193

JEE MAIN 2019

(Held on 08-04-2019 Morning Shift)

PHYSICS

1. Ship A is sailing towards north-east with velocity
v = 30i + 50 j km/hr where i points east and j , north.
Ship B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km north of
Ship A and is sailing towards west at 10 km/hr. A will be at
minimum distance from B in:
(1) 4.2 hrs (2) 2.6 hrs (3) 3.2 hrs (4) 2.2 hrs
2. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the
influence of a force that varies with the distance travelled
by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of
the particle after it has travelled 3 m is :
(1) 4 J (2) 2.5 J (3) 6.5 J (4) 5 J
3. Four particles A, B, C and D with masses mA = m, mB = 2m,
mC = 3m and mD = 4m are at the corners of a square. They
have accelerations of equal magnitude with directions
as shown. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the
particles is : long, with 6 mm diameter of cross-section and of negligible
5. Four identical particles of mass M are located at the corners
of a square of side 'a'. What should be their speed if each of
them revolves under the influence of others' gravitational
field in a circular orbit circumscribing the square ?
GM GM
(1) 1.35 (2) 1.16
a a
GM GM
(3) 1.21 (4) 1.41
a a
6. A steel wire having a radius of 2.0 mm, carrying a load of
4kg, is hanging from a ceiling. Given that g = 3.1 π ms–2,
what will be the tensile stress that would be developed in
the wire?
(1) 6.2 × 106 Nm–2 (2) 5.2 × 106 Nm–2
(3) 3.1 × 106 Nm–2 (4) 4.8 × 106 Nm–2
7. A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is 42 cm
mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing 0.02 kg on it and
stretches the cord by 20 cm by applying a constant force.
When released, the stone flies off with a velocity of
20 ms–1. Neglect the change in the area of cross-section of
the cord while stretched. The Young's modulus of rubber is
closest to :

a a   (1) 106 N/m–2 (2) 104 N/m–2

(1) i – j (2) a i + j (3) Zero
( ) ( ) (4) i+ j
( )
5 5
(3) 108 N/m–2 (4) 103 N/m–2
4.
A thin circular plate of mass M and radius R has its 8. Water from a pipe is coming at a rate of 100 liters per
density varying as ρ(r) = ρ0 r with ρ0 as constant and r is
minute. If the radius of the pipe is 5 cm, the Reynolds
the distance from its center. The moment of Inertia of the
circular plate about an axis perpendicular to the plate and number for the flow is of the order of : (density of water
passing through its edge is I = a MR2. The value of the = 1000 kg/m3, coefficient of viscosity of water = 1 mPa s)
coefficient a is:
(1) 103 (2) 104 (3) 102 (4) 106
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 8 (4) 3
2 5 5 2

9. Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of
two different liquids at 60°C each and left to cool down.
Liquid in A has density of 8 × 102 kg/m3 and specific
heat of 2000 J kg–1 K–1 while liquid in B has density of
103 kg m–3 and specific heat of 4000 J kg–1 K–1. Which of
the following best describes their temperature versus time
graph schematically ? (assume the emissivity of both the
beakers to be the same)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) R1
10. A thermally insulted vessel contains 150 g of water at 0°C.
Then the air from the vessel is pumped out adiabatically.
A fraction of water turns into ice and the rest evaporates at
0°C itself. The mass of evaporated water will be closed to :
(Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.10 × 106 J kg–1
and Latent heat of Fusion of water = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1)
(1) 150 g (2) 20 g (3) 130 g (4) 35 g
11. If 1022 gas molecules each of mass 10–26
kg collide with a surface (perpendicular to it)
elastically per second over an area 1 m2 with a speed 104
m/s, the pressure exerted by the gas molecules will be of
the order of : Bπr 2 I
(1) 104 N/m2 (2) 108 N/m2
3
(3) 10 N/m 2 (4) 1016 N/m2
12. A wire of length 2L, is made by joining two wires A and
B of same length but different radii r and 2r and made of
the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that
the joint of the two wires forms a node. If the number of
antinodes in wire A is p and that in B is q then the ratio
p : q is : of oscillations it performs before its amplitude decreases
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 4 : 9 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
13. The bob of a simple pendulum has mass 2 g and a charge
of 5.0 μC. It is at rest in a uniform horizontal electric field
of intensity 2000 V/m. At equilibrium, the angle that the
pendulum makes with the vertical is :
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) tan–1 (2.0) (2) tan–1 (0.2)
–1
(3) tan (5.0) (4) tan–1 (0.5)
14. A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Q, is surrounded
by an uncharged conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the
potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere
and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If
the shell is now given a charge of – 4 Q, the new potential
difference between the same two surfaces is :
(1) – 2V (2) 2 V (3) 4 V (4) V
194
15. Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 V. Its
dielectric can withstand a maximum electric field of 106
V/m. The plate area is 10–4 m2. What is the dielectric constant
if the capacitance is 15 pF ?
(given ∈0 = 8.86 × 10–12 C2 m2)
(1) 3.8 (2) 8.5 (3) 4.5 (4) 6.2
16. A 200 Ω resistor has a certain color code. If one replaces the
red color by green in the code, the new resistance will be :
(1) 100 Ω (2) 400 Ω (3) 300 Ω (4) 500 Ω
17. For the circuit shown, with R1 = 1.0 Ω, R2 = 2.0 Ω, E1 = 2 V
and E2 = E3 = 4 V, the potential difference between the
points 'a' and 'b' is approximately (in V) :
a R1
E3
R2
E1 R1
E2
R1 b
(1) 2.7 (2) 2.3 (3) 3.7 (4) 3.3
18. A circular coil having N turns and radius r carries a current
I. It is held in the XZ plane in a magnetic field B i . The
torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is :
Br 2 I
(1) (2) Bpr2I N
πN
(3) (4) Zero
N
19. A thin strip 10 cm long is on a U shaped wire of negligible
resistance and it is connected to a spring of spring
constant 0.5 Nm–1 (see figure). The assembly is kept in
a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T. If the strip is pulled
from its equilibrium position and released, the number
by a factor of e is N. If the mass of strip is 50 grams, its
resistance 10Ω and air drag negligible, N will be close to :
(1) 1000 (2) 50000 (3) 5000 (4) 10000
20. An alternating voltage v(t) = 220 sin 100πt volt is applied
to a purely resistive load of 50Ω. The time taken for the
current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value
is :
(1) 5 ms (2) 2.2 ms (3) 7.2 ms (4) 3.3 ms
 195
21. A 20 Henry inductor coil is connected to a 10 ohm (3) 40 cm from the convergent lens, twice the size of the
resistance in series as shown in figure. The time at which object
rate of dissipation of energy (Joule's heat) across resistance (4) 20 cm from the convergent mirror, twice the size of the
object
is equal to the rate at which magnetic energy is stored in the
inductor, is : 25. In an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of
a 1
coherent waves is 1 = . The ratio of maximum and
a2 3
minimum intensities of fringes will be :
(1) 2 (2) 18 (3) 4 (4) 9
2 1 26. Two particles move at right angle to each other. Their
(1) (2) ln 2 (3) 2 ln 2 (4)
ln 2
ln 2 2 de Broglie wavelengths are λ1 and λ2 respectively. The
22. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along particles suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The de Broglie
the x-direction. The electric field component of the wave wavelength λ, of the final particle, is given by :
at a particular point of space and time is E = 6 Vm–1 along
1 1 1
y-direction. Its corresponding magnetic field component, (1) 2
= 2 + 2 (2) λ = λ1λ2
λ λ1 λ2
B would be:
λ2 + λ2 2 1 1
(1) 2 × 10–8 T along z-direction (3) λ = (4) = +
2 λ λ1 λ2
(2) 6 × 10–8 T along x-direction
27. Radiation coming from transitions n = 2 to n = 1 of
(3) 6 × 10–8 T along z-direction hydrogen atoms fall on He+ ions in n = 1 and n = 2 states.
(4) 2 × 10–8 T along y-direction The possible transition of helium ions as they absorb
energy from the radiation is :
23. In figure, the optical fiber is l = 2 m long and
n = 2 → n = 3
(1) (2) n = 1 → n = 4
has a diameter of d = 20 μm. If a ray of light
n = 2 → n = 5
(3) (4) n = 2 → n = 4
is incident on one end of the fiber at angle θ1
28. The reverse breakdown voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6 V in
= 40°, the number of reflections it makes before emerging
the given circuit.
from the other end is close to :
(refractive index of fiber is 1.31 and sin 40°
= 0.64)

