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24. Necrosis in which architectural details persist but cellular details are lost.
Page 1 of 48
26.Conditions in which PM clotting of blood doesn't occur.
30. Condition characterized by green refrigence of Congo red stained sections under
polarizing microscope.
32. Chemical mediators from arachidonic acid metabolism via cyclooxygenase pathway.
43. Alteration from a less specialized cell type to more specialized ones.
Page 2 of 48
49. Black tongue/ canine pellagra is caused by......
Solution:
1.Theileriosis
2.Cerebellum
3.Antonio Benevieni
4.Rudolph Virchow
5.Novikoff
6.Hydroxyl radical
7.Autophagy
8.Intermediate filaments
9.Mallory body
13.Foam cell
14.Plasma cells
15.Vitiligo
16.Lipofuscin
17.Hemosiderin
19.Prehepatic jaundice
Page 3 of 48
21. Grey / Clay color
23.Liquefactive necrosis
25.Caspases
27.Dystrophic calcification
29.Articular gout
30.Amyloidosis
37.Boils
38.Cellulitis
39.Epitheloid cells
40.Healing
43.Metaplasia
Page 4 of 48
45.Michael Bishop& Harold Varmus
47.Hodgkin's disease
48.Bullock
49.Niacin deficiency
RNS - Gowda
Encircle the correct answer from the multiples choices given below
3. An embolus which passes through right auricle to left auricle through persistent foramen
ovale is known as
a. Saddle embolus b. Amniotic embolus
c. Air embolus d. Paradoxical embolus
Page 5 of 48
8. Cryptorchidism in canines predisposes to
a. Seminoma b. Leydig cell tumour
c. Pappillary carcinoma d. Sertoli cell tumour
16. The most important cause of death in case of animals suffering from Black
quarter is
a. Asphyxia b. Toxaemia
c. Starvation d. Inflammation
Page 6 of 48
c. Leiomyosarcoma d. Medulloblastoma
24. The most common gene that gets mutated by chemical carcinogens is
a. sis gene b. myc gene
c. ras gene d. fes gene
Page 7 of 48
a. Renal adenoma b. Renal carcinoma
c. Nephroblastoma d. Nephroma
Page 8 of 48
a. Fat embolism b. Air embolism
c. Amniotic embolism d. Tumour embolism
A. Canine distemper
B. Rinderpest
C. PPR
D. All above
A. FMD
B. RP
C. BT
Page 9 of 48
D. BVD
A. Fat emboli
B. Air emboli
C. Tumour emboli
D. Septic emboli
A. Neutrophil only
B. Macrophage only
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
A. Hemocoel
B. Apoplexy
C. Hemoptysis
D. Epistaxis
A. Scrapie
B. Cruzfelt Jacob Disease
C. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
D. All above
A. Maedi
B. Scrapie
C. Canine distemper
D. Border disease
A. Leptospirosis
B. Brucellosis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Caseous lymphadenitis
Page 10 of 48
10. Which typanosomal disease is not transmitted by a vector
A. Nagan
B. Dourine
C. Surra
D. Chagas
11. All the diseases in the following group can be diagnosed by peripheral
blood smear examination
A. Rabies
B. Canine distemper
C. Listeriosis
D. Louping ill
A. Trypan blue
B. Toludene blue
C. Methylene blue
D.Haematoxylin
A. Skin
B. Adipose tissue
C. Bone
D. Periodontium
A. Vit. C
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. B1
D. Vit. E
Page 11 of 48
A. Ventriculitis
B. Typhlitis
C. Sacculitis D. Ingluvitis
A. IBH
B. ILT
C. Avian pox
D. Psittacosis
A. IBH
B. CRD
C. MD
D. ILT
A. a, b and c
B. c, d and e
C. d, e and f
D. a, c and d
A. Bursa of Fabricius
B. bursa of fabricius
C.Bursa of fabricius
D. bursa of Fabricius
A. P. multocida serotype A
B. P. multocida serotype B
C. P. multocida serotype C
D. P. multocida serotype D
Page 12 of 48
22. Pleocytosis is the term used to denote increased number of
leukocytes in
A. Synovial fluid
B. Pericardial fluid
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Peritoneal fluid
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
A. Fowl cholera
B. Fowl typhoid
C. Pullorum disease
D. Arizonosis
A. Adrenal
B. Thyroid
C. Pancreas
D. Parathyroid
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Intestinal mucosa
C. Oral mucosa
D. Feather follicle epithelium
A. Copper deficiency
B. Magnesium deficiency
C. Hypovitaminosis A
D. Hypovitaminosis D
28. The presence of taking small soluble molecule in to the cytoplasm of cells is
Page 13 of 48
A. Phagocytosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. All above
A. Insulin dependent
B. Insulin independent
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
33. Phagocytosis is
A. Passive phenomenon
B. Energy dependent phenomenon
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are incorrect
Page 14 of 48
A. Immune complex mediated without complement activation
B. Immune complex mediated with complement activation
C. Complement mediated independent of immune comples
D, All above are correct
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
A. Only macrophages
B. Only lymphocytes
C. All nucleated cells of the body
D. None of above Fc€RI
40. Pus is
Page 15 of 48
A. Acidic
B. Alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Any of above
Answer
A. a & c
B. b & d
C. b,c, & d
D. a, b, c & e
Answer
A. a & c
B. b & d
C. a & d
D. a, b, c & d
Q.3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to sheep pox ?
