 154°C 29. A turbine in which steam expands both in
nozzle as well as in blades is called as
27. A steam turbine is supplied with steam at a
pressure of 20 bar gauge. After expansion in (a) impulse reaction turbine
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(b) reciprocating steam turbine (c) 48.6% and 51.4%
(c) gas turbine (d) 58.6% and 41.4%
(d) Curtis turbine Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
Sol. L
30. Consider the following statements regarding
reaction turbine:

R
1. Blade shape is aerofoil type and its R
manufacturing is difficult.
2. It is suitable for small power.
TE
3. Leakages losses are less compared to 19 C0 97.50
friction losses.
%Sn
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
QR
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only m =
PR
AS
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
PQ
m =
Ans. (d) PR
31. A sample of glass has a crack of half-length B m = 3m
2 m. The Young’s modulus of glass is 70 QR PQ
GN/m2 and specific surface energy is 1 J/m2. = 3
PR PR
M
The fractures strength will be

97.5 – 60= 3 × (C0 – 19)
(a) 885 MPa (b) 895 MPa 97.5 – C0= 3C0 – 57
(c) 915 MPa (d) 935 MPa 4C0 = 97.5 + 57
Ans. (d) C0 = 38.6 % Sn
S
2  % Pb = 100 – 38.6 = 61.4

1 E
Sol. Fracture strength = f
2  C  33. A cylindrical specimen of steel having an
original diameter of 12.8 mm is tensile tested
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1/ 2
1  70  109  to fracture and found to have engineering
= 1 
2  2  106  fracture strength f of 460 MPa. If its cross-
= 935.4 MPa sectional diameter at fracture is 10.7 mm, the
true stress at fracture will be
32. In the Pb-Sn system, the fraction of total 
(a) 660 MPa (b) 645 MPa
phase is 3 times the fraction of  phase at
(c) 630 MPa (d) 615 MPa
eutectic temperature of 182°C, Pb with 19%
Sn dissolved in it, Sn with 2.5% Pb dissolved Ans. (a)
in it, and liquid is in equilibrium. The alloy Sol. True stress at fracture
composition of tin (Sn) and lead (Pb) are
nearly A0
t =  f
A
(a) 28.6% and 71.4%
(b) 38.6% and 61.4%
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 12.8  36. The indentation on a steel sample has been
= 460  2 taken using 10 mm tungsten carbide ball at
 10.7 
500 kgf load. If the average diameter of the
= 658.3 MPa
indentation is 2.5 mm, the BHN will be nearly
34. An iron container 10cm × 10cm at its base is (a) 90 (b) 100
filled to a height of 20 cm with a corrosive (c) 110 (d) 120
liquid. A current is produced as a result of an
electrolytic cell, and after four weeks, the Ans. (b)
container has decreased in weight by 70 g. If Sol. Brinell hardness number,
n = 2, F = 96500 C and M = 55.84 g/mole, F
R
the current will be BHN =
D  
D  D 2  d2
(a) 0.05 A (b) 0.10 A 2
(c) 0.20 A (d) 0.40 A 2  500
TE
Ans. (b) =
  10 10  102  2.52 
Sol. Total exposure time = 4 × 7 × 24 × 3600 = = 100
2.42 × 106s
As per Faraday’s law, 37. Which of the following statements are correct
with respect to inversion of mechanisms?
AS
QM ItM
m=  1. It is a method of obtaining different
nF nF
mechanisms by fixing different links of the
where Q = charge, F = current, same kinematic chain.
F = Faraday’s constant = 96500 C 2. It is method of obtaining diff erent
n = no. of equivalents (mols of electrons) mechanisms by fixing the same links of
transferred per mol of metal different kinematic chains.
M
m = mass of metal oxidised (g) 3. In the process of inversion, the relative

motions of the links of the mechanisms
M = molecular wt. of metal (g/mole)
produced remain unchanged.
mnF 70  2  96500 4. In the process of inversion, the relative
  0.1A
S
 I = tM  2.42  106  55.84  motions of the links of the mechanisms

produced will change accordingly.
35. A copper piece originally 305 mm long is
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Select the correct answer using the code given

pulled in tension with a stess of 276 MPa. If
below.
the deformation is entirely elastic and the
modulus of elasticity is 110 GPa, the resultant (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
elongation will be nearly (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) 0.43 mm (b) 0.54 mm Ans. (a)
(c) 0.65 mm (d) 0.77 mm
38. For the follower with stroke S, following the
Ans. (d) cycloidal motion, the radius of the rolling circle
 276  305 will be
Sol. Elongation,  =   0.77 mm
E 110  10 3 S
(a) S  2 (b)
2
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Mechanical
Engineering
2 = 279.4 Hz
(c) (d) S  2
S 40. The accurate method of finding the natural
Ans. (b) frequency of transverse vibration of a system
Sol. For cylinder motions the circumference of of several loads attached to some shaft is
rolling circle is equal to stroke i.e. follower (a) Dunkerley method
displacement. Hence (b) energy method
2r = S (c) Stodola method
R
 Radius of rolling circle r = S / 2 (d) Dunkerley and energy method
Ans. (b)
39. A vertical shaft of 100 mm diameter and 1 m
TE
length has its upper end fixed at the top. The Sol. Dunkerley method, Stodola method and
other end carries a disc of 5000 N and the Holzar’s methods are numerical methods but
modulus of elasticity of the shaft material is approximate. Energy method gives accurate
2 × 105 N/mm2. Neglecting of the longitudinal frequency.
vibrations will be nearly
41. The speed at which the shaft runs, so that
(a) 279.5 Hz (b) 266.5 Hz
AS
the deflection of the shaft from the axis of
(c) 253.5 Hz (d) 241.5 Hz rotation becomes infinite, is known as
Ans. (a) (a) whipping speed
Sol. The extension in vertical shaft is calculated (b) damping speed
by stress equation (c) resonant speed
M
(d) gravitational speed

Ans. (a)
=1.0m
d=100mm 42. Which one of the following is not the correct
5 2
E=2×10 N/mm statement with respect to the involute profile
S
toothed gears in mesh?

(a) Pressure angle remains constant from the
start till the end of the engagement.
IE
W=5000N
(b) The base circle diameter and the pitch
 circle diameter of the two mating involutes
 = E  E 
 are proportional.
 Extension in shaft, (c) When two involutes are in mesh, the
  w angular velocity ratio is proportional to the
 =  size of the base circles.
E AE
The frequency of longitudinal vibration, (d) The shape of the involute profile depends
only on the dimensions of the base circle.
1 g 1 gAE
f=  Ans. (c)
2  2 w
43. The centre distance C between two gears, in

9.81  1002  2  105 terms of base circle radii R1, R2 and the
= 1 4
2 5000  1.0 pressure angle , is
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
cos  R1  R2 90 
(a) R  R (b) =  45 N-m
1 2 cos  2
Power developed,
 R1   R2 
(c)  R   cos  (d)  R   cos  2  400
 2  1 P = Tm    45 
60
Ans. (b)
45. A vertical single-cylinder opposed piston type
Sol. The centre distance between two gears,
engine has reciprocating parts of mass 2000
C = Sum of pitch circle radii kg for the lower piston and 2750 kg for the
= r1 + r 2 upper piston. The lower piston has a stroke
R
of 60 cm and the engine is in primary balance.
R1 R
 2 =
R1  R2  If the ratio of the length of connecting rod to
cos  cos  cos  crank is 4 for the lower piston and 8 for the
TE
upper piston, and when the crankshaft speed
44. A three-cylinder single-acting engine has its is of 135 r.p.m., the maximum secondary
cranks at 120°. The turning moment diagram unbalanced force will be
for each cycle is a triangle for the power stroke
with a maximum torque of 60 Nm at 60° after (a) 48935.5 N (b) 46946.5 N
the dead centre of the corresponding crank. (c) 44968.5 N (d) 42989.5 N
There is no torque on the return stroke. The
AS
Ans. (c)
engine runs at 400 r.p.m. the power developed
will be Sol. Since the engine is in complete primary
balance,
(a) 1745 W (b) 1885 W
(c) 1935 W (d) 1995 W
Ans. (b)
M
Sol. The turning moment diagram. m1=2750kg

n1=8
T
60N (I) (II) (III)
N1=135rpm
w=14.14rad/sec
Tm
S
m2=2000kg
n2=4 Stroke s = 60cm
IE
r2=30cm
0 60 120 180 240 300

