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NEET - 2019
ANSWER &
SOLUTION
Date : 05/05/2019
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum marks: 720
Important Instructions :
(i) The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4
marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total
scores. The maximum marks are 720.
(i) Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this
page/marking responses.
(ii) Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test
Booklet only.
(iii) On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.
(iv) The CODE for this Booklet is P1.
(v) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make
any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else
except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
(vi) Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
(vii) No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator,
would leave his/her seat.
(viii) Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
(ix) The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination
with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means
will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination.
(x) No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any
circumstances.
(xi) The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test
Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
1- Page 1 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
1. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant
external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is
(Given that 1 L bar = 100J)
2. A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp)
lattice and the cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is :
=
= 0.5 × 10–5
2- Page 2 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
4. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through
Haber's process is :
(1) 10 (3) 30
(2) 20 (4) 40
6. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell
reaction is :
Solution : Ecell = E°cell – log Q ...(i)
n
(At equilibrium, Q = Keq and Ecell = 0)
0 = E°cell – log Keq (from equation (i))
∘
Ecell
log Keq =
Keq = 1010 × 1 × 1010
7. Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is
3- Page 3 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
Number of σ bonds = 3
and number of π bonds = 3
9. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to Molecular
Orbital Theory?
(1) O2 (3) C2
(2) N2 (4) Be2
(a) →
Disproportionation
(b) Disproportionation
(d)
4- Page 4 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution : Penicillin G
12. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :
(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
Solution : PeIn aqueous solution, electron donating inductive effect, solvation effect (H-bonding) and
steric hindrance all together affect basic strength of substituted amines basic character:
13. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the formation of negatively charged colloidal [Agl]l–
sol ?
(1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI
(3) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
Solution :
Generally charge present on the colloid is due to adsorption of common ion from
dispersion medium. Millimole of KI is maximum in option (2) (50 × 2 = 100) so act as
solvent and anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid AgI formed
5- Page 5 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
(1) (3)
(2) (4)
Solution :
Due to involvement of lone pair of electrons in resonance in phenol, it will have positive charge
(partial), hence incoming proton will not be able to attack easily.
6- Page 6 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
17. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is:
Solution :
Solution :
Due to presence of d-orbital in Si, Ge and Sn they form species like SiF62–, [GeCl6]2–,
[Sn(OH)6]2–
SiCl62– does not exist because six large chloride ions cannot be accommodated around Si4+
due to limitation of its size.
Solution :
Be(OH)2 amphoteric in nature, since it can react both with acid and base
Be (OH)2 + 2HCl → BeCl2 + 2H2O
Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH → Na2 [Be(OH)4]
(2)
(1)
7- Page 7 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
(3) (4)
Solution :
• Manganate (MnO2–4):
⇒ π-bonds are of dπ–pπ type
• Permanganate (MnO4–) :
22. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
Solution :
‘Be’ and ‘N’ have comparatively more stable valence sub-shell than ‘B’ and ‘O’.
∴ Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
8- Page 8 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
23. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of
99% of the reaction is given by:
Solution :
First order rate constant is given as,
A
k = log
t A t
99% completed reaction,
k = log
t
= log
t
k = × log
t
t = ×
t k
t =
k
24. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following:
(1) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 120° with each other
(2) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 180° with each other
(3) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P–Cl bonds
(4) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive
Solution :
(1) True
(2) True
(3) True
Axial bond : 240 pm
Equatorial bond : 202 pm
(4) False
Due to longer and hence weaker axial bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.
9- Page 9 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
25. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is
Solution :
F(n + l) values for, 4d = 4 + 2 = 6
5p = 5 + 1 = 6
5f = 5 + 3 = 8
6p = 6 + 1 = 7
∴ Correct order of energy would be
5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
Solution :
Nylon-2-Nylon 6
27. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct
code:
Column-I Column-II
(a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
(b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
(d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Solution :
10- Page 10 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
28. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
(1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
Solution :
On going down the group thermal stability order for H2E decreases because H–E bond
energy decreases
∴ Order of stability would be:-
H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(1) (3)
(2) (4)
Solution :
The correct structure is
11- Page 11 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
30. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major product. The structure of product
"B" is:
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
Solution :
31. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the
cofactor. M is :
(1) Be (3) Ca
(2) Mg (4) Sr
Solution :
All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require magnesium(Mg) as the
co-factor.