Page 16 of 48
d. Sheep pox cells with intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions
e. High mortality (50-100%)
Answer
A. a & c
B. b , d & e
C. b, c, & d
D. b, c, d & e
Q.4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to pox virus infection.
Answer
A. a & c
B. b & d
C. a, b & c
D. a, b, c & d
a. Swamp fever----------anthrax
b. Splenic fever----------equine infectious anemia
c. Carre’s disease---------canine distemper
d. Lungers-----------------HS
e. Theliriosis---------------Hyaloma
Answer
A. a & c
B. c & e
C. a, b & d
D. c, d & e
Q. 6. Which of the followings toxins from the clostridial oraganisms is/are prototoxin (s)
a. Alpha toxin
b. Beta toxin
c. Iota toxin
d. Epsilon toxin
e. Delta toxin
Page 17 of 48
Answer
A. a & c
B. c , b & c
C. c & d
D. c, d & e
Q.7. Bright red (cherry colour) arterial colour of venous blood is a characteristic features of
which of the following poisoning(s)
Answer
A. a
B. b
C. b, & c
D. c, & d
Page 18 of 48
b. Chloroform and ether
c. Detergents
d. All of the above
Q. 12. Coronotis, loss of wool, muscle necrosis and haemorrhages at the base of pulmonary
artery due to vasculitis are seen in
a. FMD
b. RP/PPR
c. Vasicular disease
d. Blue tongue
Q. 13. Oedematously thickened reddish black appearance of gall bladder is seen in
a. Stratum cornium
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum germinativum
d. Dermis
a. Taenia hydatiginea
b. Taenia solium
c. Muticeps multiceps
d. Taenia saginata
a. P.multocida serotype A
b. P.multocida serotype B
c. P.multocida serotype D
d. P.multocida serotype E
Page 19 of 48
Q. 17. Botryomycosis is caused by
a. Streptococcus equi
b. Sytaphylococcus aureus
c. Corynebacterium pyogenes
d. Aspergillus flavus
Q. 18. In the biological test, the intestinal supernatant killed the mice both before and after
treatment with proteases. Which type of Cl perfringens infection is suspected ?
Q. 19. The most consistent site/tissue for the detection of acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in Johne’s
disease is
a. Jejunum
b. Ileocaecal valve
c. Ileum
d. Cacecum
a. Tuberculosis
b. Paratuberculosis
c. Aspergillosis
d. Botryomysis
a. Pasteurella pneumonia
b. Contagious caprine pleuropeumonia (CCPP)
c. PI-3 pneumonia
d. Contagious bovine pleuropeumonia (CBPP)
Q. 22. Which of the following toxin (s) is/are responsible for type D enterotoxaemia in sheep
Page 20 of 48
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Epsilon
d. Iota
Q. 24. In which of the following disease (s), abortion is generally not seen in 3rd trimester of
pregnancy in cows
a. Listeriosis
b. Brucellosis
c. BHV-1 infections
d. Campylobacteriosis
a. PI- 3 pneumonia
b. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)
c. PPR
d. Equine rhinotracheitis
a. Tuberculosis meningitis
b. Streptococcus infection
c. Listeriosis
d. Streptococcus infection
Page 21 of 48
Q. 28. Which of the following cells is most important in immune complex- mediated disease
(Type 3 hypersensitivity).
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. Eosinophils
d. Basophils
a. Mast cells
b. Basophils
c. IgE antibody
d. All of the above
Immunopathology
a. IgE
b. Mast cells
c. Basophils
d. Eosinophils
e. All of the above
a. C1a
b. C3a
c. C3b
d. C5a
a. Amyloid
Page 22 of 48
b. Spirochete
c. Neoplasms
d. Liver fluke
e. Inhaled dust
Q. 5. Epstein barr virus DNA polymerase cross reacts with which of the followings ?
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
e. Type V hypersensitivity
Q. 8. In which of the following animal species hemolytic diseases of new born is mostly
recoded ?
a. Cattle
b. Equine
c. Ovine
d. Caprine
Q. 9. A renal biopsy from an old dog is performed and microscopic examination shows a
granular pattern of immunofluorescence staining with antibody to complement component
C1q. This pattern is most typically produced as a consequence of which of the following
immunologic mechanisms?
