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IBPS PO 2019: Free E-Book


Table of Content
I. Introduction
II. IBPS PO Exam Details
A. IBPS PO 2019 - List of Important Dates
B. IBPS PO Selection Procedure
III. IBPS PO Section wise Syllabus & Strategies
IV. IBPS PO: Basic Information
A. IBPS PO Job Profile
B. IBPS PO Salary Structure
C. IBPS PO - Career Growth Opportunities
V. IBPS PO Previous Year Cutoff (Prelims as well as Mains)
A. IBPS PO Preliminary Exam 2018 Cutoff
B. IBPS PO Mains Exam 2018 Cutoff
C. IBPS PO 2018 Final Cutoff
VI. How to crack IBPS PO Exam 2019 in first attempt
VII. IBPS PO Preparation Strategy & Study Plan
VIII. Important PDFs Links for IBPS PO Preparation
IX. Other important stuff for IBPS PO preparation
X. How Gradeup is helping you prepare for IBPS PO 2019
XI. IBPS PO Free Mock Test (English/ Hindi)

I. Introduction
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection has released the official notification for the post
of Probationary Officers in various public sector banks of the country. IBPS PO 2019
Recruitment drive will be conducted for the below mentioned organisations:

Allahabad Bank Central Bank of India Oriental Bank of Commerce Bank of Baroda

Canara Bank Indian Overseas Bank Union Bank of India Bank of India

Indian Bank Corporation Bank Bank of Maharashtra UCO Bank

Syndicate Bank Punjab & Sind Bank Punjab National Bank United Bank of
India

Andhra Bank

The total number of vacancies released under IBPS PO Recruitment is 4336. The vacancies
are less which means the competition and the level of exam is bound to rise.

We assist you all with your IBPS PO Preparation, we have shared this free E-book, where
you will find all the relevant information for this exam in a single place. We have also
shared 1 free mock test in Hindi as well as English for the upcoming IBPS Exam based on
latest pattern.
Happy Reading!!

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II. IBPS PO Exam Details


A. IBPS PO 2019 - List of Important Dates

Date of download of Admit Card-


4 October 2019
Preliminary Exam

12/10/2019, 13/10/2019, 19/10/2019


5 IBPS PO Prelims Exam
& 20/10/2019

6 Result of IBPS PO Prelims October/ November 2019

Date of download of Admit Card-


November 2019
Main Exam

7 IBPS PO Main Exam Date 30.11.2019

8 Declaration of Main Exam Result December 2019

Download of Call Letters for


9 January 2020
Interview

10 Conduct of Interview January/ February 2020

11 Provisional Allotment April 2020

B. IBPS PO – Selection Procedure


IBPS PO exam will be conducted in 3 stages: Prelims, Mains & Interview. To know the
selection process in detail, you can check in the post. You will also know about the
weightage of each stage in final marks calculation.
III. IBPS PO - Exam Pattern and Detailed Syllabus
The pattern of IBPS Exam has changed from this year onwards. It is expected that IBPS
will follow the pattern similar to SBI PO for the prelims and mains exam from this year. To
know more about the new exam pattern & detailed syllabus of IBPS PO 2019 you
can check out our post. We have also shared the question/ marks wise weightage of each
topic of different section for the Prelims and Mains exam in this post.
Check here detailed syllabus of IBPS PO Quantitative Aptitude
Check here detailed syllabus of IBPS PO Reasoning Ability
Check here detailed syllabus of IBPS PO English Language
IV. IBPS PO: Basic Information
A. IBPS PO Job Profile
Before you apply for any exam, it is essential that you have a clear idea of the type of
tasks that you would need to undertake after selection. Job Profile of IBPS PO will help
you understand the type of work you can expect in the banks, once you are selected. This
ranges from common retail banking to loans & advances, For more details, check out our
post on Job Profile of IBPS PO here!
B. IBPS PO Salary Structure
The basic salary of an IBPS PO is Rs. 23700/-. Apart from this, Probationary officers
selected under IBPS are entitled to several other emoluments including an annual
increment, dearness allowance, special allowance, city compensatory allowance, house
rent allowance etc. For more details, go through the Salary structure of IBPS PO here.
We are sharing the screenshot of salary for your reference.

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C. IBPS PO - Career Growth Opportunities


The career progression after selection as IBPS PO is followed as mentioned below-
1. Junior Management Grade – Scale I: Officer i.e. PO
2. Middle Management Grade – Scale II: Manager
3. Middle Management Grade – Scale III: Senior Manager
4. Senior Management Grade – Scale IV: Chief Manager
5. Senior Management Grade Scale V: Assistant General Manager
6. Top Management Grade Scale VI: Deputy General Manager
7. Top Management Grade Scale VII: General Manager
8. Executive Director (ED)
9. Chairman and Managing Director (CMD)

V. IBPS PO Previous Year Cutoff (Prelims as well as Mains)


It is essential that you have a clear understanding of the previous year cut off of IBPS
PO exam. This will help you set your minimum attempt targets in the exam and help you
score better.

(A) Check out the IBPS PO previous year cut off from prelims exam below-

S. No. Subjects Max. SC/ST/PWD/ General


Marks OBC

1. Reasoning Ability 35 5.25 9.0

2. Quantitative Aptitude 35 04.75 07.75

3. English Language 30 5.50 8.75

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Overall Prelims Cut off –

S. No. Category Cut off Marks (Out of 100)

1. General 56.75

2. OBC 55.50

3. SC 49.25

4. ST 41.75

5. OC 42.75

6. VI 38.75

7. HI 16.50

8. ID 17.00

(B) IBPS PO Main Section Wise Cutoff 2018


Cut-off Marks
S. Maximum
Name of the Section
No. Marks SC/ ST/ OBC/
General
PWD
Reasoning Ability &
1. 60 7.50 10.25
Computer Aptitude
General/ Economy/ Banking
2. 40 5.00 8.00
Objective Awareness
Test
3. English Language 40 7.50 11.25

Data Analysis &


4. 60 2.25 4.50
Interpretation
Descriptive
5. English Language 25 8.75 10.00
Test

IBPS PO Main Overall Cutoff 2018


Name of the Category Total Cut-off Score (Out of 225)
General 74.50
OBC 68.38
SC 56.38
ST 35.75
HI (Hearing Impaired) 42.63
OC (Orthopedically Challenged) 53.25
VI (Visually Impaired) 66.88
ID (Intellectual Disability) 37.00

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(C) IBPS PO Final Cutoff 2018


With the announcement of IBPS PO/MT-VIII Final Result, IBPS PO Cutoff has also been
released. We have shared here category-wise final cutoff in below table :

Category SC ST OBC UR HI OC VI ID
Maximum
55.34 47.33 53.02 63.91 34.69 50.69 56.11 43.69
Scores
Minimum
35.78 31.60 40.29 43.87 25.16 31.36 42.09 20.36
Scores

We are here sharing the screenshot of result of both Prelims and Main exam.