Work done by all cylinder per cycle
 mr2 = 0
1
W = 3    60  m1r1  m2r2 = 0
2
= 90N-m.  Radius or crank length of upper piston
 Mean torque, m2r2 2000  30
r1 =   21.82cm
work done m1 2750
Tm =
crank angle  Maximum secondary force
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
2 2 (a) 1.8 mm (b) 2.6 mm
mr2 m1r1  m2r2
 = (c) 3.4 mm (d) 4.2 mm
n n1 n2
Ans. (a)
2750  0.2182  14.142 2000  0.3  14142
=  Sol. Height of Watt governor,
8 4
= 14996.72 + 29990.94 895000
H= mm ...(i)
N2
= 44487.7 N
R
where, N is rpm
46. The reciprocating mass is balanced when
primary force is  At N = 100 rpm
TE
2 89500
1. balanced by the mass = cmr cos  H1 =  89.5mm
1002
2
2. unbalanced by the mass = cmr cos  At N = 101 rpm
3. balanced by the mass = 895000
1  c  cmr 2 cos  H2 =  87.74mm
1012
AS
4. unbalanced by the mass  Change in height,
2
 1  c  cmr cos 
H = H1 – H2 = 89.5 – 87.74 = 1.76mm
Select he correct answer using the code given 49. A rectangular strut is 150 mm wide and 120
below. mm thick. It carries a load of 180 kN at an
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 eccentricity of 10 mm in a plane bisecting the
M
thickness as shown in the figure

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Ans. (c) 150 mm
Sol. Note: Assuming extra ‘C’ outside bracket as

misprint 120 mm
S
47. The active gyroscopic torque in gyroscope 10 mm

about a horizontal axis represents 180 kN
IE
(a) the torque required to cause the axis of

spin to precess in the vertical plane
(b) the torque required to cause the axis of
spin to precess in the horizontal plane
(c) the force required to cause the axis of
spin to precess in the horizontal plane
(d) the force required to cause the axis of The maximum intensity of stress in the section
spin to precess in the vertical plane will be
Ans. (b) (a) 14 MPa (b) 12 MPa
48. The change in governor height for a Watt (c) 10 MPa (d) 8 MPa
governor when speed varies from 100 r.p.m. Ans. (a)
to 101 r.p.m. will be nearly
Sol. Maximum intensity of stress = b  c
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
My P My
=  as    P
I A 
180  103  10  75 180  103 static 2 5
= 3
  
120  150 12  150 static 1 20
12
= 4 + 10  static 2  5
= 14 MPa Calculation of st as st  P
50. The theory of failure used in designing the  st s

 =
R
ductile materials in a most accurate way is by 10 20
(1) maximum principal stress theory   st =2.5
(2) distortion energy theory As we know for impact load,
TE
(3) maximum strain theory  2h 
max  st  1  1  
Select the correct answer using the code given  st 

below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only 40  2h 
  1  1  
5  2.5 
AS
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
Ans. (c) 2h
 8  1 1
Sol. The most accurate way of designing ductile 2.5
material is by use of distortion energy theory 2h
or Von-mises theory.  72 – 1 =
2.5
M
51. When a load of 20 kN is gradually applied at 2h

48 =
a particular point in a beam, it produces a 2.5
maximum bending stress of 20 MPa and a
h  60 mm
deflection of 10 mm. What will be the height
from which a load of 5 kN should fall onto the
52. The areas of fatigue failure in a part may be
beam at the same point if the maximum
S
in the
bending stress is 40 MPa?
(1) region having slow growth of crack with a
(a) 80 mm (b) 70 mm
fine fibrous appearance.
IE
(c) 60 mm (d) 50 mm
(2) region having faster growth of crack with
Ans. (c) a fine fibrous appearance.
Sol. Given, For 20 KN static load (3) region of sudden fracture with a coarse
 = 10 mm granular appearance.
(4) region of gradual fracture with a coarse
static1 = 20 MPa granular appearance.
For 5 KN impact load Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
max  40 MPa
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
For this static 2  ? (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Ans. (d) circumferential hoop stress
Sol.  The slow growth of crack in fatigue failure (d) torque required in overcoming thread
results in fine fibrous appearance i.e. friction and inducing the pre-load and also
smooth and polished surface. Basically it the torque required to overcome collar
occures in initial stage. friction between the nut and the washer
 In the later stage, the fracture is sudden Ans. (d)
without warning and appearance of this
portion of surface in coarse granular as 55. A steel spindle transmits 4 kW at 800 r.p.m.
R
shown in figure The angular deflection should not exceed
0.25°/m length of the spindle. If the modulus
Early stage/smooth
of rigidity for the material of the spindle is 84
TE
surface GPa, the diameter of the spindle will be
(a) 46 mm (b) 42 mm
(c) 38 mm (d) 34 mm
Granular rough Ans. (d)
surface (later stage)
2NT
AS
Sol. Power, P =
53. The shock-absorbing capacity (resilence) of 60
bolts can be increased by
60P
(a) increasing the shank diameter above the  Torque, T =
2 N
core diameter of threads
(b) reducing the shank diameter to the core 60  4  103
= = 47.746 N-m
2  800
M
diameter of threads
(c) decreasing the length of shank portion of T T
Angular deflection,  = 
the bolt JG d4
G
(d) pre-heating of the shank portion of the 32
bolt  47.746  1 32
S
 0.25 =
Ans. (b) 180   d4  84  109
Sol. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt can  d = 33.9 mm  34 mm
IE
increased by reducing the diameter of

unthreaded part. This can be done either by 56. A taper roller bearing has a dynamic load
reducing diameter of unthreaded part or capacity of 26 kN. The desired life for 90% of
making hole in unthreaded part along axis. the bearings is 8000 hr and the speed is 300
This concept is used in bolt of uniform r.p.m. The equivalent radial load that the
strength. bearing can carry will be nearly
(a) 5854 N (b) 5645 N
54. The torque required to tighten the bolt
comprises of the (c) 5436 N (d) 5227 N
(a) torque required in overcoming thread Ans. (a)
friction only Sol. Life of bearing in millions of revolutions,
(b) torque required in inducing the pre-load 60 NL10 h 60  300  8000
only 40 = 6

10 106
(c) torque required in ov ercoming
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
= 144 million rev. Tr
Permissible stress,  =
Equivalent radial load, J
10/3 Do
C T
L=    106 2 16T
P = =
 4   D 4 
(D  Di4 )
C 26000 32 0  D3o 1   i  
P=
(144)0.3
=  5854 N   Do  
(144)0.3
16  859.466  103
57. Hollow shafts are stronger than solid shafts 84 =
D3o 1  (0.6)4 
having same weight because
R
(a) the stiffness of hollow shaft is less than Do = 39.1 mm
that of solid shaft  Di = 0.6 Do = 23.47 mm
TE
(b) the strength of hollow shaft is more than
59. A bicycle and rider travelling at 12 km/hr on
that of solid shaft
a level road have a mass of 105 kg. A brake
(c) the natural frequency of hollow shaft is is applied to a rear wheel having 800 mm
less than that of solid shaft diameter. The pressure on the brake is 80 N
(d) in hollow shafts, material is not spread at and the coefficient of friction is 0.06. The
large radius number of turns of the wheel before coming
AS
to rest will be
Ans. (b)
(a) 48.3 revolutions (b) 42.6 revolutions
Sol. Strength (polar modulus) of hollow shaft is
more than that of solid shaft. (c) 38.3 revolutions (d) 32.6 revolutions
Ans. (a)
58. A propeller shaft is required to transmit 45
kW power at 500 r.p.m. It is a hollow shaft Sol. Assuming the bicycle and rider as a ring, the
M
having inside diameter 0.6 times the outside moment of inertia.

diameter. It is made of plain carbon steel and I = mr2 = 105 × 0.42 = 16.8 kg-m2
the permissible shear stress is 84 N/mm2. The Initial angular velocity of disc
inner and outer diameters of the shaft are
nearly. V 12  5 25
S
 =  = rad / sec .
(a) 21.7 mm and 39.1 mm r 18  0.4 3
(b) 23.5 mm and 39.1 mm The friction force on whirl,