Page 23 of 48
a. IgE coating mast cells
b. Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody
c. Antigen- antibody complex
d. Macrophages release lymphokines
e. Release of prostglandins
Q. 10. In general in autoimmune diseases, which of the following mechanisms are involved in
tissue injuries
a. Complement mediated lysis
b. Immune complex mediated injuries
c. Effector cell mediated lysis
d. All of the above
Q. 11. The factor responsible for hemolytic disease in new born among human beings is-
a. Father and mother both Rh positive
b. Father and mother both Rh negative
c. Father is Rh positive and mother is negative
d. Father Rh negative, mother Rh positive
Page 24 of 48
22. a, c
Q. 1. D 23. a, c
Q. 2. C 24. a
Q. 3. B 25. d
Q. 4. C 26. a, c
Q. 5. B 27. c
Q. 6. C 28. b
Q. 7. B 29. d
Q. 8. C
Q. 9. B Answers (Immunopathology)
Q.10. d
Q. 11. c Q. 1.e
Q. 12. d Q. 2.b, d
Q. 13. a Q. 3.d
Q.14. b Q. 4.d
Q. 15. c Q. 5.b
Q. 16. b, d Q. 6.b
Q. 17. b Q. 7.a
Q. 18. b Q. 8.b
19. b Q. 9. c
20. b Q.10. d
21. d Q.11. c
De-coded Roll number False Number allotted by the Marks scored by the
(after examination board candidate
evaluation)
………………………………
……………………… ………………………….
Page 25 of 48
B. Macrophages B
C. Giant cells
D. Plasma cells
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Page 26 of 48
8. Consider the following statements regarding Johne’s Disease, a
chronic intestinal disorder in cattle
1. Thickening and corrugation of intestinal mucosa
2. The lesions are limited to large intestine
3. Linear hemorrhages on intestinal mucosa
4. Edema of intestinal wall
A
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
9. Consider the following statements regarding Brucellosis in cattle, a
contagious bacterial abortion
1. Abortion in last third of gestation period
2. Animal once infected becomes carrier
3. The organisms multiply within Macrophages
4. The organism is best isolated from the stomach contents
of fetus D
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
11. Consider the following microscopic features of RBCs
1. Hypochromasia D
2. Macrocytic Cells
3. Normocytic Cells
Page 27 of 48
The anemia would include:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
13.
Match list I (Type) with list II (characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
a. Botriomycosis 1. Fungal infection
b. Histoplasmosis 2. Button ulcers in the gut
c. Canine distemper 3. Granulomatous lesion
d. Hog cholera 4. Hard pad disease
A
Suggested answers
A a
3
B a
1 b c d1 4
C a
2b c d2
2
3 4b c
D a
3 d3 4 1b
c d4 1
2
Page 28 of 48
14. Match list I (Type) with list II (characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
a. Inclusion body 1. Haemophillus gallinarum
hepatitis
b. Infectious coryza 2. Picorna virus
c.Infectious 3. Adenovirus
Laryngiotracheitis
d. Avian 4. Herpes virus
encephalomyelitis
D
Suggested answers
A a
4
B a
3 b c d3 2
C a 1b c d2
2
1 4b c
D a
3 d1 4 3b
c d1 4
2
15.