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Check out our post of, Previous year cut off of IBPS PO Exam(2018,2017 & 2016)
here.
VI. Strategy to crack IBPS PO Exam 2019
If your basic approach is clear and you manage your time smartly, you can easily get
through this exam. We shared an article with important tips to clear IBPS PO exam in
first attempt. We request you to go through the tips shared in this post. It will definitely
help you improve your exam score and manage the remaining days before exam
efficiently.
Check here section wise strategies & tips:
 Ultimate Strategy to prepare Quantitative Aptitude for IBPS PO 2019
 Ultimate Strategy to Increase Reasoning Score for IBPS PO 2019
 Ultimate Strategy to increase English Score for IBPS PO 2019
VII. IBPS PO Preparation Strategy & Study Plan
To help you out with your exam preparation we are providing you all a concise study
plan which you should follow regularly in order to boost your score in the exam.
 IBPS PO 2019 Study Plan & Preparation Strategy, Check now!
VIII. Important PDFs Links for IBPS PO Preparation
You must practice a lot of questions to increase your speed as well as accuracy. Here we
are giving important links of PDFs of previous year and different topics of all three
subjects i.e., Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning & English.
 50 Data Interpretation Questions for IBPS PO 2018, Download PDF!
 How to Prepare for IBPS PO 2019 while Working (doing a full-time job)
 Important Syllogism and Direction Sense Questions, Download PDF!
 Important 50 Number Series Questions PDF
 IBPS PO: All types of Fill in the Blanks Questions, Download PDF!
 50 Important Puzzle & Seating Arrangement Questions: Download PDF

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 50 Important Number Series questions, download PDF!


 Puzzle & Seating Arrangement 60 Important Questions PDF
IX. Other important stuff for IBPS PO preparation
 How to crack IBPS PO Exam 2019, Important strategy &Tips!
 IBPS PO Previous Years' Trend (2018, 2017, 2016, 2015)
 Major takeaways from SBI PO to clear IBPS PO Exam 2019
 How to Prepare for IBPS PO 2019 Exam (60 Days Study Plan)

X. How Gradeup is helping you prepare for IBPS PO 2019?


Read this article to know the role and efforts made by Gradeup to help you complete
your dream of becoming PO in a PSU bank.

XI. IBPS PO Free Mock Test (English/ Hindi)


Mock tests are the best way to judge your exam preparation. They help you prepare for
the exam in a proper simulated environment with similar interface as that of actual exam.
This helps you manage your time properly and you can also overcome your exam phobia
this way.
We have shared a free mock test for the upcoming IBPS PO 2019, based on latest exam
pattern.

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Direction (1 – 5): Study the 6. If all the digits are rearranged within
following information carefully and a number in the decreasing order,
answer the given questions: which of the following numbers will
5 cars – A, B, C, D and E are parked be the second lowest?
in a straight line at a distance of 7m A. 183 B. 781
from each other. C. 439 D. 639
Only 2 cars are parked between A E. None of these
and E, which is not parked adjacent 7. What is the difference between the
to car D. Only 1 car is parked second largest and the third smallest
between car D and car B. Car D is number?
parked exactly in the middle. Car C A. 182 B. 214
moves 5m north, turns left and C. 310 D. 189
moves for 10m and stops at point J. E. None of these
Car A moves 5m south and turns left 8. If all the even digits within a number
and moves for another 7m and stops are replaced by 7, what will be the
at point S in such a way that point S sum of the digits of the lowest
is to the southeast of both point J and number (digits are added until you
car B. get a single digit number)?
1. What was the distance between car B A. 1 B. 2
and car C, before car C moved to C. 3 D. 4
point J? E. more than 4
A. 7m B. 14m
C. 21m D. 28m Direction (9 – 13): Study the
E. can not be determined following information carefully and
2. How many cars are parked between answer the given questions:
car B and the car which is second to 9 persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and
the left of E? I are sitting in a row. Some are facing
A. none B. 1 north and some are facing south. Not
C. 2 D. 3 more than 2 persons are sitting
E. can not be determined together face the same direction.
3. In which direction is car E with G sits at one of the extreme ends.
respect to point J? Both the persons sitting at the
A. South B. Southwest extreme ends face south. Only 3
C. Northwest D. Southeast persons sit between G and H, who
E. Southwest sits third to the right of A. B faces the
4. What is the shortest distance same direction as that of G. I sits
between point S and car B? third to right of F and both of them
A. 14m B. 19m face the opposite direction. E is not
an immediate neighbor of I. Only 2
C. D. persons sit between C and D. Either
E. None of these C or D sits at the extreme end and
5. In which direction is point S with both face the opposite direction to
respect to car D and what is the each other. B sits third to the right of
distance between them? H but he is not an immediate
A. 5m, north neighbor of G.
B. 5m, south 9. How many persons sit between I and
C. 7m, southwest A?
D. 7m, northwest A. None B. 1
E. None of these C. 2 D. 3
E. More than 3
Direction (6 – 8) : On the basis of 10. If G is related to E, and H is related
numbers given below, answer the to I. In the same way, A is related
following questions: to___
653 639 439 781 471 183

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A. B B. D the week starting from Monday along


C. F D. C with their wives- T, U, V, W, X, Y and
E. Cannot be determined Z. They also take their children (if
11. Who sits to the immediate right of B? any) to market along with them. The
A. C B. E order of persons, their wives and the
C. I D. D number of children are not
E. Cannot be determined necessarily in the same order.
12. Which one of the following does not A visits the market on Friday with his
belong to the group? wife, Z. B is not the husband of U or
A. H B. F Y. F visits the market with U and his
C. B D. E only daughter but not on Tuesday. D
E. G visits the market on Monday with his
13. What is the position of I with respect son and wife. Both E and A do not
to H? have kids. D is not the husband of V
A. Immediate left or Y. C visits the market with his wife,
B. Immediate right W and daughter on Wednesday. B
C. Second to the left visits the market on next day of G
D. Second to the right who visits with his wife, T and 2 kids.
E. Third to the left V is the mother of 2 children.
16. How many children does B have?
Direction (14 – 15): In each of the A. None B. 1
following questions, assuming the C. 2
given statements to be true, find out D. Cannot be determined
which of the following conclusions E. More than 2
given below is/are definitely true. 17. Who visits the market on Saturday?
14. Statements: A. X B. Y
H ≥ G ≥ B ≤ D; I ≥ J ≥ G = K C. Z D. T
Conclusions: E. None of these
a) K > H 18. If Y is related to Wednesday, Z is
b) K ≥ B related to Saturday. In the same
A. only conclusion a) is true. way, T is related to ___
B. only conclusion b) is true. A. Monday B. Tuesday
C. either conclusion a) or b) is true. C. Thursday D. Friday
D. neither conclusion a) nor b) is E. Sunday
true. 19. Who is the wife of B?
E. both conclusions a) and b) are A. X B. Y
true. C. V D. Z
15. Statements: E. None of these
2 ≥ 1 ≥ 8 = 4; 6 ≥ 5 ≥ 3 = 1 20. How many children does Y have?
Conclusions: A. None B. 1
a) 3 = 4 C. 2
b) 4 < 1 D. Can not be determined
A. only conclusion a) is true. E. None of these
B. only conclusion b) is true.
C. either conclusion a) or b) is true. Direction (21 – 23): Study the
D. neither conclusion a) nor b) is following information carefully and
true. answer the given questions:
E. both conclusions a) and b) are In a certain code language
true. ‘use the soft water’ is written as ’39
66 78 24’.
Direction: Study the following ‘water is colorless medium’ is written
information carefully and answer the as ’47 39 21 19’.
given questions: ‘The earth is heavy’ is written as ’21
Seven persons- A, B, C, D, E, F and 36 45 24’.
G go to a market on different days of

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21. Which of the following is the code for A. Barun B. Gazal


