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COMPREHENSIVE TEST-3
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1. A
 As per the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 - "protected area means a National Park, a sanctuary, a conservation
reserve or a community reserve notified under sections 18, 35, 36A and 36C of the Act”
 Biosphere Reserves are provided under UNESCO Man and Biosphere (MAB) Reserve Programme.
 Tiger Reserves are notified under the Project Tiger.
Thus, Option A is correct.
2. B
Credit Rating Agency is an organization that gives rating to debtors or borrowers (government, companies, etc)
on the basis of their ability to pay back their principal loan and interest on time. Credit rating agencies assign
ratings to an organization or an entity. The entities that are rated by credit rating agencies comprise companies,
state governments, non-profit organisations, countries, securities, special purpose entities, and local
governmental bodies.
Some of the Top Credit Rating Agencies in India are:
 Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited (CRISIL)
 ICRA Limited
 Credit Analysis and Research limited (CARE)
 Brickwork Ratings (BWR)
 India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd.
 Small and Medium Enterprises Rating Agency of India (SMERA)
Statement 1 is incorrect: It gives ratings only to the organizations and not individual customers for whom
separate credit score is released. It help investors, customers etc to get an overall idea of the strength and
stability of an organization.
Statement 2 is correct: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999
empower SEBI to regulate credit rating agencies operating in India. Thus, SEBI regulates the credit rating
agencies under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India
Act, 1992.
Thus, Option B is correct.
3. A
Price Elasticity of Demand:
Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of demand of a good to a change in its price.
Statement 1 is correct: A good having close substitutes will have an elastic demand and a good with no close
substitutes will have an inelastic demand. For example: commodities such as pen, cold drink, car, etc. have close
substitutes. When the price of these goods rise, the price of their substitutes remaining constant, there is
proportionately greater fall in the quantity demanded of these goods. That is, their demand is elastic.
Commodities such as prescribed medicines and salt have no close substitutes and hence, have an inelastic
demand.
Statement 2 is correct: If the income level of consumers is high, the elasticity of demand is less. It is because
change in the price will not affect the quantity demanded by a greater proportion. But in low income groups, the
elasticity of demand is high.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The price elasticity of demand is likely to be low for necessities and high for luxuries.
A necessity is a good or service that the consumer must have such as food (bread, milk) and medicines. Luxuries
are goods that are enjoyable but not essential. For example: eating in a 5-Star hotel. If the prices of necessities
rise, then demand will not fall by a greater proportion because their purchase cannot be delayed. That is why; the
price elasticity of demand in case of necessity is low.
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4. A
 Durga Temple at Aihole is a Vesara style of Temple Architecture.
 Kailasnath Temple at Ellora is an example of Dravida Style of Architecture.
5. A
Dubai Declaration:
The second United Nations World Data Forum launched a Dubai Declaration to increase financing for better data
and statistics for sustainable development.
About
 Dubai Declaration includes detailed measures to boost funding for data and statistical analysis for
monitoring and speeding up progress towards the 2030 SDGs.
 It aimed towards mobilising domestic and international funds and activating more effective data
partnerships.
 It acknowledged that in the 2030 agenda Member States committed to “promote transparent and
accountable public-private cooperation to exploit the contribution to be made by a wide range of data,
including earth observation and geospatial information, while ensuring national ownership in supporting and
tracking progress”
 It recognises that the Cape Town Global Action Plan for Sustainable Development Data (CTGAP) launched at
the first United Nations World Data Forum guides the implementation of programmes and activities to
respond to the data needs of the 2030 Agenda.
6. C
Statement 1 is incorrect: CBI comes under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and
Pensions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: CBI cannot probe the cases of any state on its own because law and order come under
the state list. The state can make a request to investigate a certain case. Central Government authorizes CBI to
investigate cases in any state. However, it takes up cases as directed by the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Supreme Court, High Court can ask CBI to investigate without the state’s consent.
Statement 3 is correct: Central Bureau of Investigation itself was not established via any act of the parliament,
yet it derives its power of investigation from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946.
Thus, Option C is correct.
7. C
The Pratimoksha Vows:
The Pratimoksha vows comprise the basic rules of monastic discipline. Novice monks and nuns take thirty-six
vows. Fully-ordained male and female sangha (bhikshus and bhikshunis) are governed by 227 to 354 vows
depending on the school and tradition. These rules are contained in the Vinaya, the collection of the Buddha’s
teachings on monastic discipline.
8. D
Anand Math, the famous novel of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee is based on the sanyasi rebellion. The sanyasi
rebellion was the first civil rebellion against the British Rule in India.
Apart from Sanyasis and Fakirs, the rebellion saw active participation of Zamindars, peasants, artisans and
disbanded armies of Nawabs. The Ex-Army people provided leadership, peasants provided social base for the
rebellion while the Sanyasis and Fakirs provided a religious fervour to the struggle.
Bankrupt traders were not the part of this rebellion.
Thus, Option D is correct.
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9. C
Advanced Motor Fuels Technology Collaboration Programme (AMF TCP):
 AMF TCP works under the framework of International Energy Agency (IEA) to which India has “Association”
status since 2017.
 Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas has joined AMF TCP as its 16th member in May, 2018.
 The other member Countries of AMF TCP are USA, China, Japan, Canada, Chile, Israel, Germany, Austria,
Sweden, Finland, Denmark, Spain, Republic of Korea, Switzerland and Thailand.
Statement 1 is correct: AMF TCP is an international platform under the framework of International Energy
Agency (IEA) for co-operation among countries to promote cleaner and more energy efficient fuels & vehicle
technologies.
Statement 2 is correct: AMF TCP also provides an opportunity for fuel analysis, identifying new/ alternate fuels
for deployment in transport sector and allied R&D activities for reduction in emissions in fuel intensive sectors.
10. A
Statement 1 is correct: The act empowered the members to discuss the budget and move resolutions before it
was approved finally.
Statement 2 is correct: Through this act, for the first time that, the seats in the legislative bodies were reserved
on the basis of religion for Muslims. Separate constituencies were marked for the Muslims and only Muslim
community members were given the right to elect their representatives.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Government of India Act 1919, introduced dyarchy for the Provincial Governments.
