AIR REGULATION (400 QUESTIONS)

Q.1 The air traffic service which prevents the collision between aircraft is called.
a) Alerting service.
b) Flight information service.
c) Air traffic control service.
Q. 2 Prior to take off the responsibility to check the serviceability of radio equipment lies
with the
a) Commander of aircraft.
b) Radio operator.
c) Co-pilot.
Q.3 The authority to detain an aircraft is given in which document
a) Rule 8 of aircraft rules 1937
b) Section 8 of aircraft act 1934.
c) DGCA circular no. 8
Q. 4 Aerodrome broadcasting service is provided by
a) DGCA
b) Controller of Aerodromes
c) Airport Authority of India.
Q. 5. If an aircraft makes a non precision approach the visibility minima applicable is
a) Given by the operator if filed by the operator with the DGCA
b) DGCA minima if no minimum is filed by the operator with the DGCA
c) Both are correct.
Q. 6. The visibility minima for Take Off if the aerodrome not eQ.ipped with radio aids.
a) 5 km.
b) 2.7 km.
c) 3.7 km.
Q. 7. The runway threshold lights are
a) Green
b) Blue
c) Amber
 d) White
e) Only White
Q. 8. The threshold of runway is
a) The point where the aircraft lines up for take off
b) That points on the beginning of runway used for landing.
c) The beginning of the runway.
Q. 9. A VFR flight can land at a controlled aerodrome if visibility is
a) 1.5 km or more
b) 3.7 km or more
c) 5 km or more
Q. 10. The starboard navigation light is
a) Green 110 deg from ahead to the left.
b) Green 110 deg from ahead to the right
c) Green 110 deg from behind to the right.
Q. 11. The displaced threshold lights are
a) Green
b) Blue
c) Amber
Q. 12. The duty time of the trainee pilot
a) is calculated by the FDTL
b) is not affected by FDTL
c) FDTL is applicable for scheduled flights only.
Q. 13. A fresh flight plan is required if at a controlled aerodrome a scheduled flight is
delayed by
a) 2 hrs.
b) 1 hrs.
c) 30 mts.
Q. 14. Longitudinal separation between aircraft flying at the same level & on the same track
a) 15 mts.
b) 10 mts. If navigational aids permit freQ.ent determination of position & speed
c) Both are correct.
Q. 15. The endurance of aircraft
a) flight fuel + fuel for 45 minutes.
b) flight fuel + fuel to alternate + fuel for 45 minutes
c) flight fuel + fuel to alternate + fuel for holding for 30 minutes
contingency fuel
Q. 16. Track (M) is 200 the flight level to flying the Q.adrennial rule is
a) 160
b) 50
c) 75
d) 80
Q. 17. While transiting from Q .adrennial system to semicircular system the aircraft should
a) Climb by 500 feet
b) Descend by 500 feet
c) No change in flight level is require if RT contact is maintained
Q. 18 While transiting from semicircular system to Q.adrantal system the aircraft should.
a) Climb by 500 feet.
b) Descend by 500 feet.
c) No change in flight level is require if RT contact is maintained.
Q. 19. After being cleared to land an aircraft fails to land with 5 minutes of the estimated
time of landing it is termed as
a) Distress phase
b) Alert phase
c) INCERFA
d) Search phase.
Q. 20. Area of Mathura refinery is a
a) Danger area
b) Prohibited area
c) Restricted area
Q. 21. The minimum distance an aircraft can fly from international border is
a) 15 nm.
b) 20 nm.
c) 10 nm.
Q. 22. The control area which is in the vicinity of one or more aerodromes is called a
a) Control area
b) Control Zone
c) Aerodromes control area
Q. 23. Tokyo Convention ACT 1975 is applicable to
a) All aircraft registered in India.
b) All aircraft registered in India & Military aircraft & State aircraft &
c) Aircraft whether registered in India or not except Military aircraft &
State aircraft.
d) All aircraft whether registered in India or not.
Q. 24. Aerodrome operation minima is given by the
a) DGCA.
b) Operator.
c) Operator & is approved by DGCA.
d) India Met Department.
Q.25. For carriage of arms & ammunition on board an aircraft.
a) Permission from
b) Permission from Army HQ. is required.
c) Permission from Central Govt. is required.
d) Permission from operator is required.
Q. 26. For flights of foreign military aircraft aver India clearance is required froma)
Central Govt.
b) DGCA.
c) Air Headquarters.
Q. 27. The Aircraft Act. 1934 is applicable to whole of India and is applied to
a) Citizen of India wherever they may be
b) To and to persons on board a/c required in India, where they may be
Q.28. The aircraft registered in Category A belong to
a) COI
b) A company or corporation regd in India and having principle place of
business in India and its chairman with at least 2/3 of directions are COI
Q. 29. Aerial work aircraft means an ac used for individual purposes but does not include
public transport.
a)
b)
c)
Q.30. Petroleum in bulk means fuel in receptacle more than 900 ltrs. In capacity.
a)
b)
c)
Q. 31. The minimum age for the issue of CPL is 18 years.
a)
b)
c)
Q. 32. The maximum number of landings by a pilot in one day
a) Is not restricted for training flying
b) But if training is conducted after a scheduled flight the maximu
number of landing is six.
c) For a scheduled flight maximum of six landings.
d) All are correct.
Q. 33. A pilot involved in an aircraft accident can start flying again.
a) When ever detailed by the operator
b) When cleared by the DGCA for flying after a corrective flying
training if necessary.
c) When ever he is medically fit.
Q.34. The operational control consists of initation continuation, termination and division
of a flight.
Q.35. A Cessna 152 & Boeing 737 is on a converging course at same altitude. Which
aircraft has the right of way?
a) Light aircraft (Cessna 152)
b) Heavier aircraft (Boeing 737)
c) The aircraft on the right.
Q.36. ATIS is a ……. Repetitive and continuous broadcast of VHF, which gives
METER and status of non visual landing aids. …….
a)
b)
c)
Q.37. Flying an aircraft in a manner to cause danger to a person or property is punishable
with
a) Imprisonment up to two months or fine or both
b) Imprisonment up to six months or fine or both.
c) Imprisonment up to two months or fine or Rs. 1000/- or both
d) Imprisonment up to six months or fine of Rs. 1000/- both.
Q.38. …… flying a non scheduled aircraft of foreign registration in to India for non traffic
purposes the permission must be obtained from
a) ICAO
b) DGCA
c) Aerodrome officer of the airport of landing.
d) An officer authorized by the Central Govt.
Q.39. During a night cross-country on relative bearing of 270 you see the red light if an
aircraft
a) You turn right to avoid collision
b) Turn left to avoid the collision
c) There is no fear of collision.
Q.40. VFR Flying below 3000 feet AMSL in a controlled aerodrome the visibility is
a) 1.5 Km.
b) 5000 meters.
c) 8000 meters.
Q.41 The aerodrome operating minima is given by
a) Operator & approved by DGCA
b) DGCA
c) AAI
Q.42 A series of projectiles tired at an interval of 10 sec. means.
a) Distress.
 b) Urgency
c) Indication of danger.
Q.43 Series of green flashes directed towards an aircraft means
a) clear to Take Off
b) Clear for landing.
c) Clear to Taxi
Q.44. The wreckage of a crashed aircraft can be tempered with or shifted to
a) Extricate persons or anmals whether alive or dead.
b) Bring it to a place of safety.
c) Prevent inconvenience/obstruction to public
d) All are correct
Q.45. The maximum flying a pilot can do in one year is
a) 1000 hrs.
b) 1500 hrs.
c) 1200 hrs.
Q.46. When an aircraft ……..
a) 15 meters.
b) 30 meters.
c) 43 meters

