062-001 Wavelength (7 Questions)

1. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 1090 MHz is:

a) 2.75 m
b) 2.75 cm
c) 27.5 m
d) 27.5 cm

2. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 123.450 MHz is:

a) 2.43 cm
b) 24.3 m
c) 24.3 cm
d) 2.43 m

3. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 1250 KHz is:

a) 2.4 m
b) 240 m
c) 24 cm
d) 24 m

4. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 15.625 GHz is:

a) 1.92 m
b) 1.92 cm
c) 19.2 cm
d) 19.2 m

5. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 964 MHz is:

a) 31 cm
b) 3.1 cm
c) 3.1 mm
d) 3.1 m

6. What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?

a) 8 m
b) 8000 m
c) 800 m
d) 80 m

7. The frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 5.9 cm is:

a) 5075 KHz
b) 5.075 GHz
c) 50.75 MHz
d) 507.5 MHz
062-002 Doppler (5 Questions)

8. An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the

transmitter velocity will occur when:
a) both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
b) the receiver moves towards the transmitter
c) the transmitter moves towards the receiver
d) the transmitter moves away from the receiver

9. An increase in frequency (Doppler shift) will occur when:

a) a receiver and transmitter are in motion
b) there is parallel motion of the receiver and transmitter
c) a receiver or transmitter are in motion
d) there is relative motion between a transmitter and receiver

10. An increase in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter would be caused

by:
a) the movement of the receiver away from the transmitter
b) the movement of the transmitter towards the receiver
c) the movement of the transmitter away from the receiver
d) the movement of the receiver towards the transmitter

11. Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency which is
proportional to the transmitter's velocity will occur when:
a) the transmitter and receiver move towards each other
b) there is no relative movement between the transmitter and the receiver
c) the transmitter moves toward the receiver
d) the transmitter moves away from the receiver

12. The Doppler Navigation System is based on:

a) phase comparison from ground station transmissions
b) radar principles using frequency shift
c) radio waves refraction in the ionosphere
d) Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System
062-003 VDF (19 Questions)

13. A pilot contacting ATC at an aerodrome is offered a QGH. He can expect:

a) To be given headings and heights to fly for an aerodrome approach based on
QDM information
b) QDM information to self position for an aerodrome approach
c) Headings and recommended heights for a runway approach
d) Vectors to position for a runway approach

14. A pilot is informed by ATC that his QDM is 310° class B. The bearing accuracy the
pilot should assume is:
a) +/-10°
b) +/-5°
c) +/-2°
d) +/-1°

15. A pilot is informed by ATC that the QDM is 240° class B. This means:
a) the track to fly to the station is 060° accuracy +/-5°
b) the track to fly to the station is 060° accuracy +/-2°
c) the track to fly to the station is 240° accuracy +/-5°
d) the track to fly to the station is 240° accuracy +/-2°

16. A pilot is informed that the QDM is 240° class C. The accuracy of this bearing
information is:
a) +/-10°
b) +/-2°
c) +/-5°
d) +/-1°

17. A QGH requires that a pilot:

a) flies headings and heights based on QDM information passed by ATC
b) flies headings and heights as directed by ATC based on QDM information
c) flies headings and heights based on information derived from radar passed to
the aircraft by ATC
d) flies headings and heights as directed by ATC based on radar azimuth and
elevation information

18. A VDF (QDM) procedure requires that the pilot:

a) flies headings and heights as directed by ATC based on QDM information
b) flies heading and heights as directed by ATC based on radar information
c) determines headings and heights to fly based on bearing information passed by
ATC
d) determines headings and heights to fly based on positional information derived
from ATC radar

19. In ISA conditions what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80
can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 ft above MSL ?
a) 158 NM
b) 134 NM
c) 114 NM
d) 107 NM
20. The accuracy of a class B bearing is:
a) +/-10°
b) +/-5°
c) +/-2°
d) +/-1°

21. The accuracy of a VDF class B bearing is:

a) +/-1°
b) +/-10°
c) +/-5°
d) +/-2°

22. The procedure whereby ATC provide an aircraft with headings and heights to fly
using VDF information is known as a .. procedure.
a) QGH
b) QNH
c) VDF
d) QDM

23. The term QDR means:

a) the magnetic heading to fly to the station assuming zero wind
b) the true bearing from the station
c) the magnetic bearing from the station
d) the true heading to fly to the station assuming zero wind

24. The term used in VDF meaning ‘magnetic bearing from the station’ is:
a) QDR
b) QUJ
c) QTE
d) QDM

25. The term used in VDF meaning ‘the true bearing from the station’ is:
a) QUJ
b) QDM
c) QDR
d) QTE

26. The term which means ‘the magnetic heading to fly to the station assuming zero
wind’ is:
a) QTE
b) QDM
c) QDR
d) QUJ

27. What airborne equipment if any is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down
may be flown?
a) VOR
b) none
 c) VOR/DME
d) VHF radio

28. What is the minimum level that an aircraft at a range of 113 NM must fly in order to
contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
a) FL50
b) FL80
c) FL60
d) FL100

29. What is the Q-code meaning ‘the true bearing from the station’?
a) QDR
b) QDM
c) QTE
d) QUJ
30. Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
a) It does not require any special equipment apart from a VHF radio to be installed
in the aircraft or on the ground
b) It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
c) It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
d) It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft

31. A QGH procedure requires:

a) no specialist equipment in the aircraft or ATC
b) that there is specialist equipment in the aircraft and ATC
c) specialist equipment in the aircraft but only a radio in ATC
d) specialist equipment in ATC but only a radio in the aircraft
062-004 ADF (46 Questions)

32. ‘Night Effect’ which causes loss of signal and fading resulting in bearing errors from
NDB transmissions is due to:
a) interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the
NDB
b) static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
c) the effect of the Aurora Borealis
d) skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk

33. A coastal NDB has a range of 200 nm. It is required to increase this range to 400 nm.
This would be achieved by increasing the power by a factor of:
a) 8
b) 16
c) 4
d) 2

34. A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation
systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
a) VOR
b) DME
c) ADF
d) weather radar

35. A NDB has emission characteristics N0NA1A. The BFO selections the pilot should
make are:
a) ON for tuning identification and monitoring
b) OFF for tuning ON for identification and monitoring
c) OFF for tuning identification and monitoring
d) ON for tuning OFF for identification and monitoring

36. An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground
station. To do this the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
a) a beam rotating at 30 Hz
b) omnidirectional
c) frequency modulated at 30 Hz
d) unidirectional

37. An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero.
If the magnetic heading decreases the aircraft is experiencing:
a) left drift
b) right drift
c) a wind from the west
d) zero drift

38. An NDB has an operational range of 10 nm. By what factor should the transmitter
power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 nm?
a) Eight
b) Four
c) Six
d) Two
39. An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft.
Given:
Compass heading 270°
At aircraft deviation 2°W Variation 30°E
At station Variation 28°E
Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
a) 072°
b) 254°
c) 252°
d) 074°

40. An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
a) bi-lobal circular
b) omnidirectional
c) a beam rotating at 30 Hz
d) a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz

41. Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are
maximum when the NDB is:
a) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
b) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
c) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
d) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

42. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
a) static interference - station interference - latitude error
b) coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
c) height error - station interference - mountain effect
d) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system

43. Given: W/V (T) 230/ 20 kt Var. 6E TAS 80 kt What relative bearing from an NDB
should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from
overhead the beacon?
a) 172
b) 008
c) 188
d) 352
44. If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225° the relative
bearing to the station will be:
a) 135°.
b) 315°.
c) Impossible to read due to the RMI failure.
d) 225°.

45. In accordance with Doc 8168 a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking
accuracy within……... of the published approach track.
a) +/-5°
b) +/-10°
c) +/-2.5°
d) +/-2°
46. In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials the:
a) mode selector should be switched to 'loop'
b) signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
c) BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'
d) sense aerial must be tuned separately

47. It is intended to increase the range of a NDB from 100 nm to 200 nm. This would be
achieved by increasing the power output by a factor of :
a) 16
b) 8
c) 2
d) 4

48. It is required to increase the range of a NDB from 50 nm to 100 nm. This could be
achieved by increasing the power by a factor of:
a) 2
b) 16
c) 8
d) 4

49. On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°
the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
a) 140°
b) 040°
c) 320°
d) 220°

50. Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
equipment are caused by:
a) skywave/groundwave contamination
b) misalignment of the loop aerial
c) signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
d) signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces

51. The accuracy of ADF by day is:

a) +/-5°
b) +/-1°
c) +/-2°
d) +/-10°

52. The accuracy of ADF is +/-5° within the DOC:

a) at all times except night
b) at all times
c) at all times except dawn and dusk
d) by day only

53. The accuracy of ADF is +/-5°:

 a) at all times except night
b) at all times
c) by day only
d) at all times except dawn and dusk

54. The accuracy of ADF is:

a) +/-2° at all times
b) +/-5° by day only
c) +/-5° at all times
d) +/-2° by day only

55. The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

a) hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
b) hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal
c) stop loop rotation
d) find the loop ‘null’ position

56. The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the ‘on’ position to
enable the pilot to:
a) adjust the loop to the aural null position
b) hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A2A transmissions
c) hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A1A transmissions
d) stop the loop rotation

57. The designated operational coverage (DOC) or protected range of a NDB:

a) will provide protection against station interference provided the aircraft is within
surface wave range the NDB
b) will provide protection against station interference provided the aircraft is within
line of sight range of the NDB
c) is a volume of space within which the ADF will be free from interference by other
stations
d) is a range around a NDB within which the ADF will be free from station
interference by day only

58. The designated operational coverage of a NDB guarantees:

a) no interference from other stations by day
b) no skywave interference by day
c) no skywave interference at all times
d) no interference from other stations at all times

59. The emission characteristics of a NDB which requires the use of the BFO for
identification are
a) A9W
b) N0XG1D
c) N0NA1A
d) N0NA2A
60. The greatest range at which NDB/ADF will provide useable information is:
a) over sea by day
b) over land by day
c) over land by night
d) over sea by night

61. The maximum useable range of NDB’s will be:

a) over land by night
b) over land by day
c) over sea by day
d) over sea by night

62. The most significant error in ADF is:

a) night effect
b) coastal refraction
c) station interference
d) static from Cb

63. The most significant error of ADF is:

a) static interference from Cb
b) quadrantal error
c) lack of failure warning
d) night effect

64. The most significant error of ADF is:

a) station interference
b) night effect
c) coastal refraction
d) static interference from Cb

65. The operating frequencies for NDB’s are:

a) 190 - 450 KHz
b) 190 - 1750 KHz
c) 450 - 1750 KHz
d) 200 - 450 KHz

66. The principle of operation of ADF is:

a) bearing by pulse technique
b) bearing by lobe comparison
c) bearing by phase comparison
d) bearing by switched cardioids

67. The problem of station interference will be overcome by:

a) ensuring the aircraft is in line of sight with the beacon
b) ensuring the signal/noise ratio of wanted to unwanted signals is better than 3:1
c) using ADF by day only
d) only using beacons within the DOC
68. There are two NDBs one 20 nm inland and the other 50 nm inland from the coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both
propagations the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over
water will be:
a) the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090°
and 270°
b) greater from the beacon that is 50 nm inland
c) greater from the beacon that is 20 nm inland
d) the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180°
and 360°

69. Which of the following are ADF errors?

a) station interference static interference quadrantal error
b) selective availability mountain effect quadrantal error
c) night effect siting errors static interference
d) scalloping coastal refraction aircraft manoeuvre

70. Which of the following cases would give the most accurate ADF bearing information
over the sea from a 2 kW NDB?
a) A NDB 100 nm from the coast and at an acute angle to the coast
b) A NDB 50 nm from the coast and perpendicular to the coast
c) A NDB 50 nm from the coast and at an acute angle to the coast
d) A NDB 100 nm from the coast and perpendicular to the coast

71. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
a) Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
b) Frequency drift at the ground station
c) Interference from other NDBs particularly during the day
d) Interference from other NDBs particularly at night

72. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
a) 255 - 455 kHz
b) 300 - 3000 kHz
c) 190 - 1750 kHz
d) 200 - 2000 kHz

73. Which of the following will give over the sea the least accurate bearing from an ADF?
a) bearings at 90° from an inland NDB
b) bearings at an acute angle from a coastal NDB
c) bearings at an acute angle from an inland NDB
d) bearings at 90° from a coastal NDB

74. Which of the following will give the most accurate bearing from NDB’s of the same
power in an aircraft flying over the sea?
a) an NDB 50 nm from the coast bearing perpendicular to the coast
b) an NDB 50 nm from the coast bearing at an acute angle to the coast
c) an NDB 20 nm from the coast bearing at an acute angle to the coast
d) an NDB 20 nm from the coast bearing perpendicular to the coast
75. Which of the following would overcome coastal refraction?