Under it, the provincial subjects were divided into two categories viz. reserved and transferred. The reserved
subjects were kept with the Governor and transferred subjects were kept with Governor acting with the Indian
Ministers.
11. A
Special Drawing Rights (SDR):
Special drawing rights (SDR) refer to an international type of monetary reserve currency created by
the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969 that operates as a supplement to the existing money reserves of
member countries. The current makeup on the SDR is represented by the following table:
Currency Weights determined in the 2015 review Fixed Number of Units of Currency for a 5-
Year Period Starting Oct 1, 2016
U.S. Dollar 41.73 0.58252
Euro 30.93 0.38671
Chinese Yuan 10.92 1.0174
Japanese Yen 8.33 11.900
Pound Sterling 8.09 0.085946
12. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty that bans
all nuclear explosions, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The 1987 Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty required the United States
and the Soviet Union to eliminate and permanently forswear all of their nuclear and conventional ground-
launched ballistic and cruise missiles with ranges of 500 to 5,500 kilometers. It is a bilateral treaty between
United States and Soviet Union, not a multilateral treaty.
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13. C
The forest products can be generally divided into two parts viz. Major Forest Produce and Minor Forest Products.
The Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood, Sandalwood, Social Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber. The
Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind, curry leaf, Tendu Patta, gallnut, Cane, Soapnut, tree
moss and now Bamboo also. MFP have significant social and economic value for tribal communities as they not
only provide essential food, medicines and other consumption items but also cash income.
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a subset of forest produce and got a definition only in 2007 when the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, was enacted. Section 2(i) of
the said Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes
bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants
and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.
14. B
Article 51A: Fundamental duties:
It shall be the duty of every citizen of India –
 to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National
Anthem;
 to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
 to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
 to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
 to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending
religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of
women;
 to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
 to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have
compassion for living creatures;
 to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
 to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
 to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly
rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
 to provide opportunities for education by the parent the guardian, to his child, or a ward between the age
of 6-14 years as the case may be.
15. D
Gig Economy:
In a Gig Economy instead of traditional workforce, there would be only temporary or part-time work force. The
‘Gig concept’ is very common in advanced countries like the US, Europe, who hire part time workers.
What is a Gig Economy
In a gig economy, temporary, flexible jobs are commonplace and companies tend toward hiring independent
contractors and freelancers instead of full-time employees. A gig economy undermines the traditional economy
of full-time workers who rarely change positions and instead focus on a lifetime career.
Main Features:
 There is no certainty, stability or job security in gig economy.
 Workers do not get pensions, gratuity, perks etc that is available for full-time workers.
 No strict labour laws.
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16. C
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has made changes with the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS) to allow charitable
institutions, central government entities and state government entities to deposit gold under GMS.
Now the entities allowed to deposit gold under the scheme include Resident Indians [Individuals, HUFs,
Proprietorship & Partnership firms, Trusts including Mutual Funds/Exchange Traded Funds registered under SEBI
(Mutual Fund) Regulations, Companies, charitable institutions, Central Government, State Government or any
other entity owned by Central Government or State Government].
The key features of Gold Monetization scheme are as follows:
 The persons can open Gold Saving Account in designated banks and anyone can deposit physical gold via BIS
certified collection, purity testing centres (CPTCs). The minimum amount of gold thus deposited is 30 gms, no
upper limit.
 The gold is deposited for short term (1-3 years), medium term (5-7 years) and long term (12-15 years).
 The gold thus collected is sent to refineries and banks have tripartite / bipartite agreements with refineries
and CPTCs.
 On maturity, one can get back the cash / physical gold for short term deposits and cash only for long term
deposits.
 The scheme allows banks’ customers to deposit their idle gold holdings for a fixed period in return for interest
in the range of 2.25 per cent to 2.50 per cent.
17. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Both paintings and sculptures are found in Ellora Caves.
Statement 2 is correct: Ajanta Caves centred on Buddhism – the life of Buddha and Jataka stories. Ellora Caves
consists of 34 caves out of which17 belongs to Brahmanical, 12 belong to Buddhist and remaining 5 belongs to
Jain.
 Caves 1–12: Buddhist
 Caves 13–29: Hindu
 Caves 30–34: Jain (Digambara sect)
18. C
Kashmir Stag or Hangul:
 The Kashmir Stag or Hangul is a subspecies of elk native to India.
 It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Kashmir Valley and northern
Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.
 As per Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) nearly 3000 to 5000 Hanguls existed around the 1940s.
 But at present, only about 150 of them survive within its last bastion in Dachigam National Park located on
foothills of Zabarwan range on the outskirts of Srinagar, J&K.
In the 1970s, the Jammu Kashmir Government with the support of IUCN and World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
prepared a project for the protection of the hangul and the Kashmir stag habitat. This project for the
conservation and protection of Kashmir stag came to be known as project hangul and its population increased to
340 by 1980.
Project Hangul- Conservation of Kashmir red stag
 Hangul or kashmir red stag is a subspecies of the elk native to India. Earlier, kashmir stag was categorised as a
subspecies of European red deer. Later kashmir red stag was categorised as the subspecies of elk after the
mitochondrial DNA genetic study revealed that it belongs to the Asian family of elk. Kashmir stag is mainly
found in the dense riverine forests of Kashmir Valley and the northern Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.
 Hangul lives in the groups of around 2 to 18 individuals in the riverine forests, high valleys and mountains in
Kashmir and the northern Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. The kashmir red stag is found in Dachigam
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National Park, Sindh Valley, Rajparian wildlife sanctuary, Overa Aru wildlife sanctuary and in forests of
Kishtwar and bhaderwah.
 The Hangul is the only surviving species of the Asiatic member of the red deer family. The male members of
this Kashmir red stag have beautiful antlers which can have around 11 to 16 points on it. The society of
Kashmir stag is matriarchal.
 The Kashmir red stag is the state animal of Jammu Kashmir, and the Kashmir stag IUCN status is of a critically
endangered species. Once, Kashmir stag habitat was distributed in the Northern India and Pakistan but now it
has been restricted only to the Dachigam National Park in Kashmir.
19. D
Kumbh Mela:
 The Kumbh Mela (the festival of the sacred pitcher) is anchored in Hindu mythology.