Q.47. Anti collision light are mandatory for

a) Aircraft AUW > 5700 Kg
b) Aircraft AUW > 1500 Kg
c) Any aircraft carrying passengers
d) All aircraft.
Q.48. Instrument flight time is
a) All flight time in IFR.
b) All flying time when the flying is done only with reference to instruments.
c) Only when flying in clouds
Q.49. Area of operation where no ADC is required
a) Local flying area.
b) Within 5 nm of an aerodrome.
 c) Control Zone.
d) Control area
Q.50. What information is to be included in the third section of an Air report.
a) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence.
Q.51. Navigation charges are based upon
a) Airspeed.
b) Flying time over India
c) Distance flown
d) AUW.
Q.52. Destruction of buildings & trees on approach path is mentioned in
a) Aircraft rules 1937
b) Aircraft rules 1954.
c) Aircraft rules 1976.
d) Aircraft rules 1996.
Q.53. Lateral separation to be maintained when crossing a “holding point”
a) 15 nm from the Nav aid.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 5 nm from the Nav aid.
Q.54. On an international flight the maximum number of hours flown and the number of
landings in a day are
a) 9/3
b) 8/4.
c) 6/3.
Q.55. A unit set up to provide an traffic control for aerodrome traffic is
a) Aerodrome control service
b) Aerodrome control tower.
c) Area control service.
Q.56. The most effective way to use eyes at night is
a) Focus only at dim lights at a distance
b) Flutter eyes rapidly.
 c) Scan slowly to center off vision.
d) Focus only on bright lights.
Q.57 When approaching to land on a flat darkened or flat snow covered surface, the
approach might appear to be
a) High
b) Steep
c) Shallow
d) Low.
Q.58. A portion of the airport reserved for loading off loading of cargo passengers,
parking of aircraft & for small maintenance except for taxing is called.
a) Apron
b) Movement area.
c) Maneuvering area.
d) Taxi way
Q.59 The flight duty time limitations are laid down in
a) Aircraft manual
b) Aircraft Rules 1937
c) AIC
d) As in ‘a’ & the maximum duty time for domestic operations is limited to 11
hours.
Q.60. Minimum rest period after domestic flight duty is
a) Twice the duty time performed.
b) Twice the flight time performed.
c) As in ‘b’ but not less than 8 hours.
Q.61. The maximum number of hours that can be flown by a pilot in consecutive 30 days
are
a) 100
b) 125
c) 80
d) 120
Q.62. The Maximum number of hours that can be flown by pilot in consecutive 7 days are
a) 30
b) 50
c) 40
d) 25
Q.63. At an aerodrome the aerobatics can be carried out above 6000 feet.
a) Beyond 4 nm of, nearest perimeter of aerodrome.
b) Beyond 2 nm of, nearest perimeter of aerodrome.
c) Within 2 nm of, nearest perimeter of aerodrome.
d) Within 4 nm of, nearest perimeter of aerodrome.
Q.64. Flying in Danger area is
a) Prohibited.
b) Permitted above a certain flight level.
c) Allowed if permitted by ATC
d) Allowed if permitted by DGCA
Q.65. Flying in an aircraft, below 3000 feet AMSL in a controlled airspace the minimum
horizontal separation from clouds is
a) 300 meters.
b) 500 meters.
c) 1500 meters
d) 1500 feet.
Q.66. An aircraft wants to indicate the difficulties which compel to land without requiring
assistance will do so by
a) Firing red pyrotechnically lights.
b) Firing red & green pyrotechnically lights
c) Firing white pyrotechnically lights or by repeated switching ON
OFF of the Landing light of navigation lights.
Q.67. Aircraft is heading North & Sees green navigation light of another aircraft at a
relative bearing of 045 the aircraft.
a) Are on a collision course
b) Are not on a collision course
c) Could be on a collision course
Q.68 Above flight level 290 the vertical clearance between aircrafts on reciprocal tracks is
a) 1000 feet.
b) 2000 feet.
c) 4000 feet.
Q.69. Lateral separation using VOR is
a) 15 deg at distance of more than 15 nm.
b) 30 deg at distance of more than 15 nm.
c) 10 deg at distance of more than 15 nm.
Q.70. The wreckage of a crashed aircraft on R/W can be removed
a) Extricate dead animal & persons.
b) Extricate animals & persons dead or alive.
c) To permit movement of other aircraft.
Q.71. An aircraft lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome can take off again.
a) With the permission of DGCA.
b) Without any permission of DGCA
c) Only if there is no injury to any one.
Q.72. Changes in the aeronautical services which are likely to last for more than 2 hrs. Are
given in NOTAMS.
a) Series A.
b) Series B.
c) Series C.
Q.73 On board a civil aircraft the Air Force, Army, Navy personnel can
a) Not carry arms at all.
b) Carry arms with the permission of DGCA
c) Carry arms with the permission of central Govt.
Q.74. Aircraft incident must be reported with in
a) 24 hrs.
b) 36 hrs.
c) 48 hrs.
Q.75 An aircraft accident is to be reported with in
a) 24 hrs.
b) 36 hrs.
 c) 48 hrs.
Q.76 An aircraft in circuit encounters R/T failure, how will the pilot acknowledge the light
signals received by him.
a) The pilot will pitch the nose up and down.
b) The pilot will rock wings.
c) The pilot will switch on/off the landing lights.
Q.77 Petroleum in bulk means:
a) Petroleum in receptacle of 900 Lit.
b) Petroleum in receptacle of more than 900 Lit.
c) Petroleum in receptacle of less than 900 Lit.
Q.78. Red Pyrotechnical light given to an aircraft in flight by the Control lower means.
a) Keep circling and give way to another aircraft.
b) You can land here at this aerodrome.
c) Not withstanding previous instruction do not land for the time being.
d) Means nothing to an aircraft in air.
Q.79. Incubation period for Relapsing Fever
a) Eight days
b) Six days.
c) Four days.
Q.80. If there is a patient on board suffering from any Quarantinable decease, the
commander will send a health report to the health officer.
a) 48 Hrs prior to the arrival.
b) 4 Hrs prior to the arrival.
c) 3 Hrs prior to the arrival.
d) 2 Hrs prior to the arrival.
Q.81. A person who has died of Yellow Fever needs to be brought to India.
a) The body can hot be brought to India.
b) The body can only be brought provided it is hermetically sealed.
c) Provided the body is preserved in a wooden box.
d) Provided the body is enclosed in a zinc box.
Q.82 Either hand along with the palm downwards and placed level with the chest and when
moved laterally means:
a) Cut the engines.
b) Slow down.
c) Chocks away.
d) Means nothing.
Q.83 Operational Manual is:
a) Prepared by the manufacture and authorized by operator.
b) Prepared by DGCA and authorized by the operator.
c) Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer.
d) Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA
Q.84 Any prisoner can be carried aboard or onboard any aircraft only if:
a) The prisoner is accompanied by an armed guard.
b) Permitted by the DGCA in writing.
c) Permitted by the District Magistrate.
d) Permitted by the Commissioner of police.
Q.85 Leaflets containing printed matter can only be dropped from any aircraft in motion if :
a) Permitted by the Dist. Magistrate or the Commissioner of Police.
b) Permitted by the DGCA.
c) Permitted by the DDGCA.
d) Permitted by the DR&I
Q.86 An aircraft is commencing descends from its initial FL 290 over Palma Airport. The
altimeter reads 12000 ft. The commander will report his vertical distance to the ATC
in terms of:
a) 12000 Altitude
b) FL 120.
c) FL 290.
d) 29000 Altitude.
Q.87. An aircraft is following 020 Tr (M). The choice of FL available to the pilot are :
a) 50, 70, 90, 150, 170, 190, 210, 230, 250, 270, 290, 370, 410, 450.
b) 55, 75, 95, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275, 295.
c) 50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 160, 180, 200, 220, 240, 260, 280.
Q.88 An aircraft is following 220 Tr (M) as per the quadrental rule, the pilot must choose
FL between:
a) 179 – 269
b) 269 -359
c) 180 – 269
d) 090 - 180
Q.89 An aircraft is flying 5000 AMSL outside control airspace. The commander must fly at
all times under.
a) Aerodrome control.
b) FL 50.
c) 5000 as Altitude.
d) 5000 as Height.
Q.90. For the FACILITIES the pilot should refer to:
a) AIC
b) NOTAM
c) AIP
d) NOTAM CODES
Q. A fresh flight plan is required when
a) a flight is delayed for take off.
b) Controlled flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes.
c) A controlled flight is delayed by more than 60 minutes
d) an-controlled flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes..
Q.91 Photography at an aerodrome can be permitted by
a) DGCA/ DDGCA
b) Director of regulation & inspection ( DR & I)
c) Controller of aerodromes.
d) All
Q.92. No member of the operation crew shall consume any alcoholic drink or narcotic drug
with in a period of ….. 12 Hours before flight & …… during flight
Q.93 Epileptic patients can be carried on board provided they are accompanied by an
attendant ………….
Q.94 White refueling an aircraft no naked flame is allowed within a distance of ……. 30

Q.95 The largest polygon forming a danger zone around a refueling aircraft is …..
obtained by joining points 3 mtrs away from the wing and the fueling vehicle.

