1

Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions on Cloning Vectors

1. Any DNA molecule that has the ability to replicate in an appropriate host cell, to
which the desired gene are integrated for cloning, is called as
a) Plasmid
b) linker
c) vector
d) adapter

2. Which of the following statement is true

a) a vector should have an origin of replication
b) a vector should have selectable markers
c) a vector should have unique restriction sites
d) all of these

3. Expression vectors differ from a cloning vector in having

a) an origin of replication
b) suitable marker genes
c) unique restriction sites
d) control elements

4. Extra chromosomal, double stranded, circular DNA molecule present in bacteria

which is widely used as vector is called
a) phagemid
b) cosmid
c) plasmid
d) bacterial vectors

5. The first engineered plasmid vector is

a) pBR 322
b) pUC vectors
c) pSC101
d) pUC 19

6. The most popular and widely used engineered plasmid vector is

2

pBR 322
a) pBR 322
b) pUC vectors
c) pSC101
d) pUC 19

7. In pBR 322, pBR stands for

a) plasmid bacterial recombination
b) plasmid bacterial replication
c) plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez
d) plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez

8. Phage M13 vectors are widely used for

a) obtaining single stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing
b) obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing
c) obtaining fragments of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing
d) obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for electrophoresis

9. Cosmid is a plasmid with

a) a minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site
b) a minimum of 250 bp of M13 DNA that includes cos site
c) a minimum of 100 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site
d) a minimum of 250 bp of T4 phage DNA that includes cos site

10. Vectors designed to replicate in cells of two different species are called
a) phasmids
b) transfer vectors
c) shuttle vectors
d) phagemids

11. Autonomously replicating sequences (ARS) is a characteristic feature of

a) plasmid vectors
b) phage vectors
c) E.coli vectors
 3

d) yeast vectors

12. Which of the following are vectors for animals

a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors
b) CMV vectors and Gemini vectors
c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors
d) all of the above

13. The vectors commonly used for sequencing human genome

a) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)
b) plasmid
c) CMV vectors
d) M13 vectors

14. Ti plasmids that is used as a plant vector is obtained from

a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
b) Agrobacterium rhizhogenes
c) Agrobacterium radiobactor
d) Thermus aquaticus

15. The most common vectors for plants are

a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors
b) Cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV vectors) and Gemini vectors
c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors
d) T4 phage vectors

Answers:

1-c 2-d 3-d 4-c 5-c

6-a 7-c 8-a 9-a 10-c
11-d 12-a 13-a 14-a 15-b
4

Multiple Choice Questions on Restriction enzymes

E coR1: Restriction Endonuclease

1. Which of the following is the most important discovery that leads to the
development of rDNA (recombinant DNA) technology
a) discovery of double helix model by Watson and crick
b) Discovery of DNA as genetic material
c) discovery of restriction enzymes
d) all of these

2. Who discovered restriction enzymes

a) Watson and Crick
b) Jacob and Monad
c) Nathan, Arber and Smith
d) Boyer and Cohen

3. Restriction enzymes are enzymes

a) capable of cutting DNA molecule
b) capable of adding nucleotides to the 3’OH end
c) capable of restricting protein synthesise
d) capable of joining DNA molecules

4. Restriction enzymes capable of making internal cuts in a DNA molecule is called

a) restriction exonuclease
b) restriction endonuclesae
c) both a and b
d) S1 nuclease
5

5. Restriction enzymes are also called

a) molecular knives
b) molecular scissors
c) molecular scalpels
d) all of these

6. The sequence recognised by the restriction enzyme to cut the DNA is called
a) recognition site
b) restriction site
c) both a and b
d) cleavage sites

7.Which of the following are true regarding restriction enzyme

a) restriction enzyme are used to cut DNA molecule
b) restriction enzyme are used to construct restriction maps
c) restriction enzyme are used in RFLP
d) all of these

8. The type of restriction enzymes used in rDNA technology is

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) all of these

9. Which of the following statements are true regarding restriction enzymes

a) Type I and II enzymes cuts far away from the restriction sites
b) Type II cuts DNA within restriction sites
c) Eco R1 is a Type II restriction enzyme
d) all of these

10. Restriction sites of type II enzymes

6

a) generally are palindromic sequences

b) consists of 4-6 bp
c) mostly are palindromes with rotational symmetry
d) all of these

11.Single stranded unpaired extensions formed by restriction enzyme upon

cleavage is called as
a) blunt ends
b) flush ends
c) sticky ends
d) none of these

12. Which of the following ions are required for the activity of Type II restriction
enzymes
a) Ca2+
b) Mg2+
c) Cl2+
d) Mn2+

13. Restriction enzymes

a) are present in bacteria and are involved in host restriction system
b) cleave viral DNA inside bacterium
c) are enzymes involved in defence against bacteriophages
d) all of these

14. Nathen, Arber and Smith were awarded with Nobel prize for physiology and
medicine in the year
a) 1970
b) 1974
c) 1978
d) 1980
7

15. The first Type II enzyme isolated was

a) Eco R1
b) Hind III
c) Bam HI
d) Sal I

Learn more:
 Multiple Choice Questions on PCR
 Multiple Choice Questions on Recombinant DNATechnology
 Multiple Choice Questions on Enzymes in Genetic Engineering
Answers
1. c) discovery of restriction enzymes
2. c) Nathan, Arber and Smith
3. a) capable of cutting DNA molecule
4. b) restriction endonuclesae
5. d) all of these
6. c) both a and b
7. d) all of these
8. b) Type II
9. d) all of these
10.d) all of these
11.c) sticky ends
12.b) Mg2+
13. d) all of these
14. c) 1978
15. b) Hind III
8

MCQ on PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

1. The PCR technique was developed by

a) Kary Mullis
b) Kohler
c) Milstein
d) Altman

2. PCR is a
a) DNA degradation technique
b) DNA amplification technique
c) DNA sequencing technique
d) all of these

3. Which of the following statements are true regarding PCR

a) billions of copies of desired DNA can be synthesized from microgram quantities of DNA
b) Automated PCR machines are called thermal cyclers
c) A thermostable DNA polymerase is required
d) all of these