Match list I (Type) with list II (characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
a. Glanders 1. Granulomatous Mesenteric
Lymphadenitis
b. Equine Tuberculosis 2. Fistulous wither
c. Equine Brucellosis 3. Abscesses in Lymphnode
d. Strangles 4. Oily pus
Page 29 of 48
A
Suggested answers
A a b c d
4 1 2 3
B a b c d
12 3 4
C a b c d
23 4 1
D a b c d
34 2 1
Suggested answers
A. Both Assertion (a) and Reason (r) are true and R is the
correct explanation of Reason (r)
B. Both Assertion (a) and Reason (r) are true but R is not a
correct explanation of Reason (r)
C. Assertion (a) is true but Reason (r) is false
D. Assertion (a) is false but Reason (r) is true
A
Suggested answers
A. Both Assertion (a) and Reason(r) are true and the
Reason(r) is the correct explanation of A
B. Both Assertion (a) and the Reason(r) are true but the
Reason (r) is not a correct explanation of the Assertion (a)
C. Assertion (a) is true but the Reason(r) is false
D. Assertion (a) is false but the Reason(r) is true
Page 30 of 48
18. Assertion (a) : Uroliths are common in animals kept on Vitamin A
deficient diet
Reason (r) : Vitamin A deficiency leads to crystallization of salts,
leading to formation of calculi
Suggested answers
(a) Both the Assertion (a) and Reason (r) are true and the C
Reason (r) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (a)
(b) Both Assertion (a) and Reason (r) are true but the Reason
(r) is not a correct explanation of the Assertion (a)
(c) Assertion (a) is true but the Reason (r) is false
(d) Assertion (a) is false but the Reason (r) is true
A. Canine distemper
B. Rinderpest D
C. PPR
D. All above
Page 31 of 48
in lamgs
A. FMD A
B. RP
C. BT
D. BVD
22. Cassion’s disease is due to formation of
Fat emboli
A. B
Air emboli
B.
Tumour emboli
C.
Septic emboli
D.
23. Myeloperoxidase enzyme is present in
A.Neutrophil only A
B.Macrophage only
C.Both A and B
D.None of above
24. The term used for haemorrhage in brain is
A. Hemocoel B
B. Apoplexy
C. Hemoptysis
D. Epistaxis
25. Disease caused by prion
D
A. Scrapie
B. Cruzfelt Jacob Disease
C. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy D. All above
26. Hypomyelinogenesis is the characteristic feature in
Page 32 of 48
A. Maedi D
B. Scrapie
C. Canine distemper
D. Border disease
27. Abortion is not a manifestation in the following disease
D
A. Leptospirosis
B. Brucellosis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Caseous lymphadenitis
28. Which typanosomal disease is not transmitted by a vector
A. Nagan B
B. Dourine
C. Surra
D. Chagas
29. All the diseases in the following group can be diagnosed by
peripheral blood smear examination
B
A. Anthrax, Black quarter, Haemorrhagic septicaemia
B. Canine distemper, Haemorrhagic septicaemia, Anthrax
C. Trypanosomiasis, Tetanus, Babesiosis
D. Rabies, Enterotoxaemia, Leptospirosis
30.
Which of the diseases does not cause non-suppurative encephalitis
A. Rabies C
B. Canine distemper
C. Listeriosis
D. Louping ill
31. Mast cell granules can be stained by
B
A. Trypan blue
B. Toludene blue
C. Methylene blue
D.Haematoxylin
32. Epulis is the tumour of
Page 33 of 48
A. Skin D
B. Adipose tissue
C. Bone
D. Periodontium
33. Polyneuritis of cervical nerve in chicks is due to
A. Vit. C C
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. B1
D. Vit. E
34. Inflammation of gizzard is called as
A. Ventriculitis A
B. Typhlitis
C. Sacculitis
D. Ingluvitis
35. LCL bodies are found in
D
A. IBH
B. ILT
C. Avian pox
D. Psittacosis
36. Diseases caused by rhabovirus in animals are
a. Rabies b. Pseudorabies,
c. Vesicular stomatitis d. Ephemeral fever,
e. Swine fever f. Malignant cartarrhal fever
D
A. a, b and c
B. c, d and e
C. d, e and f
D. a, c and d
37. Which one is the correct name of bursa
A. Bursa of Fabricius D
B. bursa of fabricius
C. Bursa of fabricius
D. bursa of Fabricius
Page 34 of 48
38. Haemorrhagic septicaemia in cattle is caused by
A. P. multocida serotype A
B. P. multocida serotype B B
C. P. multocida serotype C
D. P. multocida serotype D
A. Synovial fluid C
B. Pericardial fluid
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Peritoneal fluid
40. The first antibody formed after initial antigen exposure
A. IgA D
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
41. Which one is not caused by Salmonella organism
A. Fowl cholera A
B. Fowl typhoid
C. Pullorum disease
D. Arizonosis
42. Cretinism is the condition due to affection of B
Page 35 of 48
A. Adrenal
B. Thyroid
C. Pancreas
D. Parathyroid
43. Infective Marek’s disease virus is released from
A. Nasal mucosa
D
B. Intestinal mucosa
C. Oral mucosa
D. Feather follicle epithelium
44.
