NTSE 5 Practice Sets For SAT MAT LCT For NTSE Stage 1 Disha PDF

EBD_7396
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 1
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 100
Instructions for Candidates

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions.
1. There are 2 parts in this test. PART-A : Mental Ability Test containing 50 questions numbered from 1 to 50 to be
attempted in first 45 minutes; PART-B : English Language Test containing 50 questions numbered from 1 to 50 to be
attempted in the next 45 minutes.
2. All questions are compulsory. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
3. Answers are to be given on separate Answer Sheet provided at the end of this paper. You can tear this answer sheet
along the cut marks provided.
4. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not waste time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting,
you can come back to the questions, which you have left in the first instance and attempt them.
5. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it by not spending too
much time on any one question.
6. For all questions put a cross mark (×) on the number of the correct alternative on the answer sheet against the
corresponding question number by using a blue ball point pen. Example
Correct Way : Q.No. Alternatives

1. 1 2 3 4
Wrong Way : Q.No. Alternatives

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
7. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
8. After completion of this test you can evaluate your performance by comparing your answers with answers provided
in solution booklet.
EBD_7396
MT-2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-3
Time : 45 Minutes PART-A : Mental Ability Test Max. Marks : 50

1. Select the one which is different from others.
(1) Book (2) Paper (3) Pencil (4) Pen
2. If ‘DATE' is coded as ' EBUF' how will you code " BRASS"? (1) (2)
(1) CSBTT (2) RQATB (3) CSBTA (4) CBATR

3. If ‘tee see pee’ mean ‘Drink fruit juice’ ‘See kee lee’ means
‘juice is sweet’ and ‘lee ree mee’ means ‘He is intelligent’ (3) (4)
which word in that language means ‘Sweet’ ?
(1) See (2) Kee (3) lee (4) Pee 8. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every
4. A and B started from a fixed place. A moves towards North correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If
and after walking 3 km turns to his right and covers 4 km. B he attempts in all 60 questions and secures 130 marks, the
moves towards west and walks 5 km and then turns to his number of questions he attempts correctly, is –
(1) 35 (2) 38 (3) 40 (4) 42
right and walk 3 km. Now how far A and B from each other?
9. Engineer is related to Machine in the same way as Doctor
(1) 5 km (2) 9 km (3) 8 km (4) 4 km is related to –
5. Study the following diagram find out the value of 'X' ? (1) Hospital (2) Body
(3) Disease (4) Medicine
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10 to 12) : In each group there is some
5
relationship. Try to understand that relationship and select correct
X answer.
40 2 5 6 6 7 4 8
8 10. 12 21 ?
4 5 10
4 (1) 22 (2) 30
(3) 32 (4) None of these
(1) 36 (2) 29 (3) 10 (4) 28
3 15
1 3 5 7 2 6
6. Which fraction comes next in the sequence , , , ,? 25 441
2 4 8 16
11. 10 289 ? 13
9 10 11 12 7 12
(1) (2) (3) (4)
32 17 34 35
(1) 25 (2) 125 (3) 156 (4) 625
7. A figure marked as transparent sheet is given and followed
by four answer figures. One out of these four options
resembles the figure which is obtained by folding A2 C4 E6
transparent sheet along the dotted line. This option is your
answer. 12. G3 I5 ?
Transparent Sheet M5 O9 Q14
(1) J15 (2) K8 (3) K15 (4) L10
13. Select from alternatives the figure (X) that exactly fits in
the main figure to complete its original pattern.
Answer Figures
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

EBD_7396
MT-4 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
19. What is the profession of E ?
(1) Doctor (2) Jeweller
(3) Manager (4) None of these
20. How is A related to E ?
? (1) Brother (2) Uncle
(3) Father (4) Grandfather
(X) 21. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the
family ?
(1) AB (2) AC
(1) (2)
(3) AD (4) Cannot be determined.
22. A man travelled a distance of 50 km on his first trip. On a

(3) (4)
later trip, travelling three times as fast, he covered 300 km.
14. Which of the following meanings of the arithmetical signs Compare the times he took.
will yield the value ‘zero’ for the expression given below– (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
200 × 100 + 300 × 200 – 10 ÷ 2 + 40 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 7 : 9
(1) + means –, – means ×, × means ÷, ÷ means + DIRECTIONS (Qs. 23 and 24) : In the following questions, two
(2) + means –, – means ÷, × means +, ÷ means × pairs of similarly related words are given. Select the related word
(3) + means ×, – means –, × means ÷, ÷ means + from the given alternatives and complete the second pair.
(4) + means ÷, – means +, × means –, ÷ means × 23. Mumbai : Mararashtra : : Jaipur : .........
DIRECTIONS (Qs.15 & 16) : Find out the missing number. (1) Kolkatta (2) Gujarat
(3) Rajasthan (4) Kerala
15. 13, 35, 57, 79, 911, ?
24. 3 : 11 : : 7 : ?
(1) 1110 (2) 1112 (3) 1113 (4) 1315
16. 325, 259, 204, 160, 127, 105, ? (1) 34 (2) 39 (3) 46 (4) 51
(1) 94 (2) 96 (3) 98 (4) 100 25. If BOMBAY is written as MYMYMY, how will TAMIL
NADU be written in that code ?
(1) TIATIATIA (2) MNUMNUMNU
17. At a farm, there are hens, cows and bullocks, and the
keepers to look after them. There are 69 heads less than (3) IATIATIAT (4) ALDALDALD
legs; the number of cows and hens is the same and there is DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26 and 27) : ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’;
one keeper per ten birds and cattle. The total number of ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’; ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother
hens plus cows and bullocks, and their keepers does not of B’, ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ and ‘A = B’ means ‘A is
exceed 50. How many cows are there ? the sister of B’.
(1) 16 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 10 26. What does P + R – Q mean ?
18. In the numbers from 100 to 1000, how many times digit 1 (1) Q is the father of P (2) Q is the son of P
comes at the ten’s place ? (3) Q is the uncle of P (4) Q is the brother of P
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 90 (4) 900 27. What does P × R ÷ Q mean?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19 to 21) : Read the following information (1) P is the brother of Q (2) P is the father of Q
carefully and answer the questions given below it. (3) P is the uncle of Q (4) P is the nephew of Q
(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F from a
DIRECTIONS (Qs.28 and 29) : Anita, Mahima, Rajan, Lata and
family. They are physiologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller,
Deepti are five cousins. Anita is twice as old as Mahima. Rajan is
Doctor and Engineer.
half the age of Mahima. Anita is half the age of Deepti and Rajan
(2) The doctor is the grand father of F who is a physiologist.
is twice the age of Lata.
(3) The manager D is married to A.
28. Who is the youngest?
(4) C, the Jeweller is married to the lawyer.
(1) Deepti (2) Rajan
(5) B is the mother of F and E.
(6) There are two married couples in the family. (3) Lata (4) Anita

EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-5
29. Who is the eldest?

(1) Deepti (2) Lata
(3) Anita (4) None of these
30. If the first three letters of the word COMPREHENSION are

reversed, then the last three letters are added and then the (1) (2) (3) (4)
remaining letters are reversed and added, then which letter DIRECTIONS (Qs.34 and 35) : Choose the figure which is different
will be exactly in the middle ? from the other.
(1) H (2) N (3) R (4) S
31. Four different positions of the same dice are shown below.
Find the number on the face opposite the face showing 4. 34.
4 3 5 2 (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 4 5 1 3 3 1
35.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
DIRECTIONS (Qs.32 and 33) : Figures A and B are related in a 36. Choose the correct mirror-image of the Fig. (X) from amongst
particular manner. Establish the same relationship between figures the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it.
C and D by choosing a figure from amongst the four alternatives,
///////////////
which would replace the question mark in fig. (D)
32. PROBLEM FIGURES
?
X
A B C D
ANSWER FIGURES
(1) (2) (3) (4)
DIRECTIONS (Qs.37 and 38) : In each of the following questions,
you are given a combination of alphabets and/or numbers followed
by four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the alternative
which most closely resembles the water images of the given
(1) (2) (3) (4) combination.
37. NUCLEAR
33. PROBLEM FIGURES
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
? 38. BK5 0 RP 6 2
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
A B C D DIRECTIONS (Q.39) : Consider the three figures, marked X, Y,
ANSWER FIGURES and Z showing one fold in X, another in Y and cut in Z. From
amongst the four alternative figures 1, 2, 3 and 4, select the one
showing the unfolded position of Z.

EBD_7396
39.
X Y Z
(1) (2) (3) (4)
44. Roshan ranked 11 th from the top and thirty one from the
bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?
(1) 42 (2) 43
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 41 (4) 40
45. In a queue, A is eighteenth from the front while B is sixteenth
40. The figure shows a pile of blocks. When taken apart, how
many blocks would there be ? from the back. If C is twentieth from the front and is exactly
in the middle of A and B, then how many persons are there is
the queue ?
(1) 45 (2) 46
(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 18 (4) 20 (3) 47 (4) 48
41. What comes in the sequence ?
46. At what time between 7 and 8 o’clock will the hands of a
? clock be in the same straight line but, not together?

(1) 5 min. past 7
2
(2) 5 min . past 7
(A) (B) (C) 11
3 5
(3) 5 min . past 7 (4) 5 min . past 7
11 11
(1) (2) (3) (4) DIRECTIONS (Qs.47 to 50):
42. A figure (X) followed by four alternate figures (1), (2), (3)
and (4) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Given - T X L
Trace out the alternate figure which contains figure (X) as X T L
its part.
A L T
where L stands for ‘7’.

47. So, X stands for.
(X) (1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 4 (4) 3
48. A L T stands for
(1) 467 (2) 427
(3) 497 (4) 437
(1) (2) (3) (4) 49. T A X is represented by which of the following numbers ?
43. Find out which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) (1) 426 (2) 436
completes the figure.
(3) 476 (4) 674
50. What is the third multiple of the sum of the second
row ?
(1) 13 (2) 39
(3) 26 (4) 52
?
EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-7
Time : 45 Minutes PART-B : English Language Test Max. Marks : 50
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7) : Read the following passage and answer 4. Which of the following is one of the requirements bringing
the questions given after it. out the best in man?
Power and Possession have been central pursuits of modern (1) Money (2) Success
civilisation for a long time. They blocked out or distorted other (3) Power (4) Understanding
features of the western 'renaissance' (revival) which promised so 5. The author hopes that the present crisis can be solved by
much for humanity. What people have been and are still being (1) devoted individual efforts.
taught to prize are money, success, control over the lives of others (2) different political systems.
acquisition of more and more objects. Modern social, political and (3) purpose and collective human efforts.
economic systems, whether capitalist, fascist or communist, reject (4) spiritually developed individuals.
in their working the basic principal that the free and creative 6. The modern value systems encourage the importance of
enfoldment of every man, woman and child is the true measure of which one of the following?
the worth of any society. Such enfoldment requires understanding (1) Craving for power and possession.
and imagination, integrity and compassion, cooperation among (2) Basic respect for all individuals.
people and harmony between the human species and the rest of (3) Spiritual development of all individuals.
the nature. Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power have made (4) Spirit of inquiry and knowledge.
the modern man an aggressor against everything that is non- 7. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the
human, an exploiter and oppressor of those who are poor, meek word 'central' as used in the passage?
and unorganised, a pathological type which hates and distrusts (1) Lateral (2) Inadequate
the world and suffers from both acute loneliness and false pride. (3) Peripheral (4) Major
The need for a new renaissance is deeply felt by those sensitive DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-11) : Read the following passage and answer
and conscientious men and women who not only perceive the the questions given after it.
dimensions of the crisis of our age, but who also realise that only Dr. Carver was an American Negro slave, who by dint of his ability
through conscious and cooperative human effort may this crisis became a scientist and educator of world-wide fame. A national
be met and probably even overcome. monument has now been erected to honour him. This monument
1. The author appears to be advocating which of the following has been built at his birth place in the United States of America.
approaches to be adopted by the society Carver's life and achievements prove the American saying: "You
(1) Capitalistic (2) Communist can't keep a great man down." From childhood he showed qualities
(3) Humanistic (4) Authoritarian which gave promise of his genius. He would get up before sunrise
2. Which of the following best describes the behaviour of to study the wonders of nature before the break of dawn in the
modern man? east. His guardians wanted to educate him, but were too poor to
(1) imaginative and sympathetic do so. So he left home. He was hardly ten when he began to work
(2) cruel and greedy at small jobs to earn a little money for his school expenses. He
(3) conscientious and cooperative continued to do so even when he was at college. Thus, he passed
(4) perceptive and creative his M.Sc. examination and became a professor. There he wrote
3. The real attainment of any society can be adjudged by which several books on science subjects. His chief desire was to do the
of the following statement? greatest good to the greatest number of people. He left all his life's
(1) The encouragement for acquisitive tendencies. savings to found scholarships for research in Agricultural
(2) Total victimisation of conscientious persons. Chemistry. He know this research, was bound to benefit farmers
(3) The degree of freedom for pursuing more and more all over the world. Though world famous, he never felt proud of
power. his discoveries. "I discovered nothing," he once said, "I am God's
(4) None of the above. agent—the instrument through which he works."

EBD_7396
8. What can you say about the early life of Dr. Carver? 14. In the context of the passage 'kill' means
(1) He was born with silver spoon in his mouth. (1) the act of killing
(2) He was brought up in an orphanage. (2) an animal killed by the tiger
(3) He had to struggle a lot as his parents were poor. (3) a human being killed by the tiger
(4) He was brought up and educated by wealthy parents. (4) a wounded tiger
9. Which of the following statements show that he was a great 15. Before Mothi screamed the jungle was
lover of mankind? (1) quiet (2) dark
(1) He offered charitable services to the poor. (3) noisy (4) terrifying
(2) He desired to do the greatest good to the greatest DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 & 17) : The following five sentences come
number of people. from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given.
(3) He opened several colleges and institutes. Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should
(4) He donated all his life savings.
appear to complete the paragraph.
10. Find out the statement that he was humble?
16. S1. As the situation has changed
(1) He never felt proud of his discoveries.
S2.______________________________
(2) He always respected the women.
S3.______________________________
(3) He was very polite in his attitudes.
S4.______________________________
(4) He admired his own achievements.
S5. without losing time.
11. What was of Dr. Carver by profession?
(1) Doctor (2) Politician P. that it was best to contact you
(3) Scientist (4) Professor Q. since we last discussed this matter
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 12-15) : Read the following passage and R. it appeared to me
answer the questions given after it. Choose from the options given below.
We started looking on the ground for blood, hair or a drag mark that (1) QPR (2) QRP
would lead us to the deer killed by the tiger. We had proceeded a (3) RPQ (4) PRQ
hundred yards, examining every foot of the ground, and going dead 17. S1. The Indian women wants
slow, when Mothi, just as I turned my head to look at him, started S2.________________________________
backwards, screaming as he did so. Then he whipped round and S3.________________________________
ran for dear life, beating the air with his hands as if warding off a S4.________________________________
swarm of bees and continuing to scream as he ran. The sudden and S5. And it is not too much to demand.
piercing scream of a human being in a jungle, where a moment P. her rightful place
before all has been silent is terrifying to hear. Instinctively I knew Q. as an equal partner
what had happened. With his eyes fixed on the ground, looking for R. in a male dominated society
the blood or hair on the kill, Mothi had failed to see where he was Choose from the given options below.
going and had walked towards the tiger. (1) QPR (2) PRQ
12. Mothi and the narrator were scanning the ground because (3) RQP (4) PQR
(1) they were looking for the tiger. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 & 19) : Following questions have the
(2) the forest was full of unpleasant surprises. second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from
(3) they were trying to discover the tiger's footprints. the given options to complete it.
(4) they were looking for the marks left by the tiger's prey.
18. A. Plants need carbon for building the tissue of their
13. Mothi began to scream when he
bodies.
(1) was attacked by a swarm of bees.
B. _____________________________________
(2) was frightened by the sight of blood.
C. They break up the carbon dioxide, absorb the carbon
(3) came face to face with the tiger.
and discharge oxygen into the air for animals to breathe.
(4) stumbled on the tiger.
EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-9
(1) They derive this carbon from coal mines inside the earth. 26. It is inconceivable that in many schools children are
(2) They derive this carbon from the air exhaled by the subjected to physical _________ in the name of
humans. discipline.
(3) They derive this carbon from pollutants of vehicles. (1) violation (2) exercise
(4) They derive this carbon from the carbon dioxide in the (3) violence (4) security
air. 27. We have not yet fully realised the _________ consequences
19. A. The essence of democracy is the active participation of the war.
of the people in government affairs. (1) happy (2) pleasing
B. _____________________________________
(3) grim (4) exciting
C. By and large it is the actual practise of our way of life.
28. Attention to detail is _________ of a fine craftsman.
(1) Our democracy is founded upon inspirations from
(1) hallmark (2) stamp
foreign constitutions.
(3) seal of authority (4) authenticity
(2) Our democracy is founded upon a faith in the overall
29. I ___________ with him about his rudeness.
judgement of the people as a whole.
(1) remonstrated (2) demonstrated
(3) Our democracy is founded upon the principles laid
down by our freedom fighters. (3) shouted (4) reiterated
(4) Our democracy is founded upon a fact that our country DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-35) : Select the meaning of the given
should withstand the competitions with other countries. phrases/idioms.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-29) : Choose the word which best fills the 30. To smell a rat
blank from the four options given. (1) Signs of plague epidemic (2) Bad smell
20. You have no business to _________ pain on a weak and (3) Suspect foul dealings (4) To be in a bad mood
poor person. 31. To be above board
(1) inflict (2) put (1) To have a good height (2) To be honest in any deal
(3) direct (4) force (3) To have no debts (4) To be able to swim
21. Her uncle died in a car accident. He was quite rich. She 32. To fall flat
suddenly _________ all her uncle’s money. (1) Retreat
(1) succeeded (2) caught (2) To meet accidentally
(3) gave (4) inherited (3) Quarrel
22. There was a major accident. The plane crashed. The pilot (4) To be met with a cold reception
_________ did not see the tower. 33. In the blues
(1) likely (2) probably (1) Being colourful
(3) scarcely (4) hurriedly (2) Melancholy and low spirited
23. I did not see the point of _________ waiting for them, so I
(3) Behave like a lord
went home.
(4) Cheerful and happy
(1) hanging around (2) hanging on
34. Talk shop
(3) hang together (4) hanging up
(1) Talk about one’s profession
24. I had a vague _________ that the lady originally belonged
(2) Talk about shopping
to Scotland.
(1) notion (2) expression (3) Ridicule
(3) imagination (4) theory (4) Treat lightly
25. The prisoner showed no _________ for his crimes. 35. Bad blood
(1) hatred (2) obstinacy (1) Infected blood (2) Ill-feeling
(3) remorse (4) anger (3) Unfaithful (4) Suspicion

EBD_7396
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-43) : In the following passage there are DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44-47) : Select the most appropriate option
some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.
appropriate word for each blank from the given options. 44. It is earth’s gravity which ________ people their weight.
Many parents greet their children’s teenage yerars with needless (1) gives (2) give
dread. While teens (36) assault use with heavy-metal music, (37) (3) giving (4) given
outlandish clothes and spend all (38) time with friends, such
45. Capitalist society ________ profit as a valued goal.
behaviour always adds upto full-scale revolt. Teenage (39),
(1) which regards (2) regarding
according to psychologist. Laurence Steinberg, has been (40)
(3) regards (4) was regarded
exaggerated. Sociologist Sanford Dornbusch agrees. “The idea
that teenagers inevitably rebel is a (41) that has the potential for 46. The impact of two vehicles can cause a lot of ________ to
great family (42),” says Dornbusch. He believes the notion can both.
(43) communication during this critical time for parents to influence (1) damage (2) damages
youngsters. (3) damaging (4) damagings
36. (1) can (2) must 47. He is .............. tennis.
(3) may (4) should (1) fond to play (2) fond of playing
37. (1) show (2) dress (3) fond in playing (4) fond at playing
(3) put (4) flaunt DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48-50) : Select the word which means the
38. (1) her (2) his opposite of the given word.
(3) their (4) our 48. PROFANE
39. (1) rebellion (2) subversion
(1) Sacred (b) Artless
(3) mania (4) revolution
(3) Rigid (4) Aspersion
40. (1) always (2) never
49. OBLIGATORY
(3) greatly (4) hardly
41. (1) myth (2) story (1) Doubtful (2) Voluntary
(3) fact (4) reality (3) Sincerely (4) Faithfully
42. (1) ruin (2) downfall 50. OBSCURE
(3) harm (4) defeat (1) Suitable (2) Apt
43. (1) destroy (2) suffocate (3) Thalamus (4) Clear
(3) damage (4) injure

EBD_7085
MT-11
ANSWER SHEET
Name : ..................................School .............................. Test Code............Roll No. : ...................

City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
PART-A : Mental Ability Test
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26.
43.
10. 27.
44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
17. 34. 50.
PART-B : English Language Test

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26. 43.
10. 27. 44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
50.
17. 34.
Sig. of Invigilator.................................
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
1

1. There are 100 questions in this test all are compulsory. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3), and (4), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
2. Answers are to be given on separate answer sheet provided at the end of this paper. You can tear this answer sheet
5. For all questions 1-100 put a cross mark (×) on the number of the correct alternative on the answer sheet against the

1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
MT-14 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)

EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-15
1. Consider the following statements regarding the living cell: 4. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
(a) The Golgi apparatus links carbohydrates with proteins using the codes given below :
to form glycoproteins. Column I Column II
(b) In plants, the Golgi complex synthesizes pectin. (A) Duodenum (p) Opening of wind pipe
(c) The lysosomes store the hydrolysing enzymes.
(B) Epiglottis (q) Small wind sac
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ?
(C) Caecum (r) A cartilaginous flap
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b)
(D) Glottis (s) ‘V’ shaped structure
(3) Only (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
emerging from the stomach
2. Which among the folllowing statements are true for unisexual
flowers? (1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p
(a) They possess both stamen and pistil. (2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s
(b) They possess either stamen or pistil. (3) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(c) They exhibit cross-pollination. (4) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
(d) Unisexual flowers possessing only stamens cannot 5. On the basis of following features identify correct option.
produce fruits. I. It is the type of fishery practised in small water bodies
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) where fish is first reared and then harvested.
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d) II. It depends upon topography, water resource, particle
3. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer size and nutrients.
using the codes given below : III. It is integrated with agriculture in paddy cum fish
Column I Column II culture.
(A) Cyton (p) The body of the nerve cell (1) Fin fishery (2) Shell fishery
that contains the (3) Capture fishery (4) Culture fishery
6. It is said, the Tajmahal may be destroyed due to
organelles.
(1) flood in Yamuna river.
(B) Dendrite (q) Receives the stimuli sent
(2) decomposition of marble as a result of high
from another nerve or
temperature.
the outside environment. (3) air pollutants released from oil refinery of Mathura.
(C) Axon (r) The long, thin section of (4) All of the above
the nerve cell where the 7. Consider the following statements:
impulse is transmitted (a) In the animals of phylum Porifera, called sponges, the
across. reproduction is only asexual by budding.
(D) Myelin sheath (s) A fatty substance that (b) Many forms of Coelenterata possess a hard exoskeleton
covers the axon of of lime to form corals.
(c) In the animals of phylum Echinodermata, body surface
the nerve cell.
is covered all over by calcareous spines.
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
(2) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q

EBD_7396
8. Why should we not test for glucose instead of starch in the 12. Consider the following statements regarding manure:
green leaves? (a) Manure contains large quantities of organic matter and
(1) The glucose formed during photosynthesis gets small quantities of nutrients.
polymerised into starch. So stable product one can test (b) It increases the water holding capacity of sandy soil.
is starch.
(c) It helps in draining out of excess of water from clayey
(2) The glucose formed during photosynthesis gets soil.
polymerised into fructose. So starch gives positive test.
(d) Its excessive use pollutes environment because it is
(3) Both (1) and (2) made of animal excretory waste.
(4) None of these Which of the above statements are correct?
9. What would happen, if all the oxygen present in the (1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
environment is converted to ozone?
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
(1) We will be protected more.
13. A teacher focussed the slide below under a compound
(2) It will become poisonous and kill living forms. microscope. Which student identified it correctly?
(3) Ozone is not stable, hence it will be toxic.
(4) It will help harmful sun radiations to reach earth and
damage many life forms.
10. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below :
Column I Column II
(A) Jaundice (p) Infectious diseases
(B) Encephalitis (q) Malaria
(C) Immune system (r) Water borne disease (1) Sheela identified it as cheek cells.
(D) Liver (s) Penicillin (2) Madhu identified it as squamous epithelium.
(E) Immunisation (t) Mosquito bite (3) Balaji identified it as parenchyma.
(u) HIV (4) Shanti identified it as onion peel.
(1) (A) r, (B) t, (C) u, (D) q, (E) p 14. Which of the following statements about transmission of
(2) (A) t, (B) u, (C) r, (D) q, (E) p nerve impulse is correct?
(3) (A) p, (B) q, (C) t, (D) u, (E) r (a) Nerve impulse travels from dendritic end towards axonal
end.
(4) (A) r, (B) t, (C) p, (D) u, (E) q
(b) At the dendritic end electrical impulses bring about the
11. Identify a, b, c and d in the table given below:
release of some chemicals which generate an electrical
TR Tr tR tr impulse at the axonal end of another neuron.
TR Tall Red a Tall Red Tall Red (c) The chemicals released from the axonal end of one
Tr Tall Red b Tall Red Tall white neuron cross the synapse and generate a similar
tR c Tall Red d Dwarf Red electrical impulse in a dendrite of another neuron.
tr Tall Red Tall White Dwarf Red Dwarf White
(d) A neuron transmits electrical impulses not only to
(1) a–Tall Red, b–Tall Red, c–Dwarf Red, d–Dwarf White another neuron but also to muscle and gland cells.
(2) a–Tall Red, b–Tall White, c–Tall Red, d–Dwarf Red Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) a–Dwarf Red, b–Dwarf White, c–Tall Red, d–Tall White (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(4) None of these (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)

EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-17
15. Consider the following statements: 19. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid
(a) Molecular mass of CH3OH is 32 u. day, the gas is usually passed through the guard tube
containing anhydrous calcium chloride. The role of
(b) In NH3, the ratio of N and H by mass is 14 : 3.
anhydrous calcium chloride taken in the guard tube is to
(c) The formula weight of CaCl2 is 111 u.
(1) absorb the evolved gas
(d) Isotopes have same atomic mass.
(2) moisten the gas
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) absorb moisture from the gas
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (c) and (d) (4) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas
16. A teacher instructed four students A, B, C and D to prepare 20. Which of the following gases can be used for storage of
a suspension of chalk in water. The students prepared fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
suspension in the following manner: (1) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
student ‘A’ places a piece of chalk in water. (2) Nitrogen or oxygen
student ‘B’ places powdered chalk in water. (3) Carbon dioxide or helium
student ‘C’ places powdered chalk in water and then (4) Helium or nitrogen
shakes the mixture vigorously.
21. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
student ‘D’ places powdered chalk in dil. HCl.
I. This metal is not obtained in free state.
Which of the following students has correct way of
preparation of suspension? II. This metal is obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides
in molten state.
(1) Student A (2) Student B
(1) Na (2) Ca
(3) Student C (4) Student D
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
using the codes given below : 22. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
Column I Column II
(A) CuFeS2 (p) Distillation Column I Column II
(B) ZnCO3 (q) Liquation (A) Carbon (p) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
(C) Tin (r) Calcination (B) CnH2n (q) Conductor of electricity
(D) Mercury (s) Roasting (C) Graphite (r) Allotropy
(1) A (p), B (q), C (r), D (s) (D) Ethylalchol (s) Fermentation of molasses
(2) A (q), B (r), C (s), D (p) (1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(3) A (s), B (r), C (q), D (p) (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(4) A (r), B (s), C (q), D (p) (3) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
18. Consider the following isotopes of chlorine : (4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
35, 37, 23. Which of the following is correct order of density?
17Cl 17Cl
Atomic masses of these isotopes are different, while their (1) Air < Exhaust from chimneys < Honey < Water < Chalk
chemical properties are same. < Cotton < Iron
In the Mendeleev’s periodic table, isotopes of chlorine was (2) Air < Exhaust from chimneys < Water < Honey < Cotton
placed: < Chalk < Iron
(1) In the different groups (3) Air < Exhaust from chimneys < Honey < Water < Chalk
(2) In the same group < Iron < Cotton
(3) In different periods (4) Air < Exhaust from chimneys < Water < Honey < Chalk
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct < Cotton < Iron

EBD_7396
24. A student takes Cu, Al, Fe and Zn strips separately in four (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
test-tubes labelled as I, II, III and IV respectively. He adds (3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
10 mL of freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution to each
test-tube and observes the colour of the metal in each case. 28. Motion of bodies A and B is depicted by the x-t graph. Now
consider the following statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) and
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
select the incorrect option.
x
B
X A
(a) A has uniform motion

Cu Al Fe Zn (b) B has less velocity than A initially
He would observe a black residue
(c) B crossses A at X
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(d) A comes to rest at X
(3) II and III (4) II and IV
(1) Only (a) (2) (b) and (c)
25. Consider the following statements:
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) All of them
(a) The discovery of inert gases later on did not disturb
Mendeleev’s arrangement. 29. When a net force acts on an object, the object will be
accelerated in the direction of the force with an acceleration
(b) In his classification of element, Mendeleev was guided
proportional to
by two factors.
(c) In the present periodic table, periodicity in the (1) the force on the object
properties of elements is related to the periodicity in (2) the velocity of the object
their electronic configurations. (3) the mass of the object
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (4) the inertia of the object
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (c) 30. Acceleration due to gravity of a body during free fall does
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c) not depend upon the
26. Curd cannot be stored in (1) mass of earth
(a) Brass vessel (b) Copper vessel (2) mass of body
(c) Steel (d) Bronze
(3) universal gravitational constant
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) radius of earth
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
31. When a solid block is fully immersed in water, the volume of
27. Which of the following statements are usually correct for
the water
carbon compounds? These
(1) greater than the volume of the block
(a) are good conductors of heat and electricity
(b) are poor conductors of electricity (2) less than the volume of the block
(c) have strong forces of attraction between their molecules (3) equal to the volume of the block
(d) do not have strong forces of attraction between their (4) depends upon the manner in which the block is
molecules immersed in t.

EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-19
32. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer 37. The correct set up for studying the dependence of the
using the codes given below : current on the potential difference across a resistor is :
Column I Column II
(A) Falling mass (p) Use of KWh R R
(B) Compressed spring (q) Gain in kinetic energy V A
(C) Ball hit with bat (r) Loss in potential energy (1) (2)
V V
(D) Glowing of bulb (s) Gain in energy
(1) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q V
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s V
A
33. Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the R
reflected (3) (4) R
A
(1) infrasonic waves (2) ultrasonic waves
(3) micro waves (4) radio waves
34. The distance between two consecutive compressions or
rarefactions in a wave of wavelength, is 38. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
(1) 2 (2) /2
I. They always start from north pole and end at the south
(3) /4 (4) pole of the magnet outside the magnet.
35. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a II. They never intersect each other.
rectangular slab traced by four students are shown by figures
A, B, C and D. Which one of them is correct? (1) Electric lines of force
(2) Magnetic lines of force
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

Column I Column II
(A) Fossil fuels (p) Renewable
(3) (4) (B) Wind energy (q) Non-renewable
(C) Silicon (r) Solar energy
(D) Nuclear fusion (s) Solar cells
(1) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
36. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the
action of the (2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(1) pupil (2) iris (3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q

(3) ciliary muscles (4) retina (4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s

EBD_7396
40. Consider the following statements : 48. Use the information given in figure to choose the correct
(a) Our energy requirements increase with our standard of value of x.
living. (1) x = 86° (2) x = 60°
(b) We need to look for more and more sources of energy (3) x = 68° (4) x = 107°
to meet our energy requirements.
D C
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
80° x
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
41. If 112 = q × 6 + r, then the possible values of r are:
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4 (2) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 105°
(3) 0, 1, 2, 3 (4) 2, 3, 5 73°
E A B
32 32
42. If , then the value of m is : 49. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and AB is a
500 (2) 2 (5) m diameter. If EOF = 40°, then EDF is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 A
43. If two positive integers a and b are written as a = x3y2 and
b = xy3; x, y are prime numbers, then HCF (a, b) is
O
(1) xy (2) xy 2 E
3 3 40°
(3) x y (4) x 2y 2
44. If x = 2 + 2 + 2 then value of x3 – 6x2 + 6x – 2 is
1/3 2/3
(1) 0 (2) 1 B D
F
(3) – 1 (4) 3
45. Value of 0.645 × 0.645 + 2 × 0.645 × 0.355 + 0.355 × 0.355 is (1) 70° (2) 45°
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 90° (4) 180°
(3) 3 (4) 4 50. A cone and cylinder are having the same base. The ratio of
46. In figure if l || m, n || p, and 1 = 85°, then 2 is.
their heights if their volumes are equal is
(1) 85° (2) 95°
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 180° (4) 75°
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
n p
51. A park, in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD, has
C = 90º, AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m , CD = 5 m, and AD = 8 m.
m How much area does it occupy?
1 3
(1) 30 m2 (2) 13 m2
(3) 169 m2 (4) 12 m2
52. Water in a canal, 30 dm wide and 12 dm deep, is flowing with
2 a velocity of 20 km per hour. How much area will it irrigate in
30 min, if 9 cm of standing water is desired?
l (1) 36, 000 m2 (2) 10,000 m2
(3) 4,00,000 m2 (4) 40,000 m2
53. The monthly salaries (in `) of 10 employees of a factory are:
47. The angles of a quadrilaterals are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 9 : 13. All 12000, 8500, 9200, 7400, 11300, 12700, 7800, 11500, 10320,
the angles of the quadrilaterals are. 8100. The median salary is
(1) 36°, 60°, 108°, 156° (2) 30°, 50°, 90°, 130° (1) ` 9670 (2) ` 9760
(3) 39°, 65°, 117°, 169° (4) 30°, 65°, 100°, 150° (3) ` 6970 (4) ` 7960

EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-21
54. One hundred cards are numbered from 1 to 100. The 61. Consider the following statements:
probability that a card chosen at random has the digit 5 is (a) In French society about 60% of the total land was
19 100 owned by nobles and other members of the third estate.
(1) (2)
100 19 (b) The population of France declined from 28 million to 20
million in 1789.
10 5
(3) (4) (c) First and second estates participated in revolts against
100 100
increasing taxes and food security.
55. If two zeros of the polynomial f (x) = x3 – 4x2 – 3x + 12 are (d) Montesquieu advocated the principle of distribution
3 and – 3 , then its third zero is of power within the government between the legislative,
(1) 4 (2) –4 the executive and the judiciary.
(3) 3 (4) –3
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (d)
56. Solve : x + 2y + z = 7
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
x + 3z = 11
62. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
2x – 3y = 1 using the codes given below :
Values of x, y and z are respectively Column I Column II
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3 (2) x = 2, y = 3, z = 1 (A) Ghettos (p) Russian parliament
(3) x = 2, y = 1, z = 3 (4) x = 3, y = 2, z = 1 (B) Reichstag (q) Jacobins
57. The hypotenuse of a grassy land in the shape of a right (C) Duma (r) German parliament
triangle is 1 metre more than twice the shortest side. If the (D) Sans Culottes (s) Areas of jews
third side is 7 metres more than the shortest side, The sides (1) (A) q, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p
of the grassy land are (2) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
(1) 8 m, 17 m, 15 m (2) 2 m, 16 m, 13 m (3) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(3) 10 m, 4 m, 5 m (4) 7 m, 10 m, 14 m (4) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
58. Two A.P’s have the same common difference.The difference 63. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
between their 100th terms is 111 222 333. What is the I. He was an Italian freedom fighter.
difference between their Millionth terms? II. He was a sailor in merchant navy.
(1) 111 222 333 (2) 222 111 333 III. He joined the young Italy movement and participated
(3) 333 111 222 (4) 111 333 222 in a republican uprising.
IV. He was a leader of Red shirts.
59. Value of , if sin ( + 36°) = cos , where + 36° is an acute
angle, is (1) Rousseau (2) Karl Marx
(3) Giuseppe Garibaldi (4) Philip veit
(1) 90° (2) 36°
64. Assertion (A): British encouraged the production of
(3) 54° (4) 27° commercial crops like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton.
60. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is Reason (R): The demands of foodgrains were required to
surmounted by a vertical flag staff of height 6 meters. At get raw materials for manufacturing industries as well as the
point on the plane, the angle of elevation of the bottom and foodgrains for the consumption of the population
the top of the flag staff are respectively 30° and 60°. The (1) A and R are correct and R explains A.
height of tower is (2) A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(1) 2 m (2) 5m (3) A is true but R is false.
(3) 2.5 m (4) 3m (4) A is false but R is true.

EBD_7396
65. Consider the following statements with reference to 68. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
Nationalist movement in South-east Asia- using the codes given below :
(a) Ho-Chi-Minh reorganized the nationalist groups as Column I Column II
Vietnamese communist party in 1930. (A) Baron Hargreaves (p) Cotton mill
(b) Gandhiji began the salt march from his Sabarmati (B) James Hargreaves (q) Garden city of New
Ashram to Dandi and manufactured a handful of salt to Earswick
break colonial laws (C) Richard Arkwright (r) Chief architect of New
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Paris
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (D) Raymond unwin (s) spinning jenny
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) and Barry
66. Which of the following are factors of production? (1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(1) Land (2) Labour (2) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p
(3) Capital (4) All of them (3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) q, (D) r
67. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (4) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
using the codes given below : 69. Cricket was said to represent-
Column I Column II (1) English racial superiority
(A) PMRY-1993 (p) Aim is to create self employment (2) English sportsman spirit
opportunities for educated (3) English sense of enterprise
unemployed youth in rural areas (4) English values of fair play and discipline
and small towns
70. What was the style of clothing of women during Ist world
(B) REGP-1995 (q) Additional central assistance is war in Europe?
given to states for basic services (1) Blouse and trousers became popular as working uniform
such as primary health, primary
(2) Skirts became shorter.
education, rural shelter and
drinking and rural electrification (3) Women stopped wearing jewellery.
(C) SGSY-1999 (r) A target for creating 25 lakh new (4) Bright colours came into vogue.
jobs has been set for the 71. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
programme under the tenth five using the codes given below :
year plan Column I Column II
(D) PMGY-2000 (s) Aims at bringing the assisted poor (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (p) Printing Press
families above the poverty line by (B) John Gutenberg (q) Kesari
organizing them into self help
(C) Martin Luther (r) Rajshekhara caritamu
groups through a mix of bank
credit and government subsidy (D) O. Chandu Menon (s) Ninety Five theses
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p (1) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q (2) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(3) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s (3) (A) q, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(4) None of them

EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-23
72. Why did Gandhiji withdraw the non-co-operation 76. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
movement? using the codes given below :
(1) Gandhiji realisied that people were losing interest in Column I Column II
the movement. (A) Justice (p) Freedom of thought and
(2) Gandhiji felt that the movement was turning violent in expression
many places. (B) Liberty (q) On social, economical
(3) Some congress leaders wanted to participate in and political ground
elections to provincial councils (C) Equality (r) Bounding and integrity of
(4) Some congress leaders wanted more radical mass Nation
agitations. (D) Fraternity (s) No discrimination on status
73. Globalisation does not involve which one of the following? opportunity
(1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(1) Rapid integration between countries.
(2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(2) Increased taxes on imports.
(3) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(3) More goods and services moving between countries. (4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(4) Movement of people between countries for job, 77. Assertion (A): Once elections are announced ministers can
education etc. take policy decisions regarding public issues.
74. With reference to the female allegory of France, consider the Reason (R): Voters can choose their representatives who
following statements will form the government and take major decisions.
(a) She was named Marianne. (1) A and R are true and R explains A.
(b) She took part in the French revolution. (2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(c) She was a symbol of national unity.
(4) A is False but R is true.
(d) Her characteristics were drawn from liberty and the
78. On the basis of following features identify the correct
republic.
options-
Which of the above statements are correct? I. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) groups.
(3) None of the above (4) All of the above II. It ensures political stability in the long run
75. Consider the following statements- III. It upholds the spirit of democracy
(a) Democracy promotes equality and freedom of IV. It promotes an equal division of power among all social
expression. groups.
(1) Democracy
(b) In non-democratic countries people cannot freely
choose their leaders. (2) Power sharing
(3) Provincial government
(c) The relationship between different countries has
(4) Majoritarian measures
become more democratic than ever before
79. Which one of the following does not come under the preview
(d) Now a days there is not any military government in the
of family laws?
world.
(1) Matters related to marriage
Which of the above statements are correct? (2) Matters related to divorce
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) Matters related to adoption
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) (4) Matters related to robbery

EBD_7396
80. Arrange all the following statements in a logical sequence- 85. What do you mean by Residuary subjects?
(A) Social divisions of one kind or the other exist in most (1) Matters of state level importance.
countries. (2) Subjects and matters of national issues.
(B) Combination of politics and social divisions is very (3) Subjects which do not include in union, state and
concurrent list.
dangerous and explosive.
(4) Subjects which include in union list and state list both.
(C) Political parties try to win political support by
86. The sectors are classified into public and private sector on
demanding votes on social divisions ground. the basis of ________.
(D) Some social differences on the basis of caste, language, (1) employment conditions
religion may lead to social division (2) the nature of economic activity
(1) D, B, C, A (2) D, B, A, C (3) ownership of enterprises
(3) D, A, B, C (4) B, A, D, C (4) members of workers employed in the firm
81. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer 87. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below : using the codes given below :
Column I Column II Column I Column II
(A) Democracy (p) power is concentrated on one (A) Article 14 (p) Prohibition of discrimination on
the ground of caste, sex, birth.
hand
(B) Article 15 (q) Abolition of titles
(B) Dictatorship (q) Decision taken through correct
(C) Article 16 (r) Equality before law
procedure (D) Article 18 (s) Equality of opportunity
(C) Casteism (r) Rule by the people (1) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
(D) Transparency (s) Race, based or kind (2) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(1) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) r (3) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(2) (A) p, (B) s, (C) r, (D) q (4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q 88. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming the
(4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as-
82. Indian federation consists of - (1) Himachal (2) Purvanchal
(1) 25 states, 6 union territories (3) Uttarakhand (4) Uttar Pradesh
(2) 27 states, 7 union territories
Column I Column II
(A) Pulicat lake (p) Andhra Pradesh
83. With reference to social divisions, consider the following
(B) Chilka lake (q) Tamil Nadu
statements-
(C) Kolleru lake (r) Jaisalmer
(a) Democracy always leads to disintegration of society (D) Gadisar lake (s) Orissa
on the basis of social division. (1) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
(b) The practice of untouchability is an example of social (2) (A) s, (B) p, (C) q, (D) r
divisions. (3) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only 90. Why is India a vast country in terms of landforms?
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) (1) Due to varied landforms
84. Tamil Eelam means - (2) Due to uniform landforms
(1) Tamil state (2) Tamil court (3) Due to undulating landforms
(4) Due to plant landforms
(3) Tamil government (4) Tamil language

EBD_7085
Mock Test-1 MT-25
91. Which of the following is an example of Formal sector loan? 96. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
(i) Bank Loan I. It links Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai- Mumbai.
(ii) Loan from friends II. It connects all major cities by six lane super highways.
(iii) Loan from cooperatives III. It reduces time and distance.
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii) IV. It is maintained by National Highway Authority of
(3) Only (iii) (4) Only (i) and (iii) India.
92. Consider the following statements- (1) National Highways.
(a) The cold weather season starts from November and (2) State Highways
stays till February (3) Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways
(b) Monsoon climate influences agricultural crops. (4) Grameen Sadak Yojna
(c) Sudden rise in temperature in summer affects partially 97. Arrange the states in descending order is terms of
grown foodgrains. population-
(d) Jet stream is moving air from high pressure to low (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal
pressure areas. (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
Which of the above statements are correct? (1) a, d, b, c (2) d, a, b, c
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) a, d, c, b (4) c, b, d, a
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) 98. Which of the following are matched correctly?
93. Assertion (A): India produces large quantities of rice but (a) Area of highest growth rate of population - Nagaland
still does not export much. (b) Area with lowest sex ratio - Delhi
Reason (R): A large population results in equally large (c) Area with lowest density of population - Rajasthan
domestic consumption. (d) Area with highest density of population - Delhi
(1) A and R are correct and R explains A. (1) b, d (2) c, d
(2) A and R are correct but R does not explain A. (3) a, c, d (4) a, d
(3) A is true but R is not true. 99. How is an MNC defined?
(1) A MNC is a company that owns or controls production
(4) A is not true but R is true.
in more than one district in a country
94. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (2) A MNC is a company that owns or controls production
using the codes given below : in more than one state in a country
Column I Column II (3) A MNC is a company that owns or controls production
A. BHEL (p) Iron and Steel in more than one nation
(4) All of the above
B. HAIL (q) Chemicals
C. SAIL (r) Electronics using the codes given below :
D. BPCL (s) Aeronautics Column I Column II
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s Agents of erosion Topographical features
(2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q (A) River (p) Cirques
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q (B) Glacier (q) Stalactites
(4) (A) p, (B) s, (C) r, (D) q (C) Wind (r) Ox-bow lakes
95. Copper-gold-iron-coal are connected with - (D) Underground water (s) Barkhans
1. Kolar - Kudremukh - Khetri - Jharia (1) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
2. Khetri - Kolar - Kudremukh - Jharia (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
3. Kudremukh - Kolar - Khetri - Jharia (3) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p
4. Kolar - Khetri - Jharia - Kudremukh (4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q

EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MT-27
ANSWER SHEET
City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 35. 68.
2. 36. 69.
3. 37. 70.
4. 38. 71.
5. 39. 72.
6. 40. 73.
7. 41. 74.
8. 42. 75.
9. 43. 76.
10.
44. 77.
11.
45. 78.
12.
46. 79.
13.
47. 80.
14.
48. 81.
15.
49. 82.
16.
50. 83.
17.
51. 84.
18.
52. 85.
19.
53. 86.
20.
54. 87.
21.
55. 88.
22.
23. 56. 89.
24. 57. 90.

