8 To 9

FIITJEE COMMON TEST
Batches: Udaya One Year
PHASE-I
QP CODE: (SET – A)
NSEJS
Time: 2:00 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
A. Question Paper Format
1. The question paper consists of 4 sections

Section – I : Physics,
Section – II : Chemistry
Section – III : Mathematics
Section – IV : Biology
2. Each Section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
B. Marking scheme:
1. For each question in Section I, II, III & IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one
(1) mark will be awarded.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Section I (Physics)
1. When a horse pulls a cart, the force that helps the horse to move forward is the force exerted by
(a) the cart on the horse (b) the ground on the horse
(c) the ground on the cart (d) the horse on the ground
2. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the force exerted by

(a) the engine of the car (b) the driver of the car
(c) the earth (d) the road
3. A block of mass 10kg is suspended through two light spring balances

as shown in figure
(a) Both the scales will read 10kg
(b) Both the scales will read 5 kg
(c) The upper scale will read 10 kg and lower scale read zero
(d) The readings may be anything but their sum will be 10 kg
4. A force F1 acts on a particle so as to accelerate it from rest to a velocity v. The force F 1 is then replaced by
F2 which decelerates it to rest
(a) F1 must be equal to F2 (b) F1 may be equal to F2
(c) F1 must be unequal to F2 (d) none of these
5. While walking on ice, one should take small steps to avoid slipping. This is because smaller steps ensure
(a) larger friction (b) smaller friction (c) larger normal force (d) smaller normal force
6. Consider a vehicle going on a horizontal road towards east. Neglect any force by the air. The frictional forces
on the vehicle by the road
(a) is towards east if the vehicle is accelerating
(b) is towards west if the vehicle is accelerating
(c) must be towards west
(d) may be zero
7. Two cars of unequal masses use similar tyres. If they are moving at the same initial speed, the minimum
stopping distance
(a) is smaller for the heavier car (b) is smaller for the lighter car
(c) is same for both cars (d) depends on the volume of the car
8. A single horizontal force F is applied to a block of mass M1 which is in

contact with another block of mass M2 as shown in figure. If the
surfaces are frictionless, the force between the blocks is
MF M1M2 g
(a) 1 (b)
M2 M1  M2
M2F
(c) (d) none of these
M1  M2
9. 10 dyne equals to
5 -4 4 -5
(a) 10 N (b) 10 N (c) 10 N (d) 10 N
10. The pressure exerted by a liquid of density  at a depth h is given by

h h
(a) (b) (c) hg (d) hg
g 
11. A piece of wood is floating in water. The upthrust on it is

(a) equal to the weight of the wood (b) less than the weight of the wood
(c) more than the weight of the wood (d) zero
12. Buoyant force acting on a body due to different fluids is

(a) same (b) may be different (c) zero (d) none of these
13. The balloon stops rising up beyond a particular height when the density of gas inside the balloon
(a) exceeds the density of air outside (b) equals the density of air
(c) becomes less than the density of air (d) none of these
14. Two pieces of a metal when completely immersed in a liquid have equal upthrust on them, then
(a) both pieces must have equal weights (b) both pieces must have equal densities
(c) pieces must have equal volumes (d) both are floating to same depth
15. A small iron ball suspended with spring balance weighs 20 gm in air. Now it is completely dipped in water
along with spring balance. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(1) Both iron ball and spring balance will experience an upward force
(2) only ball will experience upward force
(3) spring balance will show more reading then before
(4) spring balance will show less reading then before
(a) 1 and 4 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct (c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 2 and 4 are correct
Section II (Chemistry)
1. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer
(a) Polythene (b) PVC (c) Bakelite (d) Cotton
2. Which of the following is fully Fluorinated polymer ?

(a) Teflon (b) Neoprene (c) Thiokol (d) PVC
3. Monomer used in the production of nylon 6-6 are

(a) Hexamethylene diamine and ethylene glycol (b) Adipic acid and ethylene glycol
(c) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine (d) Dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol
4. The plastics if hard become soft and readily workable by addition of certain compounds called
(a) Catalysts (b) Telomers (c) Plasticizers (d) Vulcanizer
5. In Buna-S symbol „Bu‟ stands for

(a) 1-Butene (b) 2-Butene (c) n-Butene (d) Butadiene
6. Electrical switches are made up of which of the following materials

(a) Teflon (b) Bakelite (c) Melamine (d) PVC
7. Which of the following is a semi-synthetic polymer ?

(a) silk (b) wood (c) Rayon (d) Natural rubber
8. Neoprene is a polymer of
(a) Propene (b) Vinyl chloride (c) Chloroprene (d) Butadiene
+
9. The atomic number of an element X is 19. The number of electrons in its ion X will be
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21
10. Which of the following is an iron ore ?

(a) Cinnabar (b) Calamine (c) Haematite (d) Rock salt
11. Which of the following alloys contains a non-metal as one of its constituents
(a) Brass (b) Amalgam (c) steel (d) Bronze
12. Brass is an alloy of

(a) Cu and Sn (b) Cu and Pb (c) Pb and Sn (d) Zn and Cu
13. You are given a solution of AgNO3, which of the following do you think can not displace Ag from AgNO 3
solution ?
(a) Magnesium (b) Zinc (c) Gold (d) Copper
14. The rechargeable battery used in a mobile phone hand set is usually
(a) Lead ion battery (b) Sodium ion battery
(c) Hydrogen ion battery (d) Lithium ion battery
15. Out of KCl, HCl, CCl4 and NaCl, the compounds which are not ionic
(a) KCl and HCl (b) HCl and CCl4 (b) CCl4and NaCl (d) KCl and CCl4
Section III (Mathematics)

3 3 10
p  2  3  p
16. If       then the value of   is :
q  3   2   q
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) Cannot be determined (D) None of these
1 1
17. If a  ,b  , then the vaue of a2 + b2 is :
32 2 32 2
(A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 36 (D) 37
4
18. The simplest rationalising factor of 48 is :
4 4 3
(A) 9 (B) 27 (C) 9 (D) None of these
1 1 1
19. If 2x = 4y = 8z and xyz = 288 then   is
2x 4y 8z
7 11 13 15
(A) (B) (C) (D)
96 96 96 96
20. If ( 3)5  92  3a  3 3 , then a equals :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
21. The ratio of the ages of A and B ten years before was 3:5. The ratio of their is present ages is 2:3. Their
ages are respectively.
(A) 30, 50 (B) 40, 60 (C) 20, 30 (D) 16, 24
22. The graph of y = 15 is a straight line,

(A) Intersecting both the axes (B) Parallel to y-axis
(C) Parallel to x-axis (D) Passing through the origin
23. A man is 5 years older than his wife and the wife is now thrice as old as their daughter, who is 10 years old.
How old was the man when his daughter was born?
(A) 20 years (B) 23 years (C) 25 years (D) 30 years
24. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 99 years. When the father was as old as his son is
now, his age was four times age of the son at that time. The ratio of the present ages of the son and the
father is
(A) 3 : 7 (B) 3 : 8 (C) 4 : 9 (D) 4 : 7
25. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) Every whole number is a natural number (B) Every natural number is a whole number
(C) '1' is the least whole number (D) None of these
26. Which of the following statements is true?

2 4 5 7 7 5 4 2
(A)    (B)   
3 9 12 18 18 12 9 3
4 7 5 2 2 5 4 7
(C)    (D)   
9 18 12 3 3 12 9 18
1
 1 b
27. If a and b are natural numbers such that    0.3 then the value of ab can be :
 a
(A) 81 (B) 24 (C) 192 (D) 375
28. The rational form of 2.7435 is :
27161 27 27161 27161
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9999 99 9900 9000
29. What is the smallest number to be subtracted from 549162 in order to make it a perfect square ?
(A) 28 (B) 36 (C) 62 (D) 81
30. Evaluate the value of 41  21  19  9

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 6.9
Section IV (Biology)
1. Which of the following is asymbiotic bacteria which fix atmospheric nitrogen
(a) Rhizobium (b) Pseudomonas (c) Azotobacter (d) Mycorrhiza
2. “Nature‟s gardeners” this is best used for which of the following organism
(a) Bacteria (b) Earthworm (c) Weeds (d) Fungi
3. Which of the following chemical is the main constituent of Biogas

(a) Ethane (b) octane (c) methane (d) carbon dioxide
4. Fertilizers are superior to manures in all of the following aspects except following
(a) water soluble (b) nutrient specific
(c) organic matter replenishing (d) compact
5. Acetic acid (vinegar) is prepared by using which of the following

(a) Algae (b) Azotobacter (c) virus (d) Acetobacter
6. Which of the following organism is found in intestinal tract of humans

(a) salmonella (b) E. Coli (c) Trypanosoma (d) Wuchereria
7. The causative agent of Rabies is

(a) Salmonella (b) Haemophilus (c) Rhabdo (d) E. Coli
8. Unique feature of viruses is

(a) Presence of DNA and C. DNA (b) Absence of RNA and DNA
(c) Presence of DNA and RNA (d) Presence of DNA or RNA
9. Jaundice is a disease of
(a) Pancreas (b) Liver (c) Kidney (d) Intestine
10. Lactobacillus is a bacteria which is shaped

(a) spherical (b) comma (c) spiral (d) rod
11. Operation flood is related to

(a) Raising agro based food (b) Raising food for animals
(c) increasing irrigation facilities (d) Raising dairy products
12. The method which enables us to select better and healthy seedlings for cultivation of rice is
(a) Broadcasting (b) spacing (c) Transplantation (d) Tilling
13. Grains stored to stock for emergency is called

(a) Emergency stock (b) Buffer stock (c) Residue stock (d) spare stock
14. Viruses cannot live outside the host body therefore called as
(a) Facultative hosts (b) Obligate hosts (c) Obligate parasites (d) Facultative parasites
15. Which of the following is caused due to the harmful effect of certain micro organism
(a) fermentation of glucose (b) food poisoning in humans
(c) Heart disease in humans (d) Production of antibiotics
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Batches: Udaya One Year CRP(1415)
QP CODE:
PHASE – I
NSEJS
ANSWERS (SET – A)
Section I (Physics)
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C
15. A
Section II (Chemistry)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. D
15. B
Section III (Mathematics)

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. C 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. D
15. C
Section IV (Biology)
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. C
15. B
Hints & Solutions

Maths :
3 3
p  2  2
16.    
q  3   3
p
1
q
1 32 2
17. a   32 2
32 2 32 2
1 32 2
b   32 2
32 2 32 2
a2  b2  34
18. (48)1/ 4  2.(3)1/ 4
Rationalising factor of (3)1/ 4 is (3)3 / 4
 (3)3 / 4  4 27
19. 2x  22y  23z
 x  2y  3z  K
3
6xyz = K
3
6 × 288 = K
K = 12
 x  12
y=6
z=4
Put the value.
23. Let the age of daughter = x

So age of wife = 3x
Age of Man = 3x + 5
Now x = 10 (given)
24. Let the age of son = x
So the age of father = 99 – x
 x  4(x  (99  2x))
11 x = 4 × 99
x = 36
CONCEPT CODES
SR. PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHS BIOLOGY

NO
1 P080301 C080104 M080302
2 P080301 C080103 M080111
3 P080104 C080102 M080305
4 P080102 C080103 M080306
5 P080103 C080103 M080302
6 P080402 C080103 M082901
7 P080402 C080102 M082901
8 P080301 C080103 M082901
9 P080201 C080202 M082901
10 P080204 C080201 M082101
11 P080302 C080205 M083203
12 P080302 C080205 M080302
13 P080304 C080204 M083201
14 P080304 C080202 M080103
15 P080302 C080203/02 M080107
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST – I
QP CODE: SET - A
Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 90
Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions
 The question paper consists of 90 multiple choice questions divided into four sections.
Section – I contains 45 questions of Mathematics.
Section – II contains 15 questions of Physics.
Section – III contains 15 questions of Chemistry.
Section – IV contains 15 questions of Biology.
 Each question carries +1 marks.
 There is No negative marking.
 Attempt All questions.
 Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
 All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
 The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
 This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..
Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….
SECTION – I
Mathematics
1. The simplified form of 125  245  845 is

(a) 15 (b) 2 5 (c)  5 (d) 2 5
n 
2   4
2. If 2n  1024, then 3 4 
?
(a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 27 (d) 81
1
 1
  (a  b)
ab 2
  1    a  b
3.   a2 b2    ?
  x  
 
2 1 3 1
(a) x (b) (c) x (d)
x x2
81 81 81 81
4. Value of .... is
64 64 64 64
81 9 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
64 8 2 2 2
5. If x  21/ 3  2 then x3  6x 2  12x  ?

(a) 6 (b) -6 (c) 8 (d) -8
 1
6. What is the multiplicative inverse of  a  
 a
1 1 a a
(a) a  (b) a (c) (d)
a a a 1 a 12
7. The value of 00.456 is

137 139 137 139
(a) (b) (c) (d)
333 330 300 300
8. The absolute value of | 4  x |  | x  4 | , if 0 < x < 4 is

(a) 0 (b) 2x (c) 8 (d) 2(4 - x)
3
9. IN an exam a student was asked to find th of a certain number by mistake he found 3/4 of it. His answer
14
was 150 more than the correct answer. The number given to him is
(a) 290 (b) 280 (c) 240 (d) 180
10. A father tells his son “I was of your present age when you were born.” If the father is 36 now how old was the
son five year back ?
(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 18
 4
1
2x  1
11. If 3 2
 , then x = ________
32
(a) -2 (b) 4 (c) -6 (d) -4
12. If 0.00000676  0.0026 , the square root of 67,60,000 is ______

1
(a) (b) 26 (c) 260 (d) 2600
26
13. If 3a = 4b = 6c and a + b + c  27 29 then, a2  b2  c 2 is
(a) 3 29 (b) 81 (c) 87 (d) None of these
 1
If x  (7  4 3) , then the value of  x 
x 
14. is

(a) 3 3 (b) 8 3 (c) 14 (d) 14  8 3
15. The largest four digit number which is perfect cube is

(a) 8000 (b) 9261 (c) 9999 (d) None
5 1 5 1  a2  ab  b2 
16. If a  and b  , the value of  2 is
5 1 5 1  a  ab  b2 
3 4 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 5 3
a
17. If 0.04  0.4  a  0.004  0.4  b , then is
b
(a) 16  103 (b) 16  104 (c) 16  105 (d) None of these
18. Which of the following is correct ?

2 41 4 2 4 41 2 41 4 41 2 4
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
3 60 5 3 5 60 3 60 5 60 3 5
19. Find out the incorrect statement

(a) Between two rational numbers there are infinite rational numbers
(b) Between two rational numbers there always lies atleast an integer
(c) The smallest value of b so that (28812  b) is a perfect square is 3.
(d) A linear equation in x can have only one solution
20. If 51/ a  71/ b  351/ c , find c in terms of a and b.

ab ab
(a) (b) a + b (c) (d) a – b
ab ab
1 1 1
21. If ax  by  c z  abc, then   is
x y z
1
(a) -1 (b) xyz (c) 1 (d)
xyz
22. A boat goes downstream in a river and covers the distance between two coastal area in 10 hrs, it covers this
distance upstream in 15 hrs, if the speed of the stream is 2 km/hr, findthe speed of the boat in still water
(a) 10 km/hr (b) 2 km/hr (c) 15 km/hr (d) None of these
23. The ratio of Virat‟s age and Sachin‟s age is 3 : 5 and the sum of their ages is 80 years. Find the ratio of their
ages after 10 years
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 5 : 3 (d) 3 : 5
24. Which of the following rational numbers have not recurring decimal representation ?
2 16 11 25
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 25 18 36
25. There are some benches in a classroom, if 4 students sit on each bench, then 3 benches are left
unoccupied. However, if 3 students sit on each bench, 3 students are left standing. How many students are
there in the class ?
(a) 36 (b) 48 (c) 56 (d) 64
26. In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, 1/2 of the women are married and 1/3 of the married
women have children, if ¾ of the men are married and 2/3 of the married men have children, what part of the
workers are without children ?
5 4 11 17
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18 9 18 36
27. What number should be divide by 0.25 to give the result as 25 ?

(a) 12.5 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 125
th
 3
28. 28 x  1426    of 2872. Find x
 4
(a) 576 (b) 676 (c) 1396 (d) 1444
55 x
29. If 1  1 , then the value of x is
729 27
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
x a x b x c
30. Solve for x :   3
bc ca ab
(a  b  c)
(a) (b) a + b + c (c) 3(a  b  c) (d) abc
2
x 1  x  1
 x   2 for x
3 
31. Solve the linear equation
2 
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
32. In a piggy bank the number of 25 paise coins are five times the number of 50 paise coins. If there are 120
coins, find the total amount in the bank
(a) Rs 25 (b) Rs 10 (c) Rs 35 (d) Rs 40
33. The graph of x = 9 is a straight line

(a) Intersecting both the axes (b) parallel to x-axis
(c) parallel to y axis (d) passing through origin
1
34. The solution of 33x 5  is
9x
5 7
(a) (b) 5 (c) 1 (d)
2 2
p
35. The form of 23.426 is
q
781 23192 386 3866
(a) (b) (c) (d)
999 990 165 165
36. The collection of non-negative integers will be the same as the collection of
(a) Natural numbers (b) Positive Integers (c) Whole numbers (d) None of these
37. If 3 5  125  17.88 , then what will be the value of 80  6 5

(a) 13.41 (b) 20.46 (c) 21.66 (d) 22.35
38. The least perfect square number divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is

(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 2500 (d) 3600
52 3
39. If  a  b 3 , then the sum of a and b.
74 3
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 11 (d) 4
3
40. Value of 0.000064 is
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.2 (c) 2 (d) none of these
41. Which of the following is rational ?

4 0
(a) 3 (b)  (c) (d)
0 4
xy yx
 x  y
42. If x = 2 and y = 4, then     is
 y  x
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 2
1
43. If x  2  3 . Find the value of x 2 
x2
(a) 18 (b) 14 (c) 2  3 (d) 4
44. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all, how many did he
solve correctly ?
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 24
45. Find the value of K.

K  24  3 24  3 24 ....
3
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 24 (d) 16

SECTION – II
Physics
1. A book is at rest on a table. What is the “reaction” force according to

Newton‟s III law to the gravitational force by the earth on the book?
(a) The normal force exerted by the table on the book
(b) The normal force exerted by the table on the ground
(c) The normal force exerted by the ground on the table
(d) The gravitational force exerted on the earth by the book.
2. A heavy lorry has a high inertia. How difficult is it to start the lorry moving and to stop it moving ?
To start To stop
(a) difficult difficult
(b) difficult easy
(c) easy difficult
(d) easy easy
3. Two 50N weights are attached to a spring scale as shown in figure.

What is the reading on the scale if the system is in equilibrium ?
(a) 100 N (b) 0 N
(c) 50 2 N (d) 50 N
4. If no force acts on a body, it will

(a) get deshaped
(b) move with increasing speed
(c) either remain at rest or move in a straight line with constant speed
(d) decelerate
5. By applying a force of 1 N, one can hold a body whose mass is approximately equal to
(a) 100 mg (b) 100 g (c) 1 kg (d) 10 kg
6. What happens to the coefficient of friction, when the normal reaction is halved ?
(a) Halved (b) doubled
(c) no change (d) depends on the nature of surface
7. Maximum force of static friction is called

(a) sliding friction (b) limiting friction (c) dynamic friction (d) none of these
8. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is about

3 4 5
(a) 10 Pa (b) 10 Pa (c) 10 Pa (d) 1 Pa
9. Magnetic or gravitational force is an example of

(a) Contact force (b) Non contact force (c) Gravitational force (d) Electrostatic force
10. PA, PB and PC are the values of pressure exerted by the liquid at A, B and C of the container respectively.
Which of the following is true for the container –
(a) PA  PB (b) PC  PA (c) PA  PB  PC (d) PC  PA
11. The mass of an object is 60 kg on the earth. What would be its mass if it is taken to the surface of the moon
?
(a) 60 kg (b) 10 kg (c) 6 kg (d) 360 kg
12. Spring balance is a device used to measure

(a) mass (b) weight (c) pressure (d) volume
13. Which one of the following is not used to reduce friction

(a) Oil (b) Ball bearings (c) Sand (d) Graphite
2
14. A force of 10 N is applied on a nail, whose tip has an area of cross section 0.001 cm . The pressure exerted
by the force is
8 -2 4 -2 6 -2
(a) 10 Nm (b) 10 Nm (c) 10 Nm (d) None of these
15. What is the maximum pressure produced by a 2kg stone shown in figure. When it is kept on the table
(a) 4  103 Nm2 (b) 6.7  103 Nm2 (c) 1.3  104 Nm2 (d) 2  103 Nm2
SECTION – III
Chemistry
1. Teflon is a polymer of
(a) Tetrafluoroethene (b) Tetrafluropropene
(c) Difluorodichloroethane (d) Trifluoroethene
2. Nylon 6,6 is a
(a) Natural polymer (b) Condensation polymer
(c) Addition polymer (d) Substitution polymer
3. Which of the following is not a polymer ?

(a) Silk (b) DNA (c) DDT (d) Starch
4. Which of the following is not polyamide ?

(a) Nylon 6,6 (b) Protein (c) Glyptal (d) Nylon-6
5. Which of the following is not an example of natural polymer ?

(a) Wool (b) Silk (c) Leather (d) Nylon
6. Neoprene a synthetic rubber, contains which of the following element besides C and H
(a) N (b) O (c) Cl (d) F
7. PVC is obtained by polymerization of

(a) CH2=CH-CH2-Cl (b) CH2=CH-Cl (c) CH3-Cl (d) CH3-CH2-Cl2
8. Dacron is an example of
(a) Polyamide (b) Polypropylene (c) Polyurethane (d) Polyester
9. One of the following is not a neutral oxide

(a) CO (b) H2O (c) N2O (d) CO2
10. Out of Al, Cu, Ca and Sn the most reactive metal is

(a) Al (b) Ca (c) Cu (d) Sn
11. An element X reacts with hydrogen, when heated, to form a covalent hydride H 2X. If H2X has a smell of
rotten eggs, the element X is likely to be
(a) Carbon (b) Sulphur (c) Chlorine (d) Phosphorous
12. An element X forms two oxides XO and XO2, the oxide XO is neutral but XO2 is acidic in nature, the element
X is most likely to be
(a) Sulphur (b) Carbon (c) Calcium (d) Hydrogen
13. Which of the following non-metal is a liquid

(a) carbon (b) sulphur (c) bromine (d) Iodine
14. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with high melting point. This compound is also soluble in
water, the element is likely to be
(a) carbon (b) silicon (c) iron (d) calcium
15. The element whose oxides can turn litmus solution red are
(a) Li and Na (b) Cu and K (c) C and H2 (d) P and S
Section – IV
Biology
1. Cod liver oil obtained from fish is rich in which of the following vitamins
(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin A (c) Both Vit. A & D (d) None of these
2. The process of separation of grains from the Chaff is called

(a) Winnowing (b) Harvesting (c) Threshing (d) Both A and C
3. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by

(a) Killing microbes (b) Inhibiting the growth of microbes
(c) Preventing attack of microbes (d) All of the above
4. Malaria is caused by
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Mosquito (d) Protozoan
5. Which of the following bacteria lives in symbiotic mode of association

(a) Lactobacillus (b) Rhizobium (c) Salmonella (d) Bordetella
6. Who is known as the father of green revolution

(a) V. Kurien (b) Norman E. Borloug (c) M.S. Swaminathan (d) H.G. Khorana
7. Which is the most important characterstic feature of pasteurisation

(a) Boiling at 70ºC (b) Destroying microbes
(c) Sudden chilling (d) Easy availability
8. John admitted to hospital on complaining vomiting after attending a marriage party. The doctors treated him
for
(a) Botulism (b) Diarrhoea (c) Typhoid (d) Desentry
9. Which of the following is a vector for dengue virus

(a) Anopheles mosquito (b) Tse Tse fly
(c) Aedes egypti (d) Culex mosquito
10. Alexander Fleming extracted antibiotic penicillin from which of the following
(a) Bacteria (b) Moulds (c) Virus (d) Nematodes
11. Which of the following organisms is known as Baker‟s yeast.