4. Thermus aquaticus is the source of

a) Taq polymerase
b) Vent polymerase
c) both a and b
d) primase enzyme

5. All the following are thermostable polymerases except

a) Taq polymerase
b) Vent polymerase
9

c) DNA polymerase III

d) pfu polymerase

6. The basic requirements of PCR reaction include

a) DNA segment to be amplified

b) two oligonucleotide primers
c) a heat stable DNA polymerase
d) all of these

7. Pfu and Vent polymerase are more efficient than Taq polymerase because
a) of more efficient polymerase activity
b) of proof reading activity
c) both a and b
d) none of these

8. The first step of PCR is

a) denaturation
b) annealing
c) primer extension
d) none of these
10

Steps in PCR

9. Denaturation involves
a) heating between 90-980 C
b) heating between 40-600 C
c) heating between 720 C
d) none of these
11

10. The process of binding of primer to the denatured strand is called

a) denaturation
b) annealing
c) renaturation
d) none of these

11. Which of the following is true regarding PCR

a) denaturation involves heating at 90-980 C
b) annealing involves binding of primer between 40-600 C
c) Primer extension occurs at 720 C
d) all of these

12. Asymmetric PCR is

a) used to generate single stranded copies for DNA sequencing
b) used to generate double stranded copies for DNA sequencing
c) both a and b
d) none of these

13. PCR is used in

a) site specific recombination
b) site directed mutagenesis
c) both a and b
d) site specific translocation

14. Reverse transcriptase PCR uses

a) mRNA as a template to from cDNA
b) RNA as a template to from DNA
c) DNA as a template to from ssDNA
d) all of these

15. PCR is used to

a) amplify gene of interest
b) construct RAPD maps
c) detect the presence of transgene in an organism
d) all of these
Learn more:
 Multiple Choice Questions on DNA extraction
 Multiple Choice Questions on Restriction Enzymes
 Multiple Choice Questions on Molecular Biology Techniques
12

Answers
1.a) Kary Mullis
2. d) all of these
3. d) all of these
4. a) Taq polymerase
5. c) DNA polymerase III
6. d) all of these
7. b) of proof reading activity
8. a) denaturation
9. a) heating between 90-980 C
10. b) annealing
11. d) all of these
12. a) used to generate single stranded copies for DNA sequencing
13. b) site directed mutagenesis
14. a) mRNA as a template to from cDNA
15. d) all of these
13

Multiple Choice Questions on Molecular Markers

1. Specific biomolecules which show easily detectable differences among different strains of a
species or among different species is termed as
a) DNA fingerprinting
b) molecular markers
c) molecular scissors
d) RFLP
2. Molecular markers include
a) RFLP
b) RAPD
c) AFLP
d) all of these
3. Molecular markers are used to construct
a) chromosome maps
b) cytogenetic maps
c) physical maps
d) all of these
4. The variation in the restriction DNA fragment lengths between individuals of a
species is called

RFLP
a) restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
b) Random amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD)
c) Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP)
d) Simple Sequence repeats (SSR)
5. RFLP is used to
a) construct high resolution linkage maps
b) identify single gene diseases
14

c) construct QTL maps

d) all of these
6. RFLP involves
a) used to identify a specific protein
b) used to identify a specific DNA
c) used to identify a specific RNA
d) used to identify both DNA and RNA
7. Locations of quantitative genes on chromosomes are called
a) Qualitative trait loci
b) Quatitative trait loci
c) both a and b
d) none of these

8. RAPD is a
a) DNA sequencing based method
b) Restriction digestion based method
c) PCR based method
d) all of these
9. The set of DNAs generated by using random primers in a PCR reaction is called
a) RAPD
b) RFLP
c) AFLP
d) in situ hybridization
10. All the statements are true regarding RFLP and RAPD except
a) RAPD is a quick method compared to RFLP
b) RFLP is more reliable than RAPD
c) Species specific primers are required for RAPD
d) Radioactive probes are not required in RAPD
11. DNA of eukaryotic organisms has several repeating units of short sequences called
a) random repeats
b) tandem repeats
c) mini satellites
d) all of these
12. The variation in number of tandem repeats between two or more individuals is called
a) Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTRs)
b) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
c) Simple sequence repeats (SSRs)
d) Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP)
13. Simple sequence repeats are
15

a) 1-6 bp long sequences distributed along the chromosome

b) also called as micro satellites
c) individual specific in number and position
d) all of these
14. AFLP is a
a) PCR based method
b) method to detect polymorphism in the DNA throughout the genome
c) method that detects the presence or absence of a fragment
d) all of these
15. The variant fragment that distinguish one individual from another one is called
a) variant fragment
b) marking fragment
c) differing fragment
d) all of these
Answers
1. b) molecular markers
2. d) all of these
3. d) all of these
4. a) restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
5. d) all of these
6. c) used to identify a specific RNA
7. b) Quatitative trait loci
8. c) PCR based method
9. a) RAPD
10. c) Species specific primers are required for RAPD
11. b) tandem repeats
12. a) Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTRs)
13. d) all of these
14. d) all of these
15. b) marking fragment
 16

Biotechnology Multiple Choice on Gene Transfer Methods

1. The virus mediated gene transfer using genetically modified bacteriophages is

called
a) transfection
b) transduction
c) transformation
d) conjugation

2. The ability of cells to take up DNA fragments from surrounding is called

a) transfection
b) transduction
c) transformation
d) conjugation

3. Which of the following bacterium is considered as ‘natural genetic engineer’

a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
b) Agrobacterium radiobactor
c) Psueudomonas putida
d) Thermus aquaticus

4. The removal or replacement of tumor causing genes from Ti plasmid is termed

as
a) gene replacement
b) disarming
c) insertional inactivation
d) gene displacement

5. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a

Crown gall disease

a) Gram negative soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in dicots
b) Gram negative soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in monocots
c) Gram positive soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in dicots
d) Gram positive soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in dicots

6. Which of the following statements are true for agrobacterium mediated gene
transfer
17

a) Vir genes are essential for gene transfer

b) T-DNA borders are essential for gene transfer
c) both a and b
d) none of these

7. Ti plasmid vectors include

a) binary vectors and cointegrate vectors
b) cointegrate vectors and multiple vectors
c) multiple vectors and binary vectors
d) Ti plasmid based vector

8. Which of the following chemical enhances vir gene expression

a) cyanidin
b) glutennin
c) acetosyringone
d)dextran

9. Chemicals used for gene transfer methods include

a) poly ethylene glycol
b) CaCl2
c) dextran
d) all of the above

10. Introduction of DNA into cells by exposing to high voltage electric pulse is
a) electrofusion
b) elctrofision
c) elctrolysis
d) electroporation

11. The transformation method that uses tungsten or gold particle coated with
DNA accelerated at high velocity is called

a) acceleration method
b) high velocity method
c) particle gun delivery method
d) DNA particle delivery method
18

12. The method widely used for transforming invitro animal cell cultures that uses
lipid vescicles or liposomes
a) lipotransformation
b) liposome mediated transformation
c) lipofection
d) lipid mediated DNA transfer

13. DNA solution injected directly into the cell using micromanipulators is called
a) macroinjection
b) micromanipulator mediated DNA delivery
c) microfection
d) microinjection

14. Fibre mediated DNA delivery uses

a) silicon carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
b) aluminium carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
c) boron carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
d) lead carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne

15. The injection of DNA into developing inflorescence using a hypodermic

syringe is called
a) macroinjection
b) micromanipulator mediated DNA delivery
c) microfection
d) microinjection

Answers:
1-b 2-c 3-a 4-b 5-a
6-c 7-a 8-c 9-d 10-d
11-c 12-c 13-d 14-a 15-a
19

Multiple Choice Questions on DNA Extraction

1. For isolating DNA from plants, the most suitable method is

a) CTAB method
b) SDS-phenol extraction
c) SDS-proteinase K treatment
d) all of these

2. Which of the following reagent is commonly used

for bacterial cell wall lysis
a) CTAB
b) phenol extraction
c) lysozyme
d) penicillin

3. DNA extraction from plant tissues are difficult due to

a) presence of large amount of DNA
b )presence of large amount of RNA along with DNA
c) both a and b
d )presence of secondary metabolites and polysaccharides

4. The action of Cetyl Trimethyl Ammonium Bromide (CTAB) in DNA extraction from plant
tissue is

a) CTAB complex with nucleic acids and form precipitate

b) CTAB complex with proteins and form precipitate
c) CTAB complex with polysaccharides and form precipitate
d) CTAB complex with secondary metabolites and form precipitate

5. Which of the following reagents are used for precipitating DNA

a) isopropanol
b) ethanol
c) both a and b
d) none of these
20

6. The action of EDTA in EDTA-lysozyme treatment in bacterial DNA extraction is

a) removes Mg+ ions essential for maintenance of bacterial cell wall structure
b) inhibits degradation of DNA by cellular enzymes
c) removes outer lipopolusaccharide layer of Gram negative bacteria
d) all of these

7. Phenol used in DNA extraction

a) precipitates DNA and leave proteins in aqueous solution

b) precipitates RNA-protein complex and leave DNA in aqueous solution
c) precipitates cell debris and leave nucleic acids-protein complex in aqueous solution
d) precipitates proteins and leave nucleic acids in aqueous solution

8. In cell extracts with high protein content, before phenol treatment

a) chloroform is used to break polypeptides to small fragments
b) SDS is used to break polypeptides to small fragments
c) Proteases are used to break polypeptides to small fragments
d) all of these

9. Which of the following reagent is used for quantifying DNA

a) chloroform
b) CTAB
c) Diphenylamine
d) dansyl chloride

10. Which of the following is in the correct order regarding DNA extraction
a) RNAase treatment->Protease treatment->Cell lysis-> ethanol precipitation
b ) Cell lysis->phenol treatment->RNAase treatment-> ethanol precipitation
c) Cell lysis-> RNAase treatment ->protease treatment-> ethanol precipitation
d) Cell lysis-> phenol treatment ->protease treatment-> ethanol precipitation
Learn more:
 Multiple Choice Questions on Molecular Biology Techniques
 Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Purification Methods
 Multiple Choice Questions on Gram Staining
Answers
1. a) CTAB method
2. c) lysozyme
3. d ) presence of secondary metabolites and polysaccharides
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4. a) CTAB complex with nucleic acids and form precipitate

5. c) both a and b
6. d) all of these
7. d) precipitates proteins and leave nucleic acids in aqueous solution
8. c) Proteases are used to break polypeptides to small fragments
9. c) Diphenylamine
10. b ) Cell lysis->phenol treatment->RNAase treatment-> ethanol precipitation
22

Multiple Choice Questions on DNA Fingerprinting or DNA Profiling

1. DNA finger printing was developed by

a) Francis Crick
b) Khorana
c) Alec Jeffrey
d) James Watson

2. The technique to distinguish the individuals based on their DNA print patterns is called
a) DNA fingerprinting
b) DNA profiling
c) Molecular fingerprinting
d) All of these

3. DNA finger printing relies on

a) Difference in patterns of genes between individuals
b) Difference in order of genes between individuals
c) Difference in junk DNA patterns between individuals
d) All of these

4. Minisatellites are
a) 10-40 bp sized short sequences within the genes
b) Short coding repetitive regions on the eukaryotic genome
c) Short Non-coding repetitive sequences present throughout the chromosome
d) Are regions of chromosomes after secondary constriction

5. Each individual has a unique DNA fingerprint as individuals differ in

a) number of minisatellites on chromosome
b) location of minisatellites on chromosome
c) size of minisatellites on chromosome
d) all of these

