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ENERGY AUDIT QUESTION MODEL QUESTIONS 1
ENERGY AUDIT QUESTION MODEL QUESTIONS 1

ENERGY AUDIT QUESTION MODEL QUESTIONS

1

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004

FOR ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – EA1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

Date: 22.05.2004

Timings: 0930-1230 HRS

Duration: 3 HRS

Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:

o

Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages

o

Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions

o

The question paper is divided into three sections

o

All questions in all three sections are compulsory

o

All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I:

OBJECTIVE TYPE

Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i)

Answer all 50 questions

(ii)

Each question carries one mark

(iii)

Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1.

India’s share of the world’s total primary energy consumption in 2002 was

a)

2.1%

b) 3.5%

c) 5.4%

d) 10.6%

2.

The second major commercial energy consuming sector in the country is

a)

Industry

b) Agriculture

c) Residential

d) Transport

3.

Non-commercial energy is

a)

not available in the market

b) no definite price set

c) always traded for free

d)

always ignored in energy accounting

4.

If

Rs. 1 Crore = US$ 200,000, then the annual current oil import bill of India is around

a)

1.6 Billion US$

b) 12 Billion US$

c) 16 Billion US$

d) 4 Billion US$

5.

the total installed power capacity in India was 100,000 MW at the beginning of 2001 and is increased annually by 7%, then the installed capacity requirement 10 years later will be

If

a) 215,804 MW

b) 183,846 MW

c) 210,485 MW

d) 196,715 MW

6.

A person can do the following with solar energy

a) destroy it

b) convert it

c) create it

d) burn it

7.

Select the source of stored mechanical energy

a)

compressed spring

b) electricity

c) water stored in reservoir

d) coal

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

1

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

8.

The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 o C is known as

a)

sensible heat

b) specific heat

c) heat capacity

d) latent heat

9.

A

three phase induction motor is drawing 12 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating

power factor of the motor is 0.85 and the motor efficiency is 96%, then the mechanical shaft power output of the motor is

a)

7.46 kW

b) 7.77 kW

c) 5.3 kW

d) 23.4 kW

10.

The term missing in the following equation: Active Power = 1.732 x V x I x ?

a)

sin phi

b) cos phi

c) efficiency

d) a constant

11.

Electrical resistance is defined as

 

a)

Current/Voltage

b) Voltage x Current

c) Ohm x Voltage

d) Voltage/Current

12.

Energy management involves…

 

a)

combination of technical and managerial skills

b) managerial skills d) energy audit skills

c)

technical skills

13.

Water flow in pipes is measured by

 

a)

pitot tube

b) x-rays

c) doppler effect

d) electric fields

14.

The benchmark for energy performance parameter for air conditioning equipment is

a)

kW/kg of refrigerant handled

b) kW/ton of refrigeration

c)

kcal/m 3 of chilled water

d) kWh/ton of refrigeration

15.

One kWh of electricity is equivalent to how many heat units in Btu ?

a)

860

b) 3412

c) 746

d) 12000

16.

Matching energy usage to requirement means providing

a)

just theoretical energy needed

b) just the design needs d) less than what is needed

c)

energy with minimum losses

17.

In

a chemical process two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200 kg) are used. If

conversion is 50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product

formed is

 

a)

300 kg

b) 150

kg

c) 400 kg

d) 200 kg

18.

Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or system is know as

a)

mollier diagram

b) sankey diagram

c) psychrometric chart

d)

balance diagram

19.

Coal with 30% ash is fired in a boiler. Coal consumption is 50 tonnes on a specific day. Clinker is formed by 1% of the ash sticking to boiler tubes. How many tonnes of ash are going out of the boiler on this day.

a)

14.85

b) 15

c) 15.15

d) 13.5

20.

An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 15%. If the stochiometric air to fuel ratio is 14 and oil consumption is 1000 kg per hour and 50% of the flue gas is diverted to a dryer, then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler chimney in kg/ hour would be

a)

3,990

b) 14,010

c) 8,050

d) 7,650

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

2

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

21.

In

a force field analysis one of the indicators below is not considered a positive force

a)

high price of energy

b) energy efficient technology available

c)

salary of staff

d) lack of awareness

 

22.

Which of the following is least important of a good energy information system

a)

data accuracy

b) data relevance

c) data volume

d) data validation

23.

The first vital step in an energy management programme is

 

a)

top management commitment

b) measurements

c) setting goals

d)

energy audit

24.

A

public expression of an organization’s commitment on energy conservation is

a)

energy balance

b) energy policy

c) energy audit

d) energy savings

25.

What is not the duty of an energy manager

 

a)

conduct an energy audit

b) prepare an annual activity plan

c)

report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year

 

d)

prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy

26.

The factor that reflects best on the risk of the project while evaluating the present value of the expected future cash flow is

a)

life of project

b) fuel cost inflation

c) loan interest rate

d) discount rate

27.

A

sensitivity analysis is an assessment of

 

a)

cash flows

b) risks due to assumptions

c) capital investment

d)

best financing source

 

28.