 It is the largest public gathering and collective act of faith, anywhere in the world.
 Crowds gather at the sacred confluence of the Ganga, the Yamuna, and the mystical Sarasvati. Primarily,
this congregation includes Ascetics, Saints, Sadhus, Sadhvis, Kalpvasis, and Pilgrims from all walks of life.
 The Mela was included in the list of “Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity” by UNESCO in 2017.
 The KumbhaMela is held four times over the course of 12 years, in rotation between four Hindu pilgrimage
places on four sacred rivers:
 Haridwar on the Ganges in Uttarakhand.
 Ujjain on the Shipra in Madhya Pradesh.
 Nashik on the Godavari in Maharashtra.
 Prayagraj at the confluence of the Ganges, the Yamuna, and the mythical Sarasvati in Uttar Pradesh.
20. A
Indian Standard Meridian passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa.
21. D
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are organic chemical substances, that is, they are carbon-based. They
possess a particular combination of physical and chemical properties such that, once released into the
environment, they remain for a long time in the environment.
Statement 1 is correct: It remain intact for exceptionally long periods of time (many years); become widely
distributed throughout the environment as a result of natural processes involving soil, water and, most notably,
air; accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms including humans, and are found at higher concentrations
at higher levels in the food chain; and are toxic to both humans and wildlife.
Statement 2 is correct: The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the
environment from persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The Stockholm Convention focuses on eliminating or
reducing releases of POPs.
Statement 3 is correct: Initially, twelve POPs have been recognized as causing adverse effects on humans and the
ecosystem and these can be placed in 3 categories:
 Pesticides: aldrin, chlordane, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, heptachlor, hexachlorobenzene, mirex, toxaphene;
 Industrial chemicals: hexachlorobenzene, polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs); and
 By-products: hexachlorobenzene; polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and polychlorinated dibenzofurans
(PCDD/PCDF), and PCBs.
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22. A
Statement 1 is correct: LIBOR is a benchmark interest rate at which major global banks lend to one another in the
international interbank market for short-term loans. LIBOR is the average interest rate at which major global
banks borrow from one another.
Statement 2 is incorrect: LIBOR is the average interest rate at which major global banks borrow from one
another. It is based on five currencies including the US dollar, the euro, the British pound, the Japanese yen, and
the Swiss franc .The rate is calculated and published each day by the Intercontinental Exchange (ICE).
23. B
Iprism: CIPAM-DIPP launches IP competition for college & university students
The Cell for IPR Promotion and Management (CIPAM), Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade,
in collaboration with ASSOCHAM and ERICSSON India, has launched the second edition of ‘IPrism’, an Intellectual
Property (IP) competition for students of schools, polytechnic institutes, colleges and universities.
Aiming to foster a culture of innovation and creativity in the younger generation, the competition will provide
young creators an opportunity to see their creations recognized on a national platform.
Features:
The IPrism competition aims to foster culture of innovation and creativity in younger generation. It will provide
young creators unique opportunity to see their creations recognized on national platform. It invites students to
submit films on piracy & counterfeiting under two categories of 30 and 60 seconds. In another category, there is
competition is for mobile gaming app on IP.
24. C
Rani-ki-Vav, an 11th century stepwell in the Patan area of Gujarat, has been approved for placement on
the World Heritage list by UNESCO.
As per the UNESCO’s statement, “the Queen’s Stepwell” was designed as an inverted temple highlighting the
sanctity of water.
About Rani-ki-Vav
 Location: On the banks of Saraswati, Patan, Gujarat.
 Built by: Queen Udayamati as a memorial to King Bhimdev I of the Solanki dynasty.
 The 11th century stepwell and is one of the finest examples of stepwells in Gujarat.
 The well is subterranean structure with a series of steps, board landings, pavilions and sculpted walls which
provides access to water in deep water. It is of seven storeys with five exist and there are more than 800
elaborate sculptures which are survived. This is a protected monument under the Archeological Survey of
India.
As per above explanation, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
25. A
Option A is correct. (Detailed Discussed in the Class)
26. B
Manjusha Painting:
It is believed that Manjusha art originated in Anga Mahajanapada, it is also known as Angika Art. It was used
in Bihula-Vishahri Pooja, a festival dedicated to Snake God, Celebrated in Bhagalpur(Bihar) in the month of
August. It is one of the very old and historically very important Art. It is often referred to as Snake Paintings by
foreigners as swirling snakes in the art depict the central character Bihula’s tale of love and sacrifice. The painting
includes motifs like x-shaped characters, nature and birds.
As per above explanation, Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct.
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27. B
 The south of Tarai is a belt consisting of old and new alluvial deposits known as the Bhangar and Khadar
respectively. These plains have characteristic features of mature stage of fluvial erosional and
depositional landforms such as sand bars, meanders, ox-bow lakes and braided channels.
 The Brahmapautra Plains are known for their riverine islands and sand bars. Most of these areas are
subjected to periodic floods ad shifting river courses forming braided streams.
 Since duns are valleys located in the Himalayas, they are features of a youth stage of a river. Duns are
elongated valleys found between the Himalayan and Shivalik Mountain ranges. Unlike typical river
valleys, duns have a structural origin and are covered with boulders and gravels originating from the
erosion of the Himalayas and the Shivalik uplands.
28. D
The Reserve Bank introduces Internal Ombudsman Scheme, 2018 for Scheduled Commercial Banks
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had, in May 2015, advised all public-sector and select private and foreign banks to
appoint Internal Ombudsman (IO) as an independent authority to review complaints that were partially or wholly
rejected by the respective banks. The IO mechanism was set up with a view to strengthen the internal grievance
redressal system of banks and to ensure that the complaints of the customers are redressed at the level of the
bank itself by an authority placed at the highest level of bank’s grievance redressal mechanism so as to minimize
the need for the customers to approach other fora for redressal.
As a part of this customer-centric approach, to enhance the independence of the IO while simultaneously
strengthening the monitoring system over functioning of the IO mechanism, RBI has reviewed the arrangement
and issued revised directions under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 in the form of ‘Internal
Ombudsman Scheme, 2018’. The Scheme covers, inter-alia, appointment / tenure, roles and responsibilities,
procedural guidelines and oversight mechanism for the IO.