Q.96 Except in an emergency dropping of articles from an aircraft is prohibited except

……. Basket of fine sand or water ………

Q.97 If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for …… 06
months.

Q.98 The aircraft of air worthiness can be suspended or withdrawn when.

a) Ac suffers major damage.
b) Ac suffers major detect.
c) Unauthorized modifications carried out.
Q.99. Pilots personal log book is to be preserved for …….. 5 years from the last date of
entry.

Q.100.The minimum height to be flown in hilly areas in IFR flight is ……. 2000 above the
highest obstacle within a radius of 5 nm from the position of ac …..

Q.101 An aircraft flies away from base. The daily inspection is valid for …… a period of 4
days or 12 hours of flying whichever is earlier ………

Q.102 Isolation period for yellow fever is …. 06 ….. Days

Q.103 The thickness of transition layer is ………. 1000’ - 1499………

Q.104. The RVR is measured at heights of ……… 16’

Q.105. The EDTL is applicable for
a) Scheduled flights on.
b) Scheduled flights & training flights.
c) All flights.
Q.106. Over hilly areas IFR flights require a vertical clearance of
a) 2000 feet with in 8 Km of the position of aircraft.
b) 2000 feet with in 5 Km of the position of aircraft.
c) 1000 feet with in 8 Km of the position of aircraft.
d) 1000 feet with in 5 Km of the position of aircraft.
Q.107. Control of air traffic over an aerodrome below 3000 feet is by
a) Approach control
b) Aerodrome control.
c) Control area.
Q.108. Aerobatics should not be performed below:
a) 2000 feet.
b) 5000 feet.
c) 4000 feet.
Q.109. R/T signal for emergency is
a) Security.
b) Pan pan
c) Mayday.
Q.110. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for
a) 2 years
b) 1 year.
c) 1 year if age is less than 40 years.
d) 2 years if age is less than 40 years.
Q.111. Over Bombay aerodrome:
a) An aircraft can not fly VFR.
b) An aircraft can fly VFR.
c) An aircraft can not fly IFR.
Q.112. Control zone refers to:
a) A corridor within a controlled airspace where Radio-Navigation facilities are
available
b) A Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height above the
surface of the earth.
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth.
Q.113. Routes designated by the alphabet W relate to:
a) World wide routes.
b) Domestic routes.
c) Local routes.
d) International routes.
Q.114. Rules regarding demolition of obstructions caused by tall buildings and trees are land
in:
a) Aircraft rules 1937.
b) Aircraft public health rules 1954.
c) Aircraft rules 1994.
d) Aircraft act 1994.
Q.115. Before the first flight ob the day it is whose responsibility to check the serviceability
of the RT apparatus.
a) The commander.
b) The Co-Pilot.
c) The radio officer.
Q.116. Rules related to carriage of dead bodies in an aircraft are laid down in:
a) Aircraft rules 1954.
b) Air corporation act 1953.
c) Aircraft authority act 1971.
d) Carriage by air act of 1972.
Q.117. Air hostesses are to be carried when the seating capacity is
a) 20 seat.
b) More than 10.
c) More than 15.
 d) Carriage of air hostesses depends upon number of Passengers, no upon
number of seats.
Q.118. The % age of Co- Pilot flying to be counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC is
a) 80%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 100%
Q.119. A fresh ADC is required if:
a) A flight is delayed for > than 30 Min at any intermediate airport.
b) A flight is delayed for > than 1 Hr at any intermediate airport.
c) Not required if the flight is delayed but conducted on the same day.
Q.120. The IFR flight vertical separation minima over hilly terrain are:
a) 2000’ above the highest obstacle within a radius of 5 Km. from the aircraft.
b) 2000’ above the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 Km. from the
aircraft.
c) 1000’ above the highest obstacle within a radius of 5 NM from the aircraft.
d) 1000’ above the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 NM from the aircraft.
Q.121. While refueling, any unauthorized person should not be near the re-fueling site
within:
a) 30 meters.
b) 15 feet.
c) 30 feet.
d) 15 metters.
Q.122. Anticollision lights must be installed if the AUW of ac is
a) Less than 5700 Kg.
b) More than 5700 Kg.
c) More than 21000 Kg.
Q.123. An aircraft can cross an ATS route with precautions such as
a) Cross the ATS route at 90 degrees & as in ‘b’ below.
b) Obtain permission minimum 10 minutes before crossing.
c) Look out visually for any other traffic.
d) All are correct.
Q.124. In a CTA the VFR ceiling is
a) 2500 feet.
b) 1500 feet.
c) 3000 feet.
d) 1000 feet.
Q.125. When in an emergency:
a) Squawk code 7600 on mode A.
b) Squawk code 7600 on mode B.
c) Squawk code 7600 on mode C.
d) None (or 7700)
Q.126. Special VFR flight cannot be allowed if visibility is less than
a) 5 Km.
b) 5 Nm.
c) 1.5 Km.
d) 2 Km.
Q.127. The highest point on the landing area is called:
a) Aerodrome elevation.
b) Apron elevation.
c) Center circle of the runway.
Q.128. Anti collision light is a light:
a) Green in colour affixed on to the runway.
b) A red light on the port wing of the aircraft.
c) A red Light visible 30 deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft
which is visible in all directions.
d) The navigation lights of any aircraft are also called anti-collision lights.
Q.129. The pilot of aircraft a sees a Red navigation of the, aircraft B at a Relative Brg of 270:
a) There is no risk of collision and both the aircraft should continue.
b) Aircraft B should after its course towards left.
c) The pilot of aircraft & should after its course towards right to avoidcollision.
Q.130. An aircraft crossing your course “from your left on right angle. You will be able to
see its:
a) Red light.
 b) White light.
c) Green light.
Q.131. A NOTAM which relates to some repair lasting for more than 2 Hrs. would come
under:
a) A: series.
b) B: series.
c) C: series.
d) D: series.
Q.132. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:
a) All VFR are suspended and IFR have been declared compulsory.
b) Landings ……
c) Aircraft are to land take-off & taxi on runways and taxiways only.
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state
of the Maneuvering area.
Q.133. The visibility minima of those Airlines who have not filed their own Minimum with
the DGCA for an airport of Non Precession approach is:
a) 1500.
b) 1500 meters.
c) 5 Nm.
d) 3.7 Km.
Q.134. VFR flights outside a controlled airspace at height above 5000 should not be carried
out it the visibility falls below
a) 8 Km.
b) 8 Nm.
c) 5 Km.
d) 3 Km.
Q.135. The lateral separation using DR Navigation.
a) 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less.
b) 45 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more.
c) 30 deg between aircraft of 15 nm or more.
d) 30 deg between aircraft of 15 nm or less.
Q.136. In class A airspace.
a) All flights are permitted.
b) Only VFR flights are permitted.
c) Only IFR flights are permitted.
Q.137. In class C airspace
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted & are subjected to Air Traffic Control.
b) IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & from the VFR flights &
receive information in respect of VFR flights.
c) VFR flights are separated from IFR flights & receive information about other
VFR flights.
d) All are correct.
Q.138. In class D air space:
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic
Control.
b) IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in
respect of VFR flights.
c) VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights.
d) All are correct.
Q.139. In class E airspace.
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted.
b) All flights receive traffic information.
c) IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control & are separated from other IFR
flights.
d) All are correct.
Q.140. In class F airspace
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted.
b) IFR flights receive air traffic advisory services.
c) All flights receive flight information service on request.
d) All are correct.
Q.141. The minimum number of Stewards/air hostesses to be carried you board if the
passenger carrying capacity is ….
a) 1
 b) 2
c) 3
Q.142. Pilots log book is to be preserved for
a) 5 years from the date of starting the log book.
b) 5 years from the date of last entry.
c) Till the pilots return.
Q.143. Two white crosses on a signal square indicate:
a) Area not fit for the use of aircraft.
b) Gliding in progress.
c) Take permission before landing.
Q.144. Information has been received that an aircraft is about make a forced landing. It is
a) Alert phase.
b) Uncertainty phase.
c) Distress phase.
Q.145. Talking about the ATS routes in India W means.
a) Domestic routes.
b) International routes.
c) Any of the above.
Q.146. Position report is required to be given when
a) Crossing an FIR
b) Over a compulsory reporting point.
c) If so required by ATC
d) All are correct.
Q.147. Check rides are not counted when:
a) Aircraft is phased out of service
b) When on a test flight.
c) For flying club training aircraft.
d) All are counted.
Q.148. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in
a) Aeradio
b) AIP
c) Notams
Q.149. As regards. Air services transit agreement India is a signatory:
a) True
b) False.
Q.150. In the above question the privileges are
a) Permission to fly across its territory without landing.
b) Permission to land for non traffic purpose.
Q.151. The aircraft registration and marking procedures are given in ICAO Annexure:
a) 7
b) 1
c) 11
d) 18.
Q.152. The navigation lights on an aircraft are
