Flocculation Ass

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Flocculation and Coagulation Course $200.00

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Flocculation ASS 6/1/2018
Flocculation and Coagulation Answer Key
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You can also fill this assignment out electronically in Adobe Acrobat DC
Please Circle, Bold, Underline or X, one answer per question.
1. ABCDEF 16. A B C D E F 31. A B C D E F

10. A B C D E F 25. A B C D E F 40. A B C D E F
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349. A B C D E F 375. A B C D E F
350. A B C D E F 376. A B C D E F
This course contains general EPA’s SDWA federal rule requirements. Please be aware
that each state implements water / sampling procedures/safety/ environmental / building
regulations that may be more stringent than EPA’s regulations. Check with your state
environmental/health agency for more information. These rules change frequently and
are often difficult to interpret and follow. Be careful to not be in non-compliance and do
not follow this course for proper compliance.
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Please e-mail or fax this survey along with your final exam
FLOCCULATION AND COAGULATION CEU COURSE

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Flocculation and Coagulation CEU Training Course Assignment
The Assignment (Exam) is also available in Word on the Internet for your Convenience,
please visit www.ABCTLC.com and download the assignment and e- mail it back to TLC.
You will have 90 days from the start of this course to complete in order to receive your
Professional Development Hours (PDHs) or Continuing Education Unit (CEU). A score of 70
% is necessary to pass this course. We prefer if this exam is proctored. No intentional trick
questions. If you should need any assistance, please email all concerns and the completed
manual to info@tlch2o.com.
We would prefer that you utilize the enclosed answer sheet in the front, but if you are unable to
do so, type out your own answer key. Please include your name and address on your manual
and make copy for yourself. You can e-mail or fax your Answer Key along with the Registration
Form to TLC. (S) Means answer may be plural or singular. Multiple Choice Section,
One answer per question and please use the answer key.
Water Treatment Terms

National Drinking Water Regulations
Contaminant Selection
1. The law also includes a schedule for the EPA to complete regulations for disinfectants and
disinfection byproducts (D/DBPs) and Copper.
A. True B. False
Standard Setting
2. For each contaminant that the EPA has determined merits regulation, the EPA must set a
non-enforceable action levels at a level at which no known or anticipated recommended health
effects occur, and which allows an adequate margin of safety.
A. True B. False
State Primacy
3. The primary enforcement responsibility for public water systems lies with the states,
provided they adopt regulations as stringent as the national requirements, adopt authority for
administrative penalties, develop adequate procedures for enforcement, maintain records, and
create a plan for providing emergency water supplies.
A. True B. False
Nonprimacy State
4. Primacy states may establish alternative monitoring requirements to provide interim
monitoring relief for systems serving 10,000 or fewer persons for most contaminants, if a
contaminant is not detected in the first quarterly sample.
A. True B. False
Preliminary Treatment
5. Weeds, leaves, and trash, if not removed, these will cause problems to the treatment plant’s
pumps and equipment, the best way to protect the plant is?
A. Screening D. Change source
B. Settling E. Pump groundwater
C. Coagulation F. None of the Above
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6. Mechanical bar screens vary in size and use some type of raking mechanism that travels
horizontally down the bars to scrap the debris off.
A. True B. False
7. According to the text, wire mesh screens need maintenance and will require?
A. Manual cleaning D. Replacement
B. Automatic cleaning E. A and B
C. No cleaning F. None of the Above
Pre-Sedimentation
8. Scrapers on the bottom move the settled sludge to one or more hoppers at the influent end
of the tank, it may have a _____________or traveling bridge used to collect the sludge.
A. Screw conveyor D. Manual skimmers
B. Conveyor belts E. Turnstile
C. Dissolved air floatation F. None of the Above
9. Which of the following treatment terms is used after the flocculation process?
A. Filtration D. Flocculation
B. Coagulation E. Sedimentation basin(s)
C. Purification F. None of the Above
10. Most clarifiers will have baffles to prevent backflow from entering the effluent.
A. True B. False
11. Sand and grit will damage plant equipment and pipes, so it must be removed with either
rectangular or round shaped basin prior to?
B. Coagulation E. Sedimentation basin(s)
Flights and Chains

12. Flights and chains remove the scum from the _____________ of the basin.
A. Supernatant D. Armature
B. Surface E. A and B
C. Scum box F. None of the Above
13. To prevent damage to the flights and chains due to overloads, a _____________is used.
A. Bearing D. Safety net
B. Reducer E. A and B
C. Shear pin F. None of the Above
14. The flights are usually concrete flights mounted on parallel chains and the motor shaft is
connected through a shaft which turns the gear.
A. True B. False
Circular Clarifiers
15. The most common type of Circular Clarifier has a center pier or column.
A. True B. False
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16. Which of the following processes uses Alum and cationic polymer to neutralize the
charge?
B. Reconditioning E. Conventional
17. Which of the following compounds combines with alkalinity in the Raw water to form a
white precipitate that neutralizes suspended particles' electrical charge?
A. Activated sodium D. Dissolved organic carbon
B. PAC E. Alum
C. Activated carbon F. None of the Above
18. Which of the following systems uses a 30 to 50 mg/L alum dosage to form a large floc that
requires extensive retention time to permit settling?
A. Conventional technology D. All of the above except C
B. Reconditioning cycle E. Chemical pretreatment
C. Traditional sand filter F. None of the Above
19. According to the text, when the pressure difference between filter inlet and outlet
increases by 5 - 10 psi from the beginning of the cycle, the filter should be reconditioned.
Operating beyond this pressure drop increases the chance of fouling - called " Mud-balling " -
within the filter.
A. True B. False
20. Which of the following systems consists of an up-flow backwash followed by a down-flow
rinse?
A. Conventional technology D. Fast rinse
C. Traditional F. None of the Above
21. Which of the following terms lasts about 5 to 10 minutes?

22. Which of the following terms is often used to enhance filter performance?
23. Feeding chemicals such as alum, ferric chloride, or a cationic polymer neutralizes the
charge, allowing the particles to cling to one another and to the filter media.
A. True B. False
24. Which of the following terms may increase filtered water clarity, measured in NTU, by 90%
compared with filtration alone?
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25. According to the text, if an operator is present to make adjustments for variations in the
Sedimentation process, clarity improvements in the range of 93 to 95% are achievable.
A. True B. False
Direct Filtration Plant vs. Conventional Plant

26. The primary difference between Direct Filtration Plant vs. Conventional Plant is that the
________________________or step is omitted from the Direct Filtration plant.
C. Sedimentation process F. None of the Above
Rapid Sand Filtration

27. Which of the following terms is the most prevalent form of water treatment technology in
use today?
A. Conventional technology D. Rapid Sand filtration
28. Rapid Sand filtration process employs a combination of ________________________in

order to achieve maximum effectiveness.
A. Filtration D. Sedimentation process
B. Aluminum Sulfate E. Physical and chemical processes
C. Chemical pretreatment F. None of the Above
Coagulation
29. At the Water Treatment Plant, alum is added to the water in the "flash mix" to cause
microscopic impurities in the water to clump together.
A. True B. False
30. The alum and the water are mixed rapidly by the?
A. Cationic polymers D. Shaker
B. Flash mixer E. All of the Above
C. Coagulant chemicals F. None of the Above
31. What is the process of joining together particles in water to help remove organic matter
called?
A. Cationic polymers D. Flocculation
B. Coagulation E. All of the Above
32. Which of the following terms are so small, their charge per volume is significant?
A. Cationic polymers D. Aluminum Sulfate molecules
B. Colloidal particles E. All of the Above
33. Coagulation is necessary to meet the current regulations for almost all potable water
plants using surface water.
A. True B. False
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34. Coagulant chemicals such as "alum" work by neutralizing the negative charge, which
allows the particles to come together.
A. True B. False
35. Which of the following terms can be thought of as positively charged strings that attract the
particles to them, and in the process, form a larger particle.
A. Cationic polymers D. Lime
B. Coagulation helpers E. All of the Above
C. Salts F. None of the Above
36. Aluminum Sulfate is also excellent for removing nutrients such as phosphorous in
wastewater treatment.
A. True B. False
37. Fine particles must be coagulated, or "stuck together" to form larger particles which can be
filtered, this is achieved through the use of?
A. Sedimentation D. Flocculation
38. Which of the following terms are required since colloidal particles by themselves have the
tendency to stay suspended in water and not settle out?
A. Cationic polymers D. Flocculation
39. New chemicals have been developed which combine the properties of alum-type
coagulants and?
A. Cationic polymers D. Ammonia Hydroxide
B. Chlorine E. All of the Above
40. Which of the following terms is the most widely used coagulant in water treatment?
A. Cationic polymers D. Aluminum Sulfate
B. Coagulation helpers E. Soda ash
41. Liquid ________________is a 48.86% solution.