 All Scheduled Commercial Banks in India having more than ten banking outlets (excluding Regional Rural
Banks), are required to appoint IO in their banks.
 The IO shall, inter alia, examine customer complaints which are in the nature of deficiency in service on the
part of the bank, (including those on the grounds of complaints listed in Clause 8 of the Banking Ombudsman
Scheme, 2006) that are partly or wholly rejected by the bank. A
 As the banks shall internally escalate all complaints, which are not fully redressed to their respective IOs
before conveying the final decision to the complainant, the customers of banks need not approach the IO
directly.
 As per the scheme, the IO will have a fixed three-to-five-year tenure, which is not extendable. They cannot be
re-appointed.
 Once the IO is appointed, he/she cannot be removed without the permission of the RBI. Their remuneration
will be fixed by the customer service sub-committee of the bank’s board.
 The IO cannot be an official from the same bank. He/she should be from another bank or regulators, retired
or serving, in the rank of DGM and above.
 The implementation of IO Scheme, 2018 will be monitored by the bank’s internal audit mechanism apart
from regulatory oversight by RBI.
29. B
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Election Commission shall consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such
number of other election commissioners if any as the President may fix from time to time.
30. B
Option B is correct.
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31. B
Berne Convention
Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works (Berne Convention) is international copyright
agreement that mandates equal treatment of copyrighted works by signatories, known as Berne Union. It was
adopted in 1886 in Berne, Switzerland. The convention requires signatory member countries to recognize
copyrighted literary or artistic works in same way that its national copyrights are recognized.
Under it, all works (except cinematography and photography) are copyrighted for minimum 50 years term after
death of author, but longer terms may be provided related parties. It also allows signatories to apply fair use of
copyrighted works in other broadcasts or publications, as reflected in WIPO Copyright Treaty, 1996.
32. A
Statement 1 is correct:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts
department are prescribed by the President after consultation with the CAG.
33. A
Statement 1 is correct: Primary succession begins in barren areas, such as on bare rock exposed by a retreating
glacier. The first inhabitants are lichens or plants—those that can survive in such an environment. Over hundreds
of years these “pioneer species” convert the rock into soil that can support simple plants such as grasses. These
grasses further modify the soil, which is then colonized by other types of plants. Each successive stage modifies
the habitat by altering the amount of shade and the composition of the soil. The final stage of succession is a
climax community, which is a very stable stage that can endure for hundreds of years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Shifting cultivation is not an example of Primary succession it is an example of
secondary succession.
34. A
Mathura School of sculpture flourished from the 2nd century BC to the 12th century AD. Rock-cut temples in
western Deccan, were excavated into early years of the Christian era.
35. A
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has laid the foundation stone of Urja Ganga, the highly ambitious gas pipeline
project in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
The gas pipeline project aims to provide piped cooking (PNG) gas to residents of the eastern region of the country
and CNG gas for the vehicles.
Facts:
 The project is being implemented by state-run gas utility GAIL. It envisages laying a 2,050-km pipeline
connecting Jagdishpur (UP) to Haldia (West Bengal) by 2018.
 From Varanasi’s perspective, 50,000 households and 20,000 vehicles will get cleaner and cheaper fuel
PNG and CNG gas respectively.
 The project is considered as a major step towards collective growth and development of the Eastern region of
India. Under it, overall 20 lakh households will get PNG connections.
 The Urja Ganga project also augments existing GAIL’s network of trunk pipelines covering the length of
around 11,000 km by 2540 km.
 Besides, under this project work on 2540-km long Jagdishpur-Haldia and Bokaro-Dhamra Natural Gas pipeline
project will begin and will be completed between 2018 and 2020.
 Seven East India cities Varanasi, Jamshedpur, Patna, Ranchi, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, Cuttack – will be the
major beneficiary of this network development.
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 Besides, LNG terminal at Dhamra will provide clean fuel to the Industrial Development of the Eastern states
of Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar, West Bengal and Odisha.
36. B
Statement 1 is correct: National Disaster Response Fund is defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act,
2005 (DM Act) as a fund managed by the Central Government for meeting the expenses for emergency response,
relief and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster. NDRF is constituted to supplement
the funds of the State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF) of the states to facilitate immediate relief in case of
calamities of a severe nature.
Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under Ministry of Agriculture (MoA) monitors relief activities for
calamities associated with drought, hailstorms, pest attacks and cold wave /frost while rest of the natural
calamities are monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The NDRF is financed through the levy of a cess on certain items, chargeable to excise
and customs duty, and approved annually through the Finance Bill. The requirement for funds beyond what is
available under the NDRF is met through general budgetary resources. NDRF is located in the "Public Accounts" of
Government of India under "Reserve Funds not bearing interest".
Statement 3 is incorrect: The financial assistance from SDRF/NDRF is for providing immediate relief and is not
compensation for loss/damage to properties /crops. In other words, NDRF amount can be spent only towards
meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation. For projects exclusively for the purpose
of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effect of a disaster or threatening disaster
situation a separate fund called National Disaster Mitigation Fund has to be constituted.
37. D
Option D is correct.
38. A
It is believed, the dwarf demon 'Apasmara', who represented ignorance challenged Lord Shiva. It was then that
Lord Shiva took the form of Nataraja and performed the famous Tandava or the dance of destruction, eventually
crushing the arrogant Apasmara under his right foot. Since Apasmara (ignorance) should not die to preserve the
balance between knowledge and ignorance, it is believed that Lord Shiva forever remains in his Nataraja form
suppressing Apasmara for eternity.
39. B
The arabesque is a form of artistic decoration consisting of "surface decorations based on rhythmic linear
patterns of scrolling and interlacing foliage, tendrils" or plain lines often combined with other elements.
40. D
The circular equatorial orbit is exactly in the plane of equator on the earth. If the satellite is moving in the
circular-equatorial orbit and its angular velocity is equal to earth’s angular velocity, the satellite is said to be
moving along with the earth. This satellite would appear stationary from the earth and this orbit would be
called Geostationary Orbit.