IE
(c) 21.7 mm and 32.2 mm f = P = 0.06 × 80 = 4.8N

(d) 23.5 mm and 32.2 mm The torque due to brake
Ans. (b)  = r.f = 0.4 × 4.8 = 1.42 N-m
Sol. Di = 0.6 Do 
The angular acceleration,  =
2 NT 
Power, P =
60 192
= = 0.1143 rad/sec2
2  500  T 168
45 × 103 =
60 From equation of motion,
 Torque, T = 859.466 Nm 2f = i2  2  
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
0 = 2  2   10
= = 0.294
20  200
Angular displacement during braking  0.85
20  5
2 (25 / 3)
m  29.4%
 = =
2  0.1143
2
= 303.8 radians 62. What is the force required for 90° bending of
Numbers of revolutions during braking St50 steel of 2 mm thickness in a V-die, if the
die opening is taken as 8 times the thickness
R
 303.8 and the length of the bent part is 1 m, ultimate
n=  = 48.35 rev..
2 2 tensile strength is 500 MPa and K = 1.33?
(a) 166.25 kN (b) 155.45 kN
TE
60. To avoid self-engagement in cone clutch, its
semi-cone angle is always kept (c) 154.65 kN (d) 143.85 kN
(a) smaller than the angle of static friction Ans. (a)
(b) equal to the angle of static friction Sol. Ultimate tensile strength, UTS = 500 MPa
(c) greater than the angle of static friction Thickness, t = 2mm
AS
(d) half of the angle of static friction Length of bent part, L = 1m
Ans. (c) Width of die opening, W = 8 × thickness =
8 × 2 = 16 mm
61. In case of arc welding of steel with a potential
of 20 V and current of 200 A, the travel speed Fadal K = 1.33 for V-die
is 5 mm/s and the cross-sectional area of the K = 0.3 to 0.34 for wiping die
M
joint is 20 mm2. The heat required for melting

L
steel may be taken as 10 J/mm 3 and heat Bending force, F = K  UTS   t2
transfer efficiency as 0.85. The melting W
efficiency will be nearly 1.33  500  (1 103 )  22
F=
(a) 18% (b) 29% 16
S
(c) 36% (d) 42% = 16,6250 N

Ans. (b) = 166.25 KN
IE
Sol. Voltage, V = 20V 63. A graph is drawn to a vertical magnification of

Current, I = 200A 10000 and horizontal magnification of 100,
and the areas above and below the datum
Welding speed, v = 5 mm/s
line are as follows:
Cross-sectional area, A = 20 mm2
Above 150 mm2 80 mm2 170 mm2 40 mm2
Heat required to melt steel = 10J/mm 3 = Hm
Below 80 mm2 60 mm 2 150 mm2 120 mm2
Heat transfer efficiency, th = 0.85
The average roughness Ra for sampling
Melting efficiency, m = ? length of 0.8 mm will be
(a) 1.14 m (b) 1.10 m
Hm 10
m  = (c) 1.06 m (d) 1.02 m
H2 V
 HT
A Ans. (c)
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Sol. Vertical magnification, VM = 10,000 handling and storage, computer control system
Horizontal magnification, HM = 100 and human labour?
Sum of areas above & below datum line, (a) Portable manufacturing system
A = 150 + 80 + 170 + 40 + 80 + 60 + 150 (b) Focused integrated system
+ 120 = 850 mm2 (c) Flexible manufacturing system
Sampling length, L = 0.8 mm (d) Automated integrated system
Average roughness, Ans. (c)
A 1 1 Sol. Flexible manufacturing system (FMS) consists
Ra =  
of a group of NC machines connected together
R
L vertical scale horizontal scale
by an automated material handling system and
A 1 1 operating under computer control. The basic
Ra =   mm
L 104 102 components of FMS are machine tools and
TE
the related equipment; material handling
850 1
=  6 mm equipment; computer control system and the
0.8 10 human labour.
Ra = 1.06 m
66. A project initially costs Rs 5,000 and generates
year-end cash inflows of Rs 1,800, Rs 1,600,
64. The radius of arc is measured by allowing a
AS
Rs 1,400, Rs 1,200 and Rs 1,000 respectively
20 mm diameter roller to oscillate to and fro
in five years of its life. If the rate of return is
on it and the time for 25 oscillations is noted
10%, the net present value (NPV) will be
at 56.25 s. The radius of arc will be
(a) Rs 500 (b) Rs 450
(a) 865 mm (b) 850 mm
(c) Rs 400 (d) Rs 350
(c) 835 mm (d) 820 mm
M
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
 1800 1600 1400 1200
20 Sol. NPV =    
Sol. Radius of roller, r =  10 mm  1.1 1.12 1.13 1.14
2
56.25 1000 
   5000
S
Time period of oscillation, T = 1.15 

25
= 2.25 sec. = [1636.36 + 1322.31 + 1051.84 + 819.62
+ 620.92]
IE
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s2

= 451
= 9810 mm/s2
67. What is the mode for the following distribution?
T2  g
Radius of arc, R = + r
6 2 Gross profit as Number of
percentage of sales companies
(2.25)2  9810 07 19
R=  10  848.65 mm
6  2 7  14 25
R = 848.65 mm 14  21 36
21  28 72
65. W hich one of the following systems is 28  35 51
consisting of processing stations, material 35  42 43
42  49 28
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
(a) 19.55 (b) 21.40
Sol. R(t) = e t
(c) 23.25 (d) 25.10
Given, R(t) = 0.8 for t = 2 × 103 hr
Ans. (d)
  = –0.5 × 10–3 Ln(0.8)
  fm  fm1   = 1.12 × 10–4/hr
Sol. Mode = L    f  f    f  f    w
 m m1 m m 1 

Steady state availability, 0.98 
(72  36) 
R
= 21  7
(72  36)  (72  51)
  = 0.98  1.12  10 4  0.98
36
= 21  7
TE
36  21   = 5.49 × 10–3/hr
= 25.42
1 103
 MTTR =  = 182.2 hrs
68. Consider the following data for quality  5.49
acceptance process:
70. Which one of the following relations with usual
AS
N = 10000
notations will hold good in a dynamic vibration
n = 89 absorber system under tuned conditions?
c = 2 (a) k1k2 = m1m2
p = 0.01 (incoming lots of quality) (b) k1m2 = m1k2

(c) k1m1 = k2m2
Pa = 0.9397
M
(d) k1 + k2 = m1 + m2
The AOQ will be
Ans. (b)
(a) 0.93% (b) 0.84%
(c) 0.75% (d) 0.66% 71. In ultrasonic waves, the frequencies for non-
destructive testing of materials are in the range
S
Ans. (a) of
(N  n)Pa  p (a) 0.5 MHz to 10 MHz
Sol. AOQ =
IE
N (b) 10 MHz to 20 MHz

(10000  89)  0.9397  0.01 (c) 20 MHz to 30 MHz
=
10000 (d) 30 MHz to 40 MHz
= 0.0093 or 0.93% Ans. (a)
69. An engine is to be designed to have a 72. The Curie point for most ferrous magnetic
minimum reliability of 0.8 and minimum materials is about
availability of 0.98 over a period of 2 × 103
(a) 390 °C (b) 540 °C
hr. The MTTR is nearly
(c) 760 °C (d) 880 °C
(a) 168 hr (b) 174 hr
Ans. (c)
(c) 183 hr (d) 188 hr
Ans. (c) 73. Which of the following is one of the basic
units of memory controller in micro-controller?
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
(a) Microcode engine (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) Master program counter (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2
(c) Program status word Ans. (d)
(d) Slave program counter Sol. The wheat stone bridge can be used to
Ans. (d) convert a resistance change to a voltage
change.
74. Which one of the following ways will be The term ‘filtering’ is used to describe the
adopted to store the program counter process of removing a certain band of
contents? frequencies from a signal and permitting
R
(a) Last-in-First-out (LIFO) others to be transmitted.
(b) First-in-First-out (FIFO) 77. At time t, the excitation voltage to a resolver
(c) Last-in-Last-out (LILO) is 24 V. The shaft angle is 90°. The output
TE
(d) First-in-Last-out (FILO) signals from the resolver VS1 and VS2 will be
Ans. (a) (a) 12 V and 0 V (b) 24 V and 0 V
(c) 12 V and 12 V (d) 24 V and 12 V
75. In ladder logic programming, an alternative in
Ans. (b)
place of using same internal relay contact for
AS
every rung is to use Sol. Output signals of resolver are
(a) battery-backed relay Vs1 = V1 sin 
(b) dummy relay
Vs2 = V1 cos 
(c) one-shot operation
(d) master control relay for   90 ,
M
Ans. (d) Vs1 = 24V and Vs2 = 0V

