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(Held on 08-04-2019 Morning Shift)

PHYSICS

1. Ship A is sailing towards north-east with velocity 5. Four identical particles of mass M are located at the corners

v = 30i + 50 j km/hr where i points east and j , north. of a square of side 'a'. What should be their speed if each of

Ship B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km north of them revolves under the influence of others' gravitational

Ship A and is sailing towards west at 10 km/hr. A will be at field in a circular orbit circumscribing the square ?

minimum distance from B in:

(1) 4.2 hrs (2) 2.6 hrs (3) 3.2 hrs (4) 2.2 hrs

2. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the

influence of a force that varies with the distance travelled

by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of

the particle after it has travelled 3 m is :

GM GM

(1) 1.35 (2) 1.16

a a

GM GM

(3) 1.21 (4) 1.41

a a

6. A steel wire having a radius of 2.0 mm, carrying a load of

4kg, is hanging from a ceiling. Given that g = 3.1 π ms–2,

what will be the tensile stress that would be developed in

(1) 4 J (2) 2.5 J (3) 6.5 J (4) 5 J the wire?

3. Four particles A, B, C and D with masses mA = m, mB = 2m, (1) 6.2 × 106 Nm–2 (2) 5.2 × 106 Nm–2

mC = 3m and mD = 4m are at the corners of a square. They

have accelerations of equal magnitude with directions (3) 3.1 × 106 Nm–2 (4) 4.8 × 106 Nm–2

as shown. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the 7. A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is 42 cm

particles is : long, with 6 mm diameter of cross-section and of negligible

mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing 0.02 kg on it and

stretches the cord by 20 cm by applying a constant force.

When released, the stone flies off with a velocity of

20 ms–1. Neglect the change in the area of cross-section of

the cord while stretched. The Young's modulus of rubber is

closest to :

(1) i – j (2) a i + j (3) Zero

( ) ( ) (4) i+ j

( )

5 5

(3) 108 N/m–2 (4) 103 N/m–2

4.

A thin circular plate of mass M and radius R has its 8. Water from a pipe is coming at a rate of 100 liters per

density varying as ρ(r) = ρ0 r with ρ0 as constant and r is

minute. If the radius of the pipe is 5 cm, the Reynolds

the distance from its center. The moment of Inertia of the

circular plate about an axis perpendicular to the plate and number for the flow is of the order of : (density of water

passing through its edge is I = a MR2. The value of the = 1000 kg/m3, coefficient of viscosity of water = 1 mPa s)

coefficient a is:

(1) 103 (2) 104 (3) 102 (4) 106

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 8 (4) 3

2 5 5 2

194

9. Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of 15. Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 V. Its

two different liquids at 60°C each and left to cool down. dielectric can withstand a maximum electric field of 106

Liquid in A has density of 8 × 102 kg/m3 and specific V/m. The plate area is 10–4 m2. What is the dielectric constant

heat of 2000 J kg–1 K–1 while liquid in B has density of if the capacitance is 15 pF ?

103 kg m–3 and specific heat of 4000 J kg–1 K–1. Which of (given ∈0 = 8.86 × 10–12 C2 m2)

the following best describes their temperature versus time (1) 3.8 (2) 8.5 (3) 4.5 (4) 6.2

graph schematically ? (assume the emissivity of both the 16. A 200 Ω resistor has a certain color code. If one replaces the

beakers to be the same) red color by green in the code, the new resistance will be :

(1) 100 Ω (2) 400 Ω (3) 300 Ω (4) 500 Ω

17. For the circuit shown, with R1 = 1.0 Ω, R2 = 2.0 Ω, E1 = 2 V

(1) (2)

and E2 = E3 = 4 V, the potential difference between the

points 'a' and 'b' is approximately (in V) :

(3) (4) R1 a R1

E3

R2

10. A thermally insulted vessel contains 150 g of water at 0°C. E1 R1

E2

Then the air from the vessel is pumped out adiabatically.