(a) Lactobacillus (b) Streptomyces (c) Sachharomyces (d) all of the above
12. Which of the following is known as Koch‟s disease

(a) Typhoid (d) Tetanus (c) Pertusis (d) Tuberculosis
13. Which of the following is the most advance method of irrigation

(a) Drip system (d) Sprinkler system (c) Fertigation (d) Moat (Pulley System)
14. The chemical 2,4-D is used as

(a) Pesticide (b) Weedicide (c) Insecticide (d) Homicide
15. Food grains are stored naturally by using

(a) Mango leaves (b) Tulsi leaves (c) Peepal leaves (d) Neem leaves
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST – I
QP CODE:
Answers
Section – I (Mathematics)
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D
7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. D
13. C 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. C
19. B 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. A 24. B
25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. B
31. A 32. C 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. C
37. D 38. D 39. B 40. B 41. D 42. B
43. B 44. B 45. A
Section – II (Physics)
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A
15. C
Section – III (Chemistry)
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. D
15. D
Section – IV (Biology)
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. B
15. D
HINTS & SOLUTIONS :

MATHS :
1. 5 5  7 5  13 5   5
2. 2n / 2  1024
2n / 2  210
n = 20
n 
2   4
3 4 
9
81 81 81
4. x ........
64 64 64
81
x .x
64
81
x2  .x
64
 81 
 x x  0
 64 
81
x
64
5. x  21/ 3  2
 (x  2)  21/ 3
 Cubing both sides
 x3  6x2  12x  6
8. |4x|| x4|
0  x  4
 4  x  (x  4)
 4xx4
10. Let present age of son = x
Age of father, when son was bron = x
 x  x  36
x = 18
Five year back = 13
13. 3a = 4b = 6c
4
 a  b, a  2c
3
 a  b  c  27 29
3
 2c  c  c  27 29
2
c  6 29
 a2  b2  c 2  (a  b  c)2  2(ab  bc  ca)
  3 
 (27 29)2  2 2c  c  c  6  2c 2 
 2 2 
 (729  29)  13  (6 29)2
= 87
( 5  1) ( 5  1)
16. a 
( 5  1) ( 5  1)
3 5
a
2
Similarly
3 5
b
2
 a2  b2  7
 ab  1
a 0.004  0.4 a 0.0000064

17.     16  105
b 0.04  0.4 b 0.04
20. 51/ a  71/ b  351/ c  K

 5  Ka ..(1)
 7  Kb ..(2)
 35  K c
..(3)
ab
 35  K
Compare with equation (3)
a+b=c
21. ax  by  c z  abc
1 1 1
a  (abc) x ,b  (abc) y ,c  (abc) z
1 1 1
  1 1 1
 abc  (abc) x y z
   1
x y z
x
27.  25
0.25
x
  25
0.5
 x  12.5
38. LCM of 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 is 120. Now

120 = 2 × 2× 2 × 3× 5
To make it perfect square, it must be multiplied by 2 × 3 × 5
So required number = 3600
52 3
39.  ab 3
74 3
(5  2 3)(7  4 3)
 ab 3
(7  4 3)(7  4 3)
11  6 3  a  b 3
On comparing
a = 11, b = -6
a+b=5
K  24  3 24  3 24 ...
3
45.
K  3 24  K
3
K = 24 + K
3
K - K – 24 = 0
on solving K = 3
CONCEPT CODES
SR. NO PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY

1 P080301 C080103
2 P080207 C080102
3 P080301 C080101
4 P080104 C080101
5 P080201 C080103
6 P080406 C080103
7 P080401 C080102
8 P080205 C080102
9 P080104 C080203
10 P080204 C080204
11 P080201 C080203
12 P080301 C080203
13 P080405 C080203
14 P080202 C080202
15 P080203 C080203
CONCEPT CODES
SR. NO MATHS
1 M080107
2 M080302
3 M080306
4 M080108
5 M080604
6 M080209
7 M080201
8 M080301
9 M080901
10 M080901
11 M080307
12 M080108
13 M080108
14 M080111
15 M080201
16 M080111
17 M080108
18 M080203
19 M080214
20 M080302
21 M080303
22 M080901
23 M080901
24 M080201
25 M080901
26 M080901
27 M080107
28 M080107
29 M080107
30 M080901
31 M080901
32 M080901
33 M080901
34 M080306
35 M083201
36 M082101
37 M080108
38 M080103
39 M080111
40 M080208
41 M083201
42 M080306
43 M080111
44 M082901
45 M080212
FIITJEE COMMON TEST
PHASE – I
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) SET - A
QP CODE:
Time:90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90
Please read the instructions carefully.
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 90 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Enrollment No. : Batch :
Name :
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:
Directions:- Q. No. (1 -10). Find the missing number.
1. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, _______
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15
2. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, _______, 49
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 34 (D) 36
3. 4, 9, 14, 19, _____, 29

(A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26
4. 1, 8, 27, _____, 125

(A) 40 (B) 44 (C) 64 (D) 72
5. 12, 24, 36, 48, ______, 72

(A) 58 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 64
6. 6, 8, 18, 16, 24, ?, 30

(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 25
3 8 18 33
7. ?
4 10 22 40
25 35 45 53
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24 48 58 64
1 1 2 2
8. 11 12 14 16 ?
9 2 7 3
1 1
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 20 (D) 10
3 2
9. Which of the following choices is not the number of the series :

1 8 27 64 125 ?
(A) 256 (B) 512 (C) 729 (D) 1000
10. 2 43 9 ? 16
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12
Directions:- Q. No. (11-14). the terms have been arranged in some order. One term is missing find the
missing term out of the given five alternatives?
11. cx, fu, ir, ?, ol, ri

(A) lo (B) mn (C) no (D) cp
12. aV eW iX ? uZ
(A) bC (B) gH (C) jK (D) oY
13. aZb cYd eXf ? iVj

(A) KPI (B) gWh (C) mSn (D) oTP
14. B6Z E9Y H12X ?

(A) L15P (B) 16Z (C) N20S (D) K15W
Direction : (Q. 15 - 17) Complete the following series :
15. Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ?
(A) R, D (B) R, E (C) S, E (D) Q, D
16. W, V, T, S, Q, P, N, M, ? , ?
(A) I, J (B) J, I (C) J, K (D) K, J
17. OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?

(A) SYJ (B) TXI (C) SXJ (D) SXI
Direction :- (Q. 18 - 20) In the following letter series some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are
given in the alternatives given below. Choose the correct alternative.
18. aa ___ abbb ___ ccccd ___ ddccc ___bb ____ba

(A) a b c d a (B) a b d b c (C) a b d c b (D) a b c a d
19. ab ___ a ___ b ___ a ___ b ___ a

(A) a b a a b (B) b b b a b (C) a a a a b (D) b a b a b
20. b a ___ b ___ aab ___ a ___ b

(A) a b b a (B) b a a b (C) b a b b (D) a b a a
Directions :- (Q. 21-28) In the following matrix the numbers follow a trend. Know the trend and choose the
missing the missing number.
21.
3 6 8
5 8 4
4 7 ?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
22.
3 9 3
4 8 4
11 ? 3
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
23.
25 20 8
30 90 30
40 ? 5
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40
24.
25 36 48
? 81 64
121 144 168
(A) 79 (B) 89 (C) 99 (D) 109
25.
7 7 3
2 23 1 2 58 1 2 ? 1
3 8 2
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10
26.
2 3 7
1 100 4 5 121 2 6 ? 3
3 1 1
(A) 180 (B) 260 (C) 279 (D) 289
27.
(A) 21 (B) 23 (C) 25 (D) 27
28.
(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
29. How many even numbers are there in the below sequence which are immediately preceded by an odd
number and immediately followed by an even number ?
5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6.
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 5
Directions (Q.30 to 34) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
RE5DAP$3TIQ79B#2K%U1MW4«
30. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between 3 and 1 in the above arrangement?
(A) B (B) K (C) 9 (D) #
31. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a
consonant and not immediately followed by a consonant?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
32. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a
number but not immediately preceded by a consonant?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
33. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the sixteenth from the left in the above arrangement?
(A) A (B) U (C) 4 (D) T
34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) B K 7 (B) M « U (C) D P E (D) W M 1
35. Pointing towards a boy, Veena said, “He is the son of only son of my grandfather.” How is that boy related to
Veena ?
(A) Uncle (B) Brother (C) Cousin (D) Data inadequate
36. Introducing Reena, Monika said, “She is the only daughter of my father‟s only daughter.” How is Monika
related to Reena ?
(A) Aunt (B) Niece (C) Cousin (D) None of these
37. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?
(A) Nephew (B) Son (C) Cousin (D) Nephew
38. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rashi said, “He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband.”
How is the man on the stage related to Rashi ?
(A) Son (B) Husband (C) Cousin (D) Nephew
39. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl‟s
(A) Brother (B) Son (C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law
40. Arun said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” Who is Arun to the girl ?
(A) Father (B) Grandfather (C) Husband (D) Father-in-law
41. Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, “His mother is the only daughter of your father.” How was the
woman related to the person?
(A) Aunt (B) Mother (C) Wife (D) Daughter
42. Pointing to a gentleman, Girl said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter‟s father‟s only son.” How is
the gentleman related to the girl ?
(A) Grandfather (B) Father (C) Brother-in-law (D) Uncle
43. If P $ Q means P is the father of Q, P # Q means P is mother of Q, & P * Q means P is the sister of Q. Then
how is Q related to N if N # L $ P * Q.
(A) Grandson (B) Grand daughter (C) Nephew (D) Data inadequate
44. A is the brother of B, C is the brother of A. To establish a relationship between B & C, which of the following
information is required.
I. Gender of C II. Gender of B
(A) Only I is required (B) Only II is required
(C) Both I and II are required (D) Neither required
45. Pointing towards a man in the photograph, lady said “the father of his brother is the only son of my mother”.
How is the man related to lady ?
(A) Brother (B) Son (C) Cousin (D) Nephew
Direction : (46 to 47)

A + B means 'A is father of B'
A – B means 'A is wife of B
A × B means 'A is brother of B'
A  B means 'A is daughter of B'
46. P  R + S + Q, which of the following is true ?

(A) P is daughter of Q (B) Q is aunt of P (C) P is aunt of Q (D) P is mother of Q
47. If P – R + Q, which of the following is true

(A) P is mother of Q (B) Q is daughter of P (C) P is aunt of Q (D) P is sister of Q
Direction : (48 - 52)In each of the following questions, find out how many such pairs of letters are there in the given
word each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet.
48. APPREHENSION
(A) Four (B) Five (C) Six (D) Seven
49. PICKLE
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
50. COUNTERACT
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
51. PRODUCTION
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
52. SEQUENTIAL
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Four
Directions (53-60): Find the missing number in the series given below:
53. 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, 43, ?

(A) 55 (B) 57 (C) 59 (D) 61
54. 10, 33, 102, 309, ?

(A) 1030 (B) 1050 (C) 928 (D) 930
55. 3, 11, 23, 39, ?

(A) 58 (B) 59 (C) 60 (D) 61
56. 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ?

(A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 33 (D) 36
57. 17, 43, 81, 131, ?

(A) 375 (B) 468 (C) 300 (D) 193
58. 6, 42, ?, 1260 , 5040, 15120, 30240

(A) 546 (B) 424 (C) 252 (D) 328
59. 15, 17, 20, 22, 27, 29, ?, ?

(A) 31, 28 (B) 36, 38 (C) 36, 43 (D) 38, 45
60. 4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294

(A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 40
Directions: (Q. 61 to 79) In each of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four
alternative figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the
alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as its part.
61. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
80. Q is the brother of R. P is the sister of Q. T is the brother of S, S is the daughter of R. How T is related to Q?
(A) Brother (B) Son (C) Sister (D) Nephew
81. If A is cousin of C, C and Q are sisters, Z is Q‟s mother and P is son of Z, then
(A) P and A are Cousins (B) P is maternal uncle of A
(C) Q is A‟s grandfather (D) P is sister
82. P is the brother of M. Q is the son of M. R, the daughter of P is married to T.M and S are sisters. How is S
related to Q
(A) Mother (B) Aunt (C) Wife (D) Sister
83. A is B‟s brother, C is A‟s mother, D is C‟s father, E is B‟s son. How is D related to A?
(A) Son (B) Grandson (C) Grandfather (D) Great Grandfather
84. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother‟s father is the only son of my grandfather.”
How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(A) Sister (B) Mother (C) Grandmother (D) Aunt
Direction (85 - 88)In each of the following questions, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the
wrong term.
85. 15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70

(A) 16 (B) 22 (C) 45 (D) 70
86. 6, 14, 30, 64, 126

(A) 6 (B) 14 (C) 64 (D) 126
87. 5, 10, 40, 80, 320, 550, 2560

(A) 80 (B) 320 (C) 550 (D) 2560
88. 1, 5, 5, 9, 7, 11, 11, 15, 12, 17

(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 17 (D) 15
89. If any two letters in the word PRISON have as many letters between them in the word as there are in the
English alphabet, they form an alpha-pair. How many such alpha-pairs are there in the word prison?
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
90. If you count 21 letters in the English alphabet from the end 20 letters from the beginning which letter will
appear exactly in the middle of the sequence thus formed ?
(A) M (B) N (C) L (D) O
ANSWERS
Q.NO. ANSWER Q.NO. ANSWER Q.NO. ANSWER

1 B 31 C 61 A
2 D 32 B 62 D
3 B 33 D 63 D
4 C 34 C 64 C
5 B 35 B 65 D
6 C 36 D 66 D
7 D 37 C 67 B
8 C 38 A 68 D
9 A 39 A 69 D
10 B 40 D 70 B
11 A 41 B 71 B
12 D 42 C 72 D
13 B 43 D 73 D
14 D 44 B 74 A
15 A 45 D 75 B
16 D 46 C 76 B
17 D 47 A 77 B
18 C 48 B 78 A
19 D 49 D 79 C
20 A 50 C 80 D
21 A 51 D 81 A
22 C 52 D 82 B
23 B 53 D 83 C
24 C 54 C 84 A
25 B 55 A 85 B
26 D 56 D 86 C
27 D 57 B 87 C
28 B 58 C 88 B
29 C 59 B 89 A
30 A 60 C 90 A
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Batches:UDAYA ONE YEAR 1617
PHASE – II
LOT-A Paper Code
SET-A XXXXXX.X
NSEJS
Time: 1.30 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics- Section-III
and Biology- Section-IV) and each part consists of four sections.
2. Each Section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its
B. Marking scheme:
1. For each question in Section I, II, III & IV you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)
mark will be awarded.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Physics Section - I
1. How far does the sound travel in air when a tuning fork of frequency 560 Hz makes 30 vibrations?
(given speed of sound in air = 336 m/s)
(a) 18 cm (b) 18 m (c) 18 km (d) 180 km.
2. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 1000 KHz in air. If this sound meets a water surface, wavelength of
the reflected sound is : (speed of sound = 340 m/s)
–4 –4 –2
(a) 3.4 × 10 m (b) 3.4 × 10 cm (c) 3.4 × 10 m (d) None of these.
3. The amplitude of a sound becomes twice, loudness of sound becomes

(a) 2 times (b) half (c) 4 times (d) 1/4 th
4. When a wave travels through a medium

(a) particles are transferred from one place to another
(b) Energy is transferred in a periodic manner
(c) Energy is transferred at a constant speed
(d) none of above
5. As shown in the figure, two equal masses each of 2 kg are suspended from a spring balance. The
reading of the spring balance will be
2kg 2kg
a) Zero (b) 2 kg (c) 4 kg (d) Between zero and 2 kg

6. A SONAR device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 sec later. Find the speed of
sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3625m
(a) 1235 m/s (b) 1450 m/s (c) 1534 m/s (d) none.
7. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of tower, when is the
2
splash heard at the top. g = 10 m/s , vsound = 340 m/s
(a) 10 sec (b) 12 sec (c) 8 sec (d) none.
8. A source of sound of frequency 600 Hz is placed inside water. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s and
in air it is 300 m/s. The frequency of sound recorded by an observer who is standing in air is
(a) 200 Hz (b) 3000 Hz (c) 120 Hz (d) 600 Hz.
Space for Rough Work
9. A man stands in between two cliffs and fires a gun. He hears two successive echoes after 3 sec and 5 sec.
The distance between two cliffs is (speed of sound = 330 m/s)
(a) 1320 m (b) 1460 m (c) 1835 m (d) 1850 m
10. Sound wave travels at a speed of 339 m/s. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, the frequency of the wave will be
(a) 14500 Hz (b) 22000 Hz (c) 22600 Hz (d) 23000 Hz
11. Which of the following waves can travel through vacuum :

(a) Radio wave (b) Ultrasonic wave (c) Shock wave (d) Longitudinal wave
12. Velocity of sound in air is 340 m/sec. Man A is at a distance 17 m from B on moon. „A‟ says hello to B. After
how many seconds B hears
1
(a) 20 sec (b) sec .
20
(c) 5 sec (d) None of these
13. Supersonic plane flies
(a) with the speed less than the speed of sound
(b) with the speed of sound
(c) with the speed greater than the speed of sound
(d) with the speed of light
14. In case of reflection of sound waves
(a) angle of incidence has no relationship with the angle of reflection
(b) angle of incidence = angle of reflection
(c) angle of incidence < angle of reflection
(d) angle of incidence > angle of reflection
15. Which of the following sound waves can not be heard by human?
(a) 20Hz (b) 500Hz (c) 15Hz (d) 15000Hz

Chemistry Section - II
1. Consider the following statements.
a. Natural gas can be supplied to homes and factories through pipes.
b. Natural gas is obtained by fractional distillation of crude oil.
c. Natural gas is a cleaner fuel because on burning only water is produced.
d. Natural gas is an exhaustible source of energy like fossil fuels.
Which alternative has the correct statements?
(a) a and c (b) b and c

(c) a and d (d) a, c and d
2. Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called

(a) hydrocarbon (b) petrol (c) Carbon dioxide (d) carbohydrates
3. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

(a) Cetane number (b) Octane number (c) Calorific value (d) All of these
4. LPG stands for?

(a) Liquefied Petroleum Gas (a) Liquid Petroleum Gas
(c) Liquefied Petro Gas (b) Liquefied Petrochemical Gas
5. Which of the following happens in carbonisation?
(a) Dead vegetation is converted to coal (b) Carbon is formed from nature
(c) Carbon is formed from coal (d) Carbon gets liberated into nature
6. Which of these is used making naphthalene balls?
(a) Coke (b) Coal tar

(c) Gas (d) Petrol
7. The process of separation of petroleum into its constituents is called …….. Filtration
(a) Purification (b) Refining

(c) Separation (d) Ultra-filtration
8. Coal is produced in Industry to get?

(a) Coke (b) Coal tar (c) Coal Gas (d) All of these
9. Coke is used in the manufacturing of

(a) Led (b) Iron (c) Steel (d) Copper
10. Which is an almost pure form of Carbon?

(a) Cock (b) Coal tar (c) Coal Gas (d) None of these
11. Petroleum is formed from

(a) Domestic animal (b) Organisms in sea (c) Wild Animals (d) insects
12. Petroleum is mixture of
(a) Petrol (b) Diesel (c) Petroleum Gas (d) All of these
13. Gasoline is the name of

(a) Crude oil
(b) The gaseous constituent of petroleum
(c) The mixture of uncondensed gases produced in the distillation of crude oil
(d) The mixture of the residue and gas oil obtained in the distillation of crude oil
14. Of these, the most reactive metal is ___________.

(a) Fe (b) Zn
(c) K (d) Na
15. Which of the following metals does not displace H2 gas from dilute HCl or dilute H2SO4?
(a) Mg (b) Cu (c) Zn (d) Al
Mathematics Section - III

2
 1 1 
1. The value of    is
 5 2 5  2 

(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 50 (d) 20
2. The value of 242  72 is

5 5
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5/6 (d) 1/6
6 6
3. Find the degree of the polynomial
2  y2  y3  2y8
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 8
4. The value of 303  203  503 is

(a) 90000 (b) 30000 (c) 30000 (d) 90000
5. Which of the following statement is/are wrong
(i) 1
x2   2 is a polynomialof degree 2.
x
(ii) 3 is a monomial having degree 0.
(iii) 3y2  8 is a linear polynomial
(a) (i) & (iii) (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) (i) & (ii) (d) (ii) only
6. The measures of the angles of a quadrilateral taken in order are proportional to 1:2:3:4 then the quadrilateral
is
(a) Parallelogram (b) Trapezium (c) Rectangle (d) Rhombus

1
7. The value of 192  48  75 is
2
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 8
8. Which of the following statements is / are correct

(i) The diagonals of a parallelogram are perpendicular to each other and are of equal length
(ii) A quadrilateral is a parallelogram If and only if its pair of opposite sides are equal and parallel
(iii) A trapezium is said to be an isosceles trapezium, if its non-parallel sides are equal
(a) (ii) only (b) (iii) only (c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (i), (ii) & (iii)
9. Factorisation of x2 1 2a  a2 is
(a) (x  a 1)(x  a 1) (b) (x  a 1)(x  a 1)
(c) (x  a 1)(x  a 1) (d) (x  a 1)(x  a 1)
10. 5  3 x  3 , then the value of x is

(a) 9 (b) 27 (c) 64 (d) 343
11. Mark True or False:-
(i) A point whose x- coordinate is zero and y- coordinate is non-zero will lie on y-axis
(ii) The relation between independent variable and dependent variable cannot be shown
through a graph.
(iii) The coordinates of the origin are (0,0).
(a) TTT (b) TFT (c) FTT (d) FTF
12. Which of following statement is wrong
(a) A quadrilateral can be constructed uniquely if the lengths of its four sides and a diagonal
is given
(b) A quadrilateral can be constructed uniquely if its two diagonals and three sides are known
(c) A quadrilateral can be constructed uniquely if its two adjacent sides and two angles are known
(d) A quadrilateral can be constructed uniquely if its three sides and two included angles are given.
0 0
13. Opposite angles of a parallelogram are (2x-10) and (3x-70) . The value of x is
(a) 600 (b) 500 (c) 400 (d) 900
14. Consider the following table and choose the correct statement from below given statement:-
Marks obtained out of 10 4 5 7 8 9 10

Frequency 5 10 8 6 12 9
(a) 10 students got full marks
(b) The frequency of less than 8 marks is 29
(c) The frequency of more than 8 marks is 21
(d) 10 marks is the highest frequency
15.
x
0
40
In the figure, PQRS is a rhombus, then the value of y-x is

0 0 0 0
(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 40
Biology Section - IV
1. Match the columns
Columns I Columns II
(i) Arctic Tern (a) An extinct species
(ii) National park (b) Large protected area meant for conservation of
Biodiversity
(iii) Dodo (c) A migratory bird
(iv) Biosphere Reserve (d) Areas where animals and their habitats are protected
(a) i – b, ii – a, iii – c, iv – d (b) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d

(c) i – a, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c (d) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
2. Mach the columns
Columns I Columns II
(i) Kaziranga National Park (a) The first National Park in India
(ii) Bandipur National Park (b) Asiatic Lion
(iii) Corbett National Park (c) One – horned Rhino
(iv) Gir National Park (d) Indian Elephant
(a) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b (b) i – a, ii – c, iii – b, iv – d

(c) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d (d) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
3. The Indian government launched “Project Tiger” in

(a) 1970 (b) 1972
(c) 1974 (d) 1978
4. MAB programme was started by

(a) IBWL (b) UNO
(c) UNESCO (d) IUCN
5. A group of population which is capable of inter-breeding is known as

(a) Flora (b) Species (c) Animals (d) Kingdom
6. Deforestation causes
(a) decline in percentage of oxygen in air
(b) increase in percentage of carbon dioxide in air
(c) both decline and increase in percentage of oxygen and carbon dioxide respectively
(d) None of these

7. Which of the following has to be observed to protect wild life?
(a) Prevent deforestation (b) Place ban on poaching
(c) Place ban on hunting (d) All of these
8. When is the World Wildlife week?