1. Only taking bearings when the radio waves from an inland NDB are perpendicular
to the coast

2. only using beacons close to the coast

3. Increase altitude until in line of sight with an inland NDB

a) all of the above statements are correct

b) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
c) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct
d) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

76. Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
a) Local thunderstorm activity
b) Coastal effect
c) Quadrantal error
d) Precipitation interference

77. You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of
325°. The QDM is:
a) 020°
b) 055°
c) 200°
d) 235°
062-005 VOR (71 Questions)

78. A Doppler VOR (DVOR) reduces the errors caused by terrain and obstructions close
to the VOR (siting error). In a DVOR the reference signal is …….. the variphase
signal is ……... and the rotation is ……...
a) AM FM clockwise
b) FM AM clockwise
c) AM FM anti-clockwise
d) FM AM anti-clockwise
79. A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80 tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m.
Given ISA conditions what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might
expect to receive the VOR signals?
a) 100 NM
b) 151 NM
c) 180 NM
d) 120 NM

80. A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 065 radial. The correct OBS setting and CDI
indications are:
a) 065 FROM
b) 245 TO
c) 245 FROM
d) 065 TO

81. A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 153 radial. The OBS setting and the
TO/FROM indications will be:
a) 153 TO
b) 333 FROM
c) 333 TO
d) 153 FROM

82. A pilot is homing along an airway (QDM 180) 10 nm wide to a VOR designating the
centreline of the airway. The associated DME shows 50 nm and the aircraft is on the
western edge of the airway. The 5 dot CDI will show:
a) 3 dots fly right
b) maximum fly left
c) 3 dots fly left
d) maximum fly right

83. A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial
of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF
bearing of:
a) 060
b) 120
c) 300
d) 240

84. A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals
32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic
variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
 a) 208
b) 212
c) 360
d) 180

85. A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B

(44°00'N 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is
15°W the aircraft is on VOR radial:
a) 195°
b) 185°
c) 190°
d) 180°

86. A VOR receiver measures the phase difference between the FM and AM signals as
123°. The corresponding QDM is:
a) 237
b) 303
c) 123
d) 057

87. An aircraft at 58N 012E variation 5°E is tracking outbound from a VOR at 60N 012E
variation 10°E. The radial the aircraft is on is:
a) 190
b) 170
c) 185
d) 175

88. An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above
MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
a) 98 NM
b) 90 NM
c) 123 NM
d) 113 NM

89. An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above
MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
a) 145 NM
b) 123 NM
c) 137 NM
d) 130 NM

90. An aircraft at FL220 is 220 nm from a VOR at sea level but the receiver fails to detect
a signal.
The reason for this is:
a) the transmitter output is too low to achieve a range of 220 nm
b) VOR is not usable beyond 200 nm
c) the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d) the aircraft is outside the DOC
91. An aircraft at FL240 is 220 nm from a VOR at 50 ft above mean sea level but the
aircraft receiver fails to lock on to the VOR transmissions.
This is because:
a) the aircraft is beyond line of sight coverage
b) the transmitted signal will be too weak to measure at that range
c) the maximum range for VOR is 200 nm
d) the beacon is unserviceable

92. An aircraft is 100 nm due north of a VOR heading 210°. The pilot intends to home to
the VOR on the 330 radial. The pilot should set …... on the OBS and assuming zero
wind should turn …... on reaching the 330 radial.
a) 150 right
b) 150 left
c) 330 right
d) 330 left

93. An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation
indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation how many dots deviation from the centre line of
the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the
airway is 10 NM wide)
a) 6.0
b) 1.5
c) 3.0
d) 4.5

94. An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with
the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed.
In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
a) NE
b) NW
c) SW
d) SE

95. An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the
equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E.
The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
a) 255°
b) 285°
c) 262°
d) 278°

96. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300° the track selector (OBS)
reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
a) right with 'TO' showing
b) left with 'FROM' showing
c) right with 'FROM' showing
d) left with 'TO' showing
97. An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the
HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator). If the magnetic heading is 070° the deviation bar
relative to the aeroplane model will be:
a) behind.
b) left.
c) in front.
d) right.

98. An aircraft is on the eastern edge of an airway (QDM 010) at 50 nm from a VOR.
The CDI deviation indications will be:
a) 3 dots fly left
b) full scale fly left
c) full scale fly right
d) 3 dots fly right

99. An aircraft is on the northern edge of an airway (QDM 260) at a range of 75 nm from
a VOR. The CDI indications will be:
a) 2 dots fly right
b) 2 dots fly left
c) 4 dots fly right
d) 4 dots fly left

100. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to
obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
a) 064° with the TO flag showing
b) 244° with the FROM flag showing
c) 244° with the TO flag showing
d) 064° with the FROM flag showing

101. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial.

Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
a) 104° with the FROM flag showing
b) 284° with the TO flag showing
c) 104° with the TO flag showing
d) 284° with the FROM flag showing

102. An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR
is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated
on the VOR radial:
a) 281°
b) 286°
c) 256°
d) 101°

103. An aircraft on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR. The

bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS
left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is:
a) 270°
b) 360°
 c) 180°
d) 090°

104. An aircraft tracking along an airway (QDM 100) is 75 nm from the VOR/DME and
on the southern edge of the airway. The CDI will show:
a) 2 dots fly right
b) 4 dots fly left
c) 2 dots fly left
d) 4 dots fly right
105. An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant
bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance
within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is
approximately:
a) 210 NM
b) 165 NM
c) 50 NM
d) 105 NM

106. An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of
NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of
magnetic variation is:
a) NDB: aircraft position VOR: aircraft position
b) NDB: beacon position VOR: beacon position
c) NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position
d) NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position

107. An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is
locked on to a reading of 090°.
The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°.
The available information from the VOR is:
a) Radial 135° relative bearing unknown
b) Radial unknown relative bearing 045°
c) Radial 315° relative bearing unknown
d) Radial unknown relative bearing 225°

108. At a range of 50 nm from a VOR designated the centreline of an airway an

aircraft tracking east is on the northern edge of the airway. If the airway is 10 nm
wide the CDI (5 dot) indications will be:
a) full scale fly right
b) 3 dot fly right
c) full scale fly left
d) 3 dot fly left

109. At a VOR receiver the FM signal is at phase 295° as the AM signal is at phase
160°. The radial is:
a) 095
b) 275
c) 135
d) 315
110. Following a manoeuvre the RMI of an aircraft has a 20° error in the compass
heading. Which of the following statements is true concerning the displayed VOR
and ADF information?
a) The ADF and VOR relative bearings are correct
b) The ADF and VOR QDRs are correct
c) The ADF QDR and the VOR relative bearing are correct
d) The ADF relative bearing and the VOR QDR are correct.

111. Given:
Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.
From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.
On what radial is the aircraft?
a) 085
b) 095
c) 265
d) 275

112. Given:
Magnetic heading 280°
VOR radial 090°
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to
centralise the VOR deviation needle with a "TO" indication?
a) 270°
b) 280°
c) 100°
d) 090°

113. Given:
VOR station position N61° E025° variation 13°E;
Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025° variation 20°E.
What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
a) 193°
b) 160°
c) 347°
d) 167°

114. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:

a) constant magnetic track
b) great circle track
c) line of constant bearing
d) rhumbline track

115. If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range errors
could be caused by:
a) interference from other transmitters
b) noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter
c) sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
d) sky wave interference from the same transmitter
116. In a conventional VOR if the measured phase difference is 300° the radial is:
a) 120
b) 300
c) 060
d) 240

117. In ISA conditions approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which
an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet
above mean sea level ?
a) 204 NM
b) 163 NM
c) 245 NM
d) 183 NM

118. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station a pilot needs to know the magnetic
variation:
a) at the VOR
b) at the aircraft location
c) at both the VOR and aircraft
d) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station

119. In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

a) VHF
b) EHF
c) UHF
d) SHF

120. The accuracy of the VOR bearing within the DOC is:
a) +/-1°
b) +/-2°
c) +/-10°
d) +/-5°

121. The accuracy of VOR bearings are 5°:

a) at all times
b) at all times except night
c) by day only
d) at all times except dawn and dusk

122. The accuracy of VOR is +/-5°:

a) at all times
b) at all times except night
c) at all times except dawn and dusk
d) by day only

123. The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:

a) 118 to 135.95 MHz
b) 108 to 117.95 MHz
c) 108 to 111.95 MHz
 d) 108 to 135.95 MHz

124. The maximum range a VOR at 400 ft amsl can be received by an aircraft at
FL630 is:
a) 200 nm
b) 270 nm
c) 250 nm
d) 338 nm
125. The maximum range an aircraft at FL320 can receive signals from a VOR at
1600 ft amsl is:
a) 273 nm
b) 229 nm
c) 200 nm
d) 213 nm

126. The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive signals from a VOR at
1024 ft is:
a) 244 nm
b) 200 nm
c) 224 nm
d) 280 nm

127. The maximum range an aircraft at FL400 can receive signals from a VOR at 576
ft is:
a) 200 nm
b) 252 nm
c) 224 nm
d) 280 nm

128. The maximum range at which an aircraft at FL370 can receive signals from a
VOR at 2500 ft amsl is:
a) 242 nm
b) 361 nm
c) 200 nm
d) 303 nm

129. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive
signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
a) 230 NM
b) 170 NM
c) 151 NM
d) 190 NM

130. The OBS is set on 048°.

TO appears in the window.
The needle is close to full right deflection.
The VOR radial is approximately:
a) 058°
b) 218°
c) 238°
d) 038°
131. The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection
left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
a) 050°
b) 060°
c) 230°
d) 240°

132. The phase difference between the FM and AM signals is measured at the VOR
receiver as 120°. The radial is:
a) 240
b) 300
c) 120
d) 060

133. The phase difference measured at a receiver between the FM and AM

modulations from a DVOR is 120°. The QDR is:
a) 120
b) 060
c) 300
d) 240

134. The phase difference measured at the aircraft between the FM and AM signals of
a VOR is 240°. The track that should be flown to overhead the VOR QDM is:
a) 120°
b) 240°
c) 060°
d) 300°

135. The pilot of an aircraft at 100 nm on the 120 radial heading 240° intends to home
to the beacon on the 150 radial. The OBS setting and CDI indications will be:
a) 330 TO
b) 330 FROM
c) 150 TO
d) 150 FROM

136. The pilot of an aircraft heading 240° 100 nm east of a VOR wishes to home to
the VOR on the 120 radial. The OBS selection should be ……. and, assuming zero
wind, on reaching the required radial the pilot should:
a) 300° turn right onto 300°
b) 300° turn left onto 120°
c) 120° turn right onto 300°
d) 120° turn left onto 120°

137. The pilot of an aircraft intends to home to a VOR on the 130 radial. The OBS
setting and the CDI indications should be:
a) 310 TO
b) 130 FROM
c) 130 TO
d) 310 FROM
138. The pilot of an aircraft intends to track inbound to a VOR on the 295 radial. The
setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:
a) 295 FROM
b) 115 TO
c) 295 TO
d) 115 FROM

139. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:

a) envelope matching
b) difference in depth of modulation
c) beat frequency discrimination
d) phase comparison

140. The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM
represents a width of:
a) 2.5 NM
b) 3.0 NM
c) 2.0 NM
d) 3.5 NM

141. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

a) night effect
b) uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
c) quadrantal error
d) static interference

142. What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive
signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
a) 184 NM
b) 147 NM
c) 220 NM
d) 156 NM

143. Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

a) SHF
b) UHF
c) HF
d) VHF

144. Which of the following is a valid VOR frequency?

a) 111.95 MHz
b) 118.25 MHz
c) 109.25 MHz
d) 107.20 MHz

145. Which of the following statements concerning the variable or directional signal of
a conventional VOR is correct?
a) The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it
rotates
 b) The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the
characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
c) The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the
reference signal
d) The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side
of the allocated frequency each time it rotates

146. You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the
course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
a) Full scale deflection left with a 'to' indication
b) Full scale deflection right with a 'to' indication
c) Full scale deflection left with a 'from' indication
d) Full scale deflection right with a 'from' indication

147. Your aircraft is heading 075°M.

The OBI is set to 025°.
The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection.
Relative to the stations you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
a) 205° and 295°
b) 025° and 115°
c) 295° and 025°
d) 115° and 205°

148. An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within
range of a serviceable VOR.
What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
a) 2.5 or more
b) 1.5° or more
c) 10° or more
d) less than 10°
062-006 ILS (48 Questions)

149. A 3° glidepath is required to provide correct course guidance between:

a) 1.35° & 5.25°
b) 1° & 5°
c) 1.75° & 6°
d) 0.45° & 6°

150. A category II facility is required to provide guidance in the vertical plane to:
a) 0 ft
b) below 100 ft
c) below 50 ft
d) below 200 ft

151. A category II ILS facility will provide guidance to:

a) less than 50 ft
b) the surface of the runway
c) less than 100 ft
d) less than 200 ft