The Return of Investment, ROI, is expressed as

 

a)

(first cost/first year benefits) x100

b) NPV/ IRR d) (annual net cash flow/capital cost) x100

c)

annual costs/capital cost

29.

The Net Present Value of a project at a discount rate of 16% with an investment of

Rs 50,000 at the beginning of the first year, and savings of Rs 23,000 and Rs 36,000

at the end of the first and second year, respectively is

 

a) 6,581

b) -246

c) 862

d) 3,419

30.

A sum of Rs 10,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays

6% interest annually. How much money is in the bank account at the end of the fifth

year, if no money is withdrawn?

 

a) 13,382

b) 12,625

c) 13,000

d) 10,937

31.

A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is

called

 

a)

performance contract

b) traditional contract

c)

extended technical guarantee contract

d)

guaranteed savings performance contract

 

32.

A

path is characterized by 4 parameters such as ES = earliest start time, EF= earliest

finish time, LF = latest finish time, LS = latest start time. A path is critical if

a)

ES=EF or EF=LF

b) ES=LS and EF=LF

 

c)

ES=LS or EF=LF

d) LF=EF and EF=LS

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

3

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

33.

The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 10 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is the plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?

a)

Rs 30.46 lakhs

b) Rs 26.32 lakhs

c) Rs 38.42 lakhs

d) none of the above

34.

In Project Management the critical path in the network is

 

a)

the quickest path

b) the shortest path

c) the path from start to finish

d)

the path where no activities have slack

 

35.

CPM in project management refers to

 

a)

critical periodic management

b) critical project monitoring

 

c)

critical path method

d) cost project management

36.

The major difference between CPM and PERT is

 

a) CPM provides graphic and PERT does not

 

b) CPM uses fixed time estimates while PERT uses several time estimates

c) CPM is an expansion of PERT

 

d) PERT is an expansion of CPM

37.

The calorific value of coal is 4000 kCal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 100 kg of coal if the calorific value of oil is 41,870 kJ/ kg

a)

40 kg

b) 56 kg

c) 52 kg

d) None of the above

38.

Fixed energy consumption can be determined from a

 

a)

bar chart

b) vertical line chart

c) pie chart

d) X Y coordinate system

39.

Energy consumed for the period is given as 110 kWh for 10 tons and 200 kWh for 20 tons of production. The fixed energy consumption in kWh is… (No graph is needed to arrive at correct answer).

a)

10

b) 40

c) 20

d) None of the above

40.

Large scattering on production versus energy consumption trend line indicates

a)

poor process control

b) many forced outages

 

c)

poor process monitoring

d) none of the above

41.

The ratio of energy consumption to corresponding production is called

a)

energy intensity

 

b) specific energy consumption

 

c)

production energy ratio

d) specific production ratio

42.

In

a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is horizontal, then

 

a)

nothing can be said

 

b) energy consumption is reduced

c)

specific energy consumption is increasing

d)

actual and calculated energy consumption are the same

 

43.

A

firm substitutes (replaces) expensive oil and starts firing wood in a boiler. The

following scenario is most likely

 

a)

higher fuel cost

 

b) better boiler efficiency

 

c)

higher energy consumption

d) less smoke in the stack

44.

Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an

IRR of 25% and NPV of 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing

is available and project technical life is the same?

 

a) B

b) A

c) cannot be decided

d) question does not make sense

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

4

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

45.

Which of the following is not a part of energy consumption monitoring

a)

data recording

b) data analysis

c)

data reporting

d) energy costing

46.

The commitment period for emission reductions of industrialized countries as per Kyoto protocol is

a)

since 2001

b) 2008 – 2012

c) there is none

d) 2012 -2022

47.

Global warming is mostly caused by emission of

 

a)

sulfur dioxide

b) carbon monoxide

c) carbon dioxide

d) methane

48.

Under the Kyoto Protocol India has to cut emissions by

 

a)

0%

b) + 8%

c) -8%

d) 12%

49.

The process under the Kyoto Protocol by which industrialized countries may invest into or buy certified emission reductions is called.

a)

cleaner development mechanism

b) clean development mechanism d) none of the above

c)

prototype carbon trading

 

50.

The ozone depletion process is due to

 

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b) UV light breaking the ozone

 

c)

Nitrogen

d) chlorine atoms destroying ozone molecules

-------- End of Section - I ---------

Section - II:

SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

(i)

Answer all Ten questions

(ii)

Each question carries Five marks

Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

S-1

Classify the types of energy available on earth.

S-2

List five forms of energy with examples.

S-3

A 10 kW rated motor has a full load efficiency of 85%. Actual input measurement at a particular loading shows 415 Volt, 10 Amps, and PF of 0.68. Find out the motor loading in percentage.

S-4

Explain the difference between specific heat and heat capacity.

S-5

Give any five bench marking parameters followed for either equipment or industrial production.

S-6

State definition of energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act

2001.

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

5

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

S-7

Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with one investment of Rs 50,000 at the beginning of the first year and a second investment of Rs 30,000 at the beginning of the second year and fuel cost savings of Rs 40,000 each in the second and third year. The discount rate is

16%.