(a) First week of September (b) Last week of September
(c) First week of October (d) Last week of October
9. Viable material of endangered species can be preserved by

(a) Gene bank (b) Gene library (c) Gene pool (d) Herbarium
10. Species of plants and animals which are found exclusively in a particular area are called
(a) Endemic species (b) Exotic species (c) Local species (d) Specific species
11. The Indian Government has established how many Biosphere Reserves in India ?
(a) 10 (b) 5
(c) 18 (d) 14
12. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
(a) National Park
(b) Wildlife sanctuary
(c) Seed bank
(d) Sacred grooves
13. Which endangered animal is the source of the world‟s finest, lightest, warmest and most expensive wool –
the shahtoosh?
(a) nilgai (b) cheetal (c) kashmiri goat (d) chiru
14. According to IUCN Red List, what is the status of Red Panda?
(a) critically endangered species (b) vulnerable species
(c) extinct species (d) endangered species.
15. What is the animal symbol of World Wildlife Fund?

(a) Red Panda (b) Giant Panda
(c) Tiger (d) Kangaroo
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE – II Paper Code
XXXXXX.X
LOT-A
SET-A
NSEJS
ANSWERS
Physics (Section – I)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. B
7. D 8. D 9. A 10 C 11 A 12 D
13. C 14. B 15. C
Chemistry (Section – II)

1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B
7. B 8. D 9 C 10 D 11 B 12 D
13. B 14. C 15. B
Mathematics (Section – III)

1 D 2 A 3 D 4 A 5 A 6 B
7 B 8 C 9 B 10 C 11 B 12 C
13 A 14 C 15 D
Biology (Section – IV)

1 D 2 A 3 B 4 C 5. B 6 C
7 D 8 C 9 A 10 A 11 C 12 C
13 D 14 D 15 B
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE – II
LOT-A
SET-A
QP CODE: xxxxxx.x
Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 90
Instructions
Name of the Candidate : ……………….……………………………………
Enrollment Number : …………………………………………………….

SECTION I: MATHEMATICS
(Part A)
1. Which one of the following algebraic expressions is a polynomial in variable x ?
1 1
(a) x2  (b) x
2
x x
3
(c) 3x 2 (d) None of these

x2 
x
2. Factorisation of a2x  b2x is
(a) (ax  bx )(ax  bx ) (b) (ax  bx )2

(c) (ax  bx )(a2  b2 ) (d) (ax  bx )(a2  b2 )
3. 3 2 3 2
If x  , y ,then x  y 
3 2 3 2
(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) None of these

4. Diagonals bisect each other in
i) Rectangle
ii) Rhombus
iii) Parallelogram
iv) Trapezium
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
n 
2  4 
5. If 2  1024 , then
n
3 4  ?
(a) 9 (b) 3 (c) 27 (d) 81
 x
x
6. If x x
 , then x is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 4
7. A biquadratic polynomial has degree
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1
 1 
8. If x  3  2 2 , then the value of  x   is
 x
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2 2 (d) 3 3
____________________________________________________________________________________________
_
Space for rough work
1 P
9. If P  3  , then the value of 2 is
P P  P 1
(a) 7/4 (b) 5/4 (c) 3/4 (d) 1/4
10. (i) The bisectors of the angles of a parallelogram form a rectangle
(ii) It is not possible to construct a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 5 cm, BC = 7.5 cm,
A  80o , B  140o & C  145o
(a) Statement (i) is only correct (b) Statement (ii) is only correct
(c) Both statement (i) & (ii) are correct (d) Both statement (i) & (ii) are wrong
11. The diagonals of a rhombus are 8cm and 6cm, then the length of each side of the rhombus is
equal to
(a) 5cm (b) 4cm (c) 3cm (d) None of these
12. Tally marks are used to find
(a) Class intervals (b) Range
(c) Frequency (d) Upper Limit
1 1
13. If x   2 the value of x 2  2  5 is
x x
(a) 19 (b) 7 (c) 20 (d) 18
14. The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 4:3. If the diagonal measures 25cm. then
the perimeter of the rectangle is
(a) 58cm (b) 60cm (c) 70cm (d) 80cm
2 2
15. The GCD of (x -4) and (x +5x+6) is
(a) x  3 (b) x  4 (c) x  2 (d) x  2

16. The range of the data 30, 61, 55, 56, 60, 20, 26, 46, 28, 56 is
(a) 26 (b) 30 (c) 41 (d) 61
17. The minimum number of variables required to draw a graph is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
18. An unbiased dice is thrown, the probability of getting a multiple of 2 is
2 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 6 2
19. The LCM of the polynomials 2x2  3x  2 and x3  4x2  4x is
(a) x(x  2)2 (2x  1) (b) x(x  2) (2x  1)2
(c) x(x  2) (2x 1) (d) x2 (x  2)2 (2x 1)2
20. If a + b = 5 and ab = 6, then the value of a3  b3 is

(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 45
21. Two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are  2x  250 and  3x  50 ,the value of x is
0 0 0 0
(a) 28 (b) 32 (c) 36 (d) 42
22. In the given figure AB  CD , then the measure of C is
D C
0 0
65 65
A B
0 0 0 0
(a) 65 (b) 115 (c) 135 (d) 125
23. A coin is tossed three times. The number of possible outcomes is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

24. Which of the following statements is wrong:-
(a) Data available in an unorganized form is called Raw data.
(b) Size of the class 150-175 is 25.
(c) A regular polygon is both „equiangular‟ and „equilateral‟.
0
(d) The number of sides of a regular polygon whose exterior angle has a measure of 45 is 9.

25. in a square ABCD, AB = (2x + 3) cm and BC = (3x - 5) cm. then, the value of x is
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
26. In a parallelogram ABCD, BC = 8.7 cm and its perimeter is 25cm. then CD equals
(a) 16.3 cm (b) 8.15 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 4.2 cm

0
27. If a diagonal of a quadrilateral bisects each other at 90 , then it is a
(a) Kite (b) Parallelogram (c) Rhombus (d) Rectangle
28. Which of the following are like terms?
(a) 5xyz2 ,  3xy2 z (b) 5xyz2 ,  7xyz2

(c) 5xyz2 , 5x2 yz (d) 5xyz2 , x2 y2 z2
29.  
On dividing p 4p2 16 by 4p p  2  , we get
(a) 2p + 4 (b) 2p - 4 (c) p + 2 (d) p – 2
30. The sum of the exterior angles of a concave quadrilateral is

0 0
(a) More than 360 (b) Less than 360
0 0
(c) Equal to 360 (d) Twice of 360
31. In a polynomial, the exponents of the variables are always

(a) Integers (b) Positive integers
(c) Non-negative integers (d) Non-positive integers
32. The greater between 17  12 and 11  6 is

(a) 17  12 (b) 11  6 (c) Both are equal (d) Cannot compare
33. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Column - I Column - II
(i)  21x  13y 2
(p) 441x2 169y2
(ii)  21x  13y 2 (q) 441x2  169y2  546xy
(iii) (21x  13y)(21x 13y) (r) 441x2  169y2  546xy
(s) 441x2  169y2  546xy
(a) i   q (b) i  r 
ii  r  ii   q
iii   s  , p  iii  p 
(c) i   q (d) i   q
ii  r  ii   s 
iii  p  iii  r 
34. In a parallelogram PQRS, If P  600 , then other three angles are:
(a) 450 ,1350 ,1200 (b) 600 ,1200 ,1200
(c) 600 ,1350 ,1350 (d) 450 ,1350 ,1350
3 1 3 1 3 2
35. If x    ,then the value of x2  6x  39 is
3 1 3 1 3 2
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 6

36. The angle between two altitudes of a parallelogram through the same vertex of an obtuse angle of the
0
parallelogram is 30 . The measure of the obtuse angle is
(a) 1000 (b) 1500 (c) 1050 (d) 1200
37. If 444  444  444  444  4x ,thenx is
(a) 45 (b) 44 (c) 176 (d) 11
38. Factors of  a  b    a  b  are

3 3
(a)

2ab, 3a2  b2  (b)

ab, 3a2  b2 
(c)

2b, 3a2  b2  (d)
3a 2
 b2 
39. In rectangle READ given below
R D
600 O
E A

(a) EAR  30 (b) RAD  60
(c) ROD 120 (d) All of these
40. 1
If 2 1.414, 3 1.732and 5  2.236 then find the value of
2 5 3 2
(a) 3.848 (b) 4.357 (c) 3.968 (d) 8.714
41. Which of the following statement is / are true
(i)
3a  2b  c  d2 12a  2b  c  d isa perfect square
(ii) The degree of the polynomial
 x  2 x  3  x  4  is 4
(a) Only (i) is true (b) Only (ii) is true
(c) Both are true (d) Both are false
42. What is the probability of choosing a vowel from the alphabets?
(a) 21 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 3
26 26 26 26
43. 1 1 1 1 1
Let T      , then
3 8 8 7 7 6 6 5 5 2
(a) T < 1 (b) T = 1 (c) T > 2 (d) 1 < T < 2
44. 1 3 1
If x   ,find the value of 8x3  3
4x 2 8x
(a) 18 (b) 36 (c) 24 (d) 16
45. If a,b,c are real and a  b  c  2  a  b  c   3,then the value of 2a  3b  4cis
2 2 2
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
SECTION II: PHYSICS

(Part A)
1. The ratio of frequencies of the two mechanical waves in medium is 5 : 7 find ratio fo their it‟s time
periods
(a) 7 : 5 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
2. A sound wave has a wavelength 50 cm and frequency 3 KHZ. How long will it take to move length
1.5 KM?
(a) 2 sec (b) 0.2 sec (c) 1 sec (d) 10 sec
3. Nature of sound wave is

(a) Transverse (b) Longitudinal (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
4. The minimum distance between the source and the reflector, so that an echo is heard, is
approximately equal to
(a) 10.2 m (b) 1.72 m (c) 34.2 m (d) 17.2 m
5. The directions of the force of friction and the force causing motion are
(a) parallel and in the same direction (b) parallel and in opposite directions
(c) perpendicular to each other (d) at random
6. A horizontal force of 100 N acts on a body which is still at rest. What is the force of friction
between the body and the floor :
(a) 50 N (b) 100 N (c) 150 N (d) 200 N
7. The amplitude of a wave can be defined as
(a) distance the wave moves in one second.
(b) distance the wave moves in one time period of the wave.
(c) the maximum distance moved by the medium particles on either side of mean position.
(d) distance equal to half wave length.
8. A source of frequency of 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.4m, how long does the waves take
to travel 600m,
(a) 30 sec (b) 3 sec (c) 7 sec (d) 2 sec
9. The distance between two successive compression and rarefaction of a longitudinal wave is called
(a) half wavelength (b) full wavelength
(c) frequency (d) amplitude
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a musical sound?

(a) pitch (b) loudness (c) quality (d) None of these
11. A big explosion on the moon cannot be heard on the earth because
(a) the explosion produces high frequency sound waves which are inaudible
(b) sound waves require a material medium for propagation
(c) sound waves are absorbed in the atmosphere of moon
(d) sound waves are absorbed in earth‟s atmosphere
12. The term that describes how the brain interprets the frequency of a sound is called
(a) amplitude (b) loudness
(c) pitch (d) pinna
13. The relation between frequency (n) and wavelength (  ) is given by (v is velocity, n is frequency and T is
time-period)
 n T
(a) v  n (b) n (c) v (d) n
v  2

14. The velocity of sound is maximum in
(a) Water (b) Helium (c) oil (d) Copper
15. In a stethoscope, sound of heart beats travel to the stethoscope‟s tube

(a) By bending along the tube (b) In a straight line
(c) By undergoing multiple reflections (d) As sonic boom

SECTION III: CHEMISTRY
(Part A)
1. Examples of renewable resources include all of the following except:
(a) Solar Power (b) Wind Power (c) Coal (d) Water Power
2. Which type of coal has the highest energy content?

(a) Bituminous (b) Sub-Bituminous (c) Anthracite (d) All of these
3. Match List I (fraction of petroleum) with List II (main use) and select the correct answer for the
given alternatives.
List I (fraction of petroleum) List II (main uses)
A. Kerosene I Metalling of roads

B. Diesel II Jet aircraft fuel
C. Paraffin Wax III Generation of electricity
D. Bitumen IV Lubricants
(a) A I, B II, C III, D IV (b) A I, B III, C IV, D II

(c) A II, B III, C IV, D I (d) A IV, B II, C III, D I
4. PCRA stands for
(a) Pollution control research association (b) Petroleum conversation Research association
(c) Petroleum control research association (d) Petrol, coal reserve association
5. Octane number of iso-octane is

(a) Zero (b) 100 (c) 80 (d) 20
6. Gasoline contains hydrocarbons in the range

(a) C-7 to C-12 (b) C-12 to C-15
(c) C-4 to C-6 (d) C-5 to C-8.
7. Match the Column – I with Column - II

(1) Bituminous (i) Petroleum product
(2) Paraffin wax (ii) Inexhaustible resource
(3) Sunlight (iii) Type of coal
(4) Naphthalene (iv) Fractional distillation of coal tar
(a) 1-i, 2-ii , 3 – iii, 4 - iv (b) 1-i, 2-iii , 3 – iv, 4 - ii

(c) 1-ii, 2-iii , 3 – iv, 4 - i (d) 1-iii, 2-i , 3 – ii, 4 - iv
8. The process of heating coal in the absence of air is called

(a) Decarbonisation (b) Decarboxylation
(c) Cracking (d) Carbonisation
9. How many moles of CO2 formed from complete combustion of three mole of C2H6
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
10. Fossil fuels are obtained from
(a) Remains of non-living materials (b) Dead remains of birds only

(c) Dead remains of insects only (d) Dead remains of living organisms
11. Coal is processed in industries to get some useful products. Which of the following is not obtained
from coal?
(a) Coke (b) Coal tar (c) Coal gas (d) CNG
12. Exhaustible natural resources are

(a) Unlimited in quantity.
(b) Not dependent on nature.
(c) Limited in quantity.
(d) Not exhausted by human activities.
13. Which of the following is a pair of exhaustible natural resources.
(a) Coal and Soil (b) Air and Sunlight

(c) Water and petroleum (d) Wild life and minerals
14. An oxide of element „X‟ is main cause of global warming. The element „X‟ is
(a) S (b) Na (c) C (d) N
15. Which of the following are not obtained on fractional distillation of petroleum?
(a) Paraffin wax (b) Asphalt (c) Coal gas (d) None of the above

SECTION IV: BIOLOGY
(Part A)
1. Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities was
passed in the year
(a) 1985 (b) 1986
(c) 1987 (d) 1988
2. The plants, animals and microorganisms along with climate, soil river etc. of an area is referred to as
(a) Fauna (b) Ecosystem (c) Species (d) Kingdom
3. Red Data Book keeps the record of

(a) Endangered animals and plants (b) Extinct animals and plants
(c) Endemic animals and plants (d) All of these
4. Name any one soap substitute provided by forests

(a) Ritha (b) Rubber (c) Lac (d) None of these
5. Which day is celebrated as „World Wildlife day‟?

th th rd th
(a) 5 June (b) 15 June (c) 3 March (d) 25 May
6. The organization that provides funds for preserving the wild life in our country is
(a) UNO (b) UNICEF (c) WWF (d) IUCN
7. Extensive planting of trees to increase forest cover is called

(a) afforestation (b) deforestation (c) social forestry (d) agroforestry
8. Ecosystem is defined as
(a) a species along with environment
(b) plants found in water
(c) plants found on land
(d) all plant and animal species along with environment.
9. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?

(a) Mammals (b) Fishes (c) Birds (d) Reptiles
10. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?
(a) National Park (b) Sanctuary
(c) Botanical Garden (d) Biosphere reserve
11. Increased level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere traps the heat rays reflected by the earth causing an
increase in the temperature on the earth. This is
(a) Local warming (b) House warming (c) Global warming (d) Country warming
12. Part of the earth which supports life where living beings exists is called ____
(a) Atmosphere (b) Biosphere (c) Biology (d) Biodiversity
13. Reforestation means

(a) Planting trees
(b) restocking of the destroyed forests by planting new trees.
(c) Cutting trees
(d) Burning trees
14. Project Tiger means

(a) Hunting of Tigers (b) Rearing of Tigers
(c) Survival & Maintenance of Tiger (d) All of these
15. If we uncover half of the forest, covering of the earth, what crisis will be produced at most and at first?
(a) some species will be extincted
(b) population and ecological imbalance will rise up
(c) energy crisis will occur
(d) rest half forests will maintain this imbalance.

FIITJEE COMMON TEST
PHASE – II
LOT-A
SET-A
QP CODE: XXXXX
ANSWER
Mathematics-SECTION-I (Part –A)
1 C 2 A 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 D 7 B
8 B 9 D 10 C 11 A 12 C 13 B 14 C
15 D 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 A 20 C 21 B
22 B 23 D 24 D 25 C 26 C 27 C 28 B
29 C 30 C 31 C 32 B 33 C 34 B 35 B
36 B 37 A 38 C 39 D 40 B 41 A 42 B
43 C 44 A 45 C
Physics-SECTION-II (Part –A)
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. A 10 D 11 B 12 C 13. A 14. D
15. C
Chemistry-SECTION-III (Part –A)
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. D 9 D 10 D 11 D 12 C 13. D 14. C
15. C
Biology-SECTION-IV (Part –A)
1 C 2 B 3 A 4 A 5 C 6 C 7 A
8 D 9 B 10 C 11 C 12 B 13 B 14 C
15 A
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE – II
LOT-A
SET-A
Mental Ability Test (MAT)
QP CODE: XXXXXX.X
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
pen.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
Booklet with them.
E nrollm ent N o. : B atch :
N am e :
C andidate’s S ignature Invigilator’s S ignature :
FIITJEE Kolkata Centre : 1st floor, The Millennium, 235/2A, A.J.C. Bose Road, Kolkata 700 020, Ph: 30537576 - 80
MAT
1. Dog : Rabies :: Mosquito : ?
(a) Plague (b) Death (c) Malaria (d) Sting
2. Bird : Wing :: Fish : ?

(a) Gill (b) Fin (c) Tail (d) Scale
3. Kandla : Gujarat :: Cochin : ?

(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (c) Goa (d) Chennai
4. Girl : Beautiful :: Boy : ?

(a) Smart (b) Heroic (c) Courageous (d) Handsome
5. Knife : Cut :: Axe : ?

(a) Lacerate (b) Chop (c) Slice (d) Server
6. A man is facing south. He truns 135° in the anti clockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise
direction. Which direction is he facing now ?
(a) North-east (b) North-west (c) South-east (d) South-west
7. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then 135° in the anti
clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now ?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South
8. A man is facing towards west and turns through 45° clockwise. again 180° clockwise and then turns
through 270° anti clockwise. In which direction is he facing now ?
(a) West (b) North-west (c) South (d) South-west
9. Reema moves a distance of 75 metres towards the north. She then turned to the left and walking for
about 25 metres, turned left again and walked 80 metres. Finally, she turned to the right at an angle of
450 . In which direction was she moving finally?
(a) north–east (b) north–west

(c) south–east (d) south–west
10. Ramesh stands with his face pointing to the South-East direction. He walked 15 m and then turned
Northwards and walked another 12m. How far was he then from the starting point.
(a) 12 m (b) 10 m
(c) 9 m (d) 5 m
11. Needle : Clock :: Wheel : ?

(a) Walk (b) Road (c) Vehicle (d) Driving
12. Deuce : Tennis :: Googly : ?

(a) Football (b) Cricket (c) Hockey (d) Polo
13. Chanakya : Politician :: Kalidasa : ?

(a) Literature (b) Sanskrit (c) Vikramaditya (d) Dramatist
14. Dettol : Antiseptic :: Phenyl : ?

(a) Deodorant (b) Presertative (c) Antidote (d) Detergent
15. Heart is related to blood in the same way as Lung is related to

(a) Air (b) Oxygen (c) Chest (d) Respiration
16. Young : Old :: Wide : ?
FIITJEE Ltd.,Bhopali Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone – 2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755 – 4253355, 4253455
Udaya One Year CRP(1516)-PT-I-(NSEJS)-55
(a) Big (b) Narrow (c) Long (d) None of these
17. Honey : Wax :: Milk :: ?

(a) Cow (b) Leather (c) Eggs (d) Water.
18. 7 : 56 : : 9 : ?
(a) 63 (b) 81 (c) 90 (d) 99
19. 9 : 8 : : 16 : ?
(a) 27 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 14
20. 8 : 81 : : 64 : ?
(a) 125 (b) 137 (c) 525 (d) 625
21. A rat runs 20‟ towards East and turns to right, runs 10‟ and turns to right, runs 9‟ and again turns to
left, runs 5‟ and then turns to left, runs 12‟ and finally turns to left and runs 6‟. Now, which direction
is the rat facing?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South
22. Starting from a point P, Sachin walked 20 metres towards South. He turned left and walked 30
metres. He then turned left and walked 20 metres. He again turned left and walked 40 metres and
reached a point Q. How far and in which direction is the point Q from the point P?
(a) 20 metres West (b) 10 metres East (c) 10 metres West (d) 10 metres North
23. Radha moves towards South-east a distance of 7 m, then she moves towards West and travels a
distance of 14 m. From here, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7 m and finally she
moves a distance of 10 m towards East and stood at that point. How far is the starting point from
where she stood?
(a) 3 m (b) 4 m (c) 10 m (d) 11 m
24. The door of Aditya‟s house faces the East. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50
metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 metres again. Finally, he turns towards left and stops
after walking 25 metres. Now, Aditya is in which direction from the starting point?
(a) South-east (b) North-east (c) South-west (d) North-west
25. Meat : Vegetarian : : Liquor : ?

(a) Insane (b) Introvert (c) Teetotaller (d) Foolish
26. 5 : 100, 4 : 64 : : 4 : 80, 3 : ?

(a) 26 (b) 48 (c) 54 (d) 60
27. AG : IO : : EK : ?
(a) LR (b) MS (c) PV (d) SY
28. ADE : FGJ : : KNO : ?

(a) PQR (b) PQT (c) RQP (d) TPR
29. How many times in a day, the two hands of a clock coincide?
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 22 (d) 24
30. When the time is 4.20, the angle between the hands of the clock is –
0 0
(a) 20 (b) 15
(c) 12 1 2 0 (d) 10
0
31. MAD : JXA : : RUN : ?

(a) ORK (b) OSQ
(c) PRJ (d) UXQ
32. If the two hands in a clock are 3 minutes divisions apart, then the angle between them is
0 0
(a) 3 (b) 18
(c) 240 (d) 60
0
FIITJEE Ltd.,Bhopal Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone – 2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755 – 4253355, 4253455
33. IJK : MLK :: OPQ : ?
(a) RSQ (b) SRQ

(c) FGJ (d) TSR
34. BD: FH : : NP: ?
(a) ST (b) VW
(c) UV (d) RT
35. LXNU : NYPV :: QTBR : ?
(a) RUSD (b) SDSU

(c) SUDS (d) RSUD
36. DFHJ : LNPR :: ? : BDFH
(a) VXZT (b) UVXZ

(c) TXVZ (d) TVXZ
37. AF : GL : : ?? : UZ
(a) TO (b) OT
(c) TM (d) MT
38. At what time between 5 and 6 are the hands of a clock coincident?
(a) 22 minutes past 5 (b) 30 minutes past 5

8 3
(c) 22 minutes past 5 (d) 27 minutes past 5
11 11
39. 16 : 56 : : 32 : ?
(a) 96 (b) 112 (c) 118 (d) 128
40. 0.16 : 0.0016 : : 1.02 : ?