152. An aircraft flying a 3° ILS approach at 160 kt is 3.5 nm from touchdown.

The height the aircraft should be is:
a) 1200 ft
b) 950 ft
c) 800 ft
d) 1050 ft

153. An aircraft flying an 3° ILS approach at a groundspeed of 160 kt crosses the

outer marker positioned 4 nm from touchdown. The aircraft should be at a height of:
a) 800 ft
b) 1050 ft
c) 1200 ft
d) 1600 ft

154. An aircraft is flying an ILS approach using a 3° glidepath at 180 kt. At a range of
4 nm the aircraft height should be: (use the 1:60 rule)
a) 1100 ft
b) 900 ft
c) 1200 ft
d) 1500 ft

155. An aircraft is flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway. The
indications on the CDI from the ILS localiser and glidepath would be:
a) erratic
b) correct in azimuth only
c) none
d) correct in azimuth and elevation

156. An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser
inbound on the approach side outside the published ILS coverage angle:
 a) only glide path information is available
b) will receive signals without identification coding
c) can expect signals to give correct indications
d) may receive false course indications

157. An appropriate frequency (MHz) for the ILS localiser will be:
a) 110.10
b) 113.55
c) 109.80
d) 107.75

158. An appropriate frequency for the ILS localiser would be:

a) 113.10 MHz
b) 111.20 MHz
c) 107.95 MHz
d) 109.35 MHz

159. An ILS receiver determines that the 150 Hz modulation predominates on the
localiser and the glidepath. The aircraft is:
a) below the glidepath and right of the centreline
b) below the glidepath and left of the centreline
c) above the glidepath and left of the centreline
d) above the glidepath and right of the centreline

160. At 4 nm on an ILS final approach with a 3° glidepath the groundspeed reduces

from 150 kt to 120 kt. The pilot should:
a) increase rate of descent by 30 fpm
b) increase rate of descent by 150 feet per minute (fpm)
c) decrease rate of descent by 30 fpm
d) decrease rate of descent by 150 fpm

161. At the ILS receiver the 90 Hz modulation predominates. Which of the following is
true?
a) the aircraft is above the glidepath and left of the centreline
b) the aircraft is below the glidepath and left of the centreline
c) the aircraft is below the glidepath and right of the centreline
d) the aircraft is above the glidepath and right of the centreline

162. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed on a 3° ILS glidepath will require an

approximate:
a) increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
b) increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
c) decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
d) decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

163. In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?

a) SHF
b) VHF
 c) UHF
d) EHF

164. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ... °
each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .. NM minimum from the
threshold.
a) (i) 25 (ii) 17
b) (i) 35 (ii) 25
c) (i) 5 (ii) 8
d) (i) 8 (ii) 10

165. Making an ILS approach at 140 kt using a 3.5° glidepath at a range of 3.6 nm the
aircraft should be at a height of (use the 1:60 rule):
a) 700 ft
b) 1260 ft
c) 840 ft
d) 1150 ft

166. On a category 3B approach the minimum RVR is:

a) 550 m
b) 300 m
c) 75 m
d) 200 m

167. Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
a) 2000 Hz
b) 400 Hz
c) 3000 Hz
d) 1300 Hz

168. The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
a) 1300 Hz blue
b) 400 Hz blue
c) 400 Hz amber
d) 3000 Hz blue

169. The audio and visual indications of the middle marker are:
a) medium pitched dots and dashes amber light
b) medium pitched dots white light
c) low pitched dashes blue light
d) high pitched dots and dashes amber light

170. The audio and visual indications of the outer marker are:
a) alternate dots and dashes blue light
b) continuous dashes blue light
c) continuous dashes amber light
d) alternate dots and dashes amber light
171. The azimuth coverage of a 3° glidepath is:
a) +/-10° to 25 nm
b) +/-8° to 10 nm
c) +/-35° to 17 nm
d) +/-10° to 8 nm

172. The critical area of an ILS is an area into which vehicles may not enter:
a) during category one operations
b) when specified by ATC
c) during category 2 & 3 operations
d) during any ILS operations

173. The critical area of an ILS is the area within which vehicles and aircraft may not
enter when:
a) any ILS operations are in progress
b) when the cloud base is at or below circling minima
c) CAT I operations are in progress
d) CAT II/III operations are in progress

174. The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS centreline of
runway 25 the localizer needle will be:
a) right of centre
b) centred
c) centred with the 'fail' flag showing
d) left of centre

175. The height an aircraft speed 150 kt should be on an ILS approach using a 3.5°
glidepath at a range of 4 nm is (use the 1:60 rule):
a) 1300 ft
b) 1400 ft
c) 900 ft
d) 1050 ft

176. The ILS sensitive area of the ILS must be clear of vehicles and aircraft:
a) for CAT I operations
b) at all times
c) for all ILS operations
d) for low visibility operations

177. The middle marker is identified by:

a) alternate dots and dashes amber light
b) continuous dashes blue light
c) alternate dots and dashes white light
d) continuous dashes amber light

178. The middle marker transmits an audio frequency of …... Hz with audio indications
of …... and illuminates the .. light.
a) 400 continuous dots amber
b) 1300 alternate dots and dashes amber
c) 3000 continuous dashes white
d) 1300 alternate dots and dashes blue
179. The minimum decision height for a category 2 ILS approach is:
a) 200 ft
b) 0 ft
c) 100 ft
d) 50 ft

180. The minimum RVR for a category 2 ILS approach is:

a) 75 m
b) 200 m
c) 550 m
d) 300 m

181. The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits
on a frequency of:
a) 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
b) 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
c) 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
d) 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse

182. The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two

overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different
(ii)..........
a) (i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies
b) (i) different (ii) modulation frequencies
c) (i) different (ii) phases
d) (i) the same (ii) phases

183. The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of
140 kt is approximately:
a) 760 FT/MIN
b) 850 FT/MIN
c) 700 FT/MIN
d) 670 FT/MIN

184. The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active
runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during
good weather operations is:
a) aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
b) heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
c) to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations
d) to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions

185. The waveband the ILS localiser operates in is:

a) centimetric
b) metric
c) decimetric
d) decametric

186. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path
at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
 a) 800 FT/MIN
b) 600 FT/MIN
c) 550 FT/MIN
d) 950 FT/MIN

187. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath

at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
a) 700 FT/MIN
b) 400 FT/MIN
c) 450 FT/MIN
d) 600 FT/MIN

188. What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used
on an ILS approach?
a) 328 MHZ 335 MHZ
b) 75 KHZ 135 KHZ
c) 63 MHZ 123 MHZ
d) 90 HZ 150 HZ

189. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a
3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
a) 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline
b) 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline
c) 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the
localiser centreline
d) 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the
localiser centreline

190. What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer Middle and Inner
Marker beacon?
a) amber - white - green
b) blue - amber - white
c) blue - green - white
d) white - amber - blue

191. When flying a reverse course (backbeam) approach using the ILS the CDI
indications will be:
a) incorrect in azimuth and elevation
b) correct in azimuth incorrect in elevation
c) incorrect in azimuth correct in elevation
d) correct in azimuth and elevation

192. Where in relation to the runway is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally
situated?
a) On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the
extended centreline
b) At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m
along the extended centreline
c) At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from
touchdown
 d) At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the
centreline

193. Which of the following is a limitation of ILS?

1. Interference from FM broadcast stations

2. Unusable in mountainous terrain
3. Inflexible approach path

a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is not

b) Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not
c) All of the above are limitations
d) Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not

194. Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

a) 108.25 MHz
b) 110.20 MHz
c) 109.15 MHz
d) 112.10 MHz

195. Which of the following is an ILS localizer frequency?

a) 111.55 MHz
b) 114.75 MHz
c) 107.75 MHz
d) 109.25 MHz

196. Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit
display what does each of the dots represent approximately?
a) 2.0 degrees
b) 1.5 degrees
c) 2.5 degrees
d) 0.5 degrees

062-007 MLS (15 Questions)

197. A frequency appropriate to MLS would be:

a) 5043 KHz
b) 5076 MHz
c) 4300 MHz
d) 1030 MHz

198. A full MLS installation at an aerodrome comprises a dedicated DME and:

a) 2 elements multiplexing on 1 frequency
b) 2 elements with 2 frequencies
c) 4 elements with 2 frequencies
d) 4 elements multiplexing on 1 frequency

199. A typical frequency for a MLS installation will be:

a) 980 MHz
b) 5053 MHz
c) 1030 MHz
 d) 9375 MHz

200. A typical full MLS installation comprises …... and an inbuilt DME.
a) 2 elements using 2 frequencies
b) 4 elements multiplexing on 2 frequencies
c) 4 elements multiplexing on one frequency
d) 2 elements multiplexing on one frequency

201. In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
a) SHF
b) VHF
c) EHF
d) UHF

202. MLS frequencies and frequency band are:

a) 5031 - 5090 MHz SHF
b) 960 - 1215 MHz SHF
c) 960 - 1215 MHz UHF
d) 5031 - 5090 MHz UHF

203. MLS installations notified for operation unless otherwise stated provide azimuth
coverage of:
a) + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
b) + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM
c) + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM
d) + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
204. The allocated frequencies for MLS are:
a) 4200 - 4400 KHz
b) 5031 - 5090 KHz
c) 4200 - 4400 MHz
d) 5031 - 5090 MHz

205. The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-
shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
a) + or - 30° of the runway centre-line
b) + or - 60° of the runway centre-line
c) + or - 40° of the runway centre-line
d) + or - 50° of the runway centre-line

206. The coverage of MLS approach azimuth is:

a) +/-30° to 20 nm
b) +/-20° to 30 nm
c) +/-40° to 20 nm
d) +/-20° to 40 nm

207. The principle of operation of MLS is:

a) primary pulsed radar
b) secondary radar
c) difference in depth of modulation
d) time referenced scanning beam
208. Which of the following statements is correct concerning MLS?
a) there are 4 elements multiplexing on 1 frequency
b) there are 2 elements using 1 frequency
c) there are 4 elements multiplexing on 2 frequencies
d) there are 2 elements using 2 frequencies

209. Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of
a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
a) Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter DME facility
b) Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters outer and middle marker beacons
c) Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter outer and inner marker beacons
d) Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters DME facility

210. Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System

(MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
a) There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated
because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available
b) It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth)
transmitter
c) The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or
DME) to determine range
d) It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not
possible to use an ILS

211. Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System
(MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
a) Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar
pulses from the aircraft to MLS station
b) A precision facility DME
c) Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses
from the MLS station to the aircraft
d) Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation
transmissions

062-008 RADAR THEORY (33 Questions)

212. A primary radar has a PRF of 625 pulses per second. The maximum detection
range is:
a) 78 nm
b) 39 nm
c) 129 nm
d) 259 nm

213. A Primary radar operates on the principle of:

a) echo principle
b) phase comparison
c) transponder interrogation
d) continuous wave transmission
214. A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200
pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
a) 135 NM
b) 69 NM
c) 270 NM
d) 27 NM

215. A radar has to have a detection range of 100 nm. The maximum PRF to achieve
this is approximately:
a) 800 pulses per second (pps)
b) 1200 pps
c) 600 pps
d) 1600 pps

216. An advantage of a continuous wave (CW) primary radar over a pulsed primary
radar is:
a) continuous information
b) more accurate bearing measurement
c) no minimum range limitation
d) no maximum range limitation

217. An advantage of a CW radar compared to a pulsed radar is:

a) better resolution
b) no minimum range limitation
c) no maximum range limitation
d) the ability to measure range bearing and Doppler shift
218. An area radar has a range of 75 nm. To increase the range to 150 nm would
require an increase in power by a factor of:
a) 4
b) 8
c) 2
d) 16

219. Assuming sufficient transmission power the maximum range of a ground radar
with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light
is 300 000 km/second)
a) 333 km
b) 666 km
c) 1333 km
d) 150 km

220. If the PRF of a radar is 600 pulses per second then the maximum theoretical
range will be:
a) 135 nm
b) 500 nm
c) 250 nm
d) 270 nm

221. Ignoring pulse length and fly-back a radar facility designed to have a maximum
unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
a) 6000
 b) 3000
c) 330
d) 167

222. Ignoring pulse length the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be
used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200
NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
a) 308 pps
b) 375 pps
c) 405 pps
d) 782 pps

223. In a primary radar using pulse technique pulse length determines:

a) minimum measurable range
b) beam width
c) maximum measurable range
d) target discrimination

224. In a primary radar using pulse technique pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse
recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
a) maximum theoretical range
b) beam width
c) target discrimination
d) minimum range

225. In a primary radar using pulse technique the ability to discriminate between
targets in azimuth is a factor of:
a) beam width
b) Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
c) aerial rotation rate
d) pulse length

226. In a pulse radar the minimum detection range is determined by:

a) pulse width
b) PRF
c) power output
d) beamwidth

227. In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology the term 'Pulse
Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
a) ratio of pulse period to pulse width
b) number of pulses per second
c) the number of cycles per second
d) delay after which the process re-starts