6. The correct order of procedures in DNA profiling is

23

a) DNA isolation->PCR amplification->electrophoresis->southern blotting->autoradiography-

>analysis of DNA print pattern
b) DNA isolation-> restriction digestion-> PCR amplification ->electrophoresis->southern
blotting->autoradiography->analysis of DNA print pattern
c) DNA isolation-> PCR amplification->restriction digestion->electrophoresis->southern blotting-
>autoradiography->analysis of DNA print pattern
d) DNA isolation-> ->restriction digestion-> PCR amplification ->southern blotting->
electrophoresis -> autoradiography->analysis of DNA print pattern

7. DNA profiling is used

a) In Forensic studies and in cases of disputed parentage
b) In pedigree analysis and to study migration pattern
c) To confirm cell line identity
d) All of these

8. DNA profiling technique to demonstrate the similarity between different animal species
with reference to some specific protein coding DNA sequences is called
a) Zoo blot
b) Phylogenetic blot
c) Animal profiling
d) Animal blot

9. The DNA fingerprint pattern of a child is

a) Exactly similar to that of both of the parents
b) 100% similar to the father’s DNA print
c) 100% similar to the mother’s DNA print
d) 50% bands similar to father and rest similar to mother

10. DNA profiling technique to demonstrate the similarity between different plant species
24

with reference to some specific protein coding DNA sequences is called

a) Phyto blot
b) Garden blot
c) Plant profiling
d) All of these
Learn More:
 Multiple Choice Questions on Restriction Enzymes
 Multiple Choice Questions on DNA extraction
 Multiple Choice Questions on Molecular Biology Techniques
 Multiple Choice Quiz on DNA fingerprinting
Answers:
1.c) Alec Jeffrey
2.d) All of these
3.c) Difference in junk DNA patterns between individuals
4.c) Short Non-coding repetitive sequences present throughout the chromosome
5.d) all of these
6.b) DNA isolation-> restriction digestion-> PCR amplification ->electrophoresis->southern
blotting->autoradiography->analysis of DNA print pattern
7.d) All of these
8.a) Zoo blot
9.d) 50% bands similar to father and rest similar to mother
10.b) Garden blot
25

Multiple Choice Questions on Electrophoresis

1. The technique electrophoresis, for the separation of charged molecules was developed
by
a) Tswett
b) Svedberg
c) Tiselius
d) Sanger

2. In electrophoresis, DNA will migrate towards

a) cathode or positive electrode
b) anode or negative electrode
c) cathode or negative electrode
d) anode or positive electrode

3. The speed of migration of ions in an electric field depends on

a) magnitude of charge and mass of molecules
b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules
c) shape and size of the molecule
d) magnitude of charge, shape and mass of molecules

4. Which of the following statement is true regarding migration of bio molecules?

a) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the current
b) the rate of migration is inversely proportional to current
c) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of the medium
d) Low voltage is used for the separation of high molecular weight compounds

5. Electrophoresis cell or electrophoresis apparatus consists of

26

a) power pack and electrophoresis unit

b) Elctrophoresis unit and DNA separator
c) buffer chamber and Elctrophoresis unit
d) Gel, buffer chamber and power pack

6. The most common type of gel used for DNA separation is

a) Agar
b) Polyacrylamide
c) Agarose
d) All of the above

7. Which is the technique suited for the separation of large DNA fragments
a) AGE
b) PAGE
c) PFGE
d) SDS-PAGE

8. What is the role of SDS in SDS-PAGE?

a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge
b) imparting overall negative charge to the protein
27

c) imparting equal mass to all proteins

d) protein unfolding and imparting net positive charge

9. In SDS-PAGE, separation is based on

a) molecular weight
b) shape
c) charge
d) all of the above

10. The electrophoresis technique that used isoelectric focusing is

a) AGE
b) PFGE
c) 2D-PAGE
d) SDS-PAGE
*AGE: Agarose Gel Electrophoresis, PAGE: Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis, PFGE: Pulse
Field Gel Electrophoresis, SDS: sodium dodecyl sulphate
Learn more:
 MCQ on Restriction Enzymes
 MCQ on Molecular Biology Techniques
 MCQ on DNA fingerprinting
Answers:
1. c) Tiselius
2. d) anode or positive electrode
3. b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules
4. a) the rate of migration is directly proportional to current
5. a) power pack and electrophoresis unit
6. c) Agarose
7. c) PFGE
8. a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge
9. a) molecular weight
10. c) 2D-PAGE
28

Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Purification

MCQ on Protein Purification

1. Protein purification refers to the
a) Purification of proteins
b) Separation of proteins from other biomolecules
c) Separation of a particular protein from other contaminating proteins
d) all of these

2. Protein separation techniques are often based on the following properties except
a) solubility of the protein
b) viscosity of the protein
c) charge of protein
d) specific binding affinity of the protein

3. Primary steps in protein purification includes

a) Homogenization
b) Differential centrifugation
c) Solubilisation
d) all of these

4. Which of the following detergent is commonly used to release integral proteins from
its membranes?
a) urea
b) dimethyl sulphoxide
c) triton X 100
d) cyanogen bromide

5. Salting out process involves

a) precipitation of proteins using ammonium sulphate
b) precipitation of proteins using copper sulphate
c) precipitation of proteins using sodium chloride
d) none of these

6. Which of the following separation method is suited for a protein sample with large
differences in molecular mass
a) dialysis
b) salting out process
c) density gradient centrifugation
d) rate zonal centrifugation

7. In which of the following separation method where proteins are separated on the basis
of their net charge
a) Affinity chromatography
b) Ion exchange chromatography
29

c) dialysis
d) gel filtration chromatography

8. In gel filtration chromatography, separation of proteins are based on their

a) size and net charge

b) size and shape
c) size and specific affinity
d) shape and net charge

9. The use of insulin hormone to purify its receptor is an example of

a) Ion exchange chromatography
b) Affinity chromatography
c) Gel filtration chromatography
d) Ligand mediated chromatography