a) Right green 110 deg, left red 110 deg.
b) Right green 110 deg, left red 110 deg & rear light white 70 deg.
c) Right green 110 deg, left red 110 deg & rear light white 140 deg.
Q.153 NOTAM class 1 in series ‘A’ are issued when
a) Information is of permanent nature.
b) Information is valid for more than 2 hours.
c) Information is valid for less than 2 hours.
Q.154. An aircraft accident is to be reported:
a) Immediately.
b) Within 24 hours.
c) Within 48 hours.
d) As early as possible.
Q.155. Wake turbine separation minima for landing. If an aircraft is to land behind a heavy
aircraft.
a) 2 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 5 minutes.
Q.156. The revised ETA is to be passed to the ATC if the actual TAS differs from the planned
TAS by
a) 5% or 10 Knots.
b) 10%
c) 20%
Q.157. Prisoners can be carried on board aircraft with written permission of
a) DGCA.
b) Commissioner of Prisons.
c) Controller of police
d) DGCA, DDGCA, DR & I
Q.158. In India all flights above which flight level are to be cleared IFR irrespective of
weather conditions.
a) 280
b) 150.
c) 140.
Q.159. The supersonic speed (mach no.) is ….>1.2 Mach…………
Q.160. Change in the frequencies/location of Nav Aids are notified by
a) Notams.
b) AIRAC System.
c) AIP amendments.
d) Aeradio amendments
Q.161. Displaced threshold … is due to WIP at some part of beginning of R/W can’t be
used for landing and a fresh threshold is marked further ahead. ….
Q.162. On the same aircraft you are making another flight on the same dav.
a) A fresh ADC clearance is required.
b) A fresh ADC clearance is not required.
c) no ADC clearance is required.
Q.163. What does the following marshalling signal indicate?
a) Either arm & hand level with shoulder hand across throat & palm downwards
…… Cut motors.
b) Arms repeatedly crosses above head ……… Stop …….
 c) Arms- down, palms facing outward, swing arms outward ………….remove
chocks…….
d) Arms palms facing inward, swing arms inward ……… insert chocks.
e) Arms down palm towards inward, swing arms inwards …. Slow down …….
f) Arm down palm towards ground & moved up & down several time …… …all
clear.
Q.164. The lateral separation between aircraft VOR is:
a) 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less.
b) 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more.
c) 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more.
d) 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less.
Q.165. The lateral separation between aircraft NDB is:
a) 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less.
b) 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more.
c) 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more.
d) 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less.
Q.166. In a class G air space:
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted.
b) All flights receive flight information service on request.
c) both are correct.
Q.167. In class B at space:
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted.
b) All flights are subject to Air traffic Control & are separated from each other
c) Both are correct.
Q.168. Non scheduled flights can be made in India with a notice of
a) 24 hrs.
b) 36 hrs.
c) 72 hrs.
Q.169. A person coming from Cholera infested area can enter India.
a) Without any medical at certificate or vaccination.
b) With a certificate of vaccination.
c) If accompanied with an attendant.
Q.170. Dead body of a person can be earned in an aircraft:
a) If sealed in a wodden box.
b) If hermetically sealed in a zinc box.
c) Can not be carried at all.
Q.171. Seriously sick patients can be carried on board the aircraft
a) If accompanied with an attendant.
b) If certified fit by a medical officer.
c) Cannot be carried at all.
Q.172. Tokyo Convention Act 1975 is applicable to:
a) All aircraft registered in India.
b) All aircraft registered in India & Military aircraft & State aircraft.
c) All aircraft whether registered in India or except Military aircraft &
State aircraft.
d) All aircraft whether registered in India or not.
Q.173 Wake turbulence separation minima for landing. If a light or a medium aircraft is to
and behind a heavy aircraft:
a) 2 mts.
b) 3 mts.
c) 5 mts.
Q.174. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in his license for endorsement in the
aircraft rating of the ……..
a) With in Indian territory.
b) With in 5 nm of an aerodrome/within LFA of aerodrome
c) Any where
Q.175. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through
a) Amendment to AIP.
b) AIC.
c) NOTAM.
Q.176. If navigation lights fail at night then an aircraft should
a) Force land immediately.
b) Use landing lights & continue to the destination.
c) Report to the nearest aerodrome & land
Q.177. If an aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome it can take off again.
a) After permission from DGCA.
b) After permission from the central Govt.
c) If it is in a position to reach the destination.
Q.178. In India the ATS routes are classified as
a) Class D airspace.
b) Class F airspace.
c) Class C airspace.
Q.179. At an aerodrome tower
a) Red & green beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome.
b) Red & white beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome.
c) White & green beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome.
Q.180. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is
a) 460.
b) 450.
c) 400.
Q.181. VFR flights at an aerodrome are not permitted if visibility is below
a) 5 km.
b) 8 km.
c) 3 km.
Q.182 A series of green & red pyrotechnics fired at short intervals towards an aircraft
indicated that:
a) The aircraft is entering a prohibited area.
b) The aircraft is entering a danger area.
c) The aircraft is entering a restricted area.
d) All are correct.
Q.183 The certificate of airworthiness is suspended it
a) Low flying is done.
b) Un authorized modifications are done
c) Un authorized flying is done.
Q.184. Landing & housing charges are based on:
a) All up weight of the aircraft
b) Passengers carrying capacity of aircraft
c) Actual landing weight of the aircraft.
Q.185. The aircraft public health rules were published in:
a) 1937.
b) 1954.
c) 1934.
d) 1947.
Q.186. If an aircraft comes from a place which is a yellow fever area & was disinfected it is
to be quarantined:
a) If it stopped at a place where there was yellow fever
b) If there is a patient suffering from yellow fever on board.
c) Not to be quarantined.
Q.187. The incubation period for yellow fever is
a) 8 days.
b) 6 days.
c) 4 days.
Q.188. Emergency check lists are prepared by the
a) Manufacturer & authorized by operator.
b) Operator & authorized by DGCA.
c) DGCA & authorized by manufacturer.
Q.189. Wake turbulence separation minima for landing if a light or a medium aircraft is to
land behind a heavy aircraft is
a) 2 mts.
b) 3 mts.
c) 5 mts.
Q.190. The highest point on the ground in an airfield is:
a) ARP.
b) Airfield elevation.
c) Aerodrome height.
d) Obstruction height.
Q.191. Over Malabar hills in Mumbai aircraft can not fly within
a) 2 nm from the Lower of silence.
b) 1 nm from the Lower of silence.
c) 5 nm from the Lower of silence.
Q.192. Supersonic aircraft can fly over Indian territory:
a) Above Mach 2.0
b) Unrestricted.
c) Below Mach 1
Q.193. When-crossing FIR the SSR should be selected to which channel:
a) 2000.
b) 7600.
c) 7700.
d) 7500.
Q.194. The validity period of a CPL is
a) 5 Years.
b) 10 years.
c) 2 Years.
Q.195. The validity of medical for a CPL is
a) 2 years.
b) 1 year.
c) 5 years.
Q.196. You are about to board your aircraft as PIC. Your license can be checked by
a) The District Magistrate.
b) A customs officer.
c) A police officer
d) None of the above.
Q.197. The Rescue coordination centers in India are headed by
a) Local IAF commander
b) One of the local IAF/Army/Navy commanders.
c) Controller of aerodromes.
Q.198. On an IFR flight plan in VMC you have an R/T failure. The action is
a) Continue strictly as per the flight plan.
b) Continue to destination in VMC.
c) Proceed to alternate in VMC.
d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
Q.199. An aircraft can be detained under which act.
a) 8.
b) 8a
c) 8b
d) 8 c.
Q.200. Navigator is required to be carried on board it:
a) For a distance of more than 600 nm no Nav aid is available on the route.
b) For a distance of more than 600 nm no Navigation aid is available within
30 nm either side of the route
Q.201. All flights are permitted in which airspace
a) Class B.
b) Class C & D
c) Class E, F, G.
d) All are correct.
Q.202 The C of A is deemed to be lapsed if:
a) A modification is made without approval of DGCA.
b) Aircraft is involved in an accident.
c) Aircraft suffers a major damage
d) All are correct.
Q.203. Military personnel can carry arms & ammunition in an aircraft with the written
permission of
a) DGCA.
b) Central Govt.
c) Army HQ.
d) None of the above.
Q.204. An aircraft has forced landed at an aerodrome, it can take off again:
a) If the pilot is satisfied after an inspection that the aircraft is airworthy.
b) With the permission of DGCA.
c) With the permission of commissioner of police.
d) Any of the above.
Q.205 On change of ownership the aircraft.
a) Can fly immediately.
b) Can not fly till registered in the name of new owner.
c) Can not fly till permission is obtained from central Govt.
d) Can not fly till permission is obtained from new owner.
Q.206 Landing & housing charges are charged as per the
a) AUW of the aircraft at the time of landing.
b) Maximum AUW of the aircraft.
c) Number of persons on board.
d) Navigation facilities used.