S-8

In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 40 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 30 o C to 90 o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kg o C. How much steam per hour is needed? Latent heat of steam is 540 kcal/ kg.

S-9

Explain briefly PERT.

S-10

List at least 5 steps involved in CUSUM analysis.

-------- End of Section - II ---------

Section - III:

LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

 

(i)

Answer all Five questions

(ii)

Each question carries Ten marks

L-1

Explain the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency, and state one example where energy costs are reduced but energy consumption goes up.

L-2

A plant is using 4 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam. The calorific value of the coal is 4000 kcal/ kg. The cost of coal is Rs. 2,000/tonne. The plant substitutes coal with rice husks, as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of 3000 kcal/ kg and cost Rs. 700/tonne. Calculate the annual cost savings at 300 days of operation, assuming that the boiler efficiency decreases from 78% on coal to 72% on rice husks.

L-3

In a pumping system the motor operating efficiency is 90% and pump operating efficiency is 80%. The pump discharge flow is throttled causing 20% loss; moreover 28% are lost through friction in pipe fittings. The three phase motor operates at a power factor of 0.85, 440 Volt and 17 Ampere.

(I)

Calculate the water power available at the end of the piping system.

(II)

Calculate the overall system efficiency.

L-4

An investment of Rs 1 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the beginning of the year, which is also the date of first operation. Savings expected over 4 years are Rs. 10,000, Rs. 20,000, Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 35,000 respectively. Find out the Net Present Value at the end of the 4 th year, if the discount rate is 18%. Would you invest in this measure? Explain your decision.

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

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Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

L-5

Use CUMSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings for a 6 months period. For calculating total energy saving, average production can be taken as 4000 MT per month. Refer to field data given in table below.

Month

Actual SEC, kWh/MT

Predicted SEC, kWh/MT

Jan

252

265

Feb

238

265

Mar

287

300

Apr

287

265

May

359

310

Jun

276

265

-------- End of Section - III ---------

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

7

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004

FOR ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – EA1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

Date: 22.05.2004

Timings: 0930-1230 HRS

Duration: 3 HRS

Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:

o

Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages

o

Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions

o

The question paper is divided into three sections

o

All questions in all three sections are compulsory

o

All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I:

OBJECTIVE TYPE

Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i)

Answer all 50 questions

(ii)

Each question carries one mark

(iii)

Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1.

The global primary energy consumption in 2002 was equivalent to

 

a)

21,842 Mtoe

b) 15,360 Mtoe

c) 9,405 Mtoe

d) 12,396 Mtoe

2.

The sector with the lowest commercial energy consumption out of four major sectors in the country is

a)

Industry

b) Agriculture

c) Residential

d) Transport

3.

Non-commercial energy is

 

a)

not available in the market

c)

no definite price set

b) always traded for free d) always ignored in energy accounting

4.

If

Rs 1 Lakh = US$ 2,000, then the annual current oil import bill of India is around

a)

12 Billion US$

b) 1.6 Billion US$

c) 16 Billion US$

d) 4 Billion US$

5.

the total installed power capacity in India was 100,000 MW at the beginning of 2001 and is increased annually by 8% then the installed capacity requirement 10 years later will be

If

a) 215,312 MW

b) 215,892 MW

c) 183,846 MW

d) 210,485 MW

6.

A person can do the following with solar energy

 

a) destroy it

b) create it

c) burn it

d) harvest it

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

1

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

7.

Select the source of stored mechanical energy

 

a)

gas

b) electricity

c) compressed air

d) water stored in reservoir

8.

The viscosity of furnace oil

 

a) decreases with increasing temperature

 

b) decreases with decreasing temperature

c) increases with increasing temperature

 

d)

remains same

9.

A

three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating

power factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft power output of the motor is

a)

12.04 kW

b) 10.09 kW

c) 10.97 kW

d) None of the above

10.

The term missing in the following equation: Active Power = ? x V x I x cos phi

a)

kV

b) kW

c) efficiency

d) a constant

11.

Power factor (PF) is the ratio of

 

a)

active power/reactive power

b) apparent power/active power d) reactive power/active power

c)

active power/apparent power

12.

Energy manager should be well versed with

 

a)

managerial and technical skills

b) processing and technical skills d) energy audit skills

c)

managerial and commercial skills

13.

Carbon Dioxide measurement drawing the cold flue gas into a Fyrite kit is based on

a)

weight basis wet

b) volume basis dry

 

c)

volume basis wet

d) weight basis dry

14.

The benchmark for energy performance parameter for air conditioning equipment is

a)

kW/kg refrigeration

kWh/ton of refrigeration

b) kW/ton of refrigeration d) kcal/m 3 of chilled water

c)

15.

One kWh of electricity is equivalent to how many heat units in GJ

a)

0.0036

b) 0.036

c) 0.36

d) None of the above

16.

Matching energy usage to requirement means providing

 

a)

just theoretical energy needed

b) just the design needs d) energy with minimum losses

c)

less than what is needed

17.

In

a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If

conversion is 50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product

formed is.

 

a)

300 kg

b) 350 kg

c) 400 kg

d) 700 kg

18.

