PHARMACEUTICAL BIOCHEMISTRY

PRC BOARD EXAM REVIEW

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BASIC CHEMISTRY A. regulate the partial pressure of venous carbon
dioxide.
1. Which of the following characterizes exergonic reactions? B. carry fixed acid from the site of its elimination to the
A. Decreased entropy site of its production.
B. Increased enthalpy C. transport carbon dioxide from the site of its
C. Decreased enthalpy production to the site of its elimination.
D. Negative free energy change D. minimize the increase in hydrogen ion concentration
E. Positive free energy change that accompanies cellular acid production.
E. maximize the decrease in hydrogen ion concentration
2. What thermodynamic parameter is a measure of that accompanies alkali formation.
randomness or disorder in a system?
A. Entropy C. Free energy 12. All of the following function in buffer systems in the blood
B. Enthalpy D. Potential energy EXCEPT
E. Activation energy A. NaCl.
B. H2C03.
3. Atoms are isotopes of each other only if C. NaHCO3.
A. their nuclei contain the same number of neutrons. D. Na2HPO4.
B. their atomic numbers are the same, but their mass E. NaH2PO4.
numbers differ.
C. their mass numbers are the same, but their atomic 13. The buffer system most important in maintaining the
numbers differ. physiological pH of plasma is
D. one is a beta emitter, but the other is an alpha emitter. A. protein/proteinate
B. acetic acid/acetate
4. Which of the following substances is LEAST polar? C. carbonic acid/bicarbonate
A. Ethanol C. Palmitic acid D. phosphoric acid/phosphate
B. Cholesterol D. Glycocholic acid E. hydroxybutyric acid/hydroxybutyrate

5. Which of the ff. characterizes an asymmetric carbon? BICARBONATE/CO2

A. A carbon atom with four identical groups attached to it.
B. A carbon atom with four different groups attached to it. 14. Neutralization of acids by saliva results mainly from which
C. A carbon with at least one carboxyl and one amino of the following salivary contents?
group attached to it. A. Mucin
D. A carbon atom that has two heavy groups on one side B. Ammonia
and two light groups on the other. C. Carbonate
D. Bicarbonate
6. Which of the following compounds does NOT contain a E. Amino acids
high-energy bond?
A. ATP C. UDP-glucose 15. MOST of the CO2 in blood is combined as
B. Acetyl CoA D. Glucose-6-phosphate A. H2C03.
E. Phosphoenolypyruvate -
B. HCO 3.
C. CH3 –COOH.
7. Which of the following solutions has an osmotic pressure D. carbonic acid
different from all the others? E. carbaminohemoglobin.
A. 1 M glucose C. 1 M potassium nitrate
B. 1 M sodium chloride D. 1 N lithium iodide 16. The bicarbonate buffer system of the blood is very
E. 1 N hydrochloric acid efficient because
A. bicarbonate is rapidly excreted by the kidneys.
BUFFERS and pH B. bicarbonate is able to be stored in the tissue.
C. carbon dioxide is able to combine with hemoglobin
8. The Henderson-Hasselbach equations shows that D. carbon dioxide forms a stable combination with base.
A. dilution of a buffer increases its pH. E. carbon dioxide is rapidly eliminated through the lungs.
B. pH = pka when an acid is 0.1 N
C. pH = pka when an acid is half neutralized. 17. The normal blood bicarbonate-carbonic acid ratio is 20:1.
D. pH is independent of the dissociation constant of the A patient with a 10:1 ratio is in
acid A. compensated alkalosis.
B. compensated acidosis.
9. Which of the following represents the pH of a solution that C. uncompensated alkalosis.
has 10-5 M concentration of OH- ion? D. uncompensated acidosis.
A. 5 C. 9 E. none of the above. This patient’s ratio is within normal
B. 7 D. Determine only if the pKa is known. limits.
E. Determinable only if the base composition 18. Absence of which of the following blood enzymes
is known. drastically reduces blood CO2 carrying capacity?
A. Carbonic anhydrase
10. If the pH becomes lower than the isoelectric point of a B. Alkaline phosphatase
protein, then how will the protein respond in an C. Pyruvate carboxykinase
electrophoretic system? It will D. Histidine decarboxylase
A. become denatured. E. Serum glutamic-oxaloacetate transaminase
B. migrate to the negative pole.
C. migrate to the positive pole.
D. remain stationary and unchanged. PROTEINS
E. separate into its different monomeric forms.