‘water’? C. Aman D. Fatima
A. 66 B. 39 E. Cannot be determined
C. 78 D. 47 26. There is a gap of how many floors
E. 19 between Charles and the person born
22. What does ‘45’ stands for? in Maharashtra?
A. the B. heavy A. None B. 1
C. earth D. colorless C. 2 D. 3
E. Cannot be determined E. More than 3
23. In the given code language, what 27. If Barun is related to Haryana and
may be the possible code for ‘the Charles is related to Himachal
colorless box? Pradesh. In the same way, Ena is
A. 19, 24, 47 B. 19, 79, 39 related to ____
C. 74, 19, 24 D. 36, 19, 24 A. Maharashtra
E. 47, 24, 21 B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Delhi
Direction (24 – 28) : Study the D. Uttar Pradesh
following information carefully and E. Punjab
answer the given questions: 28. Who lives 2 floors above Dexit?
Seven people – Aman, Barun, A. Person born in Haryana
Charles, Dexit, Ena, Fatima and B. Person born in Madhya Pradesh
Gazal live on different floors of a C. Gazal
building, the bottom floor is D. Ena
numbered 1 and the floor above it is E. Person born in Punjab
numbered 2 and so on until the
topmost floor is numbered 7, They Direction: The question consists of
were born in 7 different states/UTs- three statements followed by two
Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, conclusions numbered I and II.
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Consider the statements to be true
Punjab and Uttar Pradesh but not even if they are in variance with the
necessarily in the same order. commonly known facts. Read all the
Gazal lives on an odd numbered floor conclusions and decide which of the
but does not live on the topmost given conclusions logically follow
floor. Ena belongs to Himachal from the given statements and
Pradesh. Only 1 person lives between accordingly mark your answer.
Barun and the person born in 29. Statements:
Maharashtra. Barun was not born in Some even are odd.
Punjab. 3 people live between Fatima Some numbers are digit.
and Ena. Fatima lives on an even Some even are not number.
numbered floor but she belongs to Conclusions:
neither Punjab nor Madhya Pradesh. I. No digit is even.
Ena lives below Gazal. Dexit was born II. All even are digit.
in Delhi and he lives immediately A. only conclusion I follows
above Charles, who was born in Uttar B. only conclusion II follows
Pradesh. The one who belongs to C. neither I nor II follows
Punjab lives below Gazal. D. either I or II follows
24. Who lives on the ground floor? E. both I and II follows
A. Aman B. Ena
C. Charles D. Barun Direction: The question consists of
E. The person who was born in three statements followed by two
Madhya Pradesh conclusions numbered I and II.
25. Who among the following was born in Consider the statements to be true
Madhya Pradesh? even if they are in variance with the
commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and decide which of the

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given conclusions logically follow possible combinations which could be


from the given statements and sufficient for answering the question.
accordingly mark your answer. 34. How is B related to A?
30. Statements: I. E is the father of C, who is the uncle
Some cats are bat. of B. A is married to E
Some bats are ant. II. A is the mother of C. D is married
Only cat are dog. to E. B is the daughter of D. E is the
Conclusions: brother of C
I. Some bat which are cat are also III. A is married to E, who is the
part of dog. father of D. C is the uncle of B
II. No dog is ant. A. Either I, II or III
A. only conclusion I follows B. Both I and III
B. only conclusion II follows C. Only II is sufficient
C. neither I nor II follows D. Only I is sufficient
D. either I or II follows E. None are sufficient
E. both I and II follows 35. Among A, B, C, D and E , Who is the
heaviest?
Direction (31 – 35): Study the I. Only one person is heavier than B.
following information carefully and II. C is heavier than D but lighter
answer the given questions: than B. D is the second lighest.
8 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H III. B is heavier than atleast 3
are sitting around a circular table persons. E is not the heaviest.
facing towards the centre. G sits A. Both I and II
second to F, who sits to the B. Both III and II
immediate right of B. H sits second to C. Only II is sufficient
C, who is not an immediate neighbor D. Only I is sufficient
of D. E sits second to D, who sits 3 E. All I, II and III are necessary
places away from F. A faces D.
31. How many persons sit between B and Direction: What should come in
E, when counted in the clockwise place of the question mark '?' in the
direction from E? following number series?
A. None B. 1 36. 101, 112, 90, ?, 79, 90
C. 2 D. 3 A. 101 B. 124
E. More than 3 C. 221 D. 82
32. Who sits to the immediate left of the E. 81
one who faces B?
A. E B. C Direction: What should come in
C. G D. H place of the question mark '?' in the
E. None of these following number series?
33. What is the position of A with respect 37. 10, 17, 27, ?, 64
to H? A. 32 B. 52
A. Immediate right C. 42 D. 47
B. Immediate left E. 35
C. Second to the left 38. 2, ?, 30, 41 , 50
D. Second to the right A. 17 B. 7
E. None of these C. 15 D. 18
E. 21
Direction (34 – 35) : Each of the 39. ?, 7, 8, 13, 27, 68.5
following questions consists of a A. 2 B. 3
question followed by three C. 5 D. 12
statements I, II and III. You have to E. 10
decide whether the data given in the 40. 1, ?, -1, -3, -8, -22.5
statement(s) is/are sufficient for A. -0.5 B. 0.5
answering the question. Read all the C. -.25 D. .25
statements carefully and seek all the E. 0

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Direction: What approximate Directions (46 – 50) ∶ Study the


value will come in place of the data given below and answer the
question mark (?) in the following following questions. The radar graph
question? (You are not expected to shown below shows the number of
calculate the exact value) days to be taken by different workers
41. 33.0003% of 509.999 + (838 ÷ A, B, C and D to complete a particular
14.95) × 17.85 + 8847256 ÷ 4446 = task individually and amount of
? wages to be earned by them per day
A. 2956 B. 3105 when they work.
C. 3166 D. 4106
E. 4140

Direction: What approximate


value will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following
question? (You are not expected to
calculate the exact value)
42. 199.99 ÷ 4.99 × 499.99 ÷ 100.01 ÷
5.002 = ?
A. 25 B. 32
C. 40 D. 20
E. 35

Direction: What approximate


value will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following
question? (You are not expected to
calculate the exact value)
43. [-25.1 × 21.2 × (-11.95)] ÷ ? =
158.13
A. 40 B. 15
C. 18 D. 250 46. If A, B, C and D work for alternate
E. 300 days i.e. A for 1st day, B for 2nd day,
C for 3rdday and D for 4th day. In how
Direction: What approximate many days the task will get
value will come in place of the complete?
question mark (?) in the following A. 3 days 12 hours
question? (You are not expected to B. 3 days 18 hours
calculate the exact value) C. 12 days 6 hours
44. 2.5% of 3451×0.8% of 7799.998 = ? D. 12 days 18 hours
A. 6642 B. 5382 E. None of these
C. 5035 D. 4562 47. B and C do the work together for 2
E. 4380 days. Then, C left but D joined and B
and D continue the work for 2 more
Direction: What approximate days. Then, B left and D alone
value will come in place of the continue the work for more 2 days.
question mark (?) in the following Then, D left and remaining work is
question? (You are not expected to completed by C alone. Calculate the
calculate the exact value) amount to be received by C.
A. Rs. 420 B. Rs. 280
45. C. Rs. 160 D. Rs. 200
A. 200 B. 250 E. Rs. 350
C. 300 D. 220 48. Which worker is the most expensive?
E. 325

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A. A B. B cost + transportation cost = total