Statement 1 is incorrect: A satellite placed in the Geo-stationary orbit covers the one-third of the surface of
Earth.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A satellite placed in higher orbit travels with slower velocity than in the lower orbit as
there is less of gravitational force on the satellite in the higher orbit.
41. B
Statement 1 is correct: It sets of common standards, a comprehensive framework with achievable targets, and a
legally-based instrument for disaster risk reduction. It calls for adopting integrated and inclusive institutional
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measures for preventing vulnerability to disaster, increase preparedness for response and recovery and
strengthen resilience.
Statement 2 is incorrect: SFDRR is an international Treaty that was approved by UN member states in March
2015 at Third World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held in Sendai, Japan.
Statement 3 is correct: It is voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that UN member State has
primary role to reduce disaster risk. It has framework for 15-year (2015 to 2030).
42. C
Statement 2 is incorrect: President can seek advice from the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact.
However, the advice tendered by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President. President cannot direct the
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court to takeover a particular case for disposal (Art-143).
43. C
Ecosystem services are the suite of benefits that ecosystems provide to humanity. They include:
 Purification of air and water  Maintaining of biodiversity
 Pollination of crops  Carbon sequestration
 Cycling of nutrients  Mitigating droughts and floods
44. B
100k Genome Asia Project:
 A group of Indian scientists and companies are involved with a 100k Genome Asia project, led out of the
National Technological University (NTU), Singapore.
 It aimed to sequence the whole genomes of 100k Asians, including 50,000 Indians.
45. B
Vector-borne diseases:
Vector-borne diseases are human illnesses caused by parasites, viruses and bacteria that are transmitted by
mosquitoes, sandflies, triatomine bugs, blackflies, ticks, tsetse flies, mites, snails and lice. Every year there are
more than 700 000 deaths from diseases such as malaria, dengue, schistosomiasis, human African
trypanosomiasis, leishmaniasis, Chagas disease, yellow fever, Japanese encephalitis and onchocerciasis, globally.
The major vector-borne diseases, together, account for around 17% of all infectious diseases. The burden of
these diseases is highest in tropical and subtropical areas and they disproportionately affect the poorest
populations. Since 2014, major outbreaks of dengue, malaria, chikungunya yellow fever and Zika have afflicted
populations, claimed lives and overwhelmed health systems in many countries.
46. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Biogeochemical cycles represent the circulation of materials (and not energy) in an
ecosystem.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
47. C
Tax Buoyancy: It refers to the percentage change in tax revenue with the growth of national income. That is,
growth based increase in tax collections.
Tax Elasticity: Tax elasticity is defined as the percentage change in tax revenue in revenue to the change in tax
rate and the extension of coverage.
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48. A
Option A is correct. (Discussed in the Class)
49. C
The fauna of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve includes over 100 species of mammals, 350 species of birds, 80 species
of reptiles and amphibians, 300 species of butterflies and innumerable invertebrates. 39 species of fish, 31
amphibians and 60 species of reptiles endemic to the Western Ghats also occur in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
Fresh water fish such as Danio neilgheriensis, Hypselobarbusdubuis and Puntius bovanicus are restricted to the
Nilgiri BiosphereReserve. The Nilgiri tahr, Nilgiri langur, slender loris, blackbuck, tiger, gaur, Indian elephant, Lion-
tailed macaque and marten are some of the animals found here.
50. C
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no provision of joint sitting in a state legislature.
51. B
Statement 1 is correct: Catalytic converters, having platinum-palladium and rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted
into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases.
Statement 2 is correct: As the exhaust gases passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are
converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide
and nitrogen gas, respectively.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because
lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
52. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the Government of India signed a $150 million Loan
Agreement in New Delhi to establish a Global Skills Park (GSP) in Madhya Pradesh, the First Multi-Skills Park in
India, to enhance the quality of Technical and Vocational Education and Training (TVET) System in the State and
create a more skilled workforce.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The new GSP campus, which will be established in Bhopal will have training facilities
focusing on skills for manufacturing, service and advanced agricultural jobs, benefitting about 20,000 trainees
and trainers.
53. D
Look at the diagram in the next page.
Option D is correct.
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54. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: UNESCO Global Geoparks are single, unified geographical areas where sites and
landscapes of international geological significance are managed with a holistic concept of protection, education
and sustainable development.
A UNESCO Global Geopark uses its geological heritage, in connection with all other aspects of the area’s natural
and cultural heritage, to enhance awareness and understanding of key issues facing society, such as using our
earth’s resources sustainably, mitigating the effects of climate change and reducing natural disasters-related
risks.
Statement 2 is correct: Till now no site in India possess the UNESCO Global Geopark Network Status. But recently,
Geological Survey of India has chosen heritage locations in Maharashtra and Karnataka for UNESCO Global
Geopark Network status. The sites chosen are- Lonar Lake in Maharashtra and St. Mary’s Island and Malpe beach
in coastal Karnataka.
55. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The expression 'contempt of court' has been defined nowhere in the Indian
Constitution. In India, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, divides contempt into civil contempt and criminal
contempt.
Statement 2 is correct: Part VI of RPA, 1951 deals with disputes regarding elections and provides for manner of
presentation of election petitions their trial and procedure thereof. Section 80 of RPA, 1951 provides that No
election shall be called in question except by an election petition presented in accordance with the provisions this
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part. In furtherance of this provision it is provided that the court having jurisdiction to try election petitions shall
be High Court. Such jurisdiction shall be exercised by a single judge of High Court and the Chief Justice shall from
time to time assign one or more judges for that purpose.
56. C
Indian Monsoons – Role of Somali Jet Stream
 Polar and subtropical jet streams are the permanent jet streams which greatly influence the weather of
temperate regions.
 Temporary jet streams are narrow winds with
speeds more than 94 kph in the upper, middle
and sometimes in lower troposphere. They
are few. Important ones are Somali Jet and
The African Easterly jet or Tropical Easterly
Jet.
 These two jet streams play an important role
in the formation and progression of Indian
Monsoons.
 The progress of the southwest monsoon
towards India is greatly aided by the onset of
Somali jet that transits Kenya, Somalia and
Sahel.