Q.207. Route guides are required to be carried in
a) All aircraft
b) All private aircraft.
c) Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services
Q.208. The crew of an aircraft should not consume any alcoholic drinks.
a) Within 12 hours before the flight.
b) As in ‘a’ & during flight.
c) Within 24 hours before the flight.
Q.209. Mental patients can not be carried in an aircraft except when:
a) Certified by an RMP as fit to fly without causing harm to other passengers.
b) Accompanied by an attendant.
c) Both are correct.
Q.210. Loose sheets of paper containing printed matter can be dropped from an aircraft with
the permission of:
a) DM.
b) Commissioner of Police.
c) Both are correct.
Q.211. In India the IFR & VFR flights:
a) Separated from each other
b) Not separated.
c) not separated but information is given to other aircraft.
Q.212. A new flight plan is required to be filed at an
a) Uncontrolled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes.
b) Controlled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes.
c) Controlled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by less than 30 minutes.
Q.213. Displaced threshold is indicated by
a) White lights in a row
b) Red lights in a row.
c) Green lights in a row.
Q.214. Distress signal is
a) Dropping of red parachute flares.
b) Firing of white pyrotechnical lights in
c) Firing of green pyrotechnical lights in succession.
Q.215. Series of projectiles fired at an interval of 10 second, on bursting showing red 7 green
stars or lights indicate
a) Aircraft is in distress but no immediate assistance in required.
b) Aircraft is in distress and immediate assistance is required.
c) Aircraft is flying over or in the vicinity of a prohibited area.
d) Aircraft is flying over or in the vicinity of a prohibited area, restricted
area or danger area.
Q.216. Weather minima VMC below 3000 feet in a controlled …….. is
a) Visibility 8 Km
b) Visibility 5 Km
c) Visibility 1.5 Km
d) Visibility 300 meters.
Q.217. While taking off from the same R/W or parallel R/W at less than 760 meters apart, a
light or a medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft the separation minima is
a) 2 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
 c) 5 minutes.
Q.218. Which aircraft may be n a collision course:
a) Aircraft on the right with red navigation light in sight.
b) Aircraft on the left with red navigation light in sight.
c) Aircraft on the right with white navigation light in sight.
Q.219. The green navigation light is visible through
a) 110 deg from forward to the right.
b) 110 deg from forward to the left.
c) 110 deg from tail to the right.
d) 140 deg.
Q.220. A light aircraft departs behind a medium aircraft the time gap between the two is
a) 1 mt.
b) 2 mts.
c) 3 mts
d) 5 mts.
Q.221. Cabotage of traffic refers to
a) Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting state to carry passengers/
cargo between two points within the territory of another contracting
state.
b) Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting state to carry passengers/
cargo between two points outside the territory of another contracting state.
c) Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting state to carry passengers/
cargo to the territory of another contracting state.
d) Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting state to carry passengers/
cargo out from the territory of another contracting state.
Q.222. Thresh hold is
a) Beginning of the runway
b) Beginning of that part of the runway usable for landing
c) A point where taxy ways meet.
Q.223. When refueling an aircraft
a) No unauthorized person within 15 mtrs
b) No naked flame with in 30 Mtrs.
 c) No smoking with in …….. 30 Mtrs.
Q.224. A red flag on the ATC indicates ……. Flying in progress…..
Q.225. To an aircraft a red flag on the ATC indicates ………. Nothing ……
Q.226. A Bombay over Malabar hills flying is not permitted within a distance of
a) 2 nm.
b) 5 Km.
c) 1 nm.
Q.227.The air space over Mathura refinery is a
a) Restricted area.
b) Prohibited area
c) Danger area.
Q.228. A steady white light directed towards an aircraft an fight means
a) Land at this aerodrome & proceed to the apron.
b) Landing prohibited
c) Return to the starting point
d) Nothing.
Q.229. On the ground a red square with two yellow diagonals means
a) Exercise caution while landing.
b) Takeoff is prohibited.
c) Landing- prohibited.
d) Landing prohibited and prohibition is likely to be prolonged.
Q.230. Letter “C” in black against yellow background means
a) Accident reports to be made here.
b) Reports concerning air traffic services to be made here.
c) Flight plans to be collected from here.
d) All the above are correct.
Q.231. Two digits in black colour against a yellow back ground, displayed vertically indicate.
a) QDM
b) Direction for take off.
c) Wind direction
d) QDR for landing
Q.232. An aircraft can fly over danger area
 a) Above flight level 290.
b) If cleared by ATC.
c) Unrestricted.
Q.233. Tokyo Convention is valid for
a) All international flights.
b) All domestic flights.
c) All local flights.
Q.234. The authority to detain an aircraft is given in
a) Rule 8 of rules 1957.
b) Act. 8 of aircraft Act 1934.
c) Rule 8 C Aircraft rules 1937.
d) Rule 8 D of aircraft Act. 1934.
Q.235. The threshold of the Runway is
a) The point where the aircraft lines up.
b) That point in the beginning of the Runway used for landing.
c) The beginning of the Runway.
Q.236. A report received from an aircraft giving its regular position and/or met report is
called
a) Met report.
b) Position report.
c) Air report.
Q.237. A steady red light projected to an aircraft in light means give way to other ac, don’t
land for the time being.
Q.238. A steady green light projected to an aircraft on the ground/air means … clear to
takeoff / land
Q.239 A cross with a single conspicuous colour, preferably white on the maneuvering area
means …….. Area unfit for use by aircraft ……….
Q.240 During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference in discharging your
duties. On SSR you should endeavor to set
a) 7500 mode A. b) 7600 mode A.
c) 7500 mode C. d) 7700 mode C
Q.241. On an IFR flight plan but in VMC you have communication failure you should:
 a) Maintain VMC & land at the most convenient aerodrome.
b) Maintain VMC & land at the nearest aerodrome.
c) Proceed according to flight plan.
Q.242. The airspace set up as a corridor where navigation aids are available is called.
a) Airway
b) Controlled airspace.
c) Radar airspace.
Q.243 The transition altitude is laid down by
a) The ATC.
b) The Pilot.
c) The State.
Q.244. Above what height the flight levels are to be used in India.
a) 4000 feet. b) 3000 feet.
c) 5500 feet. d) 6500 feet.
Q.245. A fresh flight plan is to be filed if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than
a) One hour.
b) 30 minutes.
c) Always irrespective of the time delay.
Q.246. A temporary change concerning operational matter is notified in
a) AIP.
b) Notams.
c) AIC.
Q.247. The air designator for world wide ATS routes are in which colour.
a) White b) Red, Green, Blue & Amber.
c) Red & Green. d) Red, Green, Blue, Amber & White.
Q.248. The air designator for domestic ATS routes are in which colour.
a) White
b) Red & Green.
c) Red, Green, Blue & Amber.
d) Red, Green, Blue, Amber & White.
Q.249. A change in operational status of an aeronautic facility which lasts for more than two
hours is issued under which series of
 a) Series A.
b) Series B.
c) Series C.
d) Series D.
Q.250. For FDTL the flying time of training flights is:
a) Accounted.
b) Not counted.
c) Partially counted.
d) Counted only if combined with a scheduled flight
Q.251. FDTL limitations for the flight crew on domestic flight is
a) 8 hrs.
b) 9 hrs.
c) 10 hrs.
d) 11 hrs.
Q.252. The minimum time separation for a light aircraft to land behind a heavy aircraft is
a) 2 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 25minutes.
Q.253 The ATC is to be notified if during a flight the TAS changes by more than
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
Q.254 Aircraft flying on the same track should have a minimum separation of
a) 15 minutes. b) 10minutes.
c) 5 minutes. d) 20 minutes.
Q.255 Which type of airspace exist in India
a) Class A
b) Class D& F
c) Class D, E, F, & G
d) Class B, C, D, & F
Q.256. You will report an air miss when:
a) You see an aircraft at same flight level.
 b) You see an aircraft at close proximity with no risk of collision.
c) You see an aircraft at close proximity and you think there was
risk of collision.
Q.257.All records associated with defects & their rectification are required to be preserved
for a period of
a) One year.
b) Two years.
c) Till the aircraft is phased out of service.
Q.258. C of A will cease to be valid if
a) Aircraft is engaged in unauthorized operations.
b) Aircraft suffers from a major damage or defect.
c) There is a change of ownership.
d) All are correct.
Q.259. All defects observed during flight are to be reported.
a) Soon after the flight.
b) After the last flight of the day in case or training aircraft making a series of
flight in a single day. Unless a serious defect occurs.
c) Both are correct.
Q.260. Fire extinguishers are carried in an aircraft cabin.
a) To extinguish cabin fire.
b) To extinguish electrical fire.
c) Because it is required under the regulations.
Q.261. FDR has a record of operation of proceeding.
a) 25 hours. b) 5 hours.
c) 30 mts. d) Flight.
Q.262. FDR is mandatory for
a) All aircraft.
b) Aircraft with AUW exceeding 21000 Kg.
c) Aircraft with AUW exceeding 5700 Kg.