Solution :
Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2(Green colour
33. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall n visible
region?
(1) Lyman series
(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series
Solution :
In H-spectrum, Balmer series transitions fall in visible region.
12- Page 12 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
35. For the cell reaction 2Fe3+(aq)+2l–(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq)+l2(aq) E⊕cell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The
standard Gibbs energy (∆rG⊕) of the reaction is:
[Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1]
Solution :
∆G⊕ = –nF E⊕cell
= – 2 × 96500 × 0.24 J mol–1
= – 46320 J mol–1
= – 46.32 kJ mol–1
13- Page 13 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
(a) Pure nitrogen : Sodium azide or Barium azide
(b) Haber process : Ammonia
(c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid
(d) Deacon’s process : Chlorine
Solution :
Alanine
40. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
under the same conditions. The correct option about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is
:
(1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(3) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
Solution :
Vreal
Ÿ Compressibility factor(Z) =
V ideal
∵ Vreal < Videal’ Hence Z < 1
Ÿ If Z < 1, attractive forces are dominant among gaseous molecules and liquefaction of
gas will be easy.
41. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
14- Page 14 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
(4)
Solution :
(3)
(1)
(4)
(2)
Solution :
15- Page 15 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
43. For the chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) The correct option is:
(1) (3)
(2) (4)
Solution :
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3
Rate of reaction is given as
d N d H d NH
dt dt dt
44. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal
field theory?
Solution :
K4[Fe(CN)6]
Fe ground state: [Ar]3d64s2
Fe2+: 3d64s0
16- Page 16 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
Clark's method is used to remove temporary hardness of water, in which bicarbonates of
calcium and magnesium are reacted with slaked lime Ca(OH)2
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 ↓+ 2H2O
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 ↓ + Mg(OH)2 ↓ + 2H2O
46. In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?
Solution :
In adiabatic process, there is no exchange of heat.
48. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential
energies are, respectively:
Solution :
In Bohr's model of H atom
U
∴ K.E = TE =
∴ K.E = 3.4 eV
U = –6.8 eV
17- Page 17 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
drawn is:
Solution :
From the given logic circuit LED will glow, when voltage across LED is high.
Truth Table
50. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be (g = 10m/s2)
(1)
rad/s (3) 10 rad/s
(4) 10π rad/s
(2) rad/s
Solution :
fL ≥ mg
⇒ μN ≥ mg
18- Page 18 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
⇒ μmrω2 ≥ mg
≥
g
r
ωmin =
g
r
ωmin =
×
rad/s
51. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2m, at rest.
The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by
the colliding body A is :
(1) (3)
(2) (4)
52. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is
flowing due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the
shortest path, the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :
Solution :
VSR = 20 m/s
VRG = 10 m/s
VSG
VSR VRG
VRG
sinθ =
VSR
sinθ =
19- Page 19 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
sinθ =
θ = 30○ west
53. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely
to break when:
(1) The mass is at the highest point
(2) The wire is horizontal
(3) The mass is at the lowest point
(4) Inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
Solution :
mu
T – mg =
l
mu
T = mg +
l
The tension is maximum at the lowest position of mass, so the chance of breaking is
maximum.
Solution :
y = A0 + Asinωt + Bsinωt
Equate SHM
y’ = y – A0 = Asinωt + Bcosωt
Resultant amplitude
R = A B ABcos ∘
= A B
20- Page 20 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
55. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T.