Energy supplied by combustion of fuel is equal to

 

a)

fuel mass x density

b) fuel mass x specific heat d) fuel mass x heat capacity

c)

fuel mass x calorific value

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

2

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

19.

Coal with 35% ash is fired in a boiler. Coal consumption is 70 tonnes on a specific day. Clinker is formed by 2% of the ash sticking to boiler tubes. How many tonnes of ash are going out of the boiler on this day.

a)

24.0

b) 24.5

c) 25.0

d) 25.5

20.

An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 25%. If the stochiometric air to fuel ratio is 14 and oil consumption is 400 kg per hour and 50% of the flue gas is diverted to a dryer, then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler chimney in kg/ hour would be

a)

6000 kg

b) 3934 kg

c) 3.237 ton

d) 3500 kg

21.

In

a force field analysis one of the indicators below is not considered a negative

force

 

a)

low price of energy

b) energy efficient technology available

c)

low salary of staff

d) insufficient financial resources

22.

Which of the following is least important in a good energy information system

a)

data availability

b) data relevance

c) data volume

d) data accuracy

23.

Which of the following is not a requirement for energy audit planning

a) feedback

 

b) publicity

c) metering

d) budgeting

24.

A public expression of an organization’s commitment on energy conservation is

a) energy balance

b) energy policy

c) energy audit

d) energy savings

25.

What is not the duty of an energy manager

 

a) prepare an annual activity plan

b) report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year

 

c) prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy

d) conduct an energy audit

26.

The factor that reflects best on the risk of the project while evaluating the present value of the expected future cash flow is

a)

life of project

b) fuel cost inflation

 

c)

discount rate

d) loan interest rate

27.

A

sensitivity analysis is an assessment of

 

a)

cash flows

b) risks due to assumptions

 

c)

capital investment

d) best financing source

28.

The sum of present values of all the cash flows associated with a project is called

a)

NPV

b) PV

c) Internal rate of return

d) return on investment

29.

The Net Present Value (in Rs.) of a project at a discount rate of 18% with an investment of Rs 70,000 at the beginning of the first year, and savings of Rs 55,000 and Rs 60,000 at the end of the first and second year, respectively is

a)

27,458

b) 28,091

c) 45,000

d) 19,701

30.

There are Rs 100,000 deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays 7% interest annually. How much money (in Rs.) is in the bank account at the end of the fifth year, if no money is withdrawn?

a)

131,080

b) 135,000

c) 140,255

d) None of the above

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

3

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

31.

A

contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is

called

 

a)

performance contract

b) guaranteed savings performance contract

c)

traditional contract

d) extended technical guarantee contract

32.

A

path is characterized by 4 parameters such as ES = earliest start time, EF=

earliest finish time, LF = latest finish time, LS = latest start time. A path is critical if

a)

ES=EF or EF=LF

b) ES=LS and EF=LF

 

c)

ES=LS or EF=LF

d) LF=EF and EF=LS

33.

The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 25 lakhs and accounts for 28% of the total annual energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is the plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?

a)

Rs 89 lakhs

b) Rs 98 lakhs

c) Rs 103 lakhs

d) None of the above

34.

In Project Management the critical path in the network is

 

a)

the path where no activities have slack

b) the quickest path d) the path from start to finish

c)

the shortest path

 

35.

CPM in project management refers to

 

a)

critical periodic management

b) critical project monitoring d) critical path method

 

c)

cost project management

36.

The major difference between CPM and PERT is

 

a)

CPM provides graphic and PERT does not

b) CPM is an expansion of PERT

c)

PERT is an expansion of CPM

 

d)

CPM uses fixed time estimates while PERT uses several time estimates

37.

The calorific value of coal is 3,200 kcal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 200 kg of coal if the calorific value of oil is 41,870 kJ/ kg

a)

64 kg

b) 62 kg

c) 66 kg

d) None of the above

38.

Fixed energy consumption can be determined from a

 

a)

bar chart

b) X Y coordinate system

c) vertical line chart

d) pie chart

39.

Energy consumed for the period is given as 110 kWh for 10 tons and 180 kWh for

20 tons of production. The fixed energy consumption in kWh is needed to arrive at correct answer).

(No graph is

a)

10

b) 20

c) 40

d) 30

40.

Large scattering on production versus energy consumption trend line indicates

a)

many forced outages

b) poor process monitoring d) none of the above

 

c)

poor process control

41.

What is the definition of specific energy consumption?

 

a)

energy input/rupee turnover

b) energy consumption per month d) none of the above

c)

energy cost/total cost

42.

In

a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is horizontal, then

 

a)

nothing can be said

b) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same

c)

energy consumption is reduced

d) specific energy consumption is going up

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

4

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

43.

A firm substitutes (replaces) expensive oil and starts firing wood in a boiler. The following scenario is most likely

a)

higher energy consumption

b) higher fuel cost d) less smoke in the stack

c)

better boiler efficiency

44.

Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an IRR of 25% and NPV of Rs. 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing is available and project technical life is the same?

a)

Neither A nor B

b) B

c) A

d) cannot be decided

45.

Which of the following is not a part of energy consumption monitoring

a)

data recording

b) data analysis

c) energy costing

d) data reporting

46.