A fraction of water turns into ice and the rest evaporates at R1 b

0°C itself. The mass of evaporated water will be closed to :

(1) 2.7 (2) 2.3 (3) 3.7 (4) 3.3

(Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.10 × 106 J kg–1

18. A circular coil having N turns and radius r carries a current

and Latent heat of Fusion of water = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1)

I. It is held in the XZ plane in a magnetic field B i . The

(1) 150 g (2) 20 g (3) 130 g (4) 35 g

11. If 1022 gas molecules each of mass 10–26 torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is :

kg collide with a surface (perpendicular to it) Br 2 I

elastically per second over an area 1 m2 with a speed 104 (1) (2) Bpr2I N

πN

m/s, the pressure exerted by the gas molecules will be of

the order of : Bπr 2 I

(3) (4) Zero

(1) 104 N/m2 (2) 108 N/m2 N

3

(3) 10 N/m 2 (4) 1016 N/m2 19. A thin strip 10 cm long is on a U shaped wire of negligible

12. A wire of length 2L, is made by joining two wires A and resistance and it is connected to a spring of spring

B of same length but different radii r and 2r and made of constant 0.5 Nm–1 (see figure). The assembly is kept in

the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that

a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T. If the strip is pulled

the joint of the two wires forms a node. If the number of

antinodes in wire A is p and that in B is q then the ratio from its equilibrium position and released, the number

p : q is : of oscillations it performs before its amplitude decreases

by a factor of e is N. If the mass of strip is 50 grams, its

resistance 10Ω and air drag negligible, N will be close to :

(1) 3 : 5 (2) 4 : 9 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4

13. The bob of a simple pendulum has mass 2 g and a charge

of 5.0 μC. It is at rest in a uniform horizontal electric field

of intensity 2000 V/m. At equilibrium, the angle that the

pendulum makes with the vertical is :

(take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) tan–1 (2.0) (2) tan–1 (0.2) (1) 1000 (2) 50000 (3) 5000 (4) 10000

–1

(3) tan (5.0) (4) tan–1 (0.5)

14. A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Q, is surrounded 20. An alternating voltage v(t) = 220 sin 100πt volt is applied

by an uncharged conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the to a purely resistive load of 50Ω. The time taken for the

potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere

current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value

and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If

the shell is now given a charge of – 4 Q, the new potential is :

difference between the same two surfaces is : (1) 5 ms (2) 2.2 ms (3) 7.2 ms (4) 3.3 ms

(1) – 2V (2) 2 V (3) 4 V (4) V

195

21. A 20 Henry inductor coil is connected to a 10 ohm (3) 40 cm from the convergent lens, twice the size of the

resistance in series as shown in figure. The time at which object

rate of dissipation of energy (Joule's heat) across resistance (4) 20 cm from the convergent mirror, twice the size of the

object

is equal to the rate at which magnetic energy is stored in the

inductor, is : 25. In an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of

a 1

coherent waves is 1 = . The ratio of maximum and

a2 3

minimum intensities of fringes will be :

(1) 2 (2) 18 (3) 4 (4) 9

2 1 26. Two particles move at right angle to each other. Their

(1) (2) ln 2 (3) 2 ln 2 (4)

ln 2

ln 2 2 de Broglie wavelengths are λ1 and λ2 respectively. The

22. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along particles suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The de Broglie

the x-direction. The electric field component of the wave wavelength λ, of the final particle, is given by :

at a particular point of space and time is E = 6 Vm–1 along

1 1 1

y-direction. Its corresponding magnetic field component, (1) 2

= 2 + 2 (2) λ = λ1λ2

λ λ1 λ2

B would be:

λ2 + λ2 2 1 1

(1) 2 × 10–8 T along z-direction (3) λ = (4) = +

2 λ λ1 λ2

(2) 6 × 10–8 T along x-direction

27. Radiation coming from transitions n = 2 to n = 1 of

(3) 6 × 10–8 T along z-direction hydrogen atoms fall on He+ ions in n = 1 and n = 2 states.

