Roll No: ______________________

Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham

Amrita School of Engineering
B. Tech Degree Examinations – May 2016
Fourth Semester
Soft Skills I – SSK 111
Verbal & Aptitude Skills
Time 2 Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer all questions
Instructions

 The examination consists of two parts. Part I Verbal Skills & Part II Aptitude Skills.
 Both parts consist of 50 questions each.
 Each question has four options marked A, B, C & D.
 Shade the option of your choice with PENCIL or PEN. For example, if C is the answer, mark as shown below.

A B D

 Make sure that shading is prominent.

 If an answer has to be reworked, the new option should be marked only after erasing the existing one.
 The OMR sheet should not be tampered. If any damage occurs, a new OMR sheet should be used.
 Each question carries one mark and there is NO NEGATIVE MARK.
 Computing device in any form is strictly not allowed.

Part - 1
Verbal Skills
Directions (1 – 5): Choose a word that is the closest in meaning to the given word

1. Modest
A. Attractive B. Clever C. Current D. Humble

2. Custom
A. Dessert B. Habit C. Ethic D. Deliver

3. Prolong
A. Protract B. Inquire C. Relax D. Wait

4. Hustle
A. Dance B. Hurry C. Busy D. Clean

5. Solemn
A. Hilarious B. Detrimental C. Naïve D. Sombre

Directions (6 – 10): Choose a word that is opposite in meaning to the given word

6. Penchant
A. Disinclined B. Lone C. Directness D. Incompetence

7. Gracious
A. Cordial B. Discourteous C. Furious D. Tactile
8. Valor
A. Impuissance B. Counterfeit C. Plunge D. Profound

9. Severe
A. Lenient B. Guarded C. Adhere D. Solitary

10. Knowing
A. Wasteful B. Dense C. Clumsy D. Fast

Directions (11 - 15): Identify the appropriate analogous pair.

11. Lying: Perjury

A. Statement: Testimony C. Taking: Stealing
B. Seeing: Observing D. Eating: Dining

12. Prehistoric: Medieval

A. Akbar: British C. Present: Future
B. Antique: Outdated D. Colossus: Elephant

13. Loud: Stentorian

A. Mild: Noisy C. Adjective: Descriptive
B. Painful: Prickly D. Bright: Resplendent

14. Limpid: Murky

A. Dazed: Clouded C. Bright: Gloomy
B. Obscure: Vague D. Nebulous: Dim

15. Ease: Alleviate

A. Hint: Allocate C. Collapse: Rise
B. Revolt: Repudiate D. Question: Interrogate

Directions (16 – 20): Choose the appropriate preposition.

16. My mom looked ………..me when I was young.

A. beyond B. after C. upon D.at

17. I sat …………..my two best friends at the assembly.

A. over B. between C. under D. above

18. Someone tapped my shoulder, so I looked ………..me.

A. past B. over C. near D. behind

19. My father had to crawl …………. the house to look for the raccoon.
A. under B. about C. within D. out

20. I leaned ………. the wall because my legs were hurting.

A. down B. with C. against D. on

Directions (21 – 25): Choose the word or phrase below that best describes the section of the word in bold.

21. proactive
A. after B. forward C. toward D. behind

22. inscribe
A. confine B. see C. perform D. write
23. congregation
A. with B. over C. apart D. time

24. etymology
A. state of B. prior to C. study of D. quality of

25. wisdom
A. a state of being B. a relationship C. a property D.an action

Directions (26 – 30): Fill in the blanks with suitable articles.

26. What did you eat at the restaurant?

Oh, I didn't go out. I ate at _________________ home.
A. no article B. a C. the D. an

27. What did you buy at the mall?

I bought so many things! _________________ sales were incredible!
A. no article B. the C. a D. an

28. Does he always lie?

Yes, he does. He never tells _________________ truth.
A. the B. a C. no article D. an

29. Why did you punish your son?

We punished him because he told _________________ lie.
A. the B. no article C. a D. an

30. Which resort will you be staying at?

We'll be staying at _________________ resort that's closest to the beach.
A. no article B. the C. a D. an

Directions (31 – 35): Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

31. Since he knew what would happen, he should be left to stew in his own juice.
A. Suffer in his own juice C. Make a stew
B. Boil D. Suffer for his own act