The commitment period of industrialized countries for emission reductions as per Kyoto protocol is

a)

since 2001

d) there is none

c) 2008 – 2012

d) 2012 -2022

47.

Global warming is due to release of

 

a)

sulfur dioxide

b) greenhouse gases

c) free chlorine

d) ozone

48.

Under the Kyoto Protocol India has to cut emissions by

 

a)

+ 8%

b) -8%

c) 12%

d) 0%

49.

The process under the Kyoto Protocol by which industrialized countries may invest into or buy certified emission reductions is called.

a)

cleaner development mechanism

b) clean development mechanism d) none of the above

c)

prototype carbon trading

50.

The ozone depletion process is due to

 

a)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

UV light breaking the ozone

b) chlorine atoms destroying ozone molecules d) Nitrogen

-------- End of Section - I ---------

Section - II:

SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

(i)

Answer all Ten questions

(ii)

Each question carries Five marks

Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

S-1

Classify the types of energy available on earth.

S-2

Explain the importance of time of day tariff (TOD).

S-3

A 7.5 kW rated motor has a full load efficiency of 84%. Actual input measurement shows 415 Volt, 12 Amps, and PF of 0.83. Find out the motor loading in percent.

S-4

Explain the difference between latent heat of vaporization and super heat.

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

5

Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

S-5

Explain the significance of an energy policy in an organisation?

S-6

Classify energy conservation measures in financial terms such as costs and return.

S-7

Calculate the Net Present Value over a period of 3 years for a project with one investment of Rs 70,000 at the beginning of the first year and a second investment of Rs 40,000 at the beginning of the second year and fuel cost savings of Rs 70,000 each in the second and third year. The discount rate is

16%.

S-8

In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 80 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 35 o C to 85 o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kg o C. How much steam per hour is needed? Latent heat of steam is 540 kcal/ kg.

S-9

List at least four different types of contracts involved in project management.

S-10

What do you understand by CUSUM chart?

-------- End of Section - II ---------

Section - III:

LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

(i)

Answer all Five questions

(ii)

Each question carries Ten marks

Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

L-1

Explain the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency, and state one example where energy costs are reduced but energy consumption goes up.

L-2

A plant is using 6 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam. The calorific value of the coal is 4,500 kcal/ kg. The cost of coal is Rs. 1,600/tonne. The plant substitutes coal with rice husks, as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of 3000 kcal/ kg and cost Rs. 700/tonne. Calculate the annual cost savings at 280 days of operation, assuming that the boiler efficiency decreases from 82% on coal to 78% on rice husks.

L-3

In a pumping system the motor operating efficiency is 85% and pump operating efficiency is 75%. The pump discharge flow is throttled causing 18% loss; moreover 20% is lost through friction in pipe fittings. The three phase motor operates at a power factor of 0.82, 440 Volt and 20 Ampere.

(I)

Calculate the water power available at the end of the piping system.

(II)

Calculate the overall system efficiency.

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

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Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

L-4

An investment of Rs 1 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the beginning of the year, which is also the date of first operation. Savings expected over 4 years are Rs. 20,000, Rs. 30,000, Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 45,000 respectively. Find out the Net Present Value at the end of the 4 th year, if the discount rate is 22 %. Would you invest in this measure? Explain your decision.

L-5

Use CUMSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings for a 6 months period. For calculating total energy saving, average production can be taken as 4000 MT per month. Refer to field data given in table below.

Month

Actual SEC, kWh/MT

Predicted SEC, kWh/MT

Jan

252

265

Feb

238

265

Mar

287

265

Apr

285

260

May

255

260

Jun

245

265

-------- End of Section - III ---------

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

7

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set A

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004

FOR ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – EA2:

Energy Efficiency in Thermal Utilities

Date: 22.05.2004

Timings: 1400 - 1700 HRS

Duration: 3 HRS

Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:

o

Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages

o

Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions

o

The question paper is divided into three sections

o

All questions in all three sections are compulsory

o

All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE

Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i)

Answer all 50 questions

 

(ii)

 

Each question carries one mark

(iii)

Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1.

 

Excess air can be derived by measuring percentage of …

in flue gas

a)

CH 4

b) O 2

c) CO

d) N 2

2.

 

Which of the following fuel requires the largest amount of excess air for complete combustion?

a)

Furnace Oil

b) LDO

c) Coal

d) Natural Gas

3.

 

LPG consists of one of the following

 

a)

Methane

b) Iso-Octane

c) Hexane

d) Propane

4.

 

The limiting temperature to which the flue gases can be cooled is influenced by percentage of

a)

Carbon in fuel

b) Hydrogen in fuel

c) Sulphur in fuel

d) Ash in fuel

5.

 

Stoichiometric air to fuel ratio for burning one kg of Carbon is

 

a)

10.0

b) 11.6

c) 3.76

d) none of the above

6.

 

Which parameter of coal gives a rough estimate of Calorific Value

a)

Hydrogen

b) Fixed Carbon

c) Carbon

d) none of the above.

7.