10. In anion exchange chromatography,

a) the column contains negatively charged beads where positively charged proteins bind
b) the column contains positively charged beads where negatively charged proteins bind
c) the column contains both positive and negatively charged beads where proteins bind
depending on their net charge
30

d) all of these
Learn more:
 Multiple Choice Questions on Proteins
 Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Structure
 GRE Questions on Proteins
 Biochemistry Practice Test on Amino acids and Proteins
 Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Purification Methods
Answers
1. c) Separation of a particular protein from other contaminating proteins
2. b) viscosity of the protein
3. d) all of these
4. c) triton X 100
5. a) precipitation of proteins using ammonium sulphate
6. d) rate zonal centrifugation
7. b) Ion exchange chromatography
8. b) size and shape
9. b) Affinity chromatography
10. b) the column contains positively charged beads where negatively charged proteins bind
31

Multiple Choice Questions on Blotting Techniques

1. Western blotting is the technique for the detection of

a) specific DNA in a sample
b) specific RNA in a sample
c) specific protein in a sample
d) specific glycolipid in a sample

2. Which of the following technique is used in DNA finger printing?

a) Western blotting
b) Southern blotting
c) Northern blotting
d) Eastern blotting
32

3. Arrange the following in correct order

1. Southern Blotting ----A)Alwine
2. Western blotting ----B)E.M.Southern
3. Northern Blotting----C) A. Jeffrey
4. DNA fingerprinting---- D) Towbin
a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-C

4. Labelled Antibodies are used to detect

a) detect the presence of a particular DNA molecule in Southern blotting
b) detect the presence of a particular RNA molecule in Southern blotting
c) detect the presence of a particular protein molecule in Southern blotting
d) detect the presence of a particular protein molecule in Western blotting

5. Which of the following technique is suitable for identifying mRNA molecule in a

sample
a) Western blotting
b) Southern blotting
c) Northern blotting
d) Eastern blotting

6. Which of the following technique doesn’t involve electrophoresis for the separation of
biomolecules

a) Dot blotting
b) Southern blotting
c) Northern blotting
d) Western blotting

7. Probe is a

a) protein for detecting a specific DNA molecule

33

b) short piece of labelled DNA which are complementary to the nucleic acid strand to be
detected
c) short piece of labelled DNA or RNA which are complementary to the nucleic acid strand to be
detected
d) none of these

8. Which of the following technique is most suitable for detecting the presence of a gene
product
a) Dot blotting
b) Southern blotting
c) plaque blotting
d) Western blotting

9. Aminobenzyloxymethyl filter paper is commonly used for transfer in

a) Western blotting
b) Southern blotting
c) Northern blotting
d) Dot blotting

10. Arrange the following in correct order

1. Southern Blotting ----A)RNA-DNA hybrid
2. Western blotting -----B)DNA-DNA hybrid
3. Northern Blotting-----C)Southern blotting
4. DNA fingerprinting---D)antigen antibody reaction
a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-C
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 Multiple Choice Question on Molecular Biology Techniques
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 Multiple Choice Question on DNA fingerprinting
Answers
1. c) specific protein in a sample
2. b) Southern blotting
3. b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
4. d) detect the presence of a particular protein molecule in Western blotting
5. c) Northern blotting
6. a) Dot blotting
7. c) short piece of labelled DNA or RNA which are complementary to the nucleic acid strand to
be detected
8. d) Western blotting
9. c) Northern blotting
10. b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
34

Multiple Choice Questions on Agricultural Biotechnology

1. Two bacteria most useful in genetic engineering are

a)Rhizobium and Azobacter
b)Nitrosomonas and Klebsilla
c)Escherichia and Agrobacterium
d)Rhizobium and Diplococcus

2. Transposon is known as
a)IS element
b)Jumping gene
c)conservative gene
d)co integrate gene

3. The uptake of plasmid DNA into the bacterial cell is facilitated by the presence of --- in
the medium
a) Calcium Chloride
b) Potassium chloride
c) Magnesium chloride
d) none of these

4. The travel of gene expression and gene activation can be measured using which of the
following?
a) Reporter gene
b) Marker gene
c)Gene sequences
d)Promoter element

5. The enzyme required to obtained wall free/ nacked protoplasts are

a) cellulase and proteinase
b) cellulase and pectinase
c) cellulase and amylase
d) amylase and pectinase

6. A synchronous culture is one in which the majority of cells proceed through

a) Lag phase
b) Log phase
c) exponential phase
d) each cell cycle phase (G1, S, G2 and M)

7. DNA molecules, identical except for different numbers of superhelical turns are called
a) Chain isomers
b) Topoisomers
c) Helical isomers
d) Geometrical isomers
35

8. Application of embryo culture is in

a) clonal propagation
b) Production of alkaloids
c) Production of soma clonal variation
d)overcoming hybridisation barrier

9. Haploid culture are got from

a) leaves
b) root tips
c) pollen grain
d) bud

10. Differentiation of shoot in plant tissue culture is controlled by

a)high auxin : cytokinin ratio
b) high cytokinin : auxin ratio
c) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
d) high gibberellin: auxin ratio
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36

 Free Online Practice Test on Agricultural Biotechnology

 Multiple Choice Questions on Agricultural Biotechnology
 MCQ on Agricultural Biotechnology
 Exam questions on Agricultural Biotechnology
Answers
1.c) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
2.b) Jumping gene
3.a) Calcium Chloride
4.b) Marker gene
5.b) cellulase and pectinase
6.d) each cell cycle phase (G1, S, G2 and M)
7.b) Topoisomers
8.d) overcoming hybridisation barrier
9.c) pollen grain
10.b) high cytokinin : auxin ratio
37

Multiple Choice Questions on Plant Biotechnology

1. Plant biotechnology involves

a) production of valuable products in plants
b) rapid clonal multiplication of desired genotypes
c) production of virus free plants
d) all of these