11. A physiologic buffer functions to

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19. Removal of a molecule of water between the carboxyl
group of one amino acid and the amino group of a second
amino acid results in formation of a
A. zwitterion.
B. polypeptide.
C. peptide bond.
D. hydrogen bond.
E. glycosidic bond.
20. Which of the ff. BEST explains why proteins are able to
buffer physiologic solutions over a wide range of pH?
A. They are macromolecules of high molecular weight.
B. Contain many functional groups with differing pKs.
C. They have unique tertiary structures that sequester
hydrogen ions.
D. They have peptide bonds that are resistant to
hydrolysis.
21. Denaturation usually destroys all of the following bonds in
protein EXCEPT
A. hydrogen bonds.
B. covalent bonds.
C. hydrophobic bonds.
D. electrostatic bonds.
22. Which of the following is the best method for determining
the three-dimensional structure of protein?
A. Dialysis
B. Electrophoresis
C. X-ray diffraction
D. Ultracentrifugation
E. None of these
23. The AA that contributes to the 3o structure of a protein by
causing a bend when it occurs in the primary sequence is
A. leucine.
B. alanine.
C. proline.
D. tyrosine.
E. aspartic acid.
24. A mucin is which of the following types of proteins?
A. Simple protein
B. Phosphoprotein
C. Chromoprotein.
D. Nucleoprotein.
E. Glycoprotein.
25. How will a CHON respond in electrophoretic system,
should pH become lower than the isoelectric pt. of the
protein?
A. It will become denaturated.
B. It will migrate to the negative pole.
C. It will migrate to the positive pole.
D. It will remain stationary and unchanged.
E. It will separate into its different monomeric forms.
ENZYMES
26. Which of the following is true regarding enzymes?
A. Are not reusable
B. Are needed in large amounts
C. Catalyze endergonic reactions only
D. Increase the energy of activation of the reaction
E. Decrease the energy of activation of the reaction
27. The optimum pH for an enzyme is the
A. isoelectric point of the enzyme.
B. pH of most rapid reaction rate.
C. pH at which the enzyme is most soluble.
D. pH of most rapid denaturation of the enzyme
28. The Km value of an enzyme is numerically equal to
A. half the maximum velocity expressed in moles/liter.
B. velocity of a reaction divided by substrate
concentration.
C. substrate concentration in moles/liter necessary to
achieve half the maximum velocity of a reaction.
D. maximum velocity divided by half the substrate
concentration in moles necessary to achieve
maximum velocity.
29. In the relationship between the concentrations of
substrate and the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction,
the existence of a limited value (Vmax) of the reaction rate
is due primarily to the
A. exhaustion of the substrate supply.
B. saturation of the enzyme with substrate.
C. inhibition of the enzyme by the reaction products.
D. denaturation of the enzyme at higher substrate
concentrations.
E. balance between the increase in reaction rate with
increasing substrate concentrations and accelerated
destruction of the enzyme at higher substrate
concentrations.
30. If the presence of a specific compound, C, increases the
Km for an enzyme-substrate reaction, which of the
following would be true about that enzyme?
A. C would be a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
B. C would be a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
C. The velocity vs. [S] plot for the enzyme would be the
same with or without C.
D. With C present, the enzyme would convert substrate
to product faster.
E. With C present, it would take less substrate to drive
the reaction to half-maximum velocity than without C.
31. Protein kinase regulate the activities of key enzymes
through which of the following?
A. Oxidation C. Acetylation
B. Hydrolysis D. Phosphorylation
E. Dephosphorylation
32. ATP inhibits phosphofructokinase even though ATP also
is a substrate for the enzyme. Which of the following
types of inhibition BEST explains this phenomenon?
A. Allosteric C. Irreversible
B. Competitive D. Uncompetitive
E. Noncompetitive
33. Enzymes for electron transport reactions are most active
and concentrated in which of the following structures of
the animal cell?
A. Nuclei C. Microsomes
B. Lysosomes D. Mitochondria
E. All of the above
34. Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting
A. amylase C. phosphatase
B. enolase D. phosphorylase
35. Which of the following enzymes converts trypsinogen to
trypsin?
A. Enterokinase C. Secretin
B. Peptidase D. Pepsin
36. Two enzymes that have been postulated to play very
important roles in calcification are
A. enolase and phosphorylase.
B. alkaline phosphatase and catalase.
C. pyrophosphatase and carbonic anhydrase.
D. pyrophosphatase and alkaline phosphatase.
E. carbonic anhydrase and alkaline phosphatase.
37. Which of the following enzymes is essentially absent from
normal mammalian muscle?
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 A. Glucokinase 46. The physiologic importance of hemoglobin lies in its ability
B. Phosphorylase to combine
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase A. irreversibly with oxygen and CO2.
D. Glucose-6-phosphate isomerase B. reversibly with oxygen at the ferric heme prosthetic
E. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase group.
C. irreversibly with oxygen at the ferrous heme
38. Dental plaque arises primarily as a result of enzymatic prosthetic group.
reactions using which of the following? D. reversibly with oxygen at the ferrous heme prosthetic
A. Sucrose and lipid group.
B. Sucrose and saliva E. None of the above
C. Glucose and saliva
D. Glucose and protein 47. Which of the following is NOT a part of the hemoglobin
molecule?
39. Which of the following liver enzymes, absent from other A. Iron
tissues, gives the liver an advantage over other cells in B. Protein
taking up glucose after a meal? C. Magnesium
A. Glucokinase D. Histidine
B. Aldolase E. Pyrrole ring
C. Hexokinase
D. Enolase 48. Assuming that P50 = 26 torrs, under conditions where pO2
E. Glucose-6-phosphatase = 30 torrs, the average number of O2 molecules bound
per hemoglobin molecule is closest to
COLLAGEN A. 0.5.
B. less than 1.
40. The most abundant protein (by weight) in which the C. almost 2.
human body is D. greater than 2.
A. elastin. C. albumin E. greater than 3.
B. keratin. D. collagen.
E. chondroitin. 49. The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen diminishes as which
of the following is decreased?
41. Alpha-ketoglutarate, oxygen, and ascorbic acid are A. pH
essential for which of the following processes? B. CO2
A. Incorporation of proline C. Temperature
B. Hydroxylation of proline D. Hydrogen ion concentration
C. Gamma-carboxylation of proline E. 2, 3 bisphosphoglyceric acid (BPG)
D. Oxidative deamination of lysine
E. Activation of procollagen peptidase 50. The consequence of appreciable conversion of
hemoglobin to methemoglobin is
42. Which of the following statements concerning collagen is A. a significant increase in carbon dioxide combining
INCORRECT? power.
A. Collagen has a trihelical structure. B. a significant decrease in carbon dioxide combining
B. The molecular weight of collagen is above 100,000 power.
C. Hydroxyproline is incorporated into the molecule by C. no effect on the ability of blood to pick up oxygen.
tRNA. D. a noticeable increase in the ability of blood to pick up
D. Destruction of collagen can be caused by oxygen.
collagenases. E. a noticeable decrease in the ability of blood to
E. Collagen contains both hydroxyproline and transport oxygen.
hydroxylysine residues.
51. Compared with hemoglobin A, the substitution of a valine
43. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine during collagen for a glutamic acid residue in hemoglobin S results from
biosynthesis occurs A. a genetic mutation
A. after translation. B. irradiation of hemoglobin A.
B. in the mitochondrial matrix. C. proteolytic action in the liver.
C. before formation of their respective amino acyl- D. exposure to low oxygen tension.
tRNA’s.
D. while proline or lysine is bound to the peptidyl (P) site PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
on the ribosome.
52. The process by which genetic information flows from RNA
44. The major protein produced by the odontoblast and to protein is
contained in the organic matrix of dentin is A. mutation. C. translation
A. chitin. C. elastin B. replication. D. transcription.
B. keratin. D. collagen.
E. cellulose. 53. Which of the following enzymes or processes ensures
that the correct amino acid is incorporated for a particular
45. Which of the following do elastin and collagen have in codon during protein synthesis?
common?
A. Easily stretched A. Amino Acyl-tRNA synthetase
B. Absence of proline B. Ribosomal protein synthesis
C. Disulfide crosslinking C. Post-transcription splicing
D. Triple helix structure D. RNA synthetase
E. About one-third glycine E. Helicase
HEMOGLOBIN

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54. Polyuridylic acid in a cell-free system capable of protein 63. What linkages occur in glycogen at branch points
synthesis results in production of polyphenylalanine. In between glucose units?
this system, polyuridylic acid functions as A. Aplpha-1,4
A. DNA. B. Alpha-1,6
B. transfer RNA. C. Beta-1,3
C. messenger RNA. D. Beta-1,4
D. ribosomal RNA. E. Beta-1,6
E. mitochondrial RNA.
64. How many anomeric carbons are present in a fructose
55. The termination of synthesis of a polypeptide is believed molecule?
to involve A. 0
A. nonsense codons. B. 1
B. anticodon-codon interaction. C. 2
C. tRNA which cannot bind amino acids. D. 5
D. hydrolysis of messenger RNA. E. 6
E. none of the above.
65. Carbohydrate is stored in the body principally as
56. In prokaryotic protein synthesis, the elongation factor G A. glucose.
serves to B. maltose.
A. form the initiation complex. C. sucrose.
B. facilitate the binding of Fmet tRNA. D. glycogen.
C. translocate the growing peptide chain and to move E. glycosaminoglycans.
the ribosome along the mRNA.
D. prevent the larger ribosomal subunits from binding 66. Which of the following molecule features contributes to
with those that are smaller. the water-binding properties of proteoglycans?
A. The carboxyl groups acting as buffers
57. Streptomycin is an antibiotic which inhibits the process of B. Central hyaluronate (a helix) trapping water within
A. translation in eukaryotes. C. The space between the core proteins and the
B. translation in prokaryotes. hyaluronate being highly charged.
C. transcription in eukaryotes. D. The large number of alcohol groups on the
D. transcription in prokaryotes. polysaccharide chaining H-bond to water.
E. DNA replication in prokaryotes. E. The large number of serine and theronine residues in
the core protein offering H-bonding sites.
58. Each of the following represents an amino acid found in
proteins and used directly in the reactions of protein 67. Which of the following functions as part of the
synthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? extracellular matrix?
A. Proline A. Mucin
B. Arginine B. Heparin
C. Tryptophan C. Collaginase
D. Asparagine D. Chondroitin sulfate
E. Hydroxylysine E. Dolichol phosphate

CARBOHYDRATES 68. Each of the following is a glycosaminoglycan EXCEPT

one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
59. Hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase yields A. Chondroitin sulfate
A. glucose only. B. Dermatan sulfate
B. glucose and maltose. C. Hyaluronic acid
C. glucose and fructose. D. Heparan sulfate
D. glucose and galactose. E. Keratin
E. fructose and maltose.
69. Glycosaminoglycans function as important structural
60. The arrangement of sugars into D- and L- configurations components of
is based upon their resemblance to D- and L- A. glycogen.
A. glycine. B. nucleic acids.
B. glucose. C. hyaluronidase.
C. fructose. D. connective tissue.
D. glyceraldehyde.
E. None of the above 70. The carbohydrate in highest concentration in resting
muscle is
61. Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide? A. glucose.
A. Amylose B. lactose.
B. Glucose C. sucrose.
C. Fructose D. glycogen.
D. Glyceraldehyde E. inositol.
E. Glucuronic acid
71. The most biologically important physiochemical property of
62. Some carbohydrates convert Cu2+ ions to Cu+ ions. This connective tissue which is regulated by its
property is related to their ability to act as mucopolysaccharide molecules is
A. a reducing agent. A. viscosity.
B. an oxidizing agent. B. buffering capacity.
C. both a reducing agent and an oxidizing agent. C. solubility in dilute acides.
D. neither a reducing agent nor an oxidizing agent. D. supersaturation with calcium ions.
NUCLEIC ACIDS (N.A.)