 

A system in which the boiler operates with a FD and ID fan is called

a)

Natural draft

b) Forced draft

c) Induced draft

d) Balanced draft

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

1

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set A

8.

Steam generation in a boiler is 26 tonnes in 2 hours. Fuel consumption in the same period is 1 ton per hour. Continuous blow down is 10% of feed water input. The evaporation ratio is

a)

11.7

b) 12

c) 13

d) 26

9.

Suitable atomizing viscosity of fuel oil for use in LAP/MAP burners is

a)

300 Redwood Seconds-1

400 Redwood Seconds-1

b) 100 Redwood Seconds-1 d) 600 Redwood Seconds-1

c)

10.

The evaporation ratio in a fuel oil fired boiler was found to be 20 . This was mainly due to

a)

more feed water fed in

b) over capacity utilization of boiler d) none of the above

c)

low dryness of the generated steam

11.

The presence of silica in the boiler water causes

a)

steam carryover

b) corrosion

c) scale formation

d) none of the above

12.

Removal of dissolved gases from the boiler feed water is called

a)

degasification

b) deaeration

c) deoxidation

d) none of the above

13.

Enthalpy of evaporation of steam will be highest at

a)

2 kgs/cm 2

b) 8 kgs/cm 2

c) 12 kgs/cm 2

d) 20 kgs/cm 2

14.

Which of the following has the highest overall efficiency

a)

combined cycle

b) stand alone gas turbine d) extraction condensing turbine

c)

back pressure steam turbine

15.

Steam mains should be run with a falling slope of … in the direction of steam flow for effective line condensate drainage

a)

50 mm in 30 meteres

b) 125 mm in 30 metres

c)

250 mm in 30 metres

d) 350 mm in 30 metres

16.

Which of the following is not a property of ceramic fibre insulation?

a)

low thermal conductivity

b) light weight

c)

high heat capacity

d) thermal shock resistant

17.

Furnace wall heat loss does not depend on

 

a)

temperatures of external wall surfaces

b) velocity of air around the furnace d) stock to be heated.

c)

k-value

18.

Which of the steam traps operates on the principle of difference in density between steam and condensate

a)

thermostatic

b) inverted bucket

c) bi-metallic

d) none of the above

19.

Which property of ceramic coating influences energy savings in furnaces

a)

conductivity

b) convective heat transfer coefficient

c)

emissivity

d) coating thickness

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

2

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set A

20.

Heat loss through openings in furnaces is directly proportional to

a)

fourth power of furnace temperature

b) square of absolute furnace temperature

c)

absolute furnace temperature

d) fourth power of absolute furnace temperature

21.

Fluidized bed temperature exceeding 950 o C in a FBC boiler may result in

a)

over heating

b) ash fusion

c) melting of lime stones

d) ash carry over

22.

In

coal fired FBC boilers the percentage of bottom ash to the total ash is in the range

of

a)

20%

b) 60-70%

c) 30-40%

d) none of the above

23.

The difference between mean solid and mean gas velocity in FBC boiler is called

a) fluidization factor

b) slip velocity

c) settling velocity

d) none of the above

24.

A cycle which generates first electricity or mechanical power is called

a) bottoming cycle

b) topping cycle

c) combined cycle

d) cogeneration cycle

25.

Ceramic recuperators can withstand gas side temperature up to

a)

400 o C

b) 1300 o C

c) 1000 o C

d) 1700 o C

26.

Which among the following uses a working fluid for heat recovery

a)

heat pipe

b) recuperator

c) heat wheel

d) regenerator

27.

The device that upgrades a low temperature heat source to a high temperature sink is

called

 

a)

heat pipe

b) heat pump

c) plate heat exchanger

d) economizer

28.

The waste heat recovery equipment in a combustion system will be more economical when the exit flue gases are at a temperature of

a)

200 o C

b) 400 o C

c) 600 o C

d) 800 o C

29.

Recovery of heat from dryer exhaust air is a typical application of

a) waste heat recovery boiler

b) heat pump

c) heat wheel

d) economizer

30.

A three mm thick soot deposit on the heat transfer surface of a fire tube boiler can

cause an increase in fuel consumption of

a)

0.5%

b) 2.5%

c) 4.5%

d) none of the above

31.

The working media in a thermocompressor is

a)

electricity

b) compressed air

c) high temperature oil

d) steam

32.

Which of the following boiler has lowest permissible boiler drum TDS concentration

a)

low pressure water tube boiler

c)

lancashire boiler

b) fire tube boiler d) none of the above

33.

A

power plant which uses first a gas turbine followed by steam turbine for power

generation is called

 

a)

topping cycle

b) combined cycle

c) Brayton cycle

d) bottoming cycle

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

3

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set A

34.

The Gross Calorific Value of furnace oil, LSHS and LDO is of the order of

a)

30 MJ /kg.

b) 32 MJ / kg.

c) 40 MJ /kg.

d) 36 MJ / kg.

35.

Co-generation system is also known as

 

a)

reversible system

b) combined heat and power system

c)

re-generation system

d) Brayton system

 

36.