 It was observed to flow from Mauritius and
the northern part of the island of Madagascar before reaching the coast of Kenya at about 3º S.
 It strengthens permanent high near Madagascar and also helps to drive S-W monsoons towards India at a
greater pace and intensity.
 The importance of the low level jet arises from the fact that its path around 9º N coincides with a zone of
coastal upwelling.
 As the strong winds drive away the surface coastal waters towards the east, extremely cold water from the
depths of the sea rise upwards to preserve the continuity of mass.
 The peculiar feature of Somali Current is reversal in direction with the onset of the summer monsoon.
 In winter, this current is from north to the south running southwards from the coast of Arabia to the east
African coastline; but with the advent of the summer monsoon it reverses its direction and flows from the
south to the north.
57. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere whenever people burn fossil fuels. Oceans
play an important role in keeping the Earth's carbon cycle in balance. As the amount of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere rises, the oceans absorb a lot of it. In the ocean, carbon dioxide reacts with seawater to form
carbonic acid. This causes the acidity of seawater to increase. Higher the acidity of the environment, lower is the
value of pH.
When carbon dioxide (CO2) is absorbed by seawater, chemical reactions occur that reduce seawater pH,
carbonate ion concentration, and saturation states of biologically important calcium carbonate minerals. These
chemical reactions are termed "ocean acidification".
Statement 2 is correct: Of all the organisms in the surface oceans the impacts are very likely to be most severe
for the calcifying species such as molluscs, crustaceans, echinoderms, corals, large calcareous algae, foraminifera
and some Phytoplankton.
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58. D
 In stone, the two most discussed male figures are male torso and the bearded priest.
 The most discussed example of metal sculpture in context with Indus Valley is the Dancing Girl. Dancing Girl
(sculpture) Dancing Girl is a prehistoric bronze sculpture made in the lost-wax process about 2500 BCE in the
Indus Valley Civilisation city of Mohenjo-daro (in modern-day Pakistan) , which was one of the earliest human
cities.
 Metal casting was popular at all the major centres of the Indus Valley Civilisation, for example the copper dog
and bird of Lothal, bull from Kalibangan and the human figures of copper and bronze from Harappa and
Mohenjodaro.
 There are plenty of terracotta seals and figurines recovered from Harappan sites which range from toys to
cult objects such as mother goddess to birds and animals, including monkeys, dogs, sheep, cattle-both
humped and humpless bulls. The most important terracotta figure in the Indus Valley Civilization is the figure
of Mother Goddess.
59. C
Option C is correct. (Detailed Discussed in the Class)
60. A
Wegener hypothesized that there was an original, gigantic
supercontinent 200 million years ago, which he named Pangaea,
meaning "All-earth". Pangaea was a supercontinent consisting of all of
Earth's land masses. It existed from the Permian through Jurassic
periods.
Pangaea started to break up into two smaller supercontinents, called
Laurasia and Gondwanaland, during the late Triassic. It formed the
continents Gondwanaland and Laurasia, separated by the Tethys Sea. By
the end of the Cretaceous period, the continents were separating into
land masses that look like our modern-day continents.
Statement 1 is correct: The oldest landmass, (the Peninsular part) was a
part of the Gondwana land. The Gondwana land included India,
Australia, South Africa, South America and Antarctica as one single land
mass.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gondwana land is the southern part of the ancient supercontinent Panagea with
Lauratia in the northern part.
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61. C
Statement 1 is correct: Payments Council of India (PCI) was formed in 2013 under aegis of IAMAI (Internet and
Mobile Association of India) to cater needs of digital payment industry in India.
Statement 2 is correct: It was formed for representing various regulated non-banking payment industry players
and to help resolve various industry level issues and barriers in payments and settlement system.
62. A
All other dignitaries take and subscribe to the oath of faith and allegiance towards constitution but only the
President of India takes the oath to defend the Constitution. (Art-60)
63. C
Sugarcane: It is a tropical as well as a sub-tropical crop. It grows well in hot and humid climate with a
temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75cm and 100cm. Irrigation is required in the regions
of low rainfall. It can be grown on a variety of soils and needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting. India is
the second largest producer of sugarcane only after Brazil. It is the main source of sugar, gur (jaggary), khandsari
and molasses. The major sugarcane-producing states are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu,
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.
64. A
"...the use of or access to Aadhaar biometric data for criminal investigation is not permissible under Section 29 of
the Aadhaar Act, 2016," UIDAI said it last year
The "very limited" exception to this, said UIDAI, is allowed under Section 33 of the Aadhaar Act, which permits
use of or access to Aadhaar biometric data in cases involving national security only after pre-authorisation by an
oversight committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
65. C
The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. It was launched on 14th April,
2018 and seeks to improve tribal incomes through value addition of tribal products.
The scheme will be implemented through Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Nodal Department at the Central Level and
TRIFED as Nodal Agency at the National Level.
Under Van Dhan, 10 Self Help Groups of 30 Tribal gatherers is constituted. The establishment of "Van Dhan Vikas
Kendra" is for providing skill upgradation and capacity building training and setting up of primary processing and
value addition facility. They are then trained and provided with working capital to add value to the products,
which they collect from the jungle. Training and technical support is provided by TRIFED. It is proposed to develop
3,000 such centres in the country.
The Van Dhan Vikas Kendras will be important milestone in economic development of tribals involved in
collection of MFPs by helping them in optimum utilization of natural resources and provide sustainable MFP-
based livelihood in MFP-rich districts.
66. C
The Kessler Syndrome is a theory proposed by NASA scientist Donald J. Kessler in 1978, used to describe a self-
sustaining cascading collision of space debris in LEO. It’s the idea that two colliding objects in space generate
more debris that then collides with other objects, creating even more shrapnel and litter until the entirety of LEO
is an impassable array of super swift stuff. At that point, any entering satellite would face unprecedented risks of
headfirst bombardment.
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67. C
Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in
September-October. Important crops grown during this season are Rice, paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar),
moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of
the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
68.
Nyaya, Vaishisika, Mimansa and Yoga are theistic schools of Indian philosophy but Sankhya and Charavaka are
atheistic schools of Indian philosophy.
None of the given option is correct.