Sol. A whole block of outputs can be 78. An actuator having a stem movement at full
simultaneously turned off or on by using the travel of 30 mm is mounted with a control
some internal relay contacts in each output valve having an equal percentage plug and
rung so that switching it on or off affects every
S
with minimum flow rate of 2 m 3 /s and

one of the rungs. An alternative way of maximum flow rate of 24 m3/s. When the stem
programming to achieve the some effect is to movement is 10 mm, the flow rate will be
use a master relay.
IE
(a) 3.4 m3/s (b) 3.8 m3/s

76. Consider the following statements: (c) 4.2 m3/s (d) 4.6 m3/s
(1) The term ‘attenuation’ is used to describe Ans. (d)
the process of removing a certain band
 S Smin 
of frequencies from a signal and permitting Q  
 Qmax  Smax Smin 
others to be transmitted. Sol. Qmin =  Qmin 
(2) The Wheatstone bridge can be used to
convert a voltage change to an electrical For Qmin = 2m3/s
resistance change.  
10 0
Q  24  300
=  
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2  2 
Q = 4.57 m3/s
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
79. In a rack and pinion system, rack is an 82. Using a robot with 1 degree of freedom and
element moving in translational direction and having 1 sliding joint with a full range of 1 m,
pinion is a rotary gear. Which one of the if the robot’s control memory has a 12-bit
following statements is correct? storage capacity, the control resolution for the
(a) Translational acceleration is directly axis of motion will be
proportional to the moment of inertia of (a) 0.236 mm (b) 0.244 mm
pinion. (c) 0.252 mm (d) 0.260 mm
(b) Translational acceleration is inversely Ans. (b)
R
proportional to the moment of inertia of
pinion. stroke length
Sol. control resolution =
(c) Angular acceleration is inv ersely 2n
TE
proportional to the torque on pinion shaft.
here, stroke length = 1000 mm
(d) Translational v elocity is directly
proportional to the moment of inertia of 1000
C.R. = = 0.244 mm
pinion. 212
Ans. (b)
AS
83. Assume that the joint mechanisms at serial
Sol. Translation acceleration, at = r   link manipulators are frictionless. The joint
T torque  required to bear an arbitrary end
 point force F is

(a) J–1F (b) JF
Tr
so, at = (c) JTF (d) J–1FT

M
at is inversely proportional to the moment of Ans. (c)

inertia. Sol. For an n degree of freedom, serial link robot
having no friction at the joints, the joint torques
80. For the control signal to change at a rate
, that are required to bear an arbitrary end
proportional to the error signal, the robotic
S
point force, F is
controller must employ
(a) integral control   JT  F
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(b) proportional-plus-integral control

84. Rotate the vector v = 5i + 3j + 8k by an angle
(c) proportional-plus-derivative control of 90° about the x-axis. The rotated vector
(d) proportional-plus-integral-plus-derivative (Hv) would be
control
1   8 
Ans. (a) 3  5 
(a)  8  (b) 1 
81. What is the minimum number of degrees of
5  3 
freedom that a robot needs to have in order
to locate its end effectors at an arbitrary point 3  5 
with an arbitrary orientation in space?  8   8 
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5  (d) 3 
   
1  1 
(c) 5 (d) 6
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
1 0 0  Statement (II): A smart sensor is integrated
  sin90  with the required buffering and conditioning
Sol. Rx = 0 cos 90
0 sin90 cos 90  circuitry in a single element and provides
functions beyond that of just a sensor.
1 0 0 5 
 1 3  Ans. (b)
Hv = 0 0
0 1 0  8 
  87. Statement (I): The count-up overflow (OV)
5  0  0  5  bit is 1 when the up-counter increments above
0  0  8   8  the maximum positive value.
=   = 3 
 0  3  0   
Statement (II): The count-down underflow
R
Directions: (UN) bit is 1 when the counter decrements
below the minimum negative value.
Each of the six (6) items consists of two statements,
Ans. (c)
TE
one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as
‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two Sol. The count-down underflow (UN) bit is 1 when
statements carefully and select the answers to these the counter decrements below the maximum
items using the code given below: negative value.
Code: 88. Statement (I): The multiplexer is essentially
an electronic switching device which enables
AS
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the each of the inputs to be sampled in turn.
correct explanation of Statement (I)
Statement (II): A multiplexer is a circuit that
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are is able to have inputs of data from a number
individually true but Statement (II) is not of sources and then, by selecting an input
the correct explanation of Statement (I) channel, gives an output from just one of them.
M
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is Ans. (a)

false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is 89. Statement (I): The term ‘encoder’ is used for
true a device that provides an analog output as a
result of angular or linear displacement.
S
85. Statement (I): The function of arithmetic logic

unit (ALU) in microprocessor is to perform Statement (II): An increment encoder detects
data manipulation. changes in angular or linear displacement from
some datum position where as an absolute
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Statement (II): The status register is where encoder gives the actual angular or linear
data for an input to the arithmetic and logic position.
unit is temporarily stored. Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) Sol. An encoder is a device that provides a digital
output in response to a linear or angular
86. Statement (I): To use a sensor, we generally
displacement.
need to add signal conditioning circuitry, such
as circuits which amplify and convert from 90. Statement (I): Process control valves are used
analog to digital, to get the sensor signal in to control the rate of fluid flow and are used
the right form, take account of any non- where, perhaps, the rate of flow of a liquid
linearities, and calibrate it. into a tank has to be controlled.
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Statement (II): A common form of pneumatic Sol. Passive trackers use the heat from sunlight
actuator used with process control valves is to vapourize liquid Freon contained in
the diaphragm actuator. cansisters mounted on the tracker.
Ans. (b) 94. Which type of flat-plate collector is used to
91. The solar heat pipe works on the principle of heat the swimming pools with plastic panel,
utilizing solar energy?
(a) heating and condensation cycle
(a) Pipe and fin type
(b) evaporation and condensation cycle
R
(b) Full water sandwich type
(c) coolilng and condensation cycle
(c) Thermal traps type
(d) heating and evaporation cycle
(d) Corrugated plate with selective surface
TE
Ans. (b) type
Sol. When the solar radiation falls on the fin tube Ans. (b)
heat pipe, heat is absored and transmitted to
the working fluid in the heat pipe. Sol. Full water sandwich type are used where both
the wetted area and the water capacity are
Qin Qout
high e.g. swimming pool.
AS
in
evaporator Condensor 95. The edge loss Ue in a solar collector with
respect to edge area Ae, collector area Ac
and back loss coefficient Ub is
92. A good approximation of the measured solar  Ae   Ac 
spectrum is made by (a) Ub  A  (b) Ub  A 
 c  e
M
(a) black-body energy distribution

 Ae   Ae 
(b) Planck’s energy distribution (c) A c  U  (d) Ub  2A 
 b  c
(c) inverse square law
Ans. (a)
(d) solar constant
S
Sol.
Ans. (a)
Sol. The spectrum of the sun’s solar radiation close A 
Ub  e   Ue
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to that of black body with a temperature about  Ac 

5800K.
96. In solar porous type air heater, the pressure
93. Which one of the following types of tracker drop is usually
uses liquid contained in canisters that can
turn easily into vapour? (a) higher than non-porous type
(a) Active tracker (b) same as in non-porous type