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 82. DNA damage by ultraviolet light is due to
72. Which of the following is a pyrimidine base that is present
in RNA but is NOT present in DNA? A. alkylation of the guanine in DNA.
A. Uracil C. Thymine B. excessive unwinding of the DNA molecule
B. Guanine D. Adenine C. frequent replacement in the DNA molecule of purines
E. Cytosine by pyrimidines.
D. induction of dimerization by way of covalent bonds
73. Which of the ff. bonds link the monomeric units of N.A.? between adjacent thymine groups.
A. Ionic C. Thioester
B. Peptide D. Glycosidic 83. Each of the following is involved in gene cloning EXCEPT
E. Phosphodiester one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

74. In the DNA molecule, guanine on 1 strand is joined to A. DNA ligase C. DNA polymerase I
cytosine on the complementary strand by which of the B. RNA polymerase D. Restriction nucleases
following bonds? E. Reverse transcriptase
A. Amide C. 2 hydrogen
B. 1 hydrogen D. 3 hydrogen 84. Plasmid vectors suitable for cloning have which of the
E. Phosphodiester following characteristics?

75. As DNA is denatured, each of the following events take A. Must be able to replicate synchronously with the host
place EXCEPT one. Which event is this EXCEPTION? chromosome
A. Total G-C content of total DNA increasing B. Several unique recognition sequences for one
B. UV light absorption increasing restriction enzyme
C. Complementary strands becoming random coils C. Two genes conferring resistance to different antibiotics
D. Base stacking becoming disrupted D. Large size to facilitate plasmid’s entry into cells
E. Hydrogen bond breaking
85. The polymerase chain reaction is MOST useful for which
76. Which of the following are NOT produced by the of the following?
hydrolysis of nucleic acids?
A. Pentoses C. Amino acids A. Preparing enzymes that synthesize nucleic acids
B. Phosphates D. Purine bases B. Isolating the genome of an organism
E. Pyrimidine bases C. Amplifying a specific DNA sequence
D. Separating polyclonal antibodies
77. The fxn of which of the following types of nucleic acid is to E. Synthesizing RNA and DNA
activate and select specific amino acids for protein
synthesis? LIPIDS
A. rRNA C. cDNA
B. mRNA D. tRNA 86. Which of the following is LEAST descriptive of lipids?
E. hnRNA A. Nonpolar C. Amphipathic
B. Carbon-containing D. Hydrophilic
78. If the molar percentage of A (adenine) in a native DNA
specimen is 22%, then what is the molar content of G 87. Which of the following substances represents an
(guanine)? unsaturated fatty acid?
A. 22% C. 44% A. Cholesterol C. Stearate
B. 28% D. 56% B. Palmitate D. Choline
E. 78% E. Oleate

79. The degenerate nature of the genetic code implies 88. Upon complete hydrogenation, oleic, linoleic and linolenic
A. a common tRNA for at least two amino acids. acids yield
B. that a remarkable degree of inaccuracy occurs in A. stearic acid. C. palmitoleic acid.
transcription. B. myristic acid. D. arachidonic acid.
C. the existence of multiple codons for each amino acid. E. multiple acetate fragments.
D. the existence of multiple species of ribosomes for
control of messenger translation. 89. Which of the following classes of steroids contain 18
carbons and an aromatic ring?
NUCLEIC ACIDS (Continued) A. Estrogens C. Progestagens
B. Androgens D. Glucocorticoids
80. Transcription is the cellular process of making E. Mineralocorticoids
A. new DNA.
B. RNA from DNA. 90. Gangliosides are glycolipids found on various cell
C. proteins from amino acids by way of RNA. surfaces. In addition to sphinogosine, their unit
D. none of the above. composition contains another characteristic component.
This component is
81. Which of the following is true of the Tm (melting A. uronic acid. C. triglyceride
temperature) of a given DNA double helix? B. plasmalogen. D. N-acetylmuramic acid.
A. Is a function of the base composition E. N-acetylneuraminic acid.
B. Can be used to accurately predict its molecular
weight 91. Neutral fats contain mixtures of one or more fatty acids
C. Can be measured by observing the change in esterified with
chemical composition A. sterol. C. lecithin.
D. Is higher if individual strands of the DNA double helix B. glycerol D. sphinogosine.
are parallel rather than antiparallel E. R-OH of high molecular w.t.

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92. In addition to phosphoric acid, which of the following are 100. Which of the following is MOST often associated with
the products of hydrolysis of lecithin? free fatty acid transport in human blood?
A. Glycerol, fatty acids, serine A. Albumin
B. Glycerol, fatty acids, choline B. Globulin
C. Sphingosine, acetic acid, inositol C. Cholesterol
D. Glyceraldehyde, fatty acids, choline D. Sphingolipid
E. Glyceraldehyde, fatty acids, ethanolamine E. Mucopolysaccharide

93. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid? 101. Triglyceride absorbed into the lymphatic system is
A. Acetic C. Myristic transported to the liver as which of the following?
B. Stearic D. Palmitic A. Very low density lipoprotein
E. Arachidonic B. Low density lipoprotein
C. Chylomicrons
94. Carbon dioxide or bicarbonate is required in the D. Liposomes
biosynthesis of fatty acids because E. Micelles
A. the bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system is very
efficient at the pH optimum of this sensitive enzyme 102. Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in
system. the biosynthesis of cholesterol?
B. bicarbonate is a positive effector for this system and A. Squalene
favorably alters the conformation of its enzymes. B. Hexosamine
C. carbon dioxide is incorporated into acetyl coenzyme A C. Cholic acid
forming malonyl coenzyme A, an intermediate in the D. Pregnanediol
synthetic process. E. Deoxycholic acid
D. carbon dioxide is incorporated into carbamyl
phosphate, a reactive intermediate in the synthetic MEMBRANES
process.
E. carbon dioxide provides an anaerobic environment 103. The major lipids that make up the cell membrane are
that prevents oxidation of the sulfhydryl groups in the A. triglycerides.
reactive sites of the enzyme system. B. sphingomyelins.
C. phospholipids.
95. The enzyme catalyzing the rate-controlling step in the de D. fatty acids.
novo synthesis of fatty acids is regulated allosterically by E. steroids.
the positive modulator
A. ATP. 104. The most abundant nonphospholipid component of the
B. NADPH. cell membrane is
C. Citrate. A. cholesterol. C. prostaglandin
D. cyclic AMP. B. deoxycholate. D. macroglobulin.
E. oxaloacetate. E. triacylglyceride.

96. The pathway of extramitochondrial synthesis of even- 105. Each of the following lipid classes is incorporated into
numbered fatty acids differs from that of the catabolism of membranes EXCEPT one. Which one is this
fatty acids in that EXCEPTION?
A. malonyl CoA is an intermediate in synthesis. A. Cholesterol C. Triglyceride
B. acyl carrier protein is needed in catabolism. B. Ganglioside D. Sphingomyelin
C. no flavoprotein enzymes are required for catabolism. E. Phosphatidylcholine
D. propionyl CoA may serve as an intermediate in
synthesis. 106. Which of the following represents a polyunsaturated fatty
acid that is commonly found in animal cell membranes?
97. Beta oxidation of a mole of an 18 carbon fatty acid under A. Oleic C. Sialic
physiologic conditions produces B. Lactic D. Stearic
A. one mole of acetic acid. E. Linoleic
B. nine moles of acetyl CoA.
C. nine moles of acetic acid. 107. The fluid-mosaic model for membrane structure proposes
D. one mole of acetoacetic acid. that
E. one mole of hydroxybutyric acid. A. the outer and inner faces of the membrane are
identical.
98. Sodium taurocholate and glycocholate are necessary for B. peripheral proteins are situated only on the outer face
the absorption of of the plasma membrane.
A. sucrose. C. integral proteins are associated with the hydrophobic
B. glycerol. phase of the bilayer.
C. amino acids. D. both polar and nonpolar ends of membrane
D. fatty acids. phospholipids are within the hydrophobic phase of the
E. nucleic acids. bilayer.