(a) 0.0102 (b) 0.102 (c) 1.020 (d) 10.20
41. Ajay wants to go to the management institute. He starts from home, which is in the East of a
crossing. He walks towards the crossing. The road to the left ends in a school, straight ahead is a
community hall. The road to the right leads to the management institute. In which direction is the
management institute from the crossing?
(a) East (b) West (c) South (d) North
42 Vineeta‟s house is to the right of Kareena‟s house at a distance of 30 meters in the same row facing
North. Sonal‟s house is in the North-East dirction of Kareena‟s house at a distance of 35 metres.
Determine the direction of vineeta‟s house with respect to Sonal‟s house.
(a) West (b) East (c) South (d) North
43. From his house Mohan moves 30 km in North-West direction and then 30 km in South-West
direction. Next he moves 30 km in South East direction. Finally he turns towards his house. In which
direction is he moving?
(a) North East (b) South East (c) North West (d) South West
44. If North-West becomes South, South West becomes East and so on, what will West becomes?
(a) North (b) North East (c) South (d) South East
45. If the teachers are to the West of Principal‟s office and students are to the North of Principal‟s office,
in what direction are teachers with respect to the students.
(a) South (b) South-West (c) North (d) North
46. 42 : 20 : : 64 : ?
(a) 31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34
(Q.NO. 47-51) Choose the Odd one out :
47. (a) hockey (b) football

(c) tennis (d) chess
48. (a) cabbage (b) carrot

(c) lady finger (d) peaches
49. (a) red (b) purple

(c) blue (d) yellow
50. (a) peddler (b) hawker

(c) vendor (d) buyer
51. (a) lion (b) whale

(c) panther (d) crocodile
52. Vineet started walking towards west. Then he turned to the right. Once again he turned to the right
and last of all, he turned to the left. Towards which direction is he going now?
(a) north (b) south
(c) east (d) west
53. A young man turned towards north from point A and walked 30 mtrs. Then he turned to his left and
walked another 40 mtrs. Then he reached the point B. Locate the direction of point B with respect
to A.
(a) east – west (b) north – west
(c) east – south (d) south
54. Mountain : Valley : : Genius : ?
(a) Brain (b) Idiot
(c) Think (d) Intelligence
(Q.55 to Q.59 ) Each has four terms. Three terms are alike in some way while one term is different from the
others. Write the letter of the term, different from the others on your answer.
55. (a) Mathematics (b) Arithmetics (c) Algebra (d) Geometry
56. (a) Carrot (b) Potato (c)Tomato (d) Beet root
57. (a) 29 (b) 31 (c) 39 (d) 41
58. (a) (b) (c) (d)
59. (a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata (c) Jaipur (d) Bikaner
60. 49 : 81 : : 100 : ?
(a) 64 (b) 144 (c) 169 (d) None of these
61. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through
0 0 0 0
(a) 145 (b) 150 (c) 155 (d) 160
62. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of
0 0 0 0
(a) 120 (b) 125 (c) 130 (d) 135
63. The angle between minute hand and hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is
0 0 0 0
(a) 80 (b) 75 (c) 60 (d) 105
64. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 10.25 is
0 0 0 0
(a) 180 (b) 50 (c) 200 (d) 197.5
65. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5
0 0 0
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 67.5 (d) None
66. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
(a) 41 (b) 56 (c) 60 (d) 65
67. 5 : 124 : : 7 : ?
(a) 125 (b) 248 (c) 342 (d) 343
68. 5 : 36 : : 6 : ?
(a) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (d) 56
69.
?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
70. 121 : 12 : : 25 : ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 7
71. 6 : 222 : : 7 : ?
(a) 210 (b) 336 (c) 343 (d) 350
72. 26 : 5 : : 65 : ?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
73. 25 : 125 : : 36 : ?
(a) 180 (b) 206 (c) 216 (d) 318
74. 14 : 9 : : 26 : ?
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 31
75. 8 : 28 : : 27 : ?
(a) 55 (b) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65
76. 68 : 130 : : ? : 350

(a) 210 (b) 216 (c) 222 (d) 240
77. 1 : 1 : : 25 : ?
(a) 26 (b) 120 (c) 240 (d) 625
78. 6 : 18 : : 4 : ?
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 16
79. 42 : 56 : : 72 : ?
(a) 81 (b) 90 (c) 92 (d) 100
80. 2197 : 13 : : 729 : ?

(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 27
81. 13 : 56 : : 19 : ?
(a) 64 (b) 80 (c) 98 (d) 86
82. 4 : 12 : : 17 : ?
(a) 272 (b) 255 (c) 289 (d) 306
83. 11 : 36 : : 23 : ?
(a) 68 (b) 76 (c) 84 (d) 72
84. LAMP : ETFI : : BAND : ?
(a) VURX (b) UTGW (c) NBST (d) VTGW
85. PARK : QZSJ : : TANK : ?
(a) SBML (b) UZOJ (c) UBOL (d) UZMJ
86. ACDF : CGJN : : BEHI : ?
(a) DJNQ (b) DINQ (c) DINR (d) DKMR
87. acE : bdF : : fhJ : ?
(a) giK (b) ghK (c) dfH (d) fhL
st nd
Directions (Q. 88): Figures 1 and 2 are related in a particular manner in the questions. Establish the same
rd th
relationship between 3 and 4 by choosing a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which would replace
the question mark.
88. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions (Q.89- 90): In each of the following questions, choose the correct water-image of the Fig. (X) from
amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it.
89.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
90.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
F IITJEE COMMON TEST

UDAYA ONE YEAR 1617
PHASE – II
LOT-A
SET-A
Mental Ability Test (MAT)
QP CODE: xxxxxx.x
ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D
5. B 6. D 7. B 8. D
9. B 10. D 11. C 12. B
13. D 14. D 15. B 16. B
17. A 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. D
25. C 26. B 27. B 28. B
29. C 30. D 31. A 32. B
33. B 34. D 35. C 36. D
37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A
41. D 42. C 43. A 44. D
45. B 46. A 47. D 48. D
49. B 50. D 51. D 52. A
53. B 54. B 55. A 56. C
57. C 58. A 59. D 60. B
61. C 62. C 63. B 64. D
65. C 66. D 67. C 68. B
69. B 70. C 71. D 72. C
73. C 74. C 75. D 76. C
77. D 78. C 79. B 80. C
81. B 82. A 83. D 84. B
85. B 86. B 87. A 88. C
89. C 90. A
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Batches: Udaya One Year CRP (1617) A-Lot
PHASE – III
NSEJS
QP CODE:
Time: 1:30 hr. Maximum Marks: 180
1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics- Section-III and
Biology- Section-IV) and each part consists of four sections.
B. Marking scheme:
1. For each question in Section I, II, & III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
1. Unit of resistance is
(A) volt/amp (B) volt2/amp
(C) volt/amp2 (D) volt
2. A wire of resistance R is cut into n equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel.
The equivalent resistance of the combination will be
(A) nR (B) R/n
(C) n/R (D) R/n2
3. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistances of a 200 watt bulb and a 100 watt bulb
designed to operate on the same voltage:
(A) R1 is two times R2 (B) R2 is two times R1
(C) R2 is four times R1 (D) R1 is four times R2
4. A wire of resistance r is stretched till its radius is half of the original value. Then, the
resistance of the stretched wire is
(A) 2R (B) 4R
(C) 8R (D) 16R
5. In the given current distribution, what is the value of I? 4A

(A) 3 A (B) 8 A
2A
(C) 2 A (D) 5 A I
5A 3A
3
6. If the ammeter in the given circuit reads 2A, the resistance
R
R is 6
(A) 1 ohm (B) 2 ohm
(C) 3 ohm (D) 4 ohm
A
6V
7. Two copper wires of length  and 2 have radii, r and 2r respectively. What is the ratio of
their specific resistances?
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
8. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power
consumed will be
(A) 100 W (B) 75 W
(C) 50 W (D) 25 W
9. The process of transferring electric charges from charge object to the earth is called
(A) Lightning (B) Electrolysis
(C) Earthing (D) Earthquake
10. Calculate the effective resistance between 1

the points A and B for following circuit.
(A) 3 / 5
(B) 1 / 3 A B
(C) 2 /3 1
(D) 3 / 2 1
1
11. Dilute sulphuric acid splits into ________ .
(A) oxygen ion and hydrogen ion.
(B) oxygen ions hydrogen ions and sulphur ions.
(C) hydrogen ions, sulphate ions and oxygen ions.
(D) hydrogen ions and sulphate ions.
4R
12. In the network shown in figure, the potential
difference across the resistance 2R is R
4E 2R
(A) 2E (B)
7
E
(C) (D) E
7 E
13. A student carries out an experiment and plots the

V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire with R1
resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively (figure). R2
I
Which of the following is true? (ampere)
(A) R1 = R2 = R3 R3
(B) R1 > R2 > R3
(C) R3 > R2 > R1
(D) R2 > R3 > R1 V (volts)
14. A resistance coil is made by combining two 2.5 Ohm resistances in series. A 1.0 V steady
voltage is applied across the two ends of the coil for 5 minutes. The heat generated is
(A) 30 J (B) 60 J
(C) 90 J (D) 120 J
15. An electric heater is rated 2 kW, 250 V. Find the cost of running this heater for 3 hours at
Rs. 1.50 per unit.
(A) Rs. 6 (B) Rs. 9
(C) Rs. 4 (D) Rs. 12
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
1. Identify the correct balanced chemical equation for complete combustion.

(A) CH4  O2   CO2  H2O (B) 2CH4  3O2   2CO  4H2O
(C) CH4  O2 
 C  2H2O (D) CH4  2O2 
 CO2  2H2O
2. Which statement is incorrect about calorific value of a fuel?

(A) It is a characteristic of a fuel
(B) It is very high for solid fuels
(C) It is measured in kilojoule per kilogram
(D) It is commonly determined by a Bomb calorimeter
3. Water is useful to extinguish fire because

(A) it conducts heat to surroundings
(B) it is a non-combustible substance
(C) it brings the temperature of fuel below the ignition temperature
(D) it dissolves the oxygen available for combustion
4. The colour of zone of flame with partial combustion is

(A) yellow (B) blue
(C) black (D) red
5. Which one of the following is extremely suffocating gas?

(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Helium (D) Sulphur dioxide
6. What is true in case of carbon dioxide?

(A) It is highly inflammable (B) It is heavier than nitrogen
(C) It helps oxygen to reach the fuel (D) It enhances the process of combustion
7. Which one among the following is highly inflammable?

(A) Wood (B) Charcoal
(C) Alcohol (D) Methane
8. Marble cancer is referred to the formation of

(A) CaCO3 (B) CaSO4
(C) CaCl2 (D) H2SO4
9. Biogas is produced from cattle dung by

(A) aerobic fermentation (B) anaerobic fermentation
(C) both A & B (D) none of these
10. The hottest portion of a candle flame is

(A) the non-luminous zone (B) the outermost zone
(C) zone of complete combustion (D) all the three
11. The use of compressed natural gas in automobiles has reduced pollution in cities because
(A) it is a natural fuel (B) it is very light
(C) it produces negligible harmful products (D) it produces only carbon dioxide
12. Normally rain water is slightly acidic due to

(A) oxygen (B) carbon dioxide
(C) salts (D) dust particles
13. Where does spontaneous combustion likely to occur?

(A) Underground coal mines (B) Under the sea
(C) Burning fire crackers (D) filling petrol in automobiles
14. Methane is also known as

(A) gasoline (B) water gas
(C) marsh gas (D) coal gas
15. Match the following:

Column – I Column – II
(a) Compressed natural gas (p) Carbon dioxide
(b) Liquefied petroleum gas (q) Carbon monoxide
(c) Green house gas (r) Butane

(d) Producer gas (s) Methane
(A) a  s, b  p, c  q, d  r (B) a  r, b  s, c  p, d  q
(C) a  s, b  r, c  q, d  p (D) a  s, b  r, c  p, d  q
SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)
1. If 22x – y = 32 and 2x + y = 16 then x2 + y2 is equal to:

(A) 9 (B) 10
(C) 11 (D) 13
2. A single discount equal to a discount series of 10% and 20% is:

(A) 25% (B) 28%
(C) 30% (D) 35%
3. Punit is 25% older than his younger brother Jasmeet. By what percentage Jasmeet is
younger than Punit?
(A) 20% (B) 10%
(C) 25% (D) Data insufficient
4. A man bought a number of clips at 3 for a rupee and an equal number at 2 for a rupee. At
what price per dozen should he sell them to make a profit of 20%?
(A) Rs. 7 (B) Rs. 6
(C) Rs. 5 (D) Rs. 4
 31  2 1

5.  3  1  3 3  3 3  1  ?
  
2
(A) 3 3 (B) 3
1
(C) 2 (D) 2 3
6. Some persons can do a piece of work in 12 days. Two times the number of such persons
will do half of that work in:
(A) 6 days (B) 4 days
(C) 3 days (D) 12 days
7. The remainder when 12x3  13x2  5x  9 is divided by  3x  2 is

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
35x  812  6561

8. If 2x
 3  93 then x = ?
3
(A) 3 (B) –3
1 1
(C) (D)
3 3
p2 q2 pq
9. Factorize the expression   36   4q  6p ,
4 9 3
p q  p q  p q  p q 
(A)    6     6  (B)    6     6 
 2 3  2 3   2 3  2 3 
 p q  p q   p q  p q 
(C)    6     6  (D)    6     6 
 2 3  2 3   2 3  2 3 
2
6 3  3 67
10. Find the value of .
3
66
(A) 6 (B) 36
(C) 6 (D) 3 6
32001  31999
11. ?
32001  31998
15
(A) (B) 3
13
10 1
(C) (D)
9 3
12. x3  3x2  x  3  ?
(A)  x  1 x  1 x  3  (B)  x  1  x  3 
2
(C)  x  1  x  3  (D)  x  1 x  1 x  3 

2
1
13. x is how much more than ?
x
x2  1 x2  1
(A) (B)
x x
x 1 x 1
(C) (D)
x 1 x 1
14. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC side BA is produced to D such that AB = AD.
Then measure of BCD is
(A) 30° (B) 40°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
15. The centroid divides the median in the ratio of ______ from the side of a triangle.
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 2 : 3
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
SECTION – IV (BIOLOGY)
1. An outer covering membrane is absent over:

(A) nucleolus (B) lysosome
(C) mitochondrion (D) plastid
2. Which one is apparato reticulare?

(A) Golgi apparatus (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Microfilaments (D) Microtubes
3. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved the role of:

(A) cytoplasm in controlling differentiation (B) nucleus in heredity
(C) chromosomes in heredity (D) nucleo cytoplasmic ratio
4. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to biochemicals of cell membranes named:
(A) protein (B) lipids
(C) proteins & lipids (D) glycoproteins and glycolipids
5. What is the jelly like substance present between the cell membrane and the nucleus?
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Nucleoplasm
(C) Protoplasm (D) None of these
6. Nucleolus is found in:

(A) Prokaryotic cell (B) Eukaryotic cell
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
7. Mr. Fontana discovered:

(A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus
(C) Ribosome (D) Both (A) & (B)
8. The chromosomes can be seen only when:

(A) Stem divides (B) Cell divides
(C) Flower divide (D) Root divide
9. What is the unit of inheritance in living organisms?

(A) Gene (B) Chromosomes
(C) Nucleolus (D) None of these
10. All organisms other than bacteria and blue green algae are called:
(A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
11. Which one is not a eukaryotic cell?
(A) R.B.C (B) WBC
(C) Amoeba (D) Blue green algae
12. Which one is not plastids?

(A) Chlorophyll (B) Xanthophyll
(C) Carotinoid (D) None of these
13. Nucleus is shifted one side in plant cell due to:

(A) Mitochondria (B) Large vacuole
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) None of these
14. In nerve cell, ER forms:

(A) Nissl‟s granules (B) Myeloid bodies
(C) Neurotubules (D) Neurofilaments
15. Select the wrong statement from the following:

(A) Both chloroplast & mitochondria contain an inner & an outer membrane
(B) Both chloroplast & mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space
bounded by the thylakoid membrane
(C) Both chloroplast & mitochondria contain DNA
(D) The chloroplast are generally much larger than mitochondria
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – III
NSEJS
QP CODE:
ANSWERS
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D
5. C 6. A 7. C 8. D
9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B
13. C 14. B 15. B
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A
5. D 6. B 7. D 8. B
9. B 10. D 11. C 12. B
13. A 14. C 15. D
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B
5. C 6. C 7. C 8. B
9. A 10. A 11. A 12. A
13. B 14. D 15. D
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. D
5. B 6. B 7. B 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. D 12. D
13. B 14. A 15. B
Answers & Solutions

1. A
V
Sol. R
I
2. D
R
Sol. Resistance of each part = .
n
R
Equivalent resistance in parallel. Reff 
n2
3. B
1
Sol. P for V constant
R
4. D
r
Sol. r 
2
A = r2
r 2 A
A   ;   4
4 4

R    16 R.
A
5. C
Sol. 4+2+I=5+3
6. A
6
Sol. Req   3
2
36
Req  R
36
7. C
Sol. Specific resistance does not depend on dimension.
8. D
V2
Sol. R = 484 
P
When operated 110 V.
V 2 110  110
P  = 25 W
P 484
9. C
Sol. The process of transferring electric charges from charge object to the earth is called
earthing.
10. A
1.5  1 3
Sol. Reff   
1  1.5 5
11. D
Sol. Dilute sulphuric acid splits into hydrogen ions and sulphate ions.
12. B
7R V 3E
Sol. Req  ; I 
3 Req 7R
4 3E 4E
V2R = I2R × 2R =   2R 
6 7R 7
13. C
1
Sol. Slope of I–V graph = .
R
From figure R3 > R2 > R1.
14. B
Sol. R = 5  ; V = 1 V ; t = 5 × 60 sec
V2
H t = 60 J.
R
15. B
Sol. EE = 3 × 2Wh = 6 kWh = 6 units
Cost = 1.5 × 6 = 9 Rs.
1. D
Sol. CH4  2O2 
 CO2  2H2O
2. B
Sol. Calorific value is very high for hydrogen.
3. C
Sol. Water extinguishes fire by cooling the fuel.
4. A
Sol. The middle zone of partial combustion is yellow.
5. D
Sol. Sulphur dioxide is very suffocating gas.
6. B
Sol. Carbon dioxide is heavier than nitrogen.
7. D
Sol. Methane is highly inflammable.
8. B
Sol. Marble cancer is the formation of calcium sulphate.
9. B
Sol. Biogas is produced from cattle dung by anaerobic fermentation.
10. D
Sol. All are correct for the hottest portion of candle flame.
11. C
Sol. CNG produces negligible harmful products.
12. B
Sol. Carbon dioxide dissolves slightly in rain water making it slightly acidic.
13. A
Sol. Spontaneous combustion occurs in underground coal mines.
14. C
Sol. Methane is also known as marsh gas.
15. D
Sol. Compressed natural gas  Methane
Liquefied petroleum gas  Butane
Green house gas  Carbon dioxide
Producer gas  Carbon monoxide

1. B
Sol. 22x  y  32  2x  y  5,
2x  y  16  x  y  4
Solving equation 2x  y  5 and x  y  4  x  3, y  1
So, x2  y2  10
2. B
Sol. Let MP = Rs. 100
SP after 10% discount = Rs. 90
SP after 20% discount = Rs. 72
So, single equivalent discount = 100 – 72 = 28%
3. A
Sol. Let age of Jasmeet = 40 years
Age of Punit = 50 years
10
Required %   100  20%
50
4. B
Sol. Let total number of clips bought (of each type) = 12
 Total CP = 4 + 6 = Rs. 10
SP to gain 20% = Rs. 12
12
SP of 1 dozen clip  = Rs. 6
2
5. C
3
 31   32 1
  31 
   3   1  2
3
Sol.  3  1 3  3 3
 1
    
6. C
Sol. Let number of persons = x
12x 1
Time taken by two times of person to do half work  
2x 2
= 3 days
7. C
3 2
 2   2   2
Sol. Remainder  12    13    5     9
 3   3   3
=3
8. B
35x  812  6561
Sol. 2x
 3  93  33x 16  37
3
 3x  9  x  3
9. A
2
p2 q2 pq p q 
Sol.   36   4q  6p     6 
4 9 3  2 3 
10. A
2
6 3  3 67 62/3  67/3
Sol.  6
3
66 62
11. A
Sol.
32001  31999 3

1999
32  1 15

 
32001  31998 31998 33  1 13  
12. A
Sol. x3  3x2  x  3  x3  x2  2x2  2  x  1
 x2  x  1  2  x  1  1 x  1
  x  1  x2  2x  3   x  1 x  1 x  3 
13. B
1 x2  1
Sol. x 
x x
14. D
Sol. In ABC, AB  AC C
 ABC  ACB  x (let)

In ACD, AC  AD x
y
 ADC  ACD  y (let)

Now in BCD,
x   x  y   y  180o
x y
 x  y  90o or BCD  90o B D
A
15. D
Sol. Centroid divides the median in 1 : 2 from the side of triangle
1. A
Sol. An outer covering membrane is absent over nucleolus.
2. A
Sol. Golgi apparatus is apparato reticulare.
3. D
Sol. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling proved the role of nucleo cytoplasmic ratio.
4. D
Sol. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to biochemicals of cell membranes named
glycoproteins and glycolipids.
5. B
Sol. Nucleoplasm is the jelly like substance present between the cell membrane and the
nucleus.
6. B
Sol. Nucleolus is found in eukaryotic cell.
7. B
Sol. Mr. Fontana discovered nucleolus.
8. B
Sol. The chromosomes can be seen only when cell divides.
9. A
Sol. Gene is the unit of inheritance in living organisms.
10. B
Sol. All organisms other than bacteria and blue green algae are called eukaryotes.
11. D
Sol. Blue green algae is not a eukaryotic cell.
12. D
Sol. Chlorophyll, Xanthophyll and Carotinoid are plastids.
13. B
Sol. Nucleus is shifted one side in plant cell due to large vacuole.
14. A
Sol. In nerve cell, ER forms Nissl‟s granules.
15. B
Sol. Both chloroplast & mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space
bounded by the thylakoid membrane
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – III
QP CODE:
Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks :
90

Instructions
SECTION – I (MATHEMATICS)
1. If x2 + y2 + z2 = 28, x + y + z = 6, then xy + yz + xz is equal to:

(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 36 (D) 4
 2 4c
2
2. Factorize   (a  b)  :
 49 
2 2
 2c   2c 
(A)   a  b  (B)   a  b 
7  7 
 2c   2c   2c   2c 
(C)   a  b    a  b  (D)   a  b    a  b 
 7  7   7  7 
3. After allowing a discount of 12% on the marked price of an article, It is sold for Rs. 880 then
it's marked price =
(A) Rs. 1200 (B) Rs. 1400
(C) Rs. 1100 (D) Rs. 1000
4. If the C.P. of 25 chairs is equal to the S.P. of 30 chairs, then the loss percent is
2
(A) 16 % (B) 16%
3
(C) 15% (D) 14%
5. A man bought a horse and a carriage for Rs. 3000. If he sold the horse at a gain of 20%
and the carriage at a loss of 10%, there by gaining 2% on the whole then cost price of the
horse =
(A) Rs. 1400 (B) Rs. 1100
(C) Rs. 1200 (D) Rs. 1300
6. Ramesh scored 20% of the maximum marks in an exam and fails by 30 marks. Prakash
scored 40% of the same and passes by 10 marks. What is the minimum marks required to
pass the exam?
(A) 40 (B) 35
(C) 70 (D) 50
7. The ages of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 8. Six years hence, their ages will be in the ratio 4 :
9. The present age of A is :
(A) 18 years (B) 15 years
(C) 12 years (D) 21 years
1 1
8. If x   5 then x3  3  ?
x x
(A) 125 (B) 120
(C) 115 (D) 110
9. The rate at which a sum becomes four times of itself in 15 years at simple interest, will be
(A) 15% (B) 17.5%
(C) 20% (D) 25%
10. A retailer buys a radio for Rs 225. His overhead expenses are Rs 15. If he sells the radio
for Rs 300 then his profit percent =
(A) 25% (B) 36%
(C) 37% (D) 24%
3
11. If of a cistern is filled in 1 minute then how much more time will be required to fill the rest
5
of it?
(A) 36 seconds (B) 30 seconds
(C) 100 seconds (D) 40 seconds
12. 410 + 410 + 410 + 410 = ?