25. 58. 91.
26. 59. 92.
27. 60. 93.
28. 61. 94.
29. 62. 95.
30. 63. 96.
31. 64. 97.
32. 65. 98.
33. 66. 99.
34. 67. 100.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 2


1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
DIRECTIONS (Qs.1 and 2) : Three of the four figures marked

1, 2, 3 and 4 are similar in some way or the other and one is
different from the rest. You have to choose the figure which is
different : (3) (4)
6. Select from the choices the figure that fits in the given
1. figure to complete its original pattern.:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
?
2. x
x
x x
(1) (2)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) (4)
3. ‘Hour’ is related to ‘Second’ in the same way as ‘Tertiary’
is related to 7. If the fifth day of the month falls two days after Monday,
(1) Ordinary (2) Secondary what day of week will be the 19th of the month ?
(3) Primary (4) Intermediary (1) Tuesday (2) Monday
4. Mohan was born on February 29 in the year 1960. How (3) Thursday (4) Wednesday
many birthdays will be celebrate upto February 1976 ? 8. Six families A, B, C, D, E & F are living in houses in a row,
(1) 16 (2) 8 B has F and D as neighbours, E has A & C as neighbours.
(3) 4 (4) 5 A does not live next to either F or D, C does not live next
to D. Who are F's next door neighbours ?
5. Identify the figure that is the mirror reflection of the given (1) B & E (2) B & D
figure (X). (3) B & C (4) Only B
P Q 9. A three centimetre cube has been painted red on all its
sides. It is cut into one centimetre cubes. How many cubes
will be there with only one side painted red ?
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 1 (4) 9
10. Find the missing number :
(X) ( 11 5 ?
16 28 148
44 60 88
(1) (2)
(1) 16 (2) 44
(3) 116 (4) 176

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-31
11. Continue the given series :

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1) (2) 16. In this question, two figures / words are given to the
left of the sign : : and one of the right with one of the
alternatives having the same relationship with the
figure/word to the right of the sign : : as between the two
figures/words to its left. Find the correct alternative:
(3) (4)
12. Find out from the choices, the figure that can fit into the
empty space :
: :: : ?
?
(1) (2)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
17. If AMBIKA is coded as then is coded

AMBIKA LION
A
as
(1) LOIN (2) LION (3) LONI (4) LNOI
(3) (4)
18. Using the relationship between given three classes,
choose the most suitable diagram :
13. Lakshmi C and Meena are Rohan's wives. Shalini is Meena's Women, Teachers, Children
step-daughter. How is Lakshmi related to Shalini?
(1) Sister (2) Mother-in-Law
(3) Mother (4) Step-Mother (1) (2)
14. SKEW is written as POCY, MUST may be written as
(1) QJVY (2) QYVJ
(3) JYQV (4) QVYJ
15. Select from alternatives the figure (X) that exactly fits in
the main figure to complete its original pattern.
(3)
?
(4)
(X)

EBD_7396
19. My mother is twice as old as my brother. I am five years 24. Statements: All huts are mansions. All mansions temples.
younger than my brother but three years older than my Conclusion:
I. Some temples are huts.
sister. If my sister is twelve years of age, how old is my
II. Some temples are mansion.
mother ? 25. Statements: Some hens are cows. All cows are horse.
(1) 24 (2) 30 (3) 40 (4) 50 Conclusion:
20. The following question is based on the diagram showing I. Some horses are hens.
four persons stationed at the four corners of a square plot. II. Some hens are horses.
26. Statements: All trucks fly. Some scooters fly.
C A Conclusion:
E
I. All trucks are scooters.
II. Some scooters do not fly.
N S
27. Four figures are given below :
W
B D
'A' starts crossing the field diagonally. After walking half
the distance he turn right ; walks some distance and turns
left. Which directions is 'A' facing now ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) North-east (2) North-west
(3) South-east (4) South-west Which of the following figures should come after the
21. If '+' means ÷; '×' means '–'' '÷' means '+' and '–' means '×', figure (d) ?
then 16 ÷ 8 × 6 – 2 + 12 = ?
(1) 22 (2) 24 (3) 23 (4) 20
(1) (2)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 22 and 23) : The numbers given in the
following questions have a specific pattern. Select, from the
choices provided under each question, the term to replace the
question mark and continue the pattern:
22. 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, 65, ?
(3) (4)
(1) 78 (2) 126 (3) 129 (4) 127
23. 2, 5, 14, 41, 122, ?
(1) 204 (2) 365 (3) 672 (4) 392 28. Find the missing letters of the series:
__ o p __ m o __ n __ __ p n m o p __
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24 to 26) : In each question below are given (1) m n o m p n (2) m n p o m n
two statements followed by 2 conclusions numbered I & II. You (3) m p n m o p (4) m n p m o n
have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem 29. If 09/12/2001 happens to be Sunday, then 09/12/1971 would
have been at
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion
(1) Wednesday (2) Tuesday
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows (3) Saturday (4) Thursday
from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known 30. If A = E, B = F, C = G and H = L, how will you code 'GO
facts. AHEAD' ?
Give answer (1) K S F L I F H (2) H P B I F B E
(1) If only conclusion I follows (3) K S G L I G H (4) K S E L I E H
(2) If only conclusion II follows 31. If PEKING is code as 'O D J H M F' , how will you code
(3) If neither conclusion I nor II follows SYDNEY ?
(1) R H C M D Y (2) R X C M D X
(4) If both conclusion I & II follows.
(3) S H C M E X (4) R H C M E X

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-33
32. The calendar for the year 2005 is the same as for the year : DIRECTIONS (Qs 37 to 38) : These questions are based on
(1) 2010 (2) 2011 letter series. Study the series carefully to determine the order
(3) 2012 (4) 2013 (Pattern). Select the answer from the choices given :
33. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
BOOKLET be arranged such that B and T always come 37. DF I MR?
together? (1) S (2) U (3) U (4) X
(1) 360 (2) 720 38. XUSPNK?
(3) 480 (4) 5040 (1) I (2) L (3) M (4) Q
34. A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 min. in
24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock
indicates 10 p.m. on the 4th day ? 39. There is a question mark in a blank space in which only
(1) 11 p.m. (2) 10 p.m one of the four alternatives given under satisfies the same
(3) 9 p.m. (4) 8 p.m. relationship as is found between the two terms to the left
of sign : : given in the question. Find the correct answer:
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 35 and 36) : In each of the following questions
a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the given options XWV : UTS : : LKJ : ?
(1, 2, 3 and 4) the right figure to fit in the missing place. (1) IHG (2) JKL (3) STU (4) MNO
35.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 40 and 41) : Find the correct letter pair from
the alternatives given in choices below, to locate the same
relationship among the group of letters as established between
the sets in the questions given below.
40. ABCD : WXYZ : : EFGH : ?
(1) STVU (2) STOU (3) STUE (4) STUV
41. F H : 6 – 8 : : DG : ?
(1) (2) (1) 7 – 2 (2) 4 – 7 (3) 4 – 8 (4) 3 – 4
DIRECTIONS (Q. 42): The following question accompanied by

(3) (4) two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
36. question.
42. What is the number x if
I. The LCM of x and 18 is 36.
II. The HCF of x and 18 is 2.
(1) The question can be answered the help of both the
statements but not with the help of either statement
itself.
(2) The question can not be answered even with the help
(1) (2) of both the statements.
(3) The question can be answered with the help of
statement II alone
(3) (4) (4) The question can be answered with the help of
statement I alone

EBD_7396
43. In each of the four groups of letters, one is different from DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48 to 50) : Substitute different digits
others. Pick the odd one out. (0, 1, 2, .....9) for different letters in the problem below, so that the
(1) TSRQ (2) MLKJ (3) YXWV (4) NMLK corresponding addition is correct and it results in the maximum
possible value of MONEY.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44 and 45) : In each of the four numbers or

sets of numbers (1) to (4), one does not belong to the same P A Y
classification (category). All others resemble each other in one
M E
way or the other. You have to find the odd one out.
44. (1) 35, 24 (2) 79, 68 (3) 57, 46 (4) 35, 79 R E A L
+
45. (1) 876321 (2) 387316 (3) 349416 (4) 372164
M O N E Y
46. Vijay’s position is 14th from upwards in a class of 43

48. The letter ‘Y’ should be
students. What will be his position from downwards?
(1) 0 (2) 2
(1) 30th (2) 28th (3) 29th (4) 31st
(3) 3 (4) 7
47. Ravi wants to go to the university. He starts from his home
which is in the East and come to a crossing. The road to 49. There are nine letters and ten digits. The digit that remain
the left ends is a theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In unutilised is:
which direction is the university? (1) 4 (2) 3
(1) North (2) South (3) East (4) West (3) 2 (4) 1
50. The resulting value of ‘MONEY’ is
(1) 10364 (2) 10563
(3) 10978 (4) 19627

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-35
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7) : Read the following passage and answer (3) in a mechanical age a person cannot have individual
the questions given after it. aspirations
Democracy, so long as it is what it is, imperfectly educated, throws (4) an individual finds it hard to formulate his own opinion
a great responsibility on the leaders. The average voter even in in a complicated social structure
educated England has no opinion of his own on many questions. 4. The statement, "it does not even pay to think" means that
He chooses his party by tradition or by his agreement with its (1) thinking is actually discouraged
central aims in those matters on which he has strong views. On (2) thoughtful persons are condemned
other questions he takes his opinions from the leaders. His
(3) thinking brings no advantage
conscience is clear when the party is chosen and for the rest the
(4) thinking is not allowed
leaders decide and the voters obey. In a complex social machine,
it is difficult for the units to exercise thought. It is easier to be 5. According to the author, it is most convenient for a leader
obedient automatically. It does not even pay to think. Perhaps to, "create public opinion" because
thought may prove costly. If the leaders want to create public (1) he has been chosen by the public whom he represents
opinion, the machinery of the press and the wireless makes it most (2) the modern means of mass communication are readily
easy. Modern conditions afford propagandists vastly increased available to him
opportunities of promoting collective excitement and setting the (3) even an educated voter takes his opinion from the
world in a conflagration. A few clever and adventurous leaders leader
can excite people's passions and suppress intellectual freedom. In (4) the average voter has no opinion of his own
these circumstances, truth does not win as there is no attempt to 6. The word 'conflagration' in the passage signifies
find out truth. (1) confusion (2) widespread fire
1. The most suitable title for the given passage would be (3) conflict (4) unforeseen calamity
(1) democracy and public opinion 7. Which of the following has the opposite meaning to the
(2) democracy and intellectual freedom word 'suppress' as used in the passage?
(3) the role of leaders in a democracy (1) encourage (2) tolerate
(4) the role of voters in a democracy (3) dominate (4) describe
2. The opening sentence of the passage implies that
(1) the responsibility of educating a democracy lies with DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-12) : Read the following passage and answer
its leaders the questions given after it.
(2) leaders in democracy with imperfectly educated voters There was a time when all homework was done by the women and
have to shoulder great responsibility girls of the household. Few husbands ever dreamt of washing up,
(3) a well educated democracy is based on responsible preparing breakfast or tending the baby! Such duties were no
leadership concern of theirs. It was viewed that the males should not – or
(4) in a democracy with uneducated masses the leaders could not – clean, mend, wash, cook or make beds. Things are
are highly duty conscious very different today. Doctors or barristers find nothing undignified
3. "In a complex social machine................" the statement implies or shameful in putting on an apron to help in the kitchen or nursery
that and even boast of their superior organisation of washing dishes
(1) it is difficult for an individual to challenge a complicated of the household or personal linen. The schoolboy is more often
social machinery than formerly expected to help his mother. One reason for the
(2) in a society which works like a machine an individual change is the shortage of domestic servants. Girls could once be
cannot be permitted to have his own political ambitions found to do the hard work in middle and upper class homes for
very moderate wages; such girls can now a day's earn in factories

EBD_7396
in a short working day more money than most householders can 13. The poor farmers in Bengal took up indigo cultivation
afford to pay. Thus the wife now does the house-work herself because
with the aid of labour-saving equipments; and she expects some (1) the government encouraged them to do so
help from her husband. (2) it was a money earning crop
8. What was the practise in the past regarding house-work? (3) they were forced to do so
(1) domestic chores were done only by men and boys (4) this was the only crop that would grow in that region
(2) domestic chores were done only by women and girls 14. British settlers bought land in Bengal in order to
(3) domestic chores were done by paid helpers (1) introduce cultivation of cash crops in India
(4) domestic chores were done by owned slaves (2) cultivate indigo
9. How has it changed today? (3) settle down in India
(1) men have taken domestic work and women go to offices (4) promote export business in Bengal
(2) men and women equally share the domestic chores 15. Indigo export was profitable for the British settlers because
(3) paid workers are employed to take care of the household (1) they had no competitors
(4) children are involved in domestic chores (2) the crop yield was good
(3) they could oppress the farmers
10. What is the reason for this change?
(4) the labour was cheap
(1) increased labour wages
(2) ban on exploitation of poor people
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 & 17) : The following five sentences come
(3) shortage of domestic helpers from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given.
(4) restrictions imposed on child labour Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should
11. Why don't girls like to do household jobs these days? appear to complete the paragraph.
(1) they earn more in factories in less working hours 16. S1. It is a wonder that migratory birds
(2) to avoid domestic violence S2.______________________________
(3) more laborious tasks were given in houses S3.______________________________
(4) to avoid late working hours S4.______________________________
12. Suggest a suitable title for this passage? S5. to breed in the warm climates.
(1) domestic responsibilities P. always manage to find their homes
(2) women and household Q. flying thousands of kilometres
(3) men and women in same status R. without ever getting lost
(4) shortage of domestic helpers Choose from the options given below.
(1) QPR (2) QRP
(3) RPQ (4) PRQ
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15) : Read the following passage and
answer the questions given after it. 17. S1. This is a letter
S2.________________________________
Many poor farmers had been compelled to take up indigo
cultivation when the British settlers were given the right to S3.________________________________
purchase and cultivate land in India. Many whites, therefore, either S4.________________________________
acquired loans to poor farmers or pressurised them to forsake the S5. who was lately wounded in a duel.
farming of food grains and other cash crops for indigo cultivation. P. written passionately
Indigo export to Europe was lucrative for the British settlers who Q. by a young lady
held a monopoly for this business. Within a few years, most of the R. wherein she laments the misfortune of a gentleman
fertile lands had undergone forcible indigo cultivation, resulting Choose from the given options below.
in a famine situation in Bengal. When the farmers declined to (1) QPR (2) PRQ
cultivate indigo, they were tortured, jailed and even killed. (3) RQP (4) PQR

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-37
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 & 19) : Following questions have the 26. The king has ________ to a proposal to enhance the powers
second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from of the Council of Ministers.
the given options to complete it. (1) allied (2) opined
18. A. It needs an expert to (3) assented (4) coincided
B._____________________________________ 27. The two sides in the civil was signed a peace ________
C. Army Officers during the war time. (1) truce (2) accord
(1) sign the consignments for the (3) alibi (4) pretext
(2) decipher the secret message sent to the 28. Many companies ask their employees to sign a ________
(3) declare the firing against enemies to the of secrecy.
(4) food and medicines to the (1) espionage (2) bond
19. A. Discovery of agriculture (3) bondage (4) wish
B._____________________________________ 29. The Chirstmas tree was ________ with stars and other
C. in the history of mankind. decorative items.
(1) led to a barbarian culture (1) endowed (2) enticed
(2) led to the construction of houses (3) beautiful (4) adorned
(3) led to the growth of economy
(4) led to the settled civilised life. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-35) : Select the meaning of the given
phrases/idioms.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-29) : Choose the word which best fills the 30. By hook or by crook
blank from the four options given. (1) In a completely insane manner
20. Mother Teresa was ________ about her achievements and (2) In whatever way one can
unwilling to discuss them before anyone. (3) Being very evil and destructive
(1) ignorant (2) unsure (4) To be very tenacious
(3) proud (4) modest 31. A feather in ones’s cap
21. His opinion ________ with the general opinion of the experts (1) Accumulating more money or property
on this matter.
(2) Taking more burden on oneself
(1) asserts (2) assimilates
(3) Being felicitated for one’s artistic merits
(3) concurs (4) approves
(4) Something achieved that constitutes a victory
22. By nature, Rahul was ________, given to striking up casual
32. In the guise of
conversations with strangers.
(1) casual (2) gregarious (1) In the cloak of (2) In the colour of
(3) reticent (4) diffident (3) In the semblance of (4) In the pretence of
23. It is difficult to drink from a cup which is full to the ________. 33. Take up the cudgels
(1) Circumference (2) brim (1) To support somebody
(3) top (4) edge (2) To start a new business
24. Duryodhana was the main ________ of the pandavas. (3) To go on a holiday
(1) adversity (2) enmity (4) To relax
(3) effrontery (4) adversary 34. As the crow flies
25. Her ideas do not ________ to the general definition of (1) To wander in jungles
civilization. (2) In a straight line
(1) opine (2) conform (3) To protect environment
(3) confirm (4) review (4) To travel to a foreign land

EBD_7396
35. Pie in the sky DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44-47) : Select the most appropriate option
(1) Beautiful suroundings to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.
(2) Event unlikely to happen 44. I hope she __________ .
(3) Rainy season (1) must come (2) should come
(4) Foreign traditions (3) will come (4) must be coming
45. An increase in population, without an increase in economic
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-43) : In the following passage there are level, __________ result in a lower standard of living.
some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most (1) tends to (2) tending to
appropriate word for each blank from the given options. (3) will tend (4) tends
Fundamentally, all human (36) possess combinations of fixed 46. __________ as President, a candidate must win a majority
inherited traits. All men possess the (37) highly developed nervous, of votes.
system, backbones, erect posture, hair etc. Therefore, (38) among (1) Elected (2) To be elected
men arise only in minor changes of this basic pattern. Racial (39) (3) Having elected (4) Electing
represent one of the finest distinctions and are based on certain 47. One difficulty __________ at night is limited vision.
(40) differences. two races may be (41) in hair colour, in eye colour
(1) with driving (2) be driven
but (42) in stature while two others may be (43) in stature but
(3) to drive (4) will drive
differ in the colour of eyes and hair.
36. (1) animal (2) beings
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48-50) : Select the word which means the
(3) mind (4) society
opposite of the given word.
37. (1) same (2) large
48. VITAL
(3) natural (4) different
(1) Trivial (2) Peripheral
38. (1) growth (2) sameness
(3) Optional (4) Superficial
(3) substance (4) variations
49. EXPLOIT
39. (1) hatred (2) clashes
(1) Utilize (2) Alert
(3) tolerance (4) differences
(3) Support (4) Neglect
40. (1) neat (2) minor
50. CONDEMN
(3) massive (4) clearcut
(1) Censure (2) Approve
41. (1) alike (2) different
(3) Recommend (4) Praise
(3) beautiful (4) untouched
42. (1) same (2) tall
(3) close (4) different
43. (1) ugly (2) tall
(3) same (4) short

EBD_7085
MT-39
ANSWER SHEET

City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26.
43.
10. 27.
44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
17. 34. 50.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26. 43.
10. 27. 44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
50.
17. 34.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
2


1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
42-42
MT SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-43
1. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer 4. The set of diseases which spread through sexual contact as
using the codes given below : well as through placenta to the foetus are
Column I Column II (1) Malaria and AIDS (2) AIDS and Syphilis
(3) Syphilis and Malaria (4) AIDS and Cancer
(A) Amoeba, Paramoecium (p) Lysosomes
5. On the basis of following features identify correct option
Chlamydomonas and I. These animals are cold-blooded, have scales and
bacteria breathe through lungs.
II. Most of them have a three-chambered heart.
(B) Protoplasm (q) Unicellular organisms
III. They lay eggs with tough coverings and do not need
(C) ‘Suicide bags’ of a cell (r) Purkinje in 1839 to lay their eggs in water.
(D) Chromatin material (s) Schleiden and Schwann (1) Reptilia (2) Aves
and nucleolus (3) Amphibia (4) Pisces
6. Low visibility during cold weather is due to
(E) Cell theory (t) Nucleus
(1) formation of fossil fuel.
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) t, (E) s (2) unburnt carbon particles or hydrocarbons suspended
(2) (A) q, (A) r, (A) p, (A) s, (A) t in air.
(3) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) t, (E) s (3) lack of adequate power supply.
(4) None of these
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) t, (E) s
7. On the basis of following features identify correct option.
2. The decomposers in an ecosystem I. It is the covering or protective tissues in the animal
(1) convert inorganic material to simpler forms. body.
II. It forms a barrier to keep different body systems
(2) convert organic material to inorganic forms.
separate.
(3) convert inorganic materials into organic compounds. III. The skin, the lining of the mouth, the lining of blood
(4) do not break-down organic compounds. vessels, lung alveoli and kidney tubules are made up
3. Following figure represents the phenomenon: of this type of tissue.
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue
Long waves
Short (heat energy) (3) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue
waves 8. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
(light using the codes given below :
energy) High CO2 Column I Column II
Normal content in A. Global warming (p) Eutrophication
CO2 atmosphere
Content B. Algal bloom (q) CO, CO2
C. Nitrogen fixation (r) Rhizobium
D. Pseudomonas (s) Fossil fuel
Earth
E. Non-renewable resource (t) Denitrification
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) t, (E) (s)
(1) Acid rain (2) Greenhouse effect (2) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) t, (E) (s)
(3) Ozone depletion (4) None of these (3) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s, (E) (t)
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r, (E) (t)

EBD_7396
9. Select the group which shares maximum number of common (c) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, blood
characters. pressure are controlled by the medulla in the hind brain.
(1) Two individuals of a species (d) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of
(2) Two species of a genus the body.
(3) Two genera of a family (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Two genera of two families (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
10. The rat in set-up (B) with a potted plant remains healthy, 15. Acids, acidic oxide and acidic salts
whereas the rat in the set-up (A) without potted plant dies (a) will turn red litmus blue
(b) will turn blue litmus red
(c) will turn pH paper orangish red
O2 (d) will turn pH paper green
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
CO2
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
16. Which of the following is a wrong statement?
(A) (B) (1) Vegetable oils get hydrogenated when heated with H2
(1) due to non-availability of O2 in the presence of Ni catalyst.
(2) due to non-availability of CO2 (2) The addition of chlorine to methane in the presence of
(3) due to absence of food sunlight is called addition reaction.
(4) because rat loves plants (3) Ethanol gets dehydrated when heated with conc.
H2SO4 at 443 K.
11. Scheme implemented under the Ganga Action Plan is
(4) Micelle are spherical clusters in which hydrophilic tails
(1) Waste water treatment (2) Electric crematorium
are in the interior of the cluster while hydrophobic heads
(3) River front development (4) All of these are at the surface of the cluster.
12. Consider the following statements: 17. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
(a) Plasmodium multiplies by binary fission. using the codes given below :
(b) Bryophyllum propagates through spore formation. Column I Column II
(c) Hibiscus has unisexual flowers. (A) Speedometer (p) Electrical potential between
Which of the above statements are correct? two points in circuit
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (B) Voltmeter (q) Blood pressure
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) None of these (C) Sphygmomanometer (r) High temperature
13. The substance that triggers the fall of mature leaves and (D) Pyrometer (s) Relative humidity
fruits from plants is due to (E) Hydrometer (t) Instantaneous speed of
(1) auxin (2) gibberellin automobiles
(3) abscisic acid (4) cytokinin (F) Hygrometer (u) Density of liquid
14. Which of the following statements are true about the brain? (1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s, (E) t, (F) u
(a) The main thinking part of brain is hind brain. (2) (A) t, (B) p, (C) q, (D) r, (E) u, (F) s
(b) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc, are located (3) (A) t, (B) s, (C) r, (D) q, (E) p, (F) u
in fore-brain. (4) (A) t, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q, (E) u, (F) s

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-45
18. On the basis of following features identify the correct option. The recorded observations in the form of table given below:
I. These rays travel in straight line. Student Colour [I] [II] [III] [IV]
II. These rays consist of positively charged particles of the
solution
III. These rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields
(A) Initial Colour- Colour- Light Blue
IV. e/m values for the particles are not same for all gases. less less green
(1) Cathode rays (2) Anode rays Final Colour- Colour- Colour- Colour-
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) less less less less
(B) Initial Colour- Light Light Blue
less yellow green
(a) Rusting is exothermic process Final Colour- Colour- Light Colour-
(b) Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water is exothermic less less green less
process (C) Initial Colour Colour Light Blue
(c) Addition of chlorine is also oxidation process. less less green
Final Light Colour- Colour- Light
(d) The formula of calcium phosphate is Ca3(PO4)2. blue less less green
Which of the above statements are correct? (D) Initial Light Colour Light Blue
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d) green less green
Final Colour- Colour- Dark Colour-
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
less less green less
20. Four students A, B, C and D noted the initial colour of the
Which student noted the colour change in all the four beakers
solution in beakers I, II, III and IV. After inserting zinc rods in
correctly?
each solution and leaving it undisturbed for two hours, noted
(1) (A) (2) (B)
the colour of each solution again.
(3) (C) (4) (D)
Zn Zn 21. Which of the following are the characteristics of isobars of
an element?
(i) Isobars of an element have same number of neutrons
(ii) Isobars of an element have same number of protons
and neutrons
(iii) Isobars of an element have similar physical properties
Al2(SO4)3 ZnSO4 (iv) Isobars of an element have same mass number
(I) (II)
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
Zn Zn (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
22. Arrange the following in increasing order of number of
molecules
I. 0.5 mol of H2 II. 4.0 g of H2
III. 18 g of H2O IV. 2.2 g of CO2
(1) II > III > I > IV (2) IV < I < III < II
FeSO4 CuSO4
(III) (IV) (3) I < II < III < IV (4) IV < III < I < II

EBD_7396
23. During smelting, an additional substance is added which (c) Cyclic hydrocarbons are saturated or unsaturated
combines with impurities to form a fusible product. It is organic compounds that contain ring of carbon atoms.
known as: (d) Synthetic detergents are sodium or potassium salts of
(1) Slag (2) Mud long chain carboxylic acids.
(3) Gangue (4) Flux
(1) Only (c) (2) Only (d)
24. The dye from blue fountain pen ink can be separated by
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) evaporation (2) distillation
28. When an object is accelerated
(3) chromatography (4) separating funnel (1) its direction must be constant
25. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer (2) its velocity is necessarily changing
using the codes given below : (3) its velocity is constant
Column I (Acid) Column II (Use) (4) its speed is necessarily changing
(A) Oxalic acid (p) As an eye-wash, 29. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
antiseptic and grain using the codes given below :
preservation Column I Column II
(B) Nitric acid (q) For making explosives (A) The rate of change (p) Acceleration
(C) Boric acid (r) In food preservation of momentum
(D) Benzoic acid (s) As a constituent of ink (B) The ratio of the total (q) Velocity
stain remover distance travelled to
(1) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p the total time taken
(2) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r (C) The time rate of (r) Average speed
(3) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s change of velocity
(D) Displacement per unit (s) Force
(4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
time
26. Burning magnesium ribbon is brought in the gas jar of carbon
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
dioxide. Which of the following is correct?
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(i) It keeps on burning
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
(ii) It gets extinguished
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(iii) Although CO2 is non-supporter of combustion but 30. On the basis of following features identify correct option :
burning magnesium breaks CO2 into carbon and oxygen
I. It is independent of nature of intervening medium.
helps in burning.
II. It obeys Newton’s third law of motion.
(iv) Carbon dioxide is supporter of combustion
(1) Gravitational force (2) Nuclear force
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (iii) and (iv)
31. Two point masses each equal to 1 kg attract one another
27. Consider the following statements: with a force of 10–9 kg wt. The distance between the two
(a) All hydrocarbons show phenomena of isomerism. point masses is (G = 6.6 × 10–11 MKS units).
(b) The members of a homologous series have similar (1) 8 cm (2) 0.8 cm
chemical and physical properties. (3) 80 cm (4) 0.08 cm

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-47
32. Force F applied on a body moves it through a distance s 37. Blue colour of sky is due to
along F. Energy spent is (1) dispersion of light (2) scattering of light
(1) Fs 2 (2) F × s
(3) reflection of light (4) refraction of light
(3) F / s (4) F / s2
33. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer 38. Consider the following statements :
using the codes given below : (a) The specific resistance does not depend on the
Column I Column II dimensions of a conductor.
(A) 1 horse power (p) 10 m fall of a unit mass (b) The combined resistance of any number of resistors
(B) 3.6 × 106 joules (q) Work is zero connected in series is equal to the sum of the individual
(C) 100 joules (r) 746 watt resistors.
(D) Zero displacement (s) Commercial unit
(c) A good conductor of electricity offers more resistance.
(1) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r (d) The resistance of a wire decreases with the increases
(3) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p in its temperature.
(4) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q Which of the above statements are correct?
34. Consider the following statements : (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(a) Sound waves are longitudinal in nature.
(b) Sound waves cannot travel through vacuum. (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b) (c) and (d)
(c) Sound waves are produced by oscillating charged 39. The direction of induced current is obtained by
particles only. (1) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(d) Sound waves are electromagnetic waves.
(2) Maxwell’s left hand rule.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Ampere’s rule.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) Fleming’s right hand rule.
35. Which of the following properties of sound is affected by 40. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
change in air temperature?
(1) Coal (2) Natural gas
(1) Amplitude (2) Frequency
(3) Wavelength (4) Intensity (3) Sun light (4) Uranium
36. In the glass slab experiment, the correct placement of the 4
41. If x is a root of the polynomial
protractor (or ‘dee’), for measuring the angles of incidence 3
and emergence, is shown in which figure? f (x) = 6x3 – 11x2 + kx – 20, then the value of k is
(1) 228 (2) 19
(3) 12 (4) –19
(1) (2) 42. If and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial
f (x) = 2x2 – 5x + 7, then a polynomial whose zeroes are
2 + 3 and 3 + 2 . is
25 25
(1) k x2 x 41 (2) k x2 x 41
2 2
(3) (4)
25 25
(3) k x2 x 41 (4) k x2 x 41
2 2

EBD_7396
43. The value of k for which the system of linear equation:
kx + 4y = k – 4, 16x + ky = k, has many solutions, is 5 2 5 2
50. Value of x2, if x is
(1) 0 (2) 8 5 1
(3) –8 (4) 4 (1) – 2 (2) 2
44. A part of the monthly expenses of a family is constant and
(3) 2 (4) 2
the remaining varies with the price of wheat. When the price
of wheat is ` 250 per quintal, the total monthly expenses are 51. A clock strikes the number of times of the hour. How many
` 1000 and when it is ` 240 per quintal, the total monthly strikes does it make in one day?
expenses ` 980 per quintal. The total monthly expenses of (1) 165 times (2) 156 times
the family when the cost of wheat is ` 350 per quintal, is (3) 78 times (4) 87 times
(1) 500 (2) 1200 52. In a quadrilateral the angles are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 : 6. Then
(3) – 1200 (4) – 500 the difference between the greatest and the smallest angle is
45. If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation (1) 108° (2) 60°
3y = ax + 7, then the value of a is (3) 180° (4) 360°
53. O is the centre of the circle as shown in the diagram. The
3 3
(1) (2) distance between P and Q is 4 cm. Then the measure of
5 5
ROQ is R
5 5
(3) (4)
3 3
o
35 y
o
46. The values of P for which the given quadratic equation has Q
real roots, Px2 + 4x + 1 = 0 is 2 cm
O
(1) P < 4 (2) P 4 P 2 cm
(3) P > 4 (4) P 4
47. If x = 2 and x = 3 roots of the equation 3x2 – 2mx + 2n = 0,
then the values of m and n are (1) y o (2) 35°
(3) 105° (4) 70°
15 15
(1) m ,n 9 (2) m ,n 9 54. Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular
2 2
field, a boy took a short cut along the diagonal and saved a
15 15 distance equal to half the longer side. Then the ratio of the
(3) m ,n 9 (4) m ,n 9 shorter side to the longer side is
2 2
48. The sum of the first 100 natural numbers is 1 2
(1) (2)
(1) – 5050 (2) 5005 2 3
(3) 5050 (4) – 5005 1 3
(3) (4)
4 4
( xa b 2
) ( xb c )2 ( xc a 2
)
49. Value of is 55. Each side of a cube is increased by 50%. Then the surface
a b c 4
(x x x )
area of the cube is increased by
(1) 1 (2) – 1 (1) 50% (2) 100%
(3) 0 (4) None of these (3) 125% (4) 150%

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-49
56. The area of the shaded region in the diagram below where 60. A coin is tossed 40 times and it showed tail 24 times. The
the given triangle is isosceles with vertices of base lying on probability of getting a head was
axis of the radius perpendicular to the diameters of the two
2 3
small semicircles, is (1) (2)
5 5
4 1 17
(3) (4)
2 40
61. What is the function of Academy of Development Sciences
4
(ADS) in Maharashtra?
8 O (1) Facilitated a network of NGO's for setting up grain banks
8 in different regions
(1) 16 ( + 1) (2) 16 ( – 1) (2) It organizes training and capacity building programmes
(3) 32 ( – 1) (4) 32 ( + 1) on food security for NGO's
57. AB and CD are two perpendicular diameters of a circle with (3) It efforts to set up Grain Banks, to facilitate replication
centre O, OD is the diameter of smaller circle. If OA = 7 cm, through other NGO's and to influence the governments
then the area of the shaded region in figure, is policy on food security are thus paying rich dividends
B (4) All of them
62. With reference to the characteristics of Himalayan river
consider the following statements –
(a) They have great capacity for erosion.
(b) Many of them have their sources is the Inner Himalayas.
D O C
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
63. Assertion (A) : The higher regions of the Himalayas have a
A
dense cover of coniferous forests while most parts in the
(1) 66.5 cm2 (2) 66 cm2
plains are rapidly becoming devoid of forests.
(3) 65 cm2 (4) 67.5 cm2 Reason (R) : Heavy precipitation in the mountains results in
58. If x psec and y q tan then the growth of forests at a rate higher than the rate at which
forests can be cut down by man.
(1) x2 – y2 = p2q2 (2) x2q2 – y2p2 = pq
(1) A and R are true and R explains A.
1
(3) x2q2 – y2p2 = (4) x 2 q2 – y2p2 = p2q2 (2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
p2q2
59. The median for the following distribution class
(4) A is false but R is true
Class 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 64. The monsoon reason in India is affected by –
Frequency 5 10 20 7 8 5 (1) EI – Nino effect
is (2) CFC releases
(1) 26 (2) 25 (3) Cyclones in the Bay of Bengal
(3) 26.25 (4) 27 (4) Rains in the Himalayan region

EBD_7396
65. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer 69. The length of Broad Gauge is –
using the codes given below : (1) 1.00 metre (2) 0.762 metre
Column I Column II (3) 2 metre (4) 1.675 metre
(A) Kharif crop (p) Cucumber 70. On the basis of following features, identify the correct
option–
(B) Rabi crop (q) Tobacco
I. The FCL was set up in 1961.
(C) Zayad crop (r) Sugarcane
II. It is related to petro-chemicals.
(D) Cash crop (s) Barley
III. Naptha is used as basic raw material.
(1) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s
IV. Sindri, Nangal, Trombay, Durgapur, Kota are famous
(2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r
for this industry
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s (1) Pharmaceuticals (2) Cement
(4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r (2) Aluminium smelting (4) Fertilizers
66. Consider the following statements – 71. The two volcanic islands in the Indian territory are –
(a) Alluvial soil are formed by sediments deposited by rivers (1) Kavaratti and New Moor
and waves
(2) Bitra and Kavaratti
(b) Black soil is found in the dry and Sami- day areas of (3) Pamban and Barren
Rajasthan and Gujarat.
(4) Norcondam and Barren
(c) Red soil cannot retain much moisture.
(d) Laterite soil is found over lava deposits in the Deccan. using the codes given below :
Which of the above statements are correct? Column I Column II
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c) (A) Kanha National Park (p) Kerala
(3) (b) and (d) (4) None of them (B) Periyar Game (q) Arunachal Pradesh
67. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer Sanctuary
using the codes given below : (C) Dachigam Sanctuary (r) Madhya Pradesh
Column I (Industries) Column II (Raw material) (D) Namdapha National (s) Kashmir
(A) Paper Industry (p) Fibres Park
(B) Cement Industry (q) Sugarcane (1) (A) q, B r, (C) p, (D) s
(C) Sugar Industry (r) Wood pulp (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
(D) Textile Industry (s) Limestone (3) (A) p, (B) s, (C) r, (D) q
(1) (A) r, (B) s, (C) r, D p (4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(2) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q 73. What is the other name of the cardamom Hills ?
(3) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s (1) Palni Hills (2) Nilgiri Hills
(4) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r (3) Yelagiri Hills (4) Annamalai Hills
74. What made countries like Japan rich/developed?
68. Which of the following state is not connected with HVJ
(1) Scientific inventions and discoveries
pipeline?
(2) Efficiency and technology evolved by people
(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Raw materials and Natural resources
(3) Haryana (4) Gujarat (4) None of them

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-51
75. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer (1) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
using the codes given below : (2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
Column I Column II (3) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(A) Reign of Terror (p) Three demands of Lenin
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, D r
(B) April Theses (q) Suffering endured by Jews
80. Consider the following statements –
(C) November Criminals (r) Maximilian Robespierre
(a) Unlike an ordinary labourer who works on the fixed
(D) Holocaust (s) Supporters of the Weimar
wages and free to work, an indentured labourer is bound
Republic
to the employer by contract.
(1) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
(b) In 19th century, the concept of indentured labour was
(2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
introduced as a system of slavery.
(3) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(c) Most Indian indentured labourers came from regions
(4) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
where unemployment was high
76. Assertion (A) : Count camillo cavour was an Italian political
leader who founded Italian liberal party. (d) A indentured or bounded labourer always worked
willingly and recruited by the agents.
Reason (R) : With the growth of revolutionary nationalism,
ideas of ‘a lopartie’ and ‘la utoyen’ introduced. Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. (3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
(3) A is true and R is false 81. What was the main reason for breaking down the network of
(4) A is false and R is true foreign trade of the Indian merchants in the 18th century?
77. Which of the following is not true about the idea of ‘civilising (1) The mutual conflict of the Indian rulers.
mission ?
(2) The coming of the European companies
(1) It brought modern civilization to the Vietnamese.
(3) Continuous faminies in India
(2) It destroyed local cultures.
(3) It educated the native religions and traditions. (4) The foreign competition
(4) It taught the natives how to govern themselves. 82. What does MCC stand for ?
78. Over 80,000 tigers, 150,000 leopards and 200,000 wolves were (1) The Marylebone Cricket Club
killed for reward in the period – (2) The Marylebone Cricket Corporation
(1) 1815 – 1920 (2) 1885 – 1995
(3) The Marylebone Commercial Club
(3) 1805 – 1923 (4) 1875 – 1925
(4) The Marylebone Cricket Committee
using the codes given below : 83. The Human Development Report ranks countries on the
following basis:
Column I Column II
(i) Income (ii) Health
(A) Banjaras (p) Karnataka
(B) Raikas (q) Maharashtra (iii) Education (iv) Technology
(C) Gollas (r) Uttar Pradesh (1) Only (ii) and (iii) (2) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) Dhangars (s) Rajasthan (3) All (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) None of them

EBD_7396
84. Consider the following statements – (1) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p
(a) Women writer wrote about their emotions, identities (2) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
the experiences and problems.
(3) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(b) The novels showed how people dressed their forms of
worship, beliefs and practices. (4) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(c) Use of print technology circulated libraries, innovations 90. Assertion (A) : Leaders of freedom struggle had an open
in marketing and serialisation increased affordability. mind about whether the country should be democratic or
(d) The novels created a feeling of connection with the not after independence.
fate of rural communities.
Reason (R) : Members of the Constituent Assembly of India
Which of the above statements are correct ?
held the same views on all provisions of the constitution.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) None of them (4) All of them (1) A and R are correct and R explains A.
85. First weekly paper published in India was – (2) A and R are correct but R does not explains A.
(1) Bengal Gazette (2) Samachar Chandrika (3) A is true but R is false.
(3) Bombay Samachar (4) Shamsul Akhbar (4) A is false but R is true.
86. On the basis of following features identify the correct
91. Consider the following statements –
option–
I. These are areas set aside as protected areas for the (a) Some election laws have been made to ensure that
preservation of flora, fauna and wildlife every political party and candidates get a fair and equal
II. Rare and endangered species are often kept here. chance to compete.
III. The main purpose of these reserves is to preserve (b) According to codes of conduct of election campaign,
nature. any parties or candidate can use any place for of
IV. It provides opportunity to study and research the worship for election propaganda.
sheltered animals.
(c) People who are eligible to vote can go to electoral office
(1) National parks (2) Nature reserves
to vote.
(3) Wildlife Sanctuary (4) Forests
87. What type of agriculture is slash-and-burn? (d) Elections are conducted by Election Commission.
(1) Plantation (2) Nomadic herding Which of the above statements are correct ?
(3) Shifting agriculture (4) Dairy farming (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (d)
88. The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is – (3) (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Nationalist Congress Party
92. There is a third type of government apart from central and
(2) Communist Party of India
state government in Belgium –
(3) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(1) Local government
(4) Bahujan Samaj Party
89. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer (2) Provincial government
using the codes given below : (3) Community government
Column I (Country) Column II (Path to Democrary) (4) Regional government
(A) Chile (p) Freedom from Britishers 93. National Alliance for people’s movement (NAPM) is –
(B) Nepal (q) End of military (1) an organisation of organizations
dictatorship
(2) an environmental movement
(C) Poland (r) End of one party rule
(D) Ghana (s) King agreed to give up his (3) a political party
powers (4) a public interest group

EBD_7085
Mock Test-2 MT-53
94. What are the functions of RBI? 98. Consider the following statements –
(1) Supervises the formal sources of loan (a) Communalism Means to distinguish people on the basis
of religion.
(2) Monitors whether banks actually maintain the cash
(b) Poverty in India is a great challenge to the successful
balance or not
working of democracy.
(3) Ensures that the banks give loan not just to profit (c) Casteism plays important role in the development of
making businesses and traders but also to small scale Indian democracy.
industries and borrowers too. (d) Social and economic inequality is an important factor
(4) All of them for the successful working of democracy.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
95. Which country has not adopted Federalism?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(1) U.S.A. (2) China
(3) (c) and (d) (4) None of the above
(3) India (4) Brazil 99. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer
96. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
using the codes given below : Column I Column II
Column I Column II (A) Availing details of (p) Right to safety
(A) Congress party (p) National Democratic ingredients of a product
Alliance (B) Accident due to faulty (q) Right to information
engine in scooter
(B) Bhartiya Janta Party (q) State Party
(C) Filing a case in Consumer (r) Right to redressal
(C) Communist Party (r) United Progressive Court
of India Alliance (D) Choosing the best product (s) Right to choice
(D) Telugu Desam Party (s) Left Front (1) (A) q, (B) p, (C) r, (D) s
(2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s
(1) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(3) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p
(2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
(4) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q 100. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(4) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q (1) Equality before law – Guaranteed to citizens & non
97. Which of the following states has the lowest literacy rate in citizens
India? (2) Altering the name of the state – Power of a state
legislatures
(1) Punjab (2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Creating a new state – Power of parliament
(3) Bihar (4) Maharashtra (4) Equality of opportunity in Public employment –
Guaranteed only to Indian citizens

EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MT-55
ANSWER SHEET
City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 35. 68.
2. 36. 69.
3. 37. 70.
4. 38. 71.
5. 39. 72.
6. 40. 73.
7. 41. 74.
8. 42. 75.
9. 43. 76.
10.
44. 77.
11.
45. 78.
12.
46. 79.
13.
47. 80.
14.
48. 81.
15.
49. 82.
16.
50. 83.
17.
51. 84.
18.
52. 85.
19.
53. 86.
20.
54. 87.
21.
55. 88.
22.
23. 56. 89.
24. 57. 90.

25. 58. 91.
26. 59. 92.
27. 60. 93.
28. 61. 94.
29. 62. 95.
30. 63. 96.
31. 64. 97.
32. 65. 98.
33. 66. 99.
34. 67. 100.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 3


1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
MT 58
MT--58 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-59
DIRECTIONS (Qs.1 and 2) : In each of these questions select 6. Consider the mirror held at AB and then choose the correct
the figure which is different from the rest four : mirror image of given figure
1.
A B
A B C D E
(1) A (2) B
(1) (2)
(3) C (4) D
2.
(3) (4)
A B C D E
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D DIRECTIONS (Qs.7 and 8) : Read the following statements
3. If + means 'Multiplication', × means 'minus,' – means carefully and answer question that follow.
A is the father of C, but C is not his son
(36 4) 8 4
'division' and ÷ means 'plus', then is E is the daughter of C. F is the wife of A
4 8 2 16 1
B is the brother of C. D is the son of B
(1) 1 (2) 0 G is the wife of B. H is the father of G
13 7. Who is the grand mother of D ?
(3) (4) None of these (1) H (2) A
5
(3) C (4) F
4. At my house I am facing East. Then I turn left and go 10 m,
8. Who is the son of F?
then I turned right and go 5 m. Then I go 5 m to the South
(1) B (2) C
and from there 5 m to the West. In which direction am I
from my house ? (3) E (4) D
(1) North (2) South DIRECTIONS (Q.9) : This question is based on letter series
from which some of the letters are missing. The missing letters
( 3) East (4) West
are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find
5. In a certain code TRIPOLI is written as SSHQNMH. Write the correct alternative :
the word SICILY in the same code
9. __ b __ abb __ __ bab __ __ bba
(1) SJHQKZX (2) RHJCZP (1) bababa (2) ababba
(3) RJBJKZ (4) TJDJMZ (3) bbbaaa (4) ababab

EBD_7396
10. Find out from the options, the figure that can fit into the 13. In this question, the series of diagrams consists of figure
empty space to complete the pattern: in a particular sequence. You will find a diagram which
should come in the blank square (E).
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
A B
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
C D
11. Find the relationship / analogy in the first set. Based on
same analogy, find the suitable figure from options (1) to
(4), to fit in the blank space : 14. Ram is richer than Shyam but not so rich as Sohan but
poorer than Ramesh, then shyam is
• •• •
•
(1) poorer than Ramesh
• ••
(2) richer than Sohan
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(3) as poor as Sohan
(4) richer than Ramesh
(1) (2) 15. A is the sister of B but B is not the sister of of A. What is
the relation between A and B ?
(1) sister and brother (2) brother and brother
(3) (4) (3) sister and sister (4) none of the above
16. I bought a number of books one day, four times of them
on the next day, and eight times on the third day. In all I
12. If > denotes +, < denotes –, + denotes ÷, ^ denotes ×, –
bought 78 books. How many books did I buy the second
denotes =, × denotes >, = denotes <.
day ?
Which one of the statement is correct ?
(1) 6 + 3 > 8 = 4 + 2 < 1 (2) 4 > 6 + 2 × 32 + 4 < 1 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 8 < 4 + 2 = 6 > 3 (4) 14 + 7 > 3 = 6 + 3 > 2 (3) 16 (4) 24

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-61
17. In this question, which of the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and DIRECTIONS (Qs.20 and 21) : In these questions, first two
(4) will exactly make up the key figure given : figures given to the left of (: :) are related in some way. The same
relationship holds between the third figure to the right of the
sign (: :) and one of the options (1), (2), (3) and (4). Identify that
figure.
20. : :: : ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
21. : :: : ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
18. Five books are lying in a pile, E is lying on A and C is lying (3) (4)
under B. A is lying above B and D is lying under C. Which
book is lying at the bottom ? 22. If 43572 stands for WORLD, then 7352 stands for
(1) A (2) B (1) DOLR (2) ROLD
(3) C (4) D (3) LORD (4) OLRD
19. When the given figure is rotated one step anticlockwise,
which of the options (1), (2), (3) and (4) will represent the
figure in the rotated form ? DIRECTIONS (Qs.23 and 24) : Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and — Give answer
(1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient
to answer the question.
(1) (2) (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient
to answer the question.
(3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone
is sufficient to answer the question.
(3) (4) (4) if the data in both the statements I and II together is
necessary to answer the question.