32. I did not mind what he was saying, he was only through his hat.
A. talking irresponsibly C. talking nonsense
B. talking ignorantly D. talking insultingly

33. I am afraid he is burning the candle at both ends and ruining his life.
A. becoming overgenerous C. wasting his money
B. losing his objectives D. overtaxing his energies

34. I met him after a long time, but he gave me the cold shoulder.
A. ignored me C. insulted me
B. abused me D. scolded me

35. Sanjay was the real power behind the throne and all politicians were aware of this.
A. The acknowledged leader
B. The person who had the real control and power
C. The person who controlled the monarch
D. The person who advised the queen
 Directions (36 – 40): Find out the faulty comparison and choose the correct sentence.

36. A. The Sahara is larger than any other desert in the world.
B. The Sahara is the largest of any other desert in the world.
C. The Sahara is larger than any desert in the world.
D. The Sahara is as large than any desert in the world.

37. A. French wine is better than all the wines in the world.
B. French wine is better than any wine in the world.
C. French wine is the best of all the wines in the world.
D. French wine is as better as any other wine in the world.

38. A. The ants ate more of the potato chips than Andrew.
B. The ants ate more of the potato chips.
C. The ants ate more of the potato chips than Andrew did.
D. The ants ate more than the potato chips than Andrew’s.

39. A. Forgetting a school assignment is worse than making any mistake you could make in school.
B. Forgetting a school assignment is worse than making any other mistake you could make in school.
C. Forgetting a school assignment is the worst of any other mistake you could make in school.
D. Forgetting a school assignment is badder than any other mistake you could make in school.

40. A. Fluorescent light is as cheap, if not cheaper than, any other light.
B. Fluorescent light is as cheap as, if not cheaper than, any other light.
C. Fluorescent light is cheaper than any light.
D. Fluorescent light is cheapest than all the lights.

Directions (41-45): In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error.

41. Another baffling change (A)/ that I notice in him now-a-days (B)/ is that he avoids to speak to me.(C)/
No error (D)

42. He lay the watch on the table (A)/ and then forgot all about it (B)/ when he went out.(C)/ No error (D)

43. I am disappointed (A)/ in not having saw (B)/ any place while (C)/ I was in Delhi on vacation (D).

44. Along the (A)/ northern frontier of India (B)/ is seen (C)/ the Himalayas mighty in their splendour (D).

45. The traveller being weary (A)/ he (B)/ sat by (C)/ wood side to rest (D).

Directions (46 – 50): Read the following passage and answer the questions.
The atmosphere forms a gaseous, protective envelope around Earth. It protects the planet from the cold of space,
from harmful ultraviolet light, and from all but the largest meteors. After traveling over 93 million miles, solar
energy strikes the atmosphere and Earth’s surface, warming the planet and creating what is known as the biosphere,
the region of Earth capable of sustaining life. Solar radiation in combination with the planet’s rotation causes the
atmosphere to circulate. Atmospheric circulation is one important reason that life on Earth can exist at higher
latitudes because equatorial heat is transported poleward, moderating the climate. The equatorial region is the
warmest part of the earth because it receives the most direct and, therefore, strongest solar radiation. The plane in
1
which the earth revolves around the sun is called the ecliptic. Earth’s axis is inclined 233 degrees with respect to the
ecliptic. This inclined axis is responsible for our changing seasons because, as seen from the earth, the sun oscillates
back and forth across the equator in an annual cycle. On or about June 21 each year, the sun reaches the Tropic of
1
Cancer, 233 degrees north latitude. This is the northernmost point where the sun can be directly overhead. On or
1
about December 21 of each year, the sun reaches the Tropic of Capricorn, 23 degrees south latitude. This is the
3
southernmost point at which the sun can be directly overhead.
 The polar regions are the coldest parts of the earth because they receive the least direct and, therefore, the weakest
solar radiation. Here solar radiation strikes at a very oblique angle and thus spreads the same amount of energy over
a greater area than in the equatorial regions. A static envelope of air surrounding the earth would produce an
extremely hot, uninhabitable equatorial region, while the polar regions would remain inhospitably cold. The
transport of water vapor in the atmosphere is an important mechanism by which heat energy is redistributed
poleward. When water evaporates into the air and becomes water vapor, it absorbs energy. At the equator, air
saturated with water vapor rises high into the atmosphere where winds aloft carry it poleward. As this moist air
approaches the polar regions, it cools and sinks back to earth. At some point, the water vapor condenses out of the
air as rain or snow, releasing energy in the process. The now-dry polar air flows back toward the equator to repeat
the convection cycle. In this way, heat energy absorbed at the equator is deposited at the poles and the temperature
gradient between these regions is reduced. The circulation of the atmosphere and the weather it generates is but one
example of the many complex, interdependent events of nature. The web of life depends on the proper functioning
of these natural mechanisms for its continued existence. Global warming, the hole in the atmosphere’s ozone layer,
and increasing air and water pollution pose serious, long-term threats to the biosphere. Given the high degree of
nature’s interconnectedness, it is quite possible that the most serious threats have yet to be recognized.

46. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. The circulation of atmosphere, threatened by global warming and pollution, protects the biosphere and makes
life on Earth possible.
B. If the protective atmosphere around the earth is too damaged by human activity, all life on Earth will cease.
C. Life on Earth is the result of complex interdependent events of nature, and some of these events are a result of
human intervention.
D. The circulation of atmosphere is the single most important factor in keeping the biosphere alive, and it is
constantly threatened by harmful human activity.

47. Which of the following best represents the organization of the passage?
A. I. Definition and description of the circulation of the atmosphere
II. How the atmosphere affects heat and water in the biosphere
III. How the circulation of the atmosphere works
IV. What will happen if human activity destroys the atmosphere and other life-sustaining mechanisms?

B. I. Origin of the atmosphere and ways it protects the biosphere

II. How the circulation of the atmosphere affects the equator and the poles
III. How the circulation of the atmosphere interrelates with other events in nature to protect life on Earth
IV. Threats to life in the biosphere

C. I. Definition and description of the circulation of the atmosphere

II. Protective functions of the circulation of the atmosphere
III. Relationship of the circulation of the atmosphere to other life-sustaining mechanisms
IV. Threats to nature’s interconnectedness in the biosphere

D. I. The journey of the atmosphere 93 million miles through space.

II. How the atmosphere circulates and protects the biosphere
III. How the atmosphere interrelates with weather in the biosphere
IV. How damage to the biosphere threatens life on Earth

48. Which of the following is the best definition of the underlined word biosphere as it is used in the passage?
A. the protective envelope formed by the atmosphere around the living earth
B. that part of the earth and its atmosphere in which life can exist
C. the living things on Earth whose existence is made possible by circulation of the atmosphere
D. the circulation of the atmosphere’s contribution to life on Earth
49. Which of the following sentences from the passage best supports the author’s point that circulation of the
atmosphere is vital to life on Earth?
A. The equatorial region is the warmest part of the earth because it receives the most direct and, therefore,
strongest solar radiation.
B. The circulation of the atmosphere and the weather it generates is but one example of the many complex,
interdependent events of nature.
C. [The atmosphere] protects Earth from the cold of space, from harmful ultraviolet light, and from all but the
largest meteors.
D. A static envelope of air surrounding the earth would produce an extremely hot, uninhabitable equatorial region,
while the polar regions would remain inhospitably cold.

50. Based on the passage, which of the following is directly responsible for all temperature changes on Earth?
A. variations in the strength of solar radiation
B. variations in the amount of ultraviolet light
C. variation of biologic processes in the biosphere
D. variation in global warming
Part II
Aptitude Skills
1. A worker earns Rs40 the first day and spends Rs 25 on the second day. He earns Rs 40 on the third day and spends
Rs 25 on the fourth day and so on. On which day would he have Rs 100?
A. 10 B. 9 C. 8 D. 11

2. Find the unit digit in the expansion of 31448?

A. 6 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2
3. Find the least number which when divided by 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3 but when divided by 9 leaves no
remainder.
A. 1683 B. 1725 C. 1685 D. 1723

4. If the number 6pq 5 is divisible by both 3 and 5, which of the following digits can replace p and q?
A. 5, 9 B. 9, 5 C. 5, 7 D. 9, 7

5. Find the number of zeros in 200!?

A. 48 B. 100 C. 49 D. 50

6. A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to a single discount of.....
A. 56.8 B. 70 C.55 D.66.8

7. A new coach was appointed in the middle of a season for a football team. After he took over, the team won 80% of
the 60 matches it played. But the overall performed of the team was only 60%. Find the minimum number of
matches the team must have played that season before the new coach took over.
A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