Q.263. The colour of the FDR is

a) Black.
 b) Bright yellow.
c) Bright orange.
d) Either ‘b’ or ‘c’
Q.264. The CVR has the capability of recording information.
a) One hour or more.
b) At least 30 minutes.
c) The preceding flight.
Q.265. The FDR is …… in an aircraft to
a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft.
b) Help in accident investigation.
c) Both are correct.
Q.266. The width of an air way is
a) 20 nm.
b) 40 nm,
c) 20 nm over land f& 40 nm over sea.
Q.267. The international Air Transit agreement was signed by India at Chicago in 1944.
Q.268. The Warsaw Convention was held for.. unification of certain rules relating to
international carriage by air regarding passengers, ticketing and baggage etc.
Q.269. The operational control is exercised by the
a) The operator.
b) DGCA.
c) Air Traffic Control.
Q.270. The operational manual is prepared by
a) DGCA.
b) Operator.
c) Operator & is approved by the DGCA.
Q.271. An altimeter is set to QNH before landing in order to
a) Have clearance between aircraft flying on the circuit.
b) Have clearance from the obstructions on the ground
c) Reduce the altimeter errors.
Q.272. While on a cross country over hilly terrain the minimum clearance required is
 a) 2000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm of position of the
aircraft.
b) 2000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm. Of the desired track.
c) 1000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm. of the aircraft..
Q.273. The aircraft public health rules were published in which year
a) 1937.
b) 1954.
c) 1934.
Q.274. A flight navigator is require to be carried on board if …… if no nav aid is available
for 600 nm and within 30 nm of either side of track ……
Q.275. Mails can be carried in the aircraft with the permission of :
a) DGCA.
b) DDGCA.
c) DR & I
d) DG P & T
Q.276. Photography at an aerodrome can be allowed with the permission of
a) DGCA.
b) DM.
c) Commissioner of police.
Q.277. ADC clearance is required to be obtained
a) On a cross country flight.
b) For all aircraft operating within ADIZ.
c) When returning to base on the same day.
d) It is not required when returning to base on the same day.
Q.278. Dead body or remains of a person who has died of yellow fever can be brought to
India with the permission of
a) Health officer. b) Indian Embassy aboard.
c) Central Govt. d) Can not be brought.
Q.279. The rules for Public health were published fin
a) 1954. b) 1934.
c) 1939. d) 1947.
Q.280. The displaced threshold is indicated by
 a) White lights. b) Green lights.
c) Red lights. d) Yellow lights.
Q.281. The displaced threshold is indicated by:
a) White lights. b) Green lights.
c) Red lights. d) Yellow lights.
Q.282. The end of the R/W is indicated by
a) White lights b) Green lights.
c) Red lights. d) Yellow lights.
Q.283 For the purpose of renewal of CPL:
a) 50% of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC.
b) 50% of instrument flying is counted as PIC.
c) 80% of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC.
Q.284. An aircraft can fly within 5 nm of an airfield this area is called.
a) Restricted area. b) Danger area.
c) Prohibited area. d) Airfield area.
Q.285. Penalty for carrying explosives or arms & giving wrong statements:
a) 2 years of imprisonment & time.
b) 2 years of imprisonment & time. ………
c) One year ……..
Q.286. The certified of air worthiness……. suspended
a) After an accident
b) After unauthorized ……….
c) Aircraft suffers in major detect.
d) All correct.
Q.287.
a)
b)
c)
Q.288. An aircraft coming from Bombay to Delhi lands at Jaipur due to weather. It can T/O
again without permission of the DGCA.
TRUE/ FALSE
Q.289. Aircraft flying on the same track & level the longitude separation is
 a) 30 mts.
b) 15 mts.
c) 05 mts.
Q.290. Aircraft flying on the same Track & level when frequent position fixing is possible
the longitudinal separation is
a) 30 mts. b) 15 mts.
c) 05 mts. d) 10 mts.
Q.291. At an aerodrome a red square with two yellow diagonals indicates …… landing
prohibited and prohibition is likely to last for long……
Q.292. A series of green flashes directed towards an aircraft on the ground indicates ……
Clear to TAXI .
Q.293. Officers belonging to Army/Navy/Air Force
a) Can carry arms on board a civil aircraft.
b) Can not carry arms on board a civil aircraft.
Q.294. An extremely sick person
a) Can not be carried on board an aircraft.
b) Can be carried on board an aircraft.
c) Can be carried on board an aircraft, if accompanied by an attendant &
certified by a registered medical practitioner.
Q.295. The reciprocal tracks on a semicircular system below F/L 290 have vertical clearance
of
a) 500 feet.
b) 1000 feet.
c) 2000 feet.
Q.296. In India the semicircular system starts from F/L
a) 150. b) 170.
c) 290. d) 160.
Q.297. The Runway direction is measured with respect to :
a) True North. b) Magnetic North.
c) Compass North. d) Grid North.