EBD_7396
23. A, B, C and D made their project presentation, one on each DIRECTIONS (Q.27) : A part of the figure is missing. Find out
day, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that from the given options (1, 2, 3 and 4) the right figure to fit in
order. On which day did ‘C’ make his presentation? the missing place.
I. The first presentations was made on 23rd,Tuesday and

was followed by ‘D’s presentation.
II. 'A’ did not make his presentation on 25th and one of
them made his presentation, between A’s and B’s. 27.
24. Which village is to the North-East of village A’?
I. Village ‘B’ is to the North of village A’, and village `C’
and `D’ are to the East and West of village `B’,
respectively.
II. Village ‘P’ is to the South of village ‘A’, and village ‘E’ (1) (2)
is to the East of village ‘P’, village ‘K’ is to the North of
village ‘P’.
DIRECTIONS (Qs.25 and 26) : In these questions, two
statements are followed by two conclusions numbered 1 and 2. (3) (4)
You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they
seem to be absurd.
25. Statements (i) All beautiful girls are foolish. DIRECTIONS (Qs.28 to 30) : In these questions, you are given
(ii) No foolish girls are smart. some letters which follow same pattern. Under each series, there
Conclusion 1. No girl is smart. are four choices, marked (1) to (4). Find the answer that can replace
2. No beautiful persons are smart. the question mark in the letter series :
Give your answer as 28. MPKRIT?

(1) U (2) V
(1) Only 1 follows
(3) W (4) G
(2) Only 2 follows
29. LQTYBG?
(3) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(1) H (2) J
(4) Both 1 and 2 follows
(3) R (4) J
26. Statements (i) Some shirts are socks.
30. WT PMIFB?
(ii) No sock is red.
(1) W (2) P
Conclusion 1. Some socks are shirts.
(3) F (4) Y
2. No shirt is red.
Give your answer as DIRECTIONS (Q.31) : A set of three figures A, B and C showing
(1) Only 1 follows a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (C) shows the
(2) Only 2 follows manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures
(3) Neither 1 nor 2 follows are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose
(4) Both 1 and 2 follows a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of
fig. (C).

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-63
37. 5 9 16 29 54 103 ?
31. (1) 102 (2) 94
(3) 103 (4) 200
(A) (B) (C)
22 18
(1) (2) (3) (4) 38.

36 44 22 11
32. If '+' means '×', '–' means '÷', '÷' means '+', and '×' means
'–' then what will be the value of 20 ÷ 40 – 4 × 5 + 6
(1) 60 (2) 1.67
(3) 150 (4) 0 ?
DIRECTIONS (Qs.33 and 34) : In these questions, there is a 44 72

series of letters/group of letters in accordance with a pattern.
Discover the pattern involved, and select the correct answer from
the choices given. (1) 44 (2) 55
33. AD EH IL __ __ QT UX (3) 80 (4) 88
(1) BY (2) VB
(3) CW (4) MP
39.
34. AM EI BN FJ CO GK DP __ __ 19 25 32
(1) PQ (2) QR ?
14
(3) QT (4) HL
10 49
35. This question is based on letter sequences. Find the
correct answer : 7
mm qq __ __ bb ii
(1) Vv (2) vv
(1) 36 (2) 40
(3) ST (4) pp
(3) 45 (4) 42
DIRECTIONS (Qs.36 to 39) : Select from the choices given under 40. The time on the watch is quarter to three. If the minute
each series, an appropriate number to replace the question mark hand points of North-East, in which direction does the
and continue the pattern being followed by other numbers in the hour hand point ?
series :
(1) North-West (2) South-West
36. 10, 18, 34, ?, 130, 258
(1) 32 (2) 60 (3) South-East (4) North-East
(3) 68 (4) 66

EBD_7396
DIRECTIONS (Q.41) : A part of the figure is missing. Find out DIRECTIONS (Q.46) : A passage is given and an inference is
from the given options (1, 2, 3 and 4) the right figure to fit in the also given which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage.
missing place. You have to examine the inference in the context of the passage
and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
46. In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest
41. sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the
country’s economic development by providing food to its
people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the
largest share to the national income. The share of the
various agricultural commodities, animal busbandry and
ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent since
independence. During the decade of the fifties, it actually
contributed about half of the national output.
Inference : Agriculture is the only source of national income
(1) (2)
in India.
Mark answer.
(1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly
(3) (4) follows from the statement of facts given.
(2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not
42. If rat is called dog, dog is called mongoose, mongoose, ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
mongoose is called lion, lion is called snake and snake is (3) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not
called elephant, which is reared as pet? ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(1) Rat (2) Dog
(4) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it cannot
(3) Mongoose (4) Lion
possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts
43. Letters in following question are in a specific pattern. Fill
the given facts.
in the missing letters to complete the series :
ba __ ba__ b a a b __ __ 47. This question contains a set of three figures X, Y and Z
(1) baba (2) aaaa showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (Z)
(3) bbbb (4) baab shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut.
44. If 6 × 3 = 20 and 9 × 5 = 47, then 24 × 3 =? These three figures are followed by four answer figures
(1) 45 (2) 27 from which you have to choose a figure which would most
(3) 74 (4) 80 closely resemble the unfolded form of fig. (Z).
45. In a certain code language 'po ki top ma' means 'Usha is
playing cards'; 'kop ja ki ma' means 'Asha is playing tennis';
'ki top sop ho' means 'they are playing football'; and 'po
sur kop' means 'cards and tenni Which word in that
language means 'Asha'?
(1) ja (2) ma
(3) kop (4) top X Y Z

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-65
49. Find out which number stands for AB in the following

operation :
(1) (2) A B
+ 7 2
9 6
(1) 12 (2) 22
(3) 24 (4) 28
(3) (4)
50. In the following quesiton, find out which of the alternatives
will exactly make up the key figure
48. Sachin goes 30 m north, then turns right and walks 40 m,

then again turns right and walks 20m, then again turns
right and walks 40 m. How many metres is he from the
starting point?
X
(1) 0 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 40
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

EBD_7396
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-8) : Read the following passage and answer 3. War can be stopped if,
the questions given after it. (1) weapons invented by science are not used to launch a
The greatest enemy of mankind, as people have discovered is not war
science, but war. Science merely reflects the social forces by which (2) science is restricted to be utilised only during war time
it is surrounded. It is found that when there is peace, science is (3) science is not allowed to lead us to utter destruction
constructive, when there is war, and science is perverted to (4) we replace force and lawlessness by law and
destructive ends. The weapons which science gives us do not international government
necessarily create war; these make war increasingly more terrible. 4. According to the writer, the main problem we are faced with,
Until now it has brought us to the doorstep of doom. Our main is to
problem, therefore, is not to curb science, but to stop war to (1) prevent scientists from participating in destructive
substitute law for force and international government for anarchy activities
in the relations of one nation with another. That is a job in which (2) abolish war
everybody must participate, including the scientists. But the bomb (3) stop scientific activities everywhere
of Hiroshima suddenly woke us up to the fact that we have very (4) stop science from reflecting social forces
little time. The hour is late and our work has scarcely begun. Now 5. The expression," bring to the doorstep of doom "means
we are face to face with this urgent question, "Can education and (1) lead to the threshold of a new destiny
tolerance, understanding and creative intelligence run fast enough (2) introduce to an unpredictable destiny
to keep us abreast with our own mounting capacity to destroy?" (3) carry close to death and destruction
That is the question which we shall have to answer one way or
(4) induct in a ruinous activity
the other in this generation. Science must help us in the answer,
6. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word
but the main decision lies within ourselves.
'anarchy' as used in the passage?
1. An appropriate title for the passage would be (1) law and order
(1) science and the new generation (2) economic prosperity
(2) science and social forces (3) political dominance
(3) science and the horrors of war (4) communal harmony
(4) science and world peace 7. The phrase 'our work has scarcely begun' implies that our
work
2. According to the author, the real enemy of mankind is not
(1) has not yet begun
science but war, because
(2) has begun but not yet completed
(1) science during wars is so destructive
(3) has only just begun
(2) science merely invents the weapons with which war is (4) has been half through
fought 8. The expression 'keep us abreast' in the passage means
(3) the weapons that science invents necessarily lead to (1) prevent from escaping
war (2) hold out a challenge
(4) the weapons invented by science do not cause war, (3) keep at a side
though these make it more destructive (4) keep side by side

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-67
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-12) : Read the following passage and answer The first day out we met our first rhino, two of them, and I had the
the questions given after it. fright of my life. The pair had got our scene before we spotted
Worship does not consist in fasts and prayers but in the offering them, and being bad tempered beasts, they rushed towards where
of a pure contrite heart. The musk is in the deer but it thinks that they thought we were. Now it just happened that we were about
the fragrance comes from outside and so hunts for it restlessly. fifty yards to one side of where they expected to find us – which
God is in us and we have only to turn within to realise the truth. was just as well, far I must say I did not like that look. As they
There is a Sanskrit verse which says that the thoughtless man thundered past, we crouched low and let them go. It did not strike
dives deep into lakes, penetrates into jungles, ascends steep hills me as a good opportunity for rhino photography. Anyhow I was
in search of flowers for the worship of God, while the one lotus he much too frightened to have been able to hold the camera steady.
can offer is his own mind. Man must make himself a living sacrifice. 13. From the above passage it appears that rhinos
We cannot offer anything unclean or impure to God. The temple (1) run away when they see human beings
of God is holy, which temple you are? Out of the confusion around (2) rush to attack when they smell human scent
us we have to devise a destiny and make it manifest through all (3) hide under the bushes at the sight of human beings
the twists and turns of life. Otherwise life becomes a meaningless
(4) stand still if they are not attacked
succession of irrelevant episodes unconnected with any specific
14. when the author saw a rhino for the first time , he was
purpose, springing from nothing and returning to nothing.
(1) excited (2) frightened
9. What does worship consist in?
(3) charmed (4) surprised
(1) rigorous fasts and prayers
15. The author could not take the photograph of the rhinos
(2) long and fatiguing pilgrimages
because
(3) offering of a penitent heart
(1) he was too far away from the rhinos
(4) climbing mountains barefooted
(2) he was not carrying a good camera
10. Which of the following thoughts are not said by the Sanskrit
(3) it did not occur to him that he had a chance to do so
verse?
(4) he did not like the look of rhinos
(1) man must make a human sacrifice to fulfil his dreams
(2) the thoughtless man dives deep into lakes
(3) ascends steep hills in search of flowers for the worship
from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given.
of God
Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should
(4) the one lotus he can offer is his own mind
11. How can we make our life meaningful?
16. S1. We had in our village
(1) by succession of irrelevant episodes
S2.______________________________
(2) being independent with any specific purpose
S3.______________________________
(3) striving through the path lead by our ancestors
S4.______________________________
(4) devise a destiny and make it manifest through it
S5. near the river and throw stones into the water.
12. Find out the antonym of the word 'contrite'
P. whom I well remember who from
(1) remorseful (2) unrepentant
Q. morning till night would sit on a stone
(3) apologetic (4) penitent
R. some thirty years ago a stupid boy
Choose from the options given below.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15) : Read the following passage and
(1) QPR (2) QRP
answer the questions given after it.
(3) RPQ (4) PRQ

EBD_7396
17. S1. Nelson, when he lay dying 22. The fans were ________ when their team lost its seventh
S2.________________________________ game in a row.
S3.________________________________ (1) irascible (2) despondent
S4.________________________________ (3) lucid (4) didactic
S5. every man to do his duty." 23. Mr. Singh ________ his son for breaking the window- pane.
P. was heard to say (1) coerced (2) relegated
Q. "I have done my duty", (3) expropriated (4) chastised
R. "England expects 24. If you do not ________, all your monthly expenses would
Choose from the given options below. exceed your income.
(1) QPR (2) PRQ (1) economise (2) spend
(3) RQP (4) PQR (3) save (4) splurge
25. The magician .............. the rabbit into a pigeon.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 & 19) : Following questions have the (1) transformed (2) transfigured
second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from (3) converted (4) made
the given options to complete it.
26. The cost of this operation has .............. our small store of
18. A. A good paragraph is money.
B. _____________________________________
(1) destroyed (2) damaged
C. suitable title can always be given.
(3) depleted (4) affected
(1) a short poem in itself to which a
27. Language, culture and personality may be considered
(2) a short drama in itself to which a independently of each other in thought, but they are
(3) a short novel in itself to which a ________ in fact.
(4) a short essay in itself to which a (1) equivocal (2) pervasive
19. A. No victory is a real triumph (3) inseparable (4) autonomous
B. _____________________________________ 28. The orator was so soporific that the audience became
C. worthy of the steel.
(1) elated (2) drowsy
(1) unless the fire is (2) unless the foe is
(3) affable (4) riotous
(3) unless the food is (4) unless the friend is
29. The columnist was very gentle when he mentioned his
friends, but he was bitter and even ________when he
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-29) : Choose the word which best fills the
discussed people who irritated him.
blank from the four options given.
(1) acerbic (2) remorseful
20. Seeing the pictures of our old home made me feel ________
(3) stoical (4) laconic
and nostalgic.
(1) fastidious (2) conciliatory
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-35) : Select the meaning of the given
(3) indignant (4) wistful
phrases/idioms.
21. The scholar was so .............. in his field that many of our
professors became nervous in his presence. 30. Wear one’s heart on one’s sleeve
(1) eminent (2) pathological (1) Lure passionately (2) Do the right thing
(3) petulant (4) amiable (3) Show one’s feelings (4) Be intimate

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-69
31. To miss the boat 38. (1) over (2) in

(1) to miss an opportunity (2) to feel lonely (3) against (4) to
(3) to act like a coward (4) to swim in a river 39. (1) is (2) was
32. Blue blood (3) had (4) has
40. (1) with (2) by
(1) something impossible (2) an aristocrat
(3) in (4) of
(3) something costly (4) a funny object
41. (1) listen (2) get
33. At one’s wit’s end
(3) understood (4) understand
(1) to be very witty
42. (1) know (2) knows
(2) to confuse others
(3) knew (4) known
(3) to be completely confused 43. (1) going (2) gone
(4) to minimise expenses (3) goes (4) went
34. To eat an humble pie
(1) to eat cheap food DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44-47) : Select the most appropriate option
(2) to eat slowly to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.
(3) to swallow one’s pride and apologise for doing 44. My sister ___ as a air-hostess.
something wrong (1) work (2) is work
(4) to defy authority (3) working (4) works
35. A snake in the grass 45. I ____ to a great radio show on the way to work.
(1) have listening (2) was listening
(1) a very poisonous snake
(3) to listening (4) listening
(2) a secret agent
46. She ___ living here for 2 years.
(3) an unrecognisable enemy or danger
(1) has been (2) are
(4) not a reliable person
(3) have been (4) has
47. Do you still ___ to the tennis club?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-43) : In the following passage there are (1) belonging (2) are belong
some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most (3) belongs (4) belong
appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
I want to avoid violence. Non-violence (36) the first article of my DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48-50) : Select the word which means the
faith. It is also the (37) article of my creed. But I had to make my opposite of the given word
choice. I had either to submit (38) a system which I considered 48. SCARCITY
(39) done irreparable harm to my country, or incur the risk of the (1) Plenty (2) Prosperity
mad fury (40) my people bursting forth, when they (41) the truth (3) Facility (4) Simplicity
from my lips. I (42) that my people have sometimes (43) mad. I am 49. ELEGANCE
deeply sorry for it. (1) Balance (2) Indelicacy
36. (1) was (2) be (3) Clumsiness (4) Savagery
(3) is (4) being 50. COARSE
37. (1) last (2) common (1) Pleasing (2) Rude
(3) simple (4) unique (3) Polished (4) Soft

EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MT-71
ANSWER SHEET

City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26.
43.
10. 27.
44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
17. 34. 50.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26. 43.
10. 27. 44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
50.
17. 34.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
3


1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
MT 74

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-75
1. Why should be germinating seeds be kept moist during (1) A - (t); B - (s); C - (q); D - (r); E - (p)
respiration experiment?
(2) A - (s); B - (t); C - (q); D - (p); E - (r)
(1) Germinating seeds require moisture for growth.
(3) A - (s); B - (t); C - (q); D - (r); E - (p)
(2) In absence of moisture seeds will dry up and rate of
(4) A - (s); B - (q); C - (t); D - (r); E - (p)
respiration decline significantly.
5. A cell will swell up if
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) the concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher
(4) None of these
than the concentration of water molecules in
2. On the basis of following features identify correct option. surrounding medium.
I. They obtain inorganic nutrients from outside. (2) the concentration of water molecules in surrounding
II. They constitute the first trophic level. medium is higher than water molecules concentration
in the cell.
III. They release oxygen during manufacture of food.
(3) the concentration of water molecules is same in the cell
(1) Producers (2) Consumers and in the surrounding medium.
(3) Parasites (4) Decomposers (4) concentration of water molecules does not matter.
3. Consider the following statements: 6. Which type of waste is represented by following figure?
(a) Light soil has good water retention capacity.
(b) A common method of introduction of desired trait in a
crop plant is hybridisation.
(c) Mullets are marine fish farmed in sea water. Z
Lead batteries Paint
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) None of these
using the codes given below:
Column I Column II
(A) Aspergillus, Penicillium (p) Gymnosperms
and Agaricus Plastic bag Aluminium container
(B) Ulothrix, Cladophora (q) Bryophytes
(1) Non-biodegradable (2) Bio-degradable
and Chara
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(C) Riccia, Marchantia (r) Pteridophytes
and Funaria
(a) High blood pressure is an infectious disease.
(D) Marsilea, ferns and (s) Fungi
(b) Penicillin is effective against bacteria because it
horse-tails inhibits their wall formation.
(E) Pinus, Cycas and Gingko (t) Algae (c) AIDS spreads, through sex, blood to blood contact
and from mother to child.

EBD_7396
Which of the above statements(s) is/are correct? 10. Consider the following statements:
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (a) Tuberculosis, commonly called T.B., is a viral disease
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) None of these common among poor people living in ill-ventilated
8. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer congested societies in big cities.
using the codes given below: (b) Vaccination is a technique to develop immunity in
Column I Column II individuals by giving them antibiotics.
(A) Father of genetics (p) Palaeontology (c) The immune system is involved in protecting the body
(B) Dihybrid cross (q) Gregor Mendel from disease and the recognition of self.
(C) Study of fossils (r) 9:3:3:1 Which of the above statement is correct?
(D) Nictitating membrane (s) Analogous organs (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
ear muscles and (3) Only (c) (4) None of these
vermiform appendix 11. Which of the following would stop evolution by natural
selection from occurring?
(E) Wings of insects, bat (t) Vestigial organs
(1) If humans became extinct because of a disease epidemic.
and bird
(2) If a thermonuclear war killed most living organisms and
(1) A - (q); B - (r); C - (p); D - (t); E - (s)
changed the environment drastically.
(2) A - (r); B - (q); C - (p); D - (t); E - (s)
(3) If ozone depletion led to increased ultraviolet radiation,
(3) A - (r); B - (q); C - (p); D - (s); E - (t) which caused many new mutations.
(4) A - (r); B - (p); C - (q); D - (s); E - (t) (4) If all individuals in a population were genetically
9. Two of the following ‘4’ figures that illustrate budding are: identical, and there was no genetic recombination, sexual
reproduction, or mutation.
12. Find out the height of hybrid tall plant (Tt).
Pure Pure
Tall plant Dwarf plant
Height tt Height
Parent TT
= 15 cm = 5 cm
(i) (ii)
Gamete T t
F1 generation Tt Height = ?
(iii) (iv) Hybrid tall
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) (1) 15 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) (i), (iv) (4) (i), (iii) (3) 5 cm (4) Can’t say

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-77
13. Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. and added 40 ml of water (2 test-tubes). He took 10 ml of new
Pick those that correctly describe the concept of biodiversity solution and added 40 ml of more water. He kept on diluting
(a) Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and (adding water) like this 5 to 6 times and labelled the solutions
fauna present in an area. as I, II, III, IV, V, VI. Which of the following is correct on the
(b) Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area. basis of experiment?
(c) Biodiversity is greater in a forest. (1) The colour of solution is green.
(d) Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of (2) The order of darkness of purple coloured solutions is
a particular species living in an area. I > II > III > IV > V > VI
Which of the above statements are correct? (3) The darkness of purple coloured solutions is
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (d) I < II < III < IV < V < VI
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c) (4) One crystal of KMnO4 has one tiny particle.
14. Consider the following statements: 17. Consider the following statements:
(a) Sudden action in response to something in the (a) In extraction of Fe, SiO2 is flux
environment is called reflex action. (b) Tin is purified by liquation.
(b) Sensory neurons carry signals from spinal cord to (c) Bauxite is purified by chemical separation.
muscles.
(d) Silver turns black due to formation of Ag2O.
(c) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to spinal
cord.
(1) Only (d) (2) Only (a)
(d) The path through which signals are transmitted from a
receptor to a muscle or a gland is called reflex arc. (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
Which of the above statements are correct? 18. On the basis of following features identify the correct option.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c) I. This element exist in gaseous state at room temperature.
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c) II. This element has germicidal properties.
15. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer III. This element has 7 electrons in valence shell.
using the codes given below: (1) Iodine (2) Chlorine
Column I Column II (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(A) Ester (p) Allotropy 19. A test-tube contains a colourless solution of potassium
(B) Ethanol (q) Sodium salt of higher iodide. The presence of iodine can be tested by:
fatty acid (1) adding a few drops of blue litmus solution.
(C) Soap (r) Used in anti-freeze (2) adding a few drops of copper sulphate solution.
solutions (3) passing carbon dioxide gas through the solution.
(D) Carbon (s) Sweet smelling (4) passing chlorine gas through the solution.
(1) A (s), B (r), C (p), D (q) 20. A student tested the pH of distilled water and found that the
(2) A (s), B (q), C (r), D (p) colour of pH paper changed to green. He checked the pH
(3) A (r), B (s), C (q), D (p) again after dissolving a pinch of common salt in water. The
(4) A (s), B (r), C (q), D (p) colour of the pH paper this time was:
16. Ram took 2-3 crystals of KMnO4 and dissolved them in 50 (1) green (2) yellow
ml of water. He took 10 ml of this solution (half test-tube) (3) red (4) blue

EBD_7396
21. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer Which of the above statements is correct?
using the codes given below: (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
Column I Column II (3) Only (c) (4) Only (d)
14 13 25. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are two elements which form X2Y3 and X3Y4.
(A) 6 C and 6 C (p) Different number
If 0.2 mol of X2Y3 weighs 32 g and 0.4 mol of X3Y4 weighs
of neutrons 92.8 g, the atomic weights of X and Y respectively are
(B) 40 40
(q) Different number of (1) 16, 56 (2) 16, 16
20 C and 18 Ar
(3) 56, 16 (4) 56, 56
protons and
26. The sulphide ore among the following is:
neutrons
(1) Haematite (2) Bauxite
(C) K (19) (r) Non-metal
(3) Rock salt (4) Zinc blende
(D) Chlorine (17) (s) Metal
(1) A – (p); B - (q); C - (r); D - (s)
(a) Structural formula of 2-butyne contains one triple bond
(2) A – (q); B - (p); C - (s); D - (r)
and 4 single bonds between carbon atoms.
(3) A – (p); B - (q); C - (s); D - (r)
(b) Both alcohol and carboxylic acids react with sodium
(4) A – (p); B - (s); C - (q); D - (r) metal and give H2 with effervescence.
22. Two chemical species X and Y combine together to form a (c) Esters are used in making perfumes and flavouring
product P which contains both X and Y agents.
X+Y P (d) Ethyl alcohol is obtained by the fermentation of
X and Y cannot be broken down into simpler substances by molasses with enzymes in the absence of air.
simple chemical reactions. Which of the following Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
concerning the species X, Y and P are correct? (1) Only (c) (2) (c) and (d)
(i) P is a compound (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(ii) X and Y are compounds 28. If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of
(iii) X and Y are elements time, then the object moves with
(iv) P has a fixed composition (1) uniform velocity
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) uniform acceleration
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) (3) increasing acceleration
23. Which of the following statements is not correct? (4) decreasing acceleration
(1) All metal carbonates react with acid to give a salt, water
and carbon dioxide.
Column I Column II
(2) All metal oxides react with water to give salt and acid
(A) F = constant 0 (p) Directional change
(3) Some metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen.
(B) F = 0 (q) Variable acceleration
(4) Some non-metal oxides react with water to form an acid.
(C) F constant (r) No change in momentum
(D) F 0 (s) If a body moves uniformly
(a) Green crystals of ferrous sulphate become dirty white
along a circle
upon strong heating.
(1) A - (p); B - (s); C - (q), D - (r)
(b) The chemical formula of aluminium phosphate is
Al(PO4)3. (2) A - (q); B - (p); C - (r), D - (s)
(c) Silver salts are mostly sensitive to light. (3) A - (p); B - (r); C - (q), D - (s)
(d) The gas released in respiration is oxygen. (4) A - (s); B - (q); C - (p), D - (r)

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-79
30. Consider the following statements : 35. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(a) Gravitational force is always attractive in nature. using the codes given below:
(b) Gravitational force is always on the line joining two Column I Column II
masses. (A) Myopia (p) The power of accomodation
(c) Gravitational force is always in dependent of other of the eye decreases with
masses in the surroundings.
ageing
(d) Gravitational force is always forms action-reaction pair.
(B) Hypermetropia (q) The focal length of the eye
lens is too long
(1) (a) and (b)
(C) Presbyopia (r) The focal length of the eye
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
lens is too small
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) Astigmatism (s) The eyes fail to distinguish
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
horizontal and vertical lines
31. A block of ice floats in water such that the temperature of
at the same distance
water as well as ice is 0°C. The weight of ice is equal to
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(1) weight of water displaced by the immersed part of ice
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(2) volume of water displaced by the immersed part of ice
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
(3) weight of water displaced by the complete block of ice
(4) None of these (4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
32. In which of the following situations, the work done by a 36. Consider the following statements :
force on a body will be positive. (a) Light bends from its path, when it goes from one medium
(1) body does not move to another medium.
(2) body moves perpendicular to the direction of applied (b) Speed of light changes, when it goes from one medium
force to another medium.
(3) body moves along the direction of applied force (c) Wavelength of light decreases, when it travels from air
to water.
(4) body moves opposite to the direction of applied force
(d) Wavelength of light in water
33. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Sound travels in a straight line. Wavelength of light in air
(2) Sound travels as a wave. Refractive index of water
(3) Sound is a form of energy. Which of the above statements are correct?
(4) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air. (1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
34. Out the following which statement is correct? (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(1) A pulse is of long duration 37. In an ammeter there are 19 additional marks between 0A to
(2) A pulse is a short and sudden disturbance 1A marks. The least count of the ammeter is
(3) Clapping of hands once produces a wave (1) 1/19 A (2) 1/20 A
(4) A pulse transports mass from one place to another (3) 1/21 A (4) 1A

EBD_7396
38. A student connects a coil of wire with a sensitive 44. The coefficient of x2 in (x2 – 1) (x2 + x – 6) is
galvanometer as shown in figure. He will observe the (1) 5 (2) –5
deflection in the galvanometer if bar magnet is
(3) 7 (4) –7
Axis of coil
45. If a point C lies between two points A and B such that
AC = BC, then AB is equal to
(1) 2AC (2) 3AC
G (3) 4AC (4) AC
(1) one of the faces of the coil placed near and parallel to 46. If the system of equations
the axis of the coil. 3x + y = 1
(2) placed near one of the faces of the coil and perpendicular (2k – 1)x + (k – 1)y = 2k + 1
to the axis of the coil.
is inconsistent, then k =
(3) placed inside the coil.
(1) 1 (2) –1
(4) moved towards or away from the coil parallel to the axis
(3) –2 (4) 2
of the coil.
47. The sum of first 24 terms of the sequence whose nth term is
39. The energy which is not derived from the sun is 2n
(1) fossil fuels (2) bio-mass given by an 3 , is
3
(3) geo-thermal energy (4) hydro-electricity (1) 278 (2) 272
40. On the basis of following features identify correct option: (3) 270 (4) 268
I. They are pollution free sources of energy. 48. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 4 : 9. Areas of
II. They are inexhaustible. these triangles are in the ratio of
(1) Conventional source of enrgy (1) 2 : 3 (2) 4: 9
(2) Non-conventional source of energy (3) 81 : 16 (4) 16 : 81
(3) Both (1) and (2)
1
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) 49. The ratio in which the point ,6 divides the line segment
2
41. The decimal expansion of is
joining the points ( 3,5) and ( –7,9) is
(1) terminating
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1: 3
(2) non-terminating and non-recurring
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2: 1
(3) non-terminating and recurring.
50. The angle of elevation of a vertical tower from a point A on
(4) does not exist
42. If d is the HCF of 45 and 27, then x, y satisfying d = 27x + 45y 5
the ground is such that its tangent is . On walking 192m
are 12
(1) x = 2, y = 1 (2) x = 2, y = –1 towards tower in the same straight line, the tangent of the
(3) x = –1, y = 2 (4) x = –1, y = –2 3
angle of elevation formed to be , The height of the tower
43. If sin 5 = cos 4 , where 5 and 4 are acute angles, then the 4
value of is is
(1) 15° (2) 8° (1) 810 m (2) 108 m
(3) 10° (4) 12° (3) 180 m (d) 801 m

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-81
51. In figure, a circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral (1) 48 days (2) 36 days
ABCD, whose sides AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm, and CD = 4 cm (3) 24 days (4) 12 days
Length of AD is
56. The captain of a cricket team of 11 players is 25 years oldest
D R C and the wicketkeeper is 3 years older than the captain. If the
ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the
remaining players is 1 year less than the average age of the
whole team. The average of the whole team is:
S Q
(1) 21.5 year (2) 22 year
(3) 22.5 year (4) 23 year
57 One side of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm. Its area by using
A P B
(1) 10 cm (2) 7 cm Heron’s formula is
(3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm (1) 9 cm2 (2) 3 cm2
52. The shape of the top of a table in a restaurant is that of a
segment of a circle with centre O and BOD = 90°. (3) 9 3 cm2 (4) 3 8 cm2
If BO = OD = 60 cm. The perimeter of the table is 58. A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the
(Take = 3.14) same area. If the sides of the triangle are 26 cm, 28 cm and
D 30 cm, and the parallelogram stands on the base 28 cm, then
B
the height of the parallelogram is
(1) 42 cm (2) 12 cm
O (3) 24 cm (4) 21 cm
59. The A.M. of the first ten odd numbers is
(1) 10 (2) 100
(1) 402 cm (2) 402.6 cm (3) 1000 (4) 1
(3) 401 cm (4) 400 cm 60. A shotput is a metalic sphere of radius 4.9 cm. If the density
53. In figure, POR and QOR form a linear pair. If a – b = 80°, then the mass of the shotput in kg is
then the values of a and b are (1) 3.401 kg (2) 3 kg
(1) a = 50°, b = 130° (2) a = 130°, b = 50° (3) 4 kg (4) 34 kg
(3) a = 260°, b = 60° (4) a = 60°, b = 260° 61. Who was olympe de Gouse?
R
(1) A politically active woman in revolutionary France.
(2) A social reformer
b
O (3) A supporter of Jacobin club
P Q
(4) All of the above
54. The ratio of the least prime number to the least composite 62. What was Auschwitz famous for?
number is
(1) Centre for mass killing during Nazi Germany
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(2) Centre for educating children during Nazi Germany
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1: 3
55. X can do a piece of work in 24 days, while Y alone can do it (3) Centre for giving military training to the youth during
in 16 days. With the help of Z they finish the work in 8 days. Nazi Germany.
Find in how many days Z can do the work alone? (4) None of the above

EBD_7396
63. With reference of Act of Union 1707, consider the following 67. On the basis of the following features identify the correct
statements- option -
(a) It resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of I. It started in South Africa and soon spread to the other
Great Britain. parts of the continent.
(b) It gave England control over Scotland. II. It had a terrifying impact on people’s livelihoods and
the local economy.
(c) It was an agreement between England and Ireland
III. It spread through infected cattle imparted from British
(d) It was an agreement between England and Scotland. Asia.
Which of the above statements are correct? IV. It spread in the year 1880.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (1) Great Depression (2) Rinderpest
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c) (3) Indenture (4) Influenza
64. Who said these words, “We want to run away our faces 68. In how many parts are the Economic activities divided?
from the Government House and turn them to the huts of (1) 2 (2) 3
people.” (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) Lala Lajpat Rai (2) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru 69. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(3) Lokmanya Tilak (4) Madan Mohan Malviya using the codes given below:
65. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer Column I Column II
using the codes given below: (A) Guild (p) Paid servant
Column I Column II (B) Gomastha (q) Association of builders
(A) 1773 (p) In East Kent threshing (C) Khostis (r) Employed by recruiters
(D) Jobber (s) Weavers
machine destroyed
(1) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(B) 1830 (q) Monopoly on trade of opium
(2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
established
(3) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(C) 1800 - 1850 (r) Terrifying dust storm
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
occurred
70. Dalit captain of Hindu Gymkhana-
(D) 1930 (s) The white Americans (1) Palwankar Baloo (2) Vijay Hazare
moved into the (3) S. A. Brelvi (4) Palwankar Vithal
Mississippi valley 71. Raw materials and money in hand are called ___________
(1) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p (1) Physical capital (2) Fixed capital
(2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q (3) Working capital (4) None of them
(3) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s 72. With reference to the invention of print, consider the following
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r statements-
66. Assertion (A) : The nomadic people in India and East Africa (a) Richard M. Hoe of New York had perfected the power
were nomadic and regarded with extreme suspicion by the driven cylindrical press which had capacity to print
8000 sheets per hour.
colonial powers.
(b) Buddhist missionaries from china introduced hand
Reason (R) : In Africa, the grazing lands of Massai people
printing technology into Japan and first Japanese book
were taken over by the white settlers to expand cultivation.
Diamond Sutra Printed.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(4) A is false but R is true (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-83
73. Which was the earliest novel in Marathi? (1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p
(1) Kadambari (2) Panchatantra (2) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(3) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(3) Yamuna (4) Ganga
(4) (A) p, (B) s, (C) r, (D) q
74. Consider the following statements- 78. ITCZ is the abbreviated form of -
(a) Ho Chi Minh was the chairman of the Democratic (1) Indian Tropical Convergence Zone
Republic of Vietnam. (2) Inter Tropical convergence Zone
(b) He founded the Vietnamese communist party. (3) Inter Tropical Climate Zone
(c) He took control of South Vietnam after Vietnam split. (4) Inter Temperate Convergence Zone
79. Consider the following statements-
(d) He gave help to the National Liberation Front.
(a) With the rapid advancement of Industries, the use of
Which of the above statements are correct? metal has increased.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (b) Mineral resources are renewable.
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c) (c) High quality coal deposits are depleting.
75. The State level consumer court deals in cases involving (d) To conserve our resources, we should take measures
to reduce wastage during mining and processing of
claims between __________ to __________.
an ore.
(1) 10 lakhs; 90 lakhs (2) 20 lakhs; 1 crore Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) 30 lakhs; 5 crores (4) 40 lakhs; 10 crores (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
76. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) (c) and (d)
using the codes given below: 80. Assertion (A) : In recent years sugar mill are shifting towards
southern and western states.
Column I (Rivers) Column II (Origin)
Reason (R) : The cooler climate, favourable cooperatives
(A) Narmada (p) Mahabaleshwar and availability of sugarcane with higher sucrose content
(B) Krishna (q) Orissa are found in Maharashtra.
(C) Godavari (r) Madhya Pradesh (1) A and R true and R explains A.
(2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(Amarkantak)
(D) Mahanadi (s) Maharashtra (4) A is false but R is true.
(1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s 81. Which one is not an important tourist destination of India?
(2) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Goa
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q (3) Rajasthan (4) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r
(a) Migration is the movement of people across the regions
77. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer and territories.
using the codes given below: (b) The rural-urban migration has resulted in a decline in
Column I Column II the percentage of population in cities.
(A) Thorn forests (p) Sundari (c) Migration can be internal as well as external.
(d) Migration is the important determinant of population
(B) Mangrove forests (q) Babool
change.
(C) Dry Dediduous (r) Pine
Forests (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) Montane forests (s) Peepal (3) (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)

EBD_7396
83. Which one of the following is the cheapest mean of 88. Who imposed martial law in Poland in December 1981?
transport?
(1) Walesa (2) Jaruzelski
(1) Roadways (2) Railways
(3) Pinochet (4) Bachelet
(3) Waterways (4) Pipelines
89. What is ZANU-PF?
using the codes given below: (1) It is a political party of Zimbabwe.
Column I Column II (2) It is an educational institution of Zimbabwe
(A) Public Sector (p) Owned by a group of (3) It is a political party of Pakistan
Industries people (4) None of the above
(B) Private Sector (q) Owned by individuals 90. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
Industries or firms using the codes given below:
(C) Joint Sector (r) Owned by state and private Column I Column II
Industries firm (A) Apartheid (p) A distance section of a
(D) Co-operative (s) Owned by the State
document
Sector Industries
(B) Clause (q) Supreme law of a country
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
(C) Draft (r) Official policy of racial
(2) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
separation
(3) (A) p, (B) s, (C) q, (D) r
(D) Constitution (s) Preliminary version of a
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
85. Why is it necessary that banks and cooperatives increase legal document
their lending particularly in rural areas? (1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) s, (D) p
(1) To reduce the dependence on informal sources of credit (2) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
(2) To promote informal sources of credit in urban areas (3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
(3) To provide high interest
(4) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(4) None of them
86. What is the mean annual inflow of Indian rivers?
(a) Right is a claim of the individual over other fellow beings
(1) About 1569 million cubic metres
over the society and over the government.
(b) A claim becomes Right only when it is recognised by
(3) About 1769 million cubic metres society.
(c) It should be sanctioned by Law.
87. In which state, terrace farming is practised?
(d) Rights are not unlimited.
(1) Punjab
(2) Haryana
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) None of the above
(4) Jammu & Kashmir

EBD_7085
Mock Test-3 MT-85
92. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer 96. How many political parties have been recognised as ‘national
using the codes given below: parties’ of India is
Column I Column II (1) 5 (2) 6
(A) Community (p) Power shared among (3) 7 (4) 8
government different organs 97. Democracy is better than any other form of rule because it-
(B) Separation of powers (q) Power shared among govern (1) promotes equality among citizens
-ment at different levels (2) enhances the dignity of the individual
(C) Coalition government (r) Power shared by different (3) improves the quality of decision making
social groups (4) all the above
(D) Federal government (s) Power shared by two or 98. Which of the following countries face challenge of expansion
more political parties of democracy?
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r (1) China and Nepal
(2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(2) Mynamar and Pakistan
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) q, (D) r
(3) India and US
(4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
(4) France and Nepal
93. Which is the most diverse country in the world according to
language? 99. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
(1) Australia (2) U. S. A I. It is formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.
(3) Brazil (4) India II. It represent dalits, adivasis and OBCs.
94. Assertion (A) : Under the caste system work is divided III. It has its main base in the state of U.P.
among people on the basis of their caste. IV. It is formed in 1984 and secured the interests and welfare
Reason (R) : Members of the same caste are supposed to of the dalits
form the different communities.
(1) Bhartiya Janta Party
(2) Communist party of India
(3) Bahujan Samaj Party
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) A is false and R is true (4) Nationalist Congress party
95. Consider the following statements with the reference of the 100. The past decades of globalization has seen rapid
constitutional monarchy- movements in ___________
(a) If the monarch is the head of the state, he plays only (1) goods, services and people between countries
the symbolic role as in Great Britain. (2) goods, technology, investments and services between
(b) The king nominates the members of the legislative. countries
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only (3) goods, investments and people between countries
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) (4) None of them

EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MT-87
ANSWER SHEET
City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 35. 68.
2. 36. 69.
3. 37. 70.
4. 38. 71.
5. 39. 72.
6. 40. 73.
7. 41. 74.
8. 42. 75.
9. 43. 76.
10.
44. 77.
11.
45. 78.
12.
46. 79.
13.
47. 80.
14.
48. 81.
15.
49. 82.
16.
50. 83.
17.
51. 84.
18.
52. 85.
19.
53. 86.
20.
54. 87.
21.
55. 88.
22.
23. 56. 89.
24. 57. 90.

25. 58. 91.
26. 59. 92.
27. 60. 93.
28. 61. 94.
29. 62. 95.
30. 63. 96.
31. 64. 97.
32. 65. 98.
33. 66. 99.
34. 67. 100.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 4


1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
MT 90

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-91
1. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the third, 7. Statement : Being from a business family, Chandan was
the fourth and the eleventh letters of the word apparently convinced by his parents and
CONTROVERSIAL, write the first letter for that word, other family members to join the family
if more than one word can be found write S, otherwise trade.
write X. Conclusions : I. People should take up their family
(1) N (2) S profession so that family prospers.
(3) T (4) I II. It is necessary to keep in family
2. I went 10 m to the East then turned North and walked members happy by choosing family’s
another 15 m then I turned West and covered 12 m, and business.
then turned South and covered 15 m. How far am I from DIRECTIONS (Qs.8 and 9) : These questions are based on the
my house? following information.
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m Five men A, B, C D and E read a newspaper. The one who reads
(3) 3 m (4) 5 m first gives it to C. The one who reads last had taken from A. E was
3. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way. Which not the first or last to read. There were two readers between
one is not like other three?
B and A.
(1) Boy (2) Dog
8. B passed the newspaper to whom ?
(3) Bull (4) Bake
(1) A (2) C
4. In a certain code RANGER is written as REGNAR. How is
TABLE written in that code? (3) D (4) E
(1) TABLE (2) ELBAT 9. Who read the newspaper last ?
(3) TELBA (4) TLBAT (1) A (2) B
DIRECTIONS (Q.5) : This question is based on letter series (3) C (4) D
from each of which some of the letters are missing. The missing DIRECTIONS (Qs.10 and 11) : In each of question A piece of
letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives paper is folded as shown and a cut is made as marked. How
among the four given. Find the correct alternative would the paper look like when unfolded?
5. __ a __ b a __ a __ b b a a __ a b __
(1) a b a a a b (2) b a b a a a b
(3) a a b b b a (4) b a a a b a
DIRECTIONS (Qs.6 and 7) : In each of the following questions, 10.
a statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Give
answer :
(1) if only conclusion I follows;
(2) if only conclusion II follows;
(3) if either I or II follows; (1) (2)
(4) if neither I nor II follows;
6. Statement : Vegetable prices are soaring in the market.
Conclusions : I. Vegetables are becoming a rare
commodity. (3) (4)
II. People cannot eat vegetables.