8. A solution of salt and water contains 5% salt by weight. Of it 20 kg water evaporates and the solution now contains
15% of salt. Find the original quantity of solution?
A. 15Kg B. 30Kg C. 18Kg D. 24Kg

9. A candidate who gets 20% marks fails by 10 marks but another candidate who gets 42% marks gets 12% more than
the passing marks. Find the maximum marks.
A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200

10. A shepherd has 1 million sheep at the beginning of Year 2000. The numbers grow by x% (x > 0) during the year. A
famine hits his village in the next year and many of his sheep die. The sheep population decreases by y% during
2001 and at the beginning of 2002 the shepherd finds that he is left with 1 million sheep. Which of the following is
correct?
A. x>y B. x<y C. x=y D. cannot be determined
11. A bag contains rupee, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins in the ratio 5: 7: 9. If the total amount in the bag is Rs. 430, find
the number of coins of each kind?
A. 200, 280, 360 B. 280, 200, 360 C. 360, 280, 200 D. 360, 200, 280

12. An amount of Rs.2430 is divided among A, B, C such that if their shares be reduced by Rs.5, Rs.10 and Rs.15
respectively, the remainders shall be in the ratio 3: 4: 5. The share of B is?
A. Rs 605 B. Rs 790 C. Rs 800 D. Rs 810

13. Two numbers are such that their difference, their sum and their product are in the ratio 1: 7: 24. The product of the
numbers is
A. 32 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48

14. A, B & C enter into a partnership. A invests Rs.4000 for the whole year, B puts in Rs.6000 at the first and increases
to Rs.8000 at the end of 4 months, whilst C puts in at first Rs.8000 but withdrew Rs.2000 at the end of 9 months.
Find the profit of A at the end of the year, if the total profit is Rs.16950?
A. Rs3600 B. Rs 4000 C. Rs 6750 D. Rs 5675

15. A began a business with Rs.400 and was joined afterwards by B with Rs.240. when did B join if the profits at the
end of the year were divided in the ratio 4: 1?
A. 5 months B. 8 months C. 7 months D. 6 months

16. In 40 litres mixture of milk and water, the ratio of milk and water is 3:1. How much water should be added in the
mixture so that the ratio of milk to water becomes 2:1?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 4 D. 7

17. A can contains a mixture of two liquids. A and B in proportion 7: 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the
can is filled with B, the proportion of A and B becomes 7: 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can
initially?
A. 25 B. 10 C. 20 D. 21

18. The distance travelled (in cm) by a simple pendulum in consecutive seconds are 16, 12, 9 ... How much distance will
it travel before coming to rest?
A. 64 B. 50 C. 72 D. 32

19. In what proportion must wheat at Rs. 1.60 per kg be mixed with wheat at Rs. 1.45 per kg so that the mixture be
worth Rs. 1.54 per kg?
A. 2: 3 B. 3: 2 C. 3: 4 D. 4: 3

20. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was four times the
father’s age at that time. The present age of father and son
A. 34, 11 B. 35, 10 C. 36, 9 D. 40, 5

21. Find four numbers in A.P. whose sum is 20 and the sum of whose squares is 120.
A. 2,4,6,8 B. 1,4,6,9 C. 3,4,6,7 D. 1, 3,6,10

22. In an infinite G.P. each term is equal to three times the sum of all the terms that follow it and the sum of the first Iwo
terms is15. Find the sum of the series to Infinity.
A. 15 B. 16 C. 20 D. 25

23. A completes 80% of a work in 20 days. Then B also joins and A and B together finish the remaining work in 3 days.
How long does it need for B if he alone completes the work?
A. 35 ½ B. 36 ½ C. 37 ½ D. 38

24. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the
help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
A. Rs375 B. Rs 450 C. Rs 525 D. Rs 400
25. 4 men and 6 women finish a job in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women finish it in 10 days. In how many days will 10
women working together finish it?
A. 30days B. 40days C. 50days D. 60days

26. Three taps can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 40 minutes respectively. The three taps are opened simultaneously. After 2
minutes the first tap is closed and after 3 more minutes the 2nd tap is also closed. In what time does the tank get
filled after the second tap has been closed?
A. 15 min B. 12 min C. 13 min D. 14 min