(A) 440 (B) 1610
(C) 230 (D) 222
13.  3  33   3  ?
 
3
(A) 33 (B) 39
9
(C) 33 (D) 39
14. If x  5,y  3 and z  2, then value of x2  y2  z2  2xy  2yz  2zx is:

(A)125 (B) 0
(C) –25 (D) 10
3y
 1
If    0.008 then value of  0.25  
y
15.
5
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25 „
(C) 0.75 (D) 0.125
1 2
16. The factors of z2  2
 2  2z  are :
z z
 1  1  1 1 
(A)  z   2   z   (B)  z    z   2 
 z  z  z  z 
 1  1  1  1 
(C)  z   2   z   (D)  z    z   2 
 z  z  z  z 
17. A sold a watch to B at a gain of 10% and B sold it to C at a loss of 10%. If C paid Rs. 990
for it, then the price paid by A to buy the watch is:
(A) Rs. 900 (B) Rs. 950
(C) Rs. 990 (D) Rs. 1000
n 
2  4 
18. If 2n  1024 , then 3 4 
=?
(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 27 (D) 81
1 1
19. If x  y  a and xy  b, then the value of 3
 3 is
x y
a3  3ab a3  3ab2
(A) (B)
b3 b3
a3  3a2b a3  3
(C) (D)
b b2
 81 
3/ 4
 25 3/2  5 3 
20. Simplify        
 16   9   2  
1 1
(A) (B)
22 23
(C) 23 (D) 1
a   b   c 
3 3 3
2
 b2 2
 c2 2
 a2
21. Simplify :
 a  b   b  c   c  a
3 3 3
(A) 3  a  b b  c  c  a  (B)  a  b b  c  c  a 

(C) 3  a  b b  c  c  a  (D)  a  b b  c  c  a 
22. Sara gains 10% on selling a pen. If she sells it at double the price, then profit percent is :
(A) 120% (B) 60%
(C) 100% (D) 200%
23.  
The product of x2  x  1 and x2  x  1 is equal to  
(A) x  x  1
4 2
(B) x4  x2  1
(C) x4  2x2  1 (D) None of these
24. What percent decrease in salary would exactly cancel out the 20 percent increase?
2
(A) 16 % (B) 18%
3
1
(C) 20% (D) 33 %
3
25. If 11% of a number exceeds 7% of the same number by 18, then number is
(A) 72 (B) 360
(C) 450 (D) 720
3x  4  6  3x 1
26. The value of the expression is
3x  2
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 1 (D) –1
27. (256)0.16 × (256)0.09

(A) 4 (B) 16
(C) 64 (D) 256.25
x y
28. If 2x  3y  5 then  ?
3 2
5
(A) 10 (B)
6
5 5
(C) (D)
2 3
 2 1  2 1 
29.  x  x2   x  x2   ?
  
1 1
(A) x 4  4  2 (B) x 4  2
x x4
1 1
(C) x 4  4 (D) x 4  4
x x
30. If a : b = 4 : 9 and b : c = 3 : 5, then a : b : c.

(A) 4 : 9 : 15 (B) 4 : 9 : 10
(C) 4 : 9 : 25 (D) 4 : 9 : 20
31. In an election a candidate who gets 84% of the votes is elected by a majority of 476 votes.
What is the total number of votes polled?
(A) 600 (B) 700
(C) 500 (D) 800
4
32. If x% of y is same as of 80, then the value of xy is:
5
(A) 3200 (B) 4000
(C) 6400 (D) None of these
33. By selling an article for Rs. 100, a man gains Rs. 15. Then, his gain% is :
2
(A) 15% (B) 12 %
3
11 1
(C) 17 % (D) 17 %
17 4
1 2 3
34. If Rs. 782 be divided into three parts, proportional to : : , then the first part is:
2 3 4
(A) Rs. 182 (B) Rs. 190
(C) Rs. 196 (D) Rs. 204
35. 5
ab1  5 bc 1  5 ca1  ?
5 1
(A) abc (B) 5
abc
(C) 1 (D) None of these
3
x  4 x3  8 x10
36. ?
x3/5  x
13
(A) x 15 (B) x15
11
(C) x 15
(D) 1
x x 1
9  8  2
37. If   .   , then the value of x is:
4  27  3
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
1 17 1
38. If x 2 2
 then x   ?
x 4 x
17 3
(A)  (B)
2 2
5 17
(C) (D)
2 2
39. 9x2  y2  4z2  6xy  4yz  12xz  ?

(A)  3x  y  2z  (B)  3x  y  2z 
2 2
(C)  3x  y  2z  (D)  3x  y  2z 

2 2
40. x2  4y2  9z2  4xy  ?

(A)  x  2y  3z  (B)  x  2y  3z  x  2y  3z 
2
(C)  x  2y  3z  2xy  (D) None of these
41. x 1/3
 y1/3  x 1/3
 y1/3  x 2/3

 y2/3  ?
(A) x 4/3  y 4/3 (B) x 4/3  y 4/3
(C) x2/3  y2/3 (D) x – y
42. The point of intersection of altitudes in a triangle is called
(A) median (B) orthocentre
(C) centroid (D) None of these
43. If ABCD is a rhombus in which B = 120° and BD = 5 cm then the perimeter of the rhombus
ABCD is
(A) 16 cm (B) 20 cm
(C) 10 cm (D) 5 cm
44. Given that XYZ = 64° and XY is produced to a point P. If a ray YQ bisects ZYP, then
reflex of QYP =
(A) 300° (B) 100°
(C) 170° (D) 302°
45. Diagonals of a rhombus are 30 cm and 16 cm, then length of its side is
(A) 17 cm (B) 19 cm
(C) 21 cm (D) 23 cm
SECTION – II (PHYSICS)
1. The resistivity of a wire depends on its

(A) length (B) area of cross-section
(C) shape (D) material
2. Three 2 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any two
corners is
(A) 6 ohm (B) 2 ohm
(C) (3/4) ohm (D) (4/3) ohm
3. In the following figure, the reading of the ammeter A, when the

internal resistance of the battery is zero, is
A +
20 20 12
(A) amp (B) amp –
20V
3 12 4
20  20 20 
(C) amp (D)    amp
4  3 12 
4. Two copper wires are of same length; one is twice as thick as the other. The resistances of
the wires are in the ratio of
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 8 (D) 1 : 16
5. In an electrolyte solution, current is maintained by the flow of

(A) electrons only (B) negative ions only
(C) positive ions only (D) negative and positive ions both
6. Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio
of heat produced in the two cases is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
7. The epicenter of an earthquake is

(A) deep under the crust of earth (B) in the mantle of earth
(C) on the surface of earth (D) in the core of earth
8. During electrorefining of metal the impure metal get joined with ________ terminal of
battery.
(A) positive (B) negative
(C) either positive or negative (D) none of those
9. If two resistors of resistance 50 and 60 are connected in parallel across a battery. The
ratio of potential difference across them is ____________ .
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 3
10. If a plastic ruler is used to connect the disc of a charged electroscope „A‟ with that of
an uncharged electroscope „B‟ then
(A) divergence of the leaves of B decreases.
(B) divergence of the leaves of B remains the same.
(C) divergence of the leaves of A increases.
(D) none of these
11. An electric bulb is rated at 200 V, 40 W. Its resistance will be

(A) 5  (B) 500 
(C) 1000  (D) 1/5 
12. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected
in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R, then the ratio R/R is
(A) 1/25 (B) 1/5
(C) 5 (D) 25
13. In the following circuits (figure), heat produced in the resistor or combination of resistors
connected to a 12 V battery will be
2 2 2
+
2 2
–
+ – + –
12 V 12 V
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) same in all the cases (B) minimum in case (i)

(C) maximum in case (ii) (D) maximum in case (iii)
14. If a current of 1A is flowing through a wire, then find how many electrons per second pass
through any cross-section of the wire?
(A) 1.6  1019 (B) 6.25  1019
(C) 6.25  1018 (D) 6.25  1020
15. The coil of a heater is cut into two equal halves and only one of them is used in the heater.
The ratio of the heat produced by this half of the coil to that produced by the original coil is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4
SECTION – III (CHEMISTRY)
1. Which one of the following is combustible but not considered as fuel?

(A) Wood (B) Coal
(C) Paper (D) Chalk
2. Which one on burning may cause an explosion?

(A) Baking powder (B) Chalk powder
(C) Metal powder (D) Gun powder
3. Which one among the following has the highest ignition temperature?
(A) Biogas (B) Petrol
(C) Hydrogen (D) Charcoal
4. Candle wax is chemically

(A) carbon (B) hydrogen
(C) mixture of A and B (D) compound of A and B
5. Global warming is the increase in temperature of

(A) earth (B) atmosphere
(C) crust (D) carbon dioxide
6. The difference between butane and isobutane is in their

(A) formula (B) structure
(C) mass (D) constituents
7. What type of reaction is combustion?

(A) Exothermic (B) Endothermic
(C) Photochemical (D) Decomposition
8. Nitric oxide is formed in the atmosphere due to

(A) sun‟s heat (B) atmospheric pressure
(C) lightening (D) global warming
9. Which fuel has the highest calorific value?

(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon
(C) Petrol (D) Coke
10. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?

(A) Coal (B) Petroleum
(C) Biogas (D) Natural gas
11. Which is a characteristic of solid fuels as compared to liquid and gaseous fuels?
(A) High calorific value (B) Low ignition temperature
(C) High ignition temperature (D) No residue
12. The strong acid present in acid rain is
(A) hydrochloric acid (B) carbonic acid
(C) sulphurous acid (D) sulphuric acid
13. Which fuel burns without flame?

(A) Charcoal (B) Wood
(C) Candle (D) Match stick
14. Which one of the following cannot be used to extinguish fire due to petrol?
(A) Sand (B) Water
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Foam
15. The following are the constituents of gun powder except

(A) carbon (B) sulphur
(C) magnesium (D) potassium nitrate
1. Who had seen plant cell wall in 1665?

(A) Robert Hooke (B) Alexander flamming
(C) Robert Brown (D) None of these
2. Which one is not an unicellular organism?
(A) Amoeba (B) Paramecium
(C) Euglena (D) Hydra
3. Visible cell by our naked eye is:
(A) Blood cell (B) Muscle cell
(C) Amoeba (D) Hen‟s egg
4. All organisms are made of:
(A) tissue (B) organ
(C) cell (D) organ system
5. Pseudopodia are found in:
(A) Amoeba (B) Euglena
6. Animal cell has:
(A) Cell wall (B) Plastids
(C) Large vacuole (D) Plasma membrane
7. Prokaryotic cell is:
(A) Chlamydomonas (B) Paramecium
(C) Euglena (D) Bacterium
8. A cell active in protein synthesis will be rich in:
(A) Golgi bodies (B) Mitochondria
(C) Ribosomes (D) Lysosomes
9. Centrosome is present in:
(A) Plant cell (B) Animal cell
10. Golgi apparatus is lacking in:
(A) Liver cells (B) Higher plants
(C) Blue green algae (D) Yeast
11. Longest cell in our body is nerve fibre. The smallest cell is:
(A) Human egg (B) Cell of kidney
(C) Cell of eye (D) Sperm
12. Which one takes part in acrosome synthesis?
(A) Mitochondria (B) Nucleus
(C) Golgi apparatus (D) Lysosomes
13. Nucleolus takes part in the synthesis of:
(A) DNA (B) RNA
(C) tRNA (D) r.RNA
14. Which of these is wrongly matched?
(A) Chloroplasts – chlorophyll (B) Elaioplasts – starch
(C) Chromoplasts – carotenoids (D) Amyloplasts – carbohydrates
15. Which of the following organelles are bounded by single membrane?
(A) Lysosomes, glyoxisomes, sphaerosomes, goly complex
(B) Lysosomes, peroxisomes, nucleus, ribosomes
(C) Ribosomes, mitochondria, peroxisomes, centrioles
(D) Golgi complex, chloroplast, lysosomes, microbodies
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – III
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

QP CODE:
ANSWERS
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A
5. C 6. C 7. A 8. D
9. C 10. A 11. D 12. D
13. D 14. B 15. B 16. B
17. D 18. B 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. A 23. B 24. A
25. C 26. B 27. A 28. B
29. D 30. A 31. B 32. C
33. C 34. D 35. C 36. C
37. D 38. B 39. D 40. B
41. B 42. B 43. B 44. D
45. A
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B
5. D 6. D 7. C 8. A
9. A 10. B 11. C 12. D
13. D 14. C 15. A
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. D
5. B 6. B 7. A 8. C
9. A 10. C 11. C 12. D
13. A 14. B 15. C
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. C
5. A 6. D 7. D 8. C
9. B 10. C 11. D 12. C
13. D 14. B 15. A
Answers & Solutions

1. D
 x  y  z  x2  y2  z2  2  xy  yz  zx 
2
Sol.
 36  28  2  xy  yz  zx   xy  yz  zx  4
2. C
2
4c 2  2c 
 a  b      a  b
2 2
Sol.
49  7 
 2c   2c 
  a  b  a  b
 7  7 
3. D
Sol. Let marked price = Rs. x
12
x x  880  x  1000
100
4. A
Sol. Let CP of 25 chairs = Rs. 150  CP of 1 chair = Rs. 6
SP of 30 chairs = Rs. 150  SP of 1 chair = Rs. 5
1 50
Loss %   100  %
6 3
5. C
Sol. Let cost price of Horse = Rs. x and cost price of carriage = Rs. 3000 – x
120 90 102
Now, according to the question x  3000  x    3000
100 100 100
 x  1200
6. C
Sol. Let total marks = x
20 40
 passing marks = x  30  x  10
100 100
x = 200
So, passing marks = 70
7. A
Sol. Let present age of A and B are 3x and 8x
3x  6 4
  x6
8x  6 9
So, present age of A = 18 years
8. D
3
 1 1  1
 x  x   x  x3  3  x  x 
3
Sol.
   
1
 125  x3  3  15
x
1
 x3  3  110
x
9. C
P  R  15
Sol. 3P   R  20%
100
10. A
Sol. Total CP = Rs. 240
SP = Rs. 300
60
Profit %   100  25%
240
11. D
3
Sol. part takes time = 1 minutes
5
2 5 2
Remaining part will take time   minutes
5 3 5
= 40 seconds
12. D
Sol. 410  410  410  410  4  410  22  220  222
13. D
1
33  3  33  39
3 2
Sol.
 
14. B
Sol. x2  y2  z2  2xy  2yz  2zx
  x  y  z   0
2
15. B
3y
 1
 0.08   0.2   0.2  y  1
3y 3
Sol. 5
 
So,  0.25   0.25
y
16. B
2
1 2  1  1
Sol. z2   2  2z    z    2  z  
z 2
z  z  z
 1 1 
  z    z   2
 z  z 
17. D
100
Sol. Amount paid by B to A  990   Rs.1100
90
100
Amount paid by A  1100   Rs.1000
110
18. B
n
Sol. 2n  1024  2 2  210  n  20
n 
2  4 
Now 3 4 
9
19. A
1 1 x3  y3
Sol.  
x3 y3  xy 
3
x  y  3xy  x  y 
3
a3  3ab
 
 xy 
3
b3
20. D
3
 81  4  25  5 
3/2 3
Sol.  16        2 
   9    
 2   3   2  
3 3 3
           1
 3   5   5  
21. A
a   b   c     
3 3 3
2
 b2 2
 c2 2
 a2 3 a2  b2 b2  c 2 c 2  a2
Sol. 
 a  b   b  c    c  a 
3 3 3
3  a  b b  c  c  a 
 3  a  b b  c c  a 
22. A
Sol. Let CP = Rs. 100
SP = Rs. 110
If SP is doubled then SP = Rs. 220
Profit % = 120%
23. B
Sol.  
x2  x  1 x2  x  1  x 4  x 2  1 
24. A
Sol. Let salary = Rs. 100
After 20% increase salary = Rs. 120
20 50
Required %   100  %
120 3
25. C
100
Sol. 11  7 % of x = 18  x  18   450
4
26. B
3x  4  6  3x 1 3  81  18 
x
Sol.  7
3x  2 3x  9
27. A
 256   256    256 
0.16 0.09 0.25
Sol. 4
28. B
Sol. 2x  3y  5
x y 5
Dividing both side by 6 we get  
3 2 6
29. D
 2 1  2 1  1
 x  x2   x  x2   x  x4
4
Sol.
  
30. A
Sol. a : b  4 : 9 and b : c  3 : 5
 a : b : c  4 : 9 :15
31. B
Sol. Let total votes polled = x
  84  16  % of x = 476
 68% of x = 476  x  700
32. C
x 4
Sol.  y   80  xy  6400
100 5
33. C
Sol. SP = Rs. 100, gain = Rs. 15  CP = Rs. 85
15 11
Gain %   100  17 %
85 17
34. D
1 2 3
Sol. Ratio of 3 parts  : :  6:8:9
2 3 4
6
So, first part   782  =Rs. 204
23
35. C
a b c
Sol. 5
ab1  5 bc 1  5 ca1  5   1
b c a
36. C
3
x  4 x3  8 x10 x1/3  x 3/4  x10/8
Sol.   x11/15
x3/5  x x8/5
37. D
x x 1 2x 3x  3 1
9  8  2 3 3 3
Sol.  4    27   3   2    2   
         2
 x  3  1  x  4
38. B
2
 1 1 1 17 3
 x  x   x  x2  2  x  x  4  2  2
2
Sol.
 
39. D
Sol. 9x2  y2  4z2  6xy  4yz  12xz
  3x  y  2z 
2
40. B
x2  4y2  9z2  4xy   x  2y   3z 
2 2
Sol.
  x  2y  3z  x  2y  3z 
41. B
Sol. x1/3  y1/3  x 1/3
 y1/3  x 2/3
 
 y2/3  x2/3  y2/3  x 2/3
 y2/3 
 x 4/3  y 4/3
42. B
Sol. Point of intersection of altitudes is called orthocentre.
43. B
B
Sol. From figure, A
B  120o 120
o
 CBD  ABD  60o

Also A  ABD  60o 5 cm
 AB  AD  BD  5cm
So, perimeter of rhombus = 20 cm
C
D
44. D
Q Z
Sol. From figure
2x  116
 x  58o
o
Now Reflex x
QYP  360o  58o  302o o

x
64
o
P Y x
45. A
2 2
 30   16 
Sol. Length of side        17 cm
 2   2 
1. D
Sol. Resistivity depends on nature of material.
2. D
2 4 2
Sol. Req  2
24
A B
2
3. C
V
Sol. I
R
4. B

Sol. R
A
5. D
Sol. In an electrolyte solution, current is maintained by the flow of negative and positive ions
both.
6. D
R
Sol. Rs = 2R ; RP =
2
V2
H t
R
7. C
Sol. The epicenter of an earthquake is on the surface of earth.
8. A
Sol. During electrorefining of metal the impure metal get joined with positive terminal of battery.
9. A
Sol. Potential difference across the resistors connected in parallel is same.
10. B
Sol. Plastic is an insulator.
11. C
V2
Sol. R  1000 
P
12. D
R
Sol. The resistance of new wire is Rnew =
5
Rnew R
When connected in parallel R =  .
5 25
R 25

R 1
13. D
1
Sol. H for constant V.
R
R is minimum in case (iii)
14. C
n I 1
Sol.  
s e 1.6  1019
15. A
x
Sol. Roriginal = x Rnew =
2
V2 Hnew 2
H t ;  .
R Horiginal 1

1. C
Sol. Paper is combustible but not a fuel.
2. D
Sol. Gun powder causes an explosion.
3. D
Sol. Charcoal has the highest ignition temperature.
4. D
Sol. Candle was is a hydrocarbon.
5. B
Sol. Global warming is the increase in temperature of atmosphere.
6. B
Sol. Butane and isobutane differ in their structure.
7. A
Sol. Combustion is an exothermic reaction.
8. C
Sol. Nitric oxide is formed during lightening.
9. A
Sol. Hydrogen has the highest calorific value.
10. C
Sol. Biogas is not a fossil fuel
11. C
Sol. Solid fuels have high ignition temperature as compared to liquid and gaseous fuels.
12. D
Sol. Sulphuric acid is the strong acid present in acid rain.
13. A
Sol. Charcoal burns without flame.
14. B
Sol. Water cannot be used to extinguish fire due to petrol.
15. C
Sol. Magnesium is not a constituent of gun powder.
1. A
Sol. Robert Hooke had seen plant cell wall in 1665.
2. D
Sol. Hydra is not an unicellular organism.
3. D
Sol. Visible cell by our naked eye is hen‟s egg.
4. C
Sol. All organisms are made of cell.
5. A
Sol. Pseudopodia are found in amoeba.
6. D
Sol. Animal cell has plasma membrane.
7. D
Sol. Prokaryotic cell is bacterium.
8. C
Sol. A cell active in protein synthesis will be rich in ribosomes.
9. B
Sol. Centrosome is present in animal cell.
10. C
Sol. Golgi apparatus is lacking in blue green algae.
11. D
Sol. Longest cell in our body is nerve fibre and the smallest cell is sperm.
12. C
Sol. Golgi apparatus takes part in acrosome synthesis.
13. D
Sol. Nucleolus takes part in the synthesis of r.RNA.
14. B
Sol. Elaioplasts – starch is wrongly matched.
15. A
Sol. Lysosomes, glyoxisomes, sphaerosomes and goly complex are bounded by single
membrane.
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – III
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

QP CODE:
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90

INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
pen.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
Name :
1. IF GOLD is coded as HOME, COME is coded as DONE and CORD is coded as DOSE,
how would you code SONS?
(A) TPOT (B) TOOT
(C) TOOS (D) TONT
2. If in a certain code language, „FRIEND‟ is written as „ETKDPF‟, then how „REVEAL‟ be

coded in that language?
(A) LAEVER (B) VERQLM
(C) QXGCDN (D) QGXDCN
3. In a certain code, „BELIEF‟ is written as „AFKKDH‟. How would „SELDOM‟ be written in that
code?
(A) RDKCHL (B) RFKENM
(C) RFKFNP (D) TFKENP
4. In a certain code, „INSTITUTION‟ is written as „NOITUTITSNI‟. How would

„PERFECTIONS‟ be written in that code language?
(A) SNOICTEREP (B) SNOITCEFERP
(C) SNOITCEFRPE (D) SNOITCEFREP
5. If in a certain code, „MIND‟ becomes „KGLB‟ and „ARGUE‟ becomes „YPESC‟, then what
will „DIAGRAM‟, be in that code?
(A) BGYEPYK (B) BGYPYEK
(C) GLPEYKB (D) LKBGYPK
6. In a certain code, „INACTIVE‟ is written as „VITCANIE‟. How would „COMPUTER‟ be written

in that same code?
(A) PMOCRETU (B) ETUPMOCR
(C) UTEPMOCR (D) MOCPETUR
7. In a certain code language, „COMPUTRONE‟ is written as „PMOCTUENOR‟. How is

„ADVANTAGES‟ written in that same code?
(A) IDUJLAIC (B) UJIDLAIC
(C) UJIDICLA (D) AVDATNSEGA
8. IF ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as

ZXCMP?
(A) BZEOR (B) AYDNQ
(C) AWDLQ (D) YYBNO
9. If in a certain language, SHIFT is coded as RFFBO, which word would be coded as

LKUMB?
(A) MMXQG (B) MLVNC
(C) KJVLA (D) MJVLC
10. If R is denoted by N, D is denoted by T, I by U, O by I, E by R, T by O, U by D, N by C and

C by E, then how will the word INTRODUCE be written?
(A) UCONIDTER (B) UCONITDER
(C) UCONTIDER (D) UCOINTDER
11. In a certain system JUNE is written as PQRS and AUGUST is written as WQFQMN. How
can GUEST be written in this same coding language?
(A) FQTMN (B) FPSMN
(C) FQSMN (D) FQSNM
12. If in a code language PARENT is written as BDFGJK and CHILDREN is written as

MOXQUFGJ, how is REPRINT written in that same code?
(A) FGBFXJK (B) FGBUXJK
(C) FGBFXGD (D) BGFXJK
13. If the word EARTH is written as QPMZS in coded form, how can HEART be written
following the same coding language?
(A) SQPZM (B) SQMPZ
(C) SPQZM (D) SQPMZ
14. In a code language APPLE is written as PQQRS, RIS is written as ABC and MANGO is
written as TPXYZ. How will ROSE be written in that same code language?
(A) ABCS (B) ACBS
(C) AZCS (D) QZRS
15. In a code language SAINT is written as ABCDE and PARIS is written as FBGCA. How will
PAIST be written in that same code language?
(A) FBCAE (B) FABCE
(C) FABEC (D) ABACE
16. In a certain code FIRE is written as QHOE and MOVE as ZMWE. Following the same rule
of coding, what should be the code for the word OVER?
(A) MWED (B) MWEO
(C) MWOE (D) MWZO
17. If RED is coded as 2076, then how would GREEN be coded?