The current Iz through the Zener is :

(1) 55000 (2) 66000 (3) 45000 (4) 57000
24. An upright object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front
of a convergent lens of focal length 20 cm. A convergent
mirror of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 60 cm
on the other side of the lens. The position and size of the
final image will be : 30. In SI unit the dissmensions of
(1) 20 cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the
object
(2) 40 cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the
object
(1) 10 mA (2) 17 mA
(3) 15 mA (4) 7 mA
29. The wavelength of the carrier waves in a modern optical
fiber communication network is close to :
(1) 2400 nm (2) 1500 nm
(3) 600 nm (4) 900 nm
ε0
µ 0 is :
(1) A–1T ML3 (2) AT2 M–1L–1
(3) AT −3ML3/2 (4) A2T3 M–1 L–2
 196
CHEMISTRY

31. An organic compound ‘X’ showing the following solubility 36. In the following compounds, the decreasing order of basic
profile is: strength will be:
water
insoluble (1) C2H5NH2 > NH3 > (C2H5)2NH
(2) (C2H5)2NH > NH3 > C2H5NH2
5% HCl insoluble
(3) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3
'X'
10% NaOH (4) NH3 > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH
soluble
37. The major product of the following reaction is :
10% NaHCO3 OCH3
insoluble
Conc. HBr (excess)
(1) o-Toluidine (2) Oleic acid 
Heat
(3) m-Cresol (4) Benzamide
CH = CH2
32. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption
isotherm. x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m
x
of the adsorbent. The plot of versus log p is shown
m (1) (2)
x
in the given graph. is proportional to :
m

x 2 (3) (4)
log
m 3
38. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moment
of metal ions in the following low-spin complexes,
log p
[V(CN)6]4–, [Fe(CN)6]4–, [Ru(NH3)6]3+, and [Cr(NH3)6]2+, is
(1) p2/3 (2) p3/2 (3) p3 (4) p2 (1) Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ > V2+
33. An organic compound neither reacts with neutral ferric (2) V2+ > Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+
chloride solution nor with Fehling solution. It however, (3) V2+ > Ru3+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+
reacts with Grignard reagent and gives positive iodoform (4) Cr2+ > V2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+
test. The compound is : 39. The major product of the following reaction is :
O O
|| CH3
(1) CH 3 (2) H
||
OH O
OH
O
||
CH3
C2H5
(3) (4) C2H5
CH3
O O (1)
34. The size of the iso-electronic species Cl–, Ar and Ca2+ is
affected by :
(1) azimuthal quantum number of valence shell
(2) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals Cl
(3) principal quantum number of valence shell
(4) nuclear charge
35. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC2O4,
Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 in acidic medium, the (2)
number of moles of KMnO4 required is :
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 1.5
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OMe
(3)
(3)

(4)