A. Cationic polymers D. Aluminum Sulfate
B. Ammonia Hydroxide E. Soda ash
42. In water treatment, large microorganisms, including algae and amoebic cysts, are readily
removed by __________ and filtration.
A. Cationic polymers D. Coagulation
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43. According to the text, more than 98% of poliovirus type 1 was removed by conventional
________________ and filtration.
A. Cationic polymers D. Coagulation
Flocculation
44. Inside the contact chambers, water is slowly mixed allowing the coagulated particles, this
is called "floc," and the particles become larger and stronger.
A. True B. False
45. Which of the following process statements happens in the water, bacteria and other
microorganisms are caught in the floc structure?
A. Equalize the basin D. Coagulated particles
B. Agitate the water E. All of the Above
C. Floc particles mix F. None of the Above
46. Flocculation is the process of bringing together destabilized or coagulated particles to form
larger masses which can be settled and/or filtered out of the water being treated.
A. True B. False
47. Flocculation is the process where the suspended particles can collide,
________________, and form heavier particles called “floc”.
A. Equalization D. Destabilized or coagulated particles
B. Agitation of the water E. All of the Above
C. Agglomerate F. None of the Above
48. Gentle ____________________ and appropriate detention times (the length of time water
remains in the basin) help facilitate the flocculation process.
A. Equalizing D. Settling
B. Agitation of the water E. All of the Above
C. Agglomerating F. None of the Above
Pre-Sedimentation
49. According to the text, depending on the quality of the source water, some plants have pre-
sedimentation, this allows larger ____________________________ in a reservoir or lake
reducing solid removal loads.
A. Equalize the basin D. Coagulated particles
B. Agitate the water E. Particles time to settle
Sedimentation
50. Sedimentation is the process of destabilizing coagulated particles in water.
A. True B. False
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51. Which of the following statements before sedimentation in which the velocity of the water
is decreased so that the suspended material, including flocculated particles, can settle out by
gravity?
A. Conventional technology D. Rapid Sand filtration
B. Flocculation E. Chemical pretreatment
52. Which of the following statements is later removed from the bottom of the basin?
A. Equalize the basin D. Particles combine to form a sludge
B. Agitate the water E. Particles time to settle
Filtration
53. Filtration is a water treatment process step used to remove turbidity, dissolved organics,
odor, taste and color.
A. True B. False
54. According to the text, the filter is periodically cleaned by a reversal of flow and the
________ into a drain.
A. Activated carbon filters D. Rapid-sand filters
B. Cartridge filters E. Discharge of back-flushed water
C. Anthracite coal F. None of the Above
55. Which of the following terms are made of fabric, paper, or plastic?
B. Cartridge filters E. Granular synthetic filters
C. Anthracite filters F. None of the Above
56. Which of the following terms will also remove turbidity, but would not be recommended for
that purpose only?
B. Cartridge filters E. Granular synthetic material
57. According to the text, water is filtered at a rate of between 2 and 10 gpm per square foot,
the water is filtered through an approximate 36" depth of graded sand.
A. True B. False
58. The water flows by gravity through large filters of_________________, silica sand, garnet
and gravel.
B. Cartridge filters E. All of the Above
59. Water filters for suspended particle removal can also be made of graded sand,
__________, screens of various materials, and fabrics.
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60. Which of the following statements should be conducted on a routine basis, at least once
per day?
A. Wall scum D. Post-disinfection
B. Gate position E. Filtration process performance
C. Effluent control measurement F. None of the Above
61. Good chemical treatment management can often result in either early turbidity
breakthrough or rapid head loss buildup.
A. True B. False
62. Which are the most widely used filters, that in these units, gravity holds the material in
place and the flow is downward?
63. For the removal of organic contaminants and taste and odor problems, Anthracite coal or
____________ may also be included in the sand to improve the filtration process, especially
A. Sand D. Post-disinfection
B. Garnet E. All of the Above
C. Activated carbon F. None of the Above
Declining Rate Filters

64. The flow rate will vary with?
A. Head loss D. Post-disinfection
B. Uniform media E. All of the Above
C. Effluent control F. None of the Above
65. Declining Rate Filters system requires _________________________ to provide

adequate media submergence.
A. Head loss D. Post-disinfection
B. Uniform media E. Flocculation
C. Effluent control structure F. None of the Above
Detention Time
66. Detention time is actual time required for a small amount of water to pass through a
Sedimentation basin at a given rate of flow, or the calculated time required for a small amount
of liquid to pass through a tank at a given rate of flow.
A. True B. False
Disinfection
67. For disinfection, Chlorine is added to the water at the flash mix for pre-disinfection in which
the chlorine kills or inactivates harmful microorganisms.
A. True B. False
68. Chlorine is added again after filtration for?

A. Residual D. Post-disinfection
B. Control THMS E. Pre-disinfection
C. Contact time F. None of the Above
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Jar Testing
69. Jar testing traditionally has been done on a monthly basis in most water treatment plants
to control THMs.
A. True B. False
pH
70. According to the text, pH is an expression of a basic or acid condition of a liquid. The
range is from 0-14, zero being the most acid and 14 being the most alkaline. A pH of 7 is
considered to be neutral.
A. True B. False
71. According to the text, which of the following has a pH between 6.0 and 8.5?
A. Treated water D. All of the Above
B. Disinfectants E. Chlorine
C. Natural water F. None of the above
Caustic
72. NaOH is a strong chemical used in the treatment process to neutralize acidity, and to
lower the pH value.
A. True B. False
Polymer
73. Polymer is a water treatment chemical that when combined with other types of coagulants,
aids in binding small ___________________ to larger particles to help in the settling and
filtering processes.
A. Excess floc D. Color
B. Coagulants E. Solids
C. Suspended particles F. None of the Above
Post-Chlorine
74. The operator should make sure that the chlorinated water holds a residual in the
distribution system.
A. True B. False
Pre-Chlorination
75. Before the filtration process, chlorination will help: control fish and vegetation.
A. True B. False
Hydrofluosilicic Acid
76. H2SiF6 a clear __________________________, with a pH ranging from 1 to 1.5 and used
in water treatment to fluoridate drinking water.
A. Gas D. Fuming corrosive liquid
B. But colored liquid E. Dark pleasant liquid
C. Fluoridating drinking water liquid F. None of the Above
Corrosion Control
77. The pH of the water is adjusted with?
A. Acid E. Soda pop
B. Sodium carbonate D. Subsequent treatment processes
C. Fluoride acid F. None of the Above
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78. Which of the following terms is fed into the water after filtration?
A. Acid E. Soda ash
B. Sodium Chloride D. Subsequent treatment processes
C. Fluoride acid F. None of the Above
Taste and Odor Control

79. Which of the following terms is occasionally added for taste and odor control?
A. Turbidity powder D. HOCL
B. Powdered activated carbon (PAC) E. All of the Above
C. Fluoride F. None of the Above
Water Quality
80. Water quality testing needs to be conducted throughout the water treatment process.
A. True B. False
81. Water quality testing needs to analyze turbidity, pH, and chlorine residual continuously.
A. True B. False
82. Some Water quality items are tested several times per day, some once per quarter and
others once per year.
A. True B. False
Chemical Feed and Rapid Mix

83. To improve the subsequent treatment processes, chemicals are added to the water, and
may include pH adjusters and coagulants.
A. True B. False
84. Alum is a coagulant chemical that neutralize positive or negative charges on small
particles allowing them to stick together and form larger particles that are more easily removed
by sedimentation or filtration.
A. True B. False
Short-Circuiting
85. Short-Circuiting is a condition that occurs in tanks or basins when some of the water
travels faster than the rest of the flowing water.
A. True B. False
86. Short-Circuiting is usually undesirable, since it may result in shorter contact, reaction, or
settling times in comparison with the?
A. Presumed detention times D. Up-flow clarifier
B. Sedimentation/clarification process E. All of the Above
C. Modification of the conventional process F. None of the Above
Tube Settlers
87. Tube settlers are a modification of the conventional process contains many metal “tubes”
that are placed in?
A. Clearwell D. An up-flow clarifier
B. Sedimentation basin or clarifier E. Filter
C. Flocculation basin F. None of the Above
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88. The slope of the tube settlers facilitates gravity settling of the solids to the bottom of the
basin, where they can be?
A. Adjusted for detention times D. Modified
B. Sampled E. Used for the sedimentation/clarification process
C. Collected and removed F. None of the Above
89. The large surface settling area also means that adequate clarification can be obtained with
detention times of 45 minutes or more.
A. True B. False
90. Which of the following terms happened before the sedimentation step that is followed by
filtration through mixed media?
A. Tube settlers D. Coagulation
C. Traditional sand filter F. None of the Above
Adsorption Clarifiers
91. In the sedimentation/clarification process, turbidity is _______________ of the coagulated
and flocculated solids onto the adsorption media and onto the solids already adsorbed onto the
media.
A. Increased by adsorption D. Decreased
B. Reduced by adsorption E. A modification of the conventional process
C. Destroyed F. None of the Above
92. Water scouring cleans adsorption clarifiers followed by air flushing is a must.
A. True B. False
93. Cleaning of the clarifier is initiated less often than filter backwashing because the clarifier
removes less solids.
A. True B. False
94. Tube-settler type of package plant, the Sedimentation/clarification process is followed by

mixed-media filtration and disinfection to complete the water treatment.
A. True B. False
Clearwell
95. The clearwell provides temporary storage for the treated water, which is the final step in
the conventional filtration process.
A. True B. False
EPA Filter Backwash Rule

96. Which of the following statements will reduce the potential risks associated with recycling
contaminants removed during the filtration process?
A. Enforceable standards D. Increase protection of finished drinking water
B. Filter backwash requirements E. Filtration and disinfection rules
C. Influence of surface water F. None of the Above
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97. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency has finalized the Long Term 1 Enhanced
Surface Water Treatment Rule and Filter Backwash Rule to____________________ from
contamination by Cryptosporidium and other microbial pathogens.
A. Enforce standards to protect
B. Increase filtration and disinfection
C. Increase protection of finished drinking water supplies
D. Remove
E. All of the Above
F. None of the Above
98. Long Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule and Filter Backwash Rule will
apply to public water systems using surface water or ground water under?
A. Enforceable standards
B. Filtration and disinfection rules
C. Influence of surface water
D. Groundwater
E. All of the Above
Background
99. The EPA has determined that the presence of microbiological contaminants is a health
concern. If finished water supplies contain ____________, disease outbreaks may result.
A. Disease symptoms D. Microbiological contaminants
B. Cryptosporidium E. All of the Above
C. Waterborne diseases F. None of the Above
Turbidity
100. Which of the following statements must comply with specific combined filter effluent
turbidity requirements?
A. Watershed control D. Disinfection benchmark
B. Raw water control E. Conventional and Direct filtration systems
C. Disinfection profile F. None of the Above
101. According to the text, conventional and ________________________must comply with

individual filter turbidity requirements.
A. Groundwater D. Raw water
B. Direct filtration systems E. A and D
C. Disinfection processes F. None of the Above
The Filtration Process