When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf
induced in the coil will be:
Solution :
Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T
Number of turns in coil N = 800
Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
Time taken to rotate ∆t = 0.1 s
Initial angle θ1 = 0°
Final angle θ2 = 90°
Change in magnetic flux ∆ϕ
= NBAcos90° – BAcos0°
= – NBA
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05
= – 2 × 10–3 weber
∆ϕ × wb
e = V
∆t s
Solution :
In one complete vibration, displacement is zero. So, average velocity in one complete
vibration
Displacement yf yi
=
Time Interval T
57. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point Z0 below the free
surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value
of Z0 is :
Solution :
T
Excess pressure = , Gauge pressure
R
= gZ 0
T
P0 + P0 + gZ0
R
21- Page 21 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
T
Z0 =
R ×g
× ×
Z0 = m
× ×
Z0 = 1cm
58. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have increase in length
independent increase inof temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :
(αcu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and αAl = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)
Solution :
αcu Lcu = αAl LAl
1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × LAl
×
LAl = cm
Solution :
The heat current related to difference of temperature across the length l of a conductor of
area A is
dH KA
∆T (K = coefficient of thermal conductivity)
dt
dH
∴ K =
A dt ∆T
Unit of K = Wm–1 K–1
60. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is :
(1) Mgl
(4) MgL
(2) MgL
(3) Mgl
Solution :
22- Page 22 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
U = (work done by gravity)
U = Mgl
61. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has
speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?
(1) 3J (3) 2J
(2) 30kJ (4) 1J
Solution :
Work required = change in kinetic energy
Final KE = 0
Initial KE = mv2 + ω2 = mv2
= × × × J
|∆AK| = 3J
62. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A,
B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in
A B
the measurement X, where X = will be
C D
Solution :
Given
A B
x =
C D
∆x ∆A ∆B ∆c ∆D
% error, × × × × × .
x A D c D
= 2 × 1% + × 2% + 3% + 3 × 4%
= 2% + 1% + 1% + 12%
= 16%
23- Page 23 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
63. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to
the centre of the earth ?
Solution :
Solution : Red has the longest wavelength among the given options.
65. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm.
The torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is
Solution :
Work energy theorem
w = l(ωf2 – 2 – ωi2) θ = 2π revolution
= 2π × 2π = 4π2 rad
Wi = 3 × rad/s
⇒ –τθ = × × mr2 (02 – ωi2)
24- Page 24 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
⇒ –τ =
×
× × ×
×
–6
⇒ τ = 2 × 10 Nm
66. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are
indicated in the fig.
(2) y(t) = sin , where y in m
(3) y(t) = 3 cos , where y in m
(4) (t) = 3cos , where y in m
Solution :
At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so equation will be cosine function.
T = 4 s
ω = rad/s
T
y = a cosωt
y = 3 cos
67. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at
a distance r from the centre
(1) Increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
(2) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r increases for r > R
(3) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r increases for r > R
(4) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
Solution :
25- Page 25 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
qen
E
dS
Here, qen = Q (∵qen = 0)
Q
∴ E04πr2 =
∴ E0 ∝
68. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used?
(1) Induction furnace
(2) Magnetic braking in train
(3) Electromagnet
(4) Electric heater
Solution :
Electric heater does not involve Eddy currents. It uses Joule's heating effect.
69. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero
internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation
when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be :
26- Page 26 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
(1) 4 : 9 (3) 1 : 2
(2) 9 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
Solution :
(i) All bulbs are glowing
R R R
Req =
E E
Power (Pi) =
Req R
(ii) Two from section A and one from section B are glowing
R R
Req = R
E
Power (Pf) = ...(2)
R
P i
E R
Pf R E
27- Page 27 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
70. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, δ = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s
surface the angle of dip, δ = –25°. We can interpret that:
(1) A and B are both located in the northern hemisphere.
(2) A is located in the southern hemisphere and B is located in the northern hemisphere.
(3) A is located in the northern hemisphere and B is located in the southern hemisphere.
(4) A and B are both located in the southern hemisphere.