45. Diborane (B2H6) reacts independently with O2 and H2O to

(4)
40. For silver, Cp(JK–1 mol–1) = 23 + 0.01T. If the temperature
(T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300 K to 1000 K at 1
atm pressure, the value of DH will be close to:
(1) 62 kJ (2) 16 kJ (3) 21 kJ (4) 13 kJ
41. Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as a
human being to protect our environment ?
(1) Restricting the use of vehicles (1) Cyclic process : q = –w
(2) Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities
(3) Setting up compost tin in gardens. (3) Isochoric process: DU = q
(4) Using plastic bags.
42. The following ligand is:
(1) hexadentate (2) tetradentate
(3) bidentate (4) tridentate
43. If solubility product of Zr3(PO4)4 is denoted by Ksp and
its molar solubility is denoted by S, then which of the
following relation between S and Ksp is correct ?
produce, respectively;
(1) B2O3 and H3BO3 (2) B2O3 and [BH4]–
(3) H3BO3 and B2O3 (4) HBO2 and H3BO3
46. Which one of the following equations does not correctly
represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given
processes involving an ideal gas ? (Assume non-expansion
work is zero)
(2) Adiabatic process : DU = –w
(4) Isothermal process: q = – w
47. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict
the feasibility of its
(1) Electrolysis (2) Zone refining
(3) Vapour phase refining (4) Thermal reduction
48. 100 mL of a water sample contains 0.81 g of calcium
bicarbonate and 0.73 g of magnesium bicarbonate. The
hardness of this water sample expressed in terms of
equivalents of CaCO3 is:
(molar mass of calcium bicarbonate is 162 g mol–1 and
magnesium bicarboante is 146 g mol–1)
(1) 5,000 ppm (2) 1,000 ppm
(3) 100 ppm (4) 10,000 ppm
49. Given that E°O2 / H 2O = + 1.23V;
E°
S2O82 − / SO 24 −
= 2.05V

1/ 6 1/ 7
 K sp   K sp  E° = + 1.09V
(1)
S=   (2) S =  
Br2 / Br −
 144   6912 
E° = + 1.4V
Au 3+ / Au
1/ 9 1/ 7
 K sp   K sp  The strongest oxidising agent is :
(3) S=   (4) S =   (1) Au3+ (2) O2 (3) S2 O82− (4) Br2
 929   216 
44. The major product of the following reaction is : 50. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :
CH3 OH
O | |
Br NaBH4
H3C – CH – CH – CH2 – COOH
 
MeOH, 25 °C (1) 4, 4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid

OH (2) 2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid

(3) 3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
(1) (4) 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid
51. Element 'B' forms ccp structure and 'A' occupies half of
the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy all the
tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is :
(2)
(1) A2BO4 (2) AB2O4 (3) A2B2O (4) A4B2O
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52. For the reaction 2A + B → C, the values of initial rate 58. Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with 1-naphthol
at different reactant concentrations are given in the table in alkaline medium will give :
below.
OH
The rate law for the reaction is :
[A] [B] Initial Rate (1) (2)
(mol L–1) (mol L–1) (mol L–1 s–1)
0.05 0.05 0.045 N
0.10 0.05 0.090 N HO N
||
0.20 0.10 0.72 N
(1) Rate = k[A][B]2 (2) Rate = k[A]2[B]2
(3) Rate = k[A][B] (4) Rate = k[A] 2 [B]
53. The lanthanide ion that would show colour is :
(1) Gd3+ (2) Sm3+ (3) La3+ (4) Lu3+
54. Maltose on treatment with dilute HCl gives :
(1) D-Glucose and D-Fructose
(2) D-Fructose
(3) D-Galactose OH
(4) D-Glucose N
55. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and
(3) N (4) N
600 mmHg, respectively at 298K. On mixing the two
liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the N
volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid
B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final
solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in
vapour phase, respectively are: OH
(1) 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6 (2) 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5 59. Assertion : Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the upper
(3) 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5 (4) 500 mmHg, 0.4, 06 stratosphere.
56. Which of the following amines can be prepared by Gabriel Reason : Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radiation
phthalimide reaction ? reaching the earth. 
(1) n-butylamine (2) triethylamine (1) Assertion and reason are incorrect.
(3) t-butylamine (4) neo-pentylamine (2) Assertion and reason are both correct, and the reason is
57. The quantum number of four electrons are given below : the correct explanation for the assertion.
I. n = 4, l = 2, ml = –2, ms = −1 2 (3) Assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not
the explanation for the assertion.
II. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = + 1 2 (4) Assertion is false, but the reason is correct.
III. n = 4, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = + 1 2 60. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal
IV. n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = − 1 2 ions is :
(1) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+
The correct order of their increasing energies will be : (2) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(1) IV < III < II < I (2) I < II < III < IV (3) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+
(3) IV < II < III < I (4) I < III < II < IV (4) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