228. Radars using moving target indication (MTI) techniques have a problem with
second trace returns. This problem is removed by:
a) jittering the frequency
b) using Doppler techniques
c) using two timing circuits
d) changing the time interval between consecutive pulses
229. The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
a) simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams
b) have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection
c) eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
d) virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy
in the main beam

230. The best type of radar to overcome the minimum range limitation is:
a) pulsed secondary radar
b) continuous wave primary radar
c) pulsed primary radar
d) continuous wave secondary radar

231. The factor that determines the maximum theoretical range of a radar is:
a) Wavelength
b) pulse width
c) peak power
d) PRF

232. The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a
pulsed radar is pulse:
a) frequency
b) amplitude
c) length
d) repetition rate

233. The maximum PRF that can be used to detect targets at 250 nm is:
a) 1525 pps
b) 3050 pps
c) 320 pps
d) 640 pulses per second (pps)

234. The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary
radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps =
pulses per second)
a) 713 pps
b) 3240 pps
c) 610 pps
d) 1620 pps

235. The maximum range of primary radar depends on:

a) pulse recurrence frequency
b) frequency
c) pulse length
d) wave length

236. The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by:

a) flyback or dead time
b) pulse width
c) power
 d) PRI

237. The minimum range of a primary radar using the pulse technique is determined
by the (i)........ ; the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........
a) (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
b) (i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
c) (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
d) (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

238. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary
radar is the:
a) power output
b) pulse recurrence rate
c) size of parabolic receiver aerial
d) height of the transmitter above the ground

239. The resolution of a radar can be improved by using:

a) a wide beam and a wide pulse
b) a narrow beam and a narrow pulse
c) a wide beam and a narrow pulse
d) a narrow beam and a wide pulse

240. The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and the receipt of the echo
from a target is 2500 microseconds. The range of the target is:
a) 750 km
b) 375 km
c) 405 km
d) 202 km

241. The use of moving target indication in ground radars gives a problem of second
trace returns. This problem is eliminated by:
a) using different frequencies for transmission and reception
b) the use of pulse pairs
c) changing the time interval betweeen consecutive pulses
d) employing Doppler techniques in the transmitter

242. What is the maximum range surveillance radar at sea level can detect an aircraft
at FL350?
a) 233 nm
b) 187 nm
c) 300 nm
d) 200 nm

243. Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary

search radar?
a) long pulse length and narrow beam
b) short pulse length and narrow beam
c) long pulse length and wide beam
d) short pulse length and wide beam
244. Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
a) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
b) Global Positioning System (GPS)
c) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
d) Airborne weather radar (AWR)

062-009 GROUND RADAR (10 Questions)

245. A radar is operating on a frequency of 600 MHz with an aerial rotation rate of 5
rpm and a PRF of 200 pulses per second. This radar is most likely to be:
a) an area surveillance radar
b) a terminal area radar
c) an aerodrome surveillance radar
d) an aerodrome surface movement radar

246. A radar is transmitting on a frequency of 16 GHz with a PRF of 12000 pps. . This
is most likely to be:
a) a rain detection radar
b) an area surveillance radar
c) a surface movement radar
d) a terminal area surveillance radar

247. A radar transmitting on a frequency of 600 MHz has a PRF of 200 pps and an
aerial rotation rate of 5 rpm. This radar is most likely to be:
a) an aerodrome surface movement radar
b) an area surveillance radar
c) a precision approach radar
d) an aerodrome surveillance radar

248. An area surveillance radar will operate on a frequency of …... with a PRF of …...
a) 600 MHz 250 pps
b) 1200 MHz 1000 pps
c) 10 GHz 250 pps
d) 15 GHz 10000+ pps 23.

249. Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on
frequencies in the .
(i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately .
(ii) .......... revolutions per minute; .
it is (iii) ......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar
screen.
a) (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
b) (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never
c) (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always
d) (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never

250. On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the
shape and to some extent the type of the aircraft generating the return?
a) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
b) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
 c) Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
d) Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

251. The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is
approximately:
a) 200-300 NM
b) 50-100 NM
c) 100-200 NM
d) 300-400 NM

252. The maximum range of an area surveillance radar will normally be:
a) 100 nm
b) 400 nm
c) 300 nm
d) 200 nm

253. The normal maximum range of an area surveillance radar is:

a) 250 nm
b) 150 nm
c) 100 nm
d) 400 nm

254. Which of the following would be the characteristics of an aerodrome surface

movement radar?
a) PRF 10000 pps aerial rotation 60 rpm frequency 15 GHz
b) PRF 1200 pps aerial rotation 25 rpm frequency 10 GHz
c) PRF 250 pps aerial rotation 5 rpm frequency 600 MHz
d) PRF 500 pps aerial rotation 12 rpm frequency 2.5 GHz

062-010 AIRBORNE RADAR (33 Questions)

255. A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne

weather radar system because:
a) enables the aircraft to detect clear air turbulence
b) greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water
droplets
c) the larger water droplets will give good echoes
d) static interference is minimised

256. A frequency of airborne weather radar is:

a) 9375 kHz
b) 9375 GHz
c) 9375 MHz
d) 93.75 MHz

257. A weather radar set to the 100 nm scale shows a squall at 50nm. By changing
the scale to 50 nm the return on the radar screen should:
a) increase in area and move to the top of the screen
b) decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
c) decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
d) increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
258. Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order
to:
a) transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
b) detect the larger water droplets
c) detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
d) obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam

259. An AWR with a 5° beamwidth in an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at 50 nm.

The cloud just disappears when the tilt is adjusted to 1° up. The altitude of the cloud
tops is:
a) 29500 ft
b) 7500 ft
c) 44500 ft
d) 57000 ft

260. An AWR with a 6° beamwidth detects a cloud at 60 nm which disappears with the
tilt selected to 2° UP. If the aircraft is at FL350 what is the altitude of the cloud tops.
a) 29000 ft
b) 35000 ft
c) 41000 ft
d) 6000 ft
261. AWR operates on a frequency of:
a) 9.375 MHz
b) 9375 KHz
c) 9375 GHz
d) 9.375 GHz

262. In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) the main factors which determine whether a
cloud will be detected are:
a) size of the water drops; wavelength/frequency used
b) rotational speed of radar scanner; range from cloud
c) range from cloud; wavelength/frequency used
d) size of the water drops; diameter of radar scanner

263. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT)
increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour
from:
a) yellow to orange to red
b) green to yellow to red
c) yellow to amber to blue
d) green to red to black

264. In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR)
is at or above the height of the aircraft the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a
beam width of 5°)
a) 2.5° down
b) 5° up
c) 0°
d) 2.5° up
265. In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
a) fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 nm to 60 nm range
b) pencil beam effective from zero to 150 nm
c) pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 nm
d) fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 nm

266. In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
a) a greater radar range to be achieved
b) better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea
c) scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose signals are practically
independent of distance
d) higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture

267. In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?

a) SHF
b) UHF
c) EHF
d) VHF

268. In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant
radiation pattern.
a) MANUAL
b) CONTOUR
c) WEATHER
d) MAPPING

269. On a colour weather display the most severe turbulence will be shown by:
a) alternating white and black
b) a steep colour gradient
c) a black hole
d) flashing red

270. The AWR in an aircraft at FL310 detects a cloud at a range of 40 nm. The cloud
disappears with the tilt selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 4° what is
the altitude of the cloud tops?
a) 31000 ft
b) 39000 ft
c) 47000 ft
d) 23000 ft

271. The AWR in an aircraft at FL390 detects a Cb at a range of 60 nm. The cloud
disappears from the screen when the tilt is selected to 3° UP. If the beamwidth is 4°
what is the altitude of the cloud tops?
a) 45000 ft
b) 6000 ft
c) 33000 ft
d) 51000 ft
272. The AWR in an aircraft flying at FL350 detects a cloud at a range of 30 nm. The
cloud disappears when the tilt is selected to 4° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 4°
then the altitude of the tops of the cloud is:
a) 35000 ft
b) 47000 ft
c) 41000 ft
d) 6000 ft

273. The AWR of an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at a range of 50 nm. The cloud
disappears when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6° the
altitude of the tops of the clouds are:
a) 5000 ft
b) 42000 ft
c) 47000 ft
d) 32000 ft

274. The checking of AWR on the ground:

a) is not permitted
b) is permitted provided special precautions are taken
c) is permitted at any time
d) is only permitted by authorised technicians

275. The CONTOUR function in the AWR:

a) gives the gradation of water droplet size
b) allows detection of turbulence
c) is used for mapping
d) allows simultaneous mapping and cloud detection

276. The cosecant squared (fan-shaped) beam is used for mapping because:
a) it gives a greater range
b) it produces a brighter and better quality picture
c) gives coverage of a greater area
d) it gives better discrimination between land and sea

277. The iso-echo contour circuit in the AWR provides:

a) detection of turbulence
b) gradation of water droplet size
c) all of the above
d) detection of large water droplets

278. The most severe turbulence on a colour AWR will be shown:

a) by a steep colour gradient
b) by alternating red and white
c) in flashing red
d) as a black hole in the cloud

279. The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to
the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
a) beyond 50 to 60 nm because more power can be concentrated in the narrower
beam
 b) beyond 100 nm because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the
mapping mode
c) when approaching coast-lines in polar regions
d) beyond 150 nm because the wider beam gives better definition

280. The wavelength of 3.2 cm is used for AWR because:

a) it gives good returns from large water droplets
b) it gives good penetration of cloud
c) it provides good resolution to distinguish between clouds
d) it gives good returns from turbulence

281. What is the minimum height the aircraft must be at for the AWR to receive returns
from a coastline at a range of 180 nm?
a) 21000 ft
b) 12000 ft
c) 51000 ft
d) 32500 ft

282. What is the purpose of the contour circuit in an AWR?

a) it permits the graded display of water droplet size
b) it eliminates second trace returns
c) it aids discrimination between cloud and ground returns
d) it enables ground mapping
283. What tilt setting would you put on the AWR to display clouds at and above aircraft
level if the beamwidth is 6°?
a) 0°
b) 3° downtilt
c) 3° uptilt
d) 6° uptilt

284. When using the AWR for terrain mapping the conical beam should be selected in
preference to the cosecant squared (fan-shaped) beam:
a) above about 60 nm
b) below about 60 nm
c) above about 150 nm
d) below about 150 nm

285. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather
radar when using the 'weather beam'?
a) stratus
b) altostratus
c) cumulus
d) cirrocumulus

286. Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna
stabilisation axes?
a) roll pitch and yaw
b) roll and pitch
c) pitch and yaw
d) roll and yaw
287. Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
a) turbulence in cloud that has precipitation
b) precipitation
c) clear air turbulence
d) wet snow and turbulence in cloud that has precipitation

062-011 SSR (22 Questions)

288. A SSR interrogator transmits on a frequency of …. MHz and receives replies on a

frequency of …. MHz.
a) 1090...........1030
b) 1030...........1030
c) 1090...........1090
d) 1030...........1090

289. An advantage of mode S over Modes A/C is:

1. Fruiting and garbling removed

2. Unique code for each aircraft

3. Data link available

a) Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not

b) All the statements are correct
c) Statements 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is not
d) Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not

290. An advantage of mode S when compared to modes A & C is:

1. Data link

2. Selective interrogation

3. Unique code for each aircraft

a) Statements 1 and 3 are advantages of Mode S, 2 is not

b) Statements 2 and 3 are advantages of Mode S, 1 is not
c) Statements 1 and 2 are advantages of Mode S, 3 is not
d) all the above are advantages of Mode S

291. In order to indicate an emergency situation the aircraft Secondary Surveillance

Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) 7000

292. In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected
to code:
a) 7700
 b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 7000

293. The accuracy of the readout of the mode C information on an ATC radar is:
a) +/-100 ft
b) +/-300 ft
c) +/-50 ft
d) +/-500 ft

294. The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:

a) phase differences
b) amplitude differences
c) pulses
d) frequency differences

295. The codes available for modes A and C are respectively:

a) 4096 16 777 216
b) 2048 2048
c) 16 777 216 4096
d) 4096 4096

296. The discrete code used to indicate unlawful interference is:

a) 7050
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700

297. The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:

a) 1120 +/- 0.6 MHz
b) 1090 +/- 0.3 MHz
c) 1050 +/- 0.5 MHz
d) 1030 +/- 0.2 MHz

298. The problem caused in SSR when two aircraft are within about 1.7 nm is known
as:
a) jittering
b) garbling
c) jumbling
d) fruiting

299. The reason that pulse pairs are used in secondary radar systems is:
a) to identify the interrogating station
b) all of the above
c) to allow the exchange of information
d) to prevent interference from random noise

300. The reference datum for mode C is:

a) WGS84
b) 1013.25 Hpa
 c) QNH or QFE
d) Mean sea level

301. The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S
are:
a) air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC
aircraft surveillance capability
b) collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication
capability.
c) the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic
separation between aircraft using TCAS II
d) continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS)
satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II

302. Using a secondary surveillance radar the time interval between the transmission
of a pulse and the receipt of the response from the aircraft is 1600 microseconds.
The range of the target is (ignore the delay at the transponder):
a) 240 km
b) 480 km
c) 129 km
d) 259 km

303. What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
transponder codes in Mode A?
a) 1000
b) 760
c) 4096
d) 3600

304. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air
traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated
flight level in increments of:
a) 150 FT
b) 200 FT
c) 100 FT
d) 250 FT

305. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional
information transmitted is:
a) altitude based on regional QNH
b) height based on QFE
c) aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
d) flight level based on 1013.25 hPa

306. Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder

principle?
a) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
b) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
c) Global Positioning System (GPS)
d) Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
307. Which of the following is not an advantage of mode S over modes A & C?
a) unique code for each aircraft
b) selective interrogation
c) improved bearing accuracy
d) data link facility

308. Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse
technique?