(b) Passive tracker (c) lower than non-porous type
(c) Single-axis tracker (d) zero
(d) Altitude-azimuth tracker Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) Sol. Pressure drop increases with an increase in

porous layer.
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
97. In a drainback solar water heating system = 377 kW
(a) the water in the heat exchanger is
100. The platinum nano-coating is made on the
recycled
anode of the fuel cell to
(b) the water is heated in collectors only
(a) Create lighter and more efficient fuel cell
during times when there is available heat
membranes
(c) at the collector, the mixture of water and
(b) Make the fuel effective
propylene-glycol is heated and returned
to a solar storage tank (c) Create high thermal conductivity in the
cell
(d) there is an expansion tank with enclosed
R
air chamber to assist water draining (d) Make the fuel cell non-conductivity in the
cell
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
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98. A PV cell is illuminated with irradiance (E) of Sol. Platinum nano-coating make the fuel effective.
1000 W/m2. If the cell is 100 mm × 100 mm
in size and produces 3 A at 0.5V at the 101. In a fuel cell, electric current is produced when
maximum power point, the conversion
(a) Hydrogen and oxygen react with each
efficiency will be
other and electrons are freed
(a) 15% (b) 19%
(b) Hydrogen reacts with water and electrons
AS
(c) 23% (d) 27% are freed
Ans. (a) (c) Oxygen reacts with water and electrons
are freed
Vm  m
Sol. Conversion efficiency = (d) Electrons react with molecules of
Irradiation  area
hydrogen and oxygen is freed
M
3  0.5 1.5 Ans. (a)

= 6 =  100
1000  100  100  10 10 Sol. They generate electricity from the reaction of
hydrogen with oxygen to from a water in a
= 15%
process which is the reverse of electrolysis.
S
99. In a barrage of 300000 m2 area with a tide

102. Which one of the following is suitable for fuel
height of 3, barrage drain time of 10 hr, density
cell electric vehicle (FCEV)?
of sea water as 1025 kg/m3 and gravitational
acceleration as 9.8 m/s2, the average power (a) Direct methanol fuel cell (DMFC)
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will be (b) Alkaline fuel cell (AFC)

(a) 377 kW (b) 381 kW (c) Proton exchange membrane fuel cell
(c) 388 kW (d) 396 kw (PEMFC)
Ans. (a) (d) Solid oxide fuel cell (SOFC)
Ans. (c)
W 1 gAR2
Sol. Average power, Pavg. =  Sol. PEMFC is used for FCEV fuel cars.
t 2 t
103. A pull of 100 kN acts on a bar as shown in
1 1025  9.8  300000  32 the figure in such a way that it is parallel to
= 
2 10  3600 the bar axis and is 10 mm away from xx:
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Ans. (a)
Sol. The mass of body m = 1 kg
The force varies linearly with time
F = kt … (i)
Where, k is a constant and given as
P 10 mm
x 80 mm x
k = f/t = 60 t
R
The motion equation,
mdv
F   60t
dt
TE
50mm dv
= 60t
dt
The maximum bending stress produced in the Integrating it,
bar at xx is nearly.
60  12
(a) 20.5 N/mm2 (b) 18.8 N/mm2 V=  C1
2
AS
(c) 16.3 N/mm2 (d) 14.5 N/mm2
At t = 0, particle starts from origin
Ans. (b)
So, V= 0
Sol. Maximum bending stress,
 C1 = 0
3
MY 100  10  40 ds
max =   18.8 N / mm 2 V=  30t 2
M
I 50  803 dt
12 Again integrating,
104. The frequency of oscillation is the number of 30t 2

S=  C2
cycles per unit time described by the particle, 3
S
given by the relation At, t = 0, s = 0(origin)

 1   C= 0
(a) f = (b) 
2 f 2 S = 10t3
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2r 2NT At t = 5 sec.

(c) f   (d) f  
T T S = 10 × 53
Ans. (a) = 1250 m
105. A particle of mass 1 kg moves in a straight 106. Rails are laid such that there will be no stress
line under the influence of a force which in them at 24°C. If the rails are 32 m long
increases linearly with time at the rate of 60N/ with an expansion allowance of 8 mm per
s, it being 40 N initially. The position of the rail, coeff icient of linear expansion
particle after a lapse of 5s, if it started from  =11×10–6/°C and E = 205 GPa, the stress
rest at the origin, will be in the rails at 80°c will be nearly.
(a) 1250 m (b) 1500 m (a) 68 MPa (b) 75 MPa
(c) 1750 m (d) 2000 m (c) 83 MPa (d) 90 Mpa
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Ans. (b) limited to 120 MPa, the inside diameter of the
beam will be.
Sol. Change in length l = lT
(a) 49.2 mm (b) 53.4 mm
= 11 × 10–6 × 32 × (80 – 24)
(c) 57.6 mm (d) 61.8 mm
= 19.71 mm
Ans. (575.8 mm)
Restrained length lR = 19.71 – 8 = 1.71 mm
Sol. Given,
lR Do
Stress,  = E
l Do = 3Di  D  3
i
R
11.71 Permissible bending stress,
=  205  10 9
32  1000
My
= 75 MPa  =
I
TE
107. The loads acting on a 3 mm diameter bar at Do
different points are as shown in the figure: M
2
P =  4
A B C D (D  Di4 )
64 o
10kN 5kN
2kN 32M
AS
3kN
1m
  D 4 
P = D3o 1   i  
2m 3m   Do  
If E = 205 GPa, the total elongation of the bar 32  60  10 6

will be nearly. 120 × 106=
  1 4 
  D3o 1    
M
(a) 29.7 mm (b) 25.6 mm

  3  
(c) 21.5 mm (d) 17.4 mm
Do = 1.7276 m
Ans. (a)
 Di = 0.5758 m
Sol.
= 575.8 mm
S
A B B C C D
10 kN 5 kN 109. In a beam of I-section, which of the following
10 kN 8 kN 8 kN 5 kN
parts will take the maximum shear stress when
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1 subjected to traverse loading?

Total elongation l = (Pli i )
AE 1. Flange
1
(10  2  8  1  5  3)  103 2. Web
=  (0.003)2  205  109
4 Select the correct answer using code given
= 29.7 mm below.
108. A hollow circular bar used as a beam has its (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
outer diameter thrice the inside diameter. It is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2
subjected to a maximum bending moment of
60 MN m. If the permissible bending stress is
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Ans. (b) (b) 1.42 × 108 N mm
(c) 1.64 × 108 N mm
(d) 1.88 × 108 N mm
Ans. (b)
Sol. Moment of inertia of I-section,
Sol. Shear stress distribution in I-section of beam
 200  4003 192  3803 

R
110. Which of the following statements is/are I=  
 12 12 
correct?
1. In uniformly distributed load, the nature of = 191.66 × 106 mm4
TE
shear force is linear and bending moment Permissible stress,
is parabolic.
2. In uniformly varying load, the nature of MY
max =
shear force is linear and bending moment I
is parabolic.
M  200
3. Under no loading condition, the nature of 150 =
AS
191.66  10 6
shear force is lienar and bending moment
is constant.  Bending moment,
Select the correct answer using the code given M = 1.42 × 108 Nmm
below.
112. In a propeller shaft, sometimes apart from
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 bending and twisting, end thrust will also
M
(c) 2 only (d) 1 only develop stresses which would be

Ans. (d) (a) Tensile in nature and uniform over the
cross-section
111. The cross-section of the beam is as shown in (b) Compressive in nature and uniform over
the figure.
S
the cross-section
200 mm (c) Tensile in nature and non-uniform over
the cross-section
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10 mm
(d) Compressive in nature and non-uniform
over the cross-section
400 mm Ans. (b)
113. A spherical shell of 1.2 m internal diameter

and 6 mm thickness is filled with water under
10 mm pressure until volume is increased by 400 ×
8 mm 103 mm3. If e = 204 GPa, Poisson’s ratio
200 mm  = 0.3, neglecting radial stresses, the hoop
stress developed in the shell will be nearly
If the permissible stress is 150 N/mm2, the
(a) 43 MPa (b) 38 Mpa
bending moment M will be nearly
(c) 33 Mpa (d) 28 Mpa
(a) 1.21 × 108 N mm
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Ans. (a) (b) A simple cubic crystal
(c) Two interpenetrating FCC sub lattices of
r 600
Sol. Since   100 > 10, Cl– ions and Na+ ions
t 6
(d) A cubic crystal with Na + and Cl –
so thin pressure vessel case alternatively at the cubic corners
Volumetric strain, Ans. (c)
3 Sol. The structure of NaCl is considered as two
V 400  10
v   = 4.42097 × 10–4 interpenetrating FCC subtitute of Cl ions and
v 4 3
  600 Na+ ions.
3
R
= 3 × hoop strain ( ) 116. Hardenability of steel is assessed by
 hoop strain,   1.4736  10 4 (a) Charpy impact test
TE
(b) Rockwell hardnes test