Which of the following loss component is the main contributor to total energy losses in an oil fired reheating furnace

a)

sensible heat loss in flue gas

c)

skin losses

b) loss due to evaporation of moisture in fuel d) heat loss through openings

37

Velocity of steam in a pipe does strongly depend on

 

a)

number of bends and valves in the pipe

b) specific volume of steam d) none of the above

c)

length of the pipe

38.

The major limitation of a metallic recuperator is

 

a) limitation of reduced life for handling high temperature

b) manufacturing difficulty of the required design

c) limitation of handling SO x , NO x gases.

 

d) none of the above

39.

Which of the following will not conserve energy in a furnace

 

a)

preheating combustion air

b) minimizing excess air

c)

charge preheating

d) addition of more burners

40.

Alumina is a ……

type of refractory.

a)

acid

b) basic

c) neutral

d) none of the above

41.

The equipment having the highest efficiency in case of conventional power plant is

a)

electric generator

b) cooling tower

c) steam or gas turbine

d) boiler

42.

Regenerators are widely used in

 

a)

glass melting furnaces

b) reheating furnaces

 

c)

baking ovens

d) heat treatment furnaces

43.

In a CFBC boiler the capture and recycling of bed materials is accomplished by

a)

bag filter

b) settling chamber

c) cyclone

d) scrubber system

44.

High emissivity coatings are most effective on

 

a)

inner surface of furnace

refrigeration pipings

b) outer surface of furnace d) none of the above

c)

45.

Which of the following does not contribute to steam savings

 

a) insulation of steam pipe lines

 

b) superheated steam for indirect process heating

 

c) providing dry steam for process

 

d) none of the above

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

4

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set A

46.

The efficiency of a typical FBC boiler would be around

 

a)

90%

b) 80%

c) 60%

d) 50%

47.

In FBC boiler the combustion is carried out at a temperature

 

a) closer to steam temperature

 

b) below ash fusion temperature of fuel used

 

c) at adiabatic combustion temperature

d) at and above ash fusion temperature

48.

The coefficient of thermal expansion of refractory material should be

a)

low

b) medium

c) high

d) very high

49.

The purpose of venting air from steam systems is because air is a

a)

insulator

b) good conductor

c) inert substance

d) dilutant

50.

Estimate the efficiency of a re-heating furnace, operating at 10 tonnes per hour and consuming furnace oil of 460 kg/hour for reheating the material from 40 o C to 1100 o C. Consider specific heat of material as 0.13 kCal/kg o C.

a)

25%

b) 30%

c) 35%

d) 40%

………

End of Section – I …….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

 

(i)

Answer all Ten questions

(ii)

Each question carries Five marks

S-1.

List all the elements of an Ultimate Chemical Analysis of coal. Which additional coal information is necessary for the calculation of boiler efficiency.

S-2.

A boiler operator is trying to reduce excess air level from 30% to 10% in a coal fired boiler. Describe what will most likely happen to the CO, CO 2 concentration as well as amount of unburnt carbon in the flue gas. Explain your answer!

S-3.

Explain why “blow down” is done in a boiler. List a disadvantage of blow down.

S-4.

What is the need for boiler feed water treatment?

S-5.

What happens to steam properties such as saturation temperature, enthalpy of evaporation, latent heat of steam, enthalpy of steam and specific volume of steam if the steam pressure is increased?

S-6.

How are SO 2 emissions controlled in a FBC boiler and describe the method.

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

5

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set A

S-7.

Match the following:

Cogeneration system

Typical range of heat to power ratio

a) Back pressure steam turbine

1) 4.0

- 14.3

b) Extraction-condensing steam turbine

2) 1.1 – 2.5

c) Gas turbine

3) 1.0 – 1.7

d) Combined cycle

4) 1.3 – 2.0

e) Reciprocating engine

5) 2.0 – 10.0

S-8.

Define the efficiency of a furnace and explain why furnace efficiencies are lower than boiler efficiencies. State measures to improve the efficiency of furnaces.

S-9.

Draw the appropriate curves and mark the point of most economical insulation thickness in a X – Y coordinate system where the Y-axis represents annual costs and X-axis represents the insulation thickness of a furnace.

S-10.

In a heat exchanger 90 o C hot water flows inside the tube. Hot combustion gas at 600 o C passes at the outside of the water tube. What is your best judgement about the surface temperature of the tube at the gas side? Explain!

…… End of Section II ……

Section – III:

LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

(i)

Answer all Five questions

(ii)

Each question carries Ten marks

Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

L-1.

Calculate

i)

The stoichiometric amount of combustion air required for the fuel whose composition is given below.

ii )

Calculate the NCV of the fuel based on the GCV of the fuel of 10,880 kcal/kg.

Fuel composition data

Constituents

% by weight

Carbon

85.9

Hydrogen

12

Oxygen

0.7

Nitrogen

0.5

Sulphur

0.5

H 2 O

0.35

Ash

0.05

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

6

L-2.

L-3.

L-4.

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set A

Explain the concept of a FBC boiler with a sketch. What are the major benefits of using a FBC boiler.