EBD_7396
16. Which one figure is related to figure III in the same way as
figure I is related to figure II?
11.
: :: : ?
Fig : I Fig : II Fig : III Fig : IV

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
12. There are three poles X, Y and Z of varying height S.
Spiders A, B and C begin climbing up the three poles
simultaneously. In each attempt A crawls 5 cm up the pole 17. Which one number can be placed at the sign of
X and slides back 1 cm B crawls 6 cm up the pole Y and interrogation (?) in figure III so that it follows the operations
slides back 3 cm and C crawls 7 cm up the pole Z and of numbers in figure I and figures II?
slides back 2 cm. Assuming that each makes 50 attempts
before reaching the top, the heights in cms of three poles
respectively are: 14
12 5 3 11 15
(1) 200, 150, 252 (2) 201, 151, 250 4 1 ?
(3) 201, 153, 252 (4) 200, 153, 250 6 8 4 7 3 9
13. Ram and Shyam are ranked 13th and 14th respectively is a
class of 23. What are their ranks from the last respectively?
Figure I Figure II Figure III
(1) 10 th : 11th (2) 11 th; 12 th
(1) 33 (2) 10
(3) 11th ; 10 th (4) None of these
(3) 8 (4) 12
14. In a certain code IDIOT is written as KFKQV. How can
GENIUS be written in that code? 18. On January 12, 1980, it was Saturday. The day of the week
(1) HFOJVT (2) IFOKWT on January 12, 1979 was –
(3) IGPKWU (4) HGOKVU (1) Saturday (2) Friday
15. Which one word cannot be formed from the letters of the (3) Sunday (4) Thursday
following word? 19. If the word TRAIN is coded as WUDLQ, how the word
SUPERIMPOSABLE BUS will be coded?
(1) POSSIBLE (2) REPOSURE (1) EXU (2) DWU
(3) SPIRE (4) REPTILE (3) EXV (4) VXE

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-93
DIRECTIONS (Q.20) : In the following question how does the 25. In the following question, complete the missing portion of
figure look when folded into a cube along the marked line? the given pattern by selecting from the given alternatives
(1), (2), (3) and (4).
20.
(X)
(1) (2)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (4)
21. If A denotes –, C denotes ×, D denotes ÷, E denotes +,

then 14 C 3 A 12 E 4 D 2 is equal to 26. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of
(1) 17 (2) 32 the given figure when the mirror is held at AB?
(3) 28 (4) 6 Given Figure:
22. If 'Room' is called 'Bed', 'Bed' is called 'Window', 'Window'
A B
is called 'Flower' and 'Flower' is called 'Cooler', on which
would a man sleep?
(1) Window (2) Bed
(3) Flower (4) Cooler
23. If the word CLERK is coded as EOIWQ, how would you
code the word TABLE?
(1) VCDNG (2) VCDGIN
(3) VDFQK (4) VDFOK
(1) (2)
24. Find the missing number :
1 4 ?
64 9 16
49 36 25
(3) (4)
(1) 5 (2) 40
(3) 41 (4) 81

EBD_7396
27. If 'ROSE' is coded as 6821, 'CHAIR' is coded as 73456 and 33. 6 11 25
'PREACH' is coded as 961473, then what will be the code 8 6 16
for 'SEARCH'? 12 5 ?
(1) 246173 (2) 214673 (1) 12 (2) 16
(3) 214763 (4) 216473
(3) 18 (4) 22
28. In a certain code 'TRAIN' is written as GIZRM, how will
FIGURE be written in that code? ?
(1) USTGKV (2) VTYXTC 406 3
(3) URTFIV (4) VKGTSV 5
34.
29. Six sides of a cuboid block are coloured Green, Blue, Red, 81 16
Yellow, Orange and White in the following manner:
(1) 2031 (2) 731
(3) 1625 (4) 1
ORANGE WHITE
Y
E B
L 35. Four things are lying on a table. X is towards east of Y at
L
RED L GREEN U a distance of 10 cms. W is at a distance of 10 cms. towards
O
E east of Z but at a distance of 15 cms. towards south of X.
W
If the distance of Z from Y is also 15 cms. to which side of
Y does it lie?
When Blue is on the top, which colour will be at the bottom?
(1) East (2) East-South
(1) Orange (2) Red
(3) White (4) Yellow (3) West (4) South
DIRECTIONS (Qs.30 and 31) : In each of these questions, find 36. The purpose of the proposed law requiring a doctor’s
the wrong number in the series. prescription for obtaining hypodermic needles is to lower
30. 75 79 72 80 69 83 66 the incidence of drug-related deaths, both accidental and
intentional, involving hypodermic needles. But even
(1) 69 (2) 72
knitting needles can be lethal if they fall into the wrong
(3) 79 (4) 83
hands; yet everyone would agree that imposing legal
31. 7 8 12 20 37 62
restrictions on obtaining knitting needles would be
(1) 12 (2) 20
preposterous. Hence the proposed law involving
(3) 37 (4) 62
hypodermic makes no sense and should not be enacted.
DIRECTIONS (Qs.32 to 34) : In each of the following questions,
Which of the following, it true, would provide most support
find the missing number (?)
for the argument above?
(1) Knitting needles have been known to cause injury
13 and death.
1 (2) The benefits of hypodermic needles outweigh those
32. ? 4 2 5 of knitting needles.
3
(3) The proposed law would not deter the sort of activity
8 known to result in drug-related deaths.
(4) Knitting needles are not readily available to anybody
(1) 10 (2) 12 who wants to obtain them.
(3) 13 (4) 11
EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-95
37. Anshu correctly remembers that his sister’s birthday is 43. Problem Figure
th th
before 20 but after 15 October but her father correctly
remembers that his daughter’s birthday is before 17th
October. Anshu’s sister’s birthday falls on which day?
(1) 19th October (2) 16th October
?
(3) 18th October (4) 15th October
Answer Figure
38. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of
‘PS’ : ‘TW’?
(1) JM : RQ (2) AD : DI
(3) AD : EH (4) FC : ZE
39. Which of the following will come in the place of question (1) (2) (3) (4)
mark in the given series?
44. If banana is called apple, apple is called grapes, grapes are
BYA, CXB, ?, EVD : called mango, mango is called coconut and coconut is called
(1) DVE (2) DCW guava, which is the king of fruits?
(3) DXB (4) DWC (1) Mango (2) Guava
40. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days. How many (3) Coconut (4) Apple
days will 4 men take to complete the task? 45. If train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called car,
(1) 60 days (2) 45 days car is called scooter, scooter is called bicycle and bicycle is
(3) 54 days (4) 48 days called aeroplane then which is used to plough a field?
41. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word (1) Train (2) Bus
‘RAZORS’ each of which has as many letters between them (3) Car (4) Tractor
as in the English alphabet series: 46. In a certain code language, the sentences written in Column
(1) None (2) One I are coded as sentences written in Column II, but the
(3) Two (4) Three sequence of words is different. Decode the sentences and
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 42 and 43) : Complete the given series by find which word in coded language mean sweet?
choosing the appropriate answer (1, 2, 3 or 4).
42. Problem Figure Column - I Column - II
Drink fruit juice tee see pee
Juice is sweet see kee lee
? He is intelligent Lee ree mee
(1) pee (2) see

Answer Figure (3) tee (4) Kee
47. Pointing to a man in a photograph, Reena said, “His brother’s
father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is Reena
related to the man in photograph?
(1) Mother (2) Grand Daughter
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) Sister (4) Daughter

EBD_7396
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48 and 49) : Study the information given below 49. If a boy walks from Nitin, meets Atul followed by Kunal,
and answer the questions that follow: Dinesh and then Prashant, how many metres has he walked
One a playground, Dinesh, Kunal, Nitin, Atul and Prashant are if he has travelled the straight distance all through?
standing as described below facing the North. (1) 155 m (2) 185 m
(i) Kunal is 40 metre to the right of Atul. (3) 215 m (4) 245 m
(ii) Dinesh is 60 metre to the South of Kunal. 50. A problem figure is given. Study the figure carefully and
(iii) Nitin is 25 metre to the West of Atul. then answer the questions given under it. How many squares
are there?
(iv) Prashant is 90 metre to the North of Dinesh.
48. Who is to the North-East of the person who is to the left of
Kunal?
(1) Dinesh (2) Nitin
(3) Atul (4) Prashant
(1) 18 (2) 19
(3) 25 (4) 27

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-97
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7) : Read the following passage and answer 3. According to the passage, fleas are resistant to sprays and
the questions given after it. chemicals because they
Fleas are perfectly designed by nature to feast on anything (1) have waterproof sclerites
containing blood. The bodies of these tiny parasites are extremely
(2) are excellent jumpers
hardy and well-suited for their job. A flea has a very hard
exoskeleton, which means the body is covered by a tough, tile- (3) reproduce very rapidly
like plate called a sclerite. Because of these plates, fleas are almost (4) can stick to fur like Velcro
impossible to squish. The exoskeletons of fleas are also waterproof
4. Fleas are difficult to squish because they have
and shock resistant, and therefore fleas are highly resistant to the
sprays and chemicals used to kill them. I. sclerites
Fleas are some of the best jumpers in the natural world. A flea can II. tough spines
jump seven inches, or 150 times its own length, either vertically or III. resilin in their joints
horizontally. Fleas can jump 30,000 times in a row without stopping,
(1) I only (2) I and II only
and they are able to accelerate through the air at an incredibly high
rate-a rate which is over ten times what humans can withstand in an (3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III
airplane. Fleas have very long rear legs with huge thigh muscles and 5. According to the passage, fleas are able to jump
multiple joints. When they get ready to jump, they fold their long legs I. with a high rate of acceleration
up and crouch like a runner on a starting block. Several of their joints
II. up and down and from side to side
contain a protein called resilin, which helps catapult fleas into the air
as they jump, similar to the way a rubber band provides momentum to III. because the blood they eat contains resilin
a slingshot. Outward facing claws on the bottom of their legs grip (1) I only (2) I and II only
anything they touch when they land. The adult female flea mates
(3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III
after her first blood meal and begins producing eggs in just 1 to 2
days. One flea can lay up to 50 eggs in one day and over 2,000 in her 6. Based on information in the passage, the reader can
lifetime. Flea eggs can be seen with the naked eye, but they are about understand that
the size of a grain of salt. Shortly after being laid, the eggs begin to (1) fleas will die without access to blood
transform into cocoons. In the cocoon state, fleas are fully developed
(2) fleas survive at a higher rate in outdoor habitats
adults, and will hatch immediately if conditions are favourable.
(3) fleas will die after they produce 2,000 eggs
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(4) newly hatched fleas are the size of a grain of salt
(1) educate the reader about the physical characteristics
of fleas 7. It can be inferred that fleas will emerge from eggs as adults
(2) compare fleas to other members of the animal kingdom (1) when they outgrow the cocoon
(3) relate the problems that can result from a flea infestation (2) after a period of 3 weeks
(4) explain why a flea infestation is hard to get rid of (3) when they sense there is access to blood
2. The author's tone in the passage is best described as (4) if there is too much carbon dioxide in the cocoon
(1) concerned (2) passionate
(3) informative (4) opinionated

EBD_7396
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-12) : Read the following passage and answer 11. Marcia's dad can best be described as
the questions given after it. (a) shameless (2) foolish
Marcia says that all of her friends have a cell phone, but Marcia's (3) Wild (4) reasonable
mom doesn't want to buy her one. Marcia's mom doesn't want Marcia 12. Which of the following would be the best way for Marcia to
to play video games either. What is more, the Internet scares her. change the way her mom thinks about technology?
Marcia's mom says, "If Marcia has a cell phone, how do we know (1) Read her a newspaper article that talks about the
whom she is talking to? Video games are bad for you. The Internet is importance of technology.
dangerous and uncontrolled. It's like having a gun in the house. We
(2) Provide her an instruction manual detailing how the
should just ban her from using the computer, and I'm not buying her
latest cell phone functions.
a cell phone until she is eighteen. This is the only way we can be sure
(3) Take her to the library and show her the top five most
that Marcia is safe." Marcia's dad disagrees with Marcia's mom.
popular internet websites.
Although he agrees that there are some dangers to it, he likes the
(4) Spend the weekend playing video games with her.
Internet, and finds it to be very useful. "The trouble is," he says, "We
just can't stop Marcia from using the Internet, as this would put her at
a disadvantage. What is more, I like video games. I think that, when DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15) : Read the following passage and
played in moderation, they are fun. Obviously, it is not good to play answer the questions given after it.
them without restraint or self-control. Finally, I think Marcia needs a No sooner had I launched forth on a life of ease and comfort, than
cell phone. We can't take these things away. I began to cut down heavy expenses. The washer man's bill was
8. Which of the following best describes the difference between heavy. Collars had to be changed daily and shirts, if not daily, at
Marcia's mom and Marcia's dad? least every alternate day. This meant double expense which appeared
to me unnecessary. So I equipped myself with a washing outfit to
(1) Mom wants to ban Marcia from using the computer,
save it. I bought a book on washing, studied the art and taught it
while dad likes to play video games.
also to my wife. This no doubt added to my work, but its novelty
(2) Mom thinks technology is dangerous, while dad thinks made it a pleasure. I shall never forget the first collar that I starched.
it can be useful. I had used more starch than necessary. The iron had not been made
(3) Mom cares little about Marcia's future, while dad is hot enough and for fear of burning the collar, I had not pressed it
very supportive. sufficiently. The result was that though the collar was fairly stiff,
the superfluous starch continually dusted the jacket. I went to court
(4) Mom is very strict while Dad is open minded.
with the collar on, thus inviting the ridicule of brother barristers,
9. Which of the following best describes the similarity between
but even in those days I could be impervious to ridicule.
Marcia's mom and Marcia's dad?
13. What was the narrator's profession?
(1) Mom and dad both like technology.
(1) washer man (2) doctor
(2) Mom and dad both think video games are bad.
(2) lawyer (4) drycleaner
(3) Mom and dad both think the internet is dangerous.
14. Which of these facts 'added to' his work?
(4) Mom and dad both care about Marcia's wellbeing.
(1) to studying the art of sewing
10. Marcia's mom can best be described as
(2) to study the art of washing
(1) ridiculous (2) careful (3) to study the art of starching
(3) Cruel (4) rude (4) to studying the art of ironing

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-99
15. Find out the reasons why he couldn't forget the first collar DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 & 19) : Following questions have the
he had starched. second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from
(i) used more starch than necessary the given options to complete it.
(ii) fear of burning the collar 18. A. The cinema is a more
(iii) superfluous starch continually dusted the jacket B. _____________________________________
(iv) good ironing of the collar made it stiff C. than most of other recreations.
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (iii) and (iv) only (1) enjoyable means of vehicle
(3) (i) , (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i) and (iv) only (2) enjoyable means of entertainment
(3) enjoyable means of activity
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16 & 17) : The following five sentences come (4) enjoyable means of talent
from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given. 19. A. Though no one is unaware of the
Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should
B. _____________________________________
C. no one does anything to stop air pollution.
16. S1. All the arrangements
(1) Drainage system
S2.______________________________
(2) Natural calamities
S3.______________________________
(3) Greenhouse Effect
S4.______________________________
(4) Aforestation
S5. The travel agency
P. for the school
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-29) : Choose the word which best fills the
Q. were made by
blank from the four options given.
R. trip to Gangtok
20. After a recent mild paralytic attack his movements are_____
Choose from the options given below. restricted; otherwise he is still very active.
(1) QPR (2) QRP (1) entirely (2) slightly
(3) RPQ (4) PRQ (3) nowhere (4) frequently
17. S1. How unfortunate it is 21. The two brothers look so_____ that it is difficult to tell one
S2. ________________________________ from the other.
S3. ________________________________ (1) identical (2) same
S4. ________________________________ (3) similar (4) resembling
S5. and then to be dethroned. 22. His most striking _____ is the enthusiasm which he brings
P. and have reigned to everything he does.
Q. to be born a king (1) factor (2) attitude
R. for forty three years (3) characteristic (4) character
Choose from the given options below. 23. Ravi was always_______ of the good fortune of others.
(1) QPR (2) PRQ (1) miserable (2) irritable
(3) RQP (4) PQR (3) greedy (4) envious

EBD_7396
24. Cellular phone service has______ in a new phase of 32. Oily tongue
communication. (1) flattery (2) hungry person
(1) called (2) ushered (3) strong critic (4) rich food
(3) resulted (4) started 33. Lion’s share
25. When indecision grips a nation, free men feel the need for (1) no share at all (2) greater share of a thing
an _____ruler and are prepared to throw democracy
(3) miserly (4) very small item
overboard.
34. To bury the hatchet
(1) optimistic (2) autocratic
(1) to dispute over small things
(3) eccentric (4) energetic
(2) to destroy
26. The teacher_____the boy’s comic which he was reading
during the Mathematics period. (3) to make up a quarrel
(1) possessed (2) procured (4) to repair a costly furniture
(3) abandoned (4) seized 35. Heart and soul
27. This is a_____ translation of the speech. (1) very seriously and sincerely
(1) literary (2) literal (2) honestly
(3) verbal (4) verbatim (3) wearily
28. His fears were explicitly betrayed by his______ voice. (4) very casually
(1) phonetic (2) tremulous
(3) tenuous (4) malodorous DIRECTIONS (Q. 36-43) : In the following passage there are
29. AIDS is not a disease that can be___through the air or by some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most
insects. appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
(1) circulated (2) transferred Children are loved by all human beings. But (36) this world of human
beigns there is no (37) nuisance than a boy of the age of fourteen. He
(3) transmitted (4) conducted
is neither ornamental (38) useful. It is impossible to (39) affection on
him as on a (40) boy and he is always getting (41) the way. If he talks
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-35) : Select the meaning of the given with a childish lisp he'is called a baby, and if he answers in a grown up
phrases/idioms. way he is called impertinent. Then he is (42) the unattractive, growing
30. To turn over a new leaf age. He grows out (43) his clothes, with indecent haste. His voice
(1) to change one’s behaviour for the better begins to break and loses its childish charm.
(2) to read something attentively 36. (1) of (2) on
(3) to remain vigilant (3) for (4) in
(4) to be careful 37. (1) worst (2) bad
31. Black sheep (3) worse (4) better
(1) a costly item 38. (1) and (2) or
(2) a dark shiny object (3) nor (4) s o
(3) an unworthy person in a family or group 39. (1) show (2) shower
(4) a funny man (3) repose (4) showering

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-101
40. (1) tiny (2) big 46. Shyam hopes that the next fashion fad _______________
(4) small (4) little a more mature, oval figure like his own.
41. (1) through (2) in (1) will flatter (2) flattered
(3) on (4) off (3) flatter (4) flattering
42. (1) with (2) on 47. Rita _______________ it to me in detail yesterday.
(3) of (4) at (1) explains (2) explained
43. (1) of (2) from (3) explaining (4) to explain
(3) beyond (4) through
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48-50) : Select the word which means the
similar of the given word
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44-47) : Select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. 48. MUTUAL
44. I ___ football after work. (1) Reciprocal (2) Agreed
(1) am play (2) playing (3) Common (4) Conjugal
(3) play (4) to play 49. EVIDENT
45. Fashion is important to Shyam, so he always (1) Prominent (2) Seen
_______________ the latest and most popular style. (3) Observed (4) Quite clear
(1) select (2) selected 50. PENALIZE
(3) selects (4) selecting (1) Persecute (2) Punish
(3) Torture (4) Ruin

EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MT-103
ANSWER SHEET

City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26.
43.
10. 27.
44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
17. 34. 50.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26. 43.
10. 27. 44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
50.
17. 34.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
4


1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
MT 106

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-107
1. Transportation in the living organisms is necessary because 3. Consider the following statements:
of the following reasons: (a) Lysosomes keep the cells clean by digesting foreign
materials.
(1) Food, oxygen, water and other essential substances
are distributed through this system. (b) Ribosomes are present in eukaryotic cells only.
(c) The ER functions both as a passageway for intracellular
(2) It displaces the excretory wastes from the cells of the
transport and as a manufacturing surface.
body to the excretory organs from where they are
expelled out.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Temperature and pressure throughout the body are kept
(3) (a) and (c) (4) None of these
uniform.
4. The figure depicting neuron is given below. The correct
(4) All of the above identification of labels I, II, III and IV respectively is
2. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer __________, __________, __________ and __________.
Column I Column II
(A) Consists of 3 atoms (p) Unidirectional I
of oxygen
(B) Flow of energy in an (q) Ozone (O3) II
ecosystem
III
(C) Main cause of (r) Carnivores
depletion of ozone
layer
IV
(D) Third trophic level (s) Producers
(E) Green plants (t) CFCs
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) (t); (D) r, (E) (s)
(1) I - Dendron, II-Cytoplasm, III-Axon, IV - Synapse
(2) (A) q, (B) p, (C) (t); (D) s, (E) (r)
(2) I -Dendrites, II-Nucleus, III-Axon, IV-Axon endings
(3) (A) q, (B) (t); (C) p, (D) r, (E) (s)
(3) I-Axon, II-Nucleus, III-dendrites, IV-Axon endings
(4) (A) q, (B) p, (C) (t); (D) r, (E) (s) (4) I-Dendron, II-Cell body, III-Axon, IV-Dendrites

EBD_7396
5. Excessive exposure of humans to UV-rays results in (1) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(i) damage to immune system (2) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(ii) damage to lungs (3) (A) r, (B) q, (C) s, (D) p
(iii) skin cancer (4) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p
(iv) peptic ulcers 9. Certain infectious diseases do not occur for a second time
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv) because
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (iii) and (iv) (1) our immune system keeps a memory of that.
6. Consider the following statements: (2) after that we are given nutritious food.
(a) Plants are divided into five groups: Thallophytes, (3) we are not allowed to contact people suffering from it.
Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and (4) None of the above
Angiosperms. 10. On the basis of following features identify correct option
(b) Monera is divided into Archaebacteria and Eubacteria. I. It is the process of reduction of nitrates into gaseous
(c) Penicillium and Yeast both belong to group fungi. nitrogen which escape into atmosphere.
Which of the above statements are correct? II. It is a reduction process.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) III. It is caused by bacteria present in water logged soils,
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) None of these e.g., Pseudomonas.
7. It is important to make small check dams across the flooded (1) Nitrification (2) Denitrification
gullies because they (3) Nitrogen fixation (4) Nitrogen assimilation
(i) hold water for irrigation. 11. The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a
(ii) hold water and prevent soil erosion. particular species remains constant due to
(iii) recharge ground water. (1) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation.
(iv) hold water permanently. (2) halving of chromosomes during gamete formation.
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation.
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv) (4) halving of chromosomes after gamete formation.
8. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer 12. Consider the following statements:
using the codes given below : (a) Fore brain is centre of intelligence, control of
Column I Column II movements, hearing, smell and sight.
(A) Fish farming (p) Broiler (b) Control and coordination are functions of nervous and
(B) Cattle used for tilling (q) Culture fishery endocrine systems.
and carting (c) Rise in sugar level in blood stops secretion of insulin
by pancreas.
(C) Chicken better fed for (r) Draught animals
obtaining meat
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(D) Bee-keeping (s) Apiculture
(3) (a) and (c) (4) None of these

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-109
13. Following figures represent the type of waste: (1) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(3) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
16. The cathode ray experiment is conducted in a discharge
Leaves Banana peel tube containing four different gases A, B, C and D, the
molecular weight of A = B > D > C, then e/m as observed will
be
(1) A > B > D > C (2) A< D<B<C
(3) A = B > D > C (4) A= B= C = D
17. Which of the following is incorrect statement about
Mendeleev’s classification of elements?
Flower Paper (1) He could classify all the elements including noble gases.
(1) Biodegradable (2) Non-biodegradable (2) He left gaps for some yet to be discovered elements.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) (3) He predicted the properties of some undiscovered
14. A student soaked 10 g of raisins in 100 ml of distilled water in elements.

two beakers A and B each. She maintained beaker A at 30°C (4) There was no place for isotopes in his table.
and beaker B at 60°C. After two hour, the percentage of 18. Consider the following statements:
water absorbed will be
(a) Mass is not affected by temperature and pressure.
(1) the same in both A and B.
(b) Plasma contains ionised gases.
(2) more in A than in B.
(c) Alloys are homogeneous mixtures.
(3) more in B than in A.
(d) Solution is a heterogeneous mixture.
(4) exactly twice as much in B as in A.
using the codes given below : (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
Column I Column II (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
(A) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) (p) Redox reaction 19. When sodium hydrogen carbonate powder is added to acetic
AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq) (q) Oxidation acid, a gas evolves. Which one of the following statements
(B) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) (r) Precipitation is not true for this gas? It
(C) C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) (s) Endothermic (1) turns lime water milky
2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) (2) extinguishes a burning splinter
(D) CaCO3(s) (3) dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide
CaO(s) + CO2(g) (4) reacts with water to form sulphuric acid
shailendra 24-8-12
EBD_7396
20. On the basis of following features identify the correct option: 24. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
I. It is stored in air-tight bags. using the codes given below :
II. It is used in surgical bandages for setting fractured Column I Column II

bones. (A) Detergent (p) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions
(1) Plaster of paris (2) Gypsum (B) Carboxymethyl (q) Used in pickles
(3) Dead burnt plaster (4) Both (1) and (2) cellulose
21. Four test-tubes were taken and marked A, B, C and D (C) Marsh gas (r) Non-biodegradeble
respectively. 2 mL of solution of Al2(SO4)3 in water was (D) Hard water (s) Methane
filled in each of the four test-tubes. Clean piece of metal Zn (E) Solution of acetic acid (t) Helps in suspending dirt
was placed in test-tube A, clean iron nail was put in
(1) (A) r, (B) s, (C) t, (D) p, (E) q
test-tube B, clean copper wire was placed in test-tube C and
a clean aluminium wire was placed in test-tube D. It was (2) (A) t, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p, (E) q
observed that no change occurred in any of the test-tubes. (3) (A) r, (B) t, (C) s, (D) p, (E) q
The correct inference drawn is: (4) (A) r, (B) t, (C) s, (D) q, (E) p
(1) zinc is more active than aluminium 25. Consider the following statements:
(2) zinc is more active than copper (a) pH of NaCl solution is 7.
(3) copper is more active than aluminium (b) Copper sulphate gives red colour with universal
(4) zinc, iron and copper are less active than aluminium indicator.
22. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (c) De-greesing of metals can be done with H2SO4.
using the codes given below : Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Column I Column II (1) Only (b) (2) (a) and (b)
(A) Metallic character (p) Increases down a group (3) (b) and (c) (4) Only (c)
(B) Atomic size (q) Increases across a period 26. Arrange the following in decreasing order of mass
(C) Non-metallic character (r) Decreases down a group I. 1023 molecules of H2
(D) Electronegativity (s) Decreases across a period II. 0.1 mol of H2O
(1) (A) p, s, (B) p, s, (C) q, r, (D) q, r III. 0.01 mole of atoms of Nitrogen
(2) (A) p, s, (B) p, s, (C) q, r, (D) p, r IV. 2.24 L of O2 at STP
(3) (A) q, s, (B) p, s, (C) q, r, (D) q, r (1) IV, II, I, III (2) IV, I, II, III
(4) (A) p, s, (B) p, q, (C) q, r, (D) q, r (3) IV, III, I, II (4) IV, I, III, II
23. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is: 27. Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen
(1) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect gas. Which of the following acids does not give hydrogen
(2) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg)?
(3) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect (1) H2SO4 (2) HCl
(4) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect (3) HNO3 (4) All of these

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-111
28. Action and reaction 32. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(1) act on two different objects
Column I Column II
(2) have opposite directions
(3) have equal magnitudes 1
(A) Mechanical to Electrical (p) mv2
(4) All of the above 2
29. Consider the following statements : (B) Electrical to (q) mgh

mechanical
(a) No net force acts on a rain drop falling vertically with a
(C) Kinetic energy (r) A. C. generator
constant speed. (D) Potential energy (s) Electric motor
(b) If net force acting on the body is zero, momentum of (1) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
the body remains constant. (2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
(c) Particle of different masses falls with different
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
acceleration on earth.
33. A girl of mass 40 kg climbs 20 steps of a staircase, each
(d) It is easier to start motion in a heavier body than a measuring 20 cm high in 30s. Calculate the power developed
lighter body. by the boy. [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 160 W (2) 80 W
(3) 53.33 W (4) 26.66 W
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
34. The wave having an amplitude of 5 cm and frequency f = 100 Hz
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) All of the above can be best represented by
30. A block of ice is floating on water contained in a beaker.
y (cm) y (cm)
When all the ice melts, the level of water
(1) rises (2) falls
(3) remains unchanged (4) None of these 5
(1) (2) 0.01
31. Acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on the surface of earth and
t (s) t (s)
universal gravitational constant ‘G’ are correlated as :
(Here M = mass of earth and R = radius of earth)
y (cm) y (cm)
GR 2 g
GM
(1) g (2)
M R2
5
(3) (4) 0.01
g
GR GM 2
(3) (4) g t (s) t (s)
M2 R

EBD_7396
35. On the basis of following features identify correct option: 38. Two conductors each of resistance R ohm are connected in
series and then in parallel. Find the ratio of the resistance of
I. They require no material medium.
the combination in series and in parallel.
II. They are always transverse.
(1) 1 (2) 2
III. They are produced by accelerating charged particles.
(3) 4 (4) 6
(1) Mechanical waves (2) Electro-magnetic waves 39. Consider the following statements :
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) (a) The magnitude and direction of alternating current
36. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer reverses periodically.
using the codes given below : (b) Frequency of alternating current in India is 50 Hz.
Column I Column II (c) The frequency of direct current is zero.
R (1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(A) Reflection of light (p)
V (3) All of them (4) None of them
40. The bulk of energy released in nuclear fission appears as
(1) kinetic energy of nuclear fragments
(B) Refraction of light (q)
(2) heat energy
(3) radiant energy
(4) chemical energy
(C) Total internal reflection (r)

23
41. The decimal expansion of the rational number , will
2352
terminate after how many places of decimal ?
(1) 1 (2) 3
(D) Dispersion (s)
i>c (3) 4 (4) 5
42. If HCF (105, 120) = 15, then LCM (105, 120) is
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s (1) 210 (2) 420
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q (3) 840 (4) 1680
43. The cost of a book is twice the cost of a fountain pen. Which
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q linear equation in two variables represent this statement?
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p (1) x = 2y (2) x + 2y = 0
37. For a normal eye, the near point is 25 cm from the eye lens. (3) x = y (4) x=–y
The distance between eye lens and retina of the eye is 44. The value of p for which the polynomial
2.5 cm. What is the power of the eye lens? 2x4 + 3x3 + 2px2 + 3x + 6 is exactly divisible by (x + 2) is
(1) 4 D (2) 40 D (1) 1 (2) – 1
(3) 44 D (4) – 44 D (3) 2 (4) – 2

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-113
45. In figure, POR : ROQ = 5 : 7. The value of SOQ is

p p sin q cos
51. If tan = then =
P q p sin q cos
S p2 q2 q2 p2
(1) (2)
O p2 q2 q2 p2
R p2 q2
Q (3) (4) 1
p2 q2
(1) 60° (2) 65°
52. Out of the following four relations :
(3) 75° (4) 90°
46. If 2x + 3y + z = 15, then value of sin A sin A 2
(5 – 2x)3 + (5 – 3y)3 + (5 – z)3 – 3 (5 – 2x) (5 – 3y) (5 – z) is (I)
1 cos A 1 cos A sin A
(1) 1 (2) – 1
(3) 0 (4) 3
47. On solving 4x2 – 4a2x + (a4 – b4) = 0 we get value of x is 2
1 cos A 1 cos A
2 2 2 (II)
a b a sin A 1 cos A
(1) (2)
2 2
sin10
b2 a2 b2 (III) 1
(3) (4) cos 80
2 2
1 1 2p 1 4p
48. The nth term of the sequence , , , ... is (IV) sin4A – cos4 A = 1 + sin2A
p p p
the wrong one is
1 2np 2 p 1 – 2np – 2 p (1) I (2) II
(1) (2)
p p (3) III (4) IV
53. A line touches a circle of radius 4 cm. Another line is drawn
1 2np – 2 p 1 2np which is tangent to the circle. If the two lines are parallel
(3) (4)
p p then distance between them is
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm
49. For which value of 'k' the points (7, –2), (5, 1), (3, k) are
(3) 7 cm (4) 8 cm
collinear?
54. For what value of x + y in the given figure, will ABC be a line?
(1) – 4 (2) 4 (1) 180° (2) 90°
(3) 8 (4) – 8 (3) 45° (4) 360°
50. An aeroplane flying horizontally 1 km above the ground is
observed at an elevation of 60°. After 10 seconds, its elevation
is observed to be 30°. The speed of the aeroplane is D
A
(1) 240 km/hr (2) 420 km/hr
y
(3) 240 3 km/hr (4) 420 3 km/hr x
B C

EBD_7396
55. Value of ADC from the given figure. 59. In the given figure, you see the frame of a
A lampshade.
It is to be covered with a decorative cloth.
The frame has a base diameter of 20 cm
30° and height of 30 cm. A margin of 2.5 cm is
to be given for folding it over the top and
D x
bottom of the frame. How much cloth is
required for making the lampshade?
(1) 2002 cm2 (2) 2020 cm2
50° 55°
B C (3) 2000 cm 2 (4) 2200 cm2
(1) 225° (2) 135° 60. Mala and Bala got 75 marks and 25 marks respectively in an
examination. The ratio of the marks scored by Mala to the
(3) 360° (4) 50°
total marks obtained by both of them is
56. If the mean of the numbers
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 3 : 1
27 + x, 31 + x, 89 + x, 107 + x, 156 + x is 82, then the mean of
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
130 + x, 126 + x, 68 + x, 50 + x, 1 + x is
(1) 75 (2) 157 61. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(3) 82 (4) 80 using the codes given below :
57. If two dice are tossed, then the probability of throwing a Column I Column II
total of ten or more is (A) Louis Blanc (p) An Italian nationalist
(B) Karl Marx (q) Encouraged cooperatives
1 1 (C) Robert Owen (r) An English manufacturer
(1) (2)
36 6 (D) Giuseppe Mazzini (s) Opposed capitalism
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
3 2 (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(3) (4)
36 6 (3) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r
(4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p
58. In the figure OAB is an equilateral triangle. The co-ordinate
62. What was the Napoleonic code known as?
of vertex B is (1) The Napoleonic code of 1808
B
Y (2) The civil code of 1809
(3) The civil code of 1804
(4) The Napoleonic code of 1802
63. Consider the following events and arrange them in their
correct chronological order -
I. Swadeshi Movement
X' O (0, 0) M A(2a, 0) X II. Home Rule Movement
III. Anti-Rowlatt Act Movement
Y'
(1) (a, a) (2) (– a, – a) IV. Khilafat Movement
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, II, IV, III
(3) (a, 3a) (4) (a, – 3a) (3) II, I, IV, III (4) III, I, II, IV

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-115
64. What was done during captain swing movement? (1) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
(1) Threshing machines were broken. (2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
(2) Rich farmers were compelled to help poor farmers. (3) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(3) Landowners were looted. 70. What steps have been taken by the government to promote
(4) Agriculture was expanded. education?
65. Assertion (A) : The pastoral communities lost their grazing (1) There is a provision made for providing universal
lands due to preference given to cultivation. access, retention and quality in elementary education
with a special emphasis on girls
Reason (R) : Uncultivated lands were taken over by colonial
(2) Establishment of pace setting of schools like Navodaya
government and given to selected individuals for cultivation. Vidyalaya in each district
(1) A and R are true and R explains A. (3) Vocational streams have been developed to equip large
(2) A and R are true but R does not explain A. number of high school students with occupations
(3) A is true but R is false. related to knowledge and skills
(4) All of them
(4) A is false but R is true.
71. Why did dalits prefer western clothing?
66. Where was the Elgin Mill set up? (1) They were under the pressure of Britishers.
(1) Kanpur (2) Ahmedabad (2) It gave them more liberating performance is society.
(3) Banaras (4) Mirzapur (3) They were against the traditional dress.
67. Consider the following statements- (4) They did not like Hindu way of life and dressing.
72. Consider the following statements, with reference to the
(a) Industrialisation changed the force of urbanisation in
origin of Test Cricket-
the modern period. (a) Test cricket was initially organised as a competition
(b) Manchester and Leeds attracted large number of between different parts of the British empire.
migrants. (b) The first test was played between England and India
(c) By 1750, many people migrated from London. when India was a British colony at that time.
(d) With the technological developments, women got (1) (a) only (2) (b) only
industrial jobs. (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Which of the above statements are correct? 73. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) using the codes given below :
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (d) Column I Column II
68. Chapbooks are- (A) Punjab (p) reduced poverty with the help of
(1) Pocket size books high agricultural growth Rates
(2) Coloured books (B) Kerela (q) reduced poverty with the help of
human resource Development
(3) Books giving astronomical information
(C) West Bengal (r) reduced poverty with the help of
(4) Comic books public distribution of Food
69. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer grains
using the codes given below : (D) Tamil Nadu (s) reduced poverty with the help of
land reform measures
Column I Column II
(1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s
(A) R. L. Stevenson (p) Jungle Book
(B) Rudyard Kipling (q) What Katy Did (2) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p
(C) Helen Hunt Jackson (r) Treasure (3) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r
(D) Chauncey Woolsey (s) Ramona (4) (A) q, (B) p,(C) r, (D) s

EBD_7396
74. Which states of India have a common border with Pakistan? 78. What is mango shower?
A. Jammu and Kashmir B. Himachal Pradesh (1) Premonsoon rainfall in Karnataka and Kerala
(2) Rainfall in June to September
C. Punjab D. Gujarat
(3) Rainfall in winter days
E. Rajasthan (4) Rainfall caused by western disturbances
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C, E 79. Modern theory of monsoon considers this system a result
(3) A, C, D (4) A, C, D, E of-
75. Assertion (A) : Salinity in inland seas and lakes is higher. I. Differential heating
II. Rotation of the earth
Reason (R) : Supply of freshwater in such areas is lower.
III. Shifting of pressure belts
(1) A and R are true and R explains A. IV. Highland pressure
(2) A and R are true but R does not explain A. (1) I and II (2) II and IV
(3) A is true and R is false (3) I, II and IV (4) I and III
(4) A is false and R is true. 80. Consider the following statements -
76. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (a) Individual resources are owned privately by individuals.
(b) At present, petroleum is the only multipurpose fuel
which is the most important source of thermal energy.
Column I Column II (c) We have abundance of hydro-electricity resources.
(A) Plantation farming (p) Rearing of silkworms for (d) Thermal power is not a permanent source of electricity
silk as the coal, petroleum and natural gas deposits are
exhausting.
production
(B) Sericulture (q) A single crop is grown in (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
a large area (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) All of the above
(C) Horticulture (r) Burning a piece of land 81. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
for cultivation using the codes given below :
(D) Jhumming (s) Intensive cultivation of Column I Column II
fruits and vegetables (A) Primary Industries (p) Textile Industries
(B) Secondary Industries (q) Banking industries
(1) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(C) Tertiary Industries (r) The Modern Bakeries
(2) (A) s, (B) q, (C) p, (D) r (D) Consumer Industries (s) Fishing Industries
(3) (A) r, (B) s, (C) q, (D) p (1) (A) s, (B) p, (C) q, (D) r
(4) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q (2) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
77. How can government of a country play a major role in making (3) (A) r, (B) q, (C) s, (D) p
(4) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
Globalization fairer?
82. With reference to the Chipko Movement
(1) Government can ensure that labour laws are properly Consider the following statements-
implemented and the workers get their rights. (a) The Chipko Movement was initiated by Birsa Munda
(2) Government can support small producers to improve in Jharkhand.
their performance till the time they become strong (b) It has taught that communities can be involved in natural
resource management.
enough to compete.
(3) Government can negotiate at WTO for fairer rules.
(4) All of them (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

EBD_7085
Mock Test-4 MT-117
83. How much percentage of a bank's deposits does the bank 90. With reference to creation of new states by parliament under
hold as cash? Article 3. Consider the following statements-
(1) 15% (2) 20% (a) Parliament can not introduce a Bill to this effect without
(3) 10% (4) 12% the prior recommendations of the President.
84. On the basis of following features identify the correct option- (b) The president is bound to accept the opinion of the
I. Total length of the river is about 760 km. affected state in making recommendations to the
II. It rises in the Brahmagiri range of the western ghats. parliament.
III. Its main tributaries are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati
and Kabini.
IV. Its basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala and
Tamilnadu.
91. Which state among the following has low infant mortality
(1) The Krishna Basin (2) The Godavari Basin
rate?
(3) The Kaveri Basin (4) The Narmada Basin
(a) Bihar (b) Kerela
85. To which one of the following types of vegetation does
(c) Kashmir (d) Assam
rubber belong to?
(1) Tundra (2) Himalayan (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) Tidal (4) Tropical evergreen (3) Only (c) and (d) (4) None of them
86. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as- 92. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(1) Coast (2) Peninsula using the codes given below :
(3) Island (4) None of the above Column I Column II
87. Lands not available for cultivation is called- Ministry News that the ministry
(1) Forests have released
(2) Barren and waste lands (A) Ministry of Defence (p) Telephone services will
(3) Fallows other than current fallow be made more accessible
(4) Net sown area to rural areas.
88. Why did U.S and its allies invade Iraq?
(B) Ministry of Health (q) The allowances of the
(1) Iraq possessed secret nuclear weapons which posed a
soldiers will be increased.
big threat to the world security.
(C) Ministry of (r) A new policy is being
(2) Saddam Hussein abolished traditional Islamic law.
Communication and made to increase the Jute
(3) Saddam Hussein made provisions for free education to
Information exports.
the citizens of Iraq.
Technology
(4) Saddam Hussein appreciated women's participation in
(D) Ministry of commerce (s) A Pulse Polio campaign
defence.
89. The fundamental duties of a citizen do not include- and Industry will be launched.
(1) Promoting communal harmony (1) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p
(2) Developing scientific temper (2) (A) q, (B) p, (C) s, (D) r
(3) Safeguarding public property (3) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s
(4) Protecting children from hazardous employment (4) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r

EBD_7396
93. Assertion (A) : The constitution was amended to prevent 97. Consider the following statements-
elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. (a) The literacy rate among women is still lower than male.
Reason (R) : It should be made mandatory for political parties (b) Women have large share in the highly paid jobs.
to give one third tickets to women candidates.
(c) There are causes of domestic violence which make her
unsafe within her family.
(d) The women strength in the Lok Sabha is more than
(3) A is true and R is false
30%.
(4) A is false and R is true.
94. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer Which of the above statements are correct?
using the codes given below : (1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
Column I Column II (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(A) Congress Party (p)National Democratic 98. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
Alliance I. It is the introduction of to the constitution.
(B) Bhartiya Janta Party (q) State Party II. It was passed by the constituent Assembly
(C) Communist Party of (r) United Progressive III. It was borrowed from the constitution of U.S.A.
India Alliance IV. It is not enforceable in a court of law.
(D) Telgu Desam Party (s) Left Front (1) Directive Principles (2) Preamble
(1) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r (3) Fundamental rights (4) Articles
(2) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q 99. The Narmada Bachao Andolan was started against which
(3) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s one of the dams?
(4) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q (1) The Bhakra Dam (2) Sardar Sarovar Dam
95. Which are the major ethnic groups of Belgium?
(3) The Hirakund Dam (4) The Kosi Dam
(1) Dutch and German (2) French and German
100. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed by-
(3) Dutch and French (4) None of the above
(1) President of India
96. Using leathers we make shoes, belts etc. It is an example of
(2) The Prime minister
which sectors?
(3) The President after an address by the Parliament
(1) Tertiary Sector (2) Primary Sector
(3) Secondary Sector (4) None of the above (4) The speaker

EBD_7085
MT-119
ANSWER SHEET
City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 36. 71.
2. 37. 72.
3. 38.
73.
4. 39.
74.
5. 40.
6. 41. 75.
7. 42. 76.
8. 43. 77.
9. 44. 78.
10. 45.
79.
11. 46.
80.
12. 47.
13. 48. 81.
14. 49. 82.
15. 50. 83.
16. 51. 84.
17. 52.
85.
18. 53.
86.
19. 54.
20. 55. 87.
21. 56. 88.
22. 57. 89.
23. 58. 90.
24. 59.
91.
25. 60.
92.
26. 61.
27. 62. 93.
28. 63. 94.
29. 64. 95.
30. 65. 96.
31. 66.
97.
32. 67.
98.
33. 68.
34. 69. 99.
35. 70. 100.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MAT+ELT
Mental
Ability
Test
English
Language
Test 5


1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-123
1. DRAMA is related to DIRECTOR as MAGAZINE is to DIRECTIONS (Qs. 7 to 9) : Solve the addition :

(1) Printer (2) Publisher A A A
(3) Editor (4) Reader + B B B
+ C C C
2. Four friends were playing a game of cards, See the was to
the right of Maithili and Uma to the left of Gouri. Which of B A A C
the following was a pair of partners? 7. The value of A is:
(1) 9 (2) 7
(1) Maithili and Gouri (2) Uma and Seethe
(3) 6 (4) 1
(3) Maithili and Seethe (4) Uma and Maithili
8. The value of A + B + C is
3. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way. Which
(1) 15 (2) 18
one is not like the other four?
(3) 16 (4) 12
(1) Mica (2) Bird 9. Which of the following is/are true?
(3) Pair (4) News (i) A = B + C
4. In a certain code CAT is written as SATC and DEAR as (ii) A is the greatest digit integer
SEARD. How is SING written in that code? (iii) C = 0
(1) SSING (2) INGS (1) i & iii (2) ii & iii
(3) SINGE (4) SINGS (3) i & ii (4) iii only
10. If a man walks to his office at 5/4 of his usual rate, he
reaches office 30 minutes early than usual. What is his
DIRECTIONS (Q.5) : This question is based on letter series usual time to reach office.
from which some of the letters are missing. The missing letters
1
are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find (1) 2 hr (2) 2 hr
2
the correct alternative. (3) 1 hr 50 min (4) 2 hr 15 min
5. a a b __ a a a __ b b a __
(1) b a a (2) a b b DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11): The following question accompanied by
(3) b a b (4) a a b three statements I, II and III. We have to determine which
statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.
6. Two clocks were set right at noon on Sunday. One
11. What is the sum of two numbers?
gains 2 min and the other loses 3 min in 24 hours.
I. The bigger of these two numbers is 6 more than the
What will be the true time when the first clock
smaller number.
indicates 3 pm on Wednesday?
II. 40% of the smaller number is equal to 30% of the bigger
(1) 2:38 pm (2) 2:54 pm number.
(3) 2:23 pm (4) 2:48 pm III. The ratio between half of the bigger number and one-
third of the smaller number is 2 : 1.

EBD_7396
(1) Only II and III are sufficient. (1) only conclusion I follows
(2) Only I and II are sufficient. (2) only conclusion II follows
(3) I and either II or III is sufficient. (3) neither I nor II follows
(4) All I, II and III together are sufficient. (4) both I and II follows.
12. In the following numbers series, how many even numbers
16. Statements : 1. Some camels are ships.
are immediately preceded by 6 as well as immediately
2. No ship is a boat.
followed by 3?
6 6 5 6 8 3 9 4 3 6 7 3 6 4 3 2 8 6 4 6 8 Conclusions : I Some ships are camels.
2 6 6 3 II Some boats are camels.
(1) 1 (2) 2 III.Some camels are not boats.
(3) 3 (4) 4 IV. All boats are camels.
13. I went 15 m to the north, then I turned west and covered (1) only I follows
10 m, then turned south and covered 5 m, and then turned
(2) only II and III follows
east and covered 10m. In which direction am I from the
starting point? (3) only I and III follows
(1) East (2) West (4) only I and II follows
(3) North (4) South Common Data for Qs. 17 to 21.
14. Which one of the following figures represents the
Given - B A N A
relationship among 'Judge', 'Thief' and 'Criminal'?
N A N A
Q B P B
where A = 3 and Q = 8. Now, find the values of the following:-

(1) (2)
17. 2B.
(1) 12 (2) 42
(3) 32 (4) 16
18. 6P.
(3) (4)
(1) 48 (2) 36
(3) 24 (4) 12
19. N2.
DIRECTIONS (Qs.15 and 16) : In these questions, there are
(1) 16 (2) 4
given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if (3) 1 (4) 9
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and 20. P × Q.
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows (1) 42 (2) 64
from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(3) 4 (4) 32
15. Statements : 1. All players are smokers.
21. Product of all the integers of BANANA.
2. Some smokers are drunkards.
(1) 6888 (2) 3888
Conclusions : I. All smokers are players.
(3) 7888 (4) 5998
II. Some drunkards are not smokers.

EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-125
22. Read the figure and find the region representing person
who are educated and employed but not confirmed. 25.
EDUCATED EMPLOYED
b
a e f c
d
CONFIRMED IN JOB (1) (2)
(1) a & f (2) b & e

(3) b & d (4) d & e (3) (4)
23. If GIVE is coded 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, how can
GATE be coded?
DIRECTIONS (Q.26) : A set of three figures A, B and C showing
(1) 5247 (2) 5724
a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (C) shows the
(3) 7254 (4) 2547 manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures
are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose
DIRECTIONS (Qs.24 and 25) : A part of the figure is missing. a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of
Find out from the given options (1, 2, 3 and 4) the right figure to fit fig. (C).
in the missing place.
26.
24.
? (A) (B) (C)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
27. If MPOEPO, in code language means London decode

(1) (2)
NPTDPX.
(1) Delhi (2) Moscow
(3) Rome (4) Paris
28. Renu walks 9 kms towards East and then 12 kms towards
(3) (4) the South. How far is she from starting point?
(1) 15 kms (2) 6 kms
(3) 7 kms (4) None of these

EBD_7396
29. Find out which of the following options will exactly make (2) Scientists have been unsure whether rapid shifts in
up the Problem Figure. the Earth's climate happen all at once or on opposing
schedules in different hemispheres; finding a
definitive answer will help them better predict climate
shift in future.
(3) Scientists have been unsure whether rapid shifts in
the Earth's climate happen all at once or on opposing
schedules in different hemispheres; research will help
find a definitive answer and better predict climate shift
Problem Figure
in future.
(4) More research rather than debates on warming or
cooling of the Earth and exaggerated seasons in its
(1) (2) hemispheres, will help scientists in Germany predict
climate changes better in future.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 31 to 34) : Study the given information carefully

and answer the questions given below :
(3) (4) (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on wall and facing east.
(ii) C is on the immediate right to D.
(iii) B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour.
30. Four alternative summaries are given below. Choose the
option that best captures the essence of the text. (iv) G is between E and F.
Although, almost all climate scientists agree that the Earth (v) D is sitting third from south end.
is gradually warming, they have long been of two minds 31. Who is sitting to the right of E ?
about the process of rapid climate shifts within larger (1) A (2) C
periods of change. Some have speculated that the process
(3) D (4) G
works like a giant oven or freezer, warming or cooling the
whole planet at the same time. Others think that shifts 32. Which of the following pairs of people is sitting at the
occur on opposing schedules in the Northern and Southern extreme ends ?
Hemispheres, like exaggerated seasons. Recent research (1) AB (2) AE
in Germany examining climate patterns in the Southern (3) C B (4) FB
Hemisphere at the end of the last Ice Age strengthens the 33. Name the person who should change the place with C such
idea that warming and cooling occurs at alternate times in that he gets the third place from north end
the two hemispheres. A more definitive answer to this
(1) E (2) F
debate will allow scientists to better predict when and how
quickly the next climate shift will happen. (3) G (4) D
(1) Research in Germany will help scientists find a 34. Immediately between which of the following pairs of people
definitive answer about warming and cooling of the is D sitting ?
Earth and predict climate shifts in the future in a better (1) AC (2) AF
manner. (3) CE (4) CF

EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-127
35. A man is facing North-West. He turns 90° in clockwise DIRECTIONS (Qs. 43 and 44): Out of nine cells of a square one
direction and then 135° in the anticlockwise direction. Which cell is left blank and in the rest of the cells numbers are wirtten
direction is he facing now ? which follow some rule. Get the rule and find out the proper option
(1) East (2) West for the blank cell (?)
(3) North (4) South
36. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal 43.
2 72 56
ranked seventeenth from the top ? If there are 9 girls ahead
of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank ? ? 0 42
(1) 3 (2) 7
12 20 30
(3) 12 (4) 23
37. Oriya is related to Orissa in the same way Dogri is related to;
(1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Sikkim (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) Jammu (4) Assam (3) 8 (4) 10
38. Four words are given below out of which three are alike in
some manner and fourth one is different. Choose out the
44.
odd one : 91 64 73
(1) Walk (2) Run
84 76 61
(3) Ride (4) Crawl
39. Choose odd pair of the words :
25 60 ?
(1) Volume : Litre (2) Time : Seconds
(3) Length: Metre (4) Pressure : Barometer (1) 66 (2) 68
40. Four numbers are given below out of which three are alike in (3) 69 (4) 71
some manner and fourth is different. Choose the different
45. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its correct
number :
shape will be:–
(1) 144 (2) 168
(3) 196 (4) 256
41. If REASON is coded as 5, BELIEVED as 7, what is the code
number of GOVERNMENT?
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10
42. A man said to a lady "Your mother's husband's sister is my
aunt." How is the lady related to man ?
(1) Daughter (2) Grand-daughter
(3) Mother (4) Sister

EBD_7396
7 13 19
50. : :: : (?)
11 17 23
(1) (2)
25 29
(1) (2)
27 31
23 29
(3) (4)
29 33
(3) (4) 49. If your birth day 30th June, 2003 falls on monday, on what
day of the week does your birth day fall in the year 2005 ?
(1) Sunday (2) Tuesday
Directions (Qs. 46 to 48): Find out the missing one from the (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday
given alternatives. 50. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 30 minutes
46. 08 : 28 :: (?) : 65 past 6 ?
(1) 9 (2) 12
1 1
(3) 15 (4) 18 (1) 7 (2) 11
2 2
47. 35 : 91 :: 189 : (?)
(1) 343 (2) 341 (3) 15° (4) 23°
(3) 280 (4) 210

EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-129
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7) : Read the following passage and answer After these first two successful races, the goal was to lengthen the
the questions given after it. race a little further to the ghost town of Iditarod by 1973. However in
In the early 1920's, settlers came to Alaska looking for gold. They 1972, the U.S. Army reopened the trail as a winter exercise, and so in
travelled by boat to the coastal towns of Seward and Knik, and 1973, the decision was made to take the race all the way to the city of
from there by land into the gold fields. The trail they used to travel Nome-over 1,000 miles. There were many who believed it could not be
inland is known today as the Iditarod Trail, one of the National done and that it was crazy to send a bunch of mushers out into the
Historic Trails designated by the Congress of the United States. vast, uninhabited Alaskan wilderness. But the race went! 22 mushers
The Iditarod Trail quickly became a major thoroughfare in Alaska, finished that year, and to date over 400 people have completed it.
as the mail and supplies were carried across this trail. People also
1. The primary purpose of this passage is to
used it to get from place to place, including the priests, ministers,
and judges who had to travel between villages. In the winter, the (1) recount the history of the Iditarod trail and the race
settlers' only means of travel down this trail was via dog sled. Once that memorializes it
the gold rush ended, many gold-seekers went back to where they (2) describe the obstacles involved in founding the Iditarod
had come from, and suddenly there was much less travel on the race
Iditarod Trail. The introduction of the airplane in the late 1920's
(3) outline the circumstances that led to the establishment
meant dog teams were no longer the standard mode of
transportation, and of course with the airplane carrying the mail of the Iditarod Trail
and supplies, there was less need for land travel in general. The (4) re-establish the important place of the Iditarod Trail in
final blow to the use of the dog teams was the appearance of Alaska's history
snowmobiles. 2. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that
By the mid 1960's, most Alaskans didn't even know the Iditarod Trail all of the following contributed to the disuse of the Iditarod
existed, or that dog teams had played a crucial role in Alaska's early Trail except
settlements. Dorothy G. Page, a self-made historian, recognized how
(1) more modern forms of transportation
few people knew about the former use of sled dogs as working
animals and about the Iditarod Trail's role in Alaska's colourful history. (2) depleted gold mines
To raise awareness about this aspect of Alaskan history, she came (3) highway routes to ghost towns
up with the idea to have a dog sled race over the Iditarod Trail. She
(4) reduced demand for land travel
presented her idea to an enthusiastic musher, as dog sled drivers are
known, named Joe Redington, Sr. Soon the Pages and the Redingtons 3. As used in paragraph 2, which is the best definition for
were working together to promote the idea of the Iditarod race. mode?
Many people worked to make the first Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race (1) formula (2) way (3) preference (4) option
a reality in 1967. The Aurora Dog Mushers Club, along with men 4. According to the passage, the initial Iditarod race
from the Adult Camp in Sutton, helped clear years of overgrowth (1) was funded through the sale of musher entrance fees
from the first nine miles of the Iditarod Trail. To raise interest in the
(2) was founded by an advocate for Alaskan history
race, a $25,000 purse was offered, with Joe Redington donating
one acre of his land to help raise the funds. The short race, (3) ended at the ghost town of Iditarod
approximately 27 miles long, was put on a second time in 1969. (4) boasted a total of 400 entrants

EBD_7396
5. As used in paragraph 3, the phrase "self-made historian" high official of the state, whether as a businessman or industrialist or
implies that Dorothy G. Page artisan or farmer, we should all discharge our obligations to the state
(1) was employed by the state to keep its dog sled history and contribute to the welfare of the country. Honest work is the sheet
alive anchor to which if we cling, we shall be saved in spite of every danger
or difficulty. Honest work is the fundamental law of progress.
(2) was determined to honour the glories of the gold rush
in spite of her questionable credentials 8. What has freedom given us?
(3) had pursued the study of Alaska's history out of her (1) selfishness and laziness in attitude
own interest (2) new status and opportunities
(4) had personally educated others about Alaska's history (3) narrowness of outlook
6. In 1925, when a diphtheria outbreak threatened the lives of (4) toil of old things
people in the remote town of Nome, the government used 9. How should we discipline ourselves?
the Iditarod Trail to transport medicine nearly 700 miles to
(1) by criticizing the loopholes of others
the town. If the author chose to include this fact in the
(2) by striving to get more freedom in all activities
passage, it would best fit in
(3) by discharge our new responsibilities satisfactorily
(1) paragraph 1 (2) paragraph 2
(4) by broadening our viewpoints in all spheres of life
(3) paragraph 3 (4) paragraph 5
10. What should be our watchword?
7. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that
because the U.S. Army reopened the Iditarod Trail in 1972, (1) wealth (2) honesty
(1) more people could compete in the Iditarod race (3) service (4) work
(2) the mushers had to get permission from the U.S. Army 11. According to the passage, the greatest crime in India today
to hold the race is
(3) the trail was cleared all the way to Nome (1) idleness (2) population
(4) the Iditarod race became a seasonal Army competition (3) corruption (4) unemployment
12. Which one of these is the fundamental law of progress?
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-12) : Read the following passage and answer (1) courage (2) honesty
the questions given after it. (3) patience (4) wisdom
Freedom has assuredly given us a new status and new opportunities.
But it also implies that we should discard selfishness, laziness and all DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-15) : Read the following passage and
narrowness of outlook. Our state of freedom implies toil and new answer the questions given after it.
values for old things. We should so discipline ourselves as to be able
My father was passionate about two things : education and socialism.
to discharge our new responsibilities satisfactorily. If there is any
He was himself a born teacher. Indeed, he could never restrain himself
one thing that needs to be stressed more than any other in the new
from teaching, and as a small boy I was frequently embarrassed by
set-up, it is that we should put into action our full capacity, each one
his desire to instruct everybody---people in railway carriages, for
of us, in productive effort---each one of us in his own sphere, however
instance---though I realised even then that it was an innocent desire,
humble. Work, increasing work should be our watchword. Work is
quite free from vanity. He was equally ready to receive instruction.
wealth and service is happiness. The greatest crime in India today is
Education, to men of his generation and temperament, was something
idleness. If we root our idleness, all our difficulties including our
it has largely ceased to be nowadays. It was the great golden gateway
conflicts, will gradually disappear. Whether as a constable or as a
to the enchanted realms of the mind.

EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-131
13. The author wants us to know that his father 17. S1. The soldiers were starving.
(1) was a school teacher S2. ________________________________
(2) was an educationist and socialist S3. ________________________________

S4. ________________________________
(3) used to travel a lot
S5. The enemy easily defeated them.
(4) loved teaching
P. Theirs leaders were dead.
14. The author often felt embarrassed by the behaviour of his
Q. Their clothes were in rags.
father because
R. Their ammunition was expended.
(1) he taught badly
Choose from the given options below.
(2) he taught even at odd places (1) QPR (2) PRQ (3) RQP (4) PQR
(3) he wanted to show off his learning
(4) he lost self control while teaching DIRECTIONS (Qs. 18 & 19) : Following questions have the
second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from
15. To the generation of writer's father, education was
the given options to complete it.
(1) an old fashioned enterprise
18. A. Clive was determined to
(2) the result of good teaching B. _____________________________________
(3) an explanation of the world of imagination C. so he informed the council accordingly.
(4) one aspect of socialism (1) build a palace
(2) reform the administration
(3) modify the ammunitions
from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given. (4) destroy the slums
Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should 19. A. The art of printing was introduced by
appear to complete the paragraph. B. _____________________________________
16. S1. The boy was drowning. C. during the reign of Edward IV.
S2. _________________________ (1) Jon Wong in China

(2) Peter Don in France
S3. _________________________
(3) Edwin Harvey in Germany
S4. _________________________
(4) William Caxton in England
S5. The man risked his own life.
P. He shouted for help. DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-29) : Choose the word which best fills the
Q. A workman heard the boy's shouts. blank from the four options given.
R. He plunged into the river. 20. Usha was badly______ by the news which she got in the
letter.
Choose from the given options below.
(1) electrified (2) petrified
(1) PRQ (2) PQR (3) RQP (4) RPQ
(3) deranged (4) shaken

EBD_7396
21. Success comes to those who are vigilant not to permit DIRECTIONS (Qs. 30-35) : Select the meaning of the given
______ from the chosen path. phrases/idioms.
(1) distraction (2) deviation 30. To clear the air
(3) alienation (4) diversion (1) to work hard (2) to wash properly
22. Their____to scale the mountain peak was an absolute failure. (3) to remove tension (4) to create confusion
(1) attempt (2) desire 31. No axe to grind
(3) anxiety (4) proposal (1) a bad situation (2) to rebuke
23. Changes in the socio-economic environment have generated (3) to act selflessly (4) to confuse others
a sense of_____crisis among the people. 32. A good samaritan
(1) deliberate (2) fearful (1) a genuinely helpful person
(3) damaging (4) profound (2) an honest politcian
24. The Chairman will come here at 5 p.m. to_____ a lecture. (3) a clever person
(1) attain (2) speak (4) a priest
(3) talk (4) deliver 33. Gift of the gab
25. Undoubtedly, English is the most___spoken language in (1) lucky
the world today. (2) a big surprise
(1) elaborately (2) greatly (3) to have a talent for speaking
(3) widely (4) broadly (4) an honest person
26. To say that a rectangle will never be a square because it is a 34. Pillar to post
rectangle is simply to___ the very thing you profess to (1) driven from one place to another
prove. (2) very tiresome journey
(1) ensure (2) insure (3) main supports of a building
(3) assume (4) contradict (4) clumsy looking objects
27. A five-year-old boy was_____ from his school on Monday 35. To have cold feet
last by his servant for a ransom of ` 8, 000. (1) to feel very cold
(1) driven (2) arrested (2) to pay much attention to
(3) escorted (4) kidnapped (3) to lose confidence
28. The car driver was arrested for rash driving and his licence (4) to pour water on something
was_____ by the police.
(1) impounded (2) prescribed
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-43) : In the following passage there are
(3) suspended (4) penalised some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most
29. The audience____ at the end of drama. appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
(1) applauded (2) appraised Many of us believe that science is something modern, (36)
(3) exploded (4) appreciated the truth is that man has been using science for (37) very long
time. However, it has (38) a greater effect on human lives in the

EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-133
last 25 or 30 years than in the hundreds of years (39) the invention 45. Mike _______________ on thin ice for two hours when he
of the plough. The marvellous gifts of science have made modern heard the first crack.
life (40) and comfortable. But science has at the same time created (1) had been skating (2) skating
new problems. One of these, which may become (41) in the years
(3) to skate (4) none of these
to come, is that of 'jet- lag'. With the coming of modem jets, flying
46. Rima _____________ Shyam for years about his smoking
at more than 900 kilometres an hour, the world (42) very small
habits, but he just won’t listen.
indeed. Today if you leave New Delhi at 4.00 in the morning, you
(43) eat an early breakfast in the sky over Kabul, and be in London (1) warn (2) warned
by about 1.00 p.m. (3) has been warning (4) warns
36. (1) unless (2) if (3) through (4) Although 47. Garima _____________ to speak to Mickey ever since he
37. (1) the (2) that (3) that (4) an declared that a little thin ice shouldn’t scare anyone.
38. (1) have (2) had (3) has (4) have been (1) refuse (2) has refused
39. (1) from (2) for (3) since (4) by (3) refusing (4) refuses
40. (1) dull (2) exciting (3) aimless (4) failure
41. (1) bad (2) worse (3) good (4) better DIRECTIONS (Qs. 48-50) : Select the word which means the
similar of the given word
42. (1) can become (2) became
48. REMEDIAL
(3) has become (4) become
(1) Punitive (2) Stringent
43. (1) will (2) can (3) must (4) ought
(3) Corrective (4) Strict
49. TRIVIAL
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44-47) : Select the most appropriate option
to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. (1) Unimportant (2) Transparent
44. Rima _______________ an acceptance speech, but the (3) Important (4) Unexpected
Leader of the Year title went to Henna instead. 50. INCREDIBLE
(1) will prepare (2) prepared (1) Hard to believe (2) Considerable
(3) had prepared (4) preparing (3) Inconsistent (4) Unsatisfactory

EBD_7396
EBD_7085
MT-135
ANSWER SHEET

City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26.
43.
10. 27.
44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
17. 34. 50.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 18. 35.
2. 19. 36.
3. 20. 37.
4. 21. 38.
5. 22. 39.
6. 23. 40.
7. 24. 41.
8. 25. 42.
9. 26. 43.
10. 27. 44.
11. 28.
45.
12. 29.
46.
13. 30.
47.
14. 31.
48.
15. 32.
49.
16. 33.
50.
17. 34.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
5


1. 1 2 3 4

1. 1 2 3 4
1. 1 2 3 4
EBD_7396
1. Deforestation leads to 5. Which of the following characteristics does not belong to

(1) soil erosion and degradation of soil. flowering plants?
(2) climate change and decrease in ground water level. (1) Seeds are naked.
(2) Conducting tissue is well developed.
(3) reduction of forest produce and loss of biodiversity.
(3) Shows nodes and internodes.
(4) increase in fertility of the soil leading to more yield.
(4) Shows the presence of root hairs.
(a) Wastes are of two types, biodegradable and non-
Column I Column II biodegradable.
(A) Jaundice (p) Loss of motion functions (b) Biodegradable wastes should be separated and kept in
(B) Paralysis (q) Immune system blue colour bins for garbage collectors.
(C) Trypanosoma (r) Vaccination (c) Ozone is formed in stratosphere by action of ultraviolet
radiations on oxygen.
(D) Body defence against (s) Increase in the bile
pathogens pigments in the blood
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(E) Edward Jenner (t) Sleeping sickness
(3) (a) and (b) (4) None of these
(1) A - (p); B - (s); C - (t); D - (q); E - (r) 7. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly
(2) A - (s); B - (p); C - (t); D - (q); E - (r) but birds have feathers that help them to fly. In the context
(3) A - (s); B - (p); C - (t); D - (r); E - (q) of evolution this means that
(1) reptiles have evolved from birds.
(4) A - (s); B - (t); C - (p); D - (r); E - (q)
(2) there is no evolutionary connection between reptiles
and birds.
(a) Vaccines are small doses of live, pathogenic viruses or (3) feathers are homologous structures in both the
bacteria. organisms.
(b) Hypersecretion of insulin results in diabetes mellitus. (4) birds have evolved from reptiles.
(c) Malarial infection is characterized by paroxysms of 8. On the basis of following features identify correct option.
chills, fever, sweating, enlargement of liver and spleen (I) It is caused by bacterium Neisseria gonorrboeae.
etc. (II) It spreads through sexual contact common toilets and
Which of the above statements is correct? under clothes.
(1) only (a) (2) only (b) (III) It causes pus containing discharge pain around
(3) only (c) (4) None of these genitalia and burning sensation during urination.
4. If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the (1) Syphilis (2) Gonorrhoea
temperature of the earth will (3) Trichomoniasis (4) Genital warts
(1) increase 9. An experiment was set up to determine the percentage of
(2) go on decreasing water absorbed by raisins. If the mass of dry raisins was
(3) increase during day and decrease during night 40 g and mass of wet raisins was 45 g, the percent water
(4) be unaffected absorbed would be

EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-139
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)

45 40 (3) (a) and (c) (4) None of these
(1) 100 (2) 100
40 45 13. Geeta was asked to prepare a temporary mount of onion peel
and list the steps. While writing, she wrote the following
45 40 45 40 steps which may not be in proper sequence. The correct
(3) 100 (4) 100 sequence would be
40 45
(i) add a few drops of safranine stain and transfer to a
10. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer slide.
using the codes given below: (ii) cover it with a cover slip.
(iii) add a drop of glycerine.
Column I Column II
(iv) take out onion peel.
(A) Cell wall (p) Site of protein synthesis
(v) keep the peel in water in a petridish.
(B) Ribosomes (q) External support (1) i, ii, iii, iv, v (2) iv, v, iii, ii, i
protection and made of (3) iv, v, i, iii, ii (4) v, iv, i, iii, ii
14. Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex
cellulose
arc?
(C) Endoplasmic (r) Production and segrega- (1) Receptors Muscles Sensory neuron Motor
reticulum tion of proteins to be neuron Spinal cord
secreted. (2) Receptors Motor neuron Spinal cord Sensory
neuron Muscle
(D) Golgi body (s) Storage of water cell sap
(3) Receptors Spinal cord Sensory neuron Motor
(E) Vacuoles (t) Sorting, packaging, neuron Muscle
labelling of cell products (4) Receptors Sensory neuron Spinal cord Motor
(1) A - (p); B - (q); C - (r); D - (t); E - (s) neuron Muscle
15. On the basis of following features identify the correct option
(2) A - (q); B - (p); C - (r); D - (s); E - (t)
I. They can be identified by their melting or boiling points
(3) A - (q); B - (p); C - (r); D - (t); E - (s) II. There properties are different from their constituents.
(4) A - (q); B - (p); C - (t); D - (r); E - (s) (1) Elements (2) Compounds
11. A student accidentally spilled a few drops of a solution over (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
the shirt. The area became blue-black because the solution 16. Four students (A), (B), (C) and (D) independently observed
was the evaporation of water under different conditions, and
recorded the temperature of water at regular intervals as
(1) an acid which burnt the patch of cloth.
shown below.
(2) iodine which reacted with starched part of shirt.
Placing of experimental Temperature recording
(3) potassium dichromate which oxidised the piece of shirt. S tudents
s etup in/under in 1 5 minutes
(4) HCl which reacted with metanil pigment of the shirt. (A ) sun increas ed gradu ally
12. Consider the following statements: (B) o pen air decreas ed grad u ally
(a) In muscles, anaerobic respiration produces carbon (C) a fan initially increas ed , then
dioxide, water and energy. became con s tant
(D) a co rner o f th e roo m initially increas ed , then
(b) Artificial kidney is device to remove nitrogenous waste
gradu ally decreas ed
products from blood through dialysis. The correct recording of observations is that of the student:
(c) Food is translocated inside the plants through phloem. (1) (A) (2) (B)
Which of the above statements are correct? (3) (C) (4) (D)

EBD_7396
17. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
using the codes given below: (3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)
Column-I Column-II 21. An element ‘X’ is yellow coloured solid, insoluble in water
(Common name) (Chemical name/ but soluble in carbon disulphide. It has low melting point
Chemical present) 114.5°C. It boils at 445°C and it burns with pale blue flame
(A) Slaked lime (p) Zinc carbonate forming pungent smelling gas ‘Y’ which turns moist blue
(B) Baking soda (q) Calcium hydroxide litmus red and finally colourless. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
(1) C, CO2 (2) N, NO2
(C) Calamine solution (r) Sodium bicarbonate
(3) S, SO2 (4) I2, I2O5
(D) Milk of Magnesia (s) Magnesium 22. In which of the following conditions, the distance between
hydroxide the molecules of hydrogen gas would increase?
(1) A (p); B (q); C (r); D (s) (i) Increasing pressure on hydrogen contained in a closed
(2) A (q); B (r); C (p); D (s) container
(3) A (r); B (s); C (q); D (p) (ii) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container
(4) A (s); B (p); C (q); D (r) (iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen
gas
18. Which of the following is incorrect?
(iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without
(1) Periods are the horizontal rows of elements
increasing the volume of the container
(2) Elements in the same group have equal valency
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv)
(3) Groups have elements with consecutive numbers (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)
(4) Isotopes are elements of the same group 23. Match column-I (Ore) with Column-II (Element) and select
19. Four students observed the colour and odour of acetic acid the correct answer using the codes given below:
in its reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate. They Column-I (Ore) Column-II (Element)
tabulated their observations as below: (A) Ilmenite (p) Zinc
Colour of Odour of Action with sodium (B) Galena (q) Tungsten
Students
acetic acid acetic acid hydrogen carbonate (C) Sphalerite (r) Lead
(A) Blue Fruity Gas evolves without
(D) Scheelite (s) Titanium
bubbles
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p
(B) Colourless Smell of Effervescence
vinegar (2) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) q
(C) Light green Odourless Gas evolves without (3) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
bubbles (4) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
(D) Light brown Rotten egg Effervescence 24. Consider the following statements:
(a) e/m ratio of particles of canal rays remains constant.
The correct set of observations is that of student
(1) (A) (2) (B) (b) The energy of orbit closest to nucleus is lowest.
(3) (C) (4) (D) (c) Cl– has 18 electrons and 18 protons.
20. Consider the following statements: (d) The maximum number of electrons in an energy level is
(a) An oxidation reaction can proceed only in the company equal to 2n2.
of a reduction reaction.
(b) Ionic reactions taking place in aqueous solution are Which of the above statements(s) is/are correct?
generally fast. (1) Only (b) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(c) The precipitate of copper sulphide is red in colour. (3) (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(d) Silver can displace copper from an aqueous solution of
copper sulphate.
EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-141
25. Consider the following statements : 29. Consider the following statements :
Hard water does not give lather with soap because hard (a) Change in momentum is impulse.
water contains:
(b) A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses the
(a) calcium bicarbonate
(b) magnesium bicarbonate direction.
(c) chlorides of calcium and magnesium (c) For stable equilibrium force has to be zero and potential
(d) sulphates of calcium and magnesium energy should be minimum.
Which of these statements are correct ? (d) Force required to accelerte a mass in two perpendicular
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
directions is never same.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
26. Which statement is incorrect regarding the following reaction? Which of the above statements are correct?
Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2 Ag(s) (1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(1) This is the example of redox reaction as well as (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) All of the above
displacement reaction. 30. In order that a floating object be in a stable equilibrium, its
(2) Cu is reducing agent, because it reduces the Ag + to centre of buoyancy should be
Ag. (1) vertically above its centre of gravity
(3) Cu is reducing agent because it itself gets reduced and (2) vertically below its centre of gravity
oxidises AgNO3 (3) horizontally in line with its centre of gravity
(4) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (4) may be anywhere
27. Consider the following statements: 31. Two objects of masses m1 and m2 are placed at a distance d.
(a) Elements in a group have same number of valency The force of gravitational attraction between them is
proportional to
electrons.
(b) Variation of atomic size along a period show a erratic m1m2
(1) (2) m1m2 d 2
behaviour towards the end. d2
(c) Electro-positive character decreases on moving down
a group. d2 m1m2
(3) (4)
(d) Electro-negativity in a period increases right from the m1m2 d
alkali metal to the inert gas element. 32. A body of mass 10 kg at rest is acted upon simultaneously
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? by two forces 4N and 3N at right angles to each other. The
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (d) kinetic energy of the body at the end of 10s is
(1) 50 J (2) 100 J
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
(3) 125 J (4) 144 J
28. If we know the magnitude and direction of the net force
33. In the situation shown in the figure, coefficient of friction
acting on a body of given mass. Newton’s second law of
between the block and ground is 0.2, m = 2 kg, F1 = 5N and
motion allows us to calculate its
F2 = 4N. If the block is displaced by 10 m, match the following.
(1) position (2) speed
(g = 10 ms–2)
(3) velocity (4) acceleration

EBD_7396
F2 Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
60º (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)
(3) (a) and (b) (4) All of the above
F1 m 38. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
Column I Column II
Column I Column II (A) Electric potential (p) The obstruction offer to
(A) Magnitude of work (p) 20 J the flow of charge
done by F1
(B) Electric current (q) The electric work done per
(B) Magnitude of work (q) 30 J
unit time
done by F2
(C) Electric power (r) The rate of flow of charges
(C) Magnitude of work (r) 40 J
(D) Resistance (s) The electric work done per
done by friction
unit charge
(D) Magnitude of increase (s) 50 J
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) q, (D) p
in K.E of the block
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p, (D) s
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) s, (D) q
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
(3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
39. A soft iron bar is enclosed by a coil of insulated copper wire
(4) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p, (D) s
as shown in figure. When the plug of the key is closed, the
34. On the basis of following features identify correct option: face B of the iron bar marked as
I. It is the characteristic of a sound. (1) N-pole
II. It distinguishes an acute or a shrill note from a dull or (2) S-pole
flat note. (3) N-pole if current is large
(1) Loudness (2) Quality (4) S-pole if current is small
(3) Pitch (4) Both (1) and (2) A B
35. The minimum size of a room required to hear an echo of
sound with a speed of 300 m/s is
(1) 16 m (2) 15 m
(3) 14 m (4) 17 m
36. The pupil of the eye changes in size to adjust for
(1) objects at different distances + – Rheostat K
(2) different amount of light
40. Ocean thermal energy is due to
(3) objects of different sizes
(1) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(4) different colours
(2) tides in the ocean
37. Consider the following statements :
(3) energy stored by the water waves
(a) Real image is always inverted. (4) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
(b) Virtual image is always erect. 41. Let D = a2 + b2 + c2, where a and b are consecutive integers
(c) Image formed by a concave lens is always real and and c = ab. Then D is
inverted
EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-143
(1) always an even integer. 49. Two concentric circles with centre O have A, B, C, D as the
(2) always an odd integer. points of intersection with the line as shown in the figure.
(3) sometimes an odd integer, sometimes not If AD = 12 cm and BC = 8 cm, the length of AB, CD, AC and
BD are respectively.
(4) sometimes a rational number, sometimes not
42. If L.C.M. {1, 2, 3, .... , 200} = b × L.C.M. {102, 103, 200} then
b=
(1) 201 (2) 401
O
(3) 101 (4) 301
43. If H.C.F. (a, b) = 9 and a . b = 100, then
L.C.M. (a, b) =
A B M C D
(1) 200 (2) 900
(3) 100 (4) 150
(1) 2 cm, 2 cm, 10 cm, 10 cm
44. If , are the zeroes of f(x) = x2 – 5x + b and – = 1, then
(2) 10 cm, 10 cm, 2 cm, 2 cm
b is
(3) 10 cm, 2 cm, 10 cm, 2 cm
(1) 1 (2) 6
(4) 2 cm, 10 cm, 2 cm, 10 cm
(3) 4 (4) 0
50. A hollow sphere of internal and external diameters 4 cm and
45. Which of the following is not a solution of the pair of
equations 3x – 2y = 4 and 9x – 6y = 12 8 cm respectively, is melted into a cone of base diameter
(1) x = 2, y = 1 (2) x = 4, y = 4 8 cm. The height of the cone is
(3) x = 6, y = 7 (4) x = 5, y = 3 (1) 4 cm (2) 14 cm
46. Which constant should be added and subtracted to solve (3) 16 cm (4) 56 cm
the quadratic equation 4x2 – 3x 5 0 by the method of 51. In the figure, OACB represents a quadrant of a circle.
completing the square? The radius OA = 3.5 cm, OD = 2 cm.
B
9 3
(1) (2)
10 16 C D
3 3
2 cm
(3) (4)
4 4
A
47. x1, x2, x3, ..... are in A.P. If x1 + x7 + x10 = – 6 and 3.5 cm O
x3 + x8 + x12 = – 11, then the value of x3 + x8 + x22 is
The area of the shaded portion is
(1) 21 (2) –21
(3) 20 (4) –20 (1) 613 cm2 (2) 6.13 cm2
48. A vertical stick 12m long casts a shadow 8 m long on the (3) 316 cm2 (4) 3.16 cm2
ground. At the same time a tower casts the shadow 40m long 52. The value of tan2 60° cosec2 45° + sec2 45° sin30° is
on the ground. The height of the tower is
(1) –7 (2) 6
(1) 12 m (2) 8 m
(3) 60 m (4) 40 m (3) –6 (4) 7

EBD_7396
53. An aeroplane at a height of 600 m passes vertically above 58. In figure, if l || m, then the value of x is
another aeroplane at an instant when their angles of
elevation at the same observing point are 60º and 45º
l
respectively. How many metres higher is the one from the 3y
other ?
(1) 286.53 m (2) 274.53 m 2y + 25°
m
(3) 253.58 m (4) 263.83 m x + 15°
54. If the mid-point of the line joining (3, 4) and (p, 7) is (x, y) and
2x + 2y + 1 = 0, then p =
(1) 30° (2) 45°
17 (3) 50° (4) 60°
(1) 15 (2) –
2 59. In ABC, if A = 50° and B = 60°, then the shortest and
largest sides of the triangle are
17 (1) AC and AB (2) BC and AB
(3) – 15 (4)
2 (3) AC and BC (4) BC and AC
60. Water flows out through a circular pipe whose internal
55. While computing mean of grouped data, we assume that the
diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 6 metres per second into a
frequencies are cylindrical tank. The radius of whose base is 60 cm. The rise
(1) evenly distributed over all the class in the level of water in 30 minutes is
(2) centred at the classmarks of the class (1) 3 m (2) – 3 m
(3) centred at the upper limits of the class (3) 6 m (4) – 6 m
(4) centred at the lower limits of the class 61. Voting in the Estates General was conducted on the principle
56. The probability expressed as a percentage of a particular of-
(1) Each member of vote
occurence can never be
(2) Male adult franchise
(1) less than 100
(3) Universal adult franchise
(2) less than 0 (4) Each estate one vote
(3) greater than 1 62. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
(4) anything but a whole number I. It is related to the three demands made by Lenin.
57. If the polynomials 2x3 + mx2 +3x – 5 and x3 + x2 – 4x + m II. It laid emphasis on the transfer of land to the peasants.
leaves the same remainder when divided by x – 2, then the III. It advocated on the nationalisation of banks.
value of m is IV. Lenin argued that the Bolshevik party rename itself as
the communist party through his demands.
3 13 (1) Reign of terror (2) Bloody Sunday
(1) – (2) –
13 3 (3) April theses (4) October Revolution
63. Consider the following statements with reference to
3 13 industrialisation-
(3) (4) (a) At the end of the 19th century, 80% of the total workers
13 3
in Europe were employed in the technologically
advanced industrial sector.

EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-145
(b) The American war of Independence was the major 68. Assertion (A) : The poor could not collect their firewood
cause of reduction of cotton exports from India. from the forests as the enclosed land became the exclusive
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? property of one landowner.
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only Reason (R) : Deprived of the rights of poor and driven off
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b) the land they moved from Midlands to the southern
64. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer countries of England.
using the codes given below: (1) A and R are true and R explains A.
Column I (Attribute) Column II (Significance) (2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(A) Broken chain (p) Strength (3) A is true but R is false
(B) Breastplate with Eagle (q) Heroism (4) A is false but R is true.
(C) Sword (r) Being freed 69. Which of the following constitute pastoral communities of
(D) Crown of oak (s) Readiness to fight Africa?
(1) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r (1) Bedouins, Berbers, Boran, Maasai, Somali, Turkana,
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s (2) Kurumas, Kurubas, Dhangar, Gujjars, Gaddis.
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q (4) Penda, Chena, Milpa,
(4) (A) s, (B) q, (C) r, (D) p (3) Yerukula, Korava, Karacha,
65. Champaran Satyagrah was launched by Gandhiji against- 70. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) High revenue demands (1) FCI - Food Corporation of India
(2) Indigo planters
(2) PAP - Poverty Alleviation Programmes
(3) Mill owners
(4) Salt tax (3) ICDS - Integrated Child Development Services
66. What was the name of book written by Phan Boi Chau? (4) All are correctly matched
(1) History of Vietnam 71. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(2) History of Laos
(3) History of Cambodia
Column I Column II
(4) History of the loss of Vietnam
(A) Leo Tolstoy (p) French writer
(B) Charles Dickens (q) Russian writer
(a) Croquet was a slow played elegant game.
Considered suitable for women. (C) Emile Zola (r) English novelist,
(b) While hockey and football became colonial game, journalist

Cricket remained an international game. & Translator
(c) Playing Cricket became a sign of superior social and (D) George Eliot (s) Greatest novelist of
racial states in colonial territories. Victorian period
(d) Cricket in colonial India was organised on the principle
(1) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q
of race and religion.
(2) (A) r, (B) q, (C) s, (D) p
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) (A) r, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) (4) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s

EBD_7396
72. Which two countries were involved in opium wars? (1) Vinoba Bhave (2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(1) Britain and Japan (2) Britain and Poland (3) Subhash Chandra Bose (4) Sardar Patel
(3) Britain and China (4) Japan and China
(a) Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal,
73. Surat and Hoogly were replaced with- metallic minerals, mica and other non-metallic minerals.
(1) Bombay and Orissa (b) Limestone is the basic raw material for the Iron and
(2) Bombay and Calcutta Steel Industry.
(3) Masulipatam and Calcutta (c) Biogas is produced from shrubs, farm waste, animal
(4) Bombay and Masulipatam and human wastes.
74. Why is a time tag of two hours from Gujarat to Arunachal (d) Hydro electricity is non-renewable resource.
Pradesh?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
(1) Because of India’s east-west extent
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Because of India’s north-south extent
79. Assertion (A) : Sugarcane grows well in hot and humid
(3) Because of India’s proximity to oceans climate with a temperature of 21°C to 27°C and annual rainfall
(4) Because of India’s landmass between 75cm - 100 cm.
75. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer Reason (R) : Tea cultivation is an example of shifting
agriculture.
Column I Column II
Name of the River Valley Rivers
(3) A is true and R is false
Project
(4) A is false and R is true.
(A) Bhakra Nangal (p) Krishna 80. On the basis of ownership industries are categories as-
(B) Nagarjun Sagar (q) Mahanadi (1) Large scale and small scale industries
(C) Rajasthan Canal (r) Satluj (2) Public sector, private sector, joint & cooperative sectors
(3) Basic / Key and consumer Industries
(D) Hirakund (s) Beas, Satluj
(4) Agro based and mineral based Industries
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
81. With reference to the tourist industry, consider the following
(2) (A) p, (B) s, (C) q, (D) r statements-
(3) (A) q, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p (a) Over 2.6 million foreign tourists visit India every year
(4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q (b) Tourism helps in the development of international
understanding about our culture and heritage.
76. What does HYV stand for?
(1) High Yielding Varieties
(2) High Yolk Variety (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
(3) Health Young Variety 82. The largest population of scheduled Tribes is in-
(1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh
(4) None of them
(3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Sikkim
77. On the basis of following features identify the correct option- 83. The most important objective behind the establishment of
I. He was the follower of Mahatma Gandhi. biosphere reserves is-
II. He was one of the votaries of Gandhi’s concept of Gram (1) Protection of endangered species of animals
Swarajya. (2) Preservation of tigers and Crocodiles
III. He started Bhoodan-Gramdan movement. (3) Preservation of the overall biotic diversity
IV. His movement is also known as Blood less revolution. (4) Optimum utilization of the forest products
EBD_7085
Mock Test-5 MT-147
84. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer (b) The World Bank gives loans to the individuals for the
using the codes given below: monetary help.
Column I Column II (c) The UN secretary General is the chief administrative
(A) Primary Sector (p) Transportation officer of UN.
(B) Secondary Sector (q) Manufacturing (d) The UN is only responsible for maintaining
(C) Tertiary Sector (r) Agriculture international law.
(1) (A) r, (B) q, (C) p Which of the above statements are correct?
(2) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (A) q, (B) r, (C) p (3) (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q 90. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
85. Consider the locational coordinates of stations X and Y and using the codes given below:
mark the correct answer- Column I Column II
I. X. 50°E longitude and 40°S latitude Type of countries Growth rate
II. Y. 50°E longitude and 60°s latitude (A) All democratic regimes (p) 4.28
Time of station X will be- (B) All dictorial regimes (q) 3.95
(1) Ahead of Y (2) behind of Y
(C) Poor countries (r) 4.42
(3) Same as station Y (4) Independent of that of Y
under dictatorship
86. ________climate is also known as the Tundra climate.
(1) Humid (2) Dry Mesothermal (D) Poor countries under (s) 4.34
(3) Monsoon (4) Polar democracy
87. Agriculture practiced only for the family’s own needs is (1) (A) p, (B) q, (C) s, (D) r
known as- (2) (A) q, (B) r, (C) s, (D) p
(1) Commercial farming (2) Subsistence farming (3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) q, (D) s
(3) Shifting agriculture (4) Horticulture (4) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q
91. Assertion (A) : In 1979, a commission under the
chairmanship of shri B. P. Mandal was set up to identify
Column I Column II
(A) Kanhayalal Maniklal (p) Founder president of OBC.
Munshi Bhartiya Jansangh Reason (R) : A person who thinks that caste is the principal
(B) Shyam prased (q) Leader of the communist basis of community is called castist.
Mukherjee Party (1) A and R are true and R explains A.
(C) B. R. Ambedkar (r) Founder of the swatantra (2) A and R are true but R does not explain A.
Party (3) A is true and R is false
(D) Somnath Lahiri (s) Chairman of the Drafting (4) A is false and R is true.
Committee 92. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
(1) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q using the codes given below:
(2) (A) p, (B) r, (C) q, (D) s Column I Column II
(3) (A) q, (B) s, (C) p, (D) r (A) Pressure Group (p) Narmada Bacho Andolan
(4) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q (B) Long term movement (q) Asom Gana Parishad
89. Consider the following statements- (C) Single issue movement (r) Women’s movement
(a) The UN Security Council is responsible for maintaining
(D) Political Party (s) Fertilizer dealers’
peace and security among countries.
association
EBD_7396
(1) (A) s, (B) r, (C) p, (D) q (3) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(2) (A) q, (B) s, (C) r, (D) p (4) Governor
97. According to the World Development Report 2006, brought
(3) (A) r, (B) p, (C) s, (D) q
out by the World Bank, countries with per capita income of
(4) (A) p, (B) q, (C) r, (D) s `4,53,000 p.a. and above are called ___________.
93. What does Kittiki - Hachchhiko mean? (1) Weak countries
(1) Catch and save (2) Sow and harvest (2) Rich countries
(3) Pluck and Plant (4) Pluck and throw (3) Low income countries
94. Which of the following states have bicameral legislature? (4) All of them
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Bihar 98. Consider the following statements-
C. Karnataka D. Maharashtra (a) Democracy aims to provide a fair share to every citizen
E. Tamil Nadu F. Uttar pradesh in the natural resources of the country.
Select the correct answer from the code given below- (b) A democracy gives every social group equal importance
(1) B, C, D and F (2) A, B, C and F to avoid any domination in the society.
(3) C, D, E and F (4) A, C, D and F (c) Democracy means rule by the government.
95. Which of the following is not included in the ‘Right to (d) Social democracy means there is different law for
Freedom’ in the constitution of India? different sections of the society.
(1) Freedom of speech and expression Which of the above statements are correct?
(2) Freedom of assemble with arms (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) Freedom to form association (3) (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Freedom to adopt any profession
99. How many times was Belgium’s constitution amended?
96. On the basis of following features identify the correct option-
(1) Twice (2) Thrice
I. He is the real ruler of the country.
II. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet. (3) Four times (4) Five times
III. It has an important role in the management of foreign 100. How do you describe the judicial machinery under COPRA?
affairs (1) 3 tier quasi-judicial machinery
IV. He is the ex-offices chairman of the planning (2) 2 tier quasi-judicial machinery
commission.
(3) 4 tier quasi-judicial machinery
(1) President
(2) Prime Minister (4) 5 tier quasi-judicial machinery

EBD_7085
MT-149
ANSWER SHEET
City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1. 36. 71.
2. 37. 72.
3. 38.
73.
4. 39.
74.
5. 40.
6. 41. 75.
7. 42. 76.
8. 43. 77.
9. 44. 78.
10. 45.
79.
11. 46.
80.
12. 47.
13. 48. 81.
14. 49. 82.
15. 50. 83.
16. 51. 84.
17. 52.
85.
18. 53.
86.
19. 54.
20. 55. 87.
21. 56. 88.
22. 57. 89.
23. 58. 90.
24. 59.
91.
25. 60.
92.
26. 61.
27. 62. 93.
28. 63. 94.
29. 64. 95.
30. 65. 96.
31. 66.
97.
32. 67.
98.
33. 68.
34. 69. 99.
35. 70. 100.
EBD_7396
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 1
PART A : Mental Ability Test MOCK TEST 1

ANSWER KEY
1 (1) 6 (1) 11 (4) 16 (1) 21 (3) 26 (1) 31 (4) 36 (3) 41 (3) 46 (4)
2 (1) 7 (4) 12 (2) 17 (3) 22 (1) 27 (3) 32 (2) 37 (1) 42 (3) 47 (1)
3 (2) 8 (2) 13 (2) 18 (3) 23 (3) 28 (3) 33 (3) 38 (1) 43 (1) 48 (1)
4 (2) 9 (3) 14 (2) 19 (4) 24 (4) 29 (1) 34 (2) 39 (2) 44 (3) 49 (1)
5 (3) 10 (3) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25 (2) 30 (4) 35 (4) 40 (2) 45 (3) 50 (2)
Hints and Explanations