45. Xerophthalmia and nyctalopia are characteristic clinical features in
A. Copper deficiency
B. Magnesium deficiency C
C. Hypovitaminosis A
D. Hypovitaminosis D
A. Phagocytosis C
B. Exocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. All above
47. Tick the incorrect match
Page 36 of 48
48. Identify mismatch
A
A. Paramyxovirus >>>>>>>>>Fowl cholera
B. Herpesvirus>>>>>>>>>>>>>Infectious laryngotracheitis
C. Mycoplasma gallisepticum>>>>Chronic respiratory disease D.
Nutritional roup>>>>>>>>Hypovitaminosis A
A. Insulin dependent B
B. Insulin independent
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
50. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is
A. Type I hypersensitivity D
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
51. Phagocytosis is
Page 37 of 48
A. Passive phenomenon B
B. Energy dependent phenomenon
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are incorrect
52. Arthus reaction is
B
A. Blood group incompatability
B. Rh incompatability
C. Both A and B
D.. None of above
55. Blood group incompatability is due to
A. Type I hypersensitivity B
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
56. Type I hypersensitivity is triggered by
C
A. Unbound (free) IgE complexing with specific antigen B. IgE
bound to surface of mast cell through Fc€RI and complexing
with antigen
C. IgE bound to surface of mast cell through Fc€RI and
complexing with antigen cross linking two Fc€RI D. All above
57. MHC-I molecules are individual specific and are present on the
surface of
Page 38 of 48
A. Only macrophages C
B. Only lymphocytes
C. All nucleated cells of the body
D. None of above
58. Pus is
B
A. Acidic
B. Alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Any of above
59. What is the mechanism of necrotic stomatitis during uremia A.
Invasion by pathogenic bacteria
B. Death of mucus secreting cells of oral C
mucosa
C. Ammonia secretion through saliva
D. None of the above
60. Leptospirosis is caused by leptospira species which are spirochaetes
and are
A. Host specific
B. Species specific C
C. Not very host specific
D. Human specific
B. Salivary glands C
C. Lymph glands
D. Endocrine glands
Page 39 of 48
C. T. solium
D. M. expansa
B. Renal artery A
C. Hepatic vein
D. Coronary artery
Page 40 of 48
70. Inflammation of rectum is termed as A.
Enteritis
B. Esophagitis D
C. Colitis
D. Proctitis
B. Vit C A
C. Vit D
D. All three
Page 41 of 48
76. Presence of blood in urine is called as A.
Heamoglobinuria
B. Haematuria B
C. Haematoma
D. Uremia
B. Salmonellosis B
C. Pateurellosis
D. Tuberculosis
Page 42 of 48
79. Non-inflammatory and non-neoplastic enlargement is usually seen in
A. Thyroid
B. Thymus
C. Pancreas
D. Salivary gland
80. In mice and cat the most prominent changes associated with
amyloidosis are observed in
A. Liver
B. Kidney E
C. Spleen
D. Liver and Kidney
E. Liver and Spleen
Page 43 of 48
B. Granulocytic haematopoeisis in mice with adrenal cortical C
tumors C. All the above
D. ?????
Page 44 of 48
88. To differentiate between an exocrine from an islet cell adenoma,
which one of the following criteria is used
A. Cells of exocrine adenoma stain pink
with hemotoxylin and eosin and the nucleus has
less coarse chromatin pattern and no prominent
nucleolus
B. Islet cell adenoma cells stain pink with
hematoxylin and eosin and the nucleus has less coarse F
chromatin pattern and no prominent nucleolus as in an acinar
cell.
C. In islet cell adenoma, hemorrhages often
occur due to large number of thin walled blood
vessels.
D. a&b
E. a&c
F. b&c
90. The “Griess’s test”, used in clinical pathology for urinary nitrite is
unreliable in canine and feline urine as
A. High level of ascorbic acid in urine
inhibits conversion of nitrate to nitrities
B. Urine may not contain sufficient
quantities of
reducible nitrate E
C. Organisms such as streptococci,
staphylococci and pseudomonas spp. Found in
urine do not form nitrite from nitrate
D. a&c
E. a, b and c.
Page 45 of 48
dehydrogenase – LDH, Aspertate transaminase –AST) A
92. Dark red encrustations around the eyes and external nares of
rats are typically seen in
A. Mycoplasma infection
B. Sendai virus infection C
C. Sialodacryoadenitis virus infection
D. Lymphochoriomeningitis virus infection
Page 46 of 48
96. Histologic changes in rabbits such as:-
-medial degeneration and mineralization of major
arteries;
-mineralization of glomerular tufts, basement
membranes and tubules of the kidney,
-deposition of basophilic material on the periosteal and
endosteal surfaces, C
medullary trabeculae and haversian systems of long bones
denotes
A. Vitamin E deficiency
B. Hypervitaminosis A
C. Hypervitaminosis D
D. b&c
Page 47 of 48
similar to the adjascent proximal tubular cells.
Page 48 of 48