102. Removal of _________ plays an important role in the natural treatment of groundwater
as it percolates through the soil.
A. Coagulation and flocculation processes
B. Coagulation or oxidation processes
C. Serious problems in filter operation
D. Suspended solids by filtration
E. A and D
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103. Groundwater that has been softened or treated through iron and manganese removal will
require filtration to remove floc created by?
A. Coagulation and flocculation
D. A combination of complex physical and chemical mechanisms
E. Suspension
104. According to the text, since surface water sources are subject to run-off and do not
undergo natural filtration, it must be filtered to?
A. Aid the coagulation and flocculation processes
B. Provide coagulation or oxidation processes
C. Remove particles and impurities
D. Retain the combination of complex physical and chemical mechanisms
E. Standards
105. Which of the following which traps suspended material between the grains of filter
media?
C. Filtration process can be compared to a sieve or microstrainer
D. Physical and chemical mechanisms
E. Treatment process
106. Which of the following statements will easily pass through the spaces between the grains
of the filter media, making straining is the least important process in filtration?
A. Suspended particles can easily pass
B. Coagulation passes
C. Serious problems in filter operation passes
D. Turbidity passes
E. Mudballing
107. Filtration primarily depends on a ___________________________________, the most

important being adsorption.
A. Coagulation and flocculation process
D. Combination of complex physical and chemical mechanisms
E. A and D
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108. Adsorption is the process of particles sticking onto the surface of the individual filter
grains or onto the previously deposited materials. The forces that attract and hold the particles
to the grains are the same as those that work in?
C. Main filter
D. Complex physical and chemical mechanisms
E. A and B
109. Which of the following statements will happen especially if coagulation and flocculation of
the water before filtration was not properly controlled?
A. Coagulation and flocculation may occur in the filter bed
B. Coagulation or oxidation processes will work
C. No problems in filter operation
D. Physical and chemical mechanisms will improve
E. A and B
Types of Filters
110. The oldest water filters developed were the Slow sand filters, these have filter rates of
around 0.05 gpm/ft2 of surface area. This type of filter requires large filter areas.
A. True B. False
111. What is the term for the mass of growing material that collects on the surface of the filter?
A. Schmutzdecke D. Mud balls
B. Water moss E. Zoological growth
C. Backwash F. None of the Above
112. Most water filters are classified by filtration rate, type of ____________, or type of
operation.
A. Schmutzdecke D. Filter media
B. Slow rate filtration E. Filter size
C. Backwash capabilities F. None of the Above
Rapid Sand Filters

113. Rapid sand filters can accommodate filter rates 40 times more than?
A. Fixed film D. Activated carbon beds
B. Slow sand filters E. Without sand
C. Mixed media F. None of the Above
114. Filters in large water treatment plants are usually constructed next to each other in a row,
allowing the piping from the Sedimentation basins to feed the filters from a central pipe gallery.
A. True B. False
Filter Sand
115. The filter sand used in rapid sand filters is normal play sand for the purpose of water
filtration.
A. True B. False
24
116. The gravel installed under the sand layer(s) in the filter prevents the ____from being lost
during the operation.
A. Rapid filters D. Sedimentation basin
B. Filter sand E. Mixed media
C. Backwash trough F. None of the Above
117. This under-gravel supports the filter sand and is usually graded in three to five layers,
each generally 6-18 inches in thickness, depending on the type of underdrain used.
A. True B. False
118. Which of the following will contain 24-30 inches of sand, but some newer filters are
deeper?
A. Rapid sand filters D. Sedimentation basin
B. Slow rate filtration E. Mixed media
119. According to the text, the coarser sand in the ___________ has larger voids that do not
fill as easily.
A. Rapid filters D. Sedimentation basin
B. Slow rate filtration E. Mixed media
False floor
120. The false floor design of a ___________________ is used together with a porous plate
design or with screens that retain the sand when there is no undergravel layer.
A. Rapid sand filter system D. Filter underdrain
B. Slow rate filtration system E. Leopold system
C. Backwash system F. None of the Above
121. Underdrains allows the jet action or open space under the floor to act as the collection
area for the filtered water and of the filter backwash water.
A. True B. False
Leopold System
122. According to the text, the Leopold system consists of a series of clay or plastic blocks
that form the channels to remove the filtered water from the filter and distribute the?
A. Backwash water D. Backwashing of the filter or backwash cycle
B. Surface wash system E. Removed filtered water
C. Media F. None of the Above
Washwater Troughs
123. During the operation of a filter, the upper six-to-ten inches of the filter media remove most
of the suspended material, this layer is thoroughly cleaned during the ______________.
A. Rinsing cycle D. Backwash cycle
B. Method of agitation E. Filtered water cycle
C. Washing F. None of the Above
25
124. In most cases, backwashing does not clean this layer completely, some ___________ is
needed to break up the top layers of the filter and to help the backwash water remove any
material caught there.
B. Method of agitation E. Surface wash
125. Which of the following terms uses compressed air to mix the upper layer and loosen the
particles from the sand so that the backwash water can remove the particles more easily?
B. Method of agitation E. Surface wash
126. Washwater troughs placed above the filter media collect the ______________and carry it
to the drain system.
A. Backwash water D. Rinsing of the filter or backwash cycle
B. Raw water E. Rinsate
127. Proper troughs placement must ensure that the filter media is not carried into the troughs
during the ______________ and removed from the filter.
A. Backwash D. Mudballs
128. Wash troughs must be installed at the same elevation so that they remove the
______________ evenly from the filter and so that an even head is maintained across the
entire filter.
A. Backwash D. Mudballs
129. Which of the following are constructed from concrete, plastic, fiberglass, or other
corrosion-resistant materials?
A. Backwash troughs D. Trap door
B. Surface wash system piping E. Center stand
C. False floor F. None of the Above
Diatomaceous Earth Filter

130. The Diatomaceous Earth Filter process was developed by the military during World War
II to remove microorganisms that cause amoebic dysentery from water used in the field.
A. True B. False
Filtration Processes
131. According to the text, dual and multi-media filters are used with Conventional Filtration.
A. True B. False
26
132. Some of the benefits of this method is that it has a lower capital cost, but this method or
process cannot handle large variations in raw water turbidity.
A. Direct Filtration D. Flocculation
B. Dual and multi-media filtration E. Sand Filtration
C. Conventional Filtration F. None of the Above
High Rate Filters

133. High rate filters, which operate at a rate ______________, use a combination of different
filter media, not just sand.
A. That finer material are farther down
B. Faster than 3 feet per second
C. Of 2 feet per second
D. Three-to-four times that of rapid sand filters
E. All of the Above
134. Multi-media or mixed-media filters use three or four different materials, sand, anthracite
coal, and garnet.
A. True B. False
135. Finer sand grains are at the ______________________________ farther down into the
filter, in rapid sand filters.
A. Bottom of the sand layer with larger grains D. End of the sand layer
B. Top of the sand layer with larger grains E. Top of the sand layer with finer grains
C. Front of the sand layer with larger grains F. None of the Above
136. In the design of the high rate filter, the top layers consist of a fine material with the course
material farther down, allowing the suspended material to penetrate less into the filter.
A. True B. False
137. The filter bed material forms layers in the filter, depending on their weight and specific
gravities.
A. True B. False
Pressure Sand Filters

138. Filtration rates are twice as good as gravity filters.
A. True B. False
139. Which type of filter is used extensively in iron and manganese Removal plants?
A. Slow sand/RO D. Fast sand
B. Gravity filters E. Conventional
C. Pressure sand filter F. None of the Above
140. Which of the following terms or methods cracking of the filter bed can occur quite easily,
allowing the iron and manganese particles to go straight through the filter?
C. Pressure filters F. None of the Above
27
141. Which of the following filtration terms is contained under pressure in a steel tank?
142. Which of the following filtration terms is the media usually sand or a combination of
media?
B. Gravity filters E. Fixed film
143. During filtration, the water is under pressure, but __________ will not occur in the filter.
A. Gravity D. Flow
B. Velocity E. Heat
C. Air binding F. None of the Above
144. Which of the following terms or methods have a major disadvantage in that the backwash
cannot be observed?
145. According to the text, which of the following terms or methods have limitations, and must
not be used to treat surface water?
Filtration Operation
146. Filtration operation is divided into three steps: filtering, backwashing, and?
A. Filter run D. Drying
B. Filtering to waste E. Rinsate
C. Return to waste F. None of the Above
147. Which of the following terms is a low-pressure membrane filtration process that removes
suspended solids and colloids generally larger than 0.1-micron diameter?
A. Nanofiltration D. Semi-permeable
B. Pressure recovery E. Declining rate
C. Microfiltration F. None of the Above
148. Which of the following terms is a relatively recent membrane process used most often
with low total dissolved solids water such as surface water and fresh groundwater?
A. Nanofiltration D. Semi-permeable
B. Pressure recovery E. Declining rate
C. Microfiltration F. None of the Above
28
Declining Rate
149. According to the text, which of the following terms or methods of control is used where
the head loss through the plant is quite large?
B. Gravity filters E. Declining Rate
150. The rate through the declining rate filter is much greater in the beginning of a filter run
than at the end when the?
A. Filter run D. Flow tube controller is operating
B. Filter is dirty E. All of the Above
C. Head loss is low F. None of the Above
151. According to the text, which of the following terms or methods allows the filter head to
increase until the filter becomes plugged with particles and the Head loss is too great to
continue operation of the filter?
B. Gravity filters E. Declining Rate
Loss of Head Indicator