Solution :
Angle of dip is the angle between earth's resultant magnetic field from horizontal. Dip
is zero at equator and positive in northern hemisphere.
Solution :
Work done by variable force is
yf
W = yi
Fdy
Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m
y
∴ W = ydy y J
73. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of
the magnetic field. B with the distance d from the centre of the conductor, is correctly
represented by the figure :
28- Page 28 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
(1) (3)
(4)
(2)
Solution :
Inside (d < R)
Magnetic field inside conductor
i
B d
R
or B = Kd ...(i)
Straight line passing through origin
At surface (d = R)
i
B = ...(ii)
R
or B ∝ (Hyperbolic)
d
74. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA
and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio
of angular speed of A to that of B will be :
(1) rA : rB (3) rB : rA
(2) vA : vB (4) 1 : 1
Solution :
TA = TB = T
ωA =
TA
29- Page 29 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
ωB =
TB
A TB T
B TA T
75. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with
each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1. When the space between the
two lenses is filled with glycerine (which has the same refractive index
(μ = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be:
(1) 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 4
Solution :
Equivalent focal length in air When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin
F f f f
lens behaves like a diverging lens of focal length (–f)
F f f f
=
f
F
F
76. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair
of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?
Solution :
30- Page 30 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
77. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities + λC/m and –λC/m are placed at
a distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid-way between the two line
charges?
(1) Zero
(3) N/C
R
(2) N/C
R
(4) N/C
R
Solution :
31- Page 31 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
Fuse wire has less melting point so when excess current flows, due to heat produced
in it, it melts.
80. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 μF is being charged by a voltage source whose
potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires,
and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively.
Solution :
Capacitance of capacitor C = 20 μF
= = 20 × 10–6 F
dV
Rate of change of potential 3 v/s
dt
q = CV
dq dV
C
dt dt
ic = 20 × 10–6 × 3
= 60 × 10–6 A
= 60 μA
As we know that id = ic = 60 μA
81. In the circuits shown below, the readings of the voltmeters and the ammeters will be
Solution :
For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite and for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero.
V1 = i1 × 10 = × 10 = 10 volt
V2 = i2 × 10 = × 10 = 10 volt
32- Page 32 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
V1 = V2
V
i1 = i2 = = 1A
83. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength
is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg)
Solution :
For an electron accelerated through a potential V
×
Å × m
V
84. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle
60°with horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. But when the inclination is
decreased to 30° and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance.
Then x1 : x2 will be:
(1) 1 :
(3) 1 :
(2) : 1 (4) 1 : 2
Solution :
u
(Stopping distance) x1 =
gsin∘
u
(Stopping distance) x2 =
gsin∘
x sin∘ ×
⇒
x sin ∘
×
33- Page 33 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
85. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is present near the bottom of a fully filled open
tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate of flow of water through the open hole
would be nearly
Solution :
86. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and –Q respectively, are placed at certain
distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B,
then force between the charges becomes :
(1) F F
(3)
F
(2)
F
(4)
Solution :
kQ
F =
r
If 25% of charge of A transferred to B then
Q Q Q Q
qA = Q – and qB = – Q +
kqA qB
F1 =
r
Q
F1 =
k
r
kQ
F1 =
r
34- Page 34 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
F
F1 =
87. Ionized hydrogen atoms and α-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant
magnetic field, B. The ratio of their radii of their paths rH : rα will be :
(1) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
Solution :
P
rH =
eB
P
rα =
eB
P
rH eB
r eB
rH
r
88. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR.
The velocity of the particle will :
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain constant
(4) Change according to the smallest force
Solution :
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
89. A The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is
equal to the radius of the earth, is:
(1) mgR
(2) 2mgR
(3) mgR
(4) mgR
Solution :
90. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of
the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the
angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water?
(μwater = 4/3)
Solution :
In air angular fringe width θ0 =
D
Angular fringe width in water
θw = =
D
∘
= ∘
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
PGLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is responsible for majority of glucose transport
into muscle and adipose cells in anabolic conditions. Whereas GLUT-I is insulin
independent and is widely distributed in different tissues
94. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various
enzymes.