69. D
Different committees of the Constituent Assembly of India were headed as under:
 Committee for negotiating with states (Dr. Rajendra Prasad).
 Union Constitution committee (Jawaharlal Nehru).
 Provincial Constitution Committee (Sardar Patel).
 Special committee to examine the Draft constitution (Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer).
 Steering Committee (Dr. K.M. Munshi).
 Union Powers Committee (Jawahar Lal Nehru)
 Committee on fundamental rights and minorities (Sardar Patel).
 Rules of procedure committee (Dr. Rajendra Prasad).
70. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank with
a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. Headquartered in Beijing, it began operations in
January 2016 and have now grown to 97 approved members worldwide.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Canada, Germany, UK and Australia are among its members while United States is not a
member of AIIB.
71. C
 Gulf Stream (Atlantic Ocean), North Atlantic Drift (North Atlantic Ocean), Kuroshio current (Pacific Ocean) are
examples of warm ocean current.
 Labrador Current is a cold ocean current.
72. D
Statement 1 is correct: Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. However, he has to
vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
 if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
 if he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and
 if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution
can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.
Statement 2 is incorrect: His powers of regulating procedure or conducting business or maintaining order in the
House are not subject to the jurisdiction of any Court.
Statement 3 is correct: He presides over a joint setting of the two Houses of Parliament. Such a sitting is
summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill.
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73. D
Option D is correct. (Detailed Discussed in the Class)
74. B
Asexual Reproduction in Plants:
 Binary fission: In binary fission, two individuals are formed from a single parent. This type of reproduction is
found in organisms like bacteria, yeast and Amoeba
 Budding: In this type of reproduction, a bulb-like projection or outgrowth arises from the parent body known
as bud, which detaches and forms a new organism. For example, Hydra.
 Regeneration or Fragmentation: In this type of reproduction, the body of an individual breaks up into two or
more parts and each part develops into a complete individual. Examples: Spirogyra, and Planaria.
 Vegetative propagation or vegetative reproduction in plants: Vegetative reproduction (or vegetative
propagation) is a form of asexual reproduction in plants in which a bud grows and develops into a new plant.
75. D
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower.
Importance of Pollination:
 It results in fertilization and stimulates the ovule to get converted into seed.
 New varieties of plants are formed through new combination of genes in case of cross pollination.
 During pollination pollen tube produces growth hormones which stimulate ovary to develop into fruit.
76. C
Reactor Type Coolant Moderator Fuel

77. B
Simon Commission was constituted under the leadership of Sir John Simon to look into the functioning of the
constitutional system in India and suggest changes. It was officially known as ‘Indian Statutory Commission’ and
consists of four conservative, two Labourites and one liberal member from the British Parliament.
Recommendations of Simon Commission
 Provincial Dyarchy should be abolished and responsibilities of ministers to the provincial legislatures should
be enlarged.
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 The special power for the safeguarding of province and the protection of minorities comes under the
Governor powers.
 The representation of provinces and other areas constiruted on the basis of population at the Federal
Assembly (at the Centre).
 Recommended the representation of Council of State could not bre choosen on the basis of Direct Election
but by Indirect Election through Provincial Council which is more or less just like Modern day election
procedure as Proportional Representation.
78. A
A DNA profile is a small set of DNA variations that is very likely to be different in all unrelated individuals, thereby
being as unique to individuals as are fingerprints (hence the alternate name for the technique).
First developed and used in 1984, DNA profiling is used in, for example, parentage testing and criminal
investigation, to identify a person or to place a person at a crime scene.
DNA fingerprinting has also been widely used in the study of animal and floral populations and has revolutionized
the fields of zoology, botany, and agriculture.
Although 99.9% of human DNA sequences are the same in every person, enough of the DNA is different that it is
possible to distinguish one individual from another, unless they are monozygotic ("identical") twins.
Genome Sequencing is the process of determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism's genome at a
single time.
79. A
Statement 1 is correct: Bt cotton is an insect-resistant transgenic crop designed to combat the bollworm. Bt
cotton was created by genetically altering the cotton genome to express a microbial protein from the bacterium
Bacillus thuringiensis. In short, the transgene inserted into the plant's genome produces toxin crystals that the
plant would not normally produce which, when ingested by a certain population of organisms, dissolves the gut
lining, leading to the organism's death.
Bt is a family of proteins originating from strains of the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. There are more than 200
different types of Bt toxins, each affecting different types of insects. The Bt cotton plants are genetically modified
by the addition of genes encoding toxin crystals in the Cry group of endotoxin.
Bt brinjal incorporates the cry1Ac gene expressing insecticidal protein to confer resistance against FSB.
The cry1Ac gene is sourced from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt). When ingested by the FSB larvae,
the Bt protein is activated in the insect’s alkaline gut and binds to the gut wall, which breaks down, allowing the
Bt spores to invade the insect’s body cavity. The FSB larvae die a few days later.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, Ministry of Environment through its Department of Genetic Engineering
Appraisal Committee gives the concerned approval.
80. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s first ever healthcare establishment census to collect the data of all the private
and public health care establishments, known as the National Health Resource Repository (NHRR) Project was
launched by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Statement 2 is correct: The Central Bureau of Health Intelligence has ensured the engagement with key
stakeholders including private healthcare service providers, leading associations and allied ministries for the
census. The census will be carried out under the Collection of Statistics Act 2008. Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO) would be taking care of the data security and is the technology partner for the project.
81. B
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is an autonomous, statutory body tasked
with regulating and promoting the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. It was constituted by the
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Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999, an Act of Parliament passed by the Government of
India. The agency's headquarters are in Hyderabad, Telangana, where it moved from Delhi in 2001.
IRDAI is a 10-member body including the chairman, five full-time and four part-time members appointed by the
government of India.
82. A
GI is granted to a community or group or an institution that represents the interests of the product. It is generally
not granted to an individual. It is given to a product for a specific period of time (10 years in India).The product
can be an agricultural, natural or manufactured one. The manufactured goods should be produced or processed
or prepared in that territory. It should have a special quality or reputation or other characteristics.
83. B
Option B is correct.
84. A
Cases when a bill does not lapse:
 A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
 A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
 A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
A bill lapses if it originated in the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha.