99. After functioning in the small intestines, the largest portion 108. The major driving force for formation of a lipid micelle is
of bile salts are A. protein-lipid interaction.
A. excreted in the feces. B. hydrophobic interaction between hydrocarbon tails.
B. reabsorbed into the central lacteal. C. hydrogen bonding between water molecules of the
C. destroyed by bacteria in the large intestines. micellar core.
D. reabsorbed into the portal circulation and reused. D. electrostatic interaction between the micellar core
E. removed from the circulation by the kidneys and and polar heads.
excreted in the urine.

6
109. Which of the following molecules would likely form a 119. Enzymes that catalyze the anaerobic processes of
micelle when mixed with water and agitated? carbohydrate metabolism are found predominantly in
A. Serine C. Phospholipid which part of a cell?
B. Glycerol D. Triglyceride A. Cytoplasm
B. Membrane
110. The rapid movement of a substance across a biologic C. Cell wall
membrane against a concentration gradient requires D. Nucleus
A. that the substance be negatively charged. E. Mitochondria
B. participation of an energy-requiring active transport
system. 120. Cyclic 3’, 5’-AMP increases the rate of glycogenolysis by
C. that the substance be readily soluble in the lipid A. promoting the formation of a phosphorylated form of
barrier of the membrane. glycogen phosphorylase.
D. that the substance be carried across the membrane B. serving as a substrate for glycogen phosphorylase.
by rapid influx of the solvent. C. serving as a precursor of 5’ AMP which is a cofactor
E. facilitated diffusion of the substance aided by some for glycogen phosphorylase.
binding system in the membrane D. furnishing phosphate for the phosphorolysis of
glycogen.
111. Mediated (facilitated) diffusion of substances across cell
membranes differs from simple diffusion in that mediated 121. Consider the conversion: alanine – lactic acid – glucose.
diffusion This is an example of
A. requires ATP. A. glycolysis.
B. requires another solute. B. glycogenolysis.
C. is a one-directional process. C. gluconeogenesis.
D. exhibits saturation kinetics. D. synthesis of glycerol.

112. Which of the following features distinguishes active 122. Energy for ATP synthesis is derived from the electron
transport from facilitated diffusion? transport system by which of the following processes?
A. Specificity C. Requires metabolic energy A. Transamination
B. Carrier-mediated D. Incidence of a transport max. B. Aldolization
C. Reductive synthesis
METABOLISM D. Oxidative deamination
E. Oxidative phosphorylation
113. Reactions that have unfavorable energetics (i.e., + ∆G 0)
which of the following processes? 123. The chemical energy generated by mitochondrial
A. Coupling C. Modification electron transport results from which of the following?
B. Allosterism D. Microscopic reversibility A. Excess H+ in the matrix
B. An H+ gradient across the inner membrane
114. A common intermediate of metabolism of carbohydrates, C. The formation of thioesters in the matrix
fatty acids and amino acids is D. A conformational change in the inner membrane
A. glycerol. C. acetoacetate.
B. acetyl CoA. D. oxaloacetate. 124. Functions of the hexose monophosphate shunt include
E. acetylcholine. the production of
(1) NADP for lactate oxidation.
115. A number of catabolic pathways are allosterically (2) NADPH for fatty acid synthesis.
inhibited by an increase in the concentration of which of (3) glucuronic acid for heparin synthesis.
the following? (4) D-ribose for nucleic acid synthesis.
A. ADP C. ATP (5) ATP for anaerobic muscle contraction.
B. AMP D. NAD+
E. Pyruvate A. (1), (3), and (5) C. (2), (3), and (5)
B. (1) and (4) D. (2) and (4)
116. In the glycolytic sequence, the enzyme that brings about E. (3) only
the transition from 6-carbon metabolites to 3-carbon
metabolites is 125. Which of the following represents the chemical
A. phosphoglucoisomerase. C. phosphorylase substance that is the immediate source of energy for
B. phosphofructokinase. D. hexokinase. muscle contraction?
E. aldolase. A. Glycogen C. Lactic acid
B. Acetyl CoA D. Creatine phosphate
117. Under strict anaerobic conditions, the catabolism of one E. Adenosine triphosphate
glucose molecule would yield a net of
A. 2 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules. 126. The tricarboxylic acid cycle is initiated by the
B. 4 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules. condensation of which of the following two molecules?
C. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules. A. Pyruvate and malate
D. 4 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules. B. NAD+ and oxaloacetate
C. NAD+ and oxalosuccinate
118. Muscle glycogen does not yield blood glucose directly but D. Acetyl coenzyme A and oxaloacetate
liver glycogen does because E. Acetyl coenzyme A and oxalosuccinate
A. hexokinase is not present in liver.
B. muscle cells are impermeable to glucose. 127. Enzymes concerned w/ the citric acid cycle are found in;
C. muscle does not contain phosphoglucomutase. A. nucleus. C. mitochondria
D. muscle glycogen differs in structure from liver B. ribosomes. D. nonparticulate cytoplasm.
glycogen. E. None of the above
E. glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in muscle.

7
128. Acids found in the citric acid (Krebs) cycle are
A. glutamic acid and succinic acid.
B. glucuronic acid and aspartic acid.
C. oxaloacetic acid and aspartic acid.
D. oxaloacetic acid and pyruvic acid.
E. oxaloacetic acid and α-ketoglutaric acid.
129. If protein is catabolized for energy, then MOST of the
energy is derived from which of the following?
A. Urea production
B. Oxidative deamination
C. Transamination reactions
D. Cleavage of peptide bonds
E. Oxidation of α-keto acids derived from amino acids.
130. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the
catabolism of many amino acids?
A. Formation of a dipeptide with glutamate
B. Conjugation of the alpha amino to glucuronate
C. Transamination of the alpha amino to a keto acid
D. Conjugation of the alpha carboxyl group to
glucuronate
E. Decarboxylation of the alpha carboxyl group to form
a primary amine
131. Which of the following statements is NOT true about
ammonia and the α-amino group of amino acids?
A. NH+4 is formed from glutamine in the kidney.
B. The amino group in carbamyl phosphate is directly
donated by aspartate in a transamination reaction.
C. Cellular levels of ammonia must be maintained at low
concentrations because of its toxicity.
D. Glutamate dehydrogenase can catalyze the formation
of glutamate from ammonia and α-ketoglutarate using
NADPH as a cofactor.
138. The ketone body acetoacetate is synthesizedinside
mitochondria of hepatocytes by
A. carboxylation of pyruvic acid.
B. transamination of aspartic acid.
C. cleavage of β-hydroxy- β-methylglutaryl CoA.
D. oxidative decarboxylation of α-ketoglutarate.
E. oxidation of L-β-hydroxybutyrate followed by
deacylation.
139. The final step in the complete metabolism of fat is
carried out by means of
A. anaerobic glycolysis.
B. the tricarboxylic acid cycle.
C. the reductive fixation of CO2.
D. the hexose monophosphate shunt.
E. the Krebs-Henseleit (urea) cycle.
140. Mobilization of fat stored in adipocytes involves
A. activation of fatty acids by synthesis of acyl CoA.
B. rearrangement of fatty acids in triglycerides.
C. phosphorylation of glycerol at the expense of ATP.
D. activation of triglyceride lipase by ADP.
E. activation of triglyceride lipase by a cAMP dependent
protein kinase.
141. How do inadequate insulin levels, such as those which
occur in diabetes mellitus, affect fat metabolism?
A. Glucose utilization is increased.
B. Utilization of fat for energy is increased.
C. Storage of cholesterol by the Kupffer cells is
increased.
D. Level of beta-hydroxybutyric acid in the urine is
depressed.