1. (1) Here, all except Book are stationary items. Hence, the 8. (2) Let the number of questions attempted correctly be x.
answer is (1) Then, number of incorrect ones = (60 – x).
2. (1) D becomes E, A becomes B, T becomes U, E becomes F. 4x – 1 (60 – x) = 130 5x = 190 x = 38
Here each letters is coded by the next in alphabetic 9. (3) First tackles the second.
sequence. Therefore, " BRASS' will be coded 'CSBTT'.
You can use the numbered alphabet to help you to 5 6 4 6 7 5
10. (3) Clearly, we have : 12, 21
recognize the pattern. 10 10
3. (2) In the first and second statement, the common word is
4 8 10
juice' and the common code word is 'See' So, ‘see’ means So, missing number = 32 .
‘Juice’. In second and third statements, the common 10
word is 'is' and the common code is "lee" So, lee' means 11. (4) Clearly, (2 + 3)2 = 25, (15 + 6)2 = 441, (10 + 7)2 = 289
'is' Thus, in second statement, the remaining word " So, missing number = (12 + 13)2 = 625
Sweet" is coded as code for the message given. 12. (2) The letters in each row follow the sequence +2. So, the
4. (2) The movement of A and B are shown in the following missing letter will be 2 steps ahead of I, which is K.
diagram. In each row, the sum of first two numbers is equal to
B A the third number.
4 km So, missing number = 3 + 5 = 8. Hence, the missing
character is K8.
3 km 3 km 13. (2) In this question, half-shaded leaf is moved clockwise.
So, option (2) is right one.
5 km O
Starting from O, the final position of A and B are shown.
Since the distance between A and B is 5 + 4 = 9 km.
5. (3) Triangle, rectangle and square and given numbers 5, 2
and 4 respectively. The numbers given in the 14. (2) Using the operations given in (2), we get the given
overlapped areas are obtained by multiplying these expression as :
numbers. For instance in the product of 2 × 4 because 200 + 100 – 300 + 200 ÷ 10 × 2 – 40
the corresponding area is overlapped by square (4) = 300 – 300 + 20 × 2 – 40
and rectangle (2). Similarly 40 is the product of 2 × 4 × 5, = 0 + 40 – 40 = 0
where the area common to triangle (5), rectangle (2) 15. (3) The terms of the given series are numbers formed by
and square (4). Naturally 'X' is the area where triangle joining together consecutive odd numbers in order i.e.
(5) is overlapped by rectangle (2). Hence 5 × 2 = 10 1 and 3, 3 and 5, 5 and 7, 7 and 9, 9 and 11, ......
6. (1) Clearly, the numerators of the fractions in the given So, missing terms = number formed by joining 11 and
sequence form the series 1, 3, 5, 7 in which each term is 13
obtained by adding 2 to the previous term. = 1113
The denominators of the fractions from the series 16. (1) The pattern is – 66, – 55, – 44, – 33, – 22, .....
2, 4, 8, 16, i.e., 21, 22, 23, 24. So, missing term = 105 – 11 = 94
17. (3) Let H, C, B and K represent the number of hens, cows,
So, the numerator of the next fraction will be (7 + 2) i.e.
bullocks and keepers respectively.
9 and the denominator will be 25 i.e. 32.
Then, as given we have :
9 H + C + B + K < 50 ........... (1)
Thus, the next term is
32 C = 2B ........... (2)
EBD_7396
2 Target NTSE (Class-10 Stage - 2)
C=H ........... (3) (Q. 28 and Q.29)
Let Mahima’s age = x. Then, Anita’s age = 2x,
H C B
K ........... (4) Rajan’s age = x/2, Deepti’s age = 4x, Lata’s age = x/4.
10
So, the descending order of ages is :
From (2), (3) and (4), we have :
Deepti > Anita > Mahima > Rajan > Lata.
10K = H + C + B
28. (3) Lata is the youngest.
10K = 2C + B = 2 × 2B + B 10K = 5B B = 2K
29. (1) Deepti is the eldest.
Thus, B = 2K, C = 2B = 4K, H = C = 4K
30. (4) Clearly, we have :
Total number of heads = H + C + B + K
Total number of legs = 2H + 4C + 4B + 2K COMPREHENSION (COM) (PREHENS) (ION)
(2H + 4C + 4B + 2K) – (H + C + B + K) = 69 MOCIONSNEHERP
H + 3C + 3B + K = 69 The middle letter is the seventh letter, which is S.
4K + 12K + 6K + K = 69 31. (4) We shall first find the number which occurs most often
23K = 69 K=3 in the given figures .Clearly, 3 appears ih each of the
Hence, number of cows = C = 4K = (4 × 3) = 12. above figures. Form figures (i), (ii) and (iii) it is clear
18. (3) The digit 1 comes at the ten’s place in numbers from that 4, 2, 5 and 1 appear adjacent to 3. Obviously, 6
110 to 119, 210 to 219, 310 to 319, 410 to 419, 510 to 519, appears opposite 3. Now from figures (i) and (ii), it is
clear that 3,2 and 5 appears adjacent to 4. Also 6 appears
610 to 619, 710 to 719, 810 to 819 and 910 to 919.
adjacent to 4 (since it lies opposite to 3 and therefore
Required number = 10 × 9 = 90
cannot appear opposite to 4). Obviously 1 appears
(Q19 to 21) opposite to 4.
Given F is a physiologist. B is the mother of F and E means 32. (2) The outer element rotates 135ºCW. The inner element
E is the brother or sister of F. rotates 90ºCW and gets laterally inverted. Also the
There are only two married couples in the family. Since D is semicircular portion gets turned to the inner side of this
married to A, so C, the Jeweller who is married to a lawyer element.
will be married to B. Again, the manager D is married to A 33. (3) In fig. 1 the small circle is on the left has side and in fig.
means A is the doctor Grand father of F and E. Also, no one 2. It moves to right hand side in fig. 3 The small circle is
else is an Engineer. So, E must be an Engineer. upward keeping in view the analogical relationship
19. (4) Clearly, E is an engineer, So, the answer is none of between fig. 1 and 2 the small circle in fig. 4, should
these move downward.
20. (4) Clearly, A is the grandfather of F and E is the brother or 34. (2) Each one of the figures except fig. (2), contains
sister of F. So, A is the grand father of E. incomplete square missing one line segment.
21. (3) Clearly, D, the manager is married to A, so AD is one of 35. (4) In all other figures, the initial point takes either two or
the couples in the family. three complete rounds while in fig. (4), it takes two
complete and one half round.
50
22. (1) Let speed be x = time taken 36. (3) Use inversion technique.
x
37. (1) Use upside-down technique.
300 100 38. (1) Use upside-down technique.
also = time taken.
3x x 40. (2) Clearly there are 4 columns containing 2 cubes each
Hence ratio is 1 : 2. and 6 columns containing 1 cube each.
23. (3) Mumbai is the capital of Maharashtra. Similarly, Jaipur Number of cube in columns of cubes = 4 × 2 = 8
is the capital of Rajasthan. Number of cubes in columns of 1 cube = 6 ×1 = 6.
24. (4) Clearly, 32 + 2 = 11, 72 + 2 = 51 Therefore total number of cube = 8 + 6 = 14
So, if the first number is x. Then second number is 41. (3) Upper small circles decreases where as lower dots increases.
x2 + 2. 42. (3)
Thus, the relationship is x, x2 + 2.
25. (2) The letters at the third and sixth places are repeated
thrice to code BOMBAY as MYMYMY. Similarly, the
letters at the third, sixth and ninth places are repeated 43. (1) In each row, the second figure is obtained from the first
thrice to code TAMIL NADU as MNUMNUMNU. figure by reversing the direction of the RHS arrow and
26. (1) P + R – Q means P is the son of R who is the wife of Q the third figure is obtained from the second figure by
i.e. Q is the father of P. reversing the direction of both the arrows.
27. (3) P × R ÷ Q means P is the brother of R who is the mother 44. (3) Tr = 11, Br = 31
of Q i.e. P is the uncle of Q. no. of students = Tr + Br – 1 = 11 + 31 – 1 = 41
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 3
45. (3) A is 18th from front and C is 24th Solutions 47 to 50:
Number of persons between A and C = 6.
T X 7
Since C is exactly in middle of A and B, so number of persons
between C and B = 6. X T 7
17 6 6 15 A 7 T
A C B
Number of persons in the queue As the first column is the sum of two 7s, i.e., 7 + 7 = 14. So T = 4
= ( 17 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 15 ) = 47. and 1 is carried over. Therefore, now 1 + X + T = L = 7 and since T
= 4 X = L – T – 1 = 7– 4 – 1 = 2.
46. (4) When the hands of the clock are in the same straight
line but not together, they are 30 minute spaces apart. Thus A = T + X = 4 + 2 = 6.
At 7 o’clock, they are 25 min. spaces apart. 47. (1) X = 2.
Minute hand will have to gain only 5 in. spaces. 48. (1) A L T = 467 (jumbled up)
55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min. 49. (1) T A X = 426 (jumbled up)
50. (2) Sum of second row = X + T + L = 13.
60 5 Third multiple of 13 = 39.
5 min. spaces are gained in 5 min . 5 min .
55 11
5
Required time = 5 min . past 7
11
PART B : ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST MOCK TEST 1

ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 6 (1) 11 (3) 16 (3) 21 (4) 26 (3) 31 (2) 36 (3) 41 (4) 46 (1)
2 (2) 7 (3) 12 (1) 17 (4) 22 (2) 27 (3) 32 (4) 37 (4) 42 (1) 47 (2)
3 (4) 8 (3) 13 (4) 18 (4) 23 (1) 28 (2) 33 (2) 38 (3) 43 (2) 48 (1)
4 (4) 9 (2) 14 (2) 19 (2) 24 (1) 29 (1) 34 (1) 39 (1) 44 (1) 49 (2)
5 (3) 10 (1) 15 (1) 20 (1) 25 (3) 30 (3) 35 (2) 40 (3) 45 (3) 50 (4)
1. (3) Humanistic approach in modern social, political and 9. (2) His chief desire was to do the greatest good to the
economic systems, reject in their working the basic greatest number of people.
principal that the free and creative enfoldment of every 10. (1) Though world famous, he never felt proud of his
man, woman and child is the true measure of the worth discoveries.
of any society. 11. (3) Dr. Carver was an American Negro slave, who by dint
2. (2) Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power have made of his ability became a scientist and educator of world-
wide fame.
the modern man an aggressor against everything that
is non-human, an exploiter and oppressor of those who 12. (1) They started looking on the ground for blood, hair or a
drag mark that would lead us to the deer killed by the
are poor, meek and unorganised.
tiger.
3. (4) The real attainment of any society requires
13. (4) Mothi whipped round and ran for dear life, beating the
understanding and imagination, in tegrity and air with his hands as if warding off a swarm of bees and
compassion, cooperation among people and harmony continuing to scream as he ran.
between the human species and the rest of the nature. 14. (2) a deer was killed by a tiger.
4. (4) Understanding is a specific quality in human species. 15. (1) The sudden and piercing scream of a human being in a
5. (3) Purpose and collective human efforts can solve the jungle, where a moment before all has been silent is
crisis to some extent. terrifying to hear.
6. (1) Power and Possession have been central pursuits of 20. (1) The word ‘inflict’ means burden someone with or
modern civilisation for a long time. impose.
7. (3) Peripheral mean of secondary importance. 21. (4) The word ‘inherit’ means become heir to or take over.
8. (3) His guardians wanted to educate him, but were too 22. (2) The word ‘probably’ means likely (very/most).
poor to do so. So he left home. He was hardly ten, 23. (1) The word ‘hanging around’ means linger or wait around.
when he began to work at small jobs to earn a little 24. (1) Vague notion is a right choice. Imagination is in itself
money for his school expenses. He continued to do so vague (unclear). While expressions cannot be vague.
even when he was at college. Theory is out of place for the context. Thoughts can be
vague or unclear or unstable.
EBD_7396
25. (3) Remorse is an emotion/action/feeling after the crime is 33. (2) ‘Blues’ refer to bad moods, melancholy, low spirit, ill
done. Hatred is for the other people who saw/hear/ temper.
gone through crime but certainly not for the prisoner. 34. (1) This means to talk about one’s profession in a dry,
Crime is done in anger and a cause. Obstinacy is boring way.
stubbornness. Only emotion that suits the context is 35. (2) Bad - blood refers to the element of animosity in a
Remorse. person and, thus, ill - feeling.
26. (3) If it would have been 'security' then it would have been 44. (1) Gravity is the singular subject which will have the
'provided' in the statement not 'subjected'. Exercise does present indefinite verb i.e., verb + s/es form.
not fit. Violation (to breech) is also out of place. Use of
45. (3) Capitalist society is the singular subject and the
'physical' in statement indicates 'violence'. It fits best
statement made is a dictum, so pesent infinitive tense
in the blank.
will be used.
27. (3) War is a negative word and it is synonym with mass
destruction, death hence certainly has grim 46. (1) The use of the word here is as a ‘noun’ not as a verb
consequences. Happy, Pleasing, exciting all have thus damage will be the right answer.
positive sense; so can not be linked with war. Tip : A sentence of form this can cause, will always be
28. (2) Option (b) best fits in the sentence to make the sentence followed by a noun.
grammatically correct. 47. (2) The right impression is ‘fond of’.
29 (1) The word 'remonstrated' means 'to make a protest or 48. (1) Profane means ‘unholy, not devoted to holy or religious
complain about something' which suits the content of purposes’. So option ‘a’ sacred would be the right
the sentence, therefore, (a) is the correct answer. antonym of this word.
30. (3) It means to get suspicious about some dealings. 49. (2) The word ‘obligatory’ means compulsory, mandatory,
31. (2) It means to always be upright and honest. required whose opposite is optional or voluntary.
32. (4) To fall flat means failing miserably or not being able 50. (4) The word ‘obscure’ means unclear whose opposite is
to create the effect or achieve the result one wanted clear.
to and, thus, meet cold reception.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 5
SAT (Scholastic Aptitude Test) MOCK TEST 1

ANS WER KEY
1. (4) 11. (2) 21. (3) 31. (3) 41. (2) 51. (1) 61. (1) 71. (1) 81. (3) 91. (4)
2. (2) 12. (2) 22. (2) 32. (1) 42. (2) 52. (3) 62. (2) 72. (2) 82. (3) 92. (2)
3. (1) 13. (4) 23. (2) 33. (2) 43. (2) 53. (2) 63. (3) 73. (2) 83. (2) 93. (1)
4. (1) 14. (3) 24. (4) 34. (4) 44. (1) 54. (1) 64. (1) 74. (4) 84. (1) 94. (2)
5. (4) 15. (3) 25. (4) 35. (2) 45. (1) 55. (1) 65. (2) 75. (2) 85. (3) 95. (2)
6. (3) 16. (3) 26. (3) 36. (3) 46. (2) 56. (3) 66. (4) 76. (3) 86. (3) 96. (3)
7. (1) 17. (3) 27. (4) 37. (3) 47. (1) 57. (1) 67. (2) 77. (4) 87. (1) 97. (1)
8. (1) 18. (2) 28. (1) 38. (2) 48. (3) 58. (1) 68. (4) 78. (2) 88. (2) 98. (4)
9. (2) 19. (3) 29. (1) 39. (1) 49. (3) 59. (4) 69. (4) 79. (4) 89. (1) 99. (3)
10. (1) 20. (4) 30. (2) 40. (3) 50. (2) 60. (3) 70. (3) 80. (1) 90. (4) 100. (4)

1. (4) Golgi complex was discovered by Camillio Golgi. It is 6. (3) The Mathura refinery was in the news for allegedly
made up of various membrane system e.g. cisternae, causing the white marble of the Taj Mahal to yellow.
vesicles and vacuoles. It modifies macromolecules The India government hired a panel to examine the
during their passage e.g., Glycosylation of protein (i.e., effects of the refinery. The panel found that the air
addition of carbohydrates) to produce glycoproteins. has high levels of suspended particulate matter,
Similarly, it synthesises hemicellulose, cellulose and caused by factory emissions, dust, construction and
pectin compound during cell division and hence exhaust from automobiles. These are causing the Taj
Mahal to change colour.
involved in cell wall formation in plant. Lysosomes are
known as suicidal bags due to the presence of 7. (1) In phylum Porifera, both sexual and asexual
hydrolytic enzymes. reproduction takes place. Sponges reproduce asexually
2. (2) Flowers are said to be unisexual if they have either by fragmentation and sexually by formation of gametes.
stamens (male or staminate) or carpels (female or Example : Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia.
pistillate), e.g. papaya, watermelon. They are known as 8. (1) Photosynthesis is formation of organic food from
bisexual if the flowers possess both stamens and carbon dioxide and water with the help of sunlight inside
chlorophyll containing cells. Oxygen is produced as
carpels, e.g. mustard, Hibiscus.
byproduct. Simple carbohydrate or sugar (e.g. glucose)
3. (1) Cell body is broad, rounded, pyriform part of the neuron is the main product from which other organic substances
that contains a central nucleus, abundant cytoplasm are formed. Excess of glucose is stored as starch to
and various cell organelles except centrioles. Dendrites function as internal energy reserve to be used as and
are fine short and branched protoplasmic processes of when required. Starch develops a blue-black colour with
cell body that pick up sensations and transmit the same iodine solution.
to the cell body. Axon is a long fibre like cytoplasmic 9. (2) Oxygen is essential for all aerobic forms and
process that carries impulses away from cell body. combustion activities. Atomic oxygen is highly active.
It combines with oxygen (O2) to form ozone. Ozone is a
Myelin sheath covers the axon of nerve cell.
deadly poison. Very little of it present in lower part of
4. (1) Glottis is a narrow slit like opening through which air atmosphere called troposphere. A good quantity of
enters into the trachea. Epiglottis guards the glottis ozone is present in stratum of atmosphere called
during swallowing of food; and does not allow any stratosphere (a height of 11-16 km above poles and 23-
food particle to get into the trachea. Duodenum is a 25 km above equator).
proximal part of small intestine which receives partially 12. (2) Manure provides a lot of organic matter (like humus) to
digested acidified food from stomach. Caecum is a small the soil which increases water retention capacity in
sandy soils and drainage as well as aeration in clayey
pouch that lies at the junction of small and large intestine
soils. By using biological waste materials as a manure,
which gives out a narrow blind tubular lymphoid
we recycle the wastes and protect our environment
outgrowth called vermiform appendix. from chemicals.
EBD_7396
14. (3) Nervous tissue is made up of an organized network of 24. (4) Black residue will appear due to formation of iron in
neurons specialised for conducting information via tubes (II) and (IV) because of displacement reactions
electrical impulse from one part of the body to another. taking place.
This impulse travels from the dendrite along the axon 2Al (s) + 3FeSO4 (aq) Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3Fe(s)
of its end. At the end of axon, the electrical impulse (Black residue)
sets off the release of some chemicals, which cross the Zn(s) + FeSO4 (aq) ZnSO4(aq) + Fe (s)
(Black residue)
synapse and start a similar impulse in a dendrite of the
26. (3) Curd contains lactic acid. Generally acids react with
next neuron.
metals to form different compound. Thus curd is not
15. (3) Molecular mass of CH3OH = 12 + 4 × 1 + 16 = 32 u. stored in metal containers of brass or copper as curd
Formula weight of CaCl2 = 40 + 2 × 35.5 = 111 u. can react with them and produce compounds which
Isotopes have same atomic number but different mass are not consumable for us.
number for example, 126 C and 146 C . 27. (4) Carbon compounds are of covalent nature. That is why
17. (3) Sulphide ores are roasted whereas carbonate ores are these are poor conductors of electricity and do not
caletned. Liquation method is used for the easily fusible have strong forces of attraction.
metals like tin. Volatile metals like Zn and Hg etc. can be 28. (1) An object is said to be in uniform motion when it covers
equal distances in equal intervals of time.
purified by distillation method.
29. (1) According to Newton’s second laws of motion the
18. (2) According to Mendeleev periodic properties of
external force acting on a body is directly proportional
elements are functions of their atomic masses. Thus to the rate of change of linear momentum.
isotopes should be place separately but as they are dp
i.e. F or F = Kma = ma [as K = 1]
chemically similar they are placed in same group. dt
30. (2) Value of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ does not depend
19. (3) Anhydrous CaCl2 absorbs moisture to keep the gas in on the mass of the falling body.
dry state. Otherwise, it will dissolve in moisture to form 31. (3) According to Archimedes’ principle and Law’s of
hydrochloric acid. floatation, volume of solid immersed in the liquid =
20. (4) Both helium (He) and nitrogen (N2) can be used. In volume of liquid displaced.
their presence, rancidity of fresh sample of an oil will 32. (1) Falling mass-changes potential energy into Kinetic
not take place. energy.
21. (3) Highly reactive metal oxides are not reduced by carbon. Compressed spring has potential energy.
These metals are obtained in free state by electrolytic Kinetic energy of a body is due to its motion.
reduction of their molten chloride salts. 34. (4) The distance between two consecutive compressions
or two consecutive rarefactions is called the
22. (2) The phenomenon of existence of a chemical element in
wavelength .
two or more forms differing in physical properties but
35. (2) When a ray of light passes from one medium to another
having almost same chemical nature is known as medium its direction changes.
allotropy. Graphite and diamond are crystalline
36. (3) Ciliary muscles increases or decreases the focal length
allotropes of carbon. Graphite is a good conductor of of the eye lens.
electricity due to presence of mobile electrons in it. 37. (3) In an electric circuit Ammeter is always connected in
CnH2n is a general formula for alkenes. Ethanol is series and voltmeter is always connected in parallel.
prepared by fermentation of molasses. Molasses, a by 38. (2) Properties of magnetic lines of force
product of sugar industry, has traces of sugar, which (i) they always start from north pole and end at the
gets broken down into ethanol. The fermentation is south pole of the magnet outside the magnet.
initiated by yeast, which secretes two enzymes called (ii) they never intersect each other.
invertase and zymase. The reaction is exothermic and 39. (1) Fossils fuels – coal, petroleum, etc, are non-renewable
carbon dioxide is released in the process. of energy. Sun, wind, biogas, etc, are renewable sources.
Invertase Nuclear fusion reactions are the source of energy in
C12 H 22 O11 H2O C6 H12 O6 C6 H12 O6 the sun. Silicon is a semi-conductor used in solar cells.
Sucrose Glucose Fructose
41. (2) For the relation x = qy + r, 0 r < y
C6 H12O6
Zymase
2C2 H5OH 2CO2 So, here r lies between 0 r < 6.
Glucose or fructose Ethanol Hence, r = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 7
49. (3) Join BE and EF.
32 32
42. (2) Since AB is the diameter of the circle
500 (2) 2 (5)3
AEB = 90° [Angle in the semicircles is 90°]
[500 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 × 5]
1 40
m=3 EBF EOF 20
2 2
44. (1) x = 2 + 21/3 + 22/3
x – 2 = 21/3 + 22/3 = 21/3 (1 + 21/3) [Angle made by a chord at any point on the
(x – 2)3 = [21/3(1 + 21/3)]3 circumference is half the angle made by the chord at
x3 – 8 – 3.x2.2 + 3.x.22 = 2 ( 1+21/3)3 the centre of the circle.]
x3 – 8 – 6x2 + 12x = 2 ( 1 + 2 + 3.12.21/3 + 3.1.22/3)
A
x3 – 6x2 +12x – 8 = 2 [ 3 + 3.2 1/3 +3.2 2/3]
1 2 O
E
x 2 23 23 40°
= 6 ( x –1) ...(i)
1 2
x 1 1 23 23 B D
F
= 6 (1 + 21/3 + 22/3)
x3– 6x2 + 12x – 8 = 6x – 6 Also AEB = 90°
x3– 6x2 + 12x – 6x – 8 + 6 = 0 BED = 180° – 90° = 90°
x3– 6x2 + 6x – 2 = 0 In BFD,
45. (1) 0.645 × 0.645 + 2 × 0.645 × 0.355 + 0.355 × 0.355 BED + EBD + EDB = 180°
90° + EBF + EDB = 180° [ EBD = EBF]
= (0.645)2 + 2 × (0.645) (0.355) + (0.355)2
90° + 20° + EDB = 180°
= (0.645 + 0.355)2 = (1)2 = 1
EDB = 180° – 110° = 70°
46. (2) n || p and m is transversal
i.e. EDF = 90°
1 = 3 = 85° (Corresponding angles)
50. (2) Let the radius of the common base be r. Let h1 and h2
Also, m || l & p is transversal
be the heights of the cone and cylinder respectively.
2 + 3 = 180° ( Consecutive interior angles)
Then,
2 + 85° = 180°
2 = 180° – 85° 1 2
Volume of the cone r h1 ,
2 = 95° 3
47. (1) Given ratio of angles are 3 : 5 : 9 : 13 Volume of the cylinder = r2h2
Let four angles of the quadrilateral are 3k, 5k, 9k and It is given that the cone and the cylinder are of the
13k. same volume.
We know that sum of four angles of a quadrilateral is
1 2
360° r h1 r 2 h2
Therefore, 3k + 5k + 9k + 13k = 360° 3
1
30k = 360° k = 12 h1 h2
Therefore four angles are 3
(3 × 12)°, (5 × 12)°, (9 × 12)° and (13 × 12)° h1 3
h1 : h2 = 3 : 1
or 36°, 60°, 108°, 156°. h2 1
48. (3) Since, EAB is a straight line
DAE + DAB = 180° Hence, the ratio of the height of the cone and cylinder
73° + DAB = 180° is 3:1
i.e., DAB = 180° – 73° = 107° 51. (1) Given, a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 9m,
Since, the sum of the angles of quadrilateral ABCD is BC = 12 m, CD = 5m, and AD = 8m. We divide the
360° quadrilateral in two triangular region ABD and BCD.
107° + 105° + x + 80° = 360° Now, In BCD, right angle at C.
292° + x = 360°
We have BD2 = BC2 + CD2
and x = 360° – 292° = 68°
[By pythagorous theorem]
EBD_7396
54. (1) Total number of cases = n = 100
All the numbers from 50 to 59 have the digit 5. They are
10 in number. Besides these numbers the numbers 5,
15, 25, 35, 45, 65, 75, 85, 95 have the digit 5. These are 9
in number.
Number of favourable cases = m = Number of numbers
which have the digit 5 = 10 + 9 = 19
m 19
Probability = p
n 100
55. (1) Let 3, – 3 be the given zeros and be the
= 52 + 122 = 25 + 144 = 169 m2
third zero.Then,
BD = 169 13m
–4
1 –
Area of BCD = × base × height 1
2
Coeff. of x 2
1 Using –
= × 5 × 12 = 30 m2 Coeff. of x3
2
52. (3) Water in the canal forms a cuboid of breadth = 12 dm 3– 3 4
= 12/10 m = 1.2m,
= 4
height = 30 dm = 30/10 m = 3m and,
Hence, third zero is 4.
Length = Distance covered by water in 30 minutes
56. (3) We have,
= velocity of water time
x + 2y + z = 7 ... (i)
30 x + 3z = 11 ... (ii)
= 20000 m 10000 m
60 2x – 3y = 1 ... (iii)
Volume of water flown in 30 min = lbh From equation (i), we get
= (1.2 3 10000) m3 = 36000m3 z = 7 – x – 2y
Suppose area irrigated be A m2. Substituting z = 7 – x – 2y in equation (ii), we get
Then, x + 3 (7 – x – 2y) = 11
x + 21 – 3x – 6y = 11 ...(iv)
9
A 36000 A 400000 m 2 –2x – 6y = –10
100 Adding equations (iii) and (iv), we get
Hence, area irrigated = 400000 m2 – 9y = – 9 y=1
53. (2) Arranging the observation in ascending order : Putting y = 1 in equation (iii), we get x = 2
7400, 7800, 8100, 8500, 9200, 10320, 11300, 11500, 12000, Putting x = 2, y = 1 in equation (i), we get
12700 2+ 2+ z=7 z=3
Total number of observations (n) = 10 (even) Hence, x = 2, y = 1, z = 3
th th
57. (1) Let the length of the shortest side be x metres. Then,
1 n n by hypothesis
median = observation 1 observation
2 2 2 Hypotenuse = (2x + 1) metres, Third side = (x + 7) metres.
(Hypotenuse)2 = Sum of the square of the remaining
two sides [By pythagorous theorem]
th th
1 10 10 (2x + 1)2 = x2 + (x + 7)2
= observation 1 observation
2 2 2 4x2 + 4x + 1 = 2x2 + 14x + 49
2x2 – 10x – 48 = 0
1 th x2 – 5x – 24 = 0
= 5 observation 6th observation x2 – 8x + 3x – 24 = 0
2
x (x – 8) + 3 (x – 8) = 0
1 19520 (x – 8) (x + 3) = 0
Median = 9200 10320
2 2 x = 8, – 3
Median = 9760 x=8 [ x = – 3 is not possible]
Median Salary = ` 9760 Hence, the lengths of the sides of the grassy land are 8
metres, 17 metres and 15 metres.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 9
58. (1) Let the two A.P’s be a1, a2, a3, .... an, ... and 61. (1) Population of France increased from 20 million to 28
b1, b2, b3, ...., bn, .... million in 1789.
Also, let d be the common difference of two A.P’s. Then, 63. (3) Guiseppe Garibaldi with armed volunteers acquired the
an = a1 + (n – 1) d and bn = b1 + (n – 1) d southern kingdom of Italy and kingdom of two sicilies
and succeeded to drive out the Spanish rulers.
an – bn = {a1 + (n – 1) d} – {b1 + (n – 1) d}
65. (2) Ho chi Minch Trail formed the backbone of the
an – bn = a1 = b1
Vietnamese in their struggle for freedom, unification
Clearly, an – bn is independent of n and is equal to
and during US attack.
a1 – b1. In other words
66. (4) Land, Labour, Capital and Enterprise are the four factors
an – bn = a1 – b1 for all n N. of production which are required for running a firm or a
a100 – b100 = a1 – b1 company profitably.
and, ak – bk = a1 – b1, where k = 10,00,000. 67. (2) All the porgrammes written in column A are poverty
But,a100 – b100 = 111 222 333 alleviation programmes.
a1 – b1 = 111 222 333 69. (4) During British colonial rule cricket came to represent
ak – bk = a1 – b1 = 111 222 333, where k = 10,00,000. all that the Victorian English valued fair play, discipline
and gentlemanliness
59. (4) We have,
74. (4) Marianne was a female allegory which symbolised the
sin ( + 36°) = cos
people's nation in France.
cos{90° – ( + 36°)} = cos
75. (2) Democracy is a form of government in which the
90° – ( + 36°) = 2 = 54° = 27°
administration of the country is run by the
60. (3) Let AB be the tower of height h meter and BC be the
representatives who are elected by the people.
height of flag staff surmounted on the tower.
77. (4) Elections are fought generally on party basis though
Let the point of the plane be D at a distance m meter
some candidates fight elections as independent
from the foot of the tower.
candidates.
In ABD,
80. (1) Every social difference does not lead to social division.
AB Social division means the division of society on the
tan 30
BD basis of colour, religion and caste.
85. (3) Local governments deal with residuary powers.
1 h
x 3h ...... (1) 86. (3) Public sector is government owned sector. Whereas,
3 x
private sector is owned by private individuals.
91. (4) Banks and cooperatives come under formal lenders.
AC
In ADC, tan 60 92. (2) Meteorologists use the location of some of the jet
AD
C streams as an aid in weather forecasting.
5 h 5 h 93. (1) India is one of the world's largest producers of rice
3 x ...... (2) 5m
x 3 according for 20.01% of all world rice production.
B 96. (3) Golden quadrilateral is managed by the National
5 h Authority of India under the ministry of Road Transport
From (1) and (2), 3h
3 and Highways.
3h = 5 + h 2h = 5 h
98. (4) Kerala has the highest sex ratio while Haryana has the
lowest sex ratio. Area with lowest population density
5
h= = 2.5 m 60° is Arunachal Pradesh.
2
30° 99. (3) MNC i.e. Multinational Companies set up offices and
D x A
factories for production in regions where they can get
So, the height of tower = 2.5 m cheap labour and other sources.
EBD_7396

ANSWER KEY
1 (4) 6 (2) 11 (4) 16 (1) 21 (3) 26 (2) 31 (2) 36 (4) 41 (2) 46 (1)
2 (4) 7 (4) 12 (4) 17 (2) 22 (3) 27 (4) 32 (3) 37 (4) 42 (1) 47 (1)
3 (3) 8 (3) 13 (3) 18 (2) 23 (2) 28 (4) 33 (2) 38 (1) 43 (4) 48 (3)
4 (3) 9 (2) 14 (3) 19 (3) 24 (4) 29 (4) 34 (1) 39 (1) 44 (4) 49 (3)
5 (4) 10 (4) 15 (3) 20 (2) 25 (4) 30 (4) 35 (2) 40 (4) 45 (4) 50 (2)
1. (4) In all other figures the direction shown is anticlockwise.

2. (4) The direction of the arrow head is wrong. It should be
14. (3) S K E W
in clockwise direction as in others.
3. (3) 'Hour' is third part of 'Second' –2 +3 –1 +1
'Tertiary' is the third part of 'Primary'.
4. (3) Only in leap year Feb. 29 occured so 4 birthday will be P O C Y
celebrated in the year 64, 68, 72 and 76. M U S T
6. (4) Since 'mirror' is kept at PQ, it will give 'water' image.
–2 +3 –1 +1
7. (4) Since 5th day of the month is Wednesday, 12th, 19th
and 26th will also be Wednesday. J Y Q V
8. (3) Houses are in order of DBFCEA.
9. (2) The (X) marked 3 cubes are painted with one side red
and from the other direction, another three cubes are So answer (3) is correct.
painted with one side red. Hence, total 6 cubes are 15. (3) Here, if you see carefully, you observe that the
painted with one side. missing portion will be the mirror image of quarter I
or III. Hence, option (3) completes the given figure.
X
X
10. (4) In cell rows adds-up to 192.

16. (1) Figures are reversed
11 5 — 17. (2) In coding, word is rotated at 180°.
16 28 148 19. (3) My sister's age is 12 years
44 60 88 My age comes to 12 + 3 = 15 years
My brother's age would be = 15 + 5 = 20 years
11 + 5 + 176 = 192 My mother's age = 20 × 2 = 40 years.
16 + 28 + 142 = 192 20. (2) A's movements are clarified by the following diagram :
44 + 60 + 88 = 192
12. (4) Note the clockwise movement of the arrow across the A
triangle. The arrows in the circle are changing E
clockwise as well.
S
13. (3) Rohan
N W
Lakshmi Meena
mo Step daughter
ther Hence A is facing north-west direction.
Shalini
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 11
21. (3) 16 ÷ 8 × 6 – 2 + 12 = 16 + 8 – 6 × 2 ÷ 12 Here, No. of normal years = 22
And no. of leap years = 8
2
= 16 + 8 – 6 × So odd days = 22 + 16 = 38 i.e 3 odd days
12
(remainder when 38 is divided by 7, i.e. 3)
1 Hence, it was a Thursday
= 16 + 8 – 6 × = 16 + 8 – 1 30. (4) G = K, O = S, A = E, H = L, E = I, A = E, D = H;
6
Go AHEAD is KS ELIEH.
= 24 – 1 = 23 (by USING BODMAS Rule)
31. (2) Go one letter back in the case of every letter of the
22. (3) 2 22 23 24 25 word.
3 5 9 17 33 65
32. (3) Count the number of days from 2005 onwards to get 0
26 odd day.
129
Year 2005 2006 2007 2008 2010 2011
23. (2) Multiply by 3 and subtract 1; 122 × 3 – 1 = 365
Odd days 1 1 1 2 1 1
24. (4) Both I & II follow
= 7 or 0 odd day.
Calender for the year 2005 is the same as that for the
T
year 2012.
M
H 33. (2) Treat B and T as a single letter. Then the remaining
letters (5 + 1 = 6) can be arranged in 6! ways. Since, O is
repeated twice, we have to divide by 2 and the B and T
letters can be arranged in 2! ways.
6! 2!
where H = Huts, T = Temples and M = Mansions. Total no. of ways 720
25. (4) Both I & II follow. 2
34. (1) Time from 5 a.m. on a day to 10 p.m. on 4th day is 89
Horses hours.
Cows Now, 23 hrs. 44 min. of this clock are the same as 24
Hens
hours of the correct clock.
356
i.e., hrs. of this clock = 24 hrs. of correct clock.
15
24 15
89 hrs. of this clock = 89 hrs. of correct
356
Case I
clock = 90 hrs of correct clock.
Fly
So, the correct time is 11 p.m.
Trucks Scooters
26. (2)
35. (2)
Case II
Fly
Scooters
Trucks
36. (4)
28. (4) m o p n / m o p n / m o p n / m o p n
29. (4) 09/12/2001—— Sunday
37. (4) Letters are skipped in the order as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
No. of days between 9/ 12/ 71 & 9 / 12/ 2001
D (E) F (GH) I (JKL) M (NOPQ) R (STUVW) X
we know every year has 1 odd days
1 2 3 4 5
we know leap year has 2 odd days
EBD_7396
38. (1) Backward order is taken (Z -A). Letters are skipped in 48–50
the order of 2 and 1 alternately.
X (WV) U (T) S (RQ) P (O) N (ML) K (J) I (HG) F and so P A Y
on.
M E
39. (1) Reading from right second and first group are in
continuity. + R E A L
Fourth and Third also read from right.
M O N E Y
40. (4) The first term in the question pair consists of four
letters in forward sequence (A -Z) and the second term
From the pattern it is clear that M = 1, R = 9 and O = 0 as
consists of four letters from the end of the alphabetical. R (single digit no.) becomes a double digit no. (MO)
41. (2) 4 – 7 Alphabetical position of letters of first term are with the addition of 1, carried over from P + E.
given as second term. R + 1 = MO or 9 + 1 = 10
42. (1) Since product of two numbers = their HCF × LCM Further Y + E + L = 10 + Y
Hence, both the statements together are necessary to or E + L = 10 .......(1)
answer the question. So 1 is carried over to the second column.
43. (4) except (4), all are in reverse alphabetical order. Thus A + M + A + 1 = 10 + E
Using M = 1,
44. (4) Each 2 figure set consists of one odd number and one
2A + 2 = 10 + E
even number.
or 2A = E + 8 ........(2)
45. (4) All others total (sum of digits) up to 27 except(4) which
A 4 and E is even
total up to 23.
E 8 as if E = 8 then A = 8 not possible so E can be 2,
46. (1) Vijay’s position from downwards
4 or 6
Totalstudents –Vijay's position from upwards 1 Again, 1 + P + E = 10 + N
or P + E = 9 + N .....(3)
= [43 – 14] + 1 = 30th
If E = 2, P = 7 + N which is not satisfied by any of the
47. (1) Starting from his house in the East, Ravi moves
remaining number.
westwards. Then, the theatre, which is to the left, will be So E = 4 or 6
in the South. The hospital, which is straight ahead, will
L = 10 – E L = 6 or 4
be to the West. So, the University will be to the North.
Again Putting E = 4 in (2)
A = 6 not possible
N University
8 6
So E = 6 A 7
2
W E
Hospital Home Also, L = 4
In (3), P + 6 = 9 + N P–N=9 –6=3
Theatre
S As MONEY has to be maximum so N should be
maximum.
P = 8 and N = 5
[Not P = 5, N = 2]
48. (3) The remaining digits are 2 and 3. For MONEY to be
maximum, Y = 3.
49. (3) The digit which remained unutilised = 2
50. (2) MONEY = 10563
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 13

ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 6 (1) 11 (1) 16 (2) 21 (3) 26 (3) 31 (4) 36 (2) 41 (1) 46 (2)
2 (2) 7 (1) 12 (3) 17 (4) 22 (2) 27 (2) 32 (4) 37 (1) 42 (4) 47 (1)
3 (4) 8 (2) 13 (3) 18 (2) 23 (2) 28 (2) 33 (1) 38 (4) 43 (3) 48 (1)
4 (3) 9 (2) 14 (2) 19 (4) 24 (4) 29 (4) 34 (2) 39 (4) 44 (3) 49 (3)
5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (1) 20 (4) 25 (2) 30 (2) 35 (2) 40 (4) 45 (1) 50 (4)

1. (3) Democracy, so long as it is what it is, imperfectly 28. (2) ‘Bond’ is the correct word as per the context.
educated, throws a great responsibility on the leaders. 29. (4) ‘Adorn’ means to make something/somebody look
2. (2) The average voter even in an educated country has no more attractive by decorating it.
opinion of his own on many questions. He chooses 30. (2) ‘By hook or by crook’ means in whatever way one can.
his party by tradition or by his agreement with its
31. (4) ‘A feather in one’s cap’ means an action that you can
central aims in those matters on which he has strong
be proud of.
views.
32. (4) ‘In the guise of’ means in the pretence of.
3. (4) In a complex social machine, it is difficult for the units
to exercise thought. It is easier to be obedient 33. (1) ‘Take up the cudgels’ means to defend or support
automatically. It does not even pay to think. somebody.
4. (3) It does not even pay to think. Perhaps thought may 34. (2) ‘As the crow flies’ means in a straight line.
prove costly. 35. (2) ‘Pie in the sky’ means an event which seems unlikely
5. (2) If the leaders want to create public opinion, the to happen.
machinery of the press and the wireless makes it most 44. (3) Modals such as must or should cannot be used with
easy. ‘hope’.
6. (1) Modern conditions afford propagandists vastly 45. (1) There must be the preposition ‘to’ to connect the verb
increased opportunities of promoting collective ‘tend’ with the noun ‘result’, (2) is not correct because
excitement and setting the world in a conflagration. first form of verb should be used and not continuous
7. (1) suppress means hold back, repress or restrain. since its a simple statement made suggesting no action
taking place at the current moment.
13. (3) Many poor farmers had been compelled to take up
indigo cultivation when the British settlers were given 46. (2) The subject of the sentence is candidate, but in the
the right to purchase and cultivate land in India. first part there is no subject, it should be passive or
have an active subject. (2) is the only option with
14. (2) Many whites, therefore, either acquired loans to poor
passive verb.
farmers or pressurised them to forsake the farming of
food grains and other cash crops for indigo cultivation. 47. (1) Difficulty is a noun, and is therefore used as difficulty
15. (1) Indigo export to Europe was lucrative for the British with or difficulty in.
settlers who held a monopoly for this business. 48. (1) The word ‘vital’ means essential, urgent while trivial
20. (4) ‘Modest’ is the correct word as per the context. means insignificant.
21. (3) ‘Concurs with’ means to agree. 49. (3) The word ‘exploit’ means treat unfairly, utilize, misuse
or take advantage of which is opposite in meaning to
22. (2) ‘Gregarious’ menas sociable.
support.
23. (2) ‘Brim’ means the top edge of a cup, bowl glass etc.
50. (4) The word ‘condemn’ means censure, criticize, blame
24. (4) ‘Adversary’ means opponent. etc. which is opposite in meaning to praise.
25. (2) ‘Conform’ means to obey a rule, law etc.
26. (3) ‘Assent’ means to agree
27. (2) ‘Accord’ means a formal agreement between two
organisations, countries etc.
EBD_7396

ANS WER KEY
1. (3) 11. (4) 21. (4) 31. (1) 41. (2) 51. (2) 61. (4) 71. (4) 81. (2) 91. (2)
2. (2) 12. (4) 22. (2) 32. (2) 42. (3) 52. (2) 62. (3) 72. (2) 82. (1) 92. (3)
3. (2) 13. (3) 23. (4) 33. (4) 43. (2) 53. (4) 63. (3) 73. (3) 83. (3) 93. (1)
4. (2) 14. (3) 24. (3) 34. (1) 44. (2) 54. (4) 64. (1) 74. (4) 84. (4) 94. (4)
5. (1) 15. (2) 25. (4) 35. (3) 45. (4) 55. (3) 65. (4) 75. (2) 85. (1) 95. (2)
6. (2) 16. (2) 26. (2) 36. (4) 46. (2) 56. (2) 66. (2) 76. (2) 86. (2) 96. (3)
7. (1) 17. (2) 27. (1) 37. (2) 47. (1) 57. (1) 67. (1) 77. (4) 87. (3) 97. (3)
8. (2) 18. (2) 28. (2) 38. (1) 48. (3) 58. (4) 68. (3) 78. (4) 88. (2) 98. (2)
9. (1) 19. (4) 29. (1) 39. (4) 49. (1) 59. (3) 69. (4) 79. (1) 89. (1) 99. (1)
10. (1) 20. (1) 30. (1) 40. (3) 50. (2) 60. (1) 70. (4) 80. (1) 90. (3) 100. (2)

1. (3) Purkinje in 1839 coined the term ‘protoplasm’ for the which is genetically distinct and reproductively isolated
fluid substance of the cell. The cell theory, that all the from others, e.g. solanum tuberosum (Potato), Panthera
plants and animals are composed of cells and the cell is leo (lion).
the basic unit of life, was presented by two biologists, 11. (4) The Ganga action plan was, launched by Shri Rajeev
Schleiden (1838) and Schwann (1839). A single cell may Gandhi, the Prime Minister on 14 Jan. 1986 with the
constitute a whole organism as in Amoeba, main objective of pollution abatement, to improve the
Chlamydomonas, Paramoecium etc. The nucleus water quality by interception, diversion and treatment
contains chromatin material visible as entangled mass of domestic sewage and present toxic and industrial
of thread like structures. Lysosomes are a kind of waste chemical wastes from identified grossly polluting units
disposal system of cell. entering into the river.
2. (2) Decomposers are saprophytes which obtain their 12. (4) Merogony is an asexual replication process used by
nourishment from organic remains. They secrete some protozoan parasites that increases the number of
enzymes that causes breakdown of organic remains infective cells by multiple fission. It is the process by
into simpler and soluble substances. In this process which the Plasmodium increases the infective cells.
various inorganic raw materials are released. Buds produced in the notches along the margin of
3. (2) Heat absorbed by surface of earth during the daytime Bryophyllum fall on the soil and develop into new
is emitted back into the atmosphere in the form of infra- plants. Hibiscus has bisexual flowers.
red radiations. Part of the infra-red radiations passes 13. (3) Abscisic acid is a plant hormone which promotes
out of the atmosphere. The remaining infra-red senescence of leaves and causes abscission of flowers
radiations are absorbed by green house gases (GHGs) and fruits.
and re-emitted in all the directions including back to
earth called greehouse effect. 14. (3) Cerebrum is the main thinking part of brain. It has
sensory, motor and association areas. Cerebellum is
4. (2) AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency second largest part of the brain. It coordinates muscular
Syndrome. It is caused by retrovirus - HIV. AIDS virus activity of the body. It also maintains equilibrium or
reduces the natural immunity of the human body. posture of the body as during walking, jumping, lifting,
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted diseased caused by catching, bending etc.
spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum.
15. (2) Acids and substances of acidic nature have property
6. (2) Smog is dark brown or greyish smoky mist that occurs to change colour of blue litmus red. They also turn pH
in cold weather. It is a visible indication of air pollution. paper orangish red.
Smog not only reduces visibility but is highly
suffocating and harmful to human beings, animals and 16. (2) Addition of chlorine to methane in the presence of
plants. sunlight is substitution reaction.
hv
9. (1) Species is the lowest or the basic taxonomic category. CH 4 Cl 2 CH 3Cl HCl
Species is one or more potentially interbreeding natural
hv
populations of morphologically similar individuals CH 3Cl Cl2 CH 2Cl 2 HCl
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 15
hv 23. (4) Flux is a substance which may be either acidic oxide