MATHEMATICS
61. The shortest distance between the line y = x and the curve has a non-trivial solution, is :
y2 = x – 2 is : 1
7 7 11 (1) –1 (2) (3) 2 (4) 0
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 2
8 4 2 4 2 64. The contrapositive of the statement ''If you are born in
2 India, then you are a citizen of India'', is :
sin x
62. lim equals :
x→0 2 − 1 + cos x (1) If you are not a citizen of India, then you are not born
in India.
(1) 4 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 4
(2) If you are a citizen of India, then you are born in India.
63. The greatest value of c ϵ R for which the system of linear
equations (3) If you are born in India, then you are not a citizen of
x – cy – cz = 0 India.
cx – y + cz = 0
cx + cy – z = 0 (4) If you are not born in India, then you are not a citizen
of India.
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65. All possible numbers are formed using the digits 1, 1, 2, 2, 75. If α and β be the roots of the equation x2 – 2x + 2 = 0, then
2, 2, 3, 4, 4 taken all at a time. The number of such numbers n
 α
in which the odd digits occupy even places is : the least value of n for which   = 1 is :
(1) 180 (2) 175  β
(3) 160 (4) 162 (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3
cos α − sin α  0 −1 76. The area (in sq. units) of the region
66. Let A =   , (α ϵ R) such that A32 =  . A = {(x, y) ϵ R × R|0 ≤ x ≤3, 0 ≤ y ≤ 4, y ≤ x2 + 3x} is :
sin α cos α  1 0 
53 59 26
Then a value of α is : (1) (2) 8 (3) (4)
6 6 3
p p p
(1) (2) 0 (3) (4) 77. If S1 and S2 are respectively the sets of local minimum and
32 64 16
local maximum points of the function,
3 5 p f(x) = 9x4 + 12x3 – 36x2 + 25, xϵR, then :
67. If cost (α + β) = , sin(α – β) = and 0 < α, β < , then
5 13 4 (1) S1 = {–2}; S2 = {0, 1}
tan(2α) is equal to : (2) S1 = {–2, 0}; S2 = {1}
63 63 21 33 (3) S1 = {–2, 1}; S2 = {0}
(1) (2) (3) (4) (4) S1 = {–1}; S2 = {0, 2}
52 16 16 52
 3  1 ≠
68. The sum of the co-efficients of all even degree terms in x in 78. If α = cos–1   , β = tan–1   , where 0 < α, β < , then
 5  3 2
( ) ( )
6 6
3
the expansion of x + x − 1 + x − x3 − 1 , (x > 1) is α – β is equal to :
 9   9 
equal to : (1) tan–1  (2) cos–1 
(1) 29 (2) 32 (3) 26 (4) 24  5 10   5 10 
5x  9  9 
sin (3) tan–1   (4) sin–1 
69. 2
∫ x dx is equal to :  14   5 10 
sin 79. The sum of the series 2∙20C0 + 5∙20C1 + 8∙20C2 + 11∙20C3
2
+ … + 62∙20C20 is equal to :
(where c is a constant of integration.) (1) 226 (2) 225 (3) 223 (4) 224
(1) 2x + sinx + 2 sin2x + c 80. The sum of the solutions of the equation
(2)
(3)
x + 2 sinx + 2 sin2x + c
x + 2 sinx + sin2x + c
( )
x − 2 + x x − 4 + 2 = 0, (x > 0) is equal to:

(4) 2x + sinx + sin2x + c (1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 4 (4) 10

