*S1041406F1*

S1041406F1

S104/B

Module Examination 2014

EXPLORING SCIENCE

Tuesday, 3 June 2014 2:30 pm – 5:30 pm

Time allowed: 3 hours

This examination consists of THREE Parts (A, B and C), all of which
should be attempted. For each Part, the following table indicates the
type of question, the choice of question (if any), the recommended
allocation of your time and the proportion of marks awarded.

Part Nature of Choice of question Time Proportion

question allocation of marks / %
A Computer Answer ALL 1 hour 20 45
marked questions minutes
B Scientific Answer all sections of 20 minutes 15
skills the ONE question
C Long Answer TWO 1 hour 20 40
questions questions minutes

You are provided with a computer marked examination (CME) form for
Part A, graph paper and an answer book. Answer the Part B question
and each of your chosen two Part C questions in the answer book
together with graph paper where required. Additional answer books and
graph paper are available from the invigilator if required.
A list of standard equations and constants is provided with this
examination paper as a separate insert.

At the end of the examination

Check that you have completed Part 1 of the CME form and written your
personal identifier and examination number on each answer book used.
Failure to do so will mean that your work cannot be identified.
Attach the graph paper you use for Part B to the answer book you use
for Part B. Put all your used answer books together with your signed
desk record on top. Fasten them together in the top left hand corner with
the paper fastener provided. Attach the CME form, equations list and
this question paper to the back of the answer books with the flat paper
clip.

Copyright © 2014 The Open University

 Instructions for completing the CME form

(1) You will find one CME form provided with this paper. The invigilator has a
supply of spare forms if you should need any.
(2) You should use an HB pencil to make entries on the CME form. If you make
any smudges or other spurious marks on the form which you cannot cancel
out clearly, you should ask the invigilator for a new form, and transfer your
entries to it.
(3) If you do not wish to answer a question, pencil across the ‘don’t know’ cell
(‘?’).
(4) If you think that the question is unsound in any way, pencil across the
‘unsound’ cell (‘U’), in addition to pencilling across either an answer cell or
the ‘don’t know’ cell.
(5) For each question you must pencil across either a single answer cell or the
‘don’t know’ cell.
(6) We suggest that in the first instance, you answer by pencilling across the
facsimile CME rows reproduced opposite. Check your answers before
transferring them to your CME form.
(7) You should note that NO ADDITIONAL TIME will be allowed at the end of
the three-hour period for transferring your marks to the CME form. Time for
this is included in the 1 hour 20 minutes for Part A.
(8) On Part 1 of the CME form you must write in your personal identifier (NOT
the examination number) and the ‘assignment number’ for this examination
(S104 81). You should also pencil across the cells in the two blocks in Part 1
of the CME form corresponding to your personal identifier and assignment
number given above. We suggest that you check that Part 1 of the CME
form has been completed correctly before moving on to Part B of the
examination paper.
(9) Failure to follow the above instructions may mean that we shall not be able
to award you a mark for this Part of the examination.

Note
You may use a page at the back of any of your answer books for any rough work
required in Part A. Please note that this rough work will not be considered by the
examiners.

2 S104 June 2014

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 3
PART A Computer-marked questions
Attempt ALL of the questions in Part A.
Part A carries 45% of the total marks.
Questions 1–5 in this Part carry 1 mark each.
Questions 6–25 in this Part carry 2 marks each.
You are advised to spend about 1 hour and 20 minutes on Part A.
Pencil your answers on the CME form provided.
Each question requires ONE answer for which you should pencil across ONE cell
in the corresponding row on the CME form.
No marks will be given for questions where more than one of the answers has
been selected from the key.
There are no penalty marks for incorrect answers.

Question 1 Table 1 shows the rainfall as measured at a location in Durham, England (UK),
over a 6-month period in 2011.
Table 1 For use with Q1.
Year April May June July Aug Sept
Rainfall / mm 7.2 40.0 48.4 65.6 125.0 28.4

Which one of the following statements about the data is incorrect?