CH 2 Cl2 Cl 2 CHCl3 HCl
(SiO2) or basic oxide (CaO, MgO). It combines with
certain impurities (gangue particles) in ores to form a
hv
CHCl3 Cl2 CCl4 HCl substance called slag. This can be easily removed.
18. (2) Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particle. In 26. (2) Magnesium burns in carbon dioxide because the
case of cathode rays e/m values are same for the particles oxygen in the carbon dioxide is able to bond with
of all gases. magnesium and produce an oxide
19. (4) Dissolution of NH4Cl in water is endothermic process
2Mg(s) CO 2 (g) 2MgO(s) C(s)
NH 4 Cl(s) H 2 O(l) Heat
27. (1) All hydrocarbons does not show isomerism. Members
NH 4 (aq) Cl (aq) of a homologous series posses similar chemical
properties only. Sodium salts of long chain aliphatic or
20. (1) The student designated as (A) made the correct aromatic sulfonic acids are used as detergents.
observation.
28. (2) Acceleration is the time rate of change of velocity.
• In beaker (I), the solution remained colourless or
unchanged in colour since no chemical reaction was v u
29. (1) Acceleration, a
possible. Actually, aluminium is placed above zinc in t
the activity series.
• In beaker (II), no chemical reaction was possible and displacement
Velocity, v =
the solution remained colourless. time
• In beaker (III), the initial colour of ferrous sulphate
total distance travelled
solution was light green. It became colourless after the Average speed =
reaction. total time taken
Zn (s) + FeSO4(aq) ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Change in momentum dp

Force =
Light green Colourless time interval dt
• In beaker (IV), the initial colour of copper sulphate
solution was blue. It became colourless after the G m1m 2
31. (1) F
reaction. r2
Zn(s) + CuSO4 (aq) ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
G m1 m 2 G m1 m 2 6.6 10 11 1 1
Blue Colourless r2 r
F F 9.8 10 9
21. (4) Isobars are atoms of different elements having same
mass number (No. of protons + No. of neutrons) but r = 8 cm
different atomic number (No. of protons).
32. (2) Energy spent = F × s
22. (2) 1 mol of H2 = 6.02 × 1023 molecules of H2
33. (4) When displacement is zero work is zero
0.5 mol of H2 = 3.01 × 1023 molecules of H2
as work = force × displacement
2g of H2 = 6.02 × 1023 molecules of H2
Energy in case of 10 m fall of a unit mass
4g of H2 = 12.04 × 1023 molecules of H2
m = 1 kg; h = 10 m; g = 10 ms–2
18g of H2O = 6.023 × 1023 molecules of H2O
Ep. = mgh = 1 × 10 × 10 joules = 100 joules
44g of CO2 = 6.023 × 1023 molecules of CO2
34. (1) Sound waves are longitudinal waves and need material
medium to travel.
2.2 6.023 1023
2.2g of CO2 = molecules of CO2
44 36. (4) Normal is drawn at the point of incidence
38. (1) Specific resistance depends on the nature of the wire
= 3.01 × 1022 molecules of CO2
Thus required order will be Rseries = 1/R1+1/R2------------1/Rn
Resistance Rt = R0 (1 + t)
IV < I < III < II
39. (4) Fleming’s right hand rule
EBD_7396
a1 b1 c1
Here condition is a b2 c2
2
k 4 k 4
16 k k
40. (3) The sun is the ultimate source of all forms of energy k 4
k2 = 64 k=±8
available on the earth. 16 k
41. (2) f (x) = 6x3 – 11x2 + kx – 20
4 k 4
Also, 4k = k2 – 4k
3 2 k k
4 4 4 4
f 6 11 k 20 0 k2 – 8k = 0 k (k – 8) = 0
3 3 3 3
k = 0 or k = 8 but k = 0 is not possible otherwise equation
64 16 4k will be one variable.
6. 11. 20 0
9.3 9 3 k = 8 is correct value for many solution.
128 – 176 + 12k – 180 = 0 44. (2) Let the constant part of the expenditure = ` x
and the variable part = ` y × price of wheat.
12k + 128 – 356 = 0
Given that when the price of wheat is ` 250 per quintal,
12k = 228 k = 19 the total expenses are ` 1000.
42. (3) Since, and are zeroes of polynomial f (x) = 2x2 – 5x + 7. x + 250y = 1000 ........... (1)
Given also that when the price of wheat is ` 240 per
5 5 7 quintal, the total expenses are ` 980
So + = and =
2 2 2 x + 240y = 980 ........... (2)
Let S and P denote respectively the sum and product Subtracting (2) from (1),
of zeroes of the required polynomial. Then, polynomial 10y = 20 y=2
is p(x) = k(x2 – Sx + P) Substituting this value of y in (1)
x + 250 (2) = 1000
5 25
S (2 3 ) (3 ) 5( ) 5 and, x = 1000 – 500 = 500
2 2
Therefore, when the price of wheat is ` 350 per quintal,
P = (2 + 3 ) (3 + 2 )
total expenses = x + 350 y = 500 + 350 (2) = ` 1200
P = 6( 2 + 2) + 13 = 6 2 + 6 2 + 12 + total expenses = ` 1200
= 6 ( + )2 +
45. (4) Since, the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation
5
2
7 75 7 3y = ax +7, therefore this point satisfies the equation
P= 6 41 So, we put x = 3, y = 4 in given equation, we get
2 2 2 2
3(4) = a (3) + 7
Hence, the required polynomial is given by 12 = 3a + 7
p (x) = k (x2 – Sx + P) 3a = 12 – 7
3a = 5
25
or, p( x) k x 2 x 41 , where k is any non-zero
2 5
a
real number. 3
43. (2) kx + 4y = k – 4 46. (2) For real roots, D 0 b2 – 4ac 0

16x + ky = k Here, b = 4, a = P, c = 1
a1 = k, b1 = 4, c1 = – (k – 4) b2 – 4ac = (4)2 – 4P × 1 0 16 – 4P 0
a2 = 16, b2 = k, c2 = – k 4P 16
P 4
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 17
47. (1) Since, x = 2 is a root of the equation 3x2 – 2mx + 2n = 0 52. (2) Let the angles be 3x, 4x, 5x and 6x.
3 (2)2 – 2m (2) + 2n = 0 We have
12 – 4m + 2n = 0 3x + 4x + 5x + 6x = 360°
2m – n – 6 = 0 ...(I)
[sum of angles of a quadrilateral is equal to 360°]
Again, x = 3 is another root of the equation
18x = 360°
3x2 – 2mx + 2n = 0
x = 20°
3 (3)2 – 2m (3) + 2n = 0
Difference between greatest and smallest angles
27 – 6m + 2n = 0
= 6x – 3x = 3x = 3 × 20° = 60°.
6m – 2n – 27 = 0 ...(II)
53. (4) Since, PQ = 4 cm = 2 × OQ = 2 × radius, PQ is the
Solving I and II for m and n , we get
diametre of circle, Join RQ.
m n 1 m n 1
= = = = PRQ = 90°. (Angle in semi-circle)
27 –12 –36 54 – 4 6 15 18 2
15 18 ORQ = 90° – 35° = 55°
m= , n= =9
2 2 But OR = OQ.
48. (3) First 100 natural numbers form the sequence :
ORQ = OQR = 55°
1,2,3,4,5........100
( OQR is isoceles )
a = 1 and d = 1
1 y = 180° – (55° + 55°) = 70°.
Sn = n a (n –1)d
2 54. (4) As shown in hint, distance saved
1 99 l
S100 = 100 1 (100 –1)1 = 100 1 = (l + b) l2 b2 = 2
2 2
101 l
= 100 = 5050 or b =
2 2 l2 b2
( xa b 2
) ( xb c 2
) ( xc a 2
)
49. (1) We have l2
a b c 4
(x x x ) or b 2 lb = l2 + b2
4
2 a b b c 2c a or l2 + 4lb = 4l2 or 3l2 = 4lb

x x2 x x2a 2b
. x 2b 2c
.x 2c 2a
( x a )4 .( xb )4 ( x c )4 x 4 a . x 4b .x 4 c b 3
or 3l = 4b or = .
l 4
x 2a 2b 2b 2c 2 c 2 a
x 4a 4b 4c
55. (3) Let each side be 1.5l (after increase). Then, % increase
1
x4a 4b 4c
x 4a 4b 4c
in surface area
5 2 5 2 2 ( 5) 2 22 13.5l 2 6l 2
50. (2) x2 = 100 = 125%
5 1 6l 2
56. (2) The figure is self explanatory.

2 5 2 2( 5 1)
2 Shaded area = Area of big semicircle of radius 8 unit
5 1 5 1
– Area of 2 semi-circles of radius 4 unit – Area of triangle
51. (2) For the first 12 hours of the day, the clock will strike with base 8 unit & height 4 unit
12
1 2 3 12 (1 12) 78 times 82 2 42 1
2 = 8 4
2 2 2
For the next 12 hours, there will be another 78 times, so
in one day, the clock will strike 156 times = 32 – 16 – 16 = 16 ( – 1).
EBD_7396
57. (1) OA = OD = 7 cm. 64. (1) E1-Nino derived from Spanish means ‘the child’, i.e.
The required area = Area of the circle with diameter baby christ. A warm ocean current that flows over Peru
OD + Area of semicircle ACB – Area of ACB is an interval of two to five years.
66. (2) The black soil is sticky and possess high moisture
2
7 1 1 retention capacity. Laterite soils are formed through
= (7)2 AB.OC
2 2 2 the process of laterisation and contain iron oxide.
68. (3) HVJ is a natural gas carrying pipeline popularly known
22 7 7 1 22 1
= 7 7 14 7 as HVJ (the Hazira – Vijaypur – Jagdishpur) pipeline.
7 2 2 2 7 2
70. (4) India is the third largest producer of nitrogenous
11 7 fertilizers. There are 10 public sector undertakings of
= 11 7 7 7 66.5 cm2 fertiliser industry.
2
74. (4) Developed countries like Japan have invested on people
x y especially in the field of education and health.
58. (4) We know sec2 – tan2 = 1 and sec = , tan
p q 76. (2) The marseillaise song sung by the revolutionaries is
the national anthem of France.
x2q2 – p2y2 = p2q2
79. (1) They all are nomadic people of different regions.
th th
N 55 80. (1) Indian indentured labour was described as coolie.
59. (3) First we find value i.e. = 27.5th
2 2
82. (1) The Marylebone cricket club was established in 1787
which lies in 20 – 30. and was the guardian of cricket regulations.
20 – 30 class is median class. 83. (3) Human Development Report ranks countries on the
basis of Income, Health and Education because the
Here = 20
UNDP was the first organization to realize that income
Class Frequency c.f. should be the only criteria to measure the development.
0 – 10 5 5 Rather, development of a country should include all
requirements of people.
10 – 20 10 15
84. (4) Printed message persuaded people to think differently.
20 – 30 20 35 Their views was critical as well as rational.
30 – 40 7 42 88. (2) The CPI came into existence in 1964 as a result of the
40 – 50 8 50 division of communist party of India. It is against
capitalism and believes in socialism, democracy and
50 – 60 5 55
secularism.
N 91. (2) If the elections for electing the representative are not
= 27.5, c.f. = 15, f = 20, h = 10
2 fair and impartial people will lose faith in the entire
275 15 democratic system.
Median = 20 + × 10
20 94. (4) RBI also monitors how much the banks are lending, to
Median = 26.25 whom and at what interest rate.
95. (2) Social and economic inequality, poverty,
40 24 16 2
60. (1) P (getting a head) unemployment, Casteism, communalism, illiteracy are
40 40 5 the major problems of Indian democracy.
61. (4) The ADS Grain Bank programme is acknowledged as a 99. (1) In column A, are the situations and in column B are the
successful and innovative food security intervention. rights which a consumer can refer to.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 19

ANSWER KEY
1 (4) 6 (2) 11 (3) 16 (4) 21 (4) 26 (1) 31 (2) 36 (4) 41 (3) 46 (4)
2 (4) 7 (4) 12 (3) 17 (1) 22 (3) 27 (3) 32 (4) 37 (4) 42 (3) 47 (2)
3 (2) 8 (1) 13 (4) 18 (4) 23 (4) 28 (4) 33 (4) 38 (4) 43 (2) 48 (2)
4 (1) 9 (2) 14 (1) 19 (1) 24 (1) 29 (2) 34 (4) 39 (2) 44 (3) 49 (3)
5 (3) 10 (3) 15 (1) 20 (1) 25 (3) 30 (4) 35 (2) 40 (2) 45 (1) 50 (3)

1. (4) In all other figures the small lines are intersecting the From II: A did not make his presentation on 25th and
square whereas in (4) they are inside the square. one of them made his presentation between A and B.
2. (4) The dot inside the figure is moving clockwise . From I and II: ‘A’ did not make his presentation on
Therefore, in (4) it should be at the bottom. 26th also, because ‘D’ made presentation on 24th.
Hence, ‘A’ made presentation on 23rd, ‘B’ on 25th and
(36 4) 8 4 32 8 4
3. (2) ‘C’ on 26th.
4 8 2 16 1 4 8 2 16 1
24. (1) From I : D B C
4 4 A
0 Hence, village ‘C’ is North-East of village 'A'.
4 8 2 16 1
From II : A
(Using BODMAS rule)
K
5m N P E
5m 25. (3) The two statements leads to
W E
4. (1) 10m
5m F
S
B S
TRI POLI S I C I LY
5. (3)
S S H QNMH R J B J KZ
26. (1) Shirt
9. (2) a b b / a b b / a b b /a b b /a b b / a
Sock
10. (3) The ball rotates counter clockwise, the outer circle
rotates clockwise. Red
11. (3) In the first two figures, the number of lines is reducing.
Based on this analogy, figure C has the same
relationship to figure 3 of Problem Figures.. Dot and
arrows have no correlation here.
13. (4) The sequence is 2-3-2-3 lines, hence in figure 5 there 27. (3)
should be 2 lines.
14. (1) Shyam < Ram < sohan < Ramesh
15. (1) One can be the sister of other but not vice-versa.
16. (4) x + 4x + 8x = 78 x = 6 +1 +1
In second day, he bought, 4 × 6 = 24 books
20. (1) Water image of 'W' is 'M'. 28. (4) M P K R I T G
21. (4) Figure moves anticlockwise 90° and half arrows go to –1 –1 –1
opposite direction.
29. (2) Four and two letters are skipped altenately.
23. (4) From I: We get
L (MNOP) Q(RS) T (UVWX) Y (ZA) B (CDEF)G (HI)J
First presentation : 23rd (Tuesday)
30. (4) Skip 2 and 3 steps back in the alphabetical order
Second presentation : 24th (Wednesday) : D alternately.
Third presentation : 25th (Thursday) W ( VU) T (SRQ) P (ON) M (LKJ) I (HG) F (EDC) B (AZ) Y
Fourth presentation : 26th (Friday) 32. (4) 20 + 40 ÷ 4 – 5 × 6 = 0.
EBD_7396
In the second and fourth statements, the common code
34. (4) AM word is 'kop' and the common word is 'tennis'. So, 'kop'
EI BN FJ CO GK DP HL
stands for 'tennis'.
Thus, in the second statement, 'ja' stands for 'Asha'
35. (2) 3 4 5 6 46. (4) It is given in the passage that agriculture accounts for
m q v b i
the largest share to the national income. It implies that
36. (4) Double each figure and subtract 2 each time.
certain other activities contribute to the national income
37. (4) Multiply each number by 2 and reduce 1, 2, 3, 4 and so of India too.
from each figure,
48. (2) The movements of Sachin are shown in the figure (A
(5) × 2 =10 – 1 = 9 (9) × 2 = 18 – 2 = 16 ... to B, B to C, C to D, D to E)
38. (4) In 2nd circle, 18 36 2, 11 22 2, 22 44 2
40 m
In 3rd circle, 72 36 2, 44 22 2. 44 2 88. B C
39. (2) The series increases by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9.
30 m 20 m
E 40 m D
41. (3)
A
Clearly, AE = 30 – 20 = 10 m
49. (3) A 2-digit number when added to 72 gives 96. That means
42. (3) Clearly, 'dog' is reared as pet. But 'dog' is called 24 is the number that is added to 72. Thus AB = 24.
'mangoose'. So, 'a 'mangoose' is reared as pet.
43. (2) The series is baa /baa/ baa/ ba a.
44. (3) 6 × 3 + 2 = 20, 9 × 5 + 2 = 47 24 × 3 + 2 = 74
45. (1) In the first and second statements, the common code 50. (3)
words are 'ki' and 'ma' and the common words are 'is'
and 'playing'. So, 'ki' and 'ma' are the codes for 'is' and
playing'.
PART B : LANGUAGE TEST (ENGLISH) MOCK TEST 3

ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 6 (1) 11 (4) 16 (3) 21 (1) 26 (3) 31 (1) 36 (3) 41 (2) 46 (1)
2 (4) 7 (3) 12 (2) 17 (4) 22 (2) 27 (3) 32 (2) 37 (1) 42 (1) 47 (4)
3 (4) 8 (4) 13 (2) 18 (4) 23 (4) 28 (2) 33 (3) 38 (4) 43 (2) 48 (1)
4 (2) 9 (3) 14 (2) 19 (2) 24 (1) 29 (1) 34 (3) 39 (3) 44 (4) 49 (1)
5 (3) 10 (1) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25 (2) 30 (3) 35 (3) 40 (4) 45 (2) 50 (4)

1. (3) science and the horrors of war 5. (3) carry close to death and destruction
2. (4) It is found that when there is peace, science is 6. (1) law and order
constructive, when there is war, and science is perverted 7. (3) has only just begun
to destructive ends.
8. (4) keep side by side
3. (4) Our main problem, therefore, is not to curb science, but
9. (3) Worship does not consist in fasts and prayers but in
to stop war to substitute law for force and international
the offering of a pure contrite heart.
government for anarchy in the relations of one nation
10. (1) God is in us and we have only to turn within to realise
with another.
the truth.
4. (2) abolish war
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 21
11. (4) Out of the confusion around us we have to devise a 25. (2) Transfigured is used when the change is done to make
destiny and make it manifest through all the twists and the form more noble or beautiful, transform is to
turns of life. change the form of a substance, converted is to change
12. (2) unrepentant form or use.
13. (2) rush to attack when they smell human scent 26. (3) Depleted means reduced while damaged and destroyed
14. (2) frightened would mean finished completely.
15. (3) it did not occur to him that he had a chance to do so 27. (3) Equivocal means ambiguous or vague, pervasive means
something to be found everywhere, inseparable are
20. (4) Fastidious means difficult to please or very fussy,
things that cannot be separated from each other and
conciliatory means to reconcile with or come to terms
autonomous means independent is followed by a ‘but’
with, indignant means angry while wistful means full
so the noun or adjective that follows should be opposite
of sad longing. Nostalgia means longing for the past.
in meaning to Independent. Thus, inseparable is the
Thus, nostalgic and wistful can be used as synonyms.
right answer.
21. (1) Eminent means very respected or famous in one’s
profession or field, petulant means peevish or irritable, 28. (2) Soporific means tending to cause sleep, elated means
pathological refers to disease and amiable means very happy, drowsy means sleepy, riotous means
friendly. violent or mischievous, affable means friendly.
22. (2) Irascible means irritable or hot tempered, despondent 29. (1) Acerbic means harsh in tone or manner, laconic is brief,
means sad because of disappointment or losing hope, remorseful is repenting having done something,
lucid means clearly expressed and didactic means shackle is suffering without complaint. Since, the gap
preaching. is followed by better and even, it should be a synonym
23. (4) Coerced means to force someone into deny something, of better in a higher degree which will be acerbic.
relegated means to push to an unimportant status, 30. (3) This means to express openly one’s desires or
margins or inferior position, enpropriate is to confiscate emotions.
one’s property while chastise is to punish to bring in 48. (1) The word ‘scarcity’ means shortage, lack, paucity,
discipline. meagreness, dearth etc. Its opposite word is ‘plenty’
24. (1) Economise means to control one’s expenditure and in the given options.
spend less splurge means to spend money freely. 49. (1) The word ‘elegance’ means grace, stylishness, charm,
cleverness which is opposite in meaning to ‘balance’.
50. (4) The word ‘coarse’ means ugly, rough, ill-mannered,
rude, crude etc. which is opposite in meaning to ‘soft’
from the given options.
EBD_7396

ANS WER KEY
1 (3) 11 (4) 21 (3) 31 (1) 41 (2) 51 (3) 61 (1) 71 (3) 81 (1) 91 (3)
2 (1) 12 (1) 22 (4) 32 (3) 42 (2) 52 (2) 62 (1) 72 (3) 82 (1) 92 (4)
3 (2) 13 (3) 23 (2) 33 (4) 43 (3) 53 (2) 63 (2) 73 (3) 83 (2) 93 (4)
4 (3) 14 (3) 24 (3) 34 (2) 44 (4) 54 (1) 64 (1) 74 (1) 84 (3) 94 (3)
5 (2) 15 (4) 25 (3) 35 (1) 45 (1) 55 (1) 65 (4) 75 (2) 85 (1) 95 (1)
6 (1) 16 (2) 26 (4) 36 (4) 46 (4) 56 (2) 66 (1) 76 (3) 86 (1) 96 (3)
7 (2) 17 (3) 27 (4) 37 (2) 47 (2) 57 (3) 67 (2) 77 (3) 87 (4) 97 (4)
8 (1) 18 (2) 28 (2) 38 (4) 48 (4) 58 (2) 68 (1) 78 (2) 88 (4) 98 (3)
9 (3) 19 (4) 29 (3) 39 (3) 49 (2) 59 (1) 69 (4) 79 (3) 89 (2) 99 (3)
10 (3) 20 (1) 30 (4) 40 (2) 50 (3) 60 (1) 70 (4) 80 (1) 90 (1) 100 (2)

4. (3) Fungi are achlorophyllous, heterotrophic spore to stimulate the formation of antibodies by the immune
producing, chitin in their cell wall and glycogen as system.
reserve food, e.g. Aspergillus, Agaricus. Algae are 11. (4) Theory of natural selection states that organic evolution
thallophytes which are capable of manufacturing their occurs through natural selection and accumulation of
own food through photosynthesis, e.g. Ulothrix, inheritable variations which provide structural and
Chara. Bryophyta is a division of non-vascular plants functional superiority to some individuals over others
in their survival and reproduction.
having an embryo stage in their life cycle, e.g. Riccia,
12. (1) The two factors of a character which are together in an
Marchantia. Pteridophyta is a division of seedless
individual separate randomly at the time of gamete
vascular plants, e.g. Marsilea, Equisetum.
formation. As a result, a gamete contains only a single
Gymnospermae is the subdivision of seed plants in factor of a character and is, therefore, always pure for
which the seeds are naked and the sporophylls are the character. It is called principle or law of segregation.
aggregated to form cones, e.g. Cycas, Pinus. 13. (3) Biodiversity is the occurrence of diverse types of
5. (2) If the medium surrounding the cell has a high water organisms and their variants adapted to different
concentration than the cell, meaning that the outside environment. Forests are biodiversity hotspots. They
solution is very dilute, the cell will gain water by are areas rich in biodiversity which are also the most
osmosis. Such a solution is known as a hypotonic threatened ones due to high degree of exploitation and
solution. The cell is likely to swell up. human interference.
14. (3) Sensory neurons conduct impulses from receptor (e.g.,
6. (1) Non-biodegradable wastes are the wastes which cannot
skin, eye, ear) to central nervous system. Motor neurons
be broken down by decomposers because they do not
conduct motor impulse from central nervous system to
have enzymes to break them. Most of the non- the effector organ (e.g., muscle, gland or organ).
biodegradable wastes are human made, e.g. plastic,
15. (4) Esters have fruity smell. An antifreeze mixture is used
metallic cans, polythene bags, many pesticides etc.
to achieve freezing-point depression for cold
7. (2) High blood pressure is non-in fectious (non- environments. Denatured ethanol is used as an
communicable) disease. It is often caused by excessive antifreeze. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of higher
weight and lack of exercise. fatty acids. Carbon exhibits allotropy.
9. (3) Budding is the formation of an outgrowth from an 16. (2) Darkness of purple colour of KMnO4 solution fades
organism which separates to produce a new individual, with increase in dilution.
e.g. Yeast (Fig. (i), a unicellular fungus used widely in 17. (3) In extraction of iron flux is CaO which reacts with silicate
brewing and baking industries), Hydra (fig. (iv), a to form slag (CaSiO3).
multicellular organism). CaO + SiO2 CaSiO3
10. (3) Tuberculosis (T.B.) is a bacterial disease caused by (Flux) Slag
bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It most
Silver turns black due to formation of Ag2S
commonly affects the lungs. Vaccination is the most
common method of preventing infection of 2Ag(s) + H2S(g) Ag2S(s) + H2(g)
microorganisms especially bacteria and viruses. In this 18. (2) Tincture of iodine is a disinfectant, it is also called weak
method a vaccine (antigen) is inoculated inside body iodine solution.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 23
19. (4) Chlorine will displace iodine from solution containing Refractive index of a medium
potassium iodide since it is more reactive than iodine.
The liberated iodine will impart violet colour to the Velocity of light in vacuum/air
=
solution. Velocity of light in medium
2KI (aq) + Cl2 (g) 2 KCl (aq) + I2(g) Velocity V = fl
(violet) 37. (2) Least count (L.C.) of an Ammeter
20. (1) The colour of the pH paper must have remained green.
Sodium chloride (NaCl) is a salt of strong base (NaOH) Total no. of masses from 0A to 1A 1
= = A
and strong acid (HCl). It dissolves in water to give a Total no. of divisions 20
neutral solution which is just like distilled water. 39. (3) Geo-thermal energy is the energy stored in the hot spots
Therefore, the colour of pH paper remained green. the earth’s crust.
21. (3) Isotopes have different number of neutrons. Isobars
22
differ in sum of protons and neutrons. Potassium is a 41. (2) 3.1428571428571.... 3.142857
metal whereas chlorine is a non-metal. 7
42. (2) Applying Euclid’s division lemma to 27 and 45, we get
22. (4) X and Y are elements as they can not be broken down
45 = 27 × 1 + 18 …(1)
into simpler substances. They combine in fixed 27 = 18 × 1 + 9 …(2)
proportion to give compound P. 18 = 9 × 2 + 0 …(3)
23. (2) The statement is not correct as the metal oxide reacts Since the remainder is zero, therefore, last divisor 9 is
with water to form metal hydroxide. the HCF of 27 and 45.
24. (3) Green crystals of ferrous sulphate are converted into a From (2), we get
9 = 27 – 18 × 1
dirty – yellow anhydrous solid upon heating
= 27 – (45 – 27 × 1) × 1 [using (1)]
2FeSO4 Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3 = 27 – 45 × 1 + 27 × 1 × 1
Chemical formula of aluminium phosphate is AlPO4. = 27 – 45 + 27
The gas released in respiration is CO2. = 54 – 45
9 = 27 × 2 – 45 × 1 …(4)
26. (4) Zinc blende (ZnS) is the sulphide ore.
Comparing (4) with d = 27x + 45y, we get
Option (1) is not correct as haematite is chemically d = 9, x = 2 and y = –1
Fe2O3. 43. (3) We have
Option (2) is not correct as bauxite is chemically sin 5 = cos 4
Al2O3.2H2O. cos (90° – 5 ) = cos 4
90° – 5 = 4
Option (3) is not correct as Rock salt is chemically NaCl. 4 + 5 = 90°
27. (4) Structural formula of 2-butyne is H3C – C C – CH3 it 9 = 90°
contains one triple and two single bonds between = 10°
carbon atoms. 44. (4) (x2 – 1) (x2 + x – 6)
= (x4 + x3 – 6x2) – (x2 + x – 6)
28. (2) If S t2 then acceleration is constant.
= x4 + x3 – 7x2 – x + 6
30. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all of them are the characteristics of Coefficient of x2 in (x2 – 1) (x2 + x – 6) is – 7
gravitational force. 45. (1) In figure, point C is between A and B.
31. (1) According to Law of floatation a body will float if the
weight of the body is less than/equal to the weight of A C B
the liquid displaced. [Things which coincide with one another are equal]
AC + CB = AB [Given]
32. (3) The positive work signifies that the external force or But AC = BC
force applied favours the motion of the body. AC + AC = AB
33. (4) Sound wave follows the laws of reflection. It needs 2AC = AB
material medium for the propagation. So, it cannot travel AB = 2AC
in vacuum. 46. (4) The system of equations is inconsistent
34. (2) A sudden disturbance which last for a short time interval 3 1 1
if
is called a pulse. 2 k – 1 k – 1 2k 1
36. (4) When a ray of light goes from one medium to another 3k – 3 = 2 k – 1and 2k + 1 k – 1
medium it bends from its path. This phenomenon is k=2 (4) is true and k – 2 (3) is false
called refraction of light.
EBD_7396
3 1 3y 5 y 5 4
Also [ Using (1) ]
2k – 1 2k 1 4(192 y) 12 192 y 12 3
6k + 3 2k – 1 4k – 4 k – 1 (2) is false
y 5
For k = 1, x = 3, y = 1 – 9 = – 8 i.e. x = 3, y = – 8 9y 960 5y 4 y 960
192 y 9
This means, equations are consistent. Thus (4) holds.
y 240m
2n 2(n 1)
47. (2) an 3 ; an 1 3 3 240
3 3 Put y = 240 m in (1) we get , h 180m
4
2 51. (3) Given : A circle inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD,
common difference, d an 1 – an
3 AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm, CD = 4 cm,
2 11 D R C
a a1 3 .
3 3
n 24 22 2
Sn [2a (n – 1) d ] S 24 23
2 2 3 3 S Q
22 46 12 68
12 4 68 272
3 3
A P B
48. (4) Ratio of the areas of the triangles
= (Ratio of corresponding sides)2 To find: AD
2 Proof : Let the circle touch the sides AB, BC, CD,
4 16
DA, at P, Q, R and S, respectively.
9 81
AP = AS Lengths of two tangents
1 BP = BQ
49. (2) Let ,6 divide the line segment joining the points drawn from an external
2 DR = DS
CR = CQ point of circle, are equal
(3, 5) and (–7, 9) in the ratio of K: 1
Using section formula, the co–ordinate of the dividing Adding all these, we get
point are given as (AP + BP) + (CR + RD) = (BQ + QC) + (DS + SA)
Kx2 x1 Ky 2 y1 AB + CD = BC + DA 6 + 4 = 7 + AD
x and y
K 1 K 1 AD = 10 – 7 = 3 cm.
52. (2) Given that BOD = 90°, so the top
1 K ( 7) 3 1 7K 3 3
K 1 14 K 6 of the table is of a circle of radius 60 cm.
2 K 1 2 K 1 4
1 Perimeter of the table
15K 5 K . Ratio is 1: 3
3
3 3
50. (3) Let CD be the tower = 2 r 2r cm = 2 3.14 60 2 60 cm
4 4
Let height of tower CD = h m and BC = y m
= (90 × 3.14 + 120) cm = 402.6 cm.
h 3
Now, in right angled BCD, tan = y tan 53. (2) POR and QOR form a linear pair
4
POR + QOR = 180° (Linear pair axiom)
h 3 3y D or a + b = 180° ........ (1)
h .....(1)
y 4 4 But a – b = 80° ......... (2) [Given]
In right angle ACD, Adding eqs (1) and (2), we get
h h
tan = 260
192 y 2a = 260° a 130
2
5 A Substituting the value of a in (1), we get
Since tan 192m B y C
12 130° + b = 180°
b = 180° – 130° = 50°
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 25
54. (1) Least prime : Least composite number 59. (1) First ten odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19
= 2 : 4 or 1 : 2 respectively.
55. (1) X Y Z 1 So A.M. (x)
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19
8 10
1
Z –X–Y 100
8 10
1 1 1 1 10
– –
8 24 16 48 60. (1) Radius of the shotput r = 4.9 cm
Z can do the work in 48 days. Volume of the shotput
56. (2) Let a1, a2, a3, .....all be the 11 players of the team. 4 3 4 22 4.9 4.9 4.9 cm3
r = 493.0053 cm3
Let a10 represents the captain and a 11 represents the 3 3 7
wicketkeeper. Density of the metal = 6.9 g per cm 3
Given: Age of captain = 25 yrs., i.e. a10 = 25 So the mass of the shotput = volume × density
And age of wicketkeeper = 25 + 3 = 28 yrs., i.e. a11 = 28 3401.7366
= 493.0053 × 6.9 g = 3401.7366 g kg
a a .... a 9 a10 a11 1000
To find: 1 2
11 = 3.4017366 kg 3.4 kg (approx)
According to the question, 61. (1) Olympe de Gouges was a French playwright and
a1 ... a 9 (a1 ... a 9 a10 a11) political activist whose feminist writing influenced a
1 large audience.
9 11
62. (1) Auschwitz concentration camp was a network of
a1 ... a 9 (a1 ... a 9 25 28) 11 concentration and extermination camps built and
9 11 operated by the third reach in polish areas annexed by
9(a1 ... a 9 ) 9 53 99 Nazis.
(a1 ... a 9 ) 64. (1) Lala Lajpat Rai was popularly known as Punjab Kesari
11 or Lion of Punjab. He went to U.S.A. to promote India’s
2 477 99 378 freedom struggle.
a1 ... a 9 67. (2) Rinderpest was an infectious viral disease of cattle that
11 11 11
means cattle plague.
a1 ... a 9 189 68. (1) Economic activities are divided into Market activities
a1 ... a 9 a10 a11 189 53 242 and Non-market activities.
22 71. (3) Unlike Fixed capital, Working capital which includes
11 11 11
Average age of whole team = 22 years. raw materials and money in hand is used up in
57. (3) a = 6 cm, b = 6 cm, c = 6 cm production.
73. (3) It focused on the Hindu widows and the urgent need
a b c 6 6 6 to permit their remarriages.
s 9cm
2 2 75. (2) The State level court is higher than the district level
Area of the equilateral triangle consumer court and deals in cases involving claims
s(s a)(s b)(s c) between 20 lakhs and 1 crore.
79. (3) Mineral resources are not renewable.
82. (1) Migration resulted in a steady increase in the
9(9 6)(9 6)(9 6) 9(3)(3)(3) 9 3 cm 2 percentage of population in cities.
58. (2) For triangle, sides are a = 26 cm, b = 28 cm, c = 30 cm 85. (1) Most loans from informal lenders carry a very heavy
interest rate and do little to increase the income of the
a b c 26 28 30 84 borrowers. Hence, it is necessary that banks and
s = 42 cm
2 2 2 cooperatives increase their lending particularly in rural
areas
Area of the triangle = s s a s b s c 87. (4) Terrace farming is a type of farming that was developed
(By Heron’s formula) first by the Indian people. This method of farming uses
42 42 26 42 28 42 30 steps called andenes that are built into the side of a
mountain or hill.
88. (4) Martial law in Poland refers to the period of time when
42 16 14 12 6 7 16 7 2 6 2 the authoritarian government of the people’s Republic
of Poland restricted normal life.
= 6 × 4 × 7 × 2 = 336 cm2 96. (3) India has a multi - party system with a predominance of
Let the height of the parallelogram be x cm. small regional parties. Political parties that wish to
contest local, state or national elections are required to
Then, area of the parallelogram = Base × Height = 28 × x cm2 be registered by three or more states.
Since, triangle and parallelogram have the same area 99. (3) The Bahujan Samaj party is a centrist national political
28x = 336 party in India with the socialist leanings. It was formed
to represent Bahujans or People of majority.
336 100. (2) More and more goods and services, investments and
x x = 12 cm
28 technologies are moving between various countries in
the past few decades.
EBD_7396
PART A : MAT (Mental Ability Test) MOCK TEST 4

ANSWER KEY
1 (2) 6 (4) 11 (3) 16 (1) 21 (2) 26 (3) 31 (2) 36 (1) 41 (3) 46 (4)
2 (2) 7 (4) 12 (3) 17 (2) 22 (1) 27 (2) 32 (2) 37 (2) 42 (4) 47 (3)
3 (4) 8 (2) 13 (3) 18 (2) 23 (3) 28 (3) 33 (2) 38 (3) 43 (2) 48 (3)
4 (2) 9 (4) 14 (3) 19 (3) 24 (4) 29 (4) 34 (1) 39 (4) 44 (3) 49 (3)
5 (1) 10 (2) 15 (4) 20 (1) 25 (4) 30 (3) 35 (4) 40 (4) 45 (3) 50 (4)

1. (2) TIN and NIT can be made 2 2 2 2 2
19. (3) T W, R U, A D, I L, N Q
2. (2)
2 2 2
B E, U X, S V
12 m
N 1 2 3 4 5
23. (3) C E, L O, E I, R W, K Q
1 2 3 4 5
15 m 15 m W E T V, A D, B F, L Q, E K
24. (4) Zn cell all numbers are perfect squares.
12 = 1, 22 = 4, 32 = 9, 42 = 16, 52 = 25, 62 = 36, 72 = 49, 82
S = 64 and 92 = 81.
2m 10 m
3. (4) Rest are nouns 'Bake' is a verb
4. (2) Letters are arranged in reverse order.
5. (1) a a b b a a / a a b b a a / a a b b 25. (4)
abaaab is Ans.
6. (4) The availability of vegetables is not mentioned in the
given statement. So, I does not follow. Also, II is not 26. (3) Although 'Mirror' is kept at AB, but actually will gave
directly related to the statement and so it also does not 'water' image.
follow. Probably the demand is surpassing the supply. 27. (2) ROSE CHAIR PREACH SEARCH
7. (4) I and II are assumptions and not conclusions. 6821 734 56 961 473 2 1 46 7 3
8-9. C is the second reader. A is the second last reader. 28. (3) T + G = 27. Total of all pairs is 27.
E is not the first or last to read. So, E is the third reader. There 29. (4) In a cuboid opposite sides have same dimensions.
were two readers between B and A. 30. (3) Alternate numbers increasing by 3.
So, the order of reading the newspaper is : B, C, E, A, D. Therefore 79 be replaced by 77.
8. (2) B passed the newspaper to C. 31. (2) 20 replaced by 21. Difference is of 12, 22, 32, 42 and 52.
9. (4) D read the newspaper last.
12. (3) Attempts before reaching the top, height 13
= 50 × 4 + 1 = 201
Similarly, for B and C, height = 50 × 3 + 3 1
= 153; 50 × 5 + 2 = 252 32. (2) 12 4 2 5
13. (3) Rank of Ram from the last = 23 – 13 + 1 = 11 3
and Rank of Shyam from the last = 23 – 14 + 1 = 10 8
1 1 1 1 1
14. (3) I K, D F, I K, O Q, T V
In the figure, 5 + 3 = 8, 8 + 4 = 12, 12 + 1 = 13.
1 1 1 1 Therefore 12 is the answer.
G I, E G, N P, I K,
1 1 33. (2) (6 2) (11 2) 25, (8 2) (6 2) 16.
U W, S U
Therefore (12 2) (5 2) 16 .
15. (4) 'T' is not there in SUPERIMPOSABLE.
16. (1) Reverse of Fig 3 34. (1) (3 × 5) + 1 = 16, (16 × 5) + 1 = 81, (81 × 5) + 1 = 406.
17. (2) (14 + 8) – (12 + 6) = 4, (3 + 7) – (5 + 4) = 1, Therefore (406 × 5) + 1 = 2031.
(15 + 9) – (11 + 3) = 10 10 cm east N
18. (2) The year 1979 being an ordinary year, it has 1 odd day. y X
So, the day on 12th January 1980 is one day beyond on
15 cm W E
the day on 12th January, 1979. 35. (4) 15 cm
south south
But, January 12, 1980 being Saturday.
January 12, 1979 was Friday. 10 cm east S
Z w
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 27
36. (1) The argument is essentially that the proposed law makes 47. (3) Grand Father Man’s Father
no sense because knitting needles are dangerous as well. only son
The argument relies explicitly on an analogy between
hypodermic and knitting needles. Thus, the two must be Reena’s Father Man — Brother
similar in all respects relevant to the argument. Otherwise,
the argument is unconvincing. (1) affirms that knitting
needles are in fact dangerous, thereby affirming the Reena
analogy between the two types of needles. From above two diagram, it is clearly under stood that
(2) and (3) each in its own way supports the bare Reena’s father and Man’s father is the same. And Reena
assertion that the proposed law might not be effective. is sister to that man.
However, none of these answer choices affirms the Sol. 48-49. Clearly Arrangement of boys is as shown:-
argument’s essential reasoning. P
(4) actually weakens the argument, by providing a
reason why hypodermic needles and knitting needles 30 m
are not relevantly similar. Facing
37. (2) Birthday before 20th but after 15th October means her N A K towards
25 m 40 m north
birthday can be on 16th, 17th, 18th or 19th but before
17th October (when combined with above condition)
60 m
i.e., Anshu’s sister birthday falls on 16th October.
38. (3) S is the 3rd letter after P and
W is the 3rd letter after T. Similarly
D
D & H are the 3rd letters after A and E respectively.
39. (4) The different letters follows the given sequences: 48 (4) Clearly, Atul is to the left of Kunal and Prashant is to
the north - east of Atul.
1st letter B C D E (next letter from B to E) 49. (3) Required distance = N A + A K + K D + D P
2nd letter Y X W V (reverse from V to Y) = (25 + 40 + 60 + 90)m = 215 m
50. (4) The figure may be labelled as shown:-
3rd letter A B C D (next letter from A to D) A E F B
40. (4) 1 man will complete the job in 16 × 12 days.
12 16 M Q R N
So 4 will do in = 48 days.
4 L Y Z S
41. (3) In the alphabet series there are 2 letters between ‘O’ G
X
A1 B1
and ‘R’. Here also there are 2 letters (AZ) between them. K H
W T
Again, there is no letter between R & S.
P V U O
R A Z O R S
42. (4) Figure broken in two part and folded oppositely. D J I C
43. (2) has been moved 135° clockwise.
44. (3) Mango is called king of fruits but here in code Mango The simplest squares are EFRQ, MQYZ, RNSZ, XYA,W,
QRZY, LXWK, ZSTB1, SGHT, WAVP, A B UV, B1TOU and
is called coconut.
VUIJ i.e. 13 in number.
45. (3) Tractor is used to plough a field but here is code tractor
The squares having two components each are KA JD,
is called car. B, HCI, FBGZ and AEYL i.e. 4 in number.
46. (4) Drink fruit Juice tee see pee The squares having four components each are MRB W,
YSOV, XZUP and QNTA, i.e. 4 in number.
The squares having seven components each are YGCJ, LZID,
Juice is Sweet see Kee lee
EBHA, and AFB, K i.e; 4 in number.
There is only one square i.e. MNOP composed of nine
He is intelligent Lee ree mee components. There is only one square i.e. ABCD composed
Hence, code for sweet is Kee. of seventeen components.
There are (13 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 1 + 1) = 27 squares.