152. Which of the following terms is measured in the difference by a piezometer connected to
the filter above the media and the effluent line?
A. Filter run D. Head loss
B. Filtering to waste E. Head
C. Flow tube controller F. None of the Above
153. Which of the following terms is required to force the water through the filter?
154. Which of the following terms should be continuously measured to help determine when
the filter should be backwashed?
In-line Turbidimeter
155. Continuous turbidity monitors provide information about when the filter is approaching
this point so that the operators can start the backwash before the turbidity is too great.
A. True B. False
156. Which of the following terms in water is caused by small suspended particles that scatter
or reflect light?
A. Shelter bacteria D. Floc
B. Suspended material E. Breakthrough
C. Turbidity F. None of the Above
29
157. Which of the following terms of the filtered water may shelter bacteria, preventing
chlorine from reaching it?
158. Which of the following terms of the filtered water is one of the factors that determine the
length of a filter run?
159. Which of the following terms in water measurements will also indicate whether the
coagulation and other treatment processes are operating properly?
Filtration Process
160. A rapid sand filter will have a flow of two-to-three gpm/square foot of filter area. The high
rate filter may have four-to-six gpm/square foot applied to the surface.
A. True B. False
161. Water from the source or, more commonly, from pre-treatment processes is applied to
the top of the filter; it then flows downward. The water level above the filter bed is usually kept
at two-to-six feet.
A. True B. False
162. When the filtration is started after being backwashed, there will be great head loss.
A. True B. False
163. Which of the following terms in water is restricted during this time in filters with a control
valve installed on the filter effluent pipe?
A. Shelter bacteria
B. Suspended material
C. Turbidity
D. Filter flow
E. All of the above except D
164. The control valve prevents filter surges, which could disturb the media and force
____________ through the filter.
A. Flow D. Floc
C. Dissolved solids F. None of the Above
165. Which of the following terms in water rate on a filter depends on the type of filter?
A. Flow D. Floc
30
166. Which of the following terms is almost fully closed when a filter is clean so that the
desired water level on top of the filter is maintained?
A. Headloss valve D. Backwash cycle valve
B. Constant rate flow valve E. Variable declining rate flow control
C. Flow restrictor F. None of the Above
167. As the filter becomes dirty, the valve opens gradually until the increase in the water level
above the filter indicates that the filter needs?
A. Headloss correction D. Filtration
B. Constant rate flow E. Backwashing
C. Flow restrictor adjusting F. None of the Above
168. Which of the following terms the filters are allowed to take on as much water as they can
handle?
A. Headloss valve D. Backwash cycle valve
B. Constant rate flow valve E. Variable declining rate flow control
C. Flow restrictor F. None of the Above
169. As the filter becomes dirty, the flow through the filter becomes less and, if the plant has
more than one filter, additional _____________________across the other filters.
A. Headloss D. Backwash cycle
B. Flow redistributes E. Media
C. Flow restricting F. None of the Above
170. Which of the following terms is placed in the filter effluent pipe to prevent a filter inflow
that is too great for the filter?
B. Flow redistributes E. Flow restrictor
C. Flow F. None of the Above
171. The filter eventually fills with suspended material, usually after 15 to 30 hours; it will need
to be _____________________ to clean the media.
A. Bumped D. Backwashed
B. Jetted E. Flow restrictor
C. Air scoured F. None of the Above
Back Washing
172. A normal backwash rate is between 1.2 to 1.5 gpm per square foot of filter surface area.
A. True B. False
173. Proper backwashing is a very important step in the operation of a filter.

A. True B. False
174. The filter will eventually develop additional operational problems, if the filter is not
___________ completely,
31
175. The filter must be cleaned before the next filter run, treated water from storage is used for
the backwash cycle. This treated water is taken from elevated storage tanks or pumped in from
the raw water reservoir.
A. True B. False
176. Which of the following terms must be expanded to clean the filter during the backwash?
B. Floc(s) E. Media
177. Filter expansion causes the filter grains to violently rub against each other, dislodging the
_____ from the media.
B. Floc(s) E. Media
178. The filter media needs to be agitated by the filter backwash to expand and agitate and
suspend the _____________________ in the water for removal.
B. Floc(s) E. Media
179. Which of the following filter terms if is too high, media will be washed from the filter into
the troughs and out of the filter.
A. Headloss D. Backwash rate
B. Floc(s) E. Media
180. During filter backwash, the media expands upwards and around the washing arms.
A. True B. False
181. According to the text, a newer method of surface wash involves using
_____________before the water wash.
A. Headloss calculation D. Backwash cycle
B. Floc(s) scouring E. Air washing
C. Air scour F. None of the Above
182. Which of the following terms needs two-to-five cubic feet of air per square foot of filter
area?
A. Headloss calculation D. Backwash cycle
B. Floc(s) scouring E. Air washing
C. Air scour F. None of the Above
183. Which of the following terms is so high that the filter will no longer produce water at the
desired rate?
B. Floc(s) E. Flow rate
32
184. Which of the following terms starts to break through the filter and the turbidity in the filter
effluent increases; and/or a filter run reaches a given hour of operation?
B. Floc(s) E. Media
C. Flow F. None of the Above
185. If a filter is taken out of service for some reason, it does not need to backwashed prior to
be putting on line.
A. True B. False
186. If a filter is not backwashed until the headloss exceeds a certain number of feet, the
turbidity may break through and cause the filter to exceed the standard of 0.5 NTU of turbidity.
A. True B. False
187. Filter effluent- turbidity alone can cause high head loss and decreased filter flow rate,
causing the pressure in the filter to drop below atmospheric pressure and cause the filter to
_______________________and stop filtering.
A. Prevent headloss D. Lock
B. Air bind E. Bump
C. Assist the backwash cycle F. None of the above
188. According to the text, many filters can operate longer than one week before needing to
be?
189. Long filter runs can cause the filter media to pack down so that it is difficult to
___________ during the backwash.
A. Control headloss D. Backwash cycle
B. Control floc(s) E. All of the Above
C. Expand the bed F. None of the Above
Backwashing Process
190. The normal method for opening the filter backwash valve involves draining the water
level above the filter to a point six inches above the filter media.
A. True B. False
191. When the backwash valve is opened, this action allows backwash water to start flowing
into the filter and start?
A. Control headloss D. Some means of controlling the media carryover
B. Crust on the filter E. Carrying suspended material away from the filter
192. For a filter with an air wash, the filter backwash water and the air wash should not be
used together, this could be possible only if the following is installed.
33
193. When the surface wash is turned on it should be allowed to operate for several minutes
to break up?
194. The time elapsed from when the filter wash is started until full flow is applied to the filter
should be greater than one minute.
A. True B. False
195. The filter expansion needed will depend on how much agitation is needed to suspend the
filter media to?
B. Crust on the filter E. Remove to suspended material trapped in the filter
Disposal of Filter Backwash Water

196. Water from the filter backwash can be returned directly to the environment.
A. True B. False
197. The supernatant is then pumped back to the head of the treatment plant at a rate not
exceeding ten percent of the?
A. Daily flow D. Raw water flow entering the plant
B. Backwash water E. Amount of solids that must be removed
C. Eliminates the need to obtain F. None of the Above
198. The settled material is pumped to a sewer or is treated in the solids-handling process,
this conserves most of the backwash water and ____________________________ a pollution
discharge permit.
B. Backwash water E. Amount of solids that must be removed
C. Eliminates the need to obtain F. None of the Above
199. Backwash is a very high flow operation, the surges that are created from the backwash
coming from the filter?
B. Backwash water E. Must not be allowed to enter the head of the plant
C. Return F. None of the Above
200. According to the text, the spent backwash water must be stored in storage tanks and
returned slowly to the treatment process.
A. True B. False
Filter to Waste
201. When filtration is started after backwash, suspended material remains in the filter media
until the turbidity in the effluent meets standards. Depending on the type of filter, this may last
from 20-40 minutes.
A. True B. False
34
202. According to the text, wasting is needed as some _______________________following
the backwash.
A. Daily flow D. Suspended material remains in the filter media
B. Backwash water E. Filtration should always be started
203. Which of the following terms should be done slowly after a backwash to prevent
breakthrough of suspended material?
A. Daily flow D. Suspended material
B. Backwash water E. Filtration should always be started
Filter Aids
204. A normal dose of polymer for filter aiding will be less than 0.1 ppm, but the exact dose
will be decided by the result of a jar test and by experimentation in the treatment plant.
A. True B. False
205. Which of the following terms have very high molecular weight and cause the floc to
coagulate and flocculate quickly?
A. Filter medias D. Filter aids
B. Sand E. Floc
C. Filters F. None of the Above
206. Which of the following terms reflects filter use of large volumes of backwash water to be
able to remove the floc that has penetrated deeply into the filter bed.
A. Filter backwashing D. Too much backwash water is used
B. Backwash water leaving the filter E. Serious damage to the filter underdrain
C. Raw water flow entering the plant F. None of the Above
207. Which of the following terms reflects a material that adds strength to the floc and
prevents its breakup?
A. Filter backwashing D. Too much backwash water is used
B. Backwash water leaving the filter E. Filter aid
C. Raw water flow entering the plant F. None of the Above
208. Which of the following terms are water-soluble, organic compounds that can be
purchased in either wet or dry form?
A. Filter medias D. Filter aids
B. Activated Carbon E. Floc
C. Filters F. None of the Above
209. Which of the following terms expresses that the polymer strengthens the bonds and
prevents the shearing forces in the filter from breaking the floc apart when used?
A. Filter media D. Filter aid
B. Lime E. Floc
C. Filter F. None of the Above
35
Filter Operating Problems
210. According to the text, there are three major types of filter problems. They can be caused
by chemical treatment before the filter, __________________________, and backwashing of
filters.
A. Filter aid D. Turbidity breakthrough
B. Control of filter flow rate E. Coagulation and flocculation stages
C. Filter media process F. None of the above
Chemical Treatment before the Filter