KEY for Q1
A The highest rainfall occurred in August.
B Over the six months, a total of 314.6 mm of rain fell.
C The mean monthly rainfall over the period is 56.2 mm.
D Approximately two fifths of the 6-month rainfall fell in August.
E The ratio of rainfall in August compared with September is approximately
4.4 : 1.

Question 2 Which one of the following statements related to experimental uncertainties is

incorrect?
KEY for Q2
A When multiplying numbers, the number of significant figures in the answer
should be the same as the number of significant figures in the less precise
value.
B Random uncertainty is characterised by repeat measurements being
scattered fairly randomly about a mean value.
C A set of repeated measurements tightly clustered around a mean value can
be described as precise.
D A set of repeated measurements tightly clustered around any mean value can
be described as both accurate and precise.
E A systematic error occurs if the measurement of a quantity is consistently
higher (or consistently lower) than the quantity’s true value.

4 S104 June 2014

Question 3 Table 2 shows the global emission of carbon dioxide due to the use of fossil fuels
at 25-year intervals. The values are expressed in terms of the mass of carbon
emitted into the atmosphere (in units of millions of tonnes of carbon).

Table 2 For use with Q3.

Year Mass of carbon/million tonnes of carbon

1850 54
1875 188
1900 534
1925 975
1950 1630
1975 4615
2000 6981

To two significant figures, by how much did carbon emissions rise between 1975
and 2000?
KEY for Q3
A 53%
B 51%
C 66%
D 68%
E 57%

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 5

Question 4 Table 3 shows the gaseous composition of a typical sample of the Earth’s
atmosphere at sea level in 2004 (main components only).

Table 3 For use with Q4.

Component Proportion of
Number of
total number of
molecules/m−3
molecules/%
nitrogen 2.0 × 1025 77.6
24
oxygen 5.4 × 10 20.9
23
argon 2.4 × 10 0.93
23
water vapour 1.3 × 10 0.5
21
carbon dioxide 9.7 × 10 3.8 × 10−2

Table 3 shows that the proportion of CO2 molecules in the air is 3.8 × 10−2 % of
the total number of molecules in the air.
Which one of A–E below correctly expresses this proportion in parts per million
(ppm)?
KEY for Q4
A 3800
B 38
C 97
D 380
E 970

Question 5 The equation for the volume of a cylinder of radius r and height h is given by:
V  πr 2 h
Which one of the following is the correct rearrangement of this equation to make
r the subject?
KEY for Q5

V2
A r=
πh
V
B r=
πh
V
C r
πh
D r = V 2 πh

E r = Vπh

6 S104 June 2014

Question 6 The apple that reputedly landed on Sir Isaac Newton’s head fell from a branch
2.5 m high. If Sir Isaac Newton’s head was 0.8 m from the ground when sitting
down, how fast was the apple moving when it hit him?
KEY for Q6
A 0.43 m s−1
B 2.4 m s−1
C 5.8 m s−1
D 33 m s−1
E 4.3 km s−1

Question 7 In the final stage of the proton–proton chain which powers stars such as our Sun,
two 23 He nuclei fuse together to produce two protons and which other product?

KEY for Q7
A one 23 He nucleus

B one 42 He nucleus

C two 11H nuclei

D two 42 He nuclei

E one 53 Be nucleus

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 7

Question 8 The energy level of a hydrogen atom is shown in Figure 1. Between which two
energy levels will the electron make a transition when it emits a photon of energy
0.47 eV?
E∞ = 0 eV
continuum
E7 = −0.28 eV
E6 = −0.38 eV
E5 = −0.54 eV
E4 = −0.85 eV
excited
E3 = −1.51 eV
states
E2 = −3.40 eV
ionisation energy

ground state E1 = −13.60 eV

Figure 1 For use with Q8.