Calculate the annual financial loss from an opening in a reheating furnace which is 1m x 1m, assuming a factor for total radiation of 0.70. The furnace radiates at 1200°C, and is operated for 12 hours a day, 200 days per year. Fuel oil costs are Rs.14,000/- per tonne and the oil has a Calorific Value of 10,000 kcal/kg. Ignore ambient temperature.

A steam pipeline of 100 mm outer diameter is not insulated for 100 meters and supplying steam at 10 kg/cm 2 . Find out the annual fuel savings if the line is properly insulated with 65 mm insulating material. Assume 7000 hours/year of operation.

Given:

Boiler efficiency –

-

90%

Fuel Oil cost

Calorific Value of fuel oil - Surface temperature without insulation –

Rs.13,000/tonne

10,300 kcal/kg 180 o C

L-5.

Surface temperature after insulation – Ambient temperature –

75

30

o

o

C

C

Why is it advantageous to use steam at the lowest acceptable pressure in a process?

…… End of Section – III …….

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

7

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set B

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004

FOR ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – EA2:

Energy Efficiency in Thermal Utilities

 

Date: 22.05.2004

Timings: 1400 - 1700 HRS

Duration: 3 HRS

Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:

o

Please check that this question paper contains 6 printed pages

o

Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions

o

The question paper is divided into three sections

o

All questions in all three sections are compulsory

o

All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE

Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i)

Answer all 50 questions

(ii)

Each question carries one mark

(iii)

Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1.

Stoichiometric amount of Oxygen needed for complete combustion of 1kg of Methane is

a)

17.39 kg

b)

4 kg

c) 6 kg

d) none of the above

2.

In case of fuel oils, fuel density and specific heat are correlated as follows

a) lighter oils have higher specific heat

 

b) heavier oils have lower specific heat

c) lighter oils have lower specific heat

d) none of the above

3.

Identify the fuel among the four which has the highest specific gravity.

a)

Kerosene

b) LSHS

c) LDO

d) HSD

4.

Proximate analysis of coal determines the weight percentage of the following

a) Fixed carbon, volatile matter, moisture, ash

 

b) All solid and gaseous components

c) All solid and gaseous components except volatile matter

 

d) Fixed carbon and volatile matter only

 

5.

For complete combustion of 1 kg of furnace oil, the approximate theoretical amount of air required is

a)

14 kg

b) 15.5 kg

c) 21 kg

d) 10 kg

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

1

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set B

6.

Increased percentage of Carbon Monoxide and low percentage of Carbon Dioxide in the flue gas of boiler is an indicator of

a)

low excess air

b) very high excess air d) stochiometric combustion

c)

good control of pollutants

7.

Oxygen Percentage measurement in the flue gas by volume basis involves the use of

a)

ultrasonic probe

b) potassium oxide probe

 

c)

pitot tube

d) zirconium oxide probe

8.

An IBR steam boiler means any closed vessel exceeding … litres in capacity and which is expressively used for generating steam under pressure.

a)

18.75

b) 20.75

c) 22.75

d) 24.75

9.

Which of the following data is not required in a boiler efficiency evaluation by direct method

a)

steam flow

b) fuel flow

c)

feed water temperature

d) O 2 % in flue gas

10.

The recommended maximum TDS level in the boiler drum, that should be maintained for a high pressure water tube boiler with super heater is

a)

3000 – 3500 ppm

b) 2000 ppm d) It can be anything

 

c)

5000 ppm

11.

An oil fired boiler is operating at 5% O 2 in the flue gas. The percentage excess air supplied to the boiler is approximately

a)

15 %

b) 25 %

c) 31 %

d) 42 %

12.

A rise in the conductivity of boiler feed water indicates

 

a)

decrease in level of dissolved solids

increase in level of dissolved solids

b) greater purity of feed water d) none of the above

c)

13.

Removal of dissolved gases from boiler feed water is called

 

a)

Degasification

b) Deaeration

c) De-oxidation

d) None of the above

14.

Which type of steam will be ideal for indirect heat transfer in a heat exchanger?

a)

super heated steam

b) dry saturated steam

c)

wet steam

d) none of the above

15.

What type of steam is generally used for electrical power generation?

a)

high pressure steam with super heat

dry saturated steam with high pressure

b) dry saturated steam d) wet steam with very high pressure

c)

16.

The inverted bucket steam trap operates on the principle of

 

a)

temperature difference

b) density difference

c)

pressure difference

d) None of the above

17.

The normal velocities encountered in pipes for superheated steam is

a)

50-70 m/sec

b) 30-40 m/sec

c) 20-25 m/sec

d) 15-20 m/sec

Bureau of Energy Efficiency

2

Paper EA2 - Energy Auditor - Set B

18.

A steam trap is a device, which discharges

 

a) steam

b) dry steam

c) condensate

d) effluent

19.

Which of the following is used as insulation in low temperature applications

a)

ceramic fibre

b) calcium silicate

c) fibre glass

d) polystyrene

20.

The equipment used to remove dirt from steam lines before steam trap is

a)

vent

b) drain

c) strainer

d) by pass line

21.

Proper sizing of steam pipeline helps reducing

 

a)

steam pressure

b) steam temperature drop d) steam pressure drop

c)

dryness fraction of steam