ANSWER KEY
1 (4) 6 (1) 11 (4) 16 (4) 21 (1) 26 (4) 31 (3) 36 (4) 41 (2) 46 (1)
2 (3) 7 (3) 12 (1) 17 (1) 22 (3) 27 (2) 32 (1) 37 (3) 42 (4) 47 (2)
3 (1) 8 (2) 13 (3) 18 (2) 23 (4) 28 (2) 33 (2) 38 (3) 43 (1) 48 (1)
4 (1) 9 (4) 14 (2) 19 (3) 24 (2) 29 (3) 34 (3) 39 (2) 44 (3) 49 (4)
5 (2) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (2) 25 (2) 30 (1) 35 (1) 40 (4) 45 (3) 50 (2)
EBD_7396

1. (4) The passage does provide information about the physical newspaper article is typically viewed as a reputable source.
characteristics of fleas, but it also educates readers about Marcia's mom will be most likely to consider the opinion
the life cycle and reproduction process of a flea. of a newspaper article author.
Furthermore, these details all support the author's main 13. (3) The last line of the passage," I went to court with the
point, which is that a flea infestation is very hard to get collar on, thus inviting the ridicule of brother barristers,
rid of. but even in those days I could be impervious to ridicule."
2. (3) The author presents facts about the characteristics of reveals the fact that he was a lawyer.
fleas without expressing any emotions or opinions in the 14. (2) The narrator bought a book on washing, studied the art
passage. Since the author's main purpose is to present and taught it also to his wife. This no doubt added to his
information, we can conclude that the tone is informative. work, but its novelty made it a pleasure.
3. (1) Since we know that the exoskeleton on a flea is called a 15. (3) The narrator went to court with the collar on, thus inviting
sclerite, we can infer that the sclerite is waterproof, which the ridicule of brother barristers, but even in those days
makes fleas resistant to sprays and chemicals. he could be impervious to ridicule.
4. (1) In para 2, we learn that "a flea has a very hard exoskeleton, 20. (2) Note that the paralytic attack was mild, which gives us
which means the body is covered by a tough, tile-like the clue that its effect would be slight. This is further
plate called a sclerite. Because of these plates, fleas are substantiated by the second part of the sentence:”
almost impossible to squish." From this we can …otherwise he is still very active” means there is some
understand that the sclerite makes a flea difficult to squish. (slight) trouble but not much.
5. (2) In para 4, we learn that "fleas are able to accelerate through 21. (1) If two persons are similar, you will point out to certain
the air at an incredibly high rate-a rate which is over ten likenesses. Yet you can easily tell one from the other. In
times what humans can withstand in an airplane." From other words, you can differentiate between the two. But
this we can understand that fleas are able to jump with a the given sentence says differentiation is difficult. Which
high rate of acceleration. This supports option (I) . Also means the resemblance is to a very high degree. In other
in paragraph 4, we learn that fleas are able to jump words, identical.
"horizontally and vertically." From this we can understand 22. (3) We are talking of his most striking (remarkable) quality.
that fleas can jump up and down and from side to side. The characteristics of a person, thing are the qualities or
This supports option (II) . features that belong to them and make them recognisable.
6. (1) In para 1, we learn that fleas are parasites that "feast on 23. (4) When someone else has good fortune (luck), the general
anything containing blood." Since blood is their food feeling is: “Why is he the favoured one? Why not I?”
source, we can infer they will die if they do not have This is a feeling of envy.
access to blood. 24. (2) Ushered (show or guide somewhere) seems to be the
7. (3) In para 6, we learn that fleas "will hatch when conditions most appropriate in the context of the sentence.
become favorable. Fleas can detect warmth, movement, 25. (2) Autocratic is the adjective from autocracy (autos = self +
and carbon dioxide in exhaled breath, and these three kratos = power). An autocratic ruler concentrates all
factors stimulate them to emerge as adults." We can infer power in himself. He makes decisions without asking
those three factors are crucial because they indicate the anyone else’s advice.
presence of living things that contain blood, which the 26. (4) The “comic’: (comics book) changes hands - it goes from
new adults need in order to live. This means that fleas the boy to the teacher. Only (2), (3) and (4) give this
only emerge from eggs as adults when they sense there sense of change of hands. Of these, seized is the most
is access to blood. appropriate. If someone in authority (here “the teacher”)
8. (2) Cell phones, video games and the Internet are all examples seizes your property (here “the boy’s comic”), they take
of technology. Mom thinks these things are dangerous it from you, often by force. Of course, no boy would
and Dad thinks these things are useful. willingly part with his “comic”
9. (4) The reason why she dislikes technology is because it will 27. (2) A literal translation is one in which you translate each
put Marcia's safety at risk. This lets us know that Marcia's ‘word of the original work. Since each language has its
mom cares about Marcia's wellbeing. Whereas her father own idiom, a literal translation leads to awkward usage. A
does not want to take technology away from Marcia, as literal translation is therefore not considered good. A
this will "put her at a disadvantage." This lets us know good translation gives the meaning of each expression,
that Marcia's dad also cares about Marcia's wellbeing. sentence or paragraph, using words that sound natural.
10. (2) Although Marcia's moms seems to have an extreme view 28. (2) “Fear” makes your voice tremble. In other words, it
of technology, she does this only because she cares about becomes tremulous.
her child, Marcia. Caring about one's child is not ridiculous. 29. (3) If A transmits a disease to B, A has the disease and causes
11. (4) Marcia's dad cares about Marcia's future. He realizes that B to have it. Here, “disease” gives us the clue.
there are dangers involved in using technology, such as 48. (1) The word ‘mutual’ is used to describe feelings that two
the risk of playing video games too much, but that the or more people have for each other equally. Hence,
world is changing. If Marcia does not change with it, she reciprocal is similar word in meaning to it.
will be left behind. This is a reasonable way to think. 49. (4) The word ‘evident’ means obvious, clear, tangible, distinct
12. (1) This is a good idea because it involves a form of etc. which is nearest in meaning to ‘quite clear’.
communication that is not technological. Also, a 50. (2) The word ‘penalize’ means inflict a penalty on, which is
quite similar in meaning to ‘punish’.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 29

ANS WER KEY
1 (4) 11 (2) 21 (4) 31 (2) 41 (2) 51 (1) 61 (4) 71 (1) 81 (1) 91 (2)
2 (4) 12 (1) 22 (1) 32 (1) 42 (3) 52 (4) 62 (3) 72 (1) 82 (2) 92 (4)
3 (3) 13 (1) 23 (4) 33 (3) 43 (1) 53 (4) 63 (1) 73 (3) 83 (1) 93 (2)
4 (1) 14 (3) 24 (3) 34 (2) 44 (2) 54 (1) 64 (1) 74 (4) 84 (3) 94 (2)
5 (3) 15 (2) 25 (2) 35 (2) 45 (3) 55 (2) 65 (2) 75 (3) 85 (4) 95 (3)
6 (3) 16 (4) 26 (1) 36 (4) 46 (3) 56 (1) 66 (1) 76 (1) 86 (2) 96 (3)
7 (2) 17 (1) 27 (3) 37 (3) 47 (1) 57 (2) 67 (3) 77 (4) 87 (2) 97 (3)
8 (1) 18 (1) 28 (4) 38 (3) 48 (3) 58 (3) 68 (4) 78 (1) 88 (1) 98 (2)
9 (1) 19 (4) 29 (2) 39 (3) 49 (2) 59 (4) 69 (2) 79 (4) 89 (4) 99 (2)
10 (2) 20 (1) 30 (3) 40 (1) 50 (3) 60 (1) 70 (4) 80 (3) 90 (1) 100 (3)

1. (4) Transportation is the movement of materials from one 11. (2) Sexual reproduction is generally biparental as there are
part to another, usually from the region of their two types of gametes formed by two different types of
availability to the region of their use, storage or individuals, male and female. Meiosis maintains the
elimination. Transportation occurs in all organisms, from chromosome number of the organisms by halving it
microscopic ones to large sized trees and animals. prior to gamete formation.
2. (4) Green plants are called producers because they not
12. (1) Insulin is produced by -cells of islet of Langerhans of
only manufacture food for themselves but also for the
pancreas. Cells, tissues and organs recognise and
rest of members of biotic community. Primary carnivores
are called secondary consumers because they feed on absorb glucose only in the presence of insulin. In
first order or primary consumers (herbivores). Flow of deficiency of insulin, the cells fail to recognise and
energy in ecosystem is unidirectional from sun to absorb glucose. Extra glucose is excreted through urine.
plants, plants to animals, animals to animals, organic The disorder is called diabetes mellitus.
remains to decomposers and dissipation as heat. Ozone 13. (1) Biodegradable wastes are wastes which are broken
(O3) is a triatomic molecule made up of three atoms of down and disposed off naturally by saprophytes or
oxygen. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are ozone decomposers. They are generally organic wastes, e.g.,
depleting substances which are highly stable,
garbage, sewage, livestock waste, used tea leaves,
odourless, synthetic gaseous substances used as
waste paper, leather, wood and jute articles, food
aerosol propellants, coolants, refrigerants, etc.
leftover, etc.
3. (3) Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found
in all cells - both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic. 16. (4) e/m ratio is independent of molecular weight of
Within the cell, ribosomes are found not only in the substance.
cytoplasm but also within the two organelles - 17. (1) Mendeleev’s periodic table does not include any of
chloroplasts (in plants) and mitochondria and on rough the Noble gases.
ER.
18. (1) Solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more pure
5. (3) Ozone layer present in stratosphere functions as a shield substances, the relative ratio of which can be varied
against high energy and harmful ultraviolet radiations.
within certain limits.
In the absence of ozone layer, the extremely harmful
UV radiations will reach earth, cause large scale 19. (4) When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic
mutations to organisms, reducing photosynthesis, acid CO2 gas is evolved.
blinding of animals and humans, developing skin cancer CH3COOH + NaHCO3
and herpes and death of young ones. By filtering out CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
harmful UV radiations, ozone protects the immune
system of living beings against various diseases. CO2 reacts with water to form carbonic acid.
8. (1) Culture fishery is cultivating, rearing and harvesting of CO2 + H2O H2CO3
fish. Bee keeping or apiculture is the rearing, care and 21. (4) Zinc, iron and copper are less reactive than aluminium.
management of honey bees for obtaining honey, wax This is further supported by the reactivity series of
and other substances. Broilers are chicken, which are metals.
7 - 8 weeks old and raised for meat. Draught animals are
strong and sturdy. They are the beast of burden used 23. (4) Sulphur dissolves in carbon disulphide to form a
for ploughing land and transporting materials from one solution which is homogeneous in nature. It does not
place to another. show any Tyndall effect.
EBD_7396
24. (3) Detergents are sodium salts of long chain sulphonic 35. (2) Electromagnetic waves do not need any material medium
acid. Thus they are non-biodegradable. Methane is also for their propagation and they are always transverse in
known as marsh gas. Hard water contains chlorides
nature e.g. light waves.
and sulphates of Ca 2+ and Mg2+ ions. Vinegar is
aqueous solution of acetic acid and is used in 36. (4) Reflection of light : It is the turning back of light in the
preserving pickles. same medium.
25. (2) De-greasing of metals can be done by NaOH. Refraction of light : It is the bending of light when
26. (1) 6.023 × 1023 molecules of H2 = 2g passes from are medium to another medium.
Dispersion of light : It is the splitting of white light
1023 molecules of H2 = 0.33 g
into its seven constituent colours while passing
1 mol of H2O = 18 g through a prism.
0.1 mol of H2O = 1.8 g Total internal reflection : For total internal reflection
1 mol of N2 = 28 g light must goes from denser to rarer medium and in
0.01 mol of N2 = 0.28 g denser medium angle of incidence > critical angle.
22.4 L of O2 at STP = 32 g 37. (3) u = – 25 cm V = 2.5 cm
2.24 L of O2 at STP = 3.2 g
Thus the rquired order is Using 1 1 1
–
1 1 11 = cm–1
f u v 25 2.5 25
III < I < II < IV
27. (3) When a metal reacts with dilute nitric acid, then 100 11
hydrogen gas is not evolved. Because nitric acid is a P 100 44D
f (in cm) 25
strong oxidising agent. So, as soon as hydrogen gas is
formed in the reaction between a metal and dilute nitric Rs
acid, the nitric acid, oxidises this hydrogen to water. 38. (3) n2 (2)2 4
Very dilute nitric acid, however reacts with magnesium Rp
and manganese to evolve hydrogen gas.
28. (4) Newton’s third law of motion : To every action there is 23 23 23
41. (2) 3 2 2 2
always an equal and opposite reaction. However, action 25 2(2) (5) 2(2 5) 2
and reaction always act on two different objects.
29. (2) Particle of different masses falls with same acceleration 23 11.5
0.115
2 100
i.e. acceleration due to gravity on earth. 2(10)
To change the state (state of rest or state of motion) of This shows that decimal expansion of the rational
a body we need external force. 23
Force = mass × acceleration number , will terminate after three places of
2352
30. (3) Ice contracts on melting due to anomalous expansion decimal.
of water. Thus, the total volume of the melted ice is 42. (3) HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers
equal to the volume of floating ice inside the water. 15 × LCM = 105 × 120
31. (2) Gravitational force of attraction. 105 120
LCM
GMm 15
F .... (i)
R2 LCM = 105 × 8 = 840.
Also F = mg ... (ii) 43. (1) Let the cost of the book = ` x and
From (i) and (ii) cost of the fountain pen = ` y.
GM Since cost of a book = Twice the cost of pen
g
R2 x = 2y x – 2y = 0
32. (1) A.C. generator is a device which converts mechanical 44. (2) Let p(x) = 2x + 3x3 + 2px2 + 3x + 6
4
into electrical energy.
By factor theorem, p(x) will be exactly divisible by
Electric motor converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy. (x + 2) if p (– 2) = 0.
33. (3) Vertical height climbed = Height of step × No. of steps Now, p(– 2) = 2( – 2)4 + 3 (– 2)3 + 2p(– 2)2 + 3 (– 2) + 6
= 20 cm × 20 cm = 400 cm = 4 cm = 32 – 24 + 8p – 6 + 6
Mass of the girl = 40 kg = 8 + 8p
Since, work done is equal to gain in potential energy, p (– 2) = 0
therefore we have = 40 × 10 × 4 = 1600 J
Hence power developed by the girl 8 + 8p = 0
W 1600 8p = –8
P = 53.33 W p = –1
t 30
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 31
45. (3) POR + ROQ = 180° ...(1) [Linear Pair]
A B
POR 5
But
ROQ
= [Given] 1 km
7 1 km
7
ROQ = POR ... (2)
5 60°
From (1) and (2), we have
7
POR POR = 180° 30°
5
12 O x C y D
POR = 180°
5
180 5 x 1
POR = cot 60° x ....(1)
12 1 3
POR = 75°
Now, SOQ = POR = 75°(Vertically opposite s)
46. (3) Let 5 – 2x = a, 5 – 3y = b and 5 – z = c, then x y
In a ODB, cot 30° x y 3 ......(2)
(5 – 2x) + (5 – 3y) + (5 – z) = a + b + c 1
15 – (2x + 3y + z) = a + b + c
15 – 15 = a + b + c [ 2x + 3y + z = 15 (given)] Subtract (1) – (2)
a+b+c=0
Using the result : if a + b + c = 0, then 1 1 3 2
y 3 y y km
a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = 0 ...(1) 3 3 3
Put back the values of a, b and c in (1), we get
(5 – 2x)3 + (5 – 3y)3 + (5 – z)3 2
– 3(5 – 2x) (5 – 3y) (5 – z) = 0 In 10 seconds, distance covered, y km
Hence, the value of (5 – 2x)3 + (5 – 3y)3 + (5 – z)3 3
– 3(5 – 2x) (5 – 3y) (5 – z) is 0. In 360 seconds, distance covered,
47. (1) D = b2 – 4ac = (– 4a2)2 – 4.4.(a4 – b4) 3600 2
= 16a4 – 16a4 + 16b4 = 16b4 km / hr 240 3
10 3
–b D – ( 4a2 ) 16b 4 speed of the plane = 240 3 km / hr
x= =
2a 2 4
p sin q cos p tan q
4a 2 4b 2 a2 b2
a 2 – b2 51. (1) =
= = or p sin q cos p tan q
8 2 2
1 1 2p 1 4p p
48. (3) Sequence, , , ,............. p q
p p p q p2 q2
= =
1 1 2p 1 1 2p 1 p p2 q2
Here a ,d d p q
p q
p p p
d=2 52. (4) sin4A – cos4 A = (sin2A – cos2A) (sin 2A + cos2A)
1 1 2n 2 1 2np 2 p = (sin2A – cos2A) which can never be expressed as
tn (n 1)2 = tn
p p 1 p 1 + sin2A
49. (2) Since points are collinear, 53. (4) A B
so, x1(y2 – y3) + x2(y3 – y1) + x3(y1 – y2) = 0 4 cm
Taking (7, –2) as (x1, y1), (5, 1) as (x2, y2) and
(3, k) as (x3, y3), we have 4 cm
7(1 – k) + 5(k + 2) + 3(–2 –1) = 0
C D
or, 7 – 7k + 5k + 10 – 9 = 0
2k = 8 k = 4. Distance between AB and CD = 8 cm
50. (3) Let ‘O’ be the observation point, and let A be the position 54. (1) For A, B, C must be lie in a line x + y = 180°.
of aeroplane such that AOC = 60°
55. (2) Construction: Join BD
AC = 1km = BD
Now in, ABD
Let B be the position of aeroplane after 10 seconds
such that BOD 30 , OC = x km. and CD = y km x + ADB + 30° = 180° ...(1)
Now, in rt OCA, In BDC, y + BDC + 55° = 180° ...(2)
EBD_7396
59. (4) Diameter of the base of lampshade, d = 20 cm
A
d 20
radius r cm 10 cm ; height = 30 cm
2 2
30° Margin over the top and bottom
= 2.5 cm + 2.5 cm = 5 cm
D
Hence total length of the cloth used
h = 30 cm + 5 cm
x h = 35 cm
50° y 55°
The cloth required for covering the lampshade
B C
22
= 2 rh 2 10 35 = 2200 cm2
By adding (1) and (2) 7
x + ADB + 30° + y + BDC + 55° = 360° 60. (1) Total marks = 75 + 25 = 100
Required ratio = 75: 100 = 3 : 4
Also, x + y = 50° 62. (3) The Napoleonic code of 1804 was a major step in
Then ADB + BDC + 135° = 360° establishing the rule of law. All privileges based on
birth were taken away.
ADB + BDC = 225° 64. (1) Captain swing was a mythic name used in threatening
i.e., x = ADC = 135° letters during the rural English.
66. (1) The Elgin mill was started in Kanpur in the 1860s.
56. (1) Given, 70. (4) The plan outlay of our country's government on
(27 x) (31 x ) (89 x ) (107 x) (156 x) education has increased from 151 crore in first plan to
82
5 43,825 crore in the tenth plan.
82 × 5 = 410 + 5x 410 – 410 = 5x x = 0 72. (1) The first Test Cricket was played between England and
Required mean is, Australia.
73. (3) Andhra Pradesh has followed Tamil Nadu for the
130 x 126 x 68 x 50 x 1 x process of reducing poverty.
x
5 77. (4) Government policies and regulations have made
375 5x 375 0 375 Globalization fairer
x 75
5 5 5 78. (1) Mango showers are the pre-monsoon showers in the
57. (2) Here the number of favourable cases, consists of Indian states of Karnataka, Kerala, Konkan and Goa
throwing 10,11 or 12 with the two dice. The number of that help in the ripening of mangoes. It is also known
ways in which a sum of 10 can be thrown are (4,6), (5,5), as April rains or summer showers.
(6,4) i.e. 3 ways. 82. (2) The Chipko Movement was super headed by shri
Sunderlal Bahuguna in Uttarakhand. It has resisted
The number of ways in which a total of 11 can be thrown
deforestation but also community afforestation with
are (5, 6), (6,5) i.e. 2 ways. indigenous species of fees can be very successful.
The number of ways in which a total of 12 can be thrown 83. (1) 15% cash is kept as provision to pay the depositors
in (6, 6) i.e. 1 way. who might come to withdraw money from the bank on
m = number of favourable cases = 3 + 2 + 1 = 6 any given day.
85. (4) Tropical evergreen forests require heavy rainfall with a
n = Total number of cases = 6 × 6 = 36 short dry season. The trees reach heights upto 60
m 6 1 meters or even above.
Probability p 87. (2) Barren and waste land put to non-agricultural uses like
n 36 6 buildings, roads, factories etc.
58. (3) In figure, 91. (2) Kerela has low infant mortality rate because it has
OAB is an equilateral triangle of 2a. adequate provision of basic health and educational
facilities.
OA = AB = OB = 2a
95. (3) 59% of total population of Belgium lives in the Fleurus
Now, from the point B, draw BM perpendicular on OA. and speaks Dutch and another 40% live in Wallonia
OM = MA = a region and speak French. Remaining 1% speak German.
Therefore from right triangle OMB, 96. (3) Secondary sector covers activities in which natural
products are changed into other forms through ways
OB2 = OM2 + MB2 of manufacturing that we associate with industrial
or, (2a)2 = (a)2 + MB2 activity.
or, MB2 = 3a2 98. (2) Preamble of the constitution lays down the most
important national goals which every citizen and the
MB = 3a government must try to achieve such as socialism,
secularism and integration.
Since OM = a and MB = 3a 100. (3) By the President after a resolution of Parliament passed
by a majority of its members and two third majority of
Hence, co-ordinates of vertex B are (a, 3a) . the members present and voting in each house.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 33
PART A : MAT (Mental Ability Test) MOCK TEST 5

ANSWER KEY
1 (3) 6 (2) 11 (3) 16 (3) 21 (2) 26 (4) 31 (4) 36 (3) 41 (3) 46 (3)
2 (4) 7 (1) 12 (3) 17 (1) 22 (3) 27 (2) 32 (1) 37 (3) 42 (4) 47 (2)
3 (3) 8 (2) 13 (3) 18 (3) 23 (1) 28 (1) 33 (3) 38 (3) 43 (2) 48 (2, 4)
4 (4) 9 (3) 14 (1) 19 (2) 24 (1) 29 (1) 34 (4) 39 (4) 44 (1) 49 (4)
5 (1) 10 (2) 15 (2) 20 (4) 25 (1) 30 (2) 35 (2) 40 (2) 45 (4) 50 (3)

CHECK:
U
9 9 9
2. (4) G S; 1 1 1
8 8 8
M 1 9 9 8
From the figure, Uma and Maithili. 7. (1) A = 9

3. (3) Rest are singular. Pair is plural. 8. (2) A + B + C = 9 + 1 + 8 = 18
9. (3) A = B + C or 9 = 1 + 8 = 9 true.
4. (4) 'S' is prefixed, whereas first letter goes at the end.
A = 9 is the greatest digit.
5. (1) a a b b a a / a a b b a a. Therefore baa is answer.
C = 0 is false.
6. (2) Time from noon on Sunday to 3 pm on Wednesday So, (i) & (ii) are true.
= 75 hours.
24 hours 2 minutes of the first clock 4 30
10. (2) Usual time × –1
= 24 hours of the correct one. 5 60
1 hour of the first clock = 24 × (30/721) hours 1 1
of correct one. usual time =
5 2 hr
2 2
75 ours of the first clock 11. (3) From the given statements we can make the following
= 24 × 30 × (75/721) hours of correct one equations.
= 54000/721 hours = 74 hours 53.7 min. (I) y= x + 6
Hence the answer is 2:54 pm. x 3
(II) 0.4x = 0.3y
y 4
7-9. A A A
B B B y/2 2 y 4 x 3
(III)
C C C x/3 1 x 3 y 4
B A A C Obviously, question can be solved by using (I) and
either (II) or (III) because equations (II) and (III) are
same.
As the right hand digit of the sum of A + B + C = C, it
12. (3) 6 6 5 6 8 3 9 4 3 6 7 3 6 4 3 2 8 6 4 6 8 2 6 6 3.
means that A + B = 10 so A or B, none can be 0. Also the
sum of A + B + C can not exceed 19, So 1 is carried to 10 m West
N
the second column.
13. (3) 5m
Now, 1 + A + B + C gives A as the right digit of the sum.
South W E
So, A = C + 1. Further, again 1 is carried over to the third
column as A can not be 0 and the sum of 1 + A + B + C 10 m East 15 m S
can be atmost 19. North
On adding A + B + C + 1 we get BA, thus here B = 1.
using A + B = 10, A = 10 –1 = 9 C
Also, A = C + 1 14. (1) T J
C = A–1 = 9 –1 = 8.
So, A = 9, B = 1 and C = 8 satisfy all the conditions.
EBD_7396
answer” in terms of climate change. Option (3) is not
Sm. considered as it gives emphasis only on research done
15. (2) Pl ; From the figure none follows. in Germany. Option (4) is also ruled out because it
Dr.
specifically gives more importance to scientists of
Germany.
Solutions (Qs. 31 to 34) :
16. (3) C S B ; from the figure, only I and
Left
III follow.
Solutions 17 - 21:
B
Here A = 3 and Q = 8.
E
B 3 N 3
N 3 N 3 N
G
8 B P B
W E
As, 3 + 3 = B = 6, N = 8 – B = 8 – 6 = 2. So, P = N + N = 4.
F
17. (1) 2 × 6 = 12.
S
18. (3) 6 × 4 = 24.
D
19. (2) N2 = 22 = 4.
20. (4) P × Q = 4 × 8 = 32
C
21. (2) B × A × N × A × N × A = 6 × 3 × 2 × 3 × 2 × 3 = 3888.
23. (1) GIVE BAT GATE
5137 92 4 5247 A
the South end
Third from
Right
24. (1)
31. (4) G is sitting right of D.

32. (1) AB is a pair whose in sitting at the extreme ends.
33. (3) G is third from the north end.
34. (4) D is sitting between C and F.
35. (2) Short cut method-
25. (1)
Take clockwise as ‘+’ and anticlockwise as ‘–’
Person N
W E
27. (2) MPOEPO London NPTDPX MOSCOW
Letter of words are one less than letters of code. S
28. (1) A B + 90 ° – 135° = – 45°
9 km N
As person is facing North west. Now, rotate that person
45° anticlockwise. Now, he is facing west direction.
12 km W E 36. (3) Let the no. of boys = x
Let the no. of girls = 2x
C S According to question
AC2 = 92 + 122 = 81 + 144 = 225 x + 2x = 60
AC = 15 kms x = 20
30. (2) Option (2) is the answer because it talks about scientists Boys = 20
being unsure about rapid shifts in earth’s climate and Girls = 40
how finding a definitive answer will help them to predict If Kamal is at Seventeenth position and 9 girls are a
the future climatic changes. Option (1) cannot be the head of him then out of 16 people standing ahead of
answer as it talks about research in general and the him, seven are boys. Therefore, there are 12 boys are
paragraph gives more emphasis on finding a “definitive after him in a rank.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 35
37. (3) Oriya is language of Orissa likewise dogri is language
46. (3) 8 : 28 :: (?) : 65
of Jammu.
38. (3) Walk, run and crawl are various form of walking. Hence, 2 3 2 3
option (3) is ruled out. 3 –1 3 +1 4 –1 4 +1
39. (4) Except (4) all other are measurement unit like time is to
be measure is seconds. 15
40. (2) Except (2) all are perfect square numbers.
41. (3) No. of alphabets in REASON = 6 – 1 = 5 47. (2) 35 : 91 :: 189 : 341
No. of alphabets in BELIEVED = 8 – 1 = 7
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
GOVERNMENT = 10 – 1 = 9. 2 +3 3 +4 4 +5 5 +6
42. (4) Mother Husband Sister (Aunt)
48. (2, 4) 7 13 19 29
: :: :
11 17 23 31
Lady Man All are prime numbers.
Lady is sister to man. (OR)
Difference between numerator and denominator is 4.
43. (2) 22 2 2 92 9 72 82 8 56
29
32 3 6 12 1 0 72 7 42 Therefore, is also correct.
33
42 4 12 52 5 20 62 6 30 Hence, this question has two solutions.
49. (4) In every ordinary year there is one odd day and in leap
44. (1) In the first column, year there is two odd days.
91 + 84 + 25 = 200 Therefore, from 30th June 2003 to 30th June 2005, we
In the second column, get three odd days. Hence, Monday + 3 odd days =
64 + 76 + 60 = 200 Thursday.
Similarly, 11
73 + 61 + ? = 200 50. (3) Angle between hands of clock = 30H M
2
? = 200 – 73 – 61 = 66
where H Hour hand, M Minute hand
45. (4) The opposite pairs are – (2, 4), (1, 6) and (3, 5)
Therefore, option (4) is correct choice. 11
30 6 30 15
2

ANSWER KEY
1 (1) 6 (1) 11 (1) 16 (2) 21 (2) 26 (3) 31 (3) 36 (3) 41 (2) 46 (3)
2 (3) 7 (3) 12 (2) 17 (3) 22 (1) 27 (4) 32 (1) 37 (2) 42 (3) 47 (2)
3 (2) 8 (2) 13 (4) 18 (2) 23 (4) 28 (1) 33 (3) 38 (2) 43 (2) 48 (3)
4 (2) 9 (3) 14 (2) 19 (4) 24 (4) 29 (1) 34 (1) 39 (3) 44 (3) 49 (1)
5 (3) 10 (4) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25 (3) 30 (3) 35 (3) 40 (2) 45 (1) 50 (1)

1. (1) We can understand that the content of the passage not the only means of travel. Way is a good definition
discusses the history of the Iditarod Trail and the race for mode or means in this context, so (B) is correct.
that memorializes it. This means the author's primary 4. (2) Founder of the initial Iditarod race was a "historian"
purpose is to recount this history. who wanted to "raise awareness about…Alaskan
2. (3) In para 2, the author identifies the factors that history." Another way to say this is that Dorothy G.
contributed to the disuse of the Iditarod Trail. The Page was an advocate for Alaskan history. Therefore
author does not mention highway routes to ghost (2) is correct.
towns, so (3) is correct. 5. (3) To describe Page as "self-made" implies that she did not
3. (2) Previously the only means of travel in the winter was hold formal credentials as a historian, but rather had
by dog sled, but once airplanes were introduced, dog pursued the study of Alaska's history out of her own
sleds were not the standard mode of transportation, or interest. Therefore (3) is correct. The passage does not
EBD_7396
contain information to support choice (1) . Therefore it 23. (4) All crises (plural of crisis) are “fearful” and “damaging”.
is incorrect. So (2) and (3) do not add anything to the sentence. (1)
6. (1) This is a fact about the history of the Iditarod Trail. and (4) does not make any sense.
Since paragraph 1 is devoted to the history of the trail, 24. (4) Deliver is used in the following senses. If you deliver
and particularly its historical uses, this fact would fit in something somewhere, you take it there. For example: The
well there. Also, paragraph 1 discusses the early 1920's, postman delivers letters at our homes. When you deliver
whereas para 2 discusses the late 1920's and beyond. what you have promised to do or make, you do it or make
This means that a fact about the 1925 medicine run best it. For example: The manager promised to get ads but
fits in para 1 chronologically as well. Therefore (1) is failed to deliver. If you deliver A into B’s care, you give B
correct. responsibility for A. For example: 11cr mother delivered
7. (3) The words "and so" tell us that taking the race all the her to me before she (her mother) died. If you give a lecture
way to Nome was a result of the U.S. Army reopening or speech in public, you deliver it. [The given question
the trail. Because the U.S. Army reopened the trail, we has this usage.] When you deliver a baby, you help the
can infer that the trail was cleared all the way to Nome, woman who is giving birth to the baby. If A delivers a
and therefore making the race go all the way to Nome blow to B, A hits B. If someone delivers you from
something, he rescues or saves you from it.
was a possibility for the first time. This means (3) is
correct. 25. (3) If a language is spoken by many people or throughout
a large area, we say that it is widely spoken.
8. (2) Freedom has assuredly given us a new status and new
27. (4) The word “ransom” gives us the clue. A ransom is the
opportunities.
money (` 8, 000) that has to be paid to the kidnapper
9. (3) We should so discipline ourselves as to be able to (here, “servant”) so that he will set free the person
discharge our new responsibilities satisfactorily. kidnapped (here, the “five-year-old boy”).
10. (4) Work, increasing work should be our watchword. 28. (1) If something (here, the driver’s licence) is impounded
by the police, customs officers or other officials, they
11. (1) The greatest crime in India today is idleness. officially take possession of it because a law or rule
12. (2) Honest work is the fundamental law of progress. has been broken (here, “rash driving”). Impounded
thus means seized in a specific context.
20. (4) If you are shaken by an unpleasant experience, it makes
you feel shocked and upset. “Badly shaken” thus 29. (1) When people (here ‘audience’) applaud they clap their
hands in order to show approval, for example when
means much shocked”. But petrified itself means “very
they have enjoyed a drama or concert.
frightened.” So it does not admit an intensifying adverb
48. (3) The word ‘remedial’ means aimed at solving a problem
badly.
which is similar in meaning to ‘corrective’.
21. (2) (1), (2) and (4) are close choices. Distraction happens 49. (1) The word ‘trivial’ means not worth considering,
to your thoughts. When we are talking of ‘path’, it is insignificant etc., which is similar in meaning to
either deviation or diversion. While diversion is moving ‘unimportant’.
away from the main course (road), deviation is moving 50. (1) The word ‘Incr edible’ means beyond belief,
away from the normal (here “chosen”) path. unbelievable, unimaginable etc. which is similar in
22. (1) (2), (3) and (4) are the pre-action phase. One fails or meaning to ‘hard to believe’.
succeeds only when one does a work. That is, when
one tries. Hence, ‘attempt’ is the right answer.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 37

ANS WER KEY
1 (4) 11 (2) 21 (3) 31 (1) 41 (2) 51 (2) 61 (2) 71 (4) 81 (3) 91 (2)
2 (2) 12 (2) 22 (3) 32 (3) 42 (3) 52 (4) 62 (3) 72 (3) 82 (2) 92 (1)
3 (3) 13 (3) 23 (3) 33 (3) 43 (1) 53 (3) 63 (1) 73 (2) 83 (3) 93 (3)
4 (3) 14 (4) 24 (3) 34 (3) 44 (2) 54 (3) 64 (3) 74 (1) 84 (1) 94 (1)
5 (1) 15 (2) 25 (2) 35 (2) 45 (4) 55 (2) 65 (2) 75 (4) 85 (3) 95 (2)
6 (3) 16 (2) 26 (3) 36 (2) 46 (2) 56 (2) 66 (4) 76 (1) 86 (4) 96 (2)
7 (4) 17 (2) 27 (4) 37 (3) 47 (2) 57 (2) 67 (2) 77 (1) 87 (2) 97 (2)
8 (2) 18 (3) 28 (4) 38 (1) 48 (3) 58 (4) 68 (1) 78 (2) 88 (4) 98 (2)
9 (3) 19 (2) 29 (4) 39 (2) 49 (1) 59 (2) 69 (1) 79 (3) 89 (2) 99 (3)
10 (3) 20 (1) 30 (1) 40 (1) 50 (2) 60 (1) 70 (4) 80 (2) 90 (2) 100 (1)

1. (4) Removal, decrease or deterioration of the forest cover 9. (3) W1 = initial weight of raisins, 40 g
of an area is called deforestation. It is caused by W2 = final weight of wet raisins, 45 g
excessive felling of trees, overgrazing, fragmentation
and clearing of forests for agriculture, mining, roads, W2 W1
× 100
rails, habitation and industry. It causes soil erosion, W1
desertification, floods, destruction of wildlife and
12. (2) Aerobic respiration is the stepwise complete oxidative
climate changes.
breakdown of respiratory substrate into CO2 and H2O
2. (2) Sleeping sickness is an infectious disease caused by with the help of O2 that acts as terminal oxidant. In
protozoan Trypanosoma. Jaundice is caused by anaerobic respiration, stepwise breakdown of
hepatitis virus affects liver which is the most important respiratory substrate without employing oxygen as
organ in the body and its inflammation affects digestion oxidant so that at least one end product is organic.
adversely. Vaccination is the most common method of
14. (4) The pathway taken by a stimulus to travel from receptor
preventing infection of microorganisms, especially
organ to effector organ is known as reflex arc. In reflex
bacteria and viruses, firstly developed by Dr. Edward
action, the same stimulus always produces the same
Jenner in 1796 AD.
response.
3. (3) Vaccines are preparations containing heat killed or
15. (2) Elements can not be further broken down into simpler
chemically weekend pathogens or their surface coatings constituents.
which function as antigens. Prolonged hyperglycemia
16. (2) Student (B) made the correct recording of observations.
(increased blood sugar) leads to a complex disorder
The temperature of water is expected to decrease
called diabetes mellitus which is associated with loss
gradually. Actually, molecules of water undergoing
of glucose through urine and formation of harmful
evaporation take up energy from the rest of water
compounds known as ketone bodies.
molecules in the container. As a result, the temperature
5. (1) Angiosperm is made from two Greek words: angio is expected to decrease.
means covered and sperma means seed. The seeds
18. (3) Periods have elements with consecutive numbers.
develop inside an organ which is modified to become a
19. (2) This student (B) has made the correct observation.
fruit. These are also called flowering plants.
Acetic acid is colourless with vinegar smell. It gives
6. (3) Biodegradable wastes should be separated and kept in brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide on reacting with
green colour bins for garbage collectors because these sodium hydrogen carbonate.
wastes can be recycled and converted into resource.
20. (1) Precipitate of copper sulphide is dark grey or black in
7. (4) Birds arose from reptiles had been found out with the colour. Silver cannot displace copper from CuSO4 as
discovery of fossil Archaeopteryx (fossil bird). Prior to silver is less reactive than copper.
Archaeopteryx, feathers had already evolved in
22. (3) If hydrogen leaks out of the container or the volume of
dromeasaurs for protecting them from cold. In
the container increases pressure of hydrogen gas
Archaeopteryx feathers attached to forelimbs were used
decreases in the container thus distance between
for gliding and possibly flying. molecules of hydrogen gas increases.
EBD_7396
24. (3) e/m ratio of canal rays depends upon the nature of gas 35. (2) To hear a distinct echo the time interval between the
taken in discharge tube. Cl– has 18 electrons and 17 original sound and the reflected one must be at least
protons. 0.15
25. (2) Since hard water contains soluble chloride and sulphate
salts of calcium and magnesium which forms insoluble 1
As, V = f = 2x
curdy precipitate. T
2C17 H35COONa CaCl2 (C17 H35 COO)2 Ca 2NaCl V T 300 0.1

x= = 15 m
soluble sodium calcium insoluble calcium 2 2
stearate (soap) chloride stearate
(in hard
water) 37. (3) Virtual image is always erect and real image is always
inverted. Concave lens always forms real and inverted
2C17 H35COONa MgSO4 (C17 H35 COO)2 Mg Na 2SO4 image of the object.
soluble Magnesium Insoluble magnesium
sodiumstearate sulphate stearate (soap)
(in hard w
water) 38. (1) Electric potential V =
q
26. (3) Cu + 2Ag+ Cu2+ + 2Ag
q
27. (4) Electropositive character increases on moving down a Electric current I =
t
group. Electronegativity increases in a period but
irregularly with exceptions. These exceptions are due w
Electric power P =
greater stability of exactly fully filled and half filled t
configurations. Resistance is the obstruction offers to the flows of
28. (4) According to Newton’s second law of motion. charge
39. (2) As the current around the face B of the loop is in
dp m (v u ) clockwise direction it develops south polarity.
F or, F = K = Kma.
dt t 42. (3) 101
As, force and mass are given, we can easily calculate 44. (2) + = 5, = b.
acceleration. ( – )2 = ( + )2 – 4 = (5)2 – 4b
(1)2 = 25 – 4b
30. (1) A floating object be in a stable equilibrium, if its centre 4b = 24
of buoyancy is vertically above its centre of gravity. b=6
31. (1) The gravitational force between two objects is 45. (4) [ 3(5) – 2(3) = 9 4, 9(5) – 6(3) = 27 12]
proportional to the product of their masses and 46. (2) 4 x 2 – 3x – 5 0
inversely proportional to the square of the distance
3 5
m1m2 x2 – x– 0
between them. Hence, F 4 4
d2
2
3 5 3
2 2 x– –
32. (3) Net force on body = 4 3 = 5N 8 4 64
F 5 1 2
a= m/s 2 3 3
m 10 2 4 x– –5– 0
8 16
1 2 1 47. (2) Let the common difference = d.
Kinetic energy = mv = m (at )2 = 125 J
2 2 x1 + x7 + x10 = – 6
33. (3) Work done by F1W1 = F1S = 5 × 10 = 50 J x1 + x1 + 6d + x1+ 9d = – 6 .........(i)
1 and x1 + 2d + x1+ 7d + x1+ 11d = – 11 .........(ii)
Work done by F2W2 = F2S cos 60° = 4 × 10 × = 20J
2 (i) becomes 3x1 + 15d = – 6
Work done by friction, W3 = – mg s (ii) becomes 3x1 + 20d = – 11
= – 0.2 × 2 × 10 = – 40 J (i) – (ii) gives – 5d = 5 d=–1
Change in K.E. = Net work done From (i), 3x1 + 15(– 1) = – 6 x1 = 3
= W1 + W2 – W3 = 30 J Now, x3 + x8 + x22 = x1 + 2d + x1+ 7d + x1 + 21d
= 3x1 + 30d = 3(3) + 30(– 1) = – 21.
EBD_7085
SOLUTIONS 39
48. (3) In figure, AB represents the stick and BC is its shadow.
Therefore AB = 12 m and BC = 8m. P
A
2ccmm
44c c
mm
12m
4 1 4 56
(56) (16) h h 14 cm.
C 8m B 3 3 16
R 40m Q
Hence, the height of the cone is 14 cm.
Again PQ is tower and QR is its shadow. Therefore
QR = 40m 1 2 1 22 7 7
51. (2) Area of quadrant = r = = 9.63 cm2
Now, ABC ~ PQR 4 4 7 2 2
PQ AB PQ 12 1 1
PQ 60 m Area of AOD = OA OD = 3.5 2 3.5 cm2
QR BC 40 8 2 2
49. (1) Since OM BC, a chord of the circle. Area of shaded portion = 9.63 – 3.5 = 6.13 cm2
it bisects BC. 52. (4) We know that
1 1 tan 60° = 3 ; cosec 45° = 2
BM = CM = (BC) = (8) = 4 cm.
2 2
sec 45° = 2 ; sin 30° = 1/2
Since OM AD, a chord of the circle.
it bisects AD. tan2 60° cosec2 45° + sec2 45° sin 30°
2 2 1 1
1 1 = ( 3) ( 2) ( 2)2 3 2 2 6 1 7
AM = MD = AD = (12) = 6 cm. 2 2
2 2
53. (3) Let the aeroplanes are at point A and D respectively.
Now, AB = AM – BM = 6 – 4 = 2 cm. Aeroplane A is flying 600m above the ground.
CD = MD – MC = 6 – 4 = 2 cm
AC = AM + MC = 6 + 4 = 10 cm
BD = BM + MD = 4 + 6 = 10 cm.
8
50. (2) External radius of the hollow sphere = = 4 cm,
2
4
Internal radius of the hollow sphere = = 2 cm So, AB = 600.
2
ACB = 60º, DCB = 45º
Volume of the metal = Volume of external sphere AB 600
From ABC, = tan 60º BC = = 200 3
– Volume of internal sphere BC 3
4 4 4 4 DB
= (4)3 (2)3 = 43 – 23 = [64 – 8] From DCB, = tan 45° DB = 200 3 .
3 3 3 3 BC
4 So, the distance AD = AB – BD = 600 – 200 3
= (56) cm3
3 = 200 (3 – 3 ) = 200 (3 – 1.7321) = 253.58m.
8 54. (3) Since (x, y) is the mid-point of the line joining (3, 4) and
Radius of the cone = cm = 4 cm (p, 7).
2
3 p 4 7
x , y
Let h be the height of the cone. 2 2
1 2x = 3 + p, 2y = 11
Then volume of the cone = (4)2 h cm3
3 Since 2x + 2y + 1 = 0
Since the metal of the spherical shell is to be converted 3 + p + 11 + 1 = 0 p = – 15
into the conical solid, 56. (2) [ P(A) 0]
EBD_7396
57. (2) Let p(x) = 2x3 + mx2 + 3x – 5 and q(x) = x3 + x2 – 4x + m. 3 36
By remainder theorem, the remainders are p(2) and q(2) h 3m
36
But p(2) = q(2) (given) So required height will be 3 m.
2(2)3 + m(2)2 + 3(2) – 5 = (2)3 + (2)2 – 4(2) + m 62. (3) April theses was three demands made by Lenin on his
16 + 4m + 6 – 5 = 8 + 4 – 8 + m return from exile to Russia in April 1917.
17 + 4m = 4 + m 65. (2) Gandhiji organised his first satyagraha movement in
Champaran in 1916 to inspire peasants to struggle
3m = –13
13 against the oppressive plantation system.
m=– 70. (4) All the abbreviations are correctly matched with their
3
58. (4) Since l || m, then Full forms.
3y = 2y + 25° [Alternate s] 72. (3) When the British forced opium on the Chinese, they
3y – 2y = 25° consisted which is known as the opium war.
y = 25° ... (1) [Vertically opposite s] 76. (1) HYVs is a generic name for a group of genetically
Also x + 15° = 2y + 25° cultivars of crops such as rice, maize and wheat that
x + 15° = 2(25°) + 25° [using (1)] have an increased growth rate, and increased percentage
x + 15° = 50° + 25° of usable plant parts or an increased resistance against
x = 75° – 15° crop diseases.
x = 60° 77. (1) Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual
59. (2) We have
heir and after Gandhiji’s martyrdom, he undertook
A = 50°and B = 60°
A + B + C = 180° padyatra to spread Gandhiji’s message covered almost
[Angle sum property of a ] the entire country and insisted on cooperative farming.
50° + 60° + C = 180° 79. (3) Tea cultivation is an example of plantation farming.
110° + C =180° 80. (2) Public sector is owned and operated by government
C = 180° – 110° agencies. Joint sectors are jointly run by the state and
C = 70°
individuals Private sectors are owned and operated by
Since A and C are the smallest and largest angles,
therefore sides BC and AB are the smallest and largest individuals or a group of individuals. Cooperative sector
sides of the triangle. industries are owned by the produces or suppliers of
60. (1) Internal diameter of the pipe = 2 cm raw materials.
81. (3) Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu and Kashmir and South India
1
So its radius = 1cm = m are important tourist places.
100 84. (1) In column A, are the names of different kinds of sectors
Water that flows out through the pipe in 6 ms–1 and in column B are the one of the type of activity
So volume of water that flows out through the pipe in performed under each sector.
2 87. (2) Subsistence farming is a system of farming where the
1 farmer grows crops and keeps livestock for the needs
1 sec = × 6 m3
100 of his or her family. There is no surplus for sale.
In 30 minutes, volume of water flow 88. (4) The United Nations is a global association of nations
1 of the world. Everyone of the 194 member countries of
= 6 30 60 m3 the UN has one vote in the UN general assembly.
100 100
95. (2) The constitution includes the Freedom to assemble
This must be equal to the volume of water that rises in
the cylindrical tank after 30 min and height up to which peacefully and without areas. The remaining three
it rises say h. rights are included in the Right to Freedom.
96. (2) The prime minister of India as addressed to in the
60
Radius of tank = 60 cm m constitution of India, is the chief advisor to the
100
2 President of India, head of the council of ministers and
60
volume h leader of the majority party in parliament.
100
2 97. (2) According to the report, the countries with per capita
60 1 income of ` 37000 or less are called Low income
h 6 30 60
100 100 100 countries
60 60 6 30 60 100. (1) The judicial machinery under COPRA is describes as
h 3 tier quasi-judicial machinery. 3 tiers are at District
100 100 100 100
level, State level and at National level.

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EBD_7396

Instructions for Candidates

Correct Way : Q.No. Alternatives

Wrong Way : Q.No. Alternatives

Time : 45 Minutes PART-A : Mental Ability Test Max. Marks : 50

(1) CSBTT (2) RQATB (3) CSBTA (4) CBATR

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

22. A man travelled a distance of 50 km on his first trip. On a

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29. Who is the eldest?

30. If the first three letters of the word COMPREHENSION are

4 3 5 2 (1) (2) (3) (4)

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? clock be in the same straight line but, not together?

where L stands for ‘7’.

Time : 45 Minutes PART-B : English Language Test Max. Marks : 50

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Name : ..................................School .............................. Test Code............Roll No. : ...................

PART-B : English Language Test

Instructions for Candidates

Correct Way : Q.No. Alternatives

Wrong Way : Q.No. Alternatives

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(a) A has uniform motion

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(1) (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

(1) pupil (2) iris (3) (A) s, (B) p, (C) r, (D) q

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Name : ..................................School .............................. Test Code............Roll No. : ...................

City : ................... Date : ................... Class : ..................

24. 57. 90.

Instructions for Candidates

Correct Way : Q.No. Alternatives

Wrong Way : Q.No. Alternatives

Time : 45 Minutes PART-A : Mental Ability Test Max. Marks : 50

DIRECTIONS (Qs.1 and 2) : Three of the four figures marked

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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11. Continue the given series :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

17. If AMBIKA is coded as then is coded

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DIRECTIONS (Q. 42): The following question accompanied by

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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44 and 45) : In each of the four numbers or

46. Vijay’s position is 14th from upwards in a class of 43

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Time : 45 Minutes PART-B : English Language Test Max. Marks : 50

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