211. Which of the following terms of the water treatment must be monitored continuously?
212. There may be a need for better mixing during the coagulation or the addition of more?
A. Filter aid D. Turbidity
B. Control of filter flow rate E. Coagulation and flocculation
213. If there is a rapid increase in filter head loss, too much coagulant may be clogging the
filter.
A. True B. False
214. Adjustments in the amount of coagulant added must be made frequently to prevent the
filter from becoming overloaded, this may cause the filter to prematurely reach its?
C. Maximum headloss F. None of the above
215. If there is early turbidity breakthrough in the filter effluent, more coagulant may have to be
added to the coagulation process.
A. True B. False
Control of Filter Flow Rate

216. When a filter is subjected to rapid changes in flow rate, the turbidity of the effluent will not
be affected; the dirtier the coagulation and flocculation stages, the greater the effect.
A. True B. False
217. The filters should be backwashed before putting them back into operation or operated to
waste until the ________________ meets the standards.
A. Basin water D. Turbidity
B. Surge to the filter(s) E. Effluent
C. Filter media breakthrough F. None of the Above
218. According to the text, addition of filter aids may also reduce the impact on the filter
effluent.
A. True B. False
36
219. When backwashing a filter and therefore temporarily taking it out of service, the
remaining filter(s) must pick up the additional flow, this can cause a change in flow that will
cause?
A. Turbidity breakthrough D. Filter aid breakthrough
B. Backwash storage basin E. Coagulation and flocculation stages
220. If the plant has a __________________, this will also prevent surges to the filters.
A. Turbidity breakthrough D. Filter aid breakthrough
B. Backwash storage basin E. Coagulation and flocculation stages
221. If the plant is not operated continuously, and the start-up at the beginning of the day will
cause a?
A. Basin to catch the overflow D. Turbidity breakthrough
B. Surge to the filter(s) E. Effluent
Hard Water Section

222. Water contains various amounts of__________________, some of which impart a quality
known as hardness.
A. Water hardness D. Calcium (Ca) and magnesium (Mg)
B. Carbonate hardness E. Dissolved minerals
C. The calcium-magnesium distinction F. None of the Above
Occurrence of Hard Water

223. Hard water is caused by soluble, divalent, _________, (positive ions having valence of
2). The principal chemicals that cause water hardness are calcium (Ca) and magnesium (Mg).
A. Water hardness D. Calcium (Ca) and magnesium (Mg)
B. Metallic cations E. Noncarbonate hardness
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2) F. None of the Above
Membrane Filtration Processes

224. Which of the following terms enables some water systems having contaminated water
sources to meet new, more stringent regulations?
A. Membrane technology D. Conventional thermal separation process(es)
B. Macromolecule(s) E. Direct filtration
C. Solute(s) F. None of the Above
Description of Membrane Filtration Processes

225. Which of the following terms water is forced through a porous membrane under pressure,
while suspended solid, large molecules, or ions are held back or rejected?
A. The recovery of organic vapor(s) D. A selective barrier
B. Fractional distillation E. Thermal separation method(s)
C. Membrane processes F. None of the Above
37
Microfiltration
226. The current primary use of MF is by industries to remove very fine particles from process
water, the process has also been used as a pretreatment for?
A. Reverse osmosis or RO D. Direct filtration process
B. Potable water treatment E. Microfiltration or MF
C. Other membrane processes F. None of the Above
227. The use of filter aids to improve filtering efficiency, especially for small particles that could
contain _____________ are recommended.
A. Process liquid D. Material
B. Chloride and sodium E. Bacterial and protozoan life
C. Total dissolved solids (TDS) F. None of the Above
Ultrafiltration
228. The smaller pore size is designed to remove colloids and substances that have larger
molecules, which are called?
C. High-molecular-weight materials F. None of the Above
229. UF membranes can be designed to pass material that weigh less than or?
B. Chloride and sodium E. Equal to a certain molecular weight
230. UF does not generally work well for removal of________, it can be used effectively for
removal or most organic chemicals.
B. Chloride and sodium E. Salt or dissolved solids
Nanofiltration
231. Nanofiltration (NF) process has been used primarily for water softening and reduction of?
232. NF capability will undoubtedly increase the use of _______________for potable water
treatment.
C. NF F. None of the Above
Reverse Osmosis
233. RO membranes have very low MWC pore size that can reject ions at very high rates,
including?
38
234. This term or process works most organic chemicals, and radionuclides and
microorganisms. Industrial water uses such, as semiconductor manufacturing is also an
important?
A. RO D. Direct filtration
C. Colloids and substances F. None of the Above
Microfiltration Specific Process

235. Microfiltration is a type of physical filtration process where a contaminated fluid is passed
through a special pore-sized membrane to separate microorganisms and suspended particles
from?
236. Which of the following terms works with such as ultrafiltration and reverse osmosis to
provide a product stream which is free of undesired contaminants?
A. Various other separation processes D. Batch or semi-continuous filtration
B. MF membranes E. Retentate and product streams
C. Ultrafiltration and reverse osmosis F. None of the Above
237. Microfiltration usually serves as a pre-treatment for other separation processes such as?
A. Cross flow filtration D. Ultrafiltration
B. Filtration process(es) E. Microfiltration process
C. Performance of microfiltration F. None of the Above
Reverse Osmosis Process Section

238. Which of the following result in higher osmotic pressures?
A. Pressure differential D. Colloidal and suspended matter
B. Osmotic pressure E. Waste (concentrate)
C. Higher molecular weights F. None of the Above
239. According to the text, common tap water as found in most areas may have an osmotic
pressure of about 10 PSI (Pounds per Square Inch), or about?
A. 36,000 PPM D. 1.68 Bar
B. A pressure of 10 PSI E. 376 PSI
C. Osmotic pressure(s) F. None of the Above
240. Osmosis is a natural phenomenon in which a liquid - water in this case - passes through
a semi-permeable membrane from a relatively dilute solution toward a more concentrated
solution. This flow produces a measurable pressure, called osmotic pressure.
A. True B. False
Brine Channel
241. Concentrated raw water is called the reject stream or concentrate stream, it may also be
called brine if it is coming from a?
A. Each sheet of membrane material D. Amount of permeate or product water
B. Microporous support layer E. Concentrations of TDS
C. Salt water source F. None of the Above
39
242. Which of the following terms when sufficient flows are maintained, serves to carry away
the impurities removed by the membrane, thus keeping the membrane surface clean and
functional?
A. Pressure differential D. The concentrate
B. Osmotic pressure E. Waste (concentrate)
C. Higher molecular weights F. None of the Above
243. This compound is obtained by passing a flow of air or oxygen between two electrodes
that are subjected to an alternating current in the order of 10,000 to 20,000 volts.
A. Chloramine D. Oxygen and nascent oxygen
B. Liquid Ozone E. O2
C. Ozone F. None of the Above
244. This compound is a light blue gas at room temperature.

245. Ozone has a ____________similar to that sometimes noticed during and after heavy
electrical storms. In use, ozone breaks down into oxygen and nascent oxygen.
A. Self-policing pungent odor D. Oxygen and nascent oxygen
B. THMs E. Strongest oxidizing agent
C. Light blue gas F. None of the Above
246. Ozone does not form chloramines or ______________, and while it may destroy some
THMs, it may produce others when followed by chlorination.
A. Carcinogens D. Oxygen and nascent oxygen
B. THMs E. Flocculation and coagulation
C. Complete disinfectant F. None of the Above
247. Ozone falls into the same category as other disinfectants in that it can produce?
C. DBPs F. None of the Above
248. This compound is very unstable and can readily explode. As a result, it is not shipped
and must be manufactured on-site.
249. Each water has its own_____________, in the order of 0.5 ppm to 5.0 ppm. Contact
time, temperature, and pH of the water are factors to be determined.
C. Ozone demand F. None of the Above
40
Groundwater Treatment/Production System Section
250. According to the text, toxic material spilled or dumped near a well can leach into which of
the following terms and contaminate the groundwater drawn from that well?
A. Unconfined aquifer(s) D. Well(s)
B. Groundwater E. Aquifer
C. Water table F. None of the Above
251. Which of the following terms flows slowly through water-bearing formations at different
rates?
A. Well D. Soil moisture
B. Drinking water E. Groundwater
252. Many terms are used to describe the nature and extent of the groundwater resource, the
level below which all the spaces are filled with water is called the?
253. Above the water table lies the?

A. Unsaturated zone D. Soil moisture
B. Drinking water E. Karst
254. The entire region below the water table is called the saturated zone and water in this
saturated zone is called?
255. Which of the following terms are cracks, joints, or fractures in solid rock, through which
groundwater moves?
A. Fractured aquifer(s) D. Soil moisture
B. Drinking water E. Karst
256. Limestone is often located in which of the following terms?

A. Unconfined aquifer(s) D. Fractured aquifer(s)
257. Which of the following terms may move in different directions below the ground than the
water flowing on the surface?
258. Unconfined aquifers are those that are bounded by the water table. Some aquifers lie
beneath layers of impermeable materials.
41
A. True B. False
259. A well in such an aquifer is called an artesian well.
A. True B. False
260. Which of the following terms is the level to which the water in an artesian aquifer will
rise?
B. Piezometric surface E. Aquifer
261. Which of the following terms such as sandstone may become so highly cemented or
recrystalized that all of the original space is filled. In this case, the rock is no longer a porous
medium?
A. Unconfined aquifer(s) D. Fractured aquifer(s)
C. Porous media F. None of the Above
262. Clay has many spaces between its grains, but the spaces are not large enough to permit
free movement of water.
A. True B. False
263. Which of the following terms usually flows downhill with the slope of the water table?
264. Which of the following terms flow in the aquifers underlying springs or surface drainage
basins, and does not always mirror the flow of water on the surface?
Cone of Depression
265. When pumping begins, water begins to flow towards the well in contrast to the natural
direction of groundwater movement.
A. True B. False
266. The water level in the well falls below the water table in the?
A. Water table D. Cone of depression
B. Groundwater E. Well
C. Surrounding aquifer F. None of the Above
267. The movement of water from this term into a well results in the formation of a cone of
depression.
A. Confined aquifer D. Water table
B. An aquifer E. Unconfined aquifer
C. Hydrologic cycle F. None of the Above
42
268. Which of the following terms describes a three-dimensional inverted cone surrounding
the well that represents the volume of water removed as a result of pumping?
C. Gravity F. None of the Above
269. Which of the following terms is the vertical drop in the height between the water level in
the well prior to pumping and the water level in the well during pumping?
C. Drawdown F. None of the Above
270. When a well is installed in this missing term, water moves from the aquifer into the well
through small holes or slits in the well casing or, in some types of wells, through the open
bottom of the well?
B. Aquifer(s) E. An unconfined aquifer
Where Is Ground Water Stored?