Solution :
Goblet cells secrete mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice which plays an
important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by
the highly concentrated HCl.
95. Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large
scale, for industrial production of enzymes?
Solution :
To produce enzyme in large quantity equipment required are bioreactors. Large scale
production involves use of bioreactors.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
97. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?
Solution :
Botanical garden - ex - situ conservation (off-site conservation) i.e. living plants (flora) are
conserved in human managed system.
98. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of
following mRNA?
5`AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3`
(1) Insertion of G at 5th position
(2) Deletion of G from 5th position
(3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively
(4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
Solution :
99. Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
(1) Shoot the waste into space
(2) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
(3) Dump the waste within rocks under deep ocean
(4) Bury the waste within rocks deep below the Earth's surface
Solution :
Storage of nuclear waste should be done in suitably shielded containers and buried within
rocks deep below the earth's surface (500 m deep)
100. Match the following organisms with the products they produce
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ii) Curd
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
(v) Acetic Acid
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
101. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?
(1) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 10% cross over.
(2) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 100% cross over.
(3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.
(4) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.
Solution :
1 map unit represent 1 % cross over. Map unit is used to measure genetic distance. This
genetic distance is based on average number of cross over frequency.
103. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?
Solution :
Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control agent being developed for use in the treatment
of plant diseases.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
105. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very
essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it contains
Solution :
Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the mother during initial days of lactation is
very essential to impart immunity to the new born infant because it contains
Immunoglobulin A. It will impart naturally acquired passive immunity to the newborn
107. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal
canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus
Solution :
The correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system is
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
108. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what
will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive
individuals in the population?
(1) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
(2) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(3) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(4) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
Solution :
Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = 0.4
Frequency of recessive allele (say q)
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
∴ Frequency of homozygous dominant individuals (AA)
40- Page 40 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
= p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16
Frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa)
= 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48
Frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (aa)
= q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36
(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively (3) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(2) p-arm and q-arm respectively (4) m-arm and n-arm respectively
Solution :
Ÿ Sub metacentric chromosome is Heterobrachial.
Ÿ Short arm designated as ‘p’ arm (p = petite i.e. short)
Ÿ Long arm designated as 'q' arm
111. What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?
Solution :
During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by leaves of pants.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
Hypothalamus in the thermoregulatory centre of our brain. It is responsible for maintaining
constant body temperature.
113. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA?
(1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
Solution :
Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have DNA.
114. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development
gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?
Solution :
Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have trisomy of sex chromosome as
44 + XXY (47). They show overall masculine development, gynaecomastia and are sterile.
116. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for green house effect?
Solution :
Relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming is
Ÿ CO2 = 60%
Ÿ CH4 = 20%
Ÿ CFC = 14%
Ÿ N2O = 6%
⇒ Therefore CO2 and CH4 are the major greenhouse gases
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
117. Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into
the atmosphere?
Solution :
To control the deleterious effect of the stratospheric ozone depletion an international treaty
was signed at Montreal, Canada in 1987. It is popularly known as Montreal protocol.
118. In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon
is known as
Solution :
The phenomenon in which female gamete develops into embryo without getting fused with
male gamete (fertilisation) is called parthenogenesis
119. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?
Solution :
Genital herpes is caused by type-II-herpes simplex virus. At present there is no cure for
type-II-herpes simplex virus and therefore the disease caused, genital herpes. Other
non-curable STIs are hepatitis-B and HIV.
120. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(1) Auto-immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Inflammatory immune response
(4) Cell-mediated immune response
Solution :
The body is able to differentiate self and nonself and the cell-mediated response is
responsible for graft rejection.
121. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?