C. D D. C cost)
E. A and C both A. 31.25 B. 12.50
49. A and B take time in the ratio of 1 : C. 25 D. 40
2 to complete the half the work. What E. None of these
part of the total work is done by each 54. A and B working alone can complete
individually? a work in 24 and 48 days
A. 1/8; 2/8 B. 1/8; 3/8 respectively. If 50% of the work is
C. 3/8; ¾ D. 1/3; 2/3 completed by C in 3x days and the
E. None of these remaining work is completed by A
50. D receives Rs. 165 for the work done and B working together in ‘x’ days,
by him. Work done by C is 2/3 of the then find the time taken by B and C
work done by B, Work done by B is together to complete the work.
1/3 of the work done by D and A. 16 days B. 24 days
remaining work is done by A to finish C. 20 days D. 18 days
it. Calculate the wages received by A E. None of these
and the ratio of wages of B and C. 55. Rs. 782 is divided into 3 parts in the
A. Rs. 385; 4 ∶ 7 ratio (1/2) : (2/3) : (3/4) and the
B. Rs. 380; 3 ∶ 4 first part is further divided into 2
C. Rs. 380; 4 ∶ 3 parts in the ratio of 1 : 2. Then find
D. Rs. 385; 7 ∶ 4 the difference between the 2 parts,
E. Rs. 385; 3 ∶ 4 which are obtained when the first
51. A shopkeeper sells two pens for Rs. part is further sub-divided.
38. The selling price of the first is A. Rs. 68 B. Rs. 34
equal to the cost price of the second C. Rs. 56 D. Rs. 48
. If the first is sold at 25 % gain and E. None of these
the second at 10 % loss, what is his
total gain or loss (in rupees)? Direction (56 – 60) : Pie chart
A. 2 B. 5 shows the percentage of initial
C. 1 D. 3 capitals invested by four persons P,
E. None of these Q, R and S in two different businesses
52. Two vessels contain an equal amount A and B. It is not necessary that all
of mixture of Hydrogen and Helium in the four persons are involved in
the ratio 4 : 1 and 3 : 1 respectively. every business. Percentage of their
25% of mixture from first vessel is initial capitals are given in the pie
taken out and put into the second charts.
vessel, then same amount of mixture Given the total amount invested by
is taken out from second vessel and all four persons in business A is Rs.
put into the first vessel. What is the 60250
ratio of Hydrogen to Helium in the Given the total amount invested by
first vessel finally? all four persons in business B is Rs.
A. 79 : 21 B. 77 : 23 85500
C. 69 : 31 D. 73 : 27
E. None of these
53. In 2016, the transportation cost of an
item is 37.5% of its manufacturing
cost. From 2016 to 2018, the
manufacturing cost of the item has
gone up by 50%. The transportation
cost in 2018 is 33.33% of the
manufacturing cost in 2018. By what
percentage should the total cost in
2018 be reduced so as to bring it
back to 2016 level? (manufacturing

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years from the start of the business,


person S adds Rs. 29000 more to his
capital. At the end of 10 years, ratio
of their respective shares is 6: 7: 5:
8, then what is the difference
between ‘x’ and ‘y’?
A. Rs. 6000 B. Rs. 7500
C. Rs. 8000 D. Rs. 5000
E. None of these
59. What percentage of the initial
amount by the difference of P and S
in business C to that of the initial
amount invested by Q and R together
Amount invested by P, Q, R and S in in business A?
business C are Rs. 9000, Rs. 14000, A. 15 B. 16
Rs. 8500 and Rs. 15000 respectively. C. 17 D. 18
Total profit amount from all the three E. 19
businesses together = Rs.170400. 60. Persons Q and S start business A and
Total profit amount from the business after 3 years from the start of the
B is 57.5% more than the total profit business, Q withdraws 25% of his
amount from the business A and total capital and after 3 more years he
profit amount from business C is adds 50% of his capital at that time.
97.5% of total profit amount from the While, persons P and S start another
business A. business and after 4 years from the
56. Find the difference between the start of the business, S adds Rs.
average amount invested by P, Q, R 21000 to his capital. Businesses A
and S in businesses A and B, if each and B will close after 8 years and ‘T’
of them invested their capital initially years respectively. If profit amount
in the business. received by S from business B is Rs.
A. 6312.5 B. 6000.5 19800 more than the profit amount
C. 6250.5 D. 6300.5 received by him from business A,
E. None of these then what is the value of T?
57. Person Q and R enter into business B A. 5 B. 6
and C together. Business B and C will C. 8 D. 7
end after 6 years and 10 years E. None of these
respectively and both the business
start simultaneously. At the end of 3 Direction: Each question below is
years, Q withdraws 25% of his initial followed by two statements I and II.
capital from business B and after 1 You have to determine whether the
year from the end of business B data given in the statement is
person R adds Rs. 5000 to his initial sufficient for answer the question.
capital in businesses C. What is the You should use the data and your
difference between profit share of Q knowledge of Mathematics to choose
and R from both the business the best possible answer.
together? 61. Find the two digit number.
A. Rs. 1440 B. Rs. 1650 (1) The ratio between the two-digit
C. Rs. 1780 D. Rs. 1920 number and the sum of the digit of
E. None of these that number is 5 : 2
58. Person P, Q, R and S start the (2) The digit in ten’s place is 4 less
business C together with initial than the digit in unit place
capital given in pie chart. At the end A. Statement I Alone is sufficient, but
of 4 years, S withdraws Rs. 8000 statement II alone is not sufficient to
from his capital and after 3 more answer the question asked
years persons P and R add ‘x’ and ‘y’ B. Statement II Alone is sufficient,
more to their capital. At the end of 8 but statement I alone is not sufficient

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to answer the question asked (but not both), what percent of the
C. Both statements I and II Together males voted for brand Y?
are sufficient to answer the question 1) Forty percent of the females polled
asked, but Neither statement Alone is voted for brand X.
sufficient 2) Sixty-five percent of the males
D. Each statement Alone is sufficient voted for brand X.
to answer the question asked A. Statement (1) Alone is sufficient,
E. Statements I and II Together are but statement (2) alone is not
NOT sufficient to answer the question sufficient to answer the question
asked, and additional data are asked
needed B. Statement (2) Alone is sufficient,
but statement (1) alone is not
Direction: Each question below is sufficient to answer the question
followed by two statements I and II. asked
You have to determine whether the C. Both statements (1) and (2)
data given in the statement is Together are sufficient to answer the
sufficient to answer the question. You question asked, but Neither
should use the data and your statement Alone is sufficient
knowledge of Mathematics to choose D. Each statement Alone is sufficient
the best possible answer. to answer the question asked
62. How many days will 8 men and 6 E. Statements (1) and (2) Together
women take to complete the work? are NOT sufficient to answer the
I. 15 men and 6 women undertake to question asked, and additional data
complete the work in 3 days. are needed
II. 10 men finish the work in 10 days,
whereas 12 women to finish the work Direction: Each question below is
in 10 days. followed by two statements I and II.
A. Statement I alone is sufficient, but You have to determine whether the
statement II alone is not sufficient to data given in the statement is
answer the question asked sufficient for answering the question.
B. Statement II alone is sufficient, You should use the data and your
but statement I alone is not sufficient knowledge of Mathematics to choose
to answer the question asked the best possible answer.
C. Both statements I and II together 64. A stenographer is tasked with typing
are sufficient to answer the question a certain letter. How many words are
asked, but neither statement alone is there in the letter?
sufficient 1) It will take two minutes less time
D. Each statement alone is sufficient to type the letter at an average speed
to answer the question asked of 80 words per minute than at an
E. Statements I and II together are average speed of 60 words per
NOT sufficient to answer the question minute.
asked, and additional data are 2) It will take 6 minutes to type the
needed first half of the letter at an average
speed of 40 words per minute.
Direction: Each question below is A. Statement I alone is sufficient, but
followed by two statements I and II. statement II alone is not sufficient to
You have to determine whether the answer the question asked
data given in the statement is B. Statement II alone is sufficient,
sufficient to answer the question. You but statement I alone is not sufficient
should use the data and your to answer the question asked
knowledge of Mathematics to choose C. Both statements I and II together
the best possible answer. are sufficient to answer the question
63. In a taste test conducted for coffee asked, but Neither statement alone is
brands X and Y, if each of the 1,600 sufficient
people polled voted for either X or Y D. Each statement alone is sufficient

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to answer the question asked men and which is equal to the


E. Statements (1) and (2) together number good women.
are NOT sufficient to answer the 4) 20% of total labors were excellent
question asked, and additional data boy.
are needed 5) Number of good women, good boy
and good men were equal.
Direction: Each question below is 66. If 4 good men or 6 good women do a
followed by two statements I and II. work in 15 days. How many days
You have to determine whether the required to finish the same work by
data given in the statement is 10 good women?
sufficient for answering the question. A. 2 B. 9
You should use the data and your C. 6 D. 5
knowledge of Mathematics to choose E. 8
the best possible answer. 67. What is the sum of the number of
65. Base of a triangle is 8 cm and the total labors, who are good men and
other side is 6 cm, then what is the good boys?
area of the triangle? A. 10 B. 20
I. One of the altitude is 5 cm C. 22 D. 48
II. Median to the base is 5.5 cm E. 58
A. The question can be answered by 68. Among average labors, what is the
using statement I alone but cannot ratio of number of males to number
be answered using the other of females?
statement alone. A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1
B. The question can be answered by C. 6 : 1 D. 1 : 6
using statement II alone but cannot E. 4 : 5
be answered using the other 69. If 4 excellent labors, who are men or
statement alone. 6 excellent labors, who are women or
C. The question can be answered by 9 excellent labors, who are boys can
using either of the statement alone. complete a work in 480 days. How
D. The question can be answered many days required to finish the
using both of the statements same work by all the excellent labors
together, but cannot be answered together?
using either of the statement alone. A. 27 B. 36
E. The question cannot be answered C. 25 D. 34
even by using both the statements E. None of these
together. 70. What is the ratio between the
number of boys labors, who are
Direction (66 – 70) : A contractor average to the number of men
kept data of all men, women and the labors?
boys labors tabulated by their A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1
performances. The data was kept on C. 6 : 1 D. 1 : 6
a computer disk, but unfortunately E. 5 : 6
some of it was lost because of a virus.
Only the following could be Direction: In the following question,
recovered: a word is given, which has been used
in the three statements given below
it. Identify the statement(s) in which
the word fits contextually to convey a
logical meaning.
An expert committee was formed, 71. Hoarse
which decided that the following facts 1) He warned her that if she keeps
were self-evident: shouting all the time, she would
1) Half the labors were excellent. make a hoarse of herself.
2) 20% of the labors were women. 2) “Your attitude towards the job is
3) 5% of the total labor were average absolutely ridiculous and hoarse.

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You would lose it like that”, she said. the word fits contextually to convey a
3) The little boy could not convey his logical meaning.
message to the elders due to the 74. Utter
hoarseness of his voice. 1) It was utter pleasure to lie down
A. Only 2 in the Jacuzzi.
B. Only 3 2) She was in absolute utter of the
C. Both 1 and 2 fact that the entire village was going
D. Both 2 and 3 to be drowned.
E. All 1, 2 and 3 3) The manager sat in the meeting till
the end without uttering a single
Direction: In the following question, word.
a word is given, which has been used A. Only 1 B. Only 2
in the three statements given below C. Only 3 D. Both 1 and 2
it. Identify the statement(s) in which E. Both 1 and 3
the word fits contextually to convey a
logical meaning. Direction: In this question, two
72. Urn columns I and II and three
1) Since he died, his widow urns to sentences are given, which are
get one glimpse of him. divided into two parts. Column I (A,
2) The decoration on the lid and the B and C) consists of first half of each
carving at the edges made the urn sentence and Column II (D, E and
look like a precious antique. F) consists of second half of each
3) It has been extremely sentence. Match column I with
embarrassing for her to let everyone column II, so that the sentences
know her urn to steal things. formed are both meaningful and
A. Only 3 grammatically correct. Choose the
B. Both 1 and 2 option as your answer.
C. Both 2 and 3 75. I
D. Only 2 A) They could not provide the police
E. All 1, 2 and 3 with any evidence to prove their
innocence,
Direction: In the following question, B) Vaporizers do not just waft lovely
a word is given, which has been used aromas,
in the three statements given below C) He is now a sprightly 90 and I felt
it. Identify the statement(s) in which a surge of nostalgia as
the word fits contextually to convey a II
logical meaning. D) but can also look beautiful in your
73. Intend home.
1) The minister has announced her E) we shake hands and then hug.
intend to fight in the upcoming F) so both of them were arrested.
elections. A. A-F and B-D
2) I remember making a promise to B. A-E, B-F and C-D
her and I still intend to keep it. C. A-D and B-F
3) Our intend is to go to Australia by D. B-F and C-E
the end of next year. E. C-D
A. Only 1
B. Only 2 Direction: In this question, two
C. Both 1 and 2 columns I and II and three
D. Both 2 and 3 sentences are given, which are
E. All 1, 2 and 3 divided into two parts. Column I (A,
B and C) consists of first half of each
Direction: In the following question, sentence and Column II (D, E and
a word is given, which has been used F) consists of second half of each
in the three statements given below sentence. Match column I with
it. Identify the statement(s) in which column II, so that the sentences

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formed are both meaningful and Direction: In this question, two


grammatically correct. Choose the columns I and II and three
option as your answer. sentences are given, which are
76. I divided into two parts. Column I (A,
A) Having finished his skillet eggs B and C) consists of first half of each
and cappuccino sentence and Column II (D, E and
B) It is sad, because we all need help F) consists of second half of each
or sentence. Match column I with
C) You feel like you are in the cockpit column II, so that the sentences
of a spaceship bound for Mars formed are both meaningful and
II grammatically correct. Choose the
D) even expertise guidance around option as your answer.
modern hotel rooms. 78. I
E) Jim posed for photos and chided A) The combination of nutrients in
me for having picked up the tab. the pulses will give you an energetic
F) because there are few different feeling for the next few hours,
knobs and buttons. B) Alcohol leaves a strong acidic ash
A. B-D and A-E in the body, which make the body
B. C-F C) It’s that time of the year when the
C. C-F and A-E smog descends in thick blankets
D. B-E, A-D and C-F II
E. A-E D) and chokes up the city with dust
and smoke.
Direction: In this question, two E) and at the same time, you are less
columns I and II and three likely to feel sluggish.
sentences are given, which are F) vulnerable to illness.
divided into two parts. Column I (A, A. A-D
B and C) consists of first half of each B. A-F and B-D
sentence and Column II (D, E and C. A-E and C-D
F) consists of second half of each D. B-F and C-D
sentence. Match column I with E. C-F
column II, so that the sentences
formed are both meaningful and Direction: In this question, two
grammatically correct. Choose the columns I and II and three
option as your answer. sentences are given, which are
77. I divided into two parts. Column I (A,
A) Space is another area where the B and C) consists of first half of each
vehicle aces it, especially in the rear sentence and Column II (D, E and
B) Almonds are high in vitamin E, F) consists of second half of each
riboflavin, fibre, phosphorus, sentence. Match column I with
C) When she first told her parents column II, so that the sentences
about her interest in dancing, they formed are both meaningful and
were confused since grammatically correct. Choose the
II option as your answer.
D) magnesium, protein, and calcium. 79. I
E) where there is a lot of leg and head A) When the fishing was done, he
room. brought
F) they were not sure about their B) Although Sri Lanka has cuisines of
capacity to afford this hobby. its own, connections of history and
A. A-E geography make much of its
B. A-C, B-F and C-D C) One evening they got chatting
C. A-D and B-F with some of the guests and since
D. A-F and B-E II
E. A-E, B-D and C-F D) quite similar to the Indian cuisines
of the south.

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E) everyone was staying away that iii. any resolutions will be no more
night, they decided to do a small than an empty promise
potluck. A. Only i and iii
F) the net to the fisherman. B. Only ii and iii
A. A-F C. Only iii
B. A-D and B-F D. All i, ii and iii
C. A-D, B-F and C-E E. No correction required
D. A-F and C-E
E. C-E Direction: In the given question, a
part of the sentence is printed in
Direction: In the given question, a bold. Below the sentence, three
part of the sentence is printed in alternatives to the bold part are
bold. Below the sentence alternatives given, more than one of which may
to the bold part are given at (A), (B), help improve the sentence. Choose
(C) and (D) which may help improve the option that reflects the correct
the sentence. Choose the correct use of the phrase in the context of
alternative. In case the given the sentence. In case the given
sentence is correct, your answer is sentence is correct, your answer is
(E), i.e., ‘No correction required’. option (E), i.e., “No correction
80. Private investors eager to sign US required”.
projects anxious of getting out of 82. The rationale behind their demand is
their comfort zone in developing that more developed countries are
countries with little history of political more suits to provide an answer
or economic continuity. and, historically, are more
i. are hesitant to venture into responsible for creating the problem.
uncertain areas i. more equipped to deal with the
ii. hesitate to enter risky scenarios situation at hand
iii. are reluctant to step into caution ii. more suitably attuned to the
zones problem
A. Only i iii. better able to meet the challenge
B. Only i and ii A. Only I and ii
C. Only i and iii B. Only ii and iii
D. Only ii and iii C. Only i and iii
E. No correction required D. All i, ii and iii
E. No correction required
Direction :In the given question, a
part of the sentence is printed in Direction :In the given question, a
bold. Below the sentence alternatives part of the sentence is printed in
to the bold part are given at (A), (B), bold. Below the sentence alternatives
(C) and (D) which may help improve to the bold part are given at (A), (B),
the sentence. Choose the correct (C) and (D) which may help improve
alternative. In case the given the sentence. Choose the correct
sentence is correct, your answer is alternative. In case the given
(E), i.e., ‘No correction required’. sentence is correct, your answer is
81. Without an immediate commitment (E), i.e., ‘No correction required’.
to disruptive energy development 83. Television networks, presidents, and
through substantial international celebrity soccer players, from
investment, as well as measures for countries as far-flung as China, Mali,
unlocking private foreign capital, any and Qatar, have taken interest in
resolutions will be hollowed out. the world’s first, and best, ‘football
i. any resolutions will be without freestyler’.
significance or value. i. have thrown the flashlight on the
ii. any resolutions will not world’s first
materialized

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ii. have took notice of the world’s first Direction: In each question, a
iii. have caught site of the world’s sentence with four words printed in
first bold is given. These are numbered as
A. Only i and ii (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of the four
B. Only ii and iii words printed in bold may either be
C. Only i and iii misspelt or inappropriate in the
D. All i, ii and iii context of the sentence. Find out the
E. No correction required word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate. The number of that
Direction :In the given question, a word is your answer. If all the words
part of the sentence is printed in printed in bold are correctly spelt and
bold. Below the sentence alternatives also appropriate in the context of the
to the bold part are given at (A), (B), sentence, mark (5), i.e., ‘All are
(C) and (D) which may help improve correct’, as your answer.
the sentence. Choose the correct 86. The fact (A) that Indonesia lyes (B)
alternative. In case the given on the Ring of Fire makes it more
sentence is correct, your answer is vulnerable (C) to tsunamis (D) and
(E), i.e., ‘No correction required’. earthquakes.
84. To salvage cognac, distillers must A. A B. B
adjust to global demands while C. C D. D
keeping untouch the unique E. All are correct
tradition behind their product.
i. demands, while maintain the Direction: In each question, a
unique sentence with four words printed in
ii. demands, while remaining true to bold is given. These are numbered as
the unique (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of the four
iii. demands, at the same time words printed in bold may either be
keeping intact the unique misspelt or inappropriate in the
A. Only i and ii context of the sentence. Find out the
B. Only ii and iii word which is wrongly spelt or
C. Only i and iii inappropriate. The number of that
D. All i, ii and iii word is your answer. If all the words
E. No correction require printed in bold are correctly spelt and
also appropriate in the context of the
Direction: In each question, a sentence, mark (5), i.e., ‘All are
sentence with four words printed in correct’, as your answer.
bold is given. These are numbered as 87. The first step to adopting (A) a pet
(A), (B), (C) and (D). One of the four is to find a legetimate (B) NGO
words printed in bold may either be which works towards animal welfare
misspelt or inappropriate in the (C) or an animal rescue (D) shelter.
context of the sentence. Find out the A. A B. B
word which is wrongly spelt or C. C D. D
inappropriate. The number of that E. All are correct
word is your answer. If all the words
printed in bold are correctly spelt and Direction: In each question, a
also appropriate in the context of the sentence with four words printed in
sentence, mark (5), i.e., ‘All are bold is given. These are numbered as
correct’, as your answer. (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these
85. We left (A) Mumbai and decided (B) four words printed in bold may either
to settle down (C) here because of be misspelt or inappropriate in the
its pristyne (D) climate and context of the sentence. Find out the
beautiful, green valleys. word which is wrongly spelt or
A. A B. B inappropriate, if any. The number of
C. C D. D that word is your answer. If all the
E. All are correct words printed in bold are correctly

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spelt and also appropriate in the Rearrange all the segments to form a
context of the sentence, mark (5), ie coherent statement.
‘All Correct’, as your answer. 91. A) Physical appearance and bodily
88. Castor oil is rich /(1) in oleic acid and disposition
omega- 6 mandatory /(2) fatty B) Prejudices could also be
acids that replenish /(3) the scalp’s C) That reveal stereotypes about
natural oils and make hair longer, D) That positions an individual in a
thicker /(4) and shinier. caste and class category
A. 1 B. 2 E) Disguised in the form of remarks
C. 3 D. 4 A. ADECB B. AECBD
E. All correct C. BEDCA D. BACED
E. EBCAD
Direction: In each question, a
sentence with four words printed in Direction: In the given question, a
bold is given. These are numbered as statement has been divided into five
(A), (B), (C) and (D). One of the four segments, each of which is denoted
words printed in bold may either be by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E).
misspelt or inappropriate in the Rearrange all the segments to form a
context of the sentence. Find out the coherent statement.
word which is wrongly spelt or 92. A) Disappearing cultures and
inappropriate. The number of that traditions
word is your answer. If all the words B) To detail in terms of sights,
printed in bold are correctly spelt and sounds, and mannerisms
also appropriate in the context of the C) The film combines vivid
sentence, mark (5), i.e., ‘All are D) To provide a moving tale of
correct’, as your answer. E) Cinematography with wonderful
89. About (A) two weeks, his team attention
managed (B) to clear around 4 A. CEBDA B. ADECB
tonnes of garbage from the city's (C) C. BCEDA D. CEDBA
oldest water (D) system. E. CEDAB
A. A B. B
C. C D. D Direction: In the given question, a
E. All are correct statement has been divided into five
segments, each of which is denoted
Direction: In the given question, a by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E).
statement has been divided into five Rearrange all the segments to form a
segments, each of which is denoted coherent statement.
by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). 93. A) The movement for a separate
Rearrange all the segments to form a Karnataka state
coherent statement. B) The district was given to Kerala,
90. A) Modern–secular and cosmopolitan C) The Kasaragod district was an
values important centre of
B) Rationality and meritocracy D) And yet, when the state
C) Cities are reorganisation took place in 1956,
D) Where people speak the language E) A decision that is disputed till
of today
E) Seen as representative of A. EDCAB B. CADBE
A. CDBCA B. CEBDA C. CEDAB D. CADEB
C. CEADB D. CDACB E. CAEDB
E. CAEDB
Direction: In the given question, a
Direction: In the given question, a statement has been divided into five
statement has been divided into five segments, each of which is denoted
segments, each of which is denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E).
by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E).

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Rearrange all the segments to form a exploring opportunities and


coherent statement. discovering new ways in which they
94. A) Is an excellent source of income can use the Internet to improve
B) And a way to avoid damage to education outcomes. As the
their fields Broadband Commission for
C) As these rats eat people’s paddy Sustainable Development puts it, the
crops challenge is “to help teachers and
D) For the poor and many tribals in students use technology … in
Assam, relevant and authentic ways that
E) Selling rats in local markets actually improve education and
A. EDABC B. EABCD foster the knowledge and skills
C. DECAB D. DEBCA necessary for lifelong learning.” A
E. DEABC number of factors, however, inhibit
full achievement of these gains.
Direction: Read the given passage Lack of access is first and foremost
carefully and answer the questions among these. Access to the Internet,
that follow. Certain words are printed with sufficient bandwidth, is essential
in bold to help you locate them while for the development of an
answering some of these. information society. Lack of
Education is both a basic human right broadband connectivity is preventing
and a core element of sustainable widespread use of Internet in
development. It is the theme of the education and other areas of life in
United Nations’ fourth Sustainable many countries. A legal and
Development Goal, which seeks to regulatory environment that fosters
“ensure inclusive and equitable investment and innovation is critical
quality education and promote to enabling broadband access. This is
lifelong learning opportunities for not just a matter of connectivity. For
all.” Education enables individuals to access to be meaningful, it must also
build more prosperous and successful be affordable for schools and
lives and societies to achieve individuals, and teachers and
economic prosperity and social students must acquire digital literacy
welfare. and other skills required to make best
Access to the Internet is fundamental use of it. Those teachers and
to achieving this vision for the students also need to find and use
future. It can improve the quality of locally relevant content.
education in many ways. It opens The Internet is not, of course, the
doorways to a wealth of information, answer to every challenge posed by
knowledge and educational education. National policies that draw
resources, increasing opportunities together experience in both
for learning in and beyond the education and technology, within
classroom. Teachers use online different countries’ national contexts,
materials to prepare lessons, and are essential if the Internet’s
students to extend their range of contribution to education is to be
learning. Interactive teaching maximised. The success of Internet
methods, supported by the Internet, in education will be measured by
enable teachers to give more educational outcomes:
attention to individual students’ improvements in students’
needs and support shared learning. attainments, job opportunities and
This can help to rectify inequalities in contribution to national
education experienced by girls and development. Experience shows that
women. Access to the Internet helps the best results are likely to be
educational administrators to reduce achieved through cooperation
the costs and improve the quality of between stakeholders, including
schools and colleges. government, Internet business and
Educationalists are enthusiastically technical experts, and sector

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specialists such as teachers and literate.


educational administrators. B. Broadband connectivity should
Source: allow local content foremost
https://www.internetsociety.org importance for its usage to be
95. Which of the following statement is meaningful.
incorrect with reference to the C. Broadband connectivity should be
passage? of high speed so that it can be utilized
I. Both the Internet and education in real time for problem solving by
are concerned with information teachers and students and it should
exchange, communication, and the be state sponsored so as to not
creation of knowledge. burden the students economically.
II. The issue of unequal access to the D. Broadband connectivity should be
most enabling and empowering state sponsored so that teachers and
forms of Internet use remains a students can avail the best possible
major concern. connection for education purposes
III. Technology can often be a barrier with proper security measures.
to teaching and learning. E. None of the above
A. Only I 98. Which of the following best describes
B. Both I & II the author’s view regarding
C. Both II & III education?
D. Only III A. Education is one of the major
E. All are incorrect factors of Sustainable Development.
96. Which of the following statement can B. Education can be categorised as
be inferred from the given passage? one of the most essential rights of a
A. Lessons regarding incorporation of human being.
the internet with the prevalent C. Modern education should be
education system have been learnt liberal, open and accessible.
from experience with different D. Education enables us to lead a
technologies and services in socially and economically successful
countries with different educational life.
systems. E. All the above.
B. People in developed countries are 99. Which of the following is the MOST
more likely to have mobile broadband SIMILAR to the word given in bold in
subscriptions than those in the least the passage?
developed countries. Vision
C. The availability of job A. Intellect B. Perception
opportunities is an indicator of the C. Proficiency D. Inanity
triumph of the Internet in education. E. Peccadillo
A. Only A B. Only B 100.Which of the following is the MOST
C. Only C D. All of these OPPOSITE to the word given in bold
E. None of these in the passage?
97. Along with broadband connectivity Challenge
what is needed to make internet A. Objection B. Proposition
usage meaningful for teachers and C. Sanction D. Vindication
students? E. Impugn
A. The broadband connections should
be affordable, and the teachers and
the students should be digitally

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ANSWERS

1. Ans. C.
a) Car D is parked exactly in middle.
b) Only 1 car is parked between car D
and car B.
(so, we get 2 possible cases here) e) Car A moves 5m south and turns right
and moves for another 7m and stops at
point S in such a way that point S is to
the south east of both point J and car B.
c) Only 2 cars are parked between A and (so, case 1 gets eliminated here)
E, which is not parked adjacent to car D.

3. Ans. D.
d) Car C moves 5m north, turns left and
a) Car D is parked exactly in middle.
moves for 10m and stops at point J.
b) Only 1 car is parked between car D
and car B.
(so, we get 2 possible cases here)

c) Only 2 cars are parked between A and


e) Car A moves 5m south and turns right E, which is not parked adjacent to car D.
and moves for another 7m and stops at
point S in such a way that point S is to
the south east of both point J and car B.
(so, case 1 gets eliminated here)
d) Car C moves 5m north, turns left and
moves for 10m and stops at point J.

2. Ans. B.
a) Car D is parked exactly in middle.
b) Only 1 car is parked between car D
and car B.
(so, we get 2 possible cases here) e) Car A moves 5m south and turns right
and moves for another 7m and stops at
point S in such a way that point S is to
the south east of both point J and car B.
c) Only 2 cars are parked between A and (so, case 1 gets eliminated here)
E, which is not parked adjacent to car D.

4. Ans. E.
d) Car C moves 5m north, turns left and
a) Car D is parked exactly in the middle.
moves for 10m and stops at point J.
b) Only 1 car is parked between car D
and car B.
(so, we get 2 possible cases here)

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e) Car A moves 5m south and turns right


and moves for another 7m and stops at
point S in such a way that point S is to
c) Only 2 cars are parked between A and the south east of both point J and car B.
E, which is not parked adjacent to car D. (so, case 1 gets eliminated here)

d) Car C moves 5m north, turns left and


moves for 10m and stops at point J. 6. Ans. E.
When all the digits are rearranged within
a number in decreasing order, we will
get:
653 963 943 871 741 831
We can clearly see that 741(i.e. 471 in
actual) is the second lowest number.
7. Ans. A.
e) Car A moves 5m south and turns right As the difference between the second
and moves for another 7m and stops at largest (653) and third smallest
point S in such a way that point S is to number(471) is 182.
the south-east of both point J and car B. 8. Ans. B.
(so, case 1 gets eliminated here) When all the even digits within a number
are replaced by 7, we will get:
753 739 739 771 771 173
Therefore, digit sum of lowest number
(173) is 1 + 7 + 3 = 1 + 1 = 2.
9. Ans. E.
The shortest distance between Point
a) G sits at one of the extreme ends.
S and car B = Square root of (142 + b) Only 3 persons sit between G and H.
52)

= (Square root of 221) m


5. Ans. B.
a) Car D is parked exactly in middle.
b) Only 1 car is parked between car D
and car B.
(so, we get 2 possible cases here) c) B sits third to right of H but he is not
an immediate neighbor of G.

c) Only 2 cars are parked between A and


E, which is not parked adjacent to car D.

d) H sits third to right of A.


d) Car C moves 5m north, turns left and e) B faces same direction to that of G.
moves for 10m and stops at point J.

f) Only 2 persons sit between C and D.


Either C or D sits at extreme end and

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both faces opposite direction to each g) I sits third to right of F and both of
other. them face opposite direction.
And, it is also given that not more than
2 persons sitting together face same
direction.
(so, case 1 gets eliminated here)

g) I sits third to right of F and both of


After filling the remaining data, we get:
them face opposite direction.
And, it is also given that not more than
2 persons sitting together face same
direction. 11. Ans. E.
(so, case 1 gets eliminated here) a) G sits at one of the extreme ends.
b) Only 3 persons sit between G and H.

After filling the remaining data, we get:

10. Ans. C.
a) G sits at one of the extreme ends.
b) Only 3 persons sit between G and H. c) B sits third to right of H but he is not
an immediate neighbor of G.

c) B sits third to right of H but he is not d) H sits third to right of A.


an immediate neighbor of G. e) B faces same direction to that of G.

d) H sits third to right of A. f) Only 2 persons sit between C and D.


e) B faces same direction to that of G. Either C or D sits at extreme end and
both faces opposite direction to each
other.

f) Only 2 persons sit between C and D.


Either C or D sits at extreme end and
both faces opposite direction to each g) I sits third to right of F and both of
other. them face opposite direction.
And, it is also given that not more than
2 persons sitting together face same
direction.
(so, case 1 gets eliminated here)

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13. Ans. D.
a) G sits at one of the extreme ends.
b) Only 3 persons sit between G and H.
After filling the remaining data, we get:

12. Ans. D.
a) G sits at one of the extreme ends.
b) Only 3 persons sit between G and H.

c) B sits third to right of H but he is not


an immediate neighbor of G.

c) B sits third to right of H but he is not


an immediate neighbor of G.
d) H sits third to right of A.
e) B faces same direction to that of G.

d) H sits third to right of A.


e) B faces same direction to that of G.
f) Only 2 persons sit between C and D.
Either C or D sits at extreme end and
both faces opposite direction to each
other.

f) Only 2 persons sit between C and D.


Either C or D sits at extreme end and
both faces opposite direction to each
other.
g) I sits third to right of F and both of
them face opposite direction.
And, it is also given that not more than
2 persons sitting together face same
direction.
(so, case 1 gets eliminated here)
g) I sits third to right of F and both of
them face opposite direction.
And, it is also given that not more than
After filling the remaining data, we get:
2 persons sitting together face same
direction.
(so, case 1 gets eliminated here)
14. Ans. B.
K > H, false as K = G ≤ H.
K ≥ B, true as K = G ≥ B.
After filling the remaining data, we get:
So, only conclusion b) is true.
15. Ans. D.

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3 = 4, false as 3 = 1 ≥ 8 = 4
4 < 1, false as 1 ≥ 8 = 4
So, neither a) nor b) follows.
16. Ans. C.
1) D visits the market on Monday with
his wife and 1 child.
2) C visits the market on Wednesday
with W and his daughter.
3) A visits the market on Friday with Z
but he does not have kids. 6) F does not visit the market on
4) G visits the market with T and 2 kids Tuesday, so only possibility is F visits on
and visits immediately before B. Thursday.
5) B visits the market with his wife and Therefore, E visits on Tuesday.
2 kids. 7) Y is wife of neither D nor B, so Y must
be the wife of E and E has no kids.
8) D is not husband of V, so only
possibility is V is wife of B and V has 2
kids.

6) F does not visit the market on


Tuesday, so only possibility is F visits on
Thursday.
Therefore, E visits on Tuesday.
7) Y is wife of neither D nor B, so Y must
18. Ans. E.
be the wife of E and E has no kids.
1) D visits the market on Monday with
8) D is not husband of V, so only
his wife and 1 child.
possibility is V is wife of B and V has 2
2) C visits the market on Wednesday
kids.
with W and his daughter.
3) A visits the market on Friday with Z
but he does not have kids.
4) G visits the market with T and 2 kids
and visits immediately before B.
5) B visits the market with his wife and
2 kids.

17. Ans. D.
1) D visits the market on Monday with
his wife and 1 child.
2) C visits the market on Wednesday
with W and his daughter.
3) A visits the market on Friday with Z
but he does not have kids. 6) F does not visit the market on
4) G visits the market with T and 2 kids Tuesday, so only possibility is F visits on
and visits immediately before B. Thursday.
5) B visits the market with his wife and Therefore, E visits on Tuesday.
2 kids. 7) Y is wife of neither D nor B, so Y must
be the wife of E and E has no kids.
8) D is not husband of V, so only

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possibility is V is wife of B and V has 2 3) A visits the market on Friday with Z


kids. but he does not have kids.
4) G visits the market with T and 2 kids
and visits immediately before B.
5) B visits the market with his wife and
2 kids.

19. Ans. C.
1) D visits the market on Monday with
his wife and 1 child.
2) C visits the market on Wednesday
with W and his daughter. 6) F does not visit the market on
3) A visits the market on Friday with Z Tuesday, so only possibility is F visits on
but he does not have kids. Thursday.
4) G visits the market with T and 2 kids Therefore, E visits on Tuesday.
and visits immediately before B. 7) Y is wife of neither D nor B, so Y must
5) B visits the market with his wife and be the wife of E and E has no kids.
2 kids. 8) D is not husband of V, so only
possibility is V is wife of B and V has 2
kids.

6) F does not visit the market on 21. Ans. B.


Tuesday, so only possibility is F visits on In 1st and 2nd statements, the common
Thursday. word is ‘water’ and the common code is
Therefore, E visits on Tuesday. ‘39’. So, ‘39’ stands for ‘water’.
7) Y is wife of neither D nor B, so Y must Similarly, in