132. The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is due 142. Prostaglandins are made within cells
principally to the level of which of the following? A. on an RNA template.
A. Urea C. Creatine B. on rough endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Ammonia D. Arginine C. from methionine.
E. Uric acid D. from progesterone.
E. from polyunsaturated fatty acids.
133. What is the product P in the following reaction?
α-ketoglutarate + alanine = pyruvate + P 143. The metabolite, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is derived
A. Glutamate C. Aspartate MOST immediately from
B. Glutamine D. Succinate A. ergosterol.
E. Pyridoxine phosphate B. cholesterol.
C. 7-dehydro-sitosterol.
134. Which of the following tissues is primarily responsible for D. 7-dehydro-cholesterol.
formation of urea? E. 22-dihydro-ergosterol.
A. Liver C. Kidney
B. Brain D. Muscle 144. Which of the following is necessary for de novo
synthesis of cholesterol?
135. After prolonged acidosis, which of the following A. NAD+ C. NADP+
represents the nitrogenous product that is excreted in B. NADH D. NADPH
high amounts in the urine? E. FADH2
A. Urea C. Uric acid
B. Ammonia D. Creatinine 145. Most endogenous cholesterol in the liver is usually
E. Aspartic acid converted into which of the following?
A. Glucose C. Cholic acid
136. Excessive utilization of fats by the body as a source of B. Steroids D. Oxaloacetate
energy during disturbances in carbohydrate metabolism E. Ketone bodies
can lead to all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A. ketosis. C. ketonuria. 146. Ribose phosphate needed for nucleic acid synthesis can
B. acidosis D. alkalosis. be derived from
A. gluconeogenesis.
137. In relative insulin insufficiency, acetyl CoA is usually B. the pentose phosphate pathway.
channeled into C. the Krebs’ tricarboxylic acid cycle.
A. ketone-body formation. C. fatty-acid synthesis. D. decarboxylation of aromatic amino acids.
B. cholesterol synthesis. D. gluconeogenesis. E. one-carbon transfer from tetrahydrofolate
E. the Krebs cycle derivatives.

8
147. Purine ribonucleoside phosphates are all synthesized de 159. Which of the following is required for vitamin D3
novo from the common intermediate synthesis?
A. inosine phosphate. C. adenosine phosphate. A. Decarboxylation in the liver
B. guanosine phosphate. D. guanosine diphosphate. B. UV activation of precursors in skin
E. deoxyadenosine PO4. C. Metabolism by gut bacteria
D. Deamination in the kidney
148. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the formation
of uric acid from purines? 160. Hydroxylation at the 1 position of 25-
A. Urease C. Xanthine oxidase hydroxycholecalciferol occurs primarily in the
B. Uricase D. Aspartate transcarbamoylase A. skin. C. kidney.
E. Carbamoyl-phosphate B. liver. D. intestinal mucosa.
synthetase
161. Vitamin A functions to
149. Which of the ff. is a source of transferable methyl groups A. prevent pellagra.
in metabolism? B. promote absorption of calcium.
A. Valine C. Leucine C. promote differentiation of epithelial cells.
B. Choline D. Isoleucine D. maintain the integrity of connective tissues.

150. Coenzyme A participates in 162. A deficiency of vitamin A in a developing tooth most likely
A. formylation. C. methionine activation. affects the
B. protein synthesis. D. activation of carboxyl grps. A. pulp.
B. enamel.
151. Tay-Sach disease is associated with an inborn error of C. dentin.
metabolism involving a specific enzyme which normally D. cementum.
degrades a particular molecule in the gray matter. This
enzyme acts on which of the following? 163. The effect of a vitamin C deficiency on the developing
A. Polysaccharides C. Gangliosides tooth is primarily on the calcification of dentin and
B. Acylglycerols D. Fatty acids cementum. This can best be explained by which of the
E. Proteins following statements?
A. This does happen, but the reason is obscure.
152. Glucosuria with hyperglycemia usually occurs in which B. Dentin is the most sensitive tissue in the body to a
of the following? vitamin C deficiency.
A. Pellagra C. Diabetes mellitus C. Vitamin C influences the formation of collagen, the
B. Addison’s disease D. Diabetes insipidus organic matrix found in dentin and cementum.
E. Parkinson’s disease D. Vitamin C has metabolic interrelations with other
VITAMINS vitamins that have a greater influence on dentin and
cementum than on enamel.
153. Which of the following is a vitamin? E. The vascular system is more important to these
A. Adenine C. Xanthine tissues than to enamel and, in an avitaminosis C, the
B. Inosine D. Thyroxin vascular system is subject to hemorrhage.
E. Pyridoxine
164. Which of the following is a function of vitamin B 6
154. The general reaction for the transfer of a “one-carbon (pyrodoxal phosphate)?
fragment” requires the coenzyme A. Prevents pernicious anemia
A. pyridoxal phosphate. B. Allows adaptation to dim light
B. tetrahydrofolic acid. C. Acts as coenzyme in transamination reaction
C. thiamine pyrophosphate. D. Prevents microcytic hypochromic anemia
D. flavin adenine dinucleotide.
E. diphosphopyridine nucleotide. 165. Which of the following is NOT involved as a cofactor in
formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvate?
155. Pantothenic acid is an integral part of A. NAD+
A. NAD+. C. folic acid. B. FAD
B. cobalamin. D. coenzyme A. C. Pyridoxine
E. pyridoxine phosphate. D. Lipoic acid
E. Thiamine pyrophosphate
156. Derivatives of riboflavin and niacin function as
A. CO2 acceptors 166. A derivative of vitamin K is the coenzyme for which of
B. coenzymes in redox reactions. the following?
C. factors in transamination reactions. A. Production of menadiol
D. replacements for each other in biologic reactions. B. Esterfication of retinol
C. Hydrolysis of peptide bonds
157. A vitamin derivative concerned with conversion of D. Cross-linking of fibrinogen
glucose to lactic acid is E. Carboxylation of glutamate side chains
A. thiamine (as cocarboxylase).
B. pantothenic acid (as coenzyme A). VITAMINS (Continued)
C. pyridoxal (as pyridoxal phosphate).
D. nicotinamide (as nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide). 167. The function of vitamin K is involved directly with
A. synthesis of prothrombin.
158. Which of the following vitamins is necessary as a B. activation of the Stuart factor.
coenzyme in the initial steps of fatty acid synthesis? C. regulation of calcium in the blood.
A. Biotin D. Vitamin D D. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
B. Thiamine C. Vitamin A E. transcriptional control for fibrinogen synthesis.
E. Riboflavin