Key for Q8
A 1 to 3
B 6 to 4
C 5 to 2
D 1 to 3
E 2 to 7

Question 9 Which one of the following combinations of quarks and antiquarks forms a
hadron?
KEY for Q9
A one quark and one antiquark
B three antiquarks and a quark
C two quarks and two antiquarks
D two quarks and an antiquark
E three quarks and an antiquark

8 S104 June 2014

Question 10 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
KEY for Q10
A Cl− has the electronic configuration of Argon.
B O2− has the electronic configuration of Helium.
C Mg2+ has the electronic configuration of Neon.
D Be2+ has the electronic configuration of Helium.
E F− has the electronic configuration of Neon.

Question 11 Which one of the following, to the nearest whole number, is the relative molecular
mass for paracetamol, which has a chemical formula of C8H9NO2?

KEY for Q11

A 141
B 157
C 151
D 146
E 153

Question 12 Which one of the following best describes the functional groups found in the
molecule in Figure 2? Note: For the purpose of this question, the benzene ring
should not be considered as a functional group.

O
C
H3C NH

CH2
Cl

Figure 2 For use with Q12.

KEY for Q12
A Haloalkane, carboxylic acid
B Haloalkane, amine, carboxylic acid
C Haloalkane, amide
D Amide, ester
E Haloalkane, amine, ester

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 9

Question 13 Which one of the following statements related to ionic compounds is incorrect?
KEY for Q13
A Ionic solids generally have high melting temperatures.
B An ionic crystal is highly ordered.
C In ionic bonding, electrons are shared between atoms.
D Ionic bonding occurs between an anion and a cation.
E Empirical formulae are used to describe ionic compounds.

Question 14 Table 4 shows the results of an experiment to investigate bacterial growth at

37 C and 4 C. In each case 0.1 µg of bacteria was added to a sterile container
of nutrient broth in a sterile laboratory environment to ensure there were no other
live microorganisms present. The mass of bacterial growth was monitored over
10 hours (h).

Table 4 For use with Q14.

Time/h 0 2 4 6 8 10
Mass of 37 °C 0.1 1 3 8 10 11
bacterial 4 °C 0.1 0.1 0.3 0.8 1.2 1.8
growth/µg

Which one of the following is an incorrect statement about this experiment?

KEY for Q14
A At 37 C the mass of bacterial growth increased over time.
B The growth rate is slower at 4 C than at 37 C due to enzymes being
denatured.
C At 37 C the amount of available nutrient would become a limiting factor over
time.
D Metabolic processes are slower in a colder environment.
E At 4 C the mass of bacterial growth increased over time.

10 S104 June 2014

Question 15 Figure 3 shows the structure of a biological molecule. Which one of the following
features of biological molecules is shown in the figure?
O
CH3 (CH2)13 CH2 C O CH2
O
CH3 (CH2)13 CH2 C O CH
O
CH3 (CH2)13 CH2 C O CH2

Figure 3 For use with Q15.

KEY for Q15
A Ester links between fatty acids and glycerol.
B Hydrogen bonds between adjacent polysaccharide strands.
C Glycosidic linkage between three monomers.
D Ionic bonds between adjacent monomers.
E Peptide bonds in a polypeptide.

Question 16 Which one of the following statements about photosynthesis is incorrect?

KEY for Q16
A Light energy is used to split water to release oxygen, protons and electrons.
B Electrons are passed along a sequence of carriers in the thylakoid membrane.
C The light reaction is dependent on products of the dark reaction.
D There is a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane.
E ATP and NADP.2H are products of the light reaction.