2. The most common solidifying agent used in micropropagation is

a) agar
b) dextran
c) Mannan
d) all of these

3. The culturing of cells in liquid agitated medium is called

a) liquid culture
b) micropropagation
c) Agar culture
d) suspension culture

4. Which of the following is best suited method for production of virus

free plants
a)embryo culture
b) meristem culture
c) ovule culture
d) anther culture

5. Batch cultures are type of suspension culture where

a) medium is continuously replaced
b) medium is loaded only at the beginning
c) no depletion of medium occurs
d) cellular wastes are continuously removed and replaced

6. Immobilized cell bioreactors are based on

a) cells cultures in solid medium
b) cells cultured in liquid medium
c) cells entrapped in gels
d) all of these
38

7. All are plant derived alkaloids except

a) menthol
b) nicotine
c) quinine
d) codeine

8. Elicitors are molecules that

a) induce cell divison
b) stimulate production secondary metabolites
c) stimulate hairy root formation that accumulate secondary metabolites
d) none of these

9. All are plant derived elicitors except

a) chitin
b) pectin
c) cellulose
d) pectic acid

10. The modification of exogenous compounds by plant cells is called

a) Biotransformation
b) bioconversion
c) both a and b
d) biophytomodification

11. Artificial seeds are

39

a) seeds produced in laboratory condition

b) seeds encapsulated in a a gel
c) somatic embryos encapsulated in a gel
d) zygotic embryos encapsulated in a gel

12. Hairy root cultures for secondary metabolite production are induced
by transforming plant cells withs
a) virus
b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
c) Bacillus thuringiensis
d) Agrobacterium rhizogenes

13. The variation in invitro culture is called as

a) invitro variation
b) mutation
c) somaclonal variation
d) all of these
40

14. Haploid plants are produced in large numbers by

a) anther culture
b) Ovary culture
c) both a and b
d) embryo culture

15. Cybrids are

a) nuclear hybrids
b) hybrid plants derived from cross pollination
c) cytoplasmic hybrids
d) cytological hybrids
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 Multiple Choice Questions on Biotechnology
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 Multiple Choice Questions on Plant Tissue Culture
Answers:
1. d) all of these
2. a)agar
3. d) suspension culture
4. b) meristem culture
5. b) medium is loaded only at the beginning
6. c) cells entrapped in gels
7. a) menthol
8. b) stimulate production secondary metabolites
9. a) chitin
10. c) both a and b
11. c) somatic embryos encapsulated in a gel
12. d) Agrobacterium rhizogenes
13. c) somaclonal variation
14. c) both a and b
15. c) cytoplasmic hybrids
41

Multiple Choice Questions on Animal Biotechnology

1. Animal biotechnology involves

a) production of valuable products in animals using rDNA technology
b) rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes
c) alteration of genes to make it more desirable
d) all of these

2. Animal cell cultures are used widely for the production of

a) insulin
b) somatostatin
c) mabs
d) thyroxine

3. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was

a) Hepatitis B vaccine
b) Influenza vaccine
c) Small pox vaccine
d) Polio vaccine

4. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell cultures

a) Interferon
b) mab
c) vaccines
d) all of these

5. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was
a) Primate kidney cell line
b) CHO cell line
c) Dog kidney cell line
d) mouse fibroblast cell line

6. Recombinant proteins are

a) proteins synthesized in animals
b) proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology
c) proteins synthesised in cells that are produced by protoplast fusion
d) proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines

7. Interferons are
a) anti bacterial proteins
b) anti-viral proteins
c) bacteriostatic proteins
d) all of these

8. The virus commonly used to infect cell cultures for the production of interferon is
42

a) Corona virus
b) Sendai virus
c) Polio virus
d) Small pox virus

9. Hybrid antibodies are

a) antibodies produced in cell cultures
b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced in cell cultures
c) antibodies produced in invivo
d) both a and b

10. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and
production of animals with a desirable genotype is
a) protoplast fusion and embryo transfer
b) hybrid selection and embryo transfer
c) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
d) all of these

11. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an animal is called
a) gene cloning
b) animal cloning
c) cell cloning
d) all of these

12. The first successfully cloned animal was

43

a) monkey
b) gibbon
c) sheep
d) rabbit

13. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was
popularly called as
a) invitro babies
b) test tube babies
c) invitro-invivo babies
d) all of these

Learn more:
 Multiple Choice Questions on Plant Biotechnology- Plant Tissue Culture
 Multiple choice questions on Biotechnology
 Multiple choice questions on Agricultural Biotechnology
Answers:
1. d) all of these
2. c) mabs
3. d) Polio vaccine
4. d) all of these
5. a) Primate kidney cell line
44

6. b) proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology

7.b) anti-viral proteins
8. b) Sendai virus
9. b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced in cell cultures
10. c) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
11.b) animal cloning
12. c) sheep
13. b) test tube babies

1. Following are produced by animal cells in culture and help to adhese to culture
dish except
a)Glycoprotein
b)Collagen
c) Phospholipase A
d) Hyaluronic acid

2. Transgenic animals used for gene farming or molecular farming called

a) biopests
b)bioreactors
c)biofarmers
d)none of these

3. Mouse is preferred mammal for studies on gene transfers due to

a)short oestrous cycle and gestation period
b) short generation time
c) convenient in vitro fertilization
d) all of these

4.Technique to produce cells capable of continuous secretion of a single type of

antibody to a predyined antigen is given by
a)Wheelock
b)Ross Marison
c)J R Birch
d)Kohler and Milstein

5. Which of the following mice are used for immunisation in the Hybridoma
technology
a) Swiss mice
b) Balb/c mass
c) Out bred mice
d) Indigenous mice

6. Salk and Sabin polio vaccines are

45

a) prepared from two different strains of polio virus

b) both are attenuated forms of vaccines
c) Salk vaccine is inactivated form and Sabin vaccine is attenuated form of vaccines
d) Salk vaccines is attenuated form and Sabin vaccine is inactivated form of vaccines