9
168. Which of the following vitamins can be supplied to
humans by the normal action of intestinal flora? 179. Purine bases taken in the human diet in the form of DNA
A. A C. E or RNA are mostly
B. D D. K A. excreted as urea.
E. None of the above B. excreted in the form of uric acid.
C. reused and converted to ATP needed as a source of
169. Osteoblasts form the organic matrix of bone prior to energy.
calcification of the tissue. This process requires vitamins D. broken down to give NH3 and either malonic acid or
A. A and B12. C. A and D. methylmalonic acid.
B. A and C D. C and E.
E. D and E. 180. Which of the following minerals are most frequently in
short supply in American diet?
170. To which of the following avitaminoses is the gingival A. Calcium and iron
most susceptible? B. Calcium and iodine
A. A C. B6 C. Sulfur and potassium
B. B2 D. C D. Iodine, magnesium and iron
E. Niacin
181. Which of the following represents the amount of dietary
NUTRITION calcium normally absorbed from the gut of an adult
man?
171. Some amino acids need not be present in the diet of an A. An amount less than 50%
animal because of the animal’s ability to synthesize the B. An amount between 60-70%
acids at an adequate rate. A principal source of carbon C. An amount between 80-100%
for these amino acids is D. An amount dependent up the mucosal ferritin level
A. nucleic acids.
B. carbon dioxide. 182. A diet deficient in calcium will result in
C. metabolism of carbohydrates. A. stimulation of the thyroid gland.
D. methylene folic acid derivatives. B. increased ability to cross-link fibrin.
C. production of calcitonin and a low blood calcium
172. Negative nitrogen balance (nitrogen excretion > intake) level.
may be cause by D. production of parathyroid hormone and bone
A. growth. resorption.
B. protein synthesis.
C. dietary lack of essential amino acid. 183. The recommended daily dietary allowances for Ca and P
D. synthesis and catabolism of equal amounts of body provide a Ca/P intake of approximately
protein. A. 0.5.
B. 1.0
173. Which of the following groups includes only amino acids C. 2.0.
essential for humans? D. 3.0.
A. Valine, serine, leucine E. 4.0.
B. Leucine, lysine, glycine
C. Tyrosine, threonine, tryptophan 184. Which of the following must be digested before being in
D. Phenylalanine, methionine, proline a form that can be absorbed by enterocytes?
E. Tryptophan, methionine, isoleucine A. Monoglycerides
B. Fatty acids
174. Which of the following amino acids lessens the need for C. Fructose
phenylalanine? D. Glycine
A. Lysine C. Glycine E. Maltose
B. Leucine D. Tyrosine
E. Tryptophan 185. Which of the following is secreted more during the
absorptive state than during the postabsorptive state?
175. A diet rich in tryptophan offsets a deficiency of which of A. Insulin C. Cortisol
the following vitamins? B. Glucagon D. Thyroxine
A. Niacin C. Riboflavin E. Ephinephrine
B. Thiamine D. None of the above
186. A sustained, severe carbohydrate deficiency in the diet
176. A deficiency of rhodopsin is most likely caused by will result in which of the following?
decreased dietary intake of A. Ketoacidosis
A. glucose. C. vitamin A. B. Severe metabolic alkalosis
B. adenine. D. tryptophan. C. A deficiency in prostaglandin formation
E. riboflavin. D. An inability to synthesize ascorbic acid

177. Lipid is required in the average diet because it 187. Which of the following hormones is a polypeptide?
A. has a high caloric value. A. Epinephrine C. Progesterone
B. provides essential fatty acids. B. Testosterone D. Triiodotyronine
C. aids in absorption of carbohydrates. E. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. is necessary for storage of carbohydrates.
188. Iodine is primarily impt. in the biochemical synthesis of
178. A deficiency of choline in the diet can cause A. ACTH. C. adrenalin.
abnormalities in the metabolism of B. thyroxin D. calcitonin.
A. lipids. C. minerals. E. parathyroid hormone.
B. proteins. D. carbohydrates.
E. nucleoproteins.

10
189. Which of the following hormones is NOT synthesized HORMONES (Continued)
from cholesterol?
A. Progesterone C. Estradiol 199. Inhibition of lipolysis, stimulation of protein synthesis and
B. Testosterone D. Cortisol increased entry of glucose into muscles and adipose
E. Relaxin tissues are biologic actions of the hormone
A. insulin.
190. In which of the following combinations is the name of the B. cortisol.
hormone, its chemical type and its tissue of origin C. glucagons.
correctly matched? D. epinephrine.
A. Aldosterone-peptide-pancreas E. testosterone.
B. Glucagon-peptide-adrenal cortex
C. Epinephrine-steroid-adrenal medulla 200. Which of the following is a principal action of insulin?
D. ACTH-polypeptide-adrenal cortex
E. Vasopressin-peptide-posterior pituitary A. To mobilize lipid deposits
B. To enhance cell permeability to glucose
191. Each of the following characterizes a peptide hormone C. To decrease cell permeability to glucose
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? D. To conserve glucose by breaking down amino acids
A. Stored in secretory granules
B. Synthesized in a precursor form 201. Aldosterone is normally associated with partial regulation
C. Binds to intracellular receptors of which of the following processes?
D. Acts by generating a second messenger A. Sodium balance
E. Usually transported unbound in plasma B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Lipid digestion
192. Which of the following generates a slowly developing D. Protein degradation
long-term response in target tissues by binding to an E. Carbohydrate metabolism
intracellular receptor?
A. Glucagon C. Prolactin 202. Which of the following BEST explains the primary action
B. Estrogen D. Growth hormone of antidiuretic hormone?
E. Parathyroid hormone A. It decreases the activity of the Na-K pump in the
distal tubule.
193. The intracellular, “second” messenger for many peptide B. It increases the H2O permeability of the collecting
and polypeptide hormones is ducts and the distal tubules.
A. AMP. C. cyclic AMP. C. It decreases the pore size of the distal tubules and
B. ATP D. adenylate cyclase. the collecting ducts.
E. a cytoplasmic receptor. D. It decreases the glomerular filtration rate.
E. It inhibits the action of glutaminase.
194. Epinephrine causes an elevation in cAMP levels in
muscle cells which in turn activate 203. The parathyroid hormone acts in the body by
A. ATPase. A. decreasing absorption of calcium in the intestinal
B. adenyl cyclase. tract.
C. glycogen synthetase. B. accelerating the removal of calcium and phosphate
D. glycogen phosphorylase. from the skeleton but not from the teeth.
E. glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase. C. stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver.
D. decreasing the excretion of sodium and chloride.
195. The hyperglycemic effect of glucagon is mediated E. All of the above
primarily through
A. the growth hormone. 204. Each of the following is an effect of parathyroid hormone
B. muscle glycolysis. EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
C. liver glycogenolysis. A. Stimulation of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in kidney
D. inhibition of cortisol action. B. Stimulation of osteoclastic activity in bone
E. enhanced glucose reabsorption by renal tubules. C. Stimulation of calcium reabsorption by kidney
D. Inhibition of phosphate reabsorption by kidney
196. Two hormones which act similarly to increase glycogen E. Inhibition of intestinal absorption of calcium
and lipid breakdown as well as cyclic AMP synthesis are
A. insulin and calcitonin. 205. Hyperparathyroidism is marked by
B. glucagon and epinephrine. A. chronic tetany.
C. aldosterone and testosterone. B. a high blood calcium level.
D. parathyroid hormone and glucagon. C. retention of phosphates by the kidneys.
D. storage of excess minerals in the bones.
197. Which of the following takes place as proinsulin is E. increased irritability of excitable tissues.
converted to insulin?
A. Disulfide bonds are formed. 206. The low serum phosphate level in hyperparathyroidism
B. Disulfide bonds are broken. is caused by
C. The polypeptide chain is lengthened. A. increased renal loss of phosphate.
D. A segment of the polypeptide chain is removed. B. decreased absorption of phosphate.
C. increased deposition of calcium phosphate in bone.
198. Which of the following hormones does NOT induce D. increased reabsorption of calcium phosphate from
activation of adenylate cyclase? bone.
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine
D. Parathyroid hormone

11
HORMONES (Continued) 215. Androgens are produced in the testis and
A. adrenal cortex. C. adrenal medulla.
207. A parathyroidectomized animal will exhibit which levels B. thyroid. D. pituitary.
of calcium and phosphate ion concentration in the E. hypothalamus.
plasma?
FLUORIDE
Calcium Phosphate ion
concentration 216. The mechanism of systemic fluoride action in reducing
dental decay is most likely the result of
A. Low High A. an increase in hardness of the tooth.
B. Normal Low B. an inhibition of proteolytic enzymes.
C. High Low C. deposition of CaF2 in areas of enamel susceptible to
D. Normal Normal bacterial penetration.
E. Low Low D. an increase in carbohydrate metabolism in the oral
cavity as a result of enzyme inhibition.
208. Which of the following are the immediate effects of E. a reduction in rate of solubilization of enamel as
calcitonin on serum levels of calcium and phosphate? fluoride content of the tissue increases.