Question 17 Haemophilia is a human blood clotting disorder that is associated with an allele
found on the X chromosome. The defective allele Xh is recessive whereas the
allele that produces healthy clotting factors is dominant XH.
Which one of the following genotypes would not be a possible outcome in the
children of a man without haemophilia and a woman who is a carrier?
KEY for Q17
A XHXH
B XHXh
C XHY
D XhYH
E XhY

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 11

Question 18 Which one of the following grain size distribution diagrams corresponds to a
poorly-sorted sandstone?
KEY for Q18
90 90
A B
80 80

70 70

60 60
mass/%

mass/%
50 50

40 40

30 30

20 20

10 10

0 0
128 64 32 16 8 4 2 0.20 0.18 0.16 0.14 0.12 0.10 0.08 0.06
grain size/mm grain size/mm

90 90
C D
80 80

70 70

60 60
mass/%

mass/%

50 50

40 40

30 30

20 20

10 10

0 0
0.128 0.064 0.032 0.016 0.008 0.004 0.002 8 4 2 1 0.50 0.25 0.12
grain size/mm grain size/mm

90
E
80

70

60
mass/%

50

40

30

20

10

0
7.0 6.5 6.0 5.5 5.0 4.5 4.0
grain size/mm

12 S104 June 2014

Question 19 Which one of the following statements is an incorrect description of the point
labelled M on the pressure–temperature diagram shown below?

temperature/°C
0 200 400 600 800
0 0

5
2

10
high
LOW GRADE
pressure/ 108 Pa

geothermal
4 gradient

depth/km
15

20
6

typical 25
geothermal
8 gradient M
HIGH GRADE 30
low
geothermal
gradient
10 35
key
contact metamorphism
regional metamorphism

Figure 4 For use with Q19.

KEY for Q19
A Point M represents a rock which formed at high P and high T.
B It represents metamorphic conditions that are usually associated with regional
metamorphism.
C The P–T conditions associated with point M would give rise to a metamorphic
rock commonly known as gneiss.
D Metamorphic conditions associated with point M are more extensive around
sills and dykes.
E Rocks formed at point M are usually coarse-grained, and the minerals are
sometimes arranged in alternate dark and light bands.

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 13

Question 20 Granite is a coarse-grained rock containing higher proportions of felsic minerals
compared to mafic minerals. With the help of Figure 5, select one of the five
options listed below corresponding to the best estimate for mineral proportions
expected in a granite.

100
S mica
AL
proportion of minerals
pyroxene R
NE amphibole
75 MI
by volume/%

IC
M AF
50
olivine alkali
plagioclase FELS feldspar
feldspar IC MIN
25 ERA
LS
quartz
0
increasing Si, Na, K

increasing Mg, Fe, Ca

Figure 5 For use with Q20.

KEY for Q20
A Pyroxene (50 vol%), plagioclase feldspar (40 vol%) and olivine (10 vol%)
B Plagioclase feldspar (54 vol%), amphibole (21 vol%), mica (15 vol%), alkali
feldspar (6 vol%), quartz (2 vol%) and pyroxene (2 vol%)
C Plagioclase feldspar (52 vol%), pyroxene (23 vol%), amphibole (20 vol%) and
mica (5 vol%)
D Plagioclase feldspar (46 vol%), alkali feldspar (15 vol%), mica (15 vol%),
amphibole (12 vol%) and quartz (12 vol%)
E Pyroxene (45 vol%), plagioclase feldspar (40 vol%) and amphibole (15 vol%)

Question 21 A zircon isolated from a volcanic ash layer has a 207Pb/235U ratio of 3
corresponding to 2 half lives of 235U. Given the half-life of 235U is 7.040 × 108
years, estimate the age of the volcanic ash, in Ma.
KEY for Q21
A 352 Ma
B 1408 Ma
C 2112 Ma
D 1056 Ma
E 2816 Ma

14 S104 June 2014

Question 22 Which one of the following characteristics of living organisms would not have
been present in the last universal common ancestor?
KEY for Q22
A Living organisms are composed of one or more cells that is each surrounded
by a membrane.
B Living organisms can transform and use an external source of energy.
C Living organisms are composed of cells that have a cell wall (external to the
cell membrane).
D Living organisms are composed of cells that can grow and reproduce.
E Living organisms have a genetic code that can be replicated and that utilises
four nucleotides.