(1) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
(2) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
(3) Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex
(4) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration
Solution :
The proximity between loop of henle and vasa recta as well as counter current in them
help in maintaining an increasing osmolalrity towards the inner medullary interstitium. This
mechanism help to maintain a concentration gradient in medullary interstitium so human
urine is nearly four times concentrated than initial filtrate formed.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
122. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin
by recombinant DNA technology?
(1) Genetic code is not ambiguous (3) Genetic code is nearly universal
(2) Genetic code is redundant (4) Genetic code is specific
Solution :
In recombinant DNA technology bacteria is able to produce human insulin because genetic
code is nearly universal.
124. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding cell division was first proposed by
Solution :
Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding cell division was proposed by Rudolph
Virchow.
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (3) (c) and (d) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct (4) (a) and (d) are correct
Solution :
a and b statements are incorrect because dialysis eliminates urea and potassium from the
body whereas, c and d are correct. As phosphate ions are eliminated during dialysis, along
with that calcium ions are also eliminated. So, there will be reduced absorption of calcium
ions from gastrointestinal tract. RBC production will be reduced, due to reduced
erythropoietin hormone.
44- Page 44 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
(1) Non-multidirectional
(2) Upward
(3) Downward
(4) Bi-directional
Solution :
The direction of movement of sugar in phloem is bi-directional as it depends on
source-sink relationship which is variable in plants.
Solution :
Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder is muscular
dystrophy where as tetany is muscular spasm due to low calcium in body fluid.
Myasthenia gravis is an anto immume disorder leading to paralysis of skeletal muscles.
Botulism is rare and dangerous type of food poisoning caused by bacterium Clostridium
Botulinum.
129. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of
the distance between genes was explained by :
Solution :
Alfred Sturtevant explained chromosomal mapping on the basis of recombination frequency
which is directly proportional to distance between two genes on same chromosome
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
130. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Solution :
Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific
sequence. Each restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of a DNA
sequence. Once it finds its specific recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA and cut
each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar-phosphate
backbone.
132. Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
Solution :
In parietal placentation the ovules develop on the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral part.
eg. Mustard, Argemone etc.
133. Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to
extinction?
Solution :
Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction.
eg: Loss of tropical rainforest reducing the forest cover from 14 % to 6 %.
Solution :
According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are random and directionless.
Devries believed mutation caused speciation and hence called saltation (single step large
46- Page 46 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
mutation).
Solution :
Amount of CO2 released
Respiratory Quotient =
Amount of O2 consumed
( RQ )
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O
Tripalmitin +Energy
CO
RQ =
O
136. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1
generation pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation
showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
(1) This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance.
(2) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.
(3) Ratio of F2 is (Red): (Pink): (White)
(4) Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment
Solution :
Genes for flower colour in snapdragon shows incomplete dominance which is an exception
of Mendel's first principle i.e. Law of dominance.
Whereas Law of segregation is universally applicable.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
(1) M → G1 → G2 → S (3) S → G1 → G2 → M
(2) G1 → G2 → S → M (4) G1 → S → G2 → M
Solution :
The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
G1 → S → G2 → M
Solution :
Thiobacillus denitrificans cause denitrification i.e., conversion of oxides of nitrogen to free
N2.
140. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for
Solution :
Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic waste. The mixture is mixed with
bitumen that is used to lay roads
141. From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young
embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in
Solution :
In Pteridophyte, megaspore is retained for some times in female gametophyte, however the
permanent retention is required for seed formation in Gymnosperms.
That's why Pteridophytes exhibit precursor to seed habit only.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
seventh ribs with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are vertebrochondral or false ribs.
Ÿ Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore, called
floating ribs.
Ÿ Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally connected to the sternum.
143. Concanavalin A is
Solution :
Concanavalin A is a secondary metabolite e.g is lectin, it has the property to agglutinates
RBCs.
145. Pinus seed cannot germinate and established without fungal association. This is because :
(1) its embryo is immature.
(2) it has obligate association with mycorrhizae.
(3) it has very hard seed coat.
(4) its seeds contain inhibitors that present germination.