(A) 16677199 (B) 1677209
(C) 16717209 (D) 9207716
18. In a certain code, RAIN is written 8$%6 and MORE is written as 7#8@. How would
REMAIN be written in that code?
(A) 8@7$86 (B) 8@$7%6
(C) 8@7$%6 (D) 8<@?7$%6
19. If B is coded as 8, F is coded as 6, Q is coded as 4, D is coded as 7, T is coded as 2, M is

coded as 3 and K is coded as 5, then what the coded form of QKTBFM?
(A) 425783 (B) 452863
(C) 452783 (D) 472683
20. A man is facing North-west. He turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then 135° in the
anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) East (B) West
(C) North (D) South
21. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 km. Again he turns
to East and walks 2km, after this he turns to North and walks 9km. Now, how far is he from
his starting point :
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 7 km
22. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of
R who is facing west. Then, Q is facing :
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) West
23. Ravi travelled 8 km straight towards South. He turned left and travelled 6 km straight. How
far is he from the starting point:
(A) 8 km (B) 10 km
(C) 12 km (D) 18 km
24. A man walks 30 m towards South. Then turning to his right he walks 30 m. Then turning to
his left he walks 20 m. Again turning to his left he walks 30 m. How far is he from his
starting position:
(A) 30 m (B) 50 m
(C) 80 m (D) None of these
25. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand points East, in what direction will the hour hand
point:
(A) South-East (B) North-East
(C) North (D) North-West
26. A man travels 2 m toward North, then he turns towards East and travels 6 m. Finally, he
travels 6 m in North direction. How far is he from his starting point:
(A) 11 m (B) 9 m
(C) 10 m (D) 3 m
27. A person starts towards South direction. Which of the following directions its right hand will
point.
(A) East (B) West
(C) North (D) South
28. Sunil was facing east. He turns 100o in the clockwise direction and then 145o in the
anticlock wise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) East (B) North
(C) South west (D) North east
29. Amit is twenty fifth from left and Sumit is nineteenth from right and is sixth to the left of
Amit.
How many students in a row?
(A) 40 (B) 36
(C) 35 (D) 38
Directions (Questions 30 – 34) : Read the following data and answer the questions.
Six persons – P, Q, R, S, T and U stand in a row. P is to the left of Q. R is to the right of S. T and U
have to persons standing between them and neither of these two persons is R or P.
30. What is the total possible number of possible arrangements?

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 5
31. Who among the following stand at the extreme ends of the row?
(A) T and U (B) T and R
(C) P and R (D) U and P
32. If P sits to the immediate left to T, then who sits to the immediate right of Q?
(A) S (B) U
(C) R (D) Either (A) or (B)
33. If P or R is permitted to sit between T and U, other conditions remaining the same, what is
the total number of possible arrangements?
(A) 36 (B) 48
(C) 18 (D) 24
34. Who among the following sits to the immediate left to R, if Q is sits to the immediate right of
T?
(A) S (B) U
(C) Q (D) T
Directions (Questions 35 – 39) : Read and following information carefully and answer the
questions given below it:
In a family, there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple, A, being the
male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the
daughter – in – law of F, whose husband has dies.
35. How is F related to A?

(A) Mother (B) Sister – in – law
(C) Sister (D) Mother – in – law
36. How is E related to C?

(A) Sister (B) Daughter
(C) Cousin (D) Aunt
37. Who is C to B?
(A) Brother (B) Brother – in – law
(C) Nephew (D) Son – in – law
38. How many male members are there in the family?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
39. How is F related to C?

(A) Mother – in – law (B) Sister – in – law
(C) Mother (D) Aunt
40. How many 7s are there in the following series which are preceded by 6 which is not
preceded by 8?
8 7 6 7 8 6 7 5 6 7 9 7 6 1 6 7 7 6 8 8 6 9 7 6 8 7
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 7 (D) 9
Directions (Questions 41 – 43): Study the following number sequence and answer the
questions given below it:
5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
41. How many odd numbers are there in the sequence each of which is immediately followed
by an odd number?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) more than 4
42. How many even numbers are there in the sequence which are immediately preceded by an
odd number but immediately followed by an even number?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
43. How many odd numbers are there in the sequence which are immediately preceded and
also immediately followed by an even number?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
Directions (Questions 44 – 45): Read the following information carefully to answer the
questions given below:
A person is asked to put in a basket one apple when ordered „One‟ , one guava when ordered
„Two‟ , one orange when ordered‟ Three‟ and is asked to take out from the basket one apple and
one guava both when ordered „Four‟
The order sequence executed by the person is as follows:
1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4
44. How many fruits will be there in basket at the end of the above order sequence?
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 13
45. How many guavas will be there in the basket at the end of the above order sequence?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
46. The first Republic Day of India was, celebrated on 26th January, 1950. It was:
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday (D) Friday
47. What will be the day of the week on 1st January, 2010?
(A) Friday (B) Saturday
(C) Thursday (D) Monday
48. The calendar for the year 2005 is the same as for the year:
(A) 2010 (B) 2011
(C) 2032 (D) 2013
49. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit‟s rank is seventeenth from the last,
what is Ravi‟s rank from the start?
(A) 14th (B) 15th
th
(C) 16 (D) 17th
50. The last day of a century cannot be:

(A) Monday (B) Wednesday
(C) Friday (D) Tuesday
51. Find the day of the week on 17th July, 1776.

(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday
(C) Monday (D) Thursday
52. The year next to 2000 having the same calendar as that or 2000:
(A) 2005 (B) 2011
(C) 2028 (D) 2021
Directions (Questions 53 – 55): In each of the following questions, a number series is given with
one of the terms missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and
replace the question mark (?) in the given series.
53. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?

(A) 42 (B) 51
(C) 81 (D) 91
54. 3, 10, ?, 30, 43

(A) 12 (B) 19
(C) 21 (D) 25
55. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?
(A) 35 (B) 38
(C) 39 (D) 40
56. 1.12.91 is the first Sunday. Which is the fourth Tuesday of December 91?
(A) 17.12.91 (B) 24.12.91
(C) 26.12.91 (D) 31.12.91
Directions (Questions 57 – 59): Which answer figure can be made, if we change the shown
figure into a cube or dice by folding it?
57.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
58. Red
Green
Green
Red
Green
Red
Green
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) Only III and IV (B) Only II and III
(C) All (D) None of these
59. J
K T
K J K K
J K J T
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60.
(i) (ii) (iii)

Find the number of dots on the face opposite the face bearing 3 dots?
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 1
61. +
* 2 3 4
=
(X)
The figure X given above is folded into a cube. Choose from the alternatives A, B, C, D the
cubes that are similar to the cube formed.
5 2 5 1
* + * + * +
3 4 1 4
3
x = x = x =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62. Which is the third number to the left of the number which is exactly in the middle of the
following sequence of numbers ?
123456789246897531987654321
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
63. Count each 7 which is not immediately preceded by 5 but is immediately followed by either
2 or 3. How many such 7‟s are there ?
57265738373257273482678
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
64. How many 6‟s are there in the following series of numbers which are preceded by 7 but not
immediately followed by 9 ?
6795697687678694677695763
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
65. Count each 1 in the following sequence of numbers that is immediately followed by 2, if 2 is
not immediately followed by 3. How many such 1‟s are there ?
12134512352126145112412321752125
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
Direction (Questions 66 – 68): These questions are based on the following arrangement of letters
MNRRMNSTNMRRMNQLNMRMNQPLNMRMNR
66. How many N‟s are there which are neither followed by M nor preceded by R?
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
67. How many M‟s are there in the series which are followed by Q or R?
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 2
68. Which of the following words will be the last word in the dictionary?
(A) UNEARTH (B) UNERRING
(C) UNEMPLOYED (D) UNEASY
69. How many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers which are
immediately followed by an odd number as well as immediately preceded by an even
number ?
86768932753422355228119
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Five (D) Four
Directions (Question 70 - 72): These questions are based on the following information.
A cube is painted in such a way that a pair of adjacent faces is painted in green, a pair of opposite
faces is painted in yellow and another pair of adjacent faces is painted in red. This cube is now cut
into 125 small but identical cubes.
70. How many small cubes have exactly two faces painted in green?
(A) 10 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 8
71. How many small cubes have at least two different colours on their faces?
(A) 30 (B) 38
(C) 36 (D) 42
72. How many of the small cubes have exactly one colour on them?
(A) 60 (B) 45
(C) 54 (D) 15
73. What should be the number opposite 4?

2 3 4
3 5 3
1 1 2
i. ii. iii.
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 2
Directions (Question 74 - 76): The grid given below in each problem, is folded to form a box.
Choose from amongst the alternatives (A) (B) (C) (D), the boxes that are similar to the box formed.
74.
2
5 1
6 3
3 1 2 3
1 5 4 4
6 3 6 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (A) and (C) only (B) (B), (C) and (D) only
(C) (B) and (D) only (D) (C) and (D) only
76.
F
A E
C D
F F E D
E D C A
B E B E
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (a) only (B) (b) only
(C) (a) and (c) only (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
77. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes at the second
place:
(A) music (B) mint
(C) mink (D) murder
78. If the total number of dots on opposite faces of a cubical block is always 7, find the figure
which is correct
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79.
2 3 4
3 5 3
1 1 2
(i) (ii) (iii)

What would be the number opposite 3?
(A) 1 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
80.
How many dots lie opposite 2 dots?

(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 6
81. Two positions of a dice are shown below. If 1 is at the bottom, which number will be on the
top?
(i) (ii)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
82. In a dice a, b, c and d are written on the adjacent faces, in a clockwise order and e and f at
the top and bottom. When c is at the top, what will be at the bottom?
d
a
(A) a (B) b
(C) c (D) e
83. Two position of a dice are shown. When 4 is at the bottom, what number will be on the top?
1 1
2 6
3 5
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 6
84. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that
language?
(A) CPNCBX (B) CPNCBZ
(C) CPOCBZ (D) None of these
85. In a certain code, ROAD is written is URDG. How is SWAN written in that code?
(A) VXDQ (B) VZDQ
(C) VZCP (D) UXDQ
86. In a certain code, BASIC is written as DDULE. How is LEADER written in that code?
(A) NGCFGT (B) NHCGGU
(C) OGDFHT (D) OHDGHU
87. If „rain‟ is „water‟, „water‟ is „road‟, „road‟ is „cloud‟, „cloud‟ is „sky‟, „sky‟ is „sea‟ and „sea‟ is
„path‟, where do aeroplanes fly?
(A) Road (B) Sea
(C) Cloud (D) Water
88. If „water‟ is called „food‟, „food‟ is called „tree‟ , „tree‟ is called „sky‟, „sky‟ is called „wall‟, on
which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water (B) Food
(C) Sky (D) Tree
89. If „light„ is called „morning‟, „morning‟ is called „dark‟, „dark‟ is called „night‟, „night‟ is called
„sunshine‟ and „sunshine‟ is called „dusk‟, when do we sleep?
(A) Night (B) Sunshine
(C) Dusk (D) Dark
90. If „paper‟ is called „wood‟, „wood‟ is called „straw‟, „straw‟ is called „grass‟, „grass‟ is called
„rubber‟ and „rubber‟ is called „cloth‟, what is the furniture made up of?
(A) Paper (B) Wood
(C) Straw (D) Grass
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE – III

QP CODE:
ANSWERS
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D
5. A 6. B 7. D 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. C 12. A
13. D 14. C 15. A 16. B
17. D 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. B
25. B 26. C 27. B 28. D
29. C 30. B 31. C 32. D
33. A 34. B 35. A 36. B
37. B 38. C 39. C 40. B
41. D 42. C 43. D 44. B
45. B 46. C 47. A 48. B
49. C 50. D 51. B 52. C
53. C 54. B 55. A 56. B
57. A 58. C 59. C 60. B
61. D 62. B 63. A 64. C
65. B 66. A 67. C 68. B
69. D 70. C 71. B 72. A
73. B 74. D 75. C 76. B
77. B 78. C 79. B 80. C
81. B 82. A 83. A 84. B
85. B 86. B 87. B 88. C
89. B 90. C
Answers & Solutions

1. B
Sol. Each consonant in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of
the code, while the vowels remain unchanged.
2. D
Sol. As,
1 1
F  E Similarly R  Q
2 2
R  T E  G
2 2
I  K V  X
1 1
E  D E  D
2 2
N  P A  C
2 2
D  F L  N
3. C
Sol. As,
1 1
B  A Similarly S  R
1 1
E  F E  F
1 1
L  K L  K
2 2
I  K D  F
1 1
E  D O  N
2 2
F  H M  O
4. D
Sol. As,
N S
I P
O N
N E
I Similarly O
S R
T F I
T
U T
I E
T T C C
U I T E
T I F
T
I O R
S
O N N E
N I S P
5. A
2 2
Sol. M  K And A  Y
2
I  G 2
R  P
2
N  L 2
G  E
2
D  B 2
U  S
2
E  C
6. B
Sol. I V Similarly C E
N O T
I
T U
A M
C P
C P
T U
A M
I T
N O
V I E C
E E R R
7. D
Sol. C P Similarly, A A
O M D V
M O V D
P +1 +1
C A A
U T N T
T U T N
R E A S
O N G E
N O E G
E R G
S A
8. B
Sol. Each letter of the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.
9. A
Sol. The first, second, third, fourth and fifth letters in the world are respectively one, two, three,
four and five steps ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.
10. B
Sol. R 
N Similarly I 
1
U
D 
T N 
1
C
I 
U 1
T  O
1
O 
I R  N
1
E 
R O  I
1
T 
O D  T
U 
D 1
U  D
N 
C 1
C  E
C 
E E 
1
R
11. C
Sol. J P A W
Similarly
U Q U Q
N R G F
E S U Q
S M
S
T N
Similarly G F
U Q
E S
S M
T
T N
12. A
Sol. P B C M
Similarly
A D H O
R F I X
E G L Q
N J D U
T K S
R F
E G
N J
Similarly R F
E G
P B
R F
T
I X
N J
T K
13. D
Sol. E 
Q Similarly H 
S
A 
P E 
Q
R 
M A 
P
T 
Z R 
M
H 
S T 
Z
14. C
Sol. A P R A
Similarly
P Q I B
P Q S C
L R
E S
Similarly R A
O Z
S C
E S
15. A
Sol. S A P F
Similarly
A B A B
I C R G
N D I C
T E S A
S
Similarly P F
A B
I C
S A
T
T E
16. B
Sol. F Q M Z
Similarly
I H O M
R O V W
E E E E
Similarly O M
V W
E E
R O
17. D
2 2
Sol. R  20 Similarly G  9
2
E  7 2
R  20
2
D  6 2
E  7
2
E  7
2
N  16
18. C
Sol. R 8 M 7
Similarly
A $ O #
I % R 8
N 6 E @
Similarly R 8
E @
M 7
A $
T
I %
N 6
19. B
Sol. B  8, F  6, Q  4, D  7, T  2, M  3 and K  5
Q  4
K  5
T  2
B  8
F  6
M  3
20. B
Sol. Now he is looking to west
21. C
Sol. x2 = 42 + 32
= 25
= 25
=5
22. A
Sol. So Q is facing toward North.
23. B
Sol. x2 = 82 + 62 = 100
= 100  10
24. B
Sol. AB = 30 + 20 = 50
25. B
Sol.
26. C
Sol. PQ = 62 + 82
= 100
= 10
27. B
Sol. At right of South is west direction.
28. D
Sol. The constant movement will be (145 – 100) = 45o in anticlock wise direction. This leads to
the middle of east and north i.e. North East.
North – east
145o
East
100o
(Clockwise)
29. C
Sol. 21 + 19 = 40 – 6 = 34
30. B
Sol. P T/U Q/S S/Q U/T R
So, there are four possible arrangements.
31. C
Sol. P and R stand at extreme ends.
32. D
Sol. P T Q/S S/Q U R
It can be either S or U.
33. A
Sol. There will be 36 possible arrangements.
34. B
Sol. P T Q S U R
, answer is U.
35. A
Sol. F
C A B
D E
F is the mother of A.
36. B
Sol. E is the daughter of C.
37. B
Sol. C is the Brother – in – law of B.
38. C
Sol. 3 male members are there (A, C, D)
39. C
Sol. F is the mother of C.
40. B
Sol. 8 7 6 7 8 6 7 5 6 7 9 7 6 1 6 7 7 6 8 8 6 9 7 6 8 7
Only „3‟ times it is happening. Hence option „B‟.
41. D
Sol. 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
It is happening 6 times. Hence option „D‟.
42. C
Sol. 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
As shown above only „3‟ time it is possible. Hence option „C‟.
43. D
Sol. 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
Four times it is possible. Hence option „D‟.
44. B
Sol. At the end of sequence the basket contains 2 apples, 2 guavas and 7 oranges. Hence
option „B‟.
45. B
Sol. 2 guavas will be there. Hence option „B‟.
46. C
Sol. 26th Jan., 1950 = (1949 years + Period from 1st Jan. 1950 to 26th Jan. 1950)
1600 years have 0 odd day, 300 years have 1 odd day.
49 years = (12 leap years + 37 ordinary years)
=[(12 × 2) + (37 × 1)] odd days = 61 odd days
= 5 odd days.
Number of days from 1st Jan. to 26th Jan. = 26
= 5 odd days
Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 5 + 5) = 11
= 4 odd days
The required days was “Thursday‟
47. A
Sol. 2000 years have 0 odd days.
Years 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Odd 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
days
= 11 odd days = 4 odd days.
1st January, 2010 has 1 odd day. Total number of odd days = (0 + 4 + 1) = 5 = 0
1st January, 2010 will be Friday.
48. B
Sol. Counting number of days from 2005 onwards to get 0 odd day.
Years 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
Odd 1 1 1 2 1 1 1
days
=7 or 0 odd day.
Calendar for the year 2005 is the same as that for the year 2011.
49. C
Sol. Sumit‟s rank will be 23 from first. Hence Ravi‟s rank is 16th from the start.
50. D
Sol. 100 years contain 5 odd days. So, last day of 1st century is „Friday‟.
200 years contain (5 × 2) = 10 odd days = 3 odd days.
So, last day of 2nd centaury is „Wednesday‟.
300 years contain (5 × 3) = 15 odd days = 1 odd days.
Last day of 3rd centaury is „Monday‟.
400 years contain 0 odd day.
Last day of 4th centaury is „Sunday‟
Since the order is continually keep in successive cycle, we see that the last day of centaury
cannot be Tuesday, Thursday or Saturday.
51. B
Sol. 17th July, 1776 mean (1775 years + 6 months + 17 days).
Now, 1600 years have 0 odd days
100 years have 5 odd days
75 years contain 18 leap years and 57 ordinary years and thereof, (36 + 57) or 93 or 2 odd
days.
1775 years given 0 + 5 + 2 = 7 and so 0 odd days.
Also number of days from 1st Jan. 1776 to 17th July,
1776.
Jan. Feb. March April May June July
31 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 17 = 199 days
= 28 weak + 3 days = 3 odd days
Total number of odd days = 0 + 3 = 3
Hence the day on 17th July, 1776 was Wednesday.
52. C
Sol. We go on counting the odd days from 2000 onwards till the sum is divisible by 7. The
number of such days are 28 upto the year 2028. So, the calendar for 2000 will be exactly
repeated in the years 2028.
53. C
Sol. 6 11 21 36 56 81
+5 +10 +15 +20 +25
54. B
Sol. 3 10 30 43
19
+7 +9 +11 +13
55. A
Sol. 120 99 80 63 48 35
-21 -19 -17 -15 -13
56. B
Sol. 1.12.91 is the first Sunday of December 91.
So, 3.12.91 is the first Tuesday of the month.
Clearly, 10.12.91, 17.12.91, 24.12.91 and 31.12.91 are also Tuesdays.
So, 24.12.91 is the fourth Tuesday.
57. A
Sol. By observation.
58. C
59. C
60. B
Sol. If we observe the figure (i) 2, 4 are on adjacent faces of 3. If we observe the figure (ii) 2, 4
are on adjacent faces to 6. Hence, the number of dots on the face opposite 3 is 6.
61. D
Sol. Here, clearly if we observe the options we can eliminate options (A), (B), (C), since they are
not formed from the given figure (X). Hence option D
62. B
Sol. There are 27 numbers in the given sequence.
So, middle number = 14th number = 9.
Clearly, the third number to the left of this 9 is 4.
63. A
Sol. 572657383 7 32572 7 3482678
64. C
Sol. 6795697 6 87 6 786946776957 6 3
65. B
Sol. 1 2234512352 1261451 1 2412351752 1 25
66. A
Sol. MNRRMNSTNMRRMNQLNMRMNQPLNMRMNR
67. C
Sol. MNRRMNSTNMRRMNQLNMRMNQPLNMRMNR
68. B
Sol. The correct order is:-
UNEARTH, UNEASY, UNEMPLOYED, UNERRING
69. D
Sol. 8 6 76 8 93275342 2 35522 8 119
70. C
Sol. As per observation.
71. B
72. A
73. B
74. D
75. C
76. B
77. B
Sol. Alphabetical order mink, mint, murder, music. Hence option „B‟.
78. C
79. B
80. C
81. B
82. A
83. A
84. (B)
Sol. Each letter in the word is moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the
code.
85. (B)
Sol. Each letter in the word is moved three steps forward to obtain the corresponding letter of
the code.
86. (B)
Sol. The letters at the odd-numbered positions in the word are each moved two steps forward
while those at the even-numbered positions are each moved three steps forward to obtain
the corresponding letters of the code.
87. (B)
Sol. The aeroplanes fly in the „sky‟ and the „sky‟ is called „sea‟. So, the aeroplanes fly in the
„sea‟.
88. (C)
Sol. A fruit grows on a „tree‟ and „tree‟ is called „sky‟. So a fruit grows on the sky.
89. (B)
Sol. We sleep in the „night‟. But „night‟ is called „sunshine‟. So, we sleep in the „sunshine‟.
90. (C)
Sol. The furniture is made up of „wood‟ and as given, „wood‟ is called „straw‟. So the furniture is
made up of straw.
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

NSEJS Paper Code
(PHASE – 4) SET-A
Time: 1.30 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Mathematics- Section-III and
Biology- IV) and each part consists of four sections.
B. Marking scheme:
1. For each question in Section I, II, & III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Physics
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. What is the ratio of radius of curvature to focal length of the spherical mirror?
(A) 1:α (B)1:1 (C) 1:2 (D) 2:1
2. What is the minimum distance between the object and it‟s real image for a concave mirror?
(A) zero (B) focal length
(C) radius of curvature (D) any distance from minimum to infinity
3. Find the number of images formed if the angle between mirrors   is   1200 (Object is placed
symmetrically)
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
4. Find ' '

(A) 37
0
(B) 30
0

0 0
(C) 45 (D) 90
5. Card board is the example for

(A) transparent material (B) translucent material
(C) opaque material (D) neither transparent nor opaque
6. An object placed at a distance of 12 cm from a concave mirror of radius of curvature 16 cm. Find
the position of the image.
(A) 28cm (B) 20cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
7. The focal length of a convex mirror is 20 cm. Find its radius of curvature.
(A) 40 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 25 cm
8. A man who is not able to see the distance objects has _________defeat
(A) long sightedness (B) Myopia
(C) colour blindness (D)None of the above
9. At what distance from a concave mirror should an object be placed so that the size of the image is
equal to the size of the object?
(A) At pole (B) at focus
(C) at radius of curvature (D) at infinity
10. A concave mirror is placed in water. Will there be any change in the focal length
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) no change (D) none of the above
11. How much is the near point of a normal eye

(A) 2.4 cm (B) 16 cm (C) infinity (D) 25 cm
12. What lens is present in human eye?