Question 23 Figure 6 shows the radial speed (the magnitude of the radial velocity) of a star, as
calculated from Doppler shifts over a period of time. The data indicate that there
might be a planet orbiting the star because the radial speed seems to be varying
periodically. What is the orbital period of the planet?
24.120

24.100

24.080
Vr /km s−1

24.060

24.040

24.020

24.000
0 40 80 120 160 200 240
time/days

Figure 6 For use with Q23.

KEY for Q23
A 50 days
B 100 days
C 150 days
D 200 days
E 240 days

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 15

Question 24 A planet is in orbit around a star that has a mass 1.2 times that of the Sun. It has
been established that, as measured from the centre of mass of the system, the
radius of the star’s orbit is 5.2 × 106 km, and the radius of the planet’s orbit is
6.1 × 108 km. Given that the mass of the Sun is 1.9891 × 1030 kg, calculate the
mass of the planet.
KEY for Q24
A 2.8 × 1032 kg
B 2.0 × 1028 kg
C 1.7 × 1028 kg
D 1.3 × 1015 kg
E 1.9 × 1015 kg

Question 25 Table 5 gives the mass (relative to the mass of the Earth, ME), orbital radii and
orientation of five extrasolar planets A–E orbiting similar stars in five different
systems at similar distances from the Earth. Which one of the planets is most
likely to be detected using the planetary transit technique?

Table 5 For use with Q25.

Planet Mass /ME Orbit radius /AU Orientation of

system
A 500 0.04 edge-on
B 500 4 face-on
C 0.5 10 edge-on
D 2 x 10−3 13 edge-on
E 10 12 face-on

KEY for Q25

A Planet A
B Planet B
C Planet C
D Planet D
E Planet E

16 S104 June 2014

PART B Scientific skills
There is ONE question in Part B and you should attempt all sections, (a)–(f).
Part B carries 15% of the total marks.
You are advised to spend about 20 minutes on Part B.
You must plot your graph on the graph paper provided.
Write your answer in the answer book provided.
Additional answer books are available from the invigilator if required.

Question 26 Often in science, one quantity is plotted against another to reveal an

approximately linear relationship. Table 6 gives the data for two quantities
(A and B) where this is the case.

Table 6 For use with Q26.

Quantity A/s Quantity B/cm

20 52
40 64
60 80
80 106
100 120
120 138

(a) Plot these data on a graph, plotting Quantity A on the x-axis. You should
label the axes of your graph and give your graph an appropriate title.
(4 marks)
(b) Draw a best-fit straight line through your plotted data (you should use a
ruler).
(1 mark)
(c) From your completed graph, determine the values for
(i) the gradient and
(ii) the intercept of your best-fit straight line.
Include the units for both and give your answers in scientific notation and to
two significant figures. Indicate on your graph how you have determined the
gradient and intercept values but give any calculations in the exam answer
book.
(5 marks)
(d) Give the equation for your straight line graph using the values for the
gradient and intercept you determined in (c).
(1 mark)

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 17

 (e) Rearrange this equation to make Quantity A the subject. Using the
rearranged equation, determine the value of Quantity A when
Quantity B = 92 cm. You should show all of your working, giving your
answer to two significant figures.
(3 marks)
(f) State the value of the gradient you determined in (c) in SI base units.
(1 mark)

18 S104 June 2014

PART C Long questions
Attempt TWO of the four questions in Part C.
Part C carries 40% of the total marks.
All questions in this Part carry equal marks.
You should use the distribution of marks within a question as an indicator of how
you are to apportion your time to each part of the question.
You are advised to spend about 1 hour and 20 minutes on Part C.