Solution :
Fungus associated with roots of Pinus increases minerals & water absorption for the plant
by increasing surface area and in turn fungus gets food from plant. Therefore, mycorrhizal
association is obligatory for Pinus seed germination
146. The earth summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called
(1) to reduce CO2 emissions and global warming
(2) for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits
(3) to assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species
(4) for immediate steps to discontinue use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
Solution :
Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called upon all nations to take appropriate measures for
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its benefits
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
147. DNA precitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with
Solution :
During the isolation of desired gene, chilled ethanol is used for the precipitation of DNA.
148. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from
the following
(1) Closure of stomata
(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
(4) Tyloses in vessels
Solution :
Bulliform cells become flaccid due to water loss. This will make the leaves to curl inward
to minimise water loss
149. Match the following structures with their respective location in organs
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas
(b) Glisson’s Capsule (ii) Duodenum
(c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small intestine
(d) Brunner’s Glands (iv) Liver
Select the correct option from the following
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Solution :
Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in small intestine. Glisson's capsule is present in liver.
Islets of langerhans constitutes the endocrine portion of pancreas. Brunner's glands are
found in submucosa of duodenum.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
Ÿ Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus
Ÿ Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of thyroxine can be associated with enlargement of
thyroid gland called goitre
Ÿ Deficiency of corticoids (Glucocorticoid + mineralocorticoid) leads to Addison's disease
Ÿ Growth hormone hypersecretion in adults leads to Acromegaly
Solution :
Heroin, commonly called smack and is chemically diacetylmorphine which is synthesized
by acetylation of morphine.
153. In a species, the weight newborn ranges from 2 to 5kg. 97% of the newborn with an average
weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weight from 2 to
2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5kg die. Which type selection process is taking place?
Solution :
The given data shows stabilising selection as most of the newborn having average weight
between 3 to 3.3 kg survive and babies with less and more weight have low survival rate.
Solution :
Hexokinase catalyse the conversion of Glucose to Glucose-6 phosphate. It is the first step
51- Page 51 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is generally inverted.
TC = Large fishes
SC = Small fishes
PC = Zooplanktons
PP = Phytoplanktons
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(2) (A) is true but (B) is false. (4) (A) is false but (B) is true.
Solution :
“Coenzymes, metal ions and prosthetic groups that is bound to enzyme protein is called
co-factor. Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to enzyme where as metal ions and
coenzymes are not tightly bound to enzyme.”
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
158. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering
from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to
(1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity
(2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls
(4) reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes.
Solution :
Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. It can be due to increasing air born allergens and pollutants. Asthma is an
allergic condition. Many people in urban areas are suffering from this respiratory disorder.
159. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering
plants is incorrect?
(1) Ovary develops into fruit
(2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Central cell develops into endosperm
(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac
Solution :
Following are the post-fertilisation changes.
Ÿ Ovule → Seed
Ÿ Ovary → Fruit
Ÿ Zygote → Embryo
Ÿ Central cell → Endosperm
161. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of
hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the
year to increase yield?
(1) Auxin and Ethylene
(2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
Solution :
Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in pineapple. Ethylene also helps in synchronization
of flowering and fruit set up in pineapple.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
Persistent Nucellus is called Perisperm e.g.: Black pepper, Beet
(1) exit the cell cycle (3) suspend the cell cycle
(2) enter the cell cycle (4) terminate the cell cycle
Solution :
Cells in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle. These are at quiescent stage and do not
proliferate unless called upon to do so.
165. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
Solution :
Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart rate
⇒ Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
166. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?
Solution :
Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular phase of their growth.
These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein. These protein exist as inactive protoxins
but once an insect ingest the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin
due to alkaline pH of the gut which solubilize the crystals. The activated toxin binds to
the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create pores that cause cell swelling and lysis
and eventually cause death of insect.
167. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in
(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles (3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
(2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct (4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
Solution :
Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes are lined with ciliated epithelium to move particles or
mucus in a specific direction.
168. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?