Q.298. A red flag on top of ATC building means:

 a) Do not land
b) Do not take off.
c) Flying in progress.
Q.299. Longitudinal separation between two aircraft flying at the level using DME is
a) 20 nm.
b) 10 nm if the preceding aircraft is flying at a TAS of 20 or faster than
the aircraft behind.
c) Both are correct.
Q.300. In India the controlled airspaces are designated as:
a) Class D.
b) Class B.
c) Class C.
Q.301. The met minima is provided by the
a) Operator. b) Manufacturer.
c) Controller of aerodromes. d) DGCA.
Q.302. For class I Met office the minimum notice required for a route forecast is
a) 3 hrs. b) 12 hrs.
c) 18 to 24 hrs. d) 12 to 24 hrs.
Q.303. For class III Met office the minimum notice required for a route forecast of
domestic flights is
a) 3 hrs. b) 12 hrs.
c) 8 to 24 hrs. d) 12 to 24 hrs.
Q.304. The Tokyo convention Act 1975 applies fto
a) All aircraft. b) The whole of India.
c) Any where in the world.
Q.305. The aircraft rules 1937 apply to:
a) The whole of India.
b) All aircraft registered in India, where ever these are flying & all persons on
board these aircraft.
c) All aircraft when flying over India & all persons on board.
d) All are correct.
Q.306. The act rules dealing with public health is
 a) Public health rules 1954.
b) Aircraft (Public Health) Rules
Q.307. ATC provides which of the following
a) Advisory service b) Control of air traffic.
c) Search & rescue. d) All are correct.
Q.308. Minimum visibility aerodrome equipped with radio aids.
a) 2.7 km. b) 3.7 km.
c) 5 km. d) 1.5 km.
Q.309. Minimum visibility aerodrome not equipped with radio aids:
a) 2.7 km. b) 3.7 km.
c) 5 km. d) 1.5 km.
Q.310. For the purpose of having additional aircraft in the aircraft rating of the license. The
training flying should be carried.
a) With in 5 nm of the aerodrome.
b) Within the local flying area of the aerodrome.
c) Any where in India.
d) All are correct.
Q.311. The maximum number of hours a pilot can fly in 30 days is
a) 125 hrs as PIC.
b) 125 hrs PIC or Co-pilot.
c) 156 hrs 15 minutes.
Q.312. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when:
a) Visibility falls below 5 Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet.
b) Visibility falls below 8 Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet.
c) Visibility falls below 5 Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet.
Q.313.The dead body of a person who has died due to Cholera can be brought in to
India with the permission of
a) Indian foreign mission aboard.
b) DGCA.
c) Central Govt.

Q.314. At an aerodrome a red square with a yellow diagonal means

 a) Landing prohibited.
b) Exercise caution when approaching to land & when landing.
c) Caution more than one direction being used for all Take Offs & Landings.
Q.315. An extremely sick person
a) Can not be carried on board an aircraft.
b) Can be carried on board an aircraft, it accompanied by an attendant.
c) Can be carried on board an aircraft, if authorized by a doctor.
Q.316. The green Navigation light is visible through an are of angle of
a) 110 deg.
b) 140 deg.
c) 90 deg.
Q.317. ADC is required when operating with in ADIZ
a) For all flights.
b) For all flights operating at a distance of more than 5 nm from the
aerodrome.
c) For all Military aircraft.
Q.318. Over hilly terrain IFR flights require a vertical clearance of
a) 2000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 8 nm.
b) 2000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 5 nm.
c) 1000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 5 nm.
Q.319. When an aircraft is flying away from the base the Daily inspection is valid …. 04
days or 12 hours of flight time, whichever earlier ……….
Q.320. Anti collision light is required to be fitted on
a) All aircraft.
b) All aircraft in IFR flight.
c) Aircraft weight exceeding 5700 Kg.
Q.321. The responsibility to check the serviceability of RT apparatus is of
a) PIC.
b) Radio operator.
c) Co- pilot.
Q.322. For the pilots in respect of whom the weather minima has not been filed by
operator the minima applicable is
 a) Aerodrome minima for VFR
b) DGCA minima
c) ICAO minima
Q.323. An IFR flight on a route not defined by specific reporting points the position
reports to be made every
a) 30 minutes b) One hour
c) 45 minutes. d) Only when requested by ATC
Q.324. The number of search & rescue areas in India are
a) Six.
b) Four.
c) Five.
Q.325. Minimum lateral separation between aircraft climbing through the level of another
aircraft holding over a navigation aid is
a) 5 nm.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 15 nm (5 minutes longitudinal separation)
Q.326. On Take Off the aircraft is transferred from aerodrome control to approach control
a) Once the aircraft is in clouds.
b) When 15 nm from the aerodrome.
c) In the vicinity of the aerodrome.
d) When lined up for take off.
Q.327. Minimum DME separation aircraft flying on the same track & same direction is
a) 10 nm.
b) 20 nm.
c) 10 minutes.
Q.328. An aircraft is flying on magnetic course (Tr) 180. In a quadrantal system it would be
flying.
a) Odd thousand feet. b) Even thousand feet.
c) Odd thousand + 500 feet. d) Even thousand + 500 feet.

Q.329. The facilities available at an airfield will be mentioned in

a) AIP. b) AIRAC.
 c) AIC D) NOTAMS
Q.330. An aircraft at supersonic speed can fly over India.
a) With permission of Central Govt.
b) With the permission of DGCA.
c) Can not fly.
Q.331. An aircraft is descending over Delhi aerodrome from Flight level 290. The altimeter
reads 12000 feet. The pilot will report vertical distance as
a) 12000 feet. b) Flight level 120
c) Flight level 290. d) 29000 feet.
Q.332. VMC exists at an aerodrome when visibility is more than
a) 8 Km.
b) 5 Km.
c) 3 Km.
Q.333. UTC means
a) Coordinated universal time.
b) Universal coordinated time.
c) Universal time coordinated.
Q.334. The runway direction is measured with respect
a) True North.
b) Magnetic North.
c) Compass North.
Q.335. While in a circuit an aircraft experiences RT failure the pilot should
acknowledge RT signals by
a) Pitching the nose Up/Down
b) Rocking wings.
c) Switching ON/OFF landing lights.
Q.336. Petroleum in bulk means Petroleum contained in receptacles.
a) Of 900 liters capacity
b) Exceeding 900 liters capacity
c) Less than 900 liters capacity.
Q.337. A red pyrotechnical light fired from control tower in front of an aircraft means
a) Keep circling & give way to other aircraft.
 b) Not with standing with the previous instructions, do not land for the time
being.
c) Nothing.
Q.338. The incubation period for relapsing fever is
a) 8 days.
b) 6 days.
c) 4 days.
Q.339. During night flying if navigation lights fail, the pilot should
a) Send a May Day signal.
b) Land at the alternate aerodrome.
c) Land as soon as possible.
Q.340. When flying within transition layer the altitude is reported on
a) QFE. b) QNH
c) QNE. d) Not reported at aft.
Q.341. Minimum Longitudinal separation in terms of time when passing through the level of
another aircraft on the same track, from the time the level is crossed is
a) 5 minutes. b) 10 minutes.
c) 15 minutes. d) 20 minutes.
Q.342. The FDR should be capable of recording the conversation for at least preceding
a) 25 Hrs. b) 5 Hrs.
c) 25 Minutes. d) 30 minutes.
Q.343. The FDTL for international flights in terms of flying hours & number of landings is
a) 9/3 b) 8/4
c) 6/3 d) 9/4
Q.344. Hypoxia is a result of which of the following conditions
a) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain
b) Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream.
c) Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.

Q.345. What causes hypoxia?

a) Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
 b) An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at high altitudes.
c) A decrease in the oxygen partial pressure.
Q.346. A loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases
a) The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased.
b) The percentage of oxygen in the air is increased.
c) Oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
Q.347. What is the symptom of carbon mono oxide poisoning?
a) Rapid shallow breathing
b) Pain & cramping of the hands & feet.
c) Dizziness.
Q.348. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on the function of body
a) Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude increases.
b) Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increases judgement &
decision making ability.
c) Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
Q.349. What is the common symptom of hyperventilation?
a) Tingling of the hands & feet.
b) Increased vision …….
c) Decreased breathing rate.
Q.350. What would most likely to occur in hyperventilation
a) A stressful situation causing anxiety.
b) The excessive consumption of alcohol.
c) An extremely slow rate of breathing & insufficient oxygen.
Q.351. Scanning procedure for effective collision avoidance should constitute
a) Looking outside for 15 seconds then inside for 5 seconds then repeat
b) 1 minute inside scanning then one minute outside scanning then repeat.
c) Looking out side every 3.0 seconds except in radar contact when outside
scanning is unnecessary.