Question 27 (a) Describe the energy transfers and conversions that take place in the
following scenario. A child:
(i) winds up a clockwork car which, when released,
(ii) first drives across a table at a constant velocity and
(iii) then slows gradually to a stop.
(Guideline: up to 150 words.)
(8 marks)

(b) A light emitting diode (LED) has a power output of 60 mW. If a grain of rice
with a mass of 0.03 g were converted fully to energy, for how many years
would the energy released power the LED? You can assume there are
3.16 × 107 seconds in a year. Give your answer to two significant figures and
in scientific notation.
(6 marks)

(c) A laser radiates light at 630 nm. If this laser’s energy output is 100 mJ s−1
how many photons does it emit every second? Give your answer to two
significant figures and in scientific notation.
(6 marks)

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 19

Question 28 (a) At 227 °C iodine chloride gas (ICl) decomposes to form the products iodine
gas (I2) and chlorine gas (Cl2). This reaction reaches an equilibrium, for
which the equilibrium constant (K) is 1.00 × 10−3.
(i) Write a fully balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(ii) The reaction was carried out in a sealed vessel. At equilibrium the
concentration of the two reactant gases is 2.50 × 10−2 mol dm−3 for
each. Given that the equilibrium expression for this reaction is:

[I2 ] [Cl2 ]
K=
[ICl]2
What is the concentration of ICl in the vessel? Give your answer to the
appropriate number of significant figures.
(iii) What would be the effect of adding more ICl to the reaction in part (i)?
Explain your reasoning.
(9 marks)

(b) This question involves the chemistry of Compound 1, shown in Figure 7.

H H H O
H C C C C Compound 1
H H Cl O H

Figure 7 For use with Q28 (b).

(i) Sketch a copy of Compound 1 and highlight the chiral carbon with an
asterisk (*). Explain your selection. (Guideline: one or two sentences.)
(ii) In the presence of a suitable catalyst, Compound 1 will react with pure
hydrogen gas (H2). Draw the structure of the major product and name
its functional group.
(iii) Name the type of reaction that is described in (b)(ii).
(iv) The reaction in (b)(ii) will not proceed at 25 °C and 1 atmosphere
unless a catalyst is present. Explain the role of the catalyst in this
reaction. (Guideline: two or three sentences.)
(7 marks)

(c) At 25 °C sodium metal reacts with water via the following reaction to
produce aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

2Na (s) + 2H 2O (l)  2NaOH (aq) + H 2 (g)

(i) If 3.68 g of sodium is added to an excess of water and the reaction is

carried to completion, how many moles of hydrogen gas will be
produced? Give your answer in scientific notation.
(ii) Given that 1.00 mole of gas at 25 °C and one atmosphere occupies
24.5 dm3, what is the volume of hydrogen gas produced?
(4 marks)

20 S104 June 2014

Question 29 (a) A mutation that has been associated with an increased risk of a particular
type of cancer involves a change in the amino acid sequence of a protein
involved in DNA repair.
(i) Explain why a change in the amino acid sequence of a protein can alter
its function. (Guideline: four or five sentences.)
(ii) Explain why a mutation that involves the addition or deletion of a DNA
base can have a more severe effect on the resulting protein than one
that involves substitution of one base for another. (Guideline: three or
four sentences.)
(iii) In addition to errors brought about by mistakes in DNA replication, what
else can bring about mutations?
(10 marks)

(b) In a particular woodland ecosystem, of the 1.0 × 1010 kJ ha−1 y−1 of energy
entering the system from the Sun, only 1.9 × 102 kJ ha−1 y−1 ends up as
biomass in the highest carnivore, a secondary consumer.
(i) Express this biomass as a percentage of the incident solar energy.
(ii) Explain where most of the energy has gone and why there are
progressively fewer organisms as you move from herbivore level to
highest carnivore level within an ecosystem.
(5 marks)

(c) (i) Name and describe the two processes that lead to the recombination of
alleles during meiosis (Guideline: three or four sentences.)
(ii) What type of cell is produced as a result of meiosis?
(5 marks)

S104 June 2014 TURN OVER 21

Question 30 (a) Figure 8 is a simplified geological cross-section through the upper 30 m of
the Earth’s crust of a well-studied area. Brief descriptions of the rock units in
Figure 8 (designated by letters) are given in Table 7.

M J A
B

E
I

N S

10 m

1 km

Figure 8 For use with Question 30 (a).