7. Reverse vaccinology indicates

a) from antigenic polysaccharide to vaccine development
b) from antigenic protein to vaccine development
c) from antibody to vaccine development
d) From genome sequence to vaccine development

8. First recorded attempts to maintain animal cells in culture can be attributed to

a) JR Birch
b) W scheirrer
c) Ross Harrison
d) Klausner

9. DNA insert placed within the thymine kinase gene of virus by a process of
recombination forms
a) BPV vectors
b) Vaccinia virus
c) Polyoma virus vector
d) Bacculo virus vector

10. Hybridoma is a cell formed by the fusion of

a) plasma cell with a plasma cell of another species

b) T cell with a myeloma cell
c) macrophage with a myeloma cell
d) plasma cell with a myeloma cell
Learn more:
 MCQ on Plant Biotechnology
46

 MCQ on Animal Biotechnology

Answers
1. c) Phospholipase A
2. b)bioreactors
3. d)all of these
4. d)Kohler and Milstein
5. b) Balb/c mass
6. c) Salk vaccine is inactivated form and Sabin vaccine is attenuated form of vaccines
7. b) from antigenic protein to vaccine development
8. c) Ross Harrison
9. b) Vaccinia virus
10. d)plasma cell with a myeloma cell
47

Multiple Choice Questions on Environmental Biotechnology

MCQ on Environmental Biotechnology

1. Environmental biotechnology involves
a) the use of microbes to clean up the environment
b) bioremediation
c) the study of benefits and hazards associated with GMMs
d) all of these

2. The use of living microorganism to degrade environmental pollutants

is called
a) microremediation
b) nanoremediation
c) bioremediation
d) all of these

3. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could

clean up oil spills
a) Bacillus subtilis
b) Pseudomonas putida
c) Pseudomonas denitrificans
d) Bacillus denitrificans

4. The process of extracting metals from ore bearing rocks is called

a)bioextraction
b) microbial extraction
c) biofiltration
d) bioleaching

5. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless

products by naturally occurring microbes is called
a) exsitu biremediation
b) Intrinsic bioremediation
c) extrinsic bioremediation
d) none of these

6. Ex situ bioremediation involves the

48

a) degradation of pollutants by microbes directly

b) removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial
degradation
c) degradation of pollutants by genetically engineered microbes
d) none of these

7. Which of the following microbe is widely used in the removal of

industrial wastes
a) Trichoderma sp
b) Aspergillus niger
c) Pseudomonas putida
d) all of these

8. Microorganisms remove metals by

a) adsorption and complexation
b) adsorption and precipitation
c) adsorption and volatilization
d) all of these

9. Chlorella sp are widely used in the removal of

a) organic wastes
b) hydrocarbons
c) heavy metals
d) all of these

10. A non directed physico chemical

interaction between heavy metal ions and
microbial surface is called
a) Biotransformation
b) bioconversion
c) biosorption
d) biomining

Learn more
 Multiple Choice Questions on Plant Biotechnology
 Multiple Choice Questions on Animal Biotechnology
 Multiple Choice Questions on Biotechnology
49

Answers
1. d) all of these
2. c) bioremediation
3. b) Pseudomonas putida
4. d) bioleaching
5. b) Intrinsic bioremediation
6. b) removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial
degradation
7. b) Aspergillus niger
8. d) all of these
9. c) heavy metals
10. c) biosorption
50

Multiple Choice Questions on Biotechnology and Its Applications

1. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait.

a) Insect resistance
b) High protein content
c) High vitamin A content
d) High lysine content

2. DNA fingerprinting refer to

a) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints
of individuals
b) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
c) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
d) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA

3. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlet by tissue culture method is

called
a) Plantlet culture
b) Micropropagation
c) Organ culture
d)Macropropagation

4. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the

production of
a) Insulin
b) Interferons
c) Edible proteins
d) Vaccines

5. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from pollen grains is due to
a) Organogenesis
b) Cellular totipotency
c) Double fertilization
d) Test tube culture

6. What is true for monoclonal antibodies?

51

a) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen
b) These obtained from many parents and for many antigens
c) These obtained from different parents and for one antigen
d) These obtained from one parent and for many antigens

7. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

a) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
b)Rhizobium and Diplococcus
c) Nitrosomonas and Kliebsiella
d) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

8. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in bioremediation of

oil spills is a species of
a) Trichoderma
b) Bacillus
c) Xanthomonas
d) Pseudomonas

9. Probiotics are
a) cancer inducing microbes
b) safe antibiotics
c) new kind of food allergens
d) live microbial food supplement

10. In order to obtain virus free plants through tissue culture the best method is
a) meristem culture
b) protoplast culture
c) anther culture
d) embryo rescue
Learn more:
 Multiple Choice Questions on Recombinant DNA technology
 Multiple Choice Questions on Restriction Enzymes
 Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions
Answers
1. c) High vitamin A content
2. b) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
3. b) Micropropagation
4. d) Vaccines
5. b) Cellular totipotency
6. c) These obtained from different parents and for one antigen
52

7. d) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

8. d) Pseudomonas
9. d) live microbial food supplement
10. a) meristem culture
53

MCQ on Biotechnology Principles and Processes

1. Examples for clones

a) Monozygotic identical twins
b) Vegetative reproducing organism
c) Sexually reproducing organisms
d) All except C

2. Transgenic organisms means

a) An organism with all desirable characters
b)an organism with a particular mutated gene
c) an organism with foreign gene by genetic engineering
d) An organism with a number of mutated characters.