1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar

2. Airborne Weather Radar
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 2 3 and 4
b) 1 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 3 and 4 only

309. Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

a) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static
returns
b) The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
c) The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
d) The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar

062-011 DME (45 Questions)

310. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
a) 7 nm
b) 6 nm
c) 8 nm
d) 11 nm

311. A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA
conditions which is 15 nm away from the DME station will have a DME reading of:
a) 14 nm
b) 15 nm
c) 16 nm
d) 17 nm

312. A DME transponder becomes saturated when more than about 100 aircraft try to
interrogate it. To overcome this problem the transponder:
a) reduces the gain to eliminate weaker signals
b) selectively replies to the interrogations
c) increases the PRF
d) closes down
313. A pilot selects a VOR/DME and hears three identifications the same then the
fourth identification at a higher pitch has the last letter changed to a `Z'. The
significance of this is:
a) the beacons are co-located
b) the VOR and DME are serving different locations
c) the beacons are greater than 30 m apart but less than 600 m
d) the beacons are greater than 600 m apart but less than 6 nm

314. A pilot tunes in a VORTAC and hears the VOR identification TSP and the DME
identification TSZ. This indicates that:
a) the beacons are serving the same location and are within 6 nm but not within
600m of each other
b) the beacons are serving the same location and are within 600 m of each other
c) the beacons are serving different locations
d) the beacons are serving the same location and are within 600 m but not within
30m of each other

315. A typical DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates on which of the

following frequencies:
a) 5087 kHz.
b) 1227.6 MHz
c) 1030 MHz
d) 1076 MHz

316. A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:

a) 100 MHz
b) 10 MHz
c) 1000 MHz
d) 100 GHz

317. A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the
callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
a) VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
b) DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
c) DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
d) DME callsign was not transmitted the distance information is sufficient proof of
correct operation

318. An aircraft at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level. The
DME indicates approximately:
a) 6.1 nm
b) 6.8 nm
c) 6.1 km
d) 6.8 km
319. An aircraft at FL200 is 220 nm from a DME at 576 ft amsl. The aircraft equipment
fails to lock onto the ground installation. This is because:
a) the power output of the aircraft equipment is too low to trigger a response at that
range
b) the aircraft is outside the maximum coverage of a DME
c) The aircraft is above line of sight cover
d) the aircraft is below line of sight cover

320. An aircraft at FL250 is 220 nm from a DME at sea level. The equipment fails to
lock onto the DME. The reason for this is:
a) the beacon is unserviceable
b) the beacon is saturated
c) the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d) the DOC for DME is a maximum of 200 nm

321. An aircraft at FL300 with a groundspeed of 300 kt is about pass overhead a DME
station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining ground-speed. One
minute before the overhead DME speed and distance indications are respectively:
a) less than 300 kt and 7 nm.
b) less than 300 kt and 5 nm.
c) 300 kt and 5 nm.
d) 300 kt and 7 nm.

322. An aircraft at FL350 has a DME at mean sea level approximately 250 nm away.
The pilot selects the DME but the equipment fails to achieve lock. The reason for this
is:
a) the beacon is saturated
b) the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
c) the aircraft is above line of sight range
d) the aircraft is outside the DOC

323. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from
the ground because:
a) DME uses the UHF band
b) DME transmits twin pulses
c) they are not on the receiver frequency
d) the pulse recurrence rates are varied

324. An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At
that time the DME reading will be:
a) approximately 2 nm.
b) 0 nm.
c) fluctuating and not significant.
d) FLAG/OFF the aircraft is within the cone of silence.

325. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

a) UHF band and uses one frequency
b) VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
c) SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
d) UHF band and uses two frequencies
326. DME channels operate in the frequency band which includes:
a) 1 000 MHz
b) 300 MHz
c) 600 MHz
d) 110 MHz

327. DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:

a) 110 MHz
b) 300 MHz
c) 1000 MHz
d) 600 MHz

328. During a flight at FL 210 a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication
from a DME station located approximately 220 nm away. The reason for this is that
the:
a) aeroplane is circling around the station
b) range of a DME system is always less than 200 nm
c) aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude
d) altitude is too high

329. For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the
number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
a) 60
b) 200
c) 80
d) 100

330. ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
a) + or - 0.5 nm or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater
b) + or - 0.25 nm plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 nm
c) + or - 1.25 nm plus 0.25% of the distance measured
d) + or - 0.25 nm plus 1.25% of the distance measured

331. If an en-route VOR and DME are associated the maximum distance between the
transmitters will be:
a) 2000 m
b) 100 m
c) 30 m
d) 600 m

332. In which of the following cases would the DME equipment in an aircraft at FL330
measure the most accurate groundspeed?
a) Flying tangentially at 50 nm
b) Flying tangentially at 150 nm
c) Tracking directly away at 22 nm
d) Tracking directly towards at 120 nm
333. In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at
FL400?
a) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 nm or more
b) When overhead the station with no change of heading at transit
c) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 nm
d) When passing abeam the station and within 5 nm of it

334. It is intended to increase the operating range of a DME from 50 to 100 nm. The
factor to increase the power output of the DME to achieve this will be:
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 2

335. Of what use if any is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?

a) It is of no use to civil aviation
b) It can provide a magnetic bearing
c) It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
d) It can provide DME distance

336. The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from
the ground because:
a) DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
b) DME transmits twin pulses
c) reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
d) aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different
frequencies

337. The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and
reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
a) aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed
from each other
b) transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
c) pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
d) the time interval between pulse pairs is unique to that particular aircraft

338. The counters of a DME distance readout are rotating continuously. This indicates:
a) the DME is in the search mode
b) the DME is detecting no replies to its interrogations
c) the aircraft equipment is unserviceable
d) the ground station is unserviceable

339. The design requirements for DME stipulate that at a range of 100 nm the
maximum systematic error should not exceed:
a) + or - 1.25 nm
b) + or - 3 nm
c) + or - 1.5 nm
d) + or - 0.25 nm
340. The DME in an aircraft at FL360 shows a range of 10 nm from the station. The
plan range is:
a) 10 nm
b) 6 nm
c) 8 nm
d) 11.7 nm

341. The DME in an aircraft at FL630 shows a range of 20 nm from the ground
station. The plan range is:
a) 17 nm
b) 12 nm
c) 20 nm
d) 22.5 nm

342. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL300 shows a range of 13 nm. The plan range
is:
a) 13 nm
b) 14 nm
c) 12 nm
d) 10 nm

343. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL370 shows a slant range of 10 nm from a DME
at 500 ft amsl. The plan range is:
a) 10 nm
b) 11.7 nm
c) 8 nm
d) 6 nm

344. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 is showing a range of 20 nm. The plan
range is:
a) 18.5 nm
b) 20 nm
c) 21 nm
d) 17 nm

345. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 17 nm on the DME. The
plan range is:
a) 15.5 nm
b) 17 nm
c) 18.4 nm
d) 14.1 nm

346. The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL230 selects a DME located at mean sea level at
a range of 210 nm. The DME fails to lock on to the ground station. This is because:
a) the aircraft is too high to achieve line of sight
b) the beacon is saturated
c) the maximum range of DME is limited to 200 nm
d) the aircraft is too low to achieve line of sight

347. The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance
Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the
 airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second including time delay. The slant range from
the ground transponder was:
a) 186 nm
b) 330 nm
c) 158 nm
d) 296 nm

348. To increase the range of a DME from 80 nm to 160 nm would require the power
to be increased by a factor of:
a) 8
b) 16
c) 4
d) 2

349. When a DME fails to achieve lock it will reduce the search PRF to 60 pulse pairs
per second after:
a) 15000 pulse pairs
b) 100 seconds
c) 150 pulse pairs
d) 10 seconds

350. When a VOR and DME are associated each will have the same identification to
distinguish between two identifications:
a) the DME audio frequency is higher than the VOR's
b) the DME audio frequency is lower than the VOR's
c) the DME transmits a `D' at the end of the identification
d) the VOR transmits a `V' at the end of the identification

351. When DME is used to provide range for an ILS approach it gives the range to the
runway threshold although the DME is located elsewhere on the aerodrome. This
achieved by:
a) the time delay in the transponder being increased by the time interval for double
the distance between the transponder and the runway threshold
b) the aircraft equipment having a database of the location of the transponder with
respect to the runway threshold
c) the ILS transmits the position of the DME with respect to the runway threshold
d) the time delay in the transponder being reduced by the time interval for double
the distance between the transponder and the runway threshold

352. When flying at 6000 feet above ground level the DME indicates 5 nm. What is the
horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
a) 4.3 nm
b) 5.2 nm
c) 4.6 nm
d) 4.9 nm

353. When in the search mode a DME transmits 150 pulse pairs per second which
reduces to 60 pulse pairs per second if lock on is not achieved within:
a) 1500 pulse pairs
b) 100 seconds
c) 10 seconds
 d) 15000 pulse pairs

354. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground
speed?
a) A VOR station sited on the flight route
b) An ADF sited on the flight route
c) A DME station sited across the flight route
d) A DME station sited on the flight route

062-012 RNAV (56 Questions)

355. Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area
Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'?

a) 9 NM
b) 11 NM
c) 14 NM
d) 8 NM

356. A basic 2D RNAV system will determine aircraft position using:

 1. Twin VOR

2. VOR/DME

3. Twin DME

a) 2 only
b) All of the above may be used
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

357. A precision RNAV system is required to be accurate to:

a) +/-5°
b) +/-1°
c) +/-5 nm
d) +/-1 nm

358. According to ICAO (Annex 11) the definition of an RNAV system is:
a) one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the
coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified
limits of self contained on-board systems or a combination of the two
b) one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the
specified limits of self contained on-board systems.
c) one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the
coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids only
d) one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the
coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified
limits of self contained on-board systems but not a combination of the two

359. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is on the runway centreline (QDM 253°).
If the heading feed to the EHSI suddenly gets a 5° east deviation the ILS
presentation will:
a) show zero deviation from the localiser
b) show full scale fly right
c) show full scale fly left
d) freeze and show a fail flag

360. An aircraft is 15 nm from a phantom station on a 30 nm track between two

phantom stations and 25 nm from the DME designating that station. The phantom
station is 20 nm from the VOR/DME. The range readout in the aircraft will be:
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 30

361. An aircraft is using a FMC combining IRS data with GNSS data. If a discrepancy
is found between the positional information then the pilot must:
 a) declare an emergency and divert to the nearest suitable aerodrome
b) determine which is in error and continue with the correct data
c) deselect the IRS data and continue with the GNSS information only
d) deselect the GNSS data and continue with the IRS information only

362. An aircraft is using a RNAV system combining NAVSTAR/GPS position

information with IRS data. If the pilot detects a difference between the IRS position
and the GPS position then he should:
a) deselect the GPS information and continue with the IRS
b) deselect the IRS information and continue with the GPS
c) determine which is in error and continue with the correct system
d) continue using alternative fixing

363. An aircraft using a 2D RNAV system is on a leg of 50 nm between WP1 and

WP2. The aircraft is 32 nm from WP2 and 25 nm from the VOR/DME designating
WP2. WP2 is 22 nm from the VOR/DME. The range displayed on the equipment will
be:
a) 22 nm
b) 25 nm
c) 32 nm
d) 18 nm
364. Apart from radials and distances from VOR/DME stations what information is
required by the VOR/DME Area Navigation computer in order to calculate the wind?
a) True airspeed from the air data computer
b) Vertical speed from the air data computer
c) Heading from the aircraft compass system
d) Heading from the aircraft compass system and true airspeed from the air data
computer

365. Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

a) +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time
b) +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight
c) +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time
d) +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time

366. Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-
based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
a) because under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other
than 180°/360°) it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary
information
b) when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station
c) when the Phantom Station is out of range
d) when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the
reference station

367. How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
a) The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the
aircraft's normal VHF NAV selector.
b) The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the
system itself tunes the DME stations providing the best angular position lines.
 c) the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME Area
navigation control panel.
d) The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it
always tunes the DME stations closest to the aircraft position.

368. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which
permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
a) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is
equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
b) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of
the capability of self-contained aids or a combination of these
c) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is
equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids
d) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is
equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid

369. If a FMC is using IRS monitored by GPS and a discrepancy is noted between the
IRS and GPS positions the pilot should:
a) continue with the IRS information only
b) determine which is in error and continue with the serviceable system
c) continue with the GPS information only
d) continue using alternative navigation facilities
370. If GNSS positional information is being used in association with IRS and there is
a discrepancy between the two then:
a) The GNSS information must be discarded
b) the IRS information should be discarded in favour of the GNSS information
c) The aircraft should be diverted to the nearest suitable aerodrome
d) Another reference should be used to resolve the problem then the erroneous
system should be discarded

371. In a 2D RNAV system a waypoint will be generated by …. and is known as a ....

a) Twin DME phantom station
b) VOR/DME phantom station
c) Twin DME ghost station
d) VOR/DME ghost station

372. In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple

RNAV system the VOR/DME
a) must be in range
b) has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
c) does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
d) does not have to be in range when entered or used

373. In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV) which of the following is an Air
Data input?
a) Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
b) True airspeed
c) Doppler drift
d) VOR/DME radial/distance
374. In simple 2D RNAV equipment the waypoint is known as a phantom station
because:
a) it was an arbitrary name selected by the original designers
b) it is an acronym of phase notation time and motion
c) the equipment transposes the VOR/DME designating the station to the waypoint
d) the presentation the pilot sees is the same as if the aircraft was homing to a
VOR/DME

375. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS) data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
a) air data computer
b) navigation database
c) auto flight computers
d) performance database

376. On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead
reckoning mode?
a) Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data
computer; heading from the aircraft compass.
b) TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last
computed W/V.
c) Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs.
d) TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass.
377. The accuracy required of a basic RNAV equipment is:
a) +/-1°
b) +/-1 nm
c) +/-5 nm
d) +/-5°

378. The external reference used by the B737-400 FMC is:

1. DME/DME

2. VOR/DME

3. VOR/VOR

a) All the above may be used

b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 only

379. The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:

a) the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time
b) the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
c) the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS Radio ILS GPS etc)
d) another source of aircraft position; it is independent of other navigation sources
(IRS Radio ILS etc)

380. The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that the pilot
can:
 a) insert navigation data between two database updates
b) modify the database every 14 days
c) read and write at any time in the database
d) modify the data in the database between two updates

381. The FMC in the RNAV function:

a) uses the IRS position which it updates to the external reference through a
process known as Kalman filtering
b) uses the IRS and/or external reference positions using Kalman filtering when
information from both sources is used
c) determines a position from IRS and/or external reference through the Kalman
filtering process
d) determines a position from the IRS or external reference through the Kalman
filtering process

382. The FMC position is:

a) generated by the FMC from the IRS and radio navigation positions
b) the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
c) generated by the FMC from the radio navigation positions
d) the average of the IRS positions

383. The inputs to the EHSI during automatic flight include:

a) IRS FMC radio navigation information
b) Radio navigation information IRS FCC
c) FCC FMC IRS
d) FCC ADC FMC

384. The IRS position in the B737-800 can be updated:

a) On the ground and on final approach when using ILS or MLS equipped with DME
b) At specified points when within 25 nm of both DMEs
c) Only on the ground
d) When the pilot considers the accuracy of the IRS is below the basic RNAV limits

385. The most accurate information used by a RNAV system will be taken from:
a) Twin VOR
b) Twin ADF
c) VOR/DME
d) Twin DME

386. The most accurate position information will be derived from:

a) VOR/DME fixes
b) twin DME fixing
c) twin VOR fixing
d) the IRS positions

387. The navigation database in the FMC:

a) can be amended by the pilots to update navigational data
b) can be modified by the pilots to meet route requirements
c) is inaccessible to the flight crew
 d) is read only for the pilots

388. The navigation function of the flight management computer:

a) uses the IRS data through the Kalman filtering process to update the external
reference position
b) takes the IRS position and applies the Kalman filtering process to smooth the
deviations caused by the Schuler period
c) takes the IRS position and through the Kalman filtering process adjusts that
position using external reference
d) derives position from the IRS data and external reference through the Kalman
filtering process

389. The navigational information that can be input to the FMC using a maximum of 5
alpha-numerics is:
a) reporting points airways designators navigation facilities
b) navigation facilities airways designators latitude & longitude
c) latitude & longitude reporting points SIDs & STARs
d) SIDs & STARs rho/theta airways designators

390. The radio navigation information used by the FMC is:

a) VOR DME
b) VOR ADF DME ILS
c) DME VOR ILS
d) ADF VOR DME

391. The required accuracy for a basic RNAV system is:

a) +/-1 nm
b) +/-1°
c) +/-5 nm
d) +/-5°

392. The sequence of MCDU pages accessed on initialisation of the FMS is:
a) IDENT RTE POS INIT
b) POS INIT IDENT RTE
c) IDENT POS INIT RTE
d) RTE IDENT POS INIT

393. The waypoint in a 2D area navigation system is known as .... because the
equipment indications are as if there is a VOR/DME at that point.
a) phantom beacon
b) ghost station
c) phantom station
d) ghost beacon

394. Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation
system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
a) The system is receiving information from one VOR and one DME
b) The system is receiving information from the two DMEs
c) The system is receiving information from only one VOR
d) The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DMEs
395. Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation
system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
a) When 'DR' is selected by the pilot.
b) VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the Air
Data Computer.
c) VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data
information from VOR/DME stations.
d) VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the aircraft
compass system.

396. Using a 2D RNAV system an aircraft is flying from WP1 to WP2 a distance of 47
nm. The aircraft has 25 nm to run to WP2. WP2 is 270/37 nm from the VOR/DME
and the aircraft is 32 nm from the same VOR/DME. The range readout will be:
a) 37 nm
b) 47 nm
c) 25 nm
d) 32 nm

397. Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area
Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
a) NDB/VOR
b) VOR/VOR
c) DME/DME
d) VOR/DME

398. Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight
between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
a) ATA
b) ETO
c) Elapsed time on route.
d) ETD

399. Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV
system?
a) It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
b) It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and
distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
c) It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
d) It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and
continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off
the air

400. Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to change
the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
a) At any time before take-off and throughout the flight
b) Only before take-off
c) Only before the flight plan is activated
d) Only once the aircraft is airborne.

401. Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom
Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
 a) Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
b) Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom
Station'
c) Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
d) Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

402. Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes
from an external not on-board system?
a) Pressure altitude
b) VOR/DME radial/distance
c) Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
d) Magnetic heading

403. Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based
Area Navigation System?
a) Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation
b) True airspeed; drift angle
c) Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
d) Wind velocity

404. Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?

a) Basic RNAV system
b) VOR/DME
c) GPS
d) Inertial Navigation System

062-013 EHSI (85 Questions)

405. Using Annex A (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
a) Figure 2
b) Figure 3
c) Figure 1
d) Figure 4

406. Using Annex A (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
a) Figure 3
b) Figure 2
c) Figure 1
d) Figure 4

407. Using Annex A (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS
mode with an ILS frequency selected?
a) Figure 3
b) Figure 4
c) Figure 1
 d) Figure 2

408. Using Annex A (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS
mode with a VOR frequency selected?
a) Figure 1
b) Figure 3
c) Figure 2
d) Figure 4

409. Using Annex B (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an
VOR frequency selected?
a) Figure 4
b) Figure 5
c) Figure 6
d) Figure 1

410. Using Annex B (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
a) Figure 2
b) Figure 6
c) Figure 4
d) Figure 3

411. Using Annex B (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
a) Figure 5
b) Figure 2
c) Figure 4
d) Figure 3

412. Using Annex B (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS
mode with an VOR frequency selected?
a) Figure 6
b) Figure 1
c) Figure 4
d) Figure 5

413. Using Annex B (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS
mode with an ILS frequency selected?
a) Figure 6
b) Figure 2
c) Figure 5
d) Figure 3

414. Using Annex B (click here for .pdf document):Which of the figures depicts an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an
ILS frequency selected?
 a) Figure 5
b) Figure 2
c) Figure 3
d) Figure 6

415. Using Annex G (click here for .pdf document): What drift is being experienced?
a) 20° Right
b) 8° Left
c) 12° Right
d) 20° Left

416. Using Annex D (click here for .pdf document): What is the value of the track from
TBX to YTB?
a) 140°(M)
b) 280°(T)
c) 170°(M)
d) 097°(T)

417. Using Annex E (click here for .pdf document): What wind velocity is indicated?
a) 105°(M)/20KT
b) 030°(M)/20KT
c) 285°(M)/20KT
d) 255°(M)/20KT
418. Using Annex F (click here for .pdf document): What is the value of the selected
course?
a) 299°(M)
b) 260°(M)
c) 280°(M)
d) 272°(M)

419. Using Annex C (click here for .pdf document): What is the aircraft track?
a) 260°(M)
b) 280°(M)
c) 272°(M)
d) 300°(M)

420. Using Annex D (click here for .pdf document): The letters QTX and adjacent
symbol indicate a:
a) VOR/DME/VORTAC
b) VOR
c) TACAN
d) Airport

421. Using Annex E (click here for .pdf document): The 'O' followed by the letters
'KABC' indicate:
a) an off-route airport
b) the destination airport
c) an off-route VOR/DME
d) a designated alternate airport
422. Using Annex F (click here for .pdf document): What is the heading bug selected
to?
a) 300°(M)
b) 272°(M)
c) 260°(M)
d) 280°(M)

423. Using Annex C (click here for .pdf document): The diagram indicates that the
aircraft is to the:
a) right of the localizer and below the glidepath
b) left of the localizer and below the glidepath
c) right of the localizer and above the glidepath
d) left of the localizer and above the glidepath

424. A deviation of one dot from the computed track on a 2 dot HSI represents:
a) 5 nm
b) 2°
c) 2 nm
d) 5°

425. Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M) Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR Selected
course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
a) behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
b) behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
c) ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
d) ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

426. How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond
to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
a) It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display
b) The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
c) The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently
d) The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar
appears

427. In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to

navigation in the FMC is provided by:
a) GPS, Aircraft Weather Radar, Navigation radios
b) Inertial Reference Systems, Aircraft Weather Radar, Navigation radios
c) Navigation radios, GPS, Inertial Reference Systems, Inertial Reference Systems
d) Inertial Reference Systems, Navigation radios, Terrain Collision Alerting System

428. In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a

B737-400 will radar returns not be shown?
a) FULL VOR/ILS EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
b) FULL NAV PLAN and MAP
c) FULL NAV FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
d) EXP VOR/ ILS PLAN and MAP

429. On the EHSI NAV displays a one dot deviation from track idicates an error of:
a) 5°
 b) 2 nm
c) 5 nm
d) 2°

430. Using Annex H, Figure A: (click here for .pdf document)The facility AFS is:
a) An available VORTAC
b) An available ILS
c) An in-use ADF
d) An available ADF

431. Using Annex H, Figure B: (click here for .pdf document) The track from ZAPPO to
BURDY is:
a) 130°
b) 070°
c) 250°
d) 200°

432. Using Annex H, Figure C: (click here for .pdf document) This display mode is:
a) CTR MAP
b) MAP
c) PLAN
d) EXP NAV

433. Using Annex H, Figure D: (click here for .pdf document) The figures 2380 in the
bottom right corner mean:
a) the aircraft is 2380 feet above the computed descent profile
b) the aircraft has 2380 feet to its end of descent height
c) the aircraft is descending at 2380 feet per minute
d) the aircraft is 2380 feet below the end of climb height

434. Using Annex H, Figure E: (click here for .pdf document) The aircraft is:
a) 3° right of track
b) 8° right of track
c) 3° left of track
d) 8° left of track

435. Using Annex H, Figure F: (click here for .pdf document) The aircraft is:
a) above the glidepath and right of the centreline
b) below the glidepath and left of the centreline
c) above the glidepath and left of the centreline
d) below the glidepath and right of the centreline

436. Using Annex K. (click here for .pdf document) The MAP display is figure:
a) B
b) D
c) C
d) F

437. Using Annex L, Figure E: (click here for .pdf document) The required track is:
a) 165°
 b) 156°
c) 130°
d) 133°

438. Using Annex L, Figure A: (click here for .pdf document) The deviation from
computed track is:
a) 2 nm left
b) 2 nm right
c) 2° right
d) 2° left

439. Using Annex L, Figure C: (click here for .pdf document) The track from DENEB to
TRAMK is:
a) 050°(M)
b) 180°(T)
c) 180°(M)
d) 050°(T)