271. Areas where ground water exists in sufficient quantities to supply wells or springs are
called aquifers, a term that literally means?
C. Water bearer F. None of the Above
272. Which of the following terms store water in the spaces between particles of sand, gravel,
soil, and rock as well as cracks, pores, and channels in relatively solid rocks?
B. Aquifer(s) E. Unconfined aquifer
273. Which of the following terms is controlled largely by its porosity, or the relative amount of
open space present to hold water?
C. An aquifer's storage capacity F. None of the Above
274. There are two kinds of aquifers: confined and unconfined.

A. True B. False
275. If the aquifer is sandwiched between layers of relatively impermeable materials, it is

called?
276. Confined aquifers are not sandwiched between layers of relatively impermeable materials,
and their upper boundaries are generally closer to the surface of the land.
A. True B. False
43
277. Which of the following terms are frequently found at greater depths than unconfined
aquifers?
A. Confined aquifer(s) D. Water table
Bacteriological Monitoring Section

278. Which of the following are usually harmless, occur in high densities in their natural
environment and are easily cultured in relatively simple bacteriological media?
A. Indicator bacteria D. Microbiological analysis
B. Bacteria tests E. Presence of an indicator
C. Contaminate F. None of the Above
279. Indicators in common use today for routine monitoring of drinking water include total
coliforms, fecal coliforms, and?
A. Sample container D. Escherichia coli (E. coli)
B. Bacteria tests E. Iron bacteria
C. Coliform bacteria F. None of the Above
280. According to the text, the routine microbiological analysis of your water is for?
A. Indicator bacteria D. Coliform bacteria
C. Contamination F. None of the Above
281. Which of the following terms is used as an indicator organism to determine the biological
quality of your water?
A. Microbiological analysis D. Escherichia coli (E. coli)
B. Bac-T E. Presence of an indicator
282. The presence of an indicator or ________________in your drinking water is an important

health concern.
B. Pathogenic bacteria E. Presence of an indicator
283. Which of the following terms is used to signal possible fecal contamination, and
therefore, the potential presence of pathogens?
B. Pathogenic bacteria E. Presence of an indicator
Bacteria Sampling
284. Water samples for this process must always be collected in a sterile container.
A. Indicators D. pH analysis
C. Contamination F. None of the Above
44
285. Refrigerate the sample and transport it to the testing laboratory within eight hours (in an
ice chest). Many labs will accept bacteria samples on Friday. Mailing Indicator bacteria is not
recommended because laboratory analysis results are not as reliable.
A. True B. False
286. Which bug forms an obvious slime on the inside of pipes and fixtures. A water test is not
needed for identification. Check for a reddish-brown slime inside a toilet tank or where water
stands for several days.
A. Colonies D. Escherichia coli (E. coli)
B. Algae E. Iron bacteria
287. Which of the following are common in the environment and are generally not harmful, but
the presence of these bacteria in drinking water is usually a result of a problem with the
treatment system or the pipes which distribute water, and indicates that the water may be
contaminated with germs that can cause disease.
A. Diseases D. Escherichia coli (E. coli)
B. Germs E. Iron bacteria
Laboratory Procedures
288. The laboratory may perform the _______________ in one of four methods approved by
the U.S. EPA and your local environmental or health division.
A. Colilert D. Total coliform analysis
B. Coliform E. Pathogen test
C. Sample time F. None of the Above
Methods
289. The MMO-MUG test, a product marketed as ____________, is the most common. The
sample results will be reported by the laboratories as simply coliforms present or absent.
B. Coliform E. Pathogen media
C. Sample stuff F. None of the Above
290. If coliforms are present, the laboratory will analyze the sample further to determine if
these are ________ and __________and report their presence or absence.
A. Colilert, E. coli D. Total coliform analysis, Pathogens
B. Coliforms, E. coli E. Pathogens, Total coliform analysis
C. Fecal coliforms, E. coli F. None of the Above
Types of Water Samples

291. It is important to properly identify the type of ____________ you are collecting.
B. Coliforms E. Pathogens
C. Sample F. None of the Above
45
The three (3) types of samples are:
292. Samples collected following a coliform present’ routine sample. The number of repeat
samples to be collected is based on the number of ____________ samples you normally
collect.
A. Repeat D. Total coliform analysis
B. Special E. Routine
C. QA QC F. None of the Above
293. What type of samples can be collected for other reasons? Examples would be a sample
collected after repairs to the system.
294. What type of samples can be collected on a routine basis to monitor for contamination?
Collection should be in accordance with an approved sampling plan.
Repeat Sampling
295. Which of the following terms is total coliform or fecal coliform present, a set of repeat
samples must be collected within 24 hours after being notified by the laboratory?
A. MCL compliance D. Original sampling location
B. Distribution system E. Repeat sample(s)
C. Routine sample F. None of the Above
The follow-up for repeat sampling is:

296. If only one _________________per month or quarter is required, four (4) repeat samples
must be collected.
A. Special Sample D. Coliform present
B. Routine sample E. Original sampling location
C. Repeat sample(s) F. None of the Above
297. For systems collecting two (2) or more routine samples per month, three (3)
____________ must be collected.
A. Compliance sample D. QA/QC Split
B. Distribution sample E. Repeat sample(s)
298. Repeat samples must be collected from: Within five (5) service connections upstream
from the?
A. MCL compliance D. Original sampling location
B. Distribution system E. Repeat sample(s)
46
299. Repeat samples must be collected from: Within five (5) service connections downstream
from the?
300.Repeat samples must be collected from: If the system has only one service connection,
the _________________ must be collected from the same sampling location over a four-day
period or on the same day.
301. Repeat samples must be collected from: All ______________ are included in the MCL
compliance calculation.
Sampling Procedures
302. This must be followed and all operating staff must be clear on how to follow the sampling
plan.
A. Seal individual samples D. Sample siting plan
B. Chain of custody E. Positive for total coliform
C. Distribution system F. None of the Above
303. Staff must be aware of how often sampling must be done, the ___________________to
be used for collecting the samples, and the proper procedures for identification, storage and
transport of the samples to an approved laboratory.
A. Multiple sources D. Proper procedures and sampling containers
B. Sample siting plan E. Sampling containers
C. Total coliform F. None of the Above
304. In addition, proper procedures must be followed for repeat sampling whenever a routine
sample result is?
A. Seal individual samples D. Sample siting plan
B. Chain of custody E. Positive for total coliform
C. Distribution system F. None of the Above
Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs)

305. State and federal laws establish standards for drinking water quality. Under normal
circumstances when these guidelines are being met, the water is somewhat safe to drink with
little threat to human health.
A. True B. False
306. EPA had developed standards which are known as maximum contaminant levels (MCL).
When a particular contaminant exceeds this term a potential health threat may occur.
A. Coliform bacteria count D. HPC
B. MCL E. CFU
C. Standards F. None of the Above
47
307. This acronym generally expresses properties of the contaminants, risk assessments and
factors, short term (acute) exposure and long term (chronic) exposure.
A. Coliform bacteria D. HPC
B. MCLs E. CFU
308. When you as the operator take samples to ensure your water is in compliance with the
MCL, there are two types of _________for coliform bacteria.
A. Coliform bacteria D. MCL violations
B. MCLs E. CFU
309. Which of the following terms is for total coliform; the second is an acute risk to health
violation characterized by the confirmed presence of fecal coliform or E. coli?
A. Coliform bacteria D. MCL violations
B. MCLs E. CFU
Positive or Coliform Present Results

310. According to the text, if you are notified of a positive test result you need to contact either
the Drinking Water Program or your local county health department within 24 hours, or by the
next business day after the?
A. Results are reported to you D. Sample violation
B. Positive violation E. MCL compliance violation
C. Repeat sampling immediately F. None of the Above
311. Ideally speaking, your Drinking Water Program Agency should contract with health
departments to provide _____________to water systems.
A. Assistance D. Sample help
B. Harassment E. Compliance calculation
C. Hostility F. None of the Above
312. Hopefully after you have contacted an agency for assistance, you will be instructed as to
the proper repeat sampling procedures and possible corrective measures for solving the
problem. It is very important to initiate the _______________as the corrective measures will be
based on those results.
A. Storage and distribution D. Perform routine procedures
B. Repeat sampling immediately E. Corrective measures
C. Upgrading of the wellhead area F. None of the Above
Heterotrophic Plate Count HPC

313. Heterotrophic Plate Count (HPC) --- formerly known as the Standard plate count, is a
procedure for estimating the number of live heterotrophic bacteria and measuring changes
during water treatment and distribution in water or in swimming pools.
A. True B. False
48
314. Colonies may arise from pairs, chains, clusters, or single cells, all of which are included
in the term?
A. Coliform bacteria units D. HPC units
B. MCLs units E. Colony-forming units
Spread Plate Method

315. from particles and bubbles.
A. Agar surface D. Bottom
B. Surface growth area E. Material
C. Top F. None of the Above
316. During the Spread Plate Method, colonies can be transferred quickly, and
__________easily can be discerned and compared to published descriptions.
A. Colonies grow D. Heterotrophic organisms will grow
B. Surface growth E. Colony morphology
C. Low counts F. None of the Above
Membrane Filter Method