85. D
Statement 1 is correct: On 21st June, the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun. The rays of the sun fall
directly on the Tropic of Cancer. As a result, these areas receive more heat. Since a large portion of the northern
hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it is summer in the regions north of the equator. The longest day and
the shortest night at these places occur on 21st June.
Statement 2 is correct: On 22nd December, the Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of the sun as the South
Pole tilts towards it. As the sun’s rays fall vertically at the Tropic of Capricorn (23½° S), a larger portion of the
southern hemisphere gets light. Therefore, it is summer in the southern hemisphere with longer days and shorter
nights. This position of the earth is called the winter solstice.
Statement 3 is correct: On 21st March and September 23rd, direct rays of the sun fall on the equator. At this
position, neither of the poles is tilted towards the sun; so, the whole earth experiences equal days and equal
nights. This is called an equinox.
86. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Working class did participate in the Quit India Movement even after opposition by the
communists. Even in pockets of communist influence, workers actively joined the call of Quit India despite the
party order.
87. D
NATIONAL YEAR OF MILLETS
Why in news?
India celebrated 2018 as National year of millets. Also, the Minimum Support Price was hiked and millets were
notified as nutri-cereals which allowed their inclusion in Public Distribution System for nutritional Support.
MILLETS
 Millet is common term to categorize small-seeded grasses that are often termed nutri-cereals or dry land-
cereals.
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 Major crops include sorghum (jowar), ragi, pearl millet (bajra), small millet,oats (javi), gorgon nut
(makhana),buckwheat (kuttu),rye etc.
 Major millets growing states are- Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Andhra
Pradesh, Maharashtra , ,Gujarat,Tamil Nadu etc
 Pearl millet (Bajra) is the most common millet in india. Rajasthan produces nearly 51% of millets.
BENEFITS OF MILLETS
 Nutritional- higher levels of protein than wheat and rice, with more balanced amino acid profile, crude fibre,
vitamins and minerals such as Iron, Zinc, and Phosphorous. Much useful for nutritional security of especially
women and children. They have low glycemic index, so helpful for diabetes and obesity.
 Economical- Not only they have cheaper inputs and maintenance costs, they can also be used as
fodder,biofuels and in breweries. They survive harsh weather conditions. Resulting in greater income security
for farmers.
General Facts on Millets
 India had recommended Food and Agricultural Organisation of UNO to declare 2019 as International year of
millets.2023 has been declared as International Year of Millets
 India is also the largest producer of millets followed by African states like Nigeria, Niger, China etc.
 Millet Production in India – Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat
88. D
All the statements are correct: The International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) is an international
financial institution which was one of the major outcomes of the 1974 World Food Conference. It is 13th
specialised agency of the United Nations. India is a founder member of IFAD and a key contributor among the
member countries.
89. C
Par Tapi Narmada Link proposes to transfer water from the water surplus regions of Western Ghats to the water
deficit regions of Saurashtra and Kutch. The link project includes seven reservoirs proposed in north Maharashtra
and south Gujarat.
90. A
Dispute between the Centre and Union Territories is not a federal dispute and therefore SC does not have original
jurisdiction on this.
91. A
Option A is correct.
92. A
Name of Tiger Reserve State
Kamlang Tiger Reserve Arunachal Pradesh
Bandhavgarh Tiger reserve Madhya Pradesh
Pench Tiger Reserve Maharashtra
Bandipur Tiger Reserve Karnataka
Thus Option A is correct.
93. D
The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2019 recently released shows that only few countries have started
working towards limiting global warming below 2°C or even at 1.5°C. The Climate Change Performance Index
(CCPI) is an annual publication by Germanwatch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network Europe.
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94. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) has been constituted under Section 171
of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
Statement 2 is correct: The GST law also provides for the creation of a Consumer Welfare Fund wherein undue
benefits made by businesses under the GST law have to be deposited, in case it cannot be passed on to the
identified recipient.
Statement 3 is correct: The proceeds from the GST consumer welfare fund can be given as grant to the Centre
and state governments as well as regulatory authorities.
Thus, Option B is correct
95. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Writ of prohibition means to forbid or to stop and it is popularly known as 'Stay
Order'. The writ of prohibition is issued by any High Court or the Supreme Court to any inferior court or tribunals,
or quasi-judicial body prohibiting the latter from continuing the proceedings in a particular case, where it has no
jurisdiction to try.
Statement 2 is correct: The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private
individuals.
Thus, Option B is correct
96. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The funding of the Swajal scheme will be provided through flexi-funds under the
existing National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP) budget.
Statement 2 is correct: Swajal is community owned drinking water scheme or programme for sustained drinking
water supply.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under it, 90% of the project cost is taken care of by the Government and the remaining
10% is contributed by the beneficiary community.
97. D
The primary sector of the economy extracts or harvests products from the earth. The primary sector includes the
production of raw material and basic foods. Activities associated with the primary sector include agriculture,
mining, forestry, farming, grazing, hunting and gathering, fishing, and quarrying.
Thus, Option D is correct
98. C
Statement 1 is correct: A Currency swap agreement is a foreign exchange agreement between two parties to
exchange a given amount of one currency for another and, after a specified period of time, to give back the
original amounts swapped. This arrangement allows the RBI to draw loans from the Japan in dollars or in yen
upto a certain limit.
Statement 2 is correct: The currency swap facilities make it easier for India to pay for its imports. This aids in
addressing the challenge of depreciation.
Thus, Option C is correct
99. C
Statement 1 is correct: Duncan passage separates Little Andaman from South Andaman (also called Great
Andaman). Duncan passage separates Rutland Island (part of Great Andaman) to the north and Little Andaman to
the south.
Statement 2 is correct: The islands of the Arabian Sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy. These islands are
located at a distance of 280 km-480 km off the Kerala coast. The entire island group is built of coral deposits.
Minicoy is the largest island with an area of 453 sq. km. The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the
Eleventh degree channel, north of which is the Amini Island and to the south of the Canannore Island.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Minicoy is separated from rest of the Lakshadweep by Nine Degree Channel whereas
Lakshadweep group separated from Maldives by Eight Degree Channel.
Thus, Option C is correct
100. D
Option D is correct
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