27. A well is 30 feet deep. A frog jumps 3 feet in one minute and comes down by one foot in the next minute. In what
time does the frog get out of the well?
A. 28 min 40 sec B. 30 min C. 29 min 30 sec D. 33 min 15 sec

28. The rate of stream is 4 kmph A boat goes 6 kms and back to the starting point in 2 hrs. The speed of the boat in still
water?
A. 7Km/hr B. 9Km/hr C. 6Km/hr D. 8Km/hr

29. A cat, on seeing a dog 100 m away turns around and starts running away at 24 kmph. The dog spots him one min
later and starts chasing the cat at 33 kmph. After how much time, from the start of the cat's run, will the chase end?
A. 160 sec B. 225 sec C. 260 sec D. 200 sec

30. Two stations P and Q are 110 km apart on a straight track. One train starts from P at 7 a.m. and travels towards Q at
20 kmph. Another train starts from Q at 8 a.m. and travels towards P at a speed of 25 kmph . At what time will they
meet?
A. 10.30 a.m. B. 10 a.m. C. 9.10 a.m. D. 11 a.m.

31. In a 100 meters race, A starts from 10 meters behind B and beats B by 10 meters. If B starts from 10 meters behind
the start line then by how many meters does A beat B?
A. 30 B. 19 C. 18 2/11 D. 28 2/11

32. The angles of depression and elevation of the top of a wall 11 m high from top and bottom of a tree are 60° and 30°
respectively. What is the height of the tree?
A. 22 m B. 44 m C. 33 m D. None of these

𝑙𝑜𝑔√8
33. log 8
is equal to:
A. 1/8 B. ¼ C. 1/6 D. ½

34. Solve log2 (log2(x)) = 1.

A. 4 B. 3 C. 1 D. 8

35. Pointing to a photograph Arun said, ‘she is the mother of my brother’s son’s wife’s daughter’. How is Arun related
to the lady?
A. Uncle B. Daughter-in-law C. Cousin D. None of these

36. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and
A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
A. Q - N + M x P B. P + S x N – Q C. P - M + N x Q D. Q - S % P

Directions (37- 40): These questions are based on the following data.

In class of 130 students, 85 passed in Mathematics, 60 passed in Social Studies and 10 failed in both the subjects.
37. How many students passed in both subjects?
A. 25 B. 15 C. 35 D. 20

38. How many students passed in Social Studies but failed in Mathematics?
 A. 10 B. 50 C. 60 D. 35

39. How many students failed in exactly one subject?

A. 35 B. 60 C. 95 D. 105
40. The number of students who failed in Mathematics as percentage of the number of students who failed only in
Social Studies is
A. 50% B. 75% C. 133 1/3% D. 58 1/3%

Directions (41 -45): Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F have three types of vehicles - Alto, Fiat and Nano - and they
like three colours - Black, White and Red. Each of them has a car. Only two of them have the same type of cars and
only two of them like the same colour. A and F do not like Alto and Red colour. C and D do not like Fiat and White
colour. A and B do not like Fiat. B does not like Nano and Red colour, and C does not like Alto and Red colour. The
one who has Fiat, does not like Black colour. E and B do not like White colour.
41. Which two friends have Red cars?
A. A and B B. B and C C. D and E D. D and F

42. Which two friends have Fiats?

A. E and F B. D and F C. B and E D. A and C

43. Who has a Black Nano?

A. A B. B C. C D. D

44. Which of the following combinations is not true?

A. B - Black –Alto B. E - Red – Nano C. F – White - Fiat D. D - Red - Alto

45. Which of the following car does A own?

A. Black Alto B. Red Fiat C. White Alto D. White Nano

Directions (46-50): Study the following bar graph and answer the questions below:

46. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than average production of the given years?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

47. The average production of 1996 and 1997 was exactly equal to the average production of which of the following
pair of the years?
A. 1999 and 2000 B. 2000 and 2001 C. 1995 and 1999 D. 1995 and 2001

48. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 1997 to 1998?
A. 23% B. 25% C. 26% D. 27.5%
49. In which year the percentage increase in production as compared to previous year is maximum?
A. 1997 B. 1996 C. 1999 D. 2001

50. What was the percent increase in production of fertilizers in 2002 compared to that in 1995?
A. 180% B. 200% C. 220% D. 240%

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