(A) concave lens (B) Retina
(C) convex lens (D) Divergent lens
13. The SI unit of specific resistance?

-1 -1 2
(A) Ω m (B) Ω m (C) Ω m (D)Ω m
14. What is the effective resistance when three resistances R 1, R2, R3 are connected in parallel?
1 1 1 1
(A) R = R1 + R2 + R3 (B)   
R R1 R2 R3
R1R2R3 1 1 1 1
(C)  (D) R   
R1  R2  R3 R R1 R2 R3
15. A wire of resistance 4 Ω is bent in to a circle. Find the resistance between the ends of a diameter of
the circle?
(A) 2Ω (B) 1 Ω (C) 8 Ω (D) 4 Ω
Chemistry
SECTION – A
1. SPM stands for

(A) suspended particulate matter (B) standard particles material
(C) suspended particles material (D) None of the above
2. What are the main sources of water pollution in India?

(A) Municipal sewage (B) Bathing
(C) Industrial discharge (D) Both (A) & (C)
3. Which of the following oxides will form the most acidic solution?
(A) SO2 (B) MgO (C) Na2O (D) Al2O3
4. Which of the following pollutants produced by Mathura oil refinery is responsible for yellowing of the
marble.
(A) CO (B) SPM
(C) CFC (D) Methane
5. Greenhouse effect is accelerated by

(A) Deforestation (B) Rapid Industrialization
(C) increased transportation activity (D) all of the above
6. Which is not a green house gas?

(A) CO2 (B) CH4
(C) SO2 (D) watervapour
7. The following pollutant is not contained in the vehicular exhaust emission

(A) Lead (B) Ammonia
(C) Carbonmonoxide (D) Particulate matter.
8. Which type of electricity generating power plants releases radioactive materials as well as toxic
metals such as lead and arsenic under normal operating conditions?
(A) Nuclear (B) Hydroelectric
(C) Solar (D) Coal – burning
9. Which of the following is not present in acid rain?

(A) HCl (B) HNO3
(C) H2SO4 (D) Both (A) & (C)
10. Exposure to high concentrations of which of the following substances can cause kidney and brain
damage?
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Asbestos
(C) Lead (D) Acid rain
11. Which of the following gases is partly responsible for climate change?
(A) Carbondioxide (B) Ozone
(C) Sulhur dioxide (D) Nitrogendioxide
12. The ganga at Kanpur is the most polluted zone. This due to the industries which produce.
(A) Fertilizers (B) Detergents
(C) Leather (D) All of the above
13. Which of the following is a point source of water pollution?

(A) Urban lands (B) Crop lands
(C) Off shore oil wells (D) Gases presents in the atmosphere
14. Which is a hazardous heavy metal pollutant?

(A) lead (B) Arsenic (C) Mercury (D) all of the above
15. Haze in the atmosphere accompanied by high level of

(A) Oxides of Nitrogen (B) Oxides of sulphur
(C) Oxides of Carbon (D) All of the above
Mathematics
SECTION – A
1. A polyhedron has a minimum of

(A) 3 faces (B) 4 faces (C) 5 faces (D) 6 faces
2. What is the shape of the side view of the given solid?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. If a solid has 10 faces and 20 edges, find the number of vertices in the solid.
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 28 (D) 30
3
4. The side of a cube whose volume is 343 m is __________ m
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
2
5. The height of a trapezium whose area is 100 cm and the sum of the lengths of parallel sides is 50
cm is ________ cm
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 9
2
6. The side of a cube whose lateral surface area is 16 cm is ________ cm
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
3
7. Three cubes each of volume 216 cm are joined side by side. The obtained shape is a cuboid.
Find the volume of the cuboid.
(A) 5,832 cm 3 (B) 432 cm 3 (C) 648 cm 3 (D) 84 cm 3
3
8. Three cubes each of volume 216 cm are joined side by side. The obtained shape is a cuboid.
Find the total surface area of the cuboid
(A) 648 cm 2 (B) 432 cm 2
2
(C) 1,944 cm (D) 504 cm 2
9. If the cost of 2 kg potatoes is Rs. 20, half kg potatoes will cost ______ rupees.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
10. Nine men can paint a wall in 5 days. _________ men will paint the same wall in 15 days.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 9
11. If the length of 100 cm is equivalent to 1 m, the length 800 cm will be equivalent to ______m.
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16
12. Farhan is going to his friend‟s house on a bicycle. His friend‟s house is 3.75 km away from his
house. He is riding his bicycle at a uniform speed of 9 km/hr.
Find the distance covered by Farhan in 10 min
(A) 1 km (B) 1.5 km (C) 3 km (D) 4.5 km
13. In Q.no.12, What will be the total time taken by Farhan to reach his friend‟s house?
(A) 15 min (B) 20 min (C) 25 min (D) 35 min
14. N is the smallest odd number that leaves a remainder 2 when divided by 5. Then, the number N will
leave a remainder________when divided by 3.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
15. If 47 + AA = 80, then A = _________.

(A)2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Biology
SECTION – A
1. LNg20 is used as a :
(A) surgical method of contraception
(B) Intrauterine contraceptive device
(C) Tool in Artificial Reproductive technology
(D) None
2. ZIFT is a method in which :

(A) Fertilized egg is placed in the Fallopian tube
(B) Fertilized egg is placed in the Uterus
(C) Ovum is placed in the Fallopian tube
(D) Ovaries are removed by Surgery
3. The process of Artificial insemination involves the :

(A) Transfer of sperms of a donor directly into the reproductive tract of females.
(B) Transfer of sperms of a donor into the Ovary
(C) Transfer of sperms of donor into the test tube containing the ova
(D) Transfer of fertilized zygote into the uterus
4. The process of development of the egg into an embryo without Fertilization is referred to as:
(A) Angiogenesis
(B) Embryogenesis
(C) Parthenogenesis
(D) Oogenesis
5. Medical termination of pregnancy can be considered to be safe if it‟s done:

(A) upto 24 weeks of Pregnancy (B) upto 6 weeks of Pregnancy
(C) upto 12 weeks of Pregnancy (D) upto 20 weeks of Pregnancy
6. Sperms are viable for upto :

(A) 14 days (B) 24 – 48 hours (C) 1 week (D) 1 month
7. During Menstruation, the Menstrual flow is triggered by the :

(A) lack of progesterone (B) lack of oxytocin
(C) lack of vasopressin (D) lack of glucagon
8. Menstruation cycles in females can be affected by :

(A) High concentration of Insulin (B) fertilization of the ovum
(C) High concentration of glucagon (D) High concentration of vasopressin
9. Somatotropin is secreted by the :

(A) Adenohypophysis
(B) Neurohypophysis
(C) Thyroid gland
(D) Adrenal cortex
10. Match the following accordingly :

COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
A Mala – D 1 Semen with no sperms
B Vasectomy 2 Stops the process of fertilization
C Copper – T 3 Prevents sperm reaching the cervix
D Condom 4 Prevents Ovulation

(A) A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 3 (B) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
(C) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2 (D)A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
11. A fire breaks out in the fourth floor of a building, the inhabitants of the floor run as fast as they could
with fear immediately. This action is initiated by:
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon
(C) Thyroxine (D) Adrenaline
12. In females, the Menstrual cycle can be put off by administering:

(A) combination of Oestrogen & Progesterone
(B) Follicular stimulating Hormore (FSH)
(C) Insulin
(D) combination of Luteinizing Hormone & Follicular stimulating Hormore (FSH)
13. Contraceptive pills that prevent pregnancy contain :

(A) Follicular stimulating Hormone (B) Luteinizing Hormone
(C)Progesterone (D) all of the above
14. In females, after ovulation the part of the ovary which acts as an endocrine gland is the:
(A) Stroma (B) Germinal Epithelium
(C) corpus luteum (D) Both (A) & (B)
15. The figure given below depicts:

(A) Tubectomy
(B) Vasectomy
(C) Intrauterine Device
(D) Ovarian cancer
ANSWER KEY
PHYSICS
1.D 2.A 3.D 4.D 5.C
6.D 7.A 8.B 9.C 10.C
11.D 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.B
CHEMISTRY
1.A 2.D 3.A 4.B 5.D
6.C 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.C
11.A 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.D
MATHEMATICS
1.B 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.A
6.C 7.C 8.D 9.D 10.A
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.B
BIOLOGY
1.B 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.C
6.B 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.B
11.D 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.A
CONCEPT CODE
PHYSICS
1.P080710 2. P080710 3. P080704 4. P080701 5. P080701
6. P080710 7.P080709 8. P080605 9. P080710 10. P080710
11. P080706 12. P080604 13. P080612 14. P080614 15. P080614
CHEMISTRY
1. C080501 2. C080504 3. C080502 4. C080501 5. C080503
6. C080503 7. C080501 8. C080504 9. C080504 10. C080501
11. C080501 12. C080504 13. C080505 14. C080505 15. C080501
MATHEMATICS
1.M082401 2.M082401 3.M082401 4.M082403 5.M081606
6.M082403 7.M082402 8.M082402 9.M083401 10.M082702
11.M081605 12.M082801 13.M082801 14.M082103 15.M082104
SOLUTION
PHYSICS
1. Concept based question, R=2f
2. Concept based question, object at R image is also at R
3. 360/120 =N here N is even = 3 – 1 = 2
4. Concept based question from geometry
5. Concept based question
6. use this formula f is focal length u is object distance v is imaged distance
7. R=2f
9. From ray diagram
10. no change in radius hence focal length
11. near point of human eye is 25cm
13. units of sp. Resistance
14. effective resistance in parallel
15. effective resistance in parallel
MATHEMATICS
1. (B) 4 faces
2.
3. (B) 12
4. (C) 7
5. (B) 3
6. (B) 1
7. 648 cm3
8. 504 cm2
20 1
9. If the cost of 2 kg potatoes is Rs. 20, half kg potatoes will cost   5 rupees. Hence, the
2 2
correct answer is 5.
95
10. 9 men can paint a wall in 5 days.  3 men will paint the same wall in 15 days. Hence, the
15
11. If the length of 100 cm is equivalent to 1m, the length 800 cm will be equivalent to 8 m. Hence, the
12. 1.5 km
13. Uniform speed = 9 km / hr

1 hr = 9 km
60 min = 9 km
9
1 min = km
60
1 min = 0.15 km
? = 3.75 km
3.75
x
0.15
= 25 min
Farhan will take exactly 25 mins to reach his friends house
14. (C) An odd number N leaves a remainder 2 when divided by 5. Then, the number N will leave a
remainder 1 when divided by 3. Hence, the answer is 1.
15. (C) If 47  33  80, then A  3 Hence, the answer is 3.
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST – 4
QP CODE:
Time : 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks :
90
Instructions
Mathematics
SECTION – A
1. What will be the side view of the given solid?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. How many edges and vertices are there in a hexagonal pyramid?

(A) 12 edges and 12 vertices (B) 12 edges and 7 vertices
(C) 12 edges and 6 vertices (D) 6 edges and 6 vertices
3. If a solid has 12 faces and 20 vertices, find the number of edges in the solid.
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 32
4. Which of the following solid is not a polyhedron?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. What will be the top view of the given dice?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. Jay claims that a square prism can be considered as a cube. Is Jay correct? Why or why not?
(A) Yes. This is because, each face of a cube is a square and the base of a square prism is also a
square.
(B) No. This is because, the height of the square prism can be different from the length of the edge
of its base.
(C) Yes. This is because, the base and tope a prism are congruent faces.
(D) No. This is because, the lateral faces of a prism are triangular in shape while all faces of a cube
are square.
7. Find the area of a rhombus whose diagonals are of lengths 20 cm and 25 cm

(A) 500 sq.cm. (B) 1000 sq.cm. (C) 250 sq.cm. (D) 125 sq.cm.
8. If a cubical tank can hold 125 litres of water, find the length of a side of the cubical tank in cm.
(A) 50 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 500 cm (D) 25 cm
9. Find the volume of a cylinder whose radius and height are 3 ft and 14 ft respectively.
3 3 3 3
(A) 264 ft (B) 198 ft (C) 396 ft (D) 792 ft
10. Find the volume of a cylinder whose radius and height are 5 cm and 28 cm respectively. (Consider
the value of   3.143 )
3 3 3 3
(A) 2,200 cm (B) 4,400 cm (C) 440 cm (D) 1,100 cm
11. Find the total surface area of a cuboid whose length, breadth and height are 3 m, 4 m and 6 m
respectively.
(A) 54 m 2 (B) 216 m 2 (C) 26 m 2 (D) 108 m 2
12. Find the radius of a cylinder whose volume is 1,540 cm 3 and height is 10 cm.
(A) 14 cm (B) 7 cm (C) 3.5 cm (D) 21 cm
 5x 
13. The length of a rectangle is   1  units and its breadth is  x  1 units. Find its perimeter.
 4 
9x 9x
(A) units (B) units (C) 9x units (D) 18x units
4 2
14. Find the height of a cuboid whose volume is 4,000 cm 3 and base area is 400 cm 2
(A) 5 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 10 cm
15. The volumes of two cubes are in ratio 125:64. Find the ratio of the sides of the first cube to that of
the other cube.
(A)5 : 4 (B) 4 : 5 (C) 16 : 25 (D) 25 : 16
16. A machine manufactures 100 bulbs in 5 min. How many bulbs will it manufacture in 20 min?
(A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 400 (D) 250
17. If a car travels at a constant speed of 30 km/hr, find the distance covered in 20 min?
(A) 10 km (B) 20 km (C) 25 km (D) 30 km
18. If 6 workers can paint a home in 24 hr, how many workers will be required to do the same work in 18
hr?
(A) 4 (B) 72 (C) 3 (D) 8
19. Two quantities x and y are in direct proportion. Which of the following always remains constant?
x
(A) x  y (B) x  y (C) x  y (D)
y
20. In which of the following case do the quantities vary inversely with each other?
x | 5 10 15 25 x | 15 19 23 27 x | 5 10 15 25
(A) (B) (C) (D)
y | 1 4 6 10 y | 2 6 10 14 y | 60 30 20 15
x | 5 10 15 25
y | 100 90 80 70
21. Rahul made a map to show the distance between his house and school. The scale of the map is 1 :
5000. Two stationary shops that lie between his house and school are 8 cm apart on the map.
What will be the actual distance between them?
(A) 400 m (B) 800 m (C) 1,000 m (D) 5,000 m
22. A bunch of juice cans are packed in 40 cartons such that each carton has 60 cans. What is the
number of cartons required to pack the same number of cans so that each carton has 50 cans?
(A) 30 (B) 48 (C) 70 (D) 75
23. A hostel mess has enough food to feed its 300 students for the next 50 days, 50 students have left
the hostel. How long would the food of the hostel mess last now?
(A) 60 days (B) 150 days (C) 200 days (D) 300 days
24. Suraj claims that the length of the side of a square and its area vary directly. Is suraj correct? Why
or why not?
(A) Yes. This is because, the area of a square increases with the increase in the length of its side.
(B) No. This is because, there is no relation between the side length of a square and its area.
(C) Yes. This is because, when two quantities increase and decrease simultaneously, they vary
directly with each other.
(D) No. This is because, the ratio of the area of a square and its side length is not constant.
25. A worker in a garment factory packs 60 dresses in 2 hr. How many dresses he will pack in 6 hr?
(A) 20 (B) 90 (C) 150 (D) 180
26. Shyam takes 20 min to reach his school by riding his bicycle at a speed of 12 km/hr. If he increases
his speed to 16 km/hr, find the time taken by him to reach his school.
(A) 15 min (B) 20 min (C) 24 min (D) 26 min 40 sec
27. Two quantities x and y vary directly with each other such that when x = 500, y = 30. Find the value
of x when x = 500, y = 30. Find the value of x when y = 75.
(A) 4.5 (B) 200 (C) 625 (D) 1,250
28. Kamal earned Rs. 600 as interest from his bank by depositing Rs. 5,000 for 5 years. How much
interest will he earn by depositing Rs. 9,500 for 5 years if the rate of interest remains the same?
(A) Rs. 315.79 (B) Rs. 1,140 (C) Rs. 1,050 (D) Rs. 1,200
29. Following table shows the corresponding values of two quantities m and n:
m | 40 20 80
n | 50 100 25
Find the value of m corresponding to n = 250
(A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 10 (D) 8
30. Samar claims that the length of a rectangle and its perimeter vary directly, if the breadth remains
constant. Is Samar correct? Why or why not?
(A) Yes. This is because, the perimeter of the rectangle increases with increase in its length.
(B) No. This is because, the ratio of length and perimeter for constant breadth will not always be the
same.
(C) Yes. This is because, when two quantities increase and decrease simultaneously, they vary
directly with each other.
(D) No. This is because, the perimeter of a rectangle varies with its breadth.
31. The difference of a 2 – digit number and the number obtained by reversing its digits will be divisible
by
(A) 99 (B) 11 (C) 9 (D) 0
32. If A3  AB  19B, find the value of the digits A and B.

(A) A = 1 and B = 5 (B) A = 1 and B = 3 (C) A = 2 and B = 5 (D) A = 1 and B =
0
33. If the 3 – digit number 72x is divisible by 9, what is the smallest value of x?
(A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 3 (D) 0
34. The difference of a 3 – digit number and the number obtained by reversing its digits will be divisible
by
(A) 37 (B) 99 (C) 111 (D) 999
35. Find the value of the digit m such that the number 42m726 is divisible by 9.
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 9
36. If 2AB and BA2 are 3 – digits number such that 2AB + BA2 = 888, then find the value of A + B.
(A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
37. N is natural number such that N  5 leaves a remainder 4 and N  2 leaves a remainder 1. Then,
N  10 will leave a remainder
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 9
38. If 3A, A and B1A are three numbers such that 3A  A  B1A, then find the values of the digits A and
B.
(A) A = 6, B = 2 (B) A = 5, B = 1 (C) A = 5, B = 2 (D) A = 1, B = 2
39. Harish claims that a 5 – digit number abcde will be divisible by 4, if the number formed by ten‟s digit
and one‟s digit de is divisible by 4. Is Harish correct? Why or why not?
(A) Yes, This is because, 5 – digit number is divisible by 2, if its one‟s digit is divisible by 2. The
same rule applies for divisible by 4.
(B) No. This is because, there is no divisibility rule for 4
(C) Yes. This is because, if the last 2 – digits of a number are divisible by 4, then the entire number
is divisible by 4.
(D) No. This is because, a 5 – digit number will be divisible by 4 if the sum of its digits a + b + c + d +
e will be divisible by 4.
40. The difference of a 3 – digit number and the number obtained by reversing its digits will not be
divisible by
(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 33 (D) 66
41. Find the value of a – b such that the number 4a23b is divisible by 11.
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 9
42. If B3A, 2BA and 68B are three 3 – digit numbers such that B3A + 2BA = 68B, then what will be the
values of the digits A and B?
(A) A = 4, B = 8 (B) A = 2, B = 4 (C) A = 7, B = 4 (D) A = 9, B = 8
43. If three numbers 4A, A, 27A are such that 4A  A  27A then, the value of the digit A is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 5 (D) 6
44. The sum of all digits of a 4 – digit number is 15 and the one‟s digit of the number is an even number.
The 4 – digit number will be divisible by
(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 18
45. Priya claims that the number 99,999 is divisible by 99. Is Priya correct? Why or why not?
(A) Yes. This is because, all digits of the number 99,999 are 9.
(B) No. Ths is because, the number is 99,999 is divisible by 9, but it is not divisible by 11.
Therefore, it will not be divisible by 9  11  99 .
(C) Yes. This is because, the number 99,999 is divisibly by 9. Therefore, it will be divisible by all
multiples of 9.
(D) No. This is because, the sum of digits 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 = 45 is not divisible by 99.
Physics
SECTION – A
1. A student‟s height is 1.75 m. The size of his image when he sees in a plane mirror is
(A) 3.5m (B) 0.875m (C) 1.75m (D) very large
2. If I want see a bigger image of „I love my school‟, which mirror should I use?
(A) Concave (B) convex (C) plane (D) convex or
plane
3. A candle is placed at a distance of 2 cm. If the mirror is moved by 4 cm away from the candle.
What is the image distance from object?
(A) 2cm (B) 12cm (C) 6cm (D) 4cm
4. As shown in figure, find the value of „α‟?

0 0
(A) 45 (B) 90
0 0
(C) 30 (D) 60
600
 
Find the number of images formed when angle between the mirror   is 60
0
5.
(A) 6 (B) 60 (C) 3 (D) 5
6. What is the mirror used by a man of height 1.5 m observes his image to be 0.8 m and erect?
(A) any mirror (B) convex (C) concave (D) plane
7. Calculate the minimum length of a mirror in which a man can see his full height (h)?
(A) h (B) h/3 (C) h/2 (D) 25cm
8. Find the number of images formed if the angle between mirrors   is   720 (Object is placed
asymmetrically)
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) infinity (D) 5
9. What is the deviation produced by a plane mirror if a ray of light is incident at angle 300 ?
0 0 0 0
(A) 30 (B) 120 (C) 90 (D) 60
10. Find the value of θ from the given figure.

0 0 0 0
(A) 52 (B) 30 (C) 60 (D) 45
11. Sunlight is incident on a concave mirror parallel to its principal axis. The image is formed at a
distance of 12 cm from the pole. Find the radius of curvature of the mirror.
(A) 60cm (B) 6cm (C) 24cm (D) 12cm
0
12. If mirror rotates at an angle 12 then the reflected ray rotates by
0 0 0
(A) No rotation (B) angle 6 (C) angle12 (D) angle 24
13. If the current passing through a conductor is 5 ampere. Then find the charge that passes through
that conductor in 5 minute
(A) 10 C (B) 250 C (C) 1500C (D) 25 C
14. If the electron in a Hydrogen atom makes 6.25 x 1015 revolutions in one second then find the
current?
(A) 1 mA (B) 0.01A (C) 6.25A (D) 6.25mA
15. An electric bulb works on 230 V line and draws 0.1 A current. Find the resistance of the filament
(A) 26 ohms (B) 23 ohms (C) 2300 ohms (D) 2.3 ohms
Chemistry
SECTION – A
1. What minerals are highly responsible for eutrophication of water bodies?