317. This method permits testing large volumes of _______ and is the method of choice for
low-count waters.
A. Colonies D. Heterotrophic organisms
B. Surface water E. MCL
C. Low-turbidity water F. None of the Above
Heterotrophic Plate Count (Spread Plate Method)

318. Which of the following terms use inorganic carbon sources, this is in contrast to
Heterotrophic organisms utilize organic compounds as their carbon source?
A. Colonies D. Heterotrophic organisms
B. Surface growth E. Autotrophic organisms
C. AGAR F. None of the Above
319. Which of the following terms provides a technique to quantify the bacteriological activity
of a sample?
A. Colonies D. Heterotrophic Plate Count
B. Heat E. MCL
C. Agar F. None of the Above
Total Coliforms
320. This MCL is based on the presence of total coliforms, and compliance is on a daily or
weekly basis, depending on your water system type and state rule.
A. True B. False
321. For systems that collect fewer than ______________ samples per month, no more than
one sample per month may be positive. In other words, the second positive result (repeat or
routine) in a month or quarter results in a MCL violation.
A. 5 D. 200
B. 10 E. 40
C. 100 F. None of the Above
49
The following are acute violations:
322. Which is violation of nitrate?
A. Presence D. Count
B. MCL E. Acute violations
C. MCLG F. None of the Above
323. Concerning total coliforms - when fecal coliforms or E. coli are present in the distribution
system and is a violation of the?
A. Presence D. Count
C. MCLG F. None of the Above
324. Any outbreak of __________, as defined by the rules.

A. Total coliforms D. Radioactive bacteria
C. Waterborne disease F. None of the Above
Protozoan Caused Diseases

325. Which of the following bugs is larger than bacteria and viruses but still microscopic; they
invade and inhabit the gastrointestinal tract?
A. HIV infections D. Hepatitis A
B. Symptoms E. Protozoan pathogens
C. Giardiasis F. None of the Above
326. A few of the parasites enter the environment in a dormant form, with a protective cell
wall, called a?
A. Lamblia D. Cyst
B. Shell E. Infection
C. Case F. None of the Above
Giardia lamblia
327. Which of the following bugs has been responsible for more community-wide outbreaks of
disease in the U.S. than any other, drug treatment is not 100% effective?
A. HIV infection D. Hepatitis A
B. Giardia lamblia E. Cryptosporidiosis
Cryptosporidiosis
328. The mode of transmission of this bug is fecal-oral, either by person-to-person or animal-
to-person, there is no specific treatment.
A. HIV infection D. Hepatitis A
B. Giardia lamblia E. Cryptosporidiosis
New EPA Rules Arsenic

329. Long-term exposure of this compound/element/substance in drinking water to a variety of
cancers in humans.
A. Arsenic D. THHMMS
B. Copper E. Silica
C. Basalt F. None of the Above
50
330. The EPA set a standard limit or the amount of compound/element/substance in drinking
water to 10 ppb.
A. Arsenic D. Copper
B. Trihalomethanes E. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs)
C. Disinfection F. None of the Above
ICR
331. The EPA has collected data required by the Information Collection Rule (ICR) to support
future regulation of Microbial contaminants, disinfectants, and disinfection byproducts.
A. True B. False
332. The rule is intended to provide EPA with information on chemical byproducts that form
when disinfectants used for microbial control react with chemicals already present in source
water (disinfection byproducts (DBPs)); Disease-causing microorganisms (pathogens),
including Cryptosporidium; and engineering data to control these contaminants.
A. True B. False
Stage 2 DBP Rule Federal Register Notices

333. Which of the following rules is part of the Microbial and Disinfection Byproducts Rules,
which are a set of interrelated regulations that address risks from microbial pathogens and
disinfectants/disinfection byproducts?
A. Groundwater Rule (GWR) D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule
B. Compliance E. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule
C. The Stage 2 DBP rule F. None of the Above
334. Which of the following rules focuses on public health protection by limiting exposure to
DBPs, specifically total trihalomethanes and five haloacetic acids, which can form in water
through disinfectants used to control microbial pathogens?
A. Stage 2 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule
B. DBP exposure E. Traditional disinfection practices
335. This rule will apply to all community water systems and nontransient non-community
water systems that add a primary or residual disinfectant other than ___________or deliver
water that has been disinfected by a primary or residual disinfectant other than UV.
A. Ultraviolet (UV) light D. UV source
B. The open-channel system E. UV radiation
C. UV rather than ozone F. None of the Above
336. Which of the following rules has been highly effective in protecting public health and has
evolved to respond to new and emerging threats to safe drinking water?
A. Stage 2 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule
B. DBP exposure E. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)
337. Which of the following terms is one of the major public health advances in the 20th
century?
A. Major public health advances D. Amendments to the SDWA in 1996
B. The Stage 2 DBPR E. Primary or residual disinfectant
C. Disinfection of drinking water F. None of the Above
51
Microbial Regulations
338. One of the key regulations developed and implemented by the United States
Environmental Protection Agency (USEPA) to counter pathogens in drinking water is the
Surface Water Treatment Rule requires that a public water system, using surface water (or
ground water under the direct influence of surface water) as its source, have sufficient
treatment to reduce the source water concentration of Giardia and viruses by at least 99.9%
and 99.99%, respectively.
A. True B. False
339. Which rule specifies treatment criteria to assure that these performance requirements
are met; they include turbidity limits, disinfectant residual, and disinfectant contact time
conditions?
A. Long Term 1 Rule D. Surface Water Treatment Rule
B. Maximum Contaminant Level Goal E. Interim Enhanced Surface Water
C. Stage 1 Byproducts Rule F. None of the Above
340. Which rule was established to maintain control of pathogens while systems lower
disinfection byproduct levels to comply with the Stage 1 Disinfectants/Disinfection
Byproducts Rule and to control Cryptosporidium?
A. Long Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule
B. Maximum Contaminant Level Goal (MCLG)
C. Stage 1 Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rule
D. Surface Water Treatment Rule
E. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule
341. The EPA established a MCL of 0.0010 for all public water systems and a 99% removal
requirement for Cryptosporidium in filtered public water systems that serve at least 100,000
people. The new rule will tighten turbidity standards by December 2001.
A. True B. False
Chlorine Section
Pathophysiology
342. As far as chlorine safety and respiratory protection, the intermediate ___________of
chlorine accounts for its effect on the upper airway and the lower respiratory tract.
A. Generation of free oxygen radicals D. Water solubility
B. Vapor from Chlorine gas E. The odor threshold for chlorine
C. Effects of Hydrochloric acid F. None of the Above
343. According to the text, respiratory exposure to ____________ may be prolonged

because its moderate water solubility may not cause upper airway symptoms for several
minutes.
A. Hydrochloric acid D. The chemical species produced
B. Chlorine gas E. Plasma exudation
C. The gas F. None of the Above
52
344. Because chlorine gas is so dangerous, the odor threshold for chlorine is
approximately?
A. 1 parts per million (ppm) D. 3-5 parts per million (ppm)
B. 3 parts per million (ppm) E. 0.3-0.5 parts per million (ppm)
C. 10 parts per million (ppm) F. None of the Above
Early Response to Chlorine Gas

345. If you mix ammonia with chlorine gas, this compound reacts to form?.
A. Hypochlorous acid D. Sulfuric acid
B. Chlorine gas E. Chloramine gas
C. Hydrochloric acid F. None of the Above
Immediate Effects
346. Which of the following answers is the best choice for the immediate effects of this
substance’s toxicity include acute inflammation of the conjunctivae, nose, pharynx, larynx,
trachea, and bronchi.
A. Hydrochloric acid D. Sulfuric acid
B. Chlorine gas E. HOCL
C. Hypochlorous gas F. None of the Above
Chemistry of Chlorination
347. The hypochlorite ion is a much weaker disinfecting agent than Hypochlorous acid,
about 100 times less effective.
A. True B. False
348. According to the text, pH and temperature affect the ratio of hypochlorous acid to
hypochlorite ions. As the temperature is decreased, the ___________________increases.
A. Reduction Ratio D. "CT" disinfection concept
B. CT actual E. Ratio of hypochlorous acid
C. Free chlorine residual F. None of the Above
349. Under normal water conditions, hypochlorous acid will also chemically react and break
down into the hypochlorite ion.
A. True B. False
350. Temperature plays a small part in the acid ratio. Although the ratio of
________________is greater at lower temperatures, pathogenic organisms are actually
harder to kill.
A. Hypochlorous acid D. Total chlorine
B. The amount of chlorine E. pH value and temperature
C. Chlorine Demand F. None of the Above
351. If all other things were equal, _________ and a lower pH are more conducive to
chlorine disinfection.
A. Lower pH D. Lower water temperature
B. Hypochlorous acid E. The hypochlorite ion
C. Higher water temperatures F. None of the Above
53
352. The disassociation of chlorine gas
(OCl - ): HOCI H + + OCI – Also expressed HOCI → H + + OCI –
(hypochlorous acid) (hydrogen) (hypochlorite ion)
A. True B. False
Types of Residual
353. Which of the following answers is all chlorine that is available for disinfection?
A. Chlorine residual D. Break-point chlorination
B. Chlorine demand E. Total chlorine
C. Free chlorine F. None of the Above
354. Total chlorine residual = free +____________________________.