3. Genetically modified DNA fragments are called

a) Recombinant DNA
b) S DNA
c) Mitochondrial DNA
d) None of these

4. Restriction endonuclease (RE) was discovered by

a) Meselson
b) Cohen
c) Arber
d) Watson

5. Molecular scissors are

a) Ligase
b) Helicase
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) DNA polymerase

6. Totipotency means
a) Ability of a cell to grow into a complete plant
b) Ability of an animal cell to recombine with plant cell
54

c) Ability of a cell to grow into a complete individual

d) Ability of an animal cell to fully developed animal cell

7. Artificial synthesis of DNA without a template was first done by

a) Khorana
b) Geier
c) Meselson
d) Watson

8. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was perfected by

a) Stahl
b) Beadle and Tatum
c) Franklin
d) Alec Jeffreys

9. Gene cloning means

a) Production of mutated genes
b) Production of wild genes
c) Production of dominant genes
d) production of large populations of desired DNA fragments

10. For DNA finger printing we need

a) cells from the tip of finger
b) cells from any part of the body
c) cells from the reproductive organs
d) any cells from the fingers

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 MCQ on Biotechnology and its applications
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Answers
1. d) All except C
2. c) an organism with foreign gene by genetic engineering
3. a) Recombinant DNA
4. c) Arber
5.c) Restriction endonuclease
55

6. c) Ability of a cell to grow into a complete individual

7. a) Khorana
8. d) Alec Jeffreys
9. d) production of large populations of desired DNA fragments
10. b) cells from any part of the body
56

Multiple Choice Questions on Biotechnology

1. The work on GFP, widely used as a reporter gene, won the Nobel Prize in:
a) Medicine/Physiology-2000
b) Chemistry-2008
c) Physics-2008
d) Biochemistry-2007

2. The method of plasmid isolation by alkaline lysis was published by

a) Mandel and Higa
b) Sharp and Lederberg
c) Temin and Baltimore
d) Birnboim and Doly

3. Alec Jeffery’s name is associated with

a) DNA sequencing
b) DNA Fingerprinting
c) RNA sequencing
d) Site directed mutagenesis

4. The name Kary Mullis is associated with

a) RFLP
b) PCR
c) Chain Termination reaction
d) RAPD

5. The group associated with first man made recombinant DNA molecules:
a) Daniel Nathans, Arber, Kary Mullis
b) Paul Berg, Annie Chang, Boyer, Stanley Cohen
c) Howard Temin, Sydney Brenner, Philip Sharp
d) Tim Hunt, Paul Nurse, Leyland Hartwell

6. The 2006, Nobel Prize for RNA interference phenomenon was won for the work carried
out on:
a) D melanogaster
b) A thalliana
c) C. elegans
d) S pombe
57

7. GFP protein was originally isolated from

a) Arabidopsis thaliana
b) Aequoria victoria
c) C elegans
d) Drosophila melanogaster

8. The first crop plant genome sequenced

a) Maize
b) Wheat
c) Rice
d) Barley

9. The first transgenic plant to be produced

a) Rice
b)Maize
c) Cotton
d) Tobacco

10.The year of launching of Human Genome Project and completion of rough draft of the
sequence was in
a) 1992-2000
b) 1990-2000
c) 1990-2001
d) 1991-2001
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 Multiple Choice Questions on DNA Profiling
 Multiple Choice Questions on Molecula Biology Techniques
Answers
1. b) Chemistry-2008
58

2. d) Birnboim and Doly

3. b) DNA Fingerprinting
4. b) PCR
5. b) Paul Berg, Annie Chang, Boyer, Stanley Cohen
6. c) C. elegans
7. b) Aequoria victoria
8. c) Rice
9. d) Tobacco
10. b) 1990-2000
59

Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

11) A protein is poorly expressed in a diseased tissue. To determine whether the defect
is at the level of transcription or translation, which of the following blotting techniques
would you use?
a) Southern and Western
b) Southern and Northern
c) Northern and Western
d) Western and South –Western

12) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

a) is used to transcribe specific genes
b) amplifies specific DNA sequences
c) uses a DNA polymerase that denatures at 55 0 C
d) is a method for sequencing DNA
60

13) Genome wise gene expression analysis is performed using

a) DNA microarrays
b) Northern analysis
c) Real time PCR
d) RT-PCR

14) Triton X-100 is a surfactant that forms micellar structure in aqueous solutions. One
can form reverse micelles of the surfactants easily by
a) Addition of salts
b) Making the pH acidic from alkaline
c) Addition of heavy metal ions
d) Addition of non polar solvents
61

15) SDS is used in polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis of a mixture of proteins for their
efficient separation on the gel. SDS, in this experiment, is used to
a) Solubilise the protein
b) Stabilize the protein
c) decrease the surface tension of buffer
d) have uniform charge density on the proteins

16) Exchange of Germplasm is carried out preferably through shoot tip culture because
they are
a) Virus free
b) Germplasm is present at shoot tip only
c) Shoot tip is disease free
d) All of these

17) Which of the following is the best method to determine bacteriophages concentration
in a sample?
a) Spectrophotometry
b) Plaque assay
c) Copy assay number
c) Light microscopy

18) Insertional inactivation of a gene helps in

a) Identification of recombinant clones
b) Identification of deletion mutants
c) Identification of suppression mutants
d)elimination of recombinant clones

19) Electroporation facilitates introduction of foreign DNA into the target organism by
a) Changing the porosity of the cell wall
b) Changing the electric potential of the cell wall
c) Lysis of the cell wall
d) Active transport across the cell wall

20) A method for transferring protein to a nitrocellulose filter on which protein can be
detected by a suitable probe is:
a) Southern blotting
b) Northern Blotting
c) Western blotting
d) None of these
62

Learn more:
 Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions (1-10)
 Biotechnology Topic wise questions
 Biotechnology Exam Questions
 Biology and Biotech videos
Answers
11. d) Western and South -Western
12. b) amplifies specific DNA sequences
13. a) DNA microarrays
14. d) Addition of non polar solvents
15. d) have uniform charge density on the proteins
16. a) Virus free
17. b) Plaque assay
18. a) Identification of recombinant clones
19. a) Changing the porosity of the cell wall
20. c) Western blotting