(A) Phosphorous and carbon (B) Nitrogen and Phophorus
(C) Potassium and arsenic (D) Iron and Manganese
2. Of the following indications of the health of water body, which is the most widely accepted means of
measuring how polluting an effluent is?
(A) Chemical oxygen demand (B) Carbondioxide demand
(C) chloroform oxygen demand (D) None of the above
3. Which sector is the single largest consumer of fresh water in India?

(A) Industry (B) Power (C) Domestic (D) Agriculture
4. Materials of biological origin which are commonly used to maintain and improve soil fertility are
(A) green manure (B) biofertilizers (C) Bioinsecticides (D) Both (A) & (B)
5. Taj Mahal is said to be suffering from Marble cancer. What is Marble cancer?
(A) Acidic Rain which corrodes marble
(B) Large number of fungus in Taj Mahal marbles
(C) yellowing of the marble on account of soot particles
(D)smokes filling the Taj Mahal from adjoining industries.
6. Which gas is responsible for depletion of ozone layer around earth which protects us from harmful
uv rays?
(A) chlorofluro carbons (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen oxide
7. The disease cholera, Typhoid and Jaundice are due to pollution of

(A) air (B) water (C) food items (D) none of the
above
8. Technological controls for particulates in industry include

(A) Scrubbers (B) precipitators (C) filters (D) all of the above
9. The major contributor of carbon monoxide is

(A) motor vehicle (B) Industrial processes
(C) Stationary Fuel Combustion (D) None of the above
10. Bhopal gas tragedy stuck in the year 1984 due to the leakage of the following gas
(A) Methyl isocyanate (B) Nitrous oxide (C) Methane (D) Carbon
Monoxide
11. The pH range of acid rain is often

(A) 3 to 6 (B) 6 to 8 (C) 7 to 9 (D) 10 to 12
12. Domestic sewage and dead bodies thrown into water consume
(A) Ozone (B) Carbondioxide (C) water (D) Dissolved
oxygen
13. Carboxyhaemoglobin is formed due to the combination of

(A) Carbondioxide and blood (B) Carbomonoxide and blood
(C) Carbon dioxide and iron (D) Oxygen and iron
14. Why is tetra – ethyl lead added to petrol?

(A) It prevents engine knocking (B) Reduces Vehicular emission
(C) Increases life of motor tyres (D) None of the above
15. Health problems related to air pollution is

(A) coughing (B) Asthma (C) Bronchits (D) All of the
above
Biology
SECTION – A
1. Which hormone helps in maintaining pregnancy?

(A) Oestrogen (B) Androgen (C) Progesterone (D) None of these
2. The attachment of the embryo to the uterus is referred to as:

(A) Differentiation (B) Implantation (C) Ovulation (D) Termination
3. External fertilization can be observed in:

(A) Fish (B) Snake (C) Dog (D) Man
4. Ovoviviparity is exhibited by:

(A) Shark (B) Kangaroo (C) Rat (D) Man
5. Test tube baby is formed due to :

(A) Artificial Insemination (B) Invitro fertilization
(C) fertilization in a test tube (D) Both (B) and (C)
6. The first menstrual cycle in females is referred to as

(A) Ovulation (B) Menarche (C) Menopause (D) None of the
above
7. Which hormone stimulates the uterus during child birth?

(A) Gonadotropin (B) Oxytocin (C) Vasopressin (D) Progesterone
8. Corpus luteum produces:

(A) Relaxin (B) Oxytocin (C) Oestrogen (D) Progesterone
9. The process of ovulation takes place within ______ days of the Menstrual cycle:
th
(A) 28 day (B) 10 – 14 days (C) 1 – 5 days (D) 20 – 28 days
10. Ovulation is brought forth by:

(A) Oestrogen (B) Androgen (C) Prolactin (D) Lactoferrin
11. Which of the following can be considered to be a hermaphrodite?

(A) cockroach (B) leech (C) frog (D) round worm
12. Which of the following reproduces by budding?

(A) Yeast (B) Prions (C) Virus (D) None of these
13. The process by which cells acquire variation in morphology and function in different tissues of the
embryo is referred to as:
(A) differentiation (B) metamorphosis (C) metabolism (D)
dedifferentiation
14. The maturation of sperms occur in the :

(A) testes (B) epididymis (C) scrotal sac (D) penis
15. The sex of the baby is decided by the ______________

(A) sperm (B) ovum (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of the
above
ANSWER KEY
MATHEMATICS
1.D 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.B
6.B 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.A
11.D 12.B 13.B 14.D 15.A
16.A 17.B 18.B 19.A 20.D
21.B 22.C 23.A 24.D 25.D
26.C 27.A 28.B 29.A 30.D
31.D 32.A 33.D 34.B 35.D
36.B 37.C 38.A 39.D 40.D
41.A 42.C 43.D 44.A 45.B
PHYSICS
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.D
6.B 7.C 8.D 9.B 10.C
11.C 12.D 13.C 14.A 15.C
CHEMISTRY
1.B 2.A 3.D 4.D 5.A
6.A 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.A
11.A 12.D 13.B 14.A 15.D
BIOLOGY
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.D
6.B 7.B 8.D 9.B 10.A
11.B 12.A 13.A 14.B 15.A
CONCEPT CODE
MATHEMATICS
1.M082401 2. M082404 3. M082401 4. M082401 5. M082403
6. M082405 7. M081605 8. M082403 9. M081801 10. M081802
11. M082402 12. M081903 13. M081603 14. M082402 15. M082403
16. M082701 17. M082801 18. M082702 19. M083401 20. M083403
21. M083403 22. M083402 23. M083403 24. M083402 25. M082701
26. M082801 27. M083902 28. M083403 29. M083403 30. M083403
31. M082103 32. M082104 33. M082103 34. M082103 35. M082103
36. M082104 37. M082104 38. M082104 39. M082103 40. M082103
41. M082104 42. M082104 43. M082104 44. M082102 45. M082101
PHYSICS
1.P080704 2. P080704 3. P080704 4. P080701 5. P080704
6. P080709 7. P080704 8. P080704 9. P080701 10. P080701
11. P080710 12. P080701 13. P080610 14. P080605 15. P080612
CHEMISTRY
1.C080505 2. C080504 3. C080504 4. C080504 5. C080502
6. C080501 7. C080505 8. C080506 9. C080501 10. C080501
11. C080502 12. C080506 13. C080501 14. C080501 15. C080506
SOLUTION
MATHEMATICS
1.
2. (B) 12 edges and 7 vertices
3. (C) 30
4.
5.
6. (B) No. This is because, the height of the square prism can be different from the length of the edge
of its base.
7. Given that the lengths of diagonals are 20 cm and 25 cm.

1
Area of a rhombus =  d1  d2
2
1
  20  25
2
 250 sq.cm
Hence, the area of the rhombus is 250 sq.cm.
Therefore, the option (c) is correct.
8. Given that the cubical tank can hold 125 litres of water.
125 litres of water.
3
1 litre = 1000 cm
3
125 litres = 125000 cm
Volume of a cube = side  side  side
125000   side 
3
3
125000  side
3
50  50  50  side
50 cm  side
Hence, the length of aside of the cubical tank is 50 cm.
Therefore, the option (a) is correct.
9. Given that the radius and height of the cylinder are 3 ft and 14 ft.
Volume of a cylinder =  r 2  h
22
  3  3  14
7
 22  9  2
 396 ft 3
3
Hence the volume of the cylinder is 396 ft . Therefore, the option (C) is correct.
3
10. (A) 2,200 cm
2
11. (D) 108 m
12. (B) 7 cm
9x
13. (B)
2
14. (D) 10 cm
15. (A) 5 : 4
16. Let the number of bulbs manufactured in 20 min be x.

The number of bulbs and the time taken to manufacture these bulbs are in direct proportion.
Therefore,
x 100

20 5
100  20
x
5
x  400
Hence, the number of bulbs manufacture in 20 min is 400.
Therefore, the option (C) is correct
17. Let the distance covered by the car in 20 min be x.

The distance covered by the car and the time taken by it are in direct proportion.
x 30

20 60
30  20
x
60
x  10
Hence, the distance covered by the car in 20 min is 10 km.
Therefore, the option (A) is correct.
18. Let the number of workers employed to paint the home in 18 hr be x.

More the number of workers, faster they will pain the house. The number of hours and the number
of workers will vary in inverse proportion.
Therefore,
18  x  24  6
24  6
x
18
x8
Hence, the number of workers employed to paint the house in 18 hr is 8.
Therefore, the option (D) is correct.
x
19. (D)
y
x | 5 10 15 25
20. (C)
y | 60 30 20 15
21. (A) 400 m
22. (B) 48
23. (A) 60 days
24. (D) No. This is because, the ratio of the area of a square and its side length is not constant.
25. (D) 180
26. (A) 15 min
27. (D) 1,250
28. (B) Rs. 1,140
29. (D) 8
30. (D) No. This is because, the perimeter of a rectangle varies with its breadth.
31. Let the 2 – digit number be xy = 10x + y.

After reversing the order of the digits, the number obtained is yx = 10y + x.
On subtraction,
xy  yx   10x  y    10y  x 
 9x  9y
 9x  y
The resulting number 9  x  y  is divisible by 9.
Therefore, the option (C) is correct.
32. The one‟s digit of 3  B is B. Hence either B = 0 or B = 5. Now look at A. If A = 1, then BA  B3 is

either 13  10 or 13  15
The first possibility fails, since 13  10  130. However, the second one works out correctly, since
13  15  195 .
Hence, the value of the digits A and B are 1 and 5 respectively.
Therefore, the option (A) is correct.
33. The number 72x is divisible by 9 means that the sum of its digits is also divisible by 9.
That is 7  2  x is divisible by 9. This is possible when x is 0 or 9.
Hence, the smallest value of x is 0.
Therefore, the option (D) is correct.
34. (B) 99
35. (C) 6
36. (B) 10
37. (D) 9
38. (A) A = 6, B = 2
39. (C) Yes. This is because, if the last 2 – digits of a number are divisible by 4, then the entire number
is divisible by 4.
40. (D) 66
41. (A) 3
42. (C) A = 7, B = 4
43. (D) 6
44. (A) 6
45. (B) No. This is because, the number is 99,999 is divisible by 9, but it is not divisible by 11.
Therefore, it will not be divisible by 9  11  99 .
PHYSICS
3. Image distance = object distance

5. 360/60 =N here N is even 6-1=5
6. Concept convex mirror always produces diminished and erect image
7. From geometry minimum height of image is half of object height
8. 360/72 =N here N is odd =5
9. Deviation = 180=2θ
10. From the concept of geometry (use corresponding angles
11. Parallel rays meet at focus and radius of curvature = 2f
12. If mirror rotates an angle θ the image rotates an angle 2θ. From geometry
13. Charge Q=Ixt

18
14. 1Coulomb charge = 6.26x10 electron charge
15. V=IR from Ohm‟s law.
FIITJEE COMMON
TEST
PHASE - 4

QP CODE:
Time:90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 90
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
pen.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
Booklet with them.
Name :
MAT
Directions (1 – 3) : The diagram shown below represents three segments of society. Based on the
given relationship given in the diagram you have the point out which number represents the
following statements.
Educated Youth
Employed Youth
5
3 1 Unemployed Youth
2 4
6
1. Some educated youths are employed

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
2. Some youths are neither educated nor employed

(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 5 (D) 4
3. Some educated youths who are unemployed

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
4. Which of the following diagram correctly represents Exams, NEET, IITJEE
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (5 – 7)
Choose the venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each questions.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers
6. Table, Chair, Furniture.
7. Alphabets, Vowels, Consonants.
Directions (8 – 13) : In the following diagram three classes of population are represented by three
figures.
The triangle represents the school teachers, the square represents the married persons and the
circle represents the persons living in joint families.
C
E R
D A
8. Married persons living in joint families but not working as school teachers are represented by
(A) C (B) F (C) D (D) A
9. Persons who live in joint families, are unmarried and who do not work as school teachers are
represented by
(A) C (B) B (C) E (D) D
10. Married teachers living in joint families are represented by

(A) C (B) R (C) D (D) A
11. School teachers who are married but not live in joint families are represented by
(A) C (B) F (C) A (D) D
12. School teachers who are neither married nor do live in joint families are represented by
(A) F (B) C (C) B (D) A
Directions (13 – 16): In each of the following questions, a square transparent paper with a pattern is
given. Find out from the four alternative figures which would look like the one when the paper is
folded at the dotted line.
Transparent figure Answer figures

13.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

14.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

15.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

16.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (17 – 20) : Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots
as in figure (X)
17.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
18.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
19.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
20.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (21 – 28) : Each of the following questions consists of problem figures followed by four
answer figures (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select a figure from the answer figures which will continue the
series established by the problem figures.
Problem Figures
21.
P Q R S T
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Problem Figures
22.
BOSTUR RUTSOB TSRUBO OBURST UROBTS
P Q R S T
Answer figures
SUROBT OBURST STBORU OURBST
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Problem Figures
23.
P Q R S T
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Problem Figures
24.
P Q R S T
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Problem Figures
25. J O J O J
J O J
O
P Q R S T
Answer figures
O J O J O J O J
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Problem Figures
26.
P Q R S T
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Problem Figures
27.
P Q R S T
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Problem Figures
28.
P Q R S T
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (29 – 34) : In each question below are given two statements followed two conclusion
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer.
(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
29. Statements I: Some pens are tables.

II: No table is blue.
Conclusions I: Some tables are pens.
II: No pen is blue.
30. Statements I: All tables are chalks.

II: All chalks are chairs.
Conclusions I: All chairs are tables.
II: All tables are chairs.
31. Statements I: Some gears are wheels.

II: All wheels are brakes.
Conclusions I: No brake is gear.
II: Some gears are brakes.
32. Statements I: No plane is hill.

II: Some hills are towns.
Conclusions I: No town is plane.
II: Some town are hills.
33. Statements I: Some cities are towns.

II: Some villages are cities.
Conclusions I: Some villages are towns.
II: Some towns are villages.
34. Statements I: All windows are chairs.

II: All chairs are tables.
Conclusions I: All tables are window.
II: All tables are chairs.
Directions (35 – 36) : In each question below are given statements followed by three or four
conclusions. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
35. Statements I: All men are women.

II: All women are crazy.
Conclusions I: All men are crazy.
II: All crazy are men
III: Some of the crazy are men
IV: Some of the crazy are women
(A) None of the conclusions follows (B) All conclusions follow
(C) only I, III and IV follow (D) only II and III follow.
36. Statements I: Some bottle is glass.

II: All glasses are ring.
Conclusions I: Some bottles are ring.
II: Some rings are glass.
III: No bottle is ring.
IV: All bottle are ring.
(A) None follows (B) only I and III follows.
(C) only I and II follow (D) only II and IV follows.
Directions (37 – 39): In each question below are given statements followed by three or four
conclusions. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
37. Statements I: All dolls are toys.

II: Some toys are balls.
III: All balls are bats.
IV: Some bats are game.
Conclusions I: Some games are dolls.
II: Some bats are toys.
III: Some bats are dolls.
IV: All bats are dolls.
(A) only III follows (B) only II follows.
(C) Either II or IV follows (D) None follows.
38. Statements I: All snakes are eagles.

II: Some eagles are rabbits.
III: All rabbits are birds.
IV: Some birds are animals.
Conclusions I: Some animals are snakes.
II: Some birds are snakes.
III: Some birds are eagles.
IV: All birds are rabbits.
(A) Both II and III follows (B) only II follows.
(C) only III follows. (D) None follows.
39. Statements I: All bulbs are wires.

II: No wire is cable.
III: Some cables are brushes.
IV: All brushes are paints.
Conclusions I: Some paints are cables.
II: Some wires are bulbs.
III: Some brushes are wires.
IV: Some cables are bulbs.
(A) only I follows (B) only I and II follows.
(C) only II follows. (D) only IV follows.
Directions (40 – 43) : Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.
40. (A) Curd (B) Butters (C) Oil (D) Cheese
41. (A) Geometry (B) Mathematics (C) Algebra (D) Arithmetic
42. (A) Tortoise (B) Snail (C) Turtle (D) Spider
43. (A) Wheat (B) Mustard (C) Rice (D) Gram
Directions (44 – 45): Choose the odd pair of words.
44. (A) china : Beijing (B) Russia : Mascow (C) Spain : Madrid (D) Japan : Dhaka
45. (A) Stallion : Colt (B) Horse : Mare (C) Drake : Duck (D) Dog : Bitch
Directions (46 – 50): Choose the number which is different from others in the group.
46. (A) 324 (B) 244 (C) 136 (D) 514
47. (A) 45 (B) 99 (C) 109 (D) 207
48. (A) 383 (B) 263 (C) 482 (D) 242
49. (A) 7 (B) 15 (C) 31 (D) 97
50. (A) 125 (B) 64 (C) 27 (D) 100
Directions (51 – 55): Choose the group of letters which is different from the others.
51. (A) EBD (B) IFH (C) QNO (D) YVX
52. (A) PRU (B) CEI (C) JLP (D) HJN
53. (A) LPO (B) BYX (C) EVU (D) IRQ
54. (A) EBA (B) XUT (C) JFE (D) TQP
55. (A) AZ (B) BY (C) FU (D) TQ
56. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs are 14 more than twice the number of heads. The
number of cows is ______________
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 7
57. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all, how many
did he solve correctly?
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 14
58. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In city Y, 10
men leave the bus and five women enter. Now, number of men and women is equal. In the
beginning, how many passangers entered the bus?
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 36 (D) 45
59. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but six died. How many was he left with?
(A) Nil (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 11
60. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. For every 15
soldiers there is one captain. The number of captains in the group is _________
(A) 85 (B) 80 (C) 70 (D) 75
61. A student got thrice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all, how many
did he solve correctly?
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 18
62. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages three
years ago?
(A) 71 years (B) 72 years (C) 74 years (D) 77 years
63. What is the product of first 6 whole numbers?

(A) 120 (B) 0 (C) 720 (D) None
64. A pineapple costs Rs. 7 each. A watermelon costs Rs. 5 each. Ganesh spends Rs. 38 on these
fruits. The number of pineapples purchased is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) none
65. What is the product of all the numbers in the dial of a telephone?
(A) 1, 58, 480 (B) 0 (C) 1, 59, 450 (D) None
66. If you write down all the numbers from 1 to 100, then how many times do you write 3?
(A) 11 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 21
67. The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages is _________
(A) 732 (B) 990 (C) 1098 (D) 1305
Directions (68 to 69):
68. How many straight lines are there in the above diagram?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) None
69. Number of triangles in the above diagram?

(A) 20 (B) 18 (C) 8 (D) None
Directions (70 to 72):
70. Number of straight lines in the above diagram.

(A) 16 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 8
71. Number of squares in the above diagram.

(A) 9 (B) 14 (C) 10 (D) 13
72. Number of rectangles in the above diagram.

(A) 18 (B) 36 (C) 32 (D) None
73. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
74. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) none
75. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
(A) 16 (B) 13 (C) 9 (D) 7
76. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

(A) Teach (B) Instruct (C) Educate (D) Explain
77. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

(A) copper (B) silver (C) Gold (D) Platinum
78. Choose the word which is different from rest

(A) Eye (B) Ear (C) Nose (D) Brain
Directions (79 to 83) : Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.
1 Married population
7
3 Nurses in hospital
5 4
6
Trained nurses
2
79. If hospital management requires only married trained nurses for operation theater, which part of
diagram should be chosen by him?
(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
80. By which number, married but untrained nurses in the hospital are represented?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5
81. By which numbers married trained nurses are represented?

(A) 3, 6 (B) 7, 5 (C) 5, 6 (D) 1, 5
82. What is represented by the number 7?

(A) married nurses in the hospital (B) Trained nurses
(C) Unmarried trained nurses (D) married trained nurses
83. By which number, the trained unmarried nurses in the hospital are represented?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 4
Directions (84 to 88): Study the following figure and answer the questions given below
25 4 17 Players
22 3 Doctors
8
30
Artists
84. How many doctors are neither artists nor players?

(A) 17 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 30
85. How many doctors are both players and artists?

(A) 22 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 30
86. How many artists are players?

(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 25 (D) 16
87. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?

(A) 25 (B) 17 (C) 5 (D) 10
88. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?

(A) 10 (B) 17 (C) 30 (D) 15
89. How many squares are there in the below diagram?
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 45 (D) None
90. How many straight lines are there in the below diagram?
(A) 6 (B) 36 (C) 9 (D) none
Answer Key:
1.A 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.C

6.D 7.D 8.C 9.C 10.B
11.A 12.A 13.D 14.A 15.B
16.A 17.B 18.B 19.C 20.D
21.A 22.C 23.A 24.A 25.B
26.A 27.B 28.A 29.A 30.B
31.B 32.B 33.D 34.D 35.C
36.C 37.B 38.A 39.B 40.C
41.B 42.D 43.C 44.D 45.A
46.A 47.C 48.A 49.B 50.D
51.C 52.A 53.A 54.C 55.D
56.D 57.B 58.D 59.B 60.D
61.A 62.A 63.B 64.C 65.B
66.C 67.B 68.C 69.A 70.D
71.B 72.B 73.D 74.A 75.A
76.B 77.A 78.D 79.C 80.C
81.C 82.A 83.D 84.A 85.C
86.C 87.A 88.C 89.D 90.A

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FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Batches: Udaya One Year

Time: 2:00 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

A. Question Paper Format

1. The question paper consists of 4 sections

2. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the force exerted by

3. A block of mass 10kg is suspended through two light spring balances

8. A single horizontal force F is applied to a block of mass M1 which is in

10. The pressure exerted by a liquid of density  at a depth h is given by

11. A piece of wood is floating in water. The upthrust on it is

12. Buoyant force acting on a body due to different fluids is

2. Which of the following is fully Fluorinated polymer ?

3. Monomer used in the production of nylon 6-6 are

5. In Buna-S symbol „Bu‟ stands for

6. Electrical switches are made up of which of the following materials

7. Which of the following is a semi-synthetic polymer ?

10. Which of the following is an iron ore ?

12. Brass is an alloy of

Section III (Mathematics)

22. The graph of y = 15 is a straight line,

25. Which of the following statement is true?

26. Which of the following statements is true?

30. Evaluate the value of 41  21  19  9

3. Which of the following chemical is the main constituent of Biogas

5. Acetic acid (vinegar) is prepared by using which of the following

6. Which of the following organism is found in intestinal tract of humans

7. The causative agent of Rabies is

8. Unique feature of viruses is

10. Lactobacillus is a bacteria which is shaped

11. Operation flood is related to

13. Grains stored to stock for emergency is called

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Section III (Mathematics)

Hints & Solutions

23. Let the age of daughter = x

SR. PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHS BIOLOGY

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

1. The simplified form of 125  245  845 is

5. If x  21/ 3  2 then x3  6x 2  12x  ?

7. The value of 00.456 is

8. The absolute value of | 4  x |  | x  4 | , if 0 < x < 4 is

12. If 0.00000676  0.0026 , the square root of 67,60,000 is ______

15. The largest four digit number which is perfect cube is

18. Which of the following is correct ?

19. Find out the incorrect statement

20. If 51/ a  71/ b  351/ c , find c in terms of a and b.

27. What number should be divide by 0.25 to give the result as 25 ?

33. The graph of x = 9 is a straight line

37. If 3 5  125  17.88 , then what will be the value of 80  6 5

38. The least perfect square number divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is

41. Which of the following is rational ?

45. Find the value of K.

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 24 (d) 16

1. A book is at rest on a table. What is the “reaction” force according to

3. Two 50N weights are attached to a spring scale as shown in figure.

4. If no force acts on a body, it will

7. Maximum force of static friction is called

8. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is about

9. Magnetic or gravitational force is an example of

18. aa _ abbb _ ccccd _ ddccc _bb ____ba

19. ab _ a _ b _ a _ b ___ a

20. b a _ b _ aab _ a _ b