Q.352. What is the most effective way to use eyes during night flying?
a) Look only at far away dim lights.
 b) Scan slowly to permit off center viewing
c) Concentrate directly on each object for few seconds.
Q.353. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision
avoidance.
a) One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed.
b) One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed.
c) One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement &
is increasing in size.
Q.354.When making a ….. over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow
pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to be:
a) High
b) Low.
c) Shallow
Q.355. Haze can give illusion that the aircraft is
a) Close to the runway than it actually is
b) Farther from the runway than actually is
c) The same distance from the runway as there is no restriction to visibility.
Q.356. A sudden penetration of fog can give an illusion of:
a) Pitching up.
b) Pitching down.
c) Levering off.
Q.357. Rain on the wind screen can cause what illusion.
a) No illusion.
b) Lower than actual.
c) Higher than actual.
Q.358. The body of a person died of yellow fever can be brought to India if
a) The body is hermetically sealed.
b) The body is seated in a zinc box.
c) Can not be brought to India.

Q.359. Anti collision light is mandatory to be …… on aircraft AUW more than

a) 1500 Kg.
 b) 5700 Kg.
c) 6000 Kg.
Q.360. Either arm & hand level with shoulder, hand across throat palm downwards means:
a) Cut engines
b) Turn to the direction in which hand is pointing.
c) Slow down & stop.
Q.361. Unidirectional green lights are arranged at
a) The beginning of the runway.
b) The displaced threshold.
c) The end of the runway.
Q.362. From the beginning of the runway, to the displaced threshold the runway edge lights
are
a) White b) Red.
c) Green. d) Yellow.
Q.363. During flight a red light seen on a Relative bearing of 270 means
a) A risk of collision with another aircraft.
b) No risk of collision with another aircraft.
c) An aerodrome beacon indicating unsafe conditions.
Q.364. A Control Zone is
a) An airspace with in which an traffic is controlled
b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the
earth to a specific upper limit.
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified upper limit above
the earth.
Q.365. When using earth’s horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other
aircraft most concern would be for aircraft:
a) Above the horizon & increasing in size.
b) On the horizon with …. Relative movement.
c) On the horizon & increasing in size.
Q.366. When making an approach on ……… than usual runway without VASI assistance,
the pilot should be aware that the approach:
a) Altitude may be higher than it appears.
 b) Approach attitude may be lower than it appears.
c) May result in leveling off too high & landing hard.
Q.367. The maximum number of hours a pilot can fly as PIC in one tear:
a) 1000
b) 1500
c) 125.
Q.368. Instrument flying time means:
a) Flying time during night.
b) The time during which the pilot is flying solely with reference
instruments without any external visual reference.
c) The time during which the pilot is flying with reference to instruments with
external visual reference.
Q.369. In the semicircular system the track separation is
a) 000 – 175 & 180 – 356. b) 000 – 179 & 180 – 359.
c) 001 – ISO & 181 – 360. d) 000 – 179 & 181 – 359.
Q.370. When on a cross country a delay of ETA more than …….. is to be reported to ATC
a) 5 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 15 minutes.
Q.371. An aircraft can cross ATS route with precautions such as
a) At an angle of 60 degrees.
b) At an angle of 90 degrees.
c) At an altitude not more than 1000 feet from the cruising altitude.
Q.372. When flying over a crash site a pilot will acknowledge the signs from the survivors
by
a) Rocking wings
b) Low pass over the crash site.
c) Reporting to ATC.

Q.373. The sign from a crash site indicating that ‘assistance required’ is
a) X b) S
c) V d) C
Q.374. Aerodrome control service is provided in
a) Circuit b) Control zone.
c) Control area. d) All the above.
Q.375. Met minima for VFR flights above 3000 feet AMSL is
a) Visibility 8 Km, Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M
Vertically.
b) Visibility 8 nm, Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M
Vertically.
c) Visibility 5 Km, Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M
Vertically.
Q.376. For civil aerodromes the colour of the rotating beacon is
a) White
b) White & Green
c) White & Blue.
Q.377. To cross an ATS route Permission is to be obtained minimum
a) 10 minutes before crossing.
b) 15 minutes before crossing.
c) 30 minutes before crossing.
Q.378. For domestic flights minimum distance from the international border is
a) 5 nm.
b) 10 nm.
c) 15 nm.
Q.379. The refueling operation should be stopped if a jet aircraft starts to run up its engines
within a distance of
a) 43 meters
b) 141 meters.
c) 15 meters.

Q.380. The light aircraft departing behind a medium aircraft the minimum time difference is
a) 2 mts.
b) 3 mts.
 c) 5 mts.
Q.381. An aircraft can be detained under.
a) Aircraft act 1934.
b) Aircraft act rules 1937.
c) Aircraft act rules 1934.
Q.382. The facilities provided by ATC in aerodrome control are
a) Control b) Traffic.
c) Search & rescue. d) All the above are correct.
Q.383. An aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in IMC. It should fly according to
a) Semicircular system.
b) Quadrental system.
c) Return back to base.
Q.384. Rules regarding demolition of obstruction caused by tall buildings trees etc are laid
down in:
a) Aircraft rules 1937. b) Aircraft rules 1934.
c) Aircraft act. 1934. d) Aircraft public health rules 1954.
Q.385. Night flying corresponds to flying between:
a) Half hr. before sunset to half hr. after sunrise.
b) Half hr. after sunset to half hr. after sunrise.
c) Half hr. after sunset to half hr. before sunrise.
d) Half hr. before sunset to half hr. after sunrise.
Q.387. If a passenger on board the aircraft is suffering from an illness. PIC is to inform
health officer ……… hours before landing.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4.

Q.388. The punishment for carriage of unauthorized arms & ammunition in the aircraft is
A) Maximum 3 months imprisonment or fine of Rs. 1000/- or both.
b) Maximum 6 months imprisonment or fine of Rs. 1000/- or both.
 c) Maximum 2 months imprisonment or fine of Rs. 500/- or both.
d) Maximum 2 years punishment and fine.
Q.389. For aircraft flying over India enroute navigation charges are based on
a) The duration & length of flight.
b) The Duration of stay
c) Maximum AUW of the aircraft.
Q.390. A Pilot involved in an accident can fly again.
a) After a medical examination.
b) When asked by the operation to fly.
c) When cleared by the DGCA.
Q.391. The area of 10 km around Mathura refinery is termed as:
a) Danger area. b) Prohibited area.
c) Protected area. d) Restricted area.
Q.392. An aircraft can fly over a danger area:
a) If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active:
b) With the permission of ATC.
c) Out side the stipulated time.
d) Can not fly at all.
Q.393. Around Malabar hill the flying is prohibited within
a) ½ nm from the tower of silence.
b) 1 nm from the tower of silence.
c) 5 nm from the tower of silence.
d) 2 nm from the tower of silence
Q.394.VFR in a control zone is terminated if visibility falls below
a) 8 Km.
b) 5 Km.
c) 1.5 Km.
d) 3 tan.
Q.395. In a controlled airspace the VFR flights will be terminated if the cloud ceiling falls
below:
a) 1000 feet.
b) 1500 feet.
 c) 5000 feet.
d) 1500 meters.
Q.396. The certificate of airworthiness lapses when
a) An aircraft suffers a major damage.
b) If an authorized flying is done.
c) If an authorized people are carried on board.
d) All are correct.
Q.397. The air report contains which of the following
a) Air temperature Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft icing.
b) Turbulence upper winds & surface temperature.
c) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft icing.
d) All are correct.
Q.398. The minimum enroute altitude when flying over hilly terrain is
a) 1000 feet.
b) 2000 feet.
c) 500 feet.
Q.399. A risk of collision exists if you sea a red navigation light of another aircraft:
a) On the port side.
b) On the starboard side.
c) Both poet & starboard side.
Q.400. The controlled airspace in the confluence of ATS routes is called:
a) Approach control.
b) Area control.
c) Control area.