A. Chlorine residual D. Combined chlorine residual
B. Chlorine demand E. Total chlorine residual
355. In water, there are always other substances (interfering agents) such as iron,
manganese, turbidity, etc., which will combine chemically with the chlorine, this is called
the?
C. Pathogen reduction F. None of the Above
356. According to the text, once chlorine molecules are combined with these interfering
agents, they are not capable of disinfection. ______________ is much more effective as a
disinfecting agent.
Methods of Control
357. Which of the following shall be automatic proportional controlled, automatic residual
controlled, or compound loop controlled?
A. A chlorine feed system D. Automatic proportional controlled
B. Constant flow rate(s) E. Constant pre-established dosage
C. Uninterrupted chlorination F. None of the Above
358. Which piece of chlorination equipment adjusts the chlorine feed rate automatically in
accordance with the flow changes to provide a constant pre-established dosage for all rates
of flow?
A. Manual chlorine feed systems D. Automatic proportional controlled
B. Constant flow rate(s) E. Constant pre-established dosage
C. Uninterrupted chlorination F. None of the Above
359. Which piece if chlorination equipment, the feed rate of the chlorinator is controlled by a
flow proportional signal and a residual analyzer signal to maintain particular chlorine residual
in the water?
A. Gas vacuum line D. Mechanical gas proportioning equipment
B. Compound loop control system E. After post chlorination
C. Manual chlorine feed systems F. None of the Above
54
Pump, Motor and Hydraulic Section
Common Hydraulic Terms
360. Which of the following definitions is the engineering science pertaining to liquid
pressure and flow?
A. Pressure, Absolute D. Hydrokinetics
B. Pressure E. Pascal's Law
C. Hydraulics F. None of the Above
361. Which of the following definitions is the engineering science pertaining to the energy of
liquid flow and pressure?
362. Which of the following definitions is when the pressure applied to a confined fluid at
rest is transmitted with equal intensity throughout the fluid?
363. Which of the following definitions is the application of continuous force by one body
upon another that it is touching; compression?
364. Which of the following definitions varies with flow, size, type, and conditions of
conductors and fittings, and the fluid characteristics?
A. Head, Friction D. Hydraulics
B. Head, static E. Hydrokinetics
C. Head F. None of the Above
365. Which of the following definitions is the pressure in a fluid at rest?

A. Pressure, Atmospheric D. Pressure, Gauge
B. Pressure, Static E. Pascal's Law
366. Which of the following definitions is the height of a column or body of fluid above a
given point?
A. Head, Friction D. Hydraulics
B. Head, static E. Hydrokinetics
C. Head F. None of the Above
367. Which of the following definitions is the pressure exerted by the atmosphere at any
specific location?
A. Pressure, Atmospheric D. Pressure, Gauge
B. Pressure, Static E. Pascal's Law
55
General Pumping Fundamentals
368. Here are the important points to consider about suction piping when the liquid being
pumped is below the level of the pump: Sometimes suction lift is also referred to as ‘positive
suction head’.
A. True B. False
369. According to the text, suction lift is when the level of water to be pumped is below the?
A. Impeller D. Centerline of the pump
B. Suction E. Bellows
C. Lift water F. None of the Above
370. According to the text, the ability of the pump to lift water is the result of a partial
vacuum created at the?
A. Partial vacuum D. Pressure differential
B. Suction lift E. Negative suction head
C. Center of the pump F. None of the Above
371. The suction side of pipe should be one diameter smaller than the pump inlet.
A. True B. False
372. The required eccentric reducer should be turned so that the top is flat and the bottom
tapered.
A. True B. False
Pumps
373. Pumps are excellent examples of?
A. Hydrostatics D. Multi-stage pumps
B. Quasi-static E. Complicated part
C. Oscillating diaphragm F. None of the Above
374. Pumps are of two general types, __________________ or positive displacement

pumps, and pumps depending on dynamic forces, such as centrifugal pumps.
A. Hydrostatic D. Hydrostatic considerations
B. Quasi-static E. Complicated part
C. Oscillating diaphragm F. None of the Above
375. Positive displacement pumps have a piston (or equivalent) moving in a closely-fitting
cylinder and forces are exerted on the fluid by motion of the piston.
A. True B. False
376. More complicated pumps have valves check valves that open to allow _________, and
close automatically to prevent reverse flow.
A. Pistons D. Passage in one direction
B. Diaphragms E. Lift pumps
C. Discharged fluid F. None of the Above
56
377. There are many kinds of_________________, and can be the most trouble-prone and
complicated part of a pump.
A. Rotors D. Air space
B. Force pumps E. Valves
C. Inlets F. None of the Above
378. According to the text, the force pump has ___________________in the cylinder, one
for supply and the other for delivery.
A. Two check valves D. Cylinders
B. Diaphragms E. Lift pumps
C. Rotors F. None of the Above
379. The supply valve opens when the cylinder_________________, the delivery valve
when the cylinder volume decreases.
A. Rotor D. Air space
B. Force pump E. Volume increases
C. Volume decreases F. None of the Above
380. According to the text, the lift pump has a _________________and a valve in the piston
that allows the liquid to pass around it when the volume of the cylinder is reduced.
A. Supply valve D. Cylinder
B. Diaphragm E. Lift pumps
381. The delivery in this case is from the upper part of the____________________, which
the piston does not enter.
A. Rotor D. Air space
B. Force pump E. Cylinder
C. Volume decreases F. None of the Above
382. Diaphragm pumps are force pumps in which the oscillating diaphragm takes the place
of the piston.
A. True B. False
383. Which of the following terms may be moved mechanically, or by the pressure of the
fluid on one side of the diaphragm?
A. Piston D. Cylinder
B. Diaphragm E. Lift pumps
384. Which of the following terms are typically used for water?
A. Bellows D. Force and lift pumps
B. Force pumps E. Delivery pumps
C. Volume pumps F. None of the Above
57
Pump Categories
385. The key to understanding a pumps operation is that a pump is to move water and
generate the ___________ we call pressure.
A. Centrifugal pump(s) D. Diaphragm pump(s)
B. Impeller blade(s) E. Cylindrical pump housing
C. Delivery force F. None of the Above
386. Pump operation like with a centrifugal pump — pressure is not referred to in pounds
per square inch but rather as the equivalent in elevation, called?
A. Inward force D. Center of the impeller
B. Head E. Incompressible fluid
C. Viscous drag pump F. None of the Above
387. According to the text, pumps may be classified on the basis of the application they
serve.
A. True B. False
388. According to the text, all pumps may be divided into two major categories: (1) dynamic
and (2)?
A. Centrifugal D. Diaphragm
B. Impeller E. Rotary
C. Displacement F. None of the Above
Basic Water Pump

389. According to the text, the centrifugal pumps work by spinning water around in a circle
inside a?
A. Vortex D. Center of the impeller
B. Cylinder E. Cylindrical pump housing
C. Viscous drag pump F. None of the Above
390. The pump makes the water spin by pulling it with an impeller.
A. True B. False
391. The blades of this impeller project inward from an axle like the arms of a turnstile and,
as the impeller spins, the water moves through it.
A. True B. False
392. In a centrifugal pump, the water pressure at the edge of the turning impeller rises until
it is able to keep water circling with the?
C. Bernoulli's equation F. None of the Above
393. In a centrifugal pump, as water drifts outward between the ________________ of the
pump, it must move faster and faster because its circular path is getting larger and larger.
C. Bernoulli's equation F. None of the Above
58
Types of Water Pumps
394. Impellers are rotated by the pump motor, which provides the ______________ needed
to overcome the pumping head.
A. Spider bearing(s) D. Turbine pump(s)
B. Horsepower E. Desired pumping rate
C. Impeller(s) F. None of the Above
395. The size and number of stages, horsepower of the motor and _____________are the
key components relating to the pump’s lifting capacity.
A. Pumping head D. Single or multiple bowls
B. Drive shaft E. Pump’s lifting capacity
C. Column pipe F. None of the Above
396. Which of the following terms are variable displacement pumps that are by far used the
most?
A. Axial flow D. Turbine pump(s)
B. Submersible E. Centrifugal pumps
C. Rotary pump F. None of the Above
397. According to the text, the turbine pump utilizes impellers enclosed in single or multiple
bowls or stages to?
A. Lift water D. Single or multiple bowls
B. Drive shaft E. Pump’s lifting capacity
C. Column pipe F. None of the Above
What is Backflow? Reverse flow condition

398. Backflow is the undesirable reversal of flow of nonpotable water or other substances
through a ____________________and into the piping of a public water system or
consumer’s potable water system.
A. Backflow D. Cross-connection
B. Backpressure E. Indirect connection
C. Backsiphonage F. None of the Above
399. Which of the following terms can occur when there is a stoppage of water supply due
to nearby firefighting, a break in a water main?
400. Which of the following terms is a form of backflow caused by a downstream pressure
that is greater than the upstream or supply pressure in a public water system or consumer’s
potable water system?
59

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Flocculation and Coagulation Course $200.00

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Water Treatment Terms

Flights and Chains

21. Which of the following terms lasts about 5 to 10 minutes?

Direct Filtration Plant vs. Conventional Plant

Rapid Sand Filtration

28. Rapid Sand filtration process employs a combination of ________________________in

41. Liquid ________________is a 48.86% solution.

Declining Rate Filters

65. Declining Rate Filters system requires _________________________ to provide

68. Chlorine is added again after filtration for?

Taste and Odor Control

Chemical Feed and Rapid Mix

94. Tube-settler type of package plant, the Sedimentation/clarification process is followed by

EPA Filter Backwash Rule

101. According to the text, conventional and ________________________must comply with

The Filtration Process

107. Filtration primarily depends on a ___________________________________, the most

Rapid Sand Filters

Diatomaceous Earth Filter

High Rate Filters

Pressure Sand Filters

Loss of Head Indicator

173. Proper backwashing is a very important step in the operation of a filter.

Disposal of Filter Backwash Water

Chemical Treatment before the Filter

Control of Filter Flow Rate

Hard Water Section

Occurrence of Hard Water

Membrane Filtration Processes

Description of Membrane Filtration Processes

Microfiltration Specific Process

Reverse Osmosis Process Section

244. This compound is a light blue gas at room temperature.

253. Above the water table lies the?

256. Limestone is often located in which of the following terms?

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