= (1   ) (c) Jominy end-quench test

 (d) Open hole test
= (1  0.3)
204  10 3 Ans. (c)
AS
 hoop stress,   43 MPa 117. A metal has lattice parameter of 2.9 Å, density
of of 7.87 g/cc, atomic weight of 55.85, and
114. The inner diameter of a cylindrical tank for Avogadro’s number is 6.0238 × 1023. The
liquefied gas is 250 mm. The gas pressure is number of atoms per unit cell will be nearly.
limited to 15 MPa. The tank is made of plain (a) 1 (b) 2
carbon steeel with ultimate tensile strength of
340 N/mm2, Poisson’s ratio of 0.27 and the (c) 8 (d) 16
M
factor of safety of 5. The thickness of the Ans. (b)

cylinder wall will be.
n.A
(a) 60 mm (b) 50 mm Sol. Density,  = V  N
c A
(c) 40 mm (d) 30 mm
S
Ans. (d) n = no. of atoms (is to be determined)

Sol. Maximum stress = hoop stress in cylinder, A = Atomic weight = 55.85
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Pr Vc = volume of unit cell

h =
t Vc = a3 = (2.9 × 10–10)3 m3
u Pr NA = Avogado’s Number
=
fos t
= 6.023 × 1023 atom/mol
340 340 15  125  = 7.87 gm/cc = 7.87 × 106 gm/m3
= 
5 5 t
t = 27.57 mm n  55.85
 7.87 × 106 = (2.9  10 10 )3  6.023  1023
115. The structure of sodium chloride is considered
as  n  2.06  2
(a) A body-centred crystal
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
118. An atomic packing factor (APF) for the BCC
0.5  16Q2 fl  16Q 2
unit cell of hard spheres atoms will be  5= 2 4 
  d  2.g 22  d5  g
(a) 0.63 (b) 0.68
(c) 0.73 (d) 0.78 2  0.5  16 0.01 100  16 
= Q  2  (0.15) 4  2  9.81  22 (0.15)5  9.81
Ans. (b)  
5 = Q2 × 1169.697
119. The distinct characteristic of Invar is
Q2 = 0.0042746
R
(a) It is magnetic
3
(b) it has low coefficient of thermal expansion  Q  0.06538 m / s
(c) It has high tensile strength
TE
122. A plate weighing 150 N and measuring 0.8 ×
(d) It is non corrosive
m just slides down an inclined plane over an
Ans. (b) oil film of 1.2 mm thickness for an inclination
of 30° and velocity of 0.2 m/s. Then the
120. An alloy produced by adding 1% of tin to
viscosity of the oil used is
Muntz metal is called as
(a) 0.3 Ns/m2 (b) 0.4 Ns/m2
AS
(a) a brass (b) Admiralty brass
(c) 0.5 Ns/m2 (d) 0.7 Ns/m2
(c) Naval brass (d) Naval brass
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Sol. Naval Brass = 60% Cu + 39% Zn + 1%Sn
oil film
121. Water is discharged from a tank maintained
M
at a constant head of 5 m above the exit of

a straight pipe 100 m long and 15 cm in at
e
diameter. If the friction coefficient for the pipe Pl
is 0.01 the rate of flow will be nearly w cos 30°
(a) 0.04 m3/s (b) 0.05 m3/s 0°
S
3
sin w
(c) 0.06 m3/s (d) 0.07 m3/s w
30°
Ans. (d)
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For Newtonian fluid,

Sol.
du
 =  dy
5m
F w sin30
Where,  = shear stress = 
A A
l 150  1 1500 N
= 
0.5V 2
flV 2
2  0.8  0.8 128 m2
H= 
2g 2dg  = Dynamic viscosity
Q 4Q
 V=  du
A d2 = Rate of shear strain
dy
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
0.2 1000
=  sec 1 (1.5)3
1.2  10 3
6 = 1000  9.81  10
6
15000 1000
So, =  = 17.33 – 10
128 6
W  7.33 kN
15  6 90
  = 
128 128
124. A nozzle at the end of an 80 mm hosepipe
produces a jet 40 mm in diameter. When it is
NS
  0.70 discharging the water 1200 rpm, the force on
m2 the joint at the base of the nozzle will be
R
(a) 180 N (b) 200 N
123. A spherical ballon of 1.5 m diameter is
completely immersed in water and chained to (c) 220 N (d) 240 N
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the bottom. If the chain has a tension of 10 Ans. (d)
kN, the weight of the balloon will be nearly
Sol.
(a) 9.11 kN (b) 8.22 kN
(c) 6.44 kN (d) 7.33 kN
V2
Ans. (d) Hose pipe V1 d
AS
Sol. d2 = 40 mm
d1 = 80 mm
Ballon Water Force at joint
B
F = Q(V2  V1 ) … (i)
Chain
M
Q1 1.2  4
 V1 = A  60    (0.08)  3.98 m / sec
Free body diagram for balloon, 1
F(Buoyancy force) V2 = 4V1 = 15.9155 m/s

S
100  1.2
 F = Q(V2  V2 )  60
(15.9155  398)
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= 238.71 N
125. A vertical water pipe 1.5 m long, taper from

75 mm diameter at the bottom to 150 mm
Weight, W diameter at the top and the rate of flow is 50
L/s upwards. If the pressure at the bottom
Tension, T
end is 150 kN/m2, the pressure at the top will
So, F = W +T be nearly
 W = F –T (a) 195.2 kN/m2 (b) 191.4 kN/m2
Weight, W = .g.v  T (c) 187.6 kN/m2 (d) 183.8 kN/m2
[   = Density of water] Ans. (a)
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Sol. Ans. (a)
150 mm Sol.  = 3xzy + (2 + t)y2
1 
u= = 3x2 + 2(2 + t)y = 3 + 8 × 2 = 19
y

v =   6xy  0  6  1 2  12
x
1.5 m
v = uiˆ  vjˆ  19iˆ  12jˆ
R
127. In a laminr flow through pipe, the point of
2 maximum instability exists at a distance of y
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fro the wall which is
75 mm
Applying Bernoulli’s equation between (1) and 3
(a) of pipe radius R
(2) 2
2
P1 v12 P v2 (b) of pipe radius R
  z1  2  2 3
AS
g 2g g 2g
1
 Q = v 1A1 = v 2A2 (c) of pipe radius R
2
P1 Q2  16 P2 Q2  16 1
  z   (d) of pipe radius R
 g 2  g  2  d4 1
g 2  g  2  d24 3
1
Ans. (b)
M
P1 150  103 (0.05)2  16 Sol. The parameter for instability,

 g  3 
10  9.81 2  2  9.81 (0.075)4 Since, the velocity distribute in pipe
 r2 
(0.05)2  16 V
u = max  1  2 
S
  1.5  R 
2  2  9.81 (0.15)4
du du
P1  = dy
IE
 19.91 dr
g
du 2Vmax r 2Vmax  r 2Vmax (R  y)
 P1 = 1000 × 9.81 × 19.91  =  
dy R2 R2 R2
Pressure at the top of the pipe,
2 Vmax r
 X = 2y  (R  y) … (ii)
R2
P1  195.327 kN/m2
Differentiaty and equal to zero
126. The stream function for a flow field is  = dx 2fVmax d
= (Ry 2  y 3 )  0
3x2 y + (2 +t)y2. The velocity at a point P for dy R2 dy
position vector r = i + 2j time t = 2 will be  2Ry – 3y2 = 0
(a) 19i – 12j (b) 21 i – 12 j  y(2R – 3y) = 0
(c) 19i + 22j (d) 21 i + 22j  y = 0
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
2R p1  p2 12VL
y = hf = 
3   B2
u v P1  P2 12V