(4) 2 × 10–8 T along y-direction The possible transition of helium ions as they absorb

energy from the radiation is :

23. In figure, the optical fiber is l = 2 m long and

n = 2 → n = 3

(1) (2) n = 1 → n = 4

has a diameter of d = 20 μm. If a ray of light

n = 2 → n = 5

(3) (4) n = 2 → n = 4

is incident on one end of the fiber at angle θ1

28. The reverse breakdown voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6 V in

= 40°, the number of reflections it makes before emerging

the given circuit.

from the other end is close to :

(refractive index of fiber is 1.31 and sin 40°

= 0.64)

(1) 10 mA (2) 17 mA

(3) 15 mA (4) 7 mA

(1) 55000 (2) 66000 (3) 45000 (4) 57000 29. The wavelength of the carrier waves in a modern optical

24. An upright object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front fiber communication network is close to :

of a convergent lens of focal length 20 cm. A convergent (1) 2400 nm (2) 1500 nm

mirror of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 60 cm (3) 600 nm (4) 900 nm

on the other side of the lens. The position and size of the

ε0

final image will be : 30. In SI unit the dissmensions of µ 0 is :

(1) 20 cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the

object (1) A–1T ML3 (2) AT2 M–1L–1

(2) 40 cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the (3) AT −3ML3/2 (4) A2T3 M–1 L–2

object

196

CHEMISTRY

31. An organic compound ‘X’ showing the following solubility 36. In the following compounds, the decreasing order of basic

profile is: strength will be:

water

insoluble (1) C2H5NH2 > NH3 > (C2H5)2NH

(2) (C2H5)2NH > NH3 > C2H5NH2

5% HCl insoluble

(3) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3

'X'

10% NaOH (4) NH3 > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH

soluble

37. The major product of the following reaction is :

10% NaHCO3 OCH3

insoluble

Conc. HBr (excess)

(1) o-Toluidine (2) Oleic acid

Heat

(3) m-Cresol (4) Benzamide

CH = CH2

32. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption

isotherm. x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m

x

of the adsorbent. The plot of versus log p is shown

m (1) (2)

x

in the given graph. is proportional to :

m

x 2 (3) (4)

log

m 3

38. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moment

of metal ions in the following low-spin complexes,

log p

[V(CN)6]4–, [Fe(CN)6]4–, [Ru(NH3)6]3+, and [Cr(NH3)6]2+, is

(1) p2/3 (2) p3/2 (3) p3 (4) p2 (1) Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ > V2+

33. An organic compound neither reacts with neutral ferric (2) V2+ > Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+

chloride solution nor with Fehling solution. It however, (3) V2+ > Ru3+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+

reacts with Grignard reagent and gives positive iodoform (4) Cr2+ > V2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+

test. The compound is : 39. The major product of the following reaction is :

O O

|| CH3

(1) CH 3 (2) H

||

OH O

OH

O

||

CH3

C2H5

(3) (4) C2H5

CH3

O O (1)

34. The size of the iso-electronic species Cl–, Ar and Ca2+ is

affected by :

(1) azimuthal quantum number of valence shell

(2) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals Cl

(3) principal quantum number of valence shell

(4) nuclear charge

35. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC2O4,

Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 in acidic medium, the (2)

number of moles of KMnO4 required is :

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 1.5

197

OMe

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)

produce, respectively;

(1) B2O3 and H3BO3 (2) B2O3 and [BH4]–

40. For silver, Cp(JK–1 mol–1) = 23 + 0.01T. If the temperature (3) H3BO3 and B2O3 (4) HBO2 and H3BO3

(T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300 K to 1000 K at 1

46. Which one of the following equations does not correctly

atm pressure, the value of DH will be close to:

(1) 62 kJ (2) 16 kJ (3) 21 kJ (4) 13 kJ represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given

41. Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as a processes involving an ideal gas ? (Assume non-expansion

human being to protect our environment ? work is zero)

(1) Restricting the use of vehicles (1) Cyclic process : q = –w

(2) Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities (2) Adiabatic process : DU = –w

(3) Setting up compost tin in gardens. (3) Isochoric process: DU = q

(4) Using plastic bags. (4) Isothermal process: q = – w

42. The following ligand is: 47. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict

the feasibility of its

(1) Electrolysis (2) Zone refining

(3) Vapour phase refining (4) Thermal reduction

48. 100 mL of a water sample contains 0.81 g of calcium

bicarbonate and 0.73 g of magnesium bicarbonate. The

hardness of this water sample expressed in terms of

equivalents of CaCO3 is:

(molar mass of calcium bicarbonate is 162 g mol–1 and

magnesium bicarboante is 146 g mol–1)

(1) hexadentate (2) tetradentate (1) 5,000 ppm (2) 1,000 ppm

(3) bidentate (4) tridentate (3) 100 ppm (4) 10,000 ppm

43. If solubility product of Zr3(PO4)4 is denoted by Ksp and 49. Given that E°O2 / H 2O = + 1.23V;

its molar solubility is denoted by S, then which of the

following relation between S and Ksp is correct ? E°

S2O82 − / SO 24 −

= 2.05V

1/ 6 1/ 7

K sp K sp E° = + 1.09V

(1)

S= (2) S =

Br2 / Br −

144 6912

E° = + 1.4V

Au 3+ / Au

1/ 9 1/ 7

K sp K sp The strongest oxidising agent is :

(3) S= (4) S = (1) Au3+ (2) O2 (3) S2 O82− (4) Br2

929 216

44. The major product of the following reaction is : 50. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

CH3 OH

O | |

Br NaBH4

H3C – CH – CH – CH2 – COOH

MeOH, 25 °C (1) 4, 4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid

(3) 3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid

(1) (4) 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid

51. Element 'B' forms ccp structure and 'A' occupies half of

the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy all the

tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is :

(2)

(1) A2BO4 (2) AB2O4 (3) A2B2O (4) A4B2O

198

52. For the reaction 2A + B → C, the values of initial rate 58. Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with 1-naphthol

at different reactant concentrations are given in the table in alkaline medium will give :

below.

OH

The rate law for the reaction is :

[A] [B] Initial Rate (1) (2)

(mol L–1) (mol L–1) (mol L–1 s–1)

0.05 0.05 0.045 N

0.10 0.05 0.090 N HO N

||

0.20 0.10 0.72 N

(1) Rate = k[A][B]2 (2) Rate = k[A]2[B]2

(3) Rate = k[A][B] (4) Rate = k[A] 2 [B]

53. The lanthanide ion that would show colour is :

(1) Gd3+ (2) Sm3+ (3) La3+ (4) Lu3+

54. Maltose on treatment with dilute HCl gives :

(1) D-Glucose and D-Fructose

(2) D-Fructose

(3) D-Galactose OH

(4) D-Glucose N

55. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and

(3) N (4) N

600 mmHg, respectively at 298K. On mixing the two

liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the N

volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid

B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final

solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in

vapour phase, respectively are: OH

(1) 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6 (2) 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5 59. Assertion : Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the upper

(3) 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5 (4) 500 mmHg, 0.4, 06 stratosphere.

56. Which of the following amines can be prepared by Gabriel Reason : Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radiation

phthalimide reaction ? reaching the earth.

(1) n-butylamine (2) triethylamine (1) Assertion and reason are incorrect.

(3) t-butylamine (4) neo-pentylamine (2) Assertion and reason are both correct, and the reason is

57. The quantum number of four electrons are given below : the correct explanation for the assertion.

I. n = 4, l = 2, ml = –2, ms = −1 2 (3) Assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not

the explanation for the assertion.

II. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = + 1 2 (4) Assertion is false, but the reason is correct.

III. n = 4, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = + 1 2 60. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal

IV. n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = − 1 2 ions is :

(1) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+

The correct order of their increasing energies will be : (2) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

(1) IV < III < II < I (2) I < II < III < IV (3) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+

(3) IV < II < III < I (4) I < III < II < IV (4) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

MATHEMATICS

61. The shortest distance between the line y = x and the curve has a non-trivial solution, is :

y2 = x – 2 is : 1

7 7 11 (1) –1 (2) (3) 2 (4) 0

(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 2

8 4 2 4 2 64. The contrapositive of the statement ''If you are born in

2 India, then you are a citizen of India'', is :

sin x

62. lim equals :

x→0 2 − 1 + cos x (1) If you are not a citizen of India, then you are not born

in India.

(1) 4 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 4

(2) If you are a citizen of India, then you are born in India.

63. The greatest value of c ϵ R for which the system of linear

equations (3) If you are born in India, then you are not a citizen of

x – cy – cz = 0 India.

cx – y + cz = 0

cx + cy – z = 0 (4) If you are not born in India, then you are not a citizen

of India.

199

65. All possible numbers are formed using the digits 1, 1, 2, 2, 75. If α and β be the roots of the equation x2 – 2x + 2 = 0, then

2, 2, 3, 4, 4 taken all at a time. The number of such numbers n

α

in which the odd digits occupy even places is : the least value of n for which = 1 is :

(1) 180 (2) 175 β

(3) 160 (4) 162 (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

cos α − sin α 0 −1 76. The area (in sq. units) of the region

66. Let A = , (α ϵ R) such that A32 = . A = {(x, y) ϵ R × R|0 ≤ x ≤3, 0 ≤ y ≤ 4, y ≤ x2 + 3x} is :

sin α cos α 1 0

53 59 26

Then a value of α is : (1) (2) 8 (3) (4)

6 6 3

p p p

(1) (2) 0 (3) (4) 77. If S1 and S2 are respectively the sets of local minimum and

32 64 16

local maximum points of the function,

3 5 p f(x) = 9x4 + 12x3 – 36x2 + 25, xϵR, then :

67. If cost (α + β) = , sin(α – β) = and 0 < α, β < , then

5 13 4 (1) S1 = {–2}; S2 = {0, 1}

tan(2α) is equal to : (2) S1 = {–2, 0}; S2 = {1}

63 63 21 33 (3) S1 = {–2, 1}; S2 = {0}

(1) (2) (3) (4) (4) S1 = {–1}; S2 = {0, 2}

52 16 16 52

3 1 ≠

68. The sum of the co-efficients of all even degree terms in x in 78. If α = cos–1 , β = tan–1 , where 0 < α, β < , then

5 3 2

( ) ( )

6 6

3

the expansion of x + x − 1 + x − x3 − 1 , (x > 1) is α – β is equal to :

9 9

equal to : (1) tan–1 (2) cos–1

(1) 29 (2) 32 (3) 26 (4) 24 5 10 5 10

5x 9 9

sin (3) tan–1 (4) sin–1

69. 2

∫ x dx is equal to : 14 5 10

sin 79. The sum of the series 2∙20C0 + 5∙20C1 + 8∙20C2 + 11∙20C3

2

+ … + 62∙20C20 is equal to :

(where c is a constant of integration.) (1) 226 (2) 225 (3) 223 (4) 224

(1) 2x + sinx + 2 sin2x + c 80. The sum of the solutions of the equation

(2)

(3)

x + 2 sinx + 2 sin2x + c

x + 2 sinx + sin2x + c

( )

x − 2 + x x − 4 + 2 = 0, (x > 0) is equal to:

70. The mean and variance of seven observations are 8 and 16, 81. If the tangents on the ellipse 4x2 + y2 = 8 at the points (1, 2)

respectively. If 5 of the observations are 2, 4, 10, 12, 14, and (a, b) are perpendicular to each other, then a2 is equal

then the product of the remaining two observations is : to :

(1) 45 (2) 49 (3) 48 (4) 40 128 64 4 2

(1) (2) (3) (4)

71. The equation of a plane containing the line of intersection 17 17 17 17

of the planes 2x – y – 4 = 0 and y + 2z – 4 = 0 and passing 82. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation,

through the point (1, 1, 0) is : dy

(1) x – 3y – 2z = –2 (2) 2x – z = 2 (x2 + 1)2 + 2x(x2 + 1)y = 1 such that y(0) = 0. If

dx

(3) x – y – z = 0 (4) x + 3y + z = 4

p

72. The magnitude of the projection of the vector 2i + 3j +

k a y(1) = , then the value of 'a' is :

32

on the vector perpendicular to the plane containing the

1 1 1

vectors i + j +

k and i + 2j + 3

k , is : (1) (2)

4 2

(3) 1 (4)

16

3 3 83. The sum of all natural numbers 'n' such that 100 < n < 200

(1) (2) 6 (3) 3 6 (4) and H.C.F. (91, n) > 1 is :

2 2

(1) 3203 (2) 3303 (3) 3221 (4) 3121

73. The sum of the squares of the lengths of the chords

84. The length of the perpendicular from the point (2, –1, 4) on

intercepted on the circle, x2 + y2 = 16, by the lines, x + y = n,

x+3 y−2 z

nϵN, where N is the set of all natural numbers, is : the straight line, = = is :

(1) 320 (2) 105 (3) 160 (4) 210 10 −7 1

74. Let A and B be two non-null events such that A ⊂ B. Then, (1) greater than 3 but less than 4

which of the following statements is always correct? (2) less than 2

(1) P(A|B) = P(B) – P(A) (2) P(A|B) ≥ P(A) (3) greater than 2 but less than 3

(3) P(A|B) ≤ P(A) (4) P(A|B) = 1 (4) greater than 4

200

85. A point on the straight line, 3x + 5y = 15 which is equidistant 1− x 2x

from the coordinate axes will lie only in : 88. If f(x) = loge , |x| < 1, then f is equal to :

1 + x 1 + x 2

(1) 4th quadrant

(2) 1st quadrant (1) 2f(x) (2) 2f(x2)

(3) 1st and 2nd quadrants (3) (f(x))2 (4) –2f(x)

(4) 1st , 2nd and 4th quadrants 89. Let f : [0 : 2] → R be a twice differentiable function such

86. Let O(0, 0) and A(0, 1) be two fixed points. Then the locus that f ''(x) > 0, for all x∈(0, 2). If f(x) = f (x) + f (2 – x), then

of a point P such that the perimeter of ∆AOP is 4, is : f is :

(1) 8x2 – 9y2 + 9y = 18 (1) increasing on (0, 1) and decreasing on (1, 2).

(2) 9x2 – 8y2 + 8y = 16 (2) decreasing on (0, 2)

(3) 9x2 + 8y2 – 8y = 16 (3) decreasing on (0, 1) and increasing on (1, 2).

(4) 8x2 + 9y2 – 9y = 18 (4) increasing on (0, 2)

2

−1 3 cos x + sin x π dy 2 − x cos x

87. If 2y = cot 90. If f ( x) = and g ( x) = log e x, (x > 0) then the

, x ϵ 0, 2 then dx 2 + x cos x

cos x − 3 sin x

π

is equal to : 4

p p

(1) – x x–

(2) value of the integral ∫ g ( f ( x))dx is :

6 6 π

−

p p 4

(3) – x (4) 2x – (1) log

3 3 e3 (2) logee

(3) log

e2 (4) loge1

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