70. The mean and variance of seven observations are 8 and 16, 81. If the tangents on the ellipse 4x2 + y2 = 8 at the points (1, 2)
respectively. If 5 of the observations are 2, 4, 10, 12, 14, and (a, b) are perpendicular to each other, then a2 is equal
then the product of the remaining two observations is : to :
(1) 45 (2) 49 (3) 48 (4) 40 128 64 4 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
71. The equation of a plane containing the line of intersection 17 17 17 17
of the planes 2x – y – 4 = 0 and y + 2z – 4 = 0 and passing 82. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation,
through the point (1, 1, 0) is : dy
(1) x – 3y – 2z = –2 (2) 2x – z = 2 (x2 + 1)2 + 2x(x2 + 1)y = 1 such that y(0) = 0. If
dx
(3) x – y – z = 0 (4) x + 3y + z = 4
p
72. The magnitude of the projection of the vector 2i + 3j + 
k a y(1) = , then the value of 'a' is :
32
on the vector perpendicular to the plane containing the
1 1 1
vectors i + j + 
k and i + 2j + 3
k , is : (1) (2)
4 2
(3) 1 (4)
16
3 3 83. The sum of all natural numbers 'n' such that 100 < n < 200
(1) (2) 6 (3) 3 6 (4) and H.C.F. (91, n) > 1 is :
2 2
(1) 3203 (2) 3303 (3) 3221 (4) 3121
73. The sum of the squares of the lengths of the chords
84. The length of the perpendicular from the point (2, –1, 4) on
intercepted on the circle, x2 + y2 = 16, by the lines, x + y = n,
x+3 y−2 z
nϵN, where N is the set of all natural numbers, is : the straight line, = = is :
(1) 320 (2) 105 (3) 160 (4) 210 10 −7 1
74. Let A and B be two non-null events such that A ⊂ B. Then, (1) greater than 3 but less than 4
which of the following statements is always correct? (2) less than 2
(1) P(A|B) = P(B) – P(A) (2) P(A|B) ≥ P(A) (3) greater than 2 but less than 3
(3) P(A|B) ≤ P(A) (4) P(A|B) = 1 (4) greater than 4
 200
85. A point on the straight line, 3x + 5y = 15 which is equidistant 1− x  2x 
from the coordinate axes will lie only in : 88. If f(x) = loge  , |x| < 1, then f  is equal to :
 1 + x   1 + x 2 
(1) 4th quadrant
(2) 1st quadrant (1) 2f(x) (2) 2f(x2)
(3) 1st and 2nd quadrants (3) (f(x))2 (4) –2f(x)
(4) 1st , 2nd and 4th quadrants 89. Let f : [0 : 2] → R be a twice differentiable function such
86. Let O(0, 0) and A(0, 1) be two fixed points. Then the locus that f ''(x) > 0, for all x∈(0, 2). If f(x) = f (x) + f (2 – x), then
of a point P such that the perimeter of ∆AOP is 4, is : f is :
(1) 8x2 – 9y2 + 9y = 18 (1) increasing on (0, 1) and decreasing on (1, 2).
(2) 9x2 – 8y2 + 8y = 16 (2) decreasing on (0, 2)
(3) 9x2 + 8y2 – 8y = 16 (3) decreasing on (0, 1) and increasing on (1, 2).
(4) 8x2 + 9y2 – 9y = 18 (4) increasing on (0, 2)
2
 −1  3 cos x + sin x    π dy 2 − x cos x
87. If 2y =  cot  90. If f ( x) = and g ( x) = log e x, (x > 0) then the
  , x ϵ  0, 2  then dx 2 + x cos x
  cos x − 3 sin x  
π
is equal to : 4
p p
(1) – x x–
(2) value of the integral ∫ g ( f ( x))dx is :
6 6 π
−
p p 4
(3) – x (4) 2x – (1) log
3 3 e3 (2) logee
(3) log
e2 (4) loge1