Table 7 For use with Question 30 (a).

Rock Unit Description

Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
A Sandstone, devoid of fossils, and composed of poorly-sorted angular
grains
B Limestone containing well-preserved fossils of brachiopods and corals
C Mudstone containing fossil trilobites
D Sandstone composed of well-sorted, well-rounded and frosted grains of
red colour. The base of this bed is defined by a thin conglomerate
horizon containing fragments of granite
E Highly-deformed schist and gneisses
Igneous rocks
I 300 Ma old granite intrusive
J 150 Ma old dolerite dyke

(i) Using the principle of superposition, draw a stratigraphic column to

depict the sequence of rock types that would be observed by drilling a
borehole at location M, remembering to label the different strata.
(ii) Sedimentary rocks are useful indicators of the environments in which
they were deposited. Suggest the most likely environments for the
formation of sedimentary beds from A to D stating clearly the main
evidence for each environment. (Guideline: up to 100 words.)
(iii) Citing suitable geological evidence, provide a maximum and minimum
age estimate for the limestone bed B. (Guideline: two or three
sentences.)
(9 marks)

22 S104 June 2014

 (b) (i) Titan, a satellite of Saturn, has a mass of 1.345 × 1023 kg and a radius
of 2575 km. Calculate the density of Titan. You should give your
answer in SI base units and to four significant figures.
(ii) The Moon has a radius of 1750 km and a density of 3.57 × 103 kg m−3.
Comparing the Moon’s density with that of Titan calculated in (b)(i),
suggest which body contains a higher proportion of rocky material in its
interior. (Guideline: one sentence.)
(4 marks)
(c) Various processes can separate a magma into different fractions before
complete solidification. Figure 9 is an illustration of one such case in which a
cooling magma of certain composition (labelled ‘A’) produces andesitic
magma (labelled ‘B’) in the intermediate step before giving rise to rhyolitic
magma (labelled ‘C’). Based on your understanding of igneous processes
and with the help of Figure 9, answer the following:
(i) Give the two-word term that is used to describe the process shown in
Figure 9.
(ii) Name the magma type denoted by point ‘A’.
(iii) Describe how a magma of andesitic composition is produced from the
magma type at point ‘A’. (Guideline: up to 100 words.)
(iv) In which plate-margin setting are you most likely to find all magma
types ‘A’ to ‘C’?
(7 marks)

tion C
p osi
a com e, C
a
agm g, F
m gM
ng e in eas
in
r
cha dec
N a, K
Si,
ng
reasi
inc

A B

accumulated
crystals

accumulated
crystals

cooling

Figure 9 For use with Question 30 (c).

[END OF QUESTION PAPER]

S104 June 2014 23

S104 Exploring science

Standard equations and

constants
Note: You will be provided with this list of constants, mathematical formulae and
equations in the exam.
This list of constants, mathematical formulae and equations is included for
reference. It may be useful as an aid to your memory but please bear in mind that
many of the entries will not be needed in this examination.

Useful constants
magnitude of the acceleration due to g = 9.8 m s−2
gravity on Earth
Newton’s universal gravitational G = 6.7 × 10−11 N m2 kg−2
constant
Coulomb’s law, constant of ke = 9.0 × 109 N m2 C−2
proportionality
Avogadro constant = 6.02 × 1023 mol−1
Hubble constant = 70 km s−1 Mpc−1
Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10−34 J s
speed of light c = 3.0 × 108 m s-1
charge of proton +e = 1.6 × 10−19 C
charge of electron −e = −1.6 × 10−19 C
mass of proton = 1.7 × 10−27 kg
mass of neutron = 1.7 × 10−27 kg
mass of electron = 9.3 × 10−31 kg
astronomical unit AU = 1.5 × 1011 m

Mathematical formulae and useful equations

y = mx + c

4 3
volume of a sphere V = πr
3
area of a circle = πr 2
1
Ek = mv 2
2
continued overleaf