(1) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year
(2) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue early and late
wood respectively.
(3) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.
(4) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.
Solution :
Growth rings are formed by the seasonal activity of cambium. In plants of temperate
regions, cambium is more active in spring and less active in autumn seasons. In temperate
regions climatic conditions are not uniform throughout the year. However in tropics
climatic conditions are uniform throughout the year.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
169. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?
(1) One fuses with egg other (s) degenerate (s) in the synergid.
(2) All fuse with the egg.
(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.
(4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei.
Solution :
In flowering plants, out of the two male gametes discharged in synergids, one fuses with
the egg and other fuses with the secondary or definitive nucleus present in central cell.
Egg (n) + 1st male gamete (n) → Zygote (2n)
170. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products:
(a) i gene (i) β-galactosidase
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Solution :
In lac operon
i gene — Repressor
z gene — β-galactosidase y gene ¾Permease
a gene — Transacetylase
171. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth
(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
Solution :
The correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth
is :
Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
173. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory
test for typhoid.
(1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
Solution :
Salmonella typhi is the causative agent. Confirmatory test = Widal test, it’s based on
antigen antibody reaction.
175. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL,
respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
Solution :
Tidal Volume = 500 ml
Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV
= 500 + 1000
= 1500 ml
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Solution :
Ÿ Statin is obtained from a yeast (Fungi) called Monascus purpureus
Ÿ It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
180. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus
Solution :
According to rules of binomial nomenclature, correctly written scientific name of mango is
Mangifera indica Linn.
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NEET-2019 Question and Solution
Answer
1 2 3 4 5
(1) (3) (3) (3) (3)
6 7 8 9 10
(3) (4) (1) (3) (1)
11 12 13 14 15
(1) (1) (2) (3) (3)
16 17 18 19 20
(4) (2) (4) (4) (2)
21 22 23 24 25
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1)
26 27 28 29 30
(2) (2) (3) (1) (3)
31 32 33 34 35
(2) (4) (2) (1) (1)
36 37 38 39 40
(4) (4) (1) (3) (3)
41 42 43 44 45
(2) (2) (3) (2) (2)
46 47 48 49 50
(2) (2) (3) (3) (3)
51 52 53 54 55
(2) (1) (3) (2) (4)
56 57 58 59 60
(4) (3) (4) (4) (3)
61 62 63 64 65
(1) (2) (4) (1) (1)
66 67 68 69 70
(4) (2) (4) (2) (3)
71 72 73 74 75
(3) (3) (3) (4) (2)
76 77 78 79 80
(4) (3) (2) (4) (2)
81 82 83 84 85
(3) (1) (2) (3) (1)
86 87 88 89 90
(2) (1) (3) (3) (2)
60- Page 60 -
NEET-2019 Question and Solution
91 92 93 94 95
(3) (2) (3) (2) (4)
96 97 98 99 100
(1) (3) (4) (4) (2)
101 102 103 104 105
(3) (3) (1) (1) (4)
106 107 108 109 110
(3) (2) (3) (2) (2)
111 112 113 114 115
(4) (2) (3) (2) (4)
116 117 118 119 120
(4) (1) (4) (3) (4)
121 122 123 124 125
(2) (3) (4) (1) (3)
126 127 128 129 130
(4) (2) (1) (3) (2)
131 132 133 134 135
(4) (3) (1) (2) (2)
136 137 138 139 140
(4) (3) (4) (4) (3)
141 142 143 144 145
(3) (4) (3) (1) (2)
146 147 148 149 150
(2) (2) (2) (3) (3)
151 152 153 154 155
(1) (2) (2) (2) (4)
156 157 158 159 160
(4) (2) (2) (4) (4)
161 162 163 164 165
(1) (2) (1) (4) (3)
166 167 168 169 170
(3) (4) (4) (4) (3)
171 172 173 174 175
(1) (3) (4) (2) (1)
176 177 178 179 180
(2) (2) (1) (2) (2)
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