128. Q  for a turbulent flow signifies =
x y L B2
12  8  10 1  V
(a) Conservation of bulk momentum transport 0.3 × 104=
(30  103 )2
(b) Increase in u' in x-direction followed vby
increase in v' in negative y-direction V = 0.281 ms–1
(c) Turbulence is anisotropic  Discharge, Q = VBW
R
(d) Turbulence is isotropic = 0.281 × 30 × 10–3×500×10–3
Ans. (b) = 4.2 × 10–3 m3/sec
TE
 131. In case of transmission of hydraulic power by
129. A flow field satisf ying   V  0 as the
a pipline to turbine in a hydroelectric power
continuity equation represents always station the maximum power transmission
(a) A steady compressible flow efficiency through the pipeline is
(b) An incompressible flow (a) 76% (b) 67%
AS
(c) an unsteady and incompressible flow (c) 54% (d) 42%
(d) an unsteady and compressible flow Ans. (b)
Ans. (b) Sol. Transmission of power through pipes :
Sol. Equation of continuity, Power (energy / sec) available at the outlet of
pipe is
 
M
(  v)  0 P = weight of water per sec × head available

t
at exit of pipe

For incompressible flow, 0
t = Q  H  h f 

 v  0
S
 D2  flv 2   2 flV 3 


=  4 V  H     D  HV  
130. An oil of viscosity 8 poise flows between two   2gD  4  2gD 
parallel fixed plates, which are kept at a
For maximum power,
IE
distance of 30 mm apart. If the drop of

pressure for a length of 1m is 0.3 × 104 N/m2 dP   2  3flV 2 
and width of the plates is 500 mm, the rate of =   4 D   H  2gD   0
dV   
oil flow between the plates will be
 H = 3hf
(a) 4.2 × 10–3 m3/s
i.e. power transmitted through a pipe is
(b) 5.4 × 10–3 m3/s
(c) 6.6 × 10–3 m3/s 1
maximum if head loss due to friction is of
3
(d) 7.8 × 10–3 m3/s
total head loss.
Ans. (a)
 Efficiency,
Sol. Pressure head loss,
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
H  hf 3hf  hf 2
as constant at surrounding temperature of
max =    66.7% 15°C and Cp of water is 4.2 kJ/kg K, the
H 3hf 3
decrease in available energy due to mixing
will be nearly
132. A pipe having a length 200 m and 200 mm
diameter with friction factor 0.015, is to be (a) 270.5 kJ (b) 277.6 kJ
replaced by a 400 mm diameter pipe of friction (c) 281.8 kJ (d) 288.7 kJ
factor 0.012 to convey the same quantity of Ans. (c)
flow. The equivalent length of the new pipe
R
for the same head loss will Sol. After mixing, if t°C in the final temepratue,
then 25 × 4.2 × (45 – t) = 35 × 4.2 × (t – 35)
(a) 8300 m (b) 8240 m
25  95  35  35
(c) 8110 m (d) 8000 m
TE
 t =  60C
25  35
Ans. (d)
 T
f  Q2 Available energy = mCp  T  To   To ln T 
Sol. hf =  o
12.1 d5
For same discharge and head loss,  Available energy of 25 kg water at 95°C
AS
f11 f2 2  368 

d15 d52 A25 = 25  4.2   368  288   288ln
 288 
0.015  200 0.012   2 = 987.49 kJ

2005 4005 Available energy of 35 kg water at 35°C
M
l2 = 8000 m
 308 
A35 = 35  4.2  308  288   288ln
133. Certain quantities cannot be located on the  288 
graph by a point but are given by a point but
= 97.59 kJ
are given by the area under the curve
S
corresponding to the process. These quantities Final available of 60 kg water at 60°C,

in concepts of thermodynamics are called as
 333 
(a) cyclic functions (b) point functions A60 = 60  4.2   333  288   288ln
288 
IE

(c) path functions (d) real functions
= 803.27 kJ
Ans. (c)
 Decrease in available energy due to
Sol. Path functions like heat transfer and work
mixing
transfer cant be represented by points in the
graph, but can be given by the area under A25 + A35 – A60 = (987.49 + 97.59 – 803.27)
the curve. = 281.8 kJ
Ex: heat transfer will be area under curve in
135. A frictionless pistion cylinder device contains
T-s diagram work transfer will be area under
5 kg of steam at 400 kPa and 200°C. The
curve in P-V diagram.
heat is now transferred to the stam until the
134. When 25 kg of water at 95°C is mixed with 35 temperature reaches 250°C. If the piston is
kg of water at 35°C, the pressure being taken not attached to a shaft, its mass is constant
and by taking the values of specific volume v 1
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
as 0.53434 m3/kg and v 2 as 0.529520 m3/kg Ans. (b)
the work done by the steam during this
m O2
process is
Sol. Mass fraction of O2 = m  m  m
O2 N2 CH4
(a) 121.7 kJ (b) 137.5 kJ
(c) 153.3 kJ (d) 189.1 kJ 3 3
=   0.15
Ans. (a) 3  5  12 20
Sol. Since the weight of the piston and the nO2

atmosphere presssure are constant, so Mole fraction of O2 = n  n  n
O2 N2 CH4
assuming it as a constant pressure process,
R
3
Work done, W = P(V2 – V1)
32
= P × m (v 2 – v 1) = 3 5 12
   0.092
= 400 × 103 × 5 × (0.59520 – 0.53434) 32 28 6
TE
= 121.72 kJ 138. An insulated pipe of 50 mm outside diameter
with  =0.8 is laid in a room at 30°C. If the
136. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 14
surface temperature is 250°C and the
and cutoff takes place at 6% of the stroke.
convective heat transfer coefficient is 10W/
The air standard efficiency will be
m2K, the total heat loss per unit length of the
AS
(a) 74.5% (b) 60.5% pipe will be
(c) 52.5% (d) 44.5% (a) 896.6 W/m (b) 818.8 w/m
Ans. (b) (c) 786.4W/m (d) 742.2 W/m
Sol. (V3 – V2 = 0.06(V1 – V2) Ans. (b)
Sol.
M
 V3  V 
  1 = 0.06  1  1
 V2   V2  Ts = 250°C
2
h = 10W/m K
 (rc – 1) = 0.06(r – 1)
50 mm  = 0.8
 (rc – 1) = 0.06(14 – 1)
S
 rc  1.78 Room at 30°C

IE

Total heal loss per unit length of the pipe
1  rc  1 
 = 1  1   = Qconv. + Qrad
(r)  (rc  1) 
= hconv  A s  Ts  Troom    A s  Ts  Troom 
4 4
= 60.43%
= A s hconv   (Ts  Troom )  Ts  Troom    Ts  Troom 

2 2
137. A gas mixture consists of 3 kg of O2, 5kg of
N2 and 12 kg of CH4. The mass fraction and
mole fraction and mole fraction of O2 are = 2  0.025 10  0.8  5.67  10 8  523  303 
(a) 0.25 and 0.125 (b) 0.15 and 0.092
(c) 0.25 and 0.092 (d) 0.15 and 0.125  523 2

 3032   523  303   818.6
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
139. A wire of 8 mm diameter at a temperature of max.  900 = 2898
60°C is to be insulated by a material having max . = 3.2µm
k = 0.174 W/mK. The heat transfer coefficient
on the outside ha = 8W/m2K and ambient 142. Consider the following statements:
temeprature T a = 25°C. The maximum
thickness of insulation for maximum heat loss For the laminar condensation on a verticla
will be plate, the Nussel theory says that
(a) 15.25 mm (b) 16.50 mm 1. Inertia force in the film is negligible
R
compared to viscosity and weight
(c) 17.75 mm (d) 18.25 mm
2. Heat flow is mainly by conduction through
Ans. (c) the liquid film, convection inliquid film as
TE
Sol. Given maximum heat loss, critical radius of well as in vapour is neglected
insulation, 3. Velocity of vapour is very high
k 0.174 Which of the above statements are correct?
rc   = 0.02175m = 21.75mm
h 8
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
 Maximum thickness of insulation of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
AS
maximum heat loss
Ans. (b)
= rc – r = 21.75 – 4 = 17.75 mm
Sol. The velocity of the vapor is low (or zero) so
140. In liquid metals, thermal boundary layer that it exerts no drag on the condensate (no
develops much faster than velocity boudnary viscous shear on the liquid -vapor interface).
layer due to
M
143. In transiton boiling heat flux decreases due to