Copyright © 2013 The Open University WEB 03329 9

2.1
ΔEg = mgΔh

m
ρ=
V
F =
ma
q = mcΔT

q = Lv m
q = Lf m
ΔV = RI
P = IΔV
v = fλ
Δλ
z=
λ0
v = z×c
v = H0 × r

[H + (aq)] = 10−pH mol dm −3

⎛ [H + (aq)] ⎞
pH = −1og ⎜ −3 ⎟
⎝ mol dm ⎠
E = mc 2
separation distance
speed of separation =
elapsed time

rstar m
= planet
rplanet mstar
rise
gradient =
run

−13.60

En = Z 2 × eV
n2
Eph = hf

L
F=
4πr 2

Q1Q2

Fe = − ke
r
2
m1m2

Fg = G
r2
mass of substance
number of moles of a substance =
molar mass of substance
GPP = NPP + R

2
Periodic Table of the Elements

1.01
23.0

6.94
85.5

39.1
223

133

Na
Rb
Fr

Cs

19
87

55

11
37

Li

H
K

1
francium caesium rubidium potassium sodium lithium hydrogen

87.6

24.3
40.1

9.01
137
226

Mg
Ra

Ba

Be
Ca
Sr
88

56

38

12
20

4
227

139
Ac

La
89

57
radium barium strontium calcium magnesium beryllium
actinium lanthanum

88.9

45.0
Ce
232

140

262

103

175
Th

Sc
Lu
Lr
90

58

71

39

21
Y
thorium cerium lawrencium lutetium yttrium scandium

91.2

47.9
231

141
Pa

104

178
Pr

Hf
91

59

Zr
72

40

22
Ti
protactinium praseodymium hafnium zirconium titanium

92.9

50.9
Nd

Nb
238

144

105

181
Ta
92

60

73

41

23
U

V
uranium neodymium tantalum niobium vanadium
Pm

52.0
Np
237

145

95.9
106

184

Mo

Cr
W
93

61

74

24
42
neptunium promethium tungsten molybdenum chromium
Sm
244

150

98.9

54.9
Mn
Pu

Re
107

186
94

62

Tc
75

43

25
plutonium samarium rhenium technetium manganese

55.8
Am

152

108

190

101
Os

Ru
243

Eu

Fe
95

63

76

44

26
americium europium osmium ruthenium iron
Cm

58.9
Gd

Rh

Co
247

157

109

192

103
96

64

77

45

27
Ir

curium gadolinium iridium rhodium cobalt

58.7
195

106
Pd
159
247

Tb
Bk

Pt
78

46
65

Ni
97

28

berkelium terbium platinum palladium nickel

63.5
197

108
Au

Ag
251

163
Dy

Cu
Cf

79

47
98

66

29

californium dysprosium gold silver copper

65.4
254

165
Ho

Cd
112
Es

Zn
Hg
201
99

67

30
48
80

einsteinium holmium mercury cadmium zinc

10.8
69.7

27.0
Fm

204

Ga
167

115
257

100

Er

81

49

Al
68

Tl

In

31

13

B
5

fermium erbium thallium indium gallium aluminium boron

12.0
Tm
Md

72.6

28.1
169

207

119
258

101

Ge
Pb

Sn
82

50

Si
69

32

14

C
6

mendelevium thulium lead tin germanium silicon carbon

14.0
74.9

31.0
173

122
No

209
Yb

Sb
259

102

As
70

51
Bi
83

33

15

N
P

nobelium ytterbium bismuth antimony arsenic phosphorus nitrogen

79.0

16.0
32.1
128
209
Po

Se
Te
84

52

34

16

O
S

polonium tellurium selenium sulfur oxygen

19.0
79.9

35.5
127
210

53

Br
At

Cl
85

35

17

F
I

astatine iodine bromine chlorine fluorine

4.00
83.8

39.9

20.2
222

131
Rn

He
Xe

Ne
Kr

Ar
86

54

36

18

10

radon xenon krypton argon neon helium

[From Book 4, Figure 5.3]