Serum calcium Serum phosphate 217. Fluoroapatite formed during hard tissue formation by;
A. substitution of OH ions by F ions.
A. Increased Increased B. reaction between CaF2 and CaHPO4.
B. Increased Decreased C. reaction of F ions with hydroxylysine residues.
C. Decreased Decreased D. absorption of F ions onto hydroxyapatite crystal
D. No change Increased surfaces.
E. Decreased No change
218. Which of the following statements is NOT true
209. Hydrolysis of thyroglobulin liberates a number of concerning fluoride?
iodinated compounds. Two are considered thyroid A. It is expected rapidly by the kidney.
hormones. These are B. It is deposited in calcified tissues.
A. tyrosine and thyronine. C. It occurs only in the ionic form in plasma.
B. tyrosine and diiodotyrosine. D. It passes the placental barrier relatively slowly.
C. thyroxin and triiodothyronine. E. At 1 ppm. In water, it is tasteless, odorless and
D. thyroxin and triiodotyrosine. colorless.

210. Thyroid hormones, glucocorticoids and gonadal steroids 219. The anticaries effect of fluoride is LEAST related to
are similar in that each which of the following?
A. is derived from cholesterol. A. Ion exchange
B. is derived from amino acids. B. Decreased solubility
C. acts on only one target organ or tissue. C. Facilitation of remineralization
D. is released in response to signals from the D. Its presence during enamel formation
hypothalamic-anterior pituitary complex. E. Activation of plaque polysaccharide hydrolysis
E. is released in response to signals from the
hypothalamic-posterior pituitary complex. 220. The rate of fluoride incorporation into bone depends
upon the
211. Which of the following describes the principal A. water-mineral ratio.
mechanism by which glucocorticoids stimulate their B. age of the individual.
target cells? C. rate of bone remodeling or turnover.
A. They activate specific genes. D. amount of ionizable fluoride in the diet.
B. They activate initiation factors for protein synthesis. E. All of the above
C. They increase the intracellular Ca++ concentration.
D. They allosterically modify adenylate cyclase activity. 221. NaF inhibits glycolysis by affecting which of the ff?
E. They bind to cell membrane receptors and activate A. Amylase C. Phosphatase
adenylate cyclase. B. Enolase D. Phosphorylase

212. The physiologically active form of vitamin D produced in BLOOD CLOTTING

the kidney is
A. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. 222. A deficiency in vitamin K would affect blood clotting
B. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol. chiefly by
C. 7-dehydrocholesterol. A. decreasing prothrombin production.
D. cholecalciferol. B. preventing the contraction of the clot.
E. ergosterol. C. preventing the reaction of thrombin with fibrinogen.
D. preventing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
213. The gallbladder is caused to contract by the hormone E. preventing the conversion of prothrombin to
A. gastrin. C. pancreozymin. thrombin.
B. secretin. D. enterogastrone.
E. cholecystokinin. 223. Platelets play an important role in hemostasis. Which of
the following describes this role?
214. Secretin functions in digestion of proteins by increasing A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin.
A. flow of bile. C. flow of pancreatic juice. B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels.
B. secretion of pepsin. D. Secretes carboxypeptidase. C. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis.
D. They supply fibrin stabilizing factor.
E. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin
activation.

12
BLOOD CLOTTING (Continued) BONES AND TEETH (Continued)

224. Administration of heparin to a human results in 234. Protein content of enamel from mature teeth is
symptoms similar to vitamin K deficiency in that both approximately what per cent of enamel weight?
conditions result in A. 0.1-1%
A. release of lipoprotein lipase to the blood and rapid B. 5-10%
clearance of chylomicrons. C. 15-20%
B. and increase in bleeding time due to lack of thrombin D. 25-30%
formation. E. 50-55%
C. retardation of fibrinogen synthesis by the liver.
D. elevated non-esterified fatty acids which chelate 235. Which of the following functions of bone could be
serum calcium, thus retarding blood clotting. considered the most prominent?
A. Buffering C. Sodium reservoir
225. Which of the following compounds is NOT involved in B. Phosphate source D. Fluoride reservoir
coagulation of blood? E. Calcium reservoir
A. Fe+2 C. Prothrombin
B. Ca+2 D. Fibrinogen 236. Which of the following BEST characterizes
E. Thromboplastin hydroxyapatite?
A. Has an amphiphilic surface
226. Which of the following represents the normal substrate B. Contains 12 ions per unit cell
of thrombin? C. As found in bone and enamel contains no ion
A. Fibrin C. Prothrombin substitutions
B. Thrombospondin D. Thromboplastin D. Has a higher solubility product constant than
E. Fibrinogen fluoroapatite

227. Which of the following ions is involved in blood clotting? 237. The lack of which of the following substances during
A. Iron C. Calcium tooth formation most likely induces enamel hypoplasia?
B. Sodium D. Potassium A. Vitamins A and D C. Vitamins C and K
B. Vitamins C and D D. Phosphorus and iron
BONES AND TEETH E. Calcium and fluoride

228. The organic matrix of bone is composed largely of 238. Which of the following vitamins is the LEAST likely to be
collagen and involved in tooth development and calcification?
A. lipids. C. dextrans. A. A C. C
B. citrate. D. glycosaminoglycans. B. B1 D. D

229. Which of the following represent(s) the matrix proteins of 239. Which of the following is NOT a theory of the effect of
enamel? parathyroid hormone on bone?
A. Carboxylglutamic acid containing proteins A. The hormone influences the rate of bone resorption.
B. Type I collagen B. The hormone causes a decrease in new bone
C. Amelogenins formation.
D. Proteoglycans C. The action on bone is related to its action on
E. Elastin phosphate excretion.
D. The effect of parathyroid extract is to influence
230. Which of the following explains why enamel is harder osteoclastic activity.
than bone?
A. Enamel crystals are larger and more firmly packed. 240. The primary effect of calcitonin is to
B. Enamel contains amelogenins in its organic matrix. A. increase bone resorption.
C. Enamel contains more magnesium and carbonate. B. inhibit bone resorption.
D. Enamel crystals have more surface area. C. increase calcium absorption from the intestine.
E. Enamel contains more collagen. D. decrease calcium absorption from the intestine.

231. Which of following is the major protein component of 241. Which of the following sweeteners is non-nutritive as
cementum? well as non-cariogenic?
A. D-fructose C. Galactose
A. Elastin C. Collagen B. Saccharin D. Sorbitol
B. Keratin D. Amelogenin E. Maltose
E. Osteonectin
242. The extracellular polysaccharides synthesized by
232. Which of the following noncollagenous protein cariogenic streptococci in the presence of excess
components BEST characterizes dentin matrix? sucrose are best described as
A. Laminin C. Phosphophoryn
B. Vimentin D. Osteonectin A. amylase. C. mucopolysaccharide
E. Fibronectin B. amylopectin. D. glycogen-like glucan.
E. dextran-like glucan.
233. Which of the following has a high affinity for binding
calcium and collagen in the calcifying matrix? 243. Which of the following represents a soluble
A. Calcitonin polysaccharide found in dental plaque and is formed
B. Osteogenin from the fructose moiety of sucrose?
C. Osteonectin A. Levan C. Amylopectin
D. Amelogenin B. Dextran D. Hyaluronic acid
E. Fibronectin

13
PHARMACEUTICAL BIOCHEMISTRY
PRC BOARD EXAM REVIEW

ADDENDUM

1
pH C. Ascorbic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
A1. Which of the following describes the movement of
glycine molecules in an electric field at a pH of 6.06 A9. Which of the following statements BEST describes
(the isoelectric pH for glycine)? The glycine hydroxyapatite in enamel?
molecules will A. Has a nonpolar surface
A. not move. B. Has 10 ions in each unit cell
B. move to the anode. C. Contains no ion substitutions
C. move to the cathode. D. Has a higher solubility than fluorapatite
D. move to both anode and cathode. E. Has a solubility that decreases as the pH
decreases
PROTEIN, ENZYMES, HEMOGLOBIN
CARBOHYDRATES
A2. Which of the following pairs of amino acids is
expected to be found on the interior of a globular A10. What are predominant linkages in glycogen between
protein? glucose units?
A. Lysine and arginine A.Alpha-1,4
B. Arginine and leucine B.Alpha-1,6
C. Leucine and valine C. Beta-1,3
D. Valine and glutamic acid D. Beta-1,4
E. Glutamic acid and lysine E.Beta-1,6