440. Using Annex L, Figure F: (click here for .pdf document) The symbol at bottom
right showing a diamond and the figures 2500 means:
a) the aircraft is 2500 ft above the computed descent profile
b) the aircraft is climbing at 2500 fpm
c) the aircraft is descending at 2500 fpm
d) the aircraft is 2500 ft below the computed descent profile
441. Using Annex L. (click here for .pdf document) Figure E is:
a) FULL ROSE VOR
b) FULL ROSE NAV
c) EXP VOR
d) EXP ILS

442. Using Annex L. (click here for .pdf document) Which figure is the MAP display?
a) E
b) A
c) F
d) D

443. Using Annex K, Figure A: (click here for .pdf document) The computed track is:
a) 133°
b) 165°
c) 104°
d) 155°

444. Using Annex K, Figure A: (click here for .pdf document) The deviation from the
computed track is:
a) 5° right
b) 5° left
c) 2 nm right
d) 2 nm left

445. Using Annex K, Figure B: (click here for .pdf document) The aircraft is:
a) 3° left of required track
 b) 8° left of required track
c) 8° right of required track
d) 3° right of required track

446. Using Annex K, Figure C: (click here for .pdf document) The track from WAMPA
to BRYAK is:
a) 280°M
b) 280°T
c) 360°M
d) 360°T

447. Using Annex K, Figure D: (click here for .pdf document) The aircraft is:
a) 2500 ft above the computed climb profile
b) 2500 ft below the computed climb profile
c) 2500 ft below the computed descent profile
d) 2500 ft above the computed descent profile

448. Using Annex K, Figure E: (click here for .pdf document) The aircraft is:
a) above the glidepath and left of the centreline
b) below the glidepath and right of the centreline
c) above the glidepath and right of the centreline
d) below the glidepath and left of the centreline

449. Using Annex K, Figure F: (click here for .pdf document) The symbol labelled DFC
is coloured cyan and represents:
a) an in-use VOR
b) an available NDB
c) an available VORTAC
d) an available VOR

450. Using Annex K. (click here for .pdf document) Which diagram is CTR MAP?
a) D
b) C
c) F
d) A

451. Using Annex H, Figure A: (click here for .pdf document) The symbol left of centre
labelled EYY and the symbol right of centre labelled PIL are both green. These
symbols represent:
a) available VORTACs
b) in-use VORTACs
c) available NDBs
d) in-use NDBs

452. Using Annex H, Figure B: (click here for .pdf document) The approach to KBZN
is:
a) 270°(M)
b) 130°(M)
c) 130°(T)
d) 270°(T)
453. Using Annex H, Figure D: (click here for .pdf document) The computed track is:
a) 112°
b) 165°
c) 135°
d) 146°

454. Using Annex H, Figure E: (click here for .pdf document) The deviation from
required track is:
a) 3 nm left
b) 3 nm right
c) 8° right
d) 8° left

455. Using Annex H, Figure F: (click here for .pdf document) The deviation from
required track is:
a) 1° right
b) 1° left
c) 0.5° right
d) 0.5° left

456. Using Annex H. (click here for .pdf document) Which diagram represents the NAV
display?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) A

457. Using Annex L. (click here for .pdf document) Which diagram represents the CTR
MAP display?
a) C
b) A
c) F
d) D

458. Using Annex L, Figure A: (click here for .pdf document) The deviation from
computed track is:
a) 2 nm right
b) 5° right
c) 2 nm left
d) 5° left

459. Using Annex L, Figure B: (click here for .pdf document) The deviation from
required track is:
a) 3 nm left
b) 3 nm right
c) 8° right
d) 8° left
460. Using Annex L, Figure C: (click here for .pdf document) The track from FERIQ to
VARTU is:
a) 160°(M)
b) 160°(T)
c) 290°(M)
d) 290°(T)

461. Using Annex L, Figure F: (click here for .pdf document) The diamond bottom right
with `2500' alongside indicates:
a) the aircraft is 2500 ft high on the computed climb profile
b) the aircraft is 2500 ft low on the computed descent profile
c) the aircraft is 2500 ft low on the computed climb profile
d) the aircraft is 2500 ft high on the computed descent profile

462. Using Annex L, Figure F: (click here for .pdf document) The symbol at centre
right labelled `PIL' is:
a) a VORTAC
b) a VOR
c) a NDB
d) a DME

463. Using Annex H, Figure B: (click here for .pdf document) The runway approach
direction at KBZN is:
a) 130°
b) 265°
c) 085°
d) 310°

464. Using Annex H, Figure D: (click here for .pdf document) The computed track to
BUGLE is:
a) 165°
b) 112°
c) 135°
d) 146°

465. Using Annex H, Figure E: (click here for .pdf document)

The deviation from course is:
a) 3° right
b) 8° right
c) 8° left
d) 3° left

466. Using Annex H, Figure F: (click here for .pdf document)

The aircraft is:
a) below the glidepath and right of the centreline
b) below the glidepath and left of the centreline
c) above the glidepath and right of the centreline
d) above the glidepath and left of the centreline
467. The colour recommended by JAR25 to display turbulence is:
a) Magenta
b) magenta or white
c) red
d) white

468. The JAR25 colour recommended for engaged modes is:

a) green
b) magenta
c) red
d) amber

469. The JAR25 colour recommended for the heaviest precipitation (>50 mm/hr) is:
a) red
b) white or magenta
c) magenta
d) amber

470. The JAR25 recommended colour coding for warnings is:

a) Green
b) amber
c) red
d) magenta
471. The JAR25 recommended colour for an in-use VOR/DME in colour set 1 is:
a) cyan
b) white
c) green
d) magenta

472. The JAR25 recommended colour for armed modes in colour set 1 is:
a) black
b) magenta
c) White
d) green

473. The JAR25 recommended colour for cautions and abnormal sources is:
a) amber
b) green
c) tan
d) red

474. The JAR25 recommended colour for current data and values in colour set 1 is:
a) cyan
b) magenta
c) white
d) amber

475. The JAR25 recommended colour for current data and values in colour set 2 is:
a) magenta
b) yellow
c) green
 d) cyan

476. The JAR25 recommended colour for engaged modes is:

a) cyan
b) magenta
c) green
d) amber

477. The JAR25 recommended colour for flight envelopes and system limits is:
a) amber
b) green
c) red
d) magenta

478. The JAR25 recommended colour for selected data and values in colour set 1 is:
a) tan
b) red
c) amber
d) green

479. The JAR25 recommended colour for the active route in colour set 1 is:
a) cyan
b) amber
c) magenta
d) green

480. The JAR25 recommended colour for the active waypoint in colour set 1 is:
a) magenta
b) cyan
c) amber
d) green

481. The JAR25 recommended colour for the largest water droplets is:
a) magenta
b) amber
c) green
d) red

482. The JAR25 recommended colour for turbulence is:

a) magenta
b) Magenta or white
c) red or magenta
d) flashing red

483. Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in amber/yellow on an

Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) indicate:
a) warnings
b) engaged modes
 c) cautions abnormal sources
d) flight envelope and system limits

484. Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue on an Electronic
Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) indicate:
a) the sky
b) engaged modes
c) the flight director bar(s)
d) flight envelope and system limits

485. Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) indicate:
a) warnings; flight envelope and system limits
b) warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
c) flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
d) cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes

486. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS)
increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
a) black amber/yellow magenta red
b) amber/yellow magenta black
c) green amber/yellow red magenta
d) green red magenta black
487. Under JAR-25 general colour code rules features displayed in green on an
Electronic Flight Information System should indicate:
a) cautions abnormal sources
b) engaged modes
c) the earth
d) the ILS deviation pointer

488. What information does JAR25 recommend that the colour RED is used to
display?
a) cautions abnormal sources warnings
b) flight envelopes system limits abnormal sources
c) system limits warnings flight envelopes
d) warnings cautions system limits

489. Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System

generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
a) Flight Management Computer
b) Symbol Generator
c) Navigation database
d) Flight Control Computer

062-014 GNSS (98 Questions)

490. The inclination and altitude of NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a) 55° and 10898 nm
b) 65° and 10313 nm
c) 55° and 10313 nm
d) 65° and 10898 nm
491. A local area augmentation system (LAAS) uses a pseudolite which:
a) gives aircraft on approach X Y and Z corrections formatted to trick the receiver
into thinking there is a satellite at the runway threshold
b) gives aircraft on approach X Y Z and T corrections formatted to trick the receiver
into thinking there is a satellite at the runway threshold
c) gives aircraft on approach satellite range corrections formatted to trick the
receiver into thinking there is a satellite at the runway threshold
d) gives aircraft on approach X Y and Z corrections and accurate range information
using secondary radar techniques.

492. A WAAS for example EGNOS provides the receivers with:

a) X Y & Z corrections through satellite link
b) SV range corrections through satellite link
c) SV range corrections through a pseudolite
d) X Y & Z corrections through a pseudolite

493. Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
a) fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
b) assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate
satellite
c) correction of receiver clock error
d) recognition whether Selective Availability (SA) is operative

494. An all in view receiver:

a) tracks all the satellites above the horizon and selects the best 4 for fixing
b) informs the user of all the satellites above the horizon
c) tracks all the satellites in view and informs the user when there are sufficient
available for fixing
d) tracks all the constellation of satellites

495. At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS
satellites circling the earth?
a) 19500 km
b) 36000 km
c) 20200 km
d) 10900 km

496. Augmentation systems (LAAS & WAAS) remove the errors caused by:
a) propagation and selective availability
b) SV ephemeris and clock
c) propagation SV ephemeris and clock
d) SV ephemeris and clock and receiver clock

497. Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system what is the meaning
of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
a) It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted
by the monitoring stations of the ground segment
b) It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random
Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the satellites
 c) It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor
stations (ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the
navigation message
d) It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation
information

498. EGNOS is part of a global WAAS. The ground stations:

a) determine the X Y and Z errors which are then transmitted through a pseudolite
to receivers
b) determine the satellite range errors which are then transmitted through the
navigation channels of the INMARSAT geostationary satellites to receivers
c) determine the X Y and Z errors which are then transmitted through the navigation
channels of the INMARSAT geostationary satellites to receivers
d) determine the satellite range errors which are then transmitted through a
pseudolite to receivers

499. EGNOS provides NAVSTAR/GPS users with:

a) X Y & Z corrections relayed through the INMARSAT geostationary satellites
b) corrections to the satellite ranges relayed through the INMARSAT geostationary
satellites
c) X Y & Z corrections relayed through the GPS constellation
d) corrections to the satellite ranges relayed through the GPS constellation

500. EGNOS provides position enhancement by:

a) determining the X Y & Z errors and transmitting this via the INMARSAT
geostationary satellite system
b) determining the X Y & Z errors and transmitting this via a pseudolite system
c) determining the SV range errors and transmitting this via the INMARSAT
geostationary satellite system
d) determining the SV range errors and transmitting this via a pseudolite system

501. GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals.
502. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
a) L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
b) L2-for communications purpose
c) L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
d) L1-precise (P)

503. GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and
1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or
military). Commercial aviation uses:
a) only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code
b) the two carrier waves and one public code
c) only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code
d) only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes

504. How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which
of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
a) The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and
compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites
b) The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
 c) Each satellite transmits its signal on common frequencies with an individual
Pseudo Random Noise code
d) Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency

505. How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine
the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
a) It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
b) The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)
code
c) The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of
the antenna
d) The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the
navigation message

506. How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability
(FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
a) 18
b) 30
c) 12
d) 24

507. If a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver needs to download the almanac the time to first fix
will be:
a) 12.5 minutes
b) 2.5 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 25 minutes

508. If a satellite is hidden from the receiver by the aircraft wing during a manoeuvre
then:
a) the receiver position will degrade
b) the receiver will continue to produce a position by DR navigation and update the
position once the satellite is back in view
c) the receiver will go into a skysearch and the position will not update for several
minutes
d) the receiver will select another satellite with no degradation in position accuracy

509. In a local area augmentation system (LAAS):

a) errors in X Y and Z coordinates are passed to aircraft by a pseudolite system
b) satellite range errors are passed to aircraft via the INMARSAT satellites
c) satellite range errors are passed to aircraft by a pseudolite system
d) errors in X Y and Z coordinates are passed to aircraft via the INMARSAT
satellites

510. In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) a fix is obtained by:

a) the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a
number of satellites in known positions
b) measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of
satellites received in a specific sequential order
 c) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions in
known positions to reach the aircraft's receiver
d) measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a number of
satellites in known positions and return to the aircraft's receiver

511. In civil aviation the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
a) height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
b) height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
c) flight level
d) geometric height above ground

512. In NAVSTAR GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a) determine the satellite pseudo-ranges
b) reduce receiver clock error
c) reduce ionospheric propagation error
d) reduce satellite clock and ephemeris errors

513. In NAVSTAR/GPS the frequency available for non-authorised users is:

a) 1227.6 MHz
b) either 1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz depending on location
c) 1575.42 MHz
d) 1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz
514. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:
a) determine ionospheric propagation errors
b) determine ionospheric and tropospheric propagation errors
c) identify the satellites
d) transmit nav & system data