(a) Lower value of Nusselt number which of the following?
(b) Higher value of Prandtl number 1. Low value of film heat transfer coefficient
(c) Lower value of Prandtl number at the surface during 100°C to 120°C
(d) Higher value of Nusselt number surface temperature
S
Ans. (c) 2. Major portion of heater surface is covered

by vapour film which has smaller thermal
 conductivity as compared to liquid
IE
Sol. Prandtl number (Pr) = 

th 3. Nucleate boiling occurs very fast
For liquid metals, Prandtl number (Pr) < 1 Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
141. The temperature of a body of area 0.1 m 2 is
900 K. The wav elength f or maximum (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
monochromatic emissive power will be nearly (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 2.3m (b) 3.2m Ans. (b)
(c) 4.1m (d) 5.0m Sol. In transition boiling heat flux decreases
because a large fraction of the heater surface
Ans. (b) is covered by a vapor film, which acts as an
Sol. From Wien’s displacement law insulation due to the low thermal conductivity
max .T = 2898 of the vapor relative to that of the liquid.
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
144. A hemispherical furnace of radius 1.0 m has 146. A 4-stroke diesel engine has length of 20 cm
a roof temperature of T 1 = 800 K and and diameter of 16 cm. The engine is
emissivity 1  0.8 . The flat floor of the furnace producing power of 25 kW when it is running
at 2500 r.p.m. The mean effective pressure of
has a temperature T2 = 600K and emissivity
the engine will be nearly
2  0.5 . The view factor F12 from surface
(a) 5.32 bar (b) 4.54 bar
1 to 2 will be
(c) 3.76 bar (d) 2.98 bar
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.4
Ans. (d)
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.6
Ans. (c) N
R
Sol. I.P. = Pm  LA  K
2  60
Sol. F11 + F12 = 1
25  103  (2  60)
F21+F 22 = 1 Pm =  10 5 bar
TE
0.20  0.020  2500
Hemispherical furnace
(r1 = r2 = 1m)  3 bar
|| |||||||||||
|||||| || ||
|| || 1 147. A 4-stroke, 6-cylinder gas engine with a stroke
||
| ||
| |||
||||
volume of 1.75 litres develops 26.25 kW at

| || ||| ||
||
|| | |
506 r.p.m. and the MEP is 600 kN/m2. The

AS
2 number of misfires per minute per cylinder
From reciprocity theorem will be
A1F12 = A2F21 (a) 3 (b) 4

(c) 5 (d) 6
2r1F12 = r22  1
Ans. (a)
M
r12 r1 1 Sol. Number of cylinders n = 6

F12 =    0.5
2r1 2 2
Stroke volume Vs = 1.75 litres
145. Consider the following statements: = 1.75 × 10–3m3
indicated power ip = 26.25 kW
Combustion chamber is
S
engine speed N = 506 rpm,

(1) the volume between TDC and BDC during
the combustion process. Mean effective pressure pm = 600 × 103N/m2
IE
(2) the space enclosed between the upper For frour stroke engine, k = 1/2
part of the cylinder and the top of the
AL  N
piston during the combustion process ip = pm n
2  60
(3) the space enclosed between TDC and the
top of the piston during the combustion 3 1.75  10 3  N
 26.25 × 103 = 600  10  6
process 2  60
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 26.25  103  2
 N' =  500 rpm
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 10  1.75  6
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3  Actual number of fires in one minute
Ans. (b) 500
=  6  1500
2
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Detailed Solution
Mechanical
Engineering
Expected number of fires in one minute Q2 = 29 kW
506 T1 = 35 + 273 = 308 K
=  6  1518
2 T2 = 273 – 5 = 268 K
 Number of misfires/min = 1518 – 1500 = 18 T2
 Average number of misfires per min per Carnot COP = T  T
1 2
cylinder,
268 268
18 =   6.7
R
= 3 308  268 40
6
1 6.7
148. Which one of the following compressors will  Actual COP = 3  carnot COP  4
TE
be used in vapour compression refrigerator
Q2
for plants up to 100 tonnes capacity?  Actual COP =
W
(a) Reciprocating compressor
Q2 29  3
(b) Rotary compressor  W = Actual COP  6.7  12.985 kW
(c) Centrifugal compressor
 13 kW
AS
(d) Double-acting compressor
Ans. (a) 150. Consider the following statements:
Sol. Reciprocating compressors are used in plants An expansion device in a refrigeration system
upto 100 tonnes capacity. For plants of higher
(1) reduces the pressure from the condenser
capacities, centrifugal compressors are
to the evaporator
employed.
M
(2) regulates the flow of the refrigerant to the

149. A cold storage is to be maintained at –5°C evaporator depending on the load
while the surroundings are at 35°C. The heat (3) is essentially a restriction off ering
leakage from the surroundings into the cold resistance to flow
storage is estimated to be 29 kW. The actual
S
1 Which of the above statements are correct?

COP of the refrigeration plant used is rd
3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
IE
that of an ideal plant working between the (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
same temperatures. The power required to Ans. (d)
drive the plant will be
Sol. An expansion device in a refrigeration system
(a) 13 kW (b) 14 kW expands the liquid refrigerant from the
(c) 15 kW (d) 16 kW condenser pressure to the ev aporator
Ans. (a) pressure. The expansion device also controls
T1
the supply of the liquid to the evaporator at
Sol. the rate at which it is evaporated. The
Q1
expansion device is essentially a restriction.
R W
Q2
T2
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Detailed Solution

1. A reversed Carnot engine is used for heating Ans. (a)

(a) 29.1% (b) 31.3% Mechanical energy

4.25 2. In reaction turbine, steam pressure drops

= 15118.9 × 10-3 Watt blades.

115118.9  103 Which of the above statements are correct?

4.25  44  106 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

= 0.291 = 29.1% (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

10. Which one of the following statements is Vr2

(a) The combined v elocity diagram is

symmetrical. Vw  Vw 2  Vw1

identical. of 2900 kJ/kg, enthalpy at outlet of 1600

 sin2 . (a) 1575.5 kW (b) 1481.6 kW

13. In an isentropic flow through a nozzle, air flows Sol.

= 2 RT1 0.287  103  300

(a) frictional loss (b) incidence loss

in a centrifugal compressor stage on account Ans. (b)

termed as incidence losses. It is conventionally non-condensable gases is called

Qfuel = Qwater + Qcalorimeter Pv 1.3 = constant = C (say)

23. A boiler is having a chimney of 35 m height.

temperature of water vapour will be

The fractures strength will be

2  % Pb = 100 – 38.6 = 61.4

m = mass of metal oxidised (g) 3. In the process of inversion, the relative

 I = tM  2.42  106  55.84  motions of the links of the mechanisms

Select the correct answer using the code given

(d) gravitational speed

toothed gears in mesh?

Sol. The turning moment diagram. m1=2750kg

0 60 120 180 240 300

thickness as shown in the figure

Sol. Note: Assuming extra ‘C’ outside bracket as

47. The active gyroscopic torque in gyroscope 10 mm

(a) the torque required to cause the axis of

= 14 MPa Calculation of st as st  P

50. The theory of failure used in designing the  st s

51. When a load of 20 kN is gradually applied at 2h

increased by reducing the diameter of

having inside diameter 0.6 times the outside moment of inertia.

(b) 23.5 mm and 39.1 mm The friction force on whirl,

(c) 21.7 mm and 32.2 mm f = P = 0.06 × 80 = 4.8N

joint is 20 mm2. The heat required for melting

(c) 36% (d) 42% = 16,6250 N

Sol. Voltage, V = 20V 63. A graph is drawn to a vertical magnification of

Time period of oscillation, T = 1.15 

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s2

p = 0.01 (incoming lots of quality) (b) k1m2 = m1k2

N (b) 10 MHz to 20 MHz

Ans. (d) Vs1 = 24V and Vs2 = 0V

with minimum flow rate of 2 m 3 /s and

(a) 3.4 m3/s (b) 3.8 m3/s

at is inversely proportional to the moment of Ans. (c)

(b) proportional-plus-integral control

(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is Ans. (a)

85. Statement (I): The function of arithmetic logic

(a) black-body energy distribution

to that of black body with a temperature about  Ac 

(a) Active tracker (b) same as in non-porous type

Ans. (b) Sol. Pressure drop increases with an increase in

3  0.5 1.5 Ans. (a)

99. In a barrage of 300000 m2 area with a tide

will be (b) Alkaline fuel cell (AFC)

104. The frequency of oscillation is the number of 30t 2