A3. Which of the following is an allosteric effector of an A11. Glucose can be made from each of the following
enzymatic reaction? substances EXCEPT one. Which one is this
A. Competitive inhibitor EXCEPTION?
B. Noncompetitive inhibitor A. Lactate
C. Substance that binds to the substrate B. Acetyl CoA
D. Substance affecting enzymatic activity by C. Glycerol
binding to the active site D. Pyruvate
E. Substance affecting enzymatic activity by E. Fructose
binding to non-active sites
A12. Which of the following is the pathway that results in
A4. Zinc is an essential component of which of the the formation of glucose in the liver from lactate
following? produced in muscle?
A. Pepsin A. Cori cycle
B. Amylase B. Glycolysis
C. Hexokinase C. Citric acid cycle
D. Adenylate cyclase D. Pentose phosphate pathway
E. Carbonic anhydrase
A13. Which of the following mechanisms operates in liver
A5. Which of the following describes a major effect of cells to regulate breakdown of glycogen?
sickle cell anemia? A. Zymogen activation
A. Absence of biphosphoglycerate binding of B. Phosphorylation of phosphorylase b to
hemoglobin phosphorylase a
B. Substitution of 2 proximal histidines C. Induction of phosphorylase b by an inducer
C. Decreased solubility of the deoxy form of D. Inhibition of adenylate cyclase
hemoglobin
D. A P 50 value for hemoglobin similar to that of A14. Glucose-6-phosphatase is found associated with
myoglobin which of the following?
E. Decreased number of subunits in hemoglobin A. Kidneys and liver
B. Liver and muscles
COLLAGEN, EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX, ENAMEL C. Kidneys and brain
D. Kidneys and muscles
A6. The unique amino acid composition of collagen is
reflected in the high content of NUCLEIC ACIDS
A. valine, threonine, and lysine.
B. desmosine, glycine, and proline. A15. Which of the following base pairs promotes helix
C. cysteine, tyrosine, and phenylalanine. stabilization in DNA but does NOT do so in RNA?
D. glycine, proline, and hydroxyproline. A.G-C
E. cysteine, hydroxylysine, and proline. B.A-T
C. G-U
A7. Which of the following is MOST likely to promote D. C-T
depolymerization of extracellular matrix? E.A-U
A. Cortisone A16. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5’ACG3’, then
B. Collagenase which of the following is its corresponding codon on
C. Chymotrypsin messenger-RNA?
D. Hyaluronidase A. 5’ CGT 3’
B. 5’ CGU 3’
A8. Which of the following vitamins is essential for the C. 5’ TGC 3’
normal elaboration and maintenance of bone matrix, D. 5’ UAG 3’
cartilage, and dentin? E. 5’ UGC 3’
A. Niacin
B. Vitamin E

1
A17. DNA that is complementary to mRNA can be made E. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
using which of the following?
A. A plasmid A26. Each of the following is expected to be active during
B. DNA ligase fatty acid biosynthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is
C. A retrovirus this EXCEPTION?
D. RNA polymerase A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
E. Reverse transcriptase B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Amino acid catabolism
A18. Which of the following represents the consequence D. Beta oxidation
of the fact that DNA strands are complementary? E. Glycolysis
A. Hairpin loop structures can be generated
B. They will always have identical sequences A27. Which of the following is a ketone body?
C. Separated strands are able to reassociate A. Glycerol
D. They cannot get back together once separated B. Glucagon
C. Acetyl CoA
A19. Which of the following enzymes seals nicks in DNA? D. Acetoacetate
A. Exonuclease E. Phosphatidycholine
B. Endonuclease
C. Ligase A28. Bile salts are sodium salts of bile acid that are
D. DNA polymerase conjugated with
E. RNA polymerase A. cysteine and serine.
B. taurine and glycine
A20. Which of the following BEST describes the major C. methionine and lysine.
function of histones? D. homocysteine and ornithine.
A. Unwind DNA.
B. Activate genes. MEMBRANES/TRANSPORT
C. Stabilize DNA in a compact form.
D. Remove exons during RNA splicing. A29. Facilitated diffusion DIFFERS from active transport
E. Stabilize RNA during transcription. in that net transport by facilitated diffusion
A. has a transport maximum.
A21. Which of the following BEST describes restriction B. uses ATP as an energy source.
enzymes? C. requires a concentration gradient.
A. Exonucleases D. occurs as an endergonic (positive ΔG) process.
B. Topiosomerases
C. Enzymes that degrade RNA A30. The cell membrane is LEAST permeable to which of
D. Non-specific endonucleases the following substances?
E. Site-specific endonucleases A. O2
B. CO2
A22. Which of the following types of blotting can be used C. H2O
to identify DNA restriction fragments? D. Sodium
A. Eastern E. Ethanol
B. Southern
C. Northern A31. Active transport systems generally involve specific
D. Western binding molecules that are classified as a
A. lipid.
A23. Which of the following enzymes synthesizes B. protein.
polynucleotide chains from nucleotides and does C. lipoprotein.
NOT require a primer chain? D. carbohydrate.
A. Ligase E. phospholipid.
B. Exonuclease
C. Endonuclease A32. Which of the following provides the immediate
D. DNA polymerase energy source for the transport of glucose into
E. RNA polymerase intestinal epithelial cells?
A. NADH
A24. Which of the following is produced when a mutation B. NADPH
occurs in an enzyme controlling a signal pathway C. Na+ gradient across the luminal membrane
involved in cell growth processes? D. H+ gradient across the luminal membrane
A. Epigene
B. Antigene
C. Oncogene
D. Monogene
E. Transgene

LIPIDS METABOLISM

A25. The first step in the pathway for fatty acid synthesis A33. Which of the following substances is the
is catalyzed by an allosteric enzyme which is the predominant source of ATP at MODERATE levels
principal regulator of the pathway. This enzyme is (for greater than 60 minutes) of activity?
A. thiolase. A. Amino acids
B. pyruvate carboxylase. B. Fatty acids
C. citrate synthetase. C. Carbohydrates
D. acetyl CoA carboxylase. D. Proteins

2
 A. lipophilic.
A34. The catabolism of which of the following results in no B. usually water soluble peptide/protein hormones.
energy production in the form of ATP? C. initially bound to cytoplasmic hormone
A. Lipid receptors.
B. Protein D. secreted by ovaries, testes, adrenal cortex, and
C. Nucleotide placenta.
D. Carbohydrate
A40. Which of the following hormones exerts the LEAST
A35. Which of the following directly catalyzes urea effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissues?
formation in a cell? A. Androgen
A. Urease B. Estrogen
B. Uricase C. Norepinephrine
C. Arginase D. Thyroid hormone
D. Glutaminase E. Parathyroid hormone

A36. Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism A41. The biologically active conformation of trimeric G-
is found in human urine? proteins requires
A. Urea A. the alpha-subunit to bind GDP.
B. Ammonia B. the alpha-subunit to bind GTP.
C. Creatine C. the hydrolysis of BetaGamma-subunits.
D. Uric acid D. the alpha-subunit to phosphorylate downstream
E. Creatinine targets.

A37. Which of the following compound is a precursor of VITAMINS/COENZYMES

the pigments of the skin, hair, and eyes?
A. Tyrosine A42. Each of the following coenzymes is a component of
B. Cysteine the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex EXCEPT one.
C. Lysine Which one is this EXCEPTION?
D. Creatine A. NAD
E. Galactosamine B. Biotin
C. Coenzyme A
HORMONES D. Thiamine pyrophosphate

A38. Which of the following promotes the release of bile A43. Which of the following coenzymes is required for the
from the gallbladder? synthesis of pyrimidines, such as thymine?
A. Gastrin A. Niacin
B. Secretin B. Thiamine
C. Galla C. Folic acid
D. Bombesin D. Riboflavin
E. Cholecystokinin E. Pyridoxine

A39. Hormones that exert their effects through the

activation of second messengers are