515. In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system 'Search the Sky' is a:
a) procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming
operational
b) procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite
data available
c) continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites
d) continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for
satellites rising above the horizon

516. In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system what is involved in

the differential technique (D-GPS)?
a) Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a
suitable receiver on the aircraft
b) Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the
characteristic receiver noise error
c) Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a
fixed distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise
and correct for multipath errors
d) The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are
processed by the receiver to determine an error correction
517. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS 'All in View' is a term
used when a receiver:
a) is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with
the best geometric coverage
b) is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost
signal with another already being monitored
c) requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes
d) is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously

518. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS the term 'inclination'
denotes the angle between the:
a) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite
b) orbital plane and the equatorial plane
c) orbital plane and the earth's axis
d) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite

519. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS which of the

following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)'
signal?
a) PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being
received from different directions (multipath effect)
b) PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of
the time taken by the signal to reach the receiver
c) PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the
satellites
d) PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetic background noise that exists in
space

520. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver clock error:

a) can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks
b) is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in
the satellites
c) is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected
d) is corrected by using signals from four satellites

521. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system what is the maximum time
taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
a) 12 hours
b) 25 minutes
c) 12.5 minutes
d) 25 seconds

522. In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS)

provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
a) EHF
b) VHF
c) UHF
d) SHF

523. In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
 a) VHF
b) SHF
c) EHF
d) UHF

524. Local area and wide area augmentation systems (LAAS & WAAS) remove the
errors caused by:
a) SV ephemeris and clock
b) SV ephemeris and aircraft manoeuvre
c) receiver clock and propagation
d) SV ephemeris and clock and propagation

525. One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a) manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the
position fix
b) grant and monitor user authorisations
c) manufacture and launch the satellites
d) monitor the status of the satellites

526. One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a) compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the
computed position back to the user segment
b) transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes
autonomously
c) transmit signals which can be used by suitable receivers to determine time
position and velocity
d) monitor the satellites' orbits and status

527. Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation
System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation Receiver
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and
remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
a) 7
b) 4
c) 6
d) 5

528. The availability of 2 frequencies at the receiver reduces errors caused by:
a) SV ephemeris and clock
b) Propagation
c) Receiver clock
d) All of the above

529. The best satellite geometry for the most accurate fixing is:
a) 4 SVs equally spaced at 45° above the horizon
 b) one SV directly overhead and 3 equally spaced at about 30° above the horizon
c) 4 SVs equally spaced close to the horizon
d) one SV directly overhead and 3 equally spaced at 60° above the horizon

530. The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at
the destination airfield (0ft) from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions what is
the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain
this information?
a) 123 km
b) 1230 km
c) 12.3 NM
d) 123 NM

531. The contents of the NAVSTAR GPS navigation and system message include:
a) clock time clock error position accuracy verification
b) satellite clock error ionospheric propagation information almanac
c) clock time almanac satellite position corrections
d) almanac clock and position errors ephemeris

532. The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
a) antenna the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)
b) main control station the monitoring station and the ground antennas
c) control space and user
d) atomic clock power supply and transponder

533. The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:

a) calculated using the WGS-84 reference system from the known positions of the
satellite and the receiver
b) determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by
the speed of light
c) determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied
by the speed of light
d) calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies

534. The ellipsoid used as the datum for NAVSTAR GPS is:
a) PZ90
b) WGS84
c) ITRS94
d) ETRS89

535. The frequency available to non-authorised users of NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a) 1030.0 MHz
b) 1575.42 MHz
c) 1227.6 MHz
d) 1090.0 MHz

536. The frequency available to non-authorised users of NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a) 1575.42 MHz
 b) 1227.6 MHz
c) 1090 MHz
d) 1030 MHz

537. The fully operational NAVSTAR GPS constellation comprises:

a) 30 satellites in 3 orbits
b) 24 satellites in 3 orbits
c) 21 satellites in 6 orbits
d) 24 satellites in 6 orbits

538. The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS defined as WGS 84 is:
a) a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
b) a sphere
c) an ellipsoid
d) a geoid

539. The greatest error in 3D GNSS fixing is:

a) receiver clock error
b) in the horizontal plane parallel to the meridians
c) in the horizontal plane parallel to the equator
d) in the vertical plane

540. The inclination and orbital period of SVs in the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation are:
a) 55° 11 hr 15 min
b) 65° 12 hr
c) 55° 12 hr
d) 65° 11 hr 15 min

541. The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a) only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the
horizon
b) minimised by computing the average of all signals
c) minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing
signals transmitted by the satellites
d) negligible

542. The initial calculation of range from a SV by the receiver is known as a pseudo-
range because:
a) it has not yet been corrected for SV ephemeris errors
b) all of the above
c) it has not yet been corrected for SV clock error
d) it has not yet been corrected for receiver clock error

543. The largest error in a 3D position fix is:

a) time
b) in the plane perpendicular to the surface of the earth
c) in the plane horizontal to the surface of the earth
d) any of the above could be the greatest error
544. The largest error in a three dimensional fix will be:
a) any of the above
b) in the plane perpendicular to the surface of the earth
c) in the horizontal plane parallel to the local meridian
d) in the horizontal plane parallel to the equator

545. The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a) to monitor the status of the satellites determine their positions and to measure
the time
b) transmit signals which from the time taken are used to determine the distance to
the satellite
c) monitor the orbital planes of the satellites
d) select appropriate satellites automatically to track the signals and to measure the
time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver

546. The most significant error in GNSS is:

a) receiver clock error
b) Ionospheric propagation error
c) SV clock error
d) Ephemeris error
547. The NAVSTAR GPS satellite orbits are:
a) inclined at 65° to the plane of the equator
b) inclined at 85° to the plane of the equator
c) inclined at 95° to the plane of the equator
d) inclined at 55° to the plane of the equator

548. The NAVSTAR GPS standard positioning service is available to non-authorised

civilian users on:
a) 1227.6 and 1575.42 MHz
b) 1227.6 or 1575.42 MHz
c) 1575.42 MHz
d) 1227.6 MHz

549. The operational NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

a) 30 SVs
b) 24 SVs
c) 21 SVs
d) 27 SVs

550. The optimum position on an aircraft for a satellite navigation aerial is:
a) on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
b) in the cockpit as close as possible to the receiver
c) above the fuselage as close as possible to the centre of gravity
d) underneath the fuselage as close as possible to the centre of gravity

551. The orbital altitude and period of NAVSTAR/GPS are:

a) 10313 nm 12 hours
b) 10898 nm 11 hour 15 minutes
c) 10898 nm 12 hours
d) 10313 nm 11 hours 15 minutes
552. The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a) all the above
b) pass nav and system data
c) synchronise SV clock and receiver clock time
d) identify the SVs

553. The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
a) movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken
into account
b) measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code
c) calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit
d) calculated range includes receiver clock error

554. The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:

a) under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS
stations
b) inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and
fuselage
c) on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity
d) in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines

555. The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:

a) 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned
in a geostationary orbital plane
b) 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
c) 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
d) 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane

556. The satellite constellation authorised for use in European airspace is:
a) GLONASS
b) TRANSIT & COSPAS/SARSAT
c) Galileo
d) NAVSTAR/GPS

557. The satellite geometry which achieves the best position solution is:
a) one SV directly overhead and the other three equally spaced 60° above the
horizon
b) one SV directly overhead and the other three equally spaced 30° above the
horizon
c) 4 SVs close to the horizon and spaced 90° apart
d) one SV directly overhead and the other three equally spaced 45° above the
horizon

558. The task of the NAVSTAR/GPS control segment is to:

a) check the accuracy of the fixing positions and pass corrections to receivers
b) check SV positions
c) all the above
d) control the application of selective availability
559. The time to download the almanac and generate the first fix is approximately:
a) 25 minutes
b) 2.5 minutes
c) 12.5 minutes
d) 15 minutes

560. The use of differential techniques in wide area augmentation systems (WAAS)
removes the errors caused by:
a) selective availability GDOP SV ephemeris and clock errors
b) tropospheric and ionospheric errors SV ephemeris and clock errors
c) SV ephemeris and clock errors GDOP ionospheric propagation errors
d) SV ephemeris error SV clock error selective availability

561. The use of LAAS and WAAS removes the errors caused by:
a) propagation satellite clock and ephemeris
b) propagation receiver clock
c) selective availability and propagation
d) satellite clock and ephemeris

562. The use of two frequencies significantly reduces the errors caused by:
a) ionospheric propagation
b) ephemeris
c) receiver clock
d) selective availability

563. The vertical reference for a non-precision approach using GNSS is:
a) GNSS altitude
b) barometric altitude
c) GNSS or barometric altitude
d) radio altitude

564. What are the effects if any of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the
reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
a) It causes multipath propagation
b) It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected
c) The signals will be distorted however the error can be corrected for using an
algorithm and information from unaffected signals
d) It may prevent the reception of signals

565. What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
a) Barometric altitude
b) Radar altitude
c) If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS
otherwise barometric altitude
d) GPS altitude

566. What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the
NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
 a) 45°
b) 65°
c) 55°
d) 35°

567. What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an

accurate independent 3-D position fix?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 24
d) 4

568. What is the procedure to be followed if on a flight under IFR conditions using the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system the number of satellites required to
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not
available?
a) The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and
the pilot monitors the GPS-System manually
b) A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of
satellites are again available
c) The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems
d) The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions

569. What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?

a) Atomic
b) Quartz
c) Mechanical
d) Laser

570. What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable
for use on board an aircraft?
a) Multichannel
b) Multiplex
c) Any hand held type
d) Sequential

571. When carrying out a non-precision approach using GNSS the height reference
used is:
a) barometric
b) combined GNSS and barometric
c) radio altimeter
d) GNSS

572. Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the
most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
a) NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
b) NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
c) NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
d) GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
573. Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS
receiver to calculate position (latitude longitude and altitude)?
a) ED 87
b) PZ 90
c) WGS 84
d) ED 50

574. Which of the following data in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS
satellites?
a) data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data
b) almanac data; satellite status information
c) time; positions of the satellites
d) time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix

575. Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most
accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
a) 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of 45°
above the horizon
b) 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above
the horizon
c) 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the
horizon
d) 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from
each other together with a fourth directly overhead

576. Which of the following if any is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS

satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
a) The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation
information continuously displayed
b) Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions
c) The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed
navigation systems
d) The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational

577. Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting
flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
system?
a) GPS altitude
b) GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude
c) The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
d) Barometric altitude

578. Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
a) Latitude and longitude
b) Latitude longitude altitude and time
c) Latitude longitude and time
d) Latitude longitude and altitude
579. Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of
the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
a) Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock
b) Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
c) Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag
d) Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation

580. Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be
processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
a) P
b) C/A
c) P and Y
d) C/A- and P

581. Which of the following procedures must be adopted if on a flight under IFR
conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver the position
fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional
navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
a) It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
b) It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all systems
must be checked
c) The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or
switch off the faulty system
d) It must be continued under VFR conditions

582. Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational
Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in
Europe?
a) COSPAS-SARSAT
b) GLONASS
c) NNSS-Transit
d) NAVSTAR/GPS

583. Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites
is correct?
a) It is greatest at the equator
b) It is greatest at the poles
c) It is the same throughout the globe
d) It varies depending on the time and observer's location

584. Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with
the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS
is correct?
a) A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate
position fix
b) The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station the more accurate
the position fix
c) The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position
in relation to a D-GPS ground station
d) Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision
Approaches'
585. Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS
transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
a) C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
b) The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
c) The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
d) The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes

586. Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS
receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
a) Multipath
b) Tropospheric
c) Ionospheric
d) Receiver noise

587. Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using

inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational
system (INS)?
a) The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INS
b) The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases
overall accuracy
c) The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy
d) The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS

062-015 LORAN (6 Questions)

588. In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string
of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?
a) Decca
b) Loran C
c) Doppler
d) GPS

589. LORAN C chains provide coverage:

a) globally
b) in specified areas
c) over the N Atlantic and the N Pacific only
d) only in the northern hemisphere

590. The accuracy of a LORAN C groundwave fix is:

a) 20 nm at 1000 nm
b) 1 nm at 1000 nm
c) 20 nm at 2500 nm
d) 1 nm at 2500 nm

591. The frequencies of operation and frequency band for LORAN C are:
a) 112.00 - 117.95 KHz VHF
b) 90 - 100 MHz LF
c) 90 - 100 KHz LF
d) 112.00 - 117.95 MHz VHF
592. Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C
navigation system?
a) Differential range by phase comparison
b) Differential range by pulse technique
c) Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
d) Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions

593. Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?

a) It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a
minimum of four ground stations
b) It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles; position lines are
obtained in sequence from up to eight ground stations
c) It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential
range by pulse technique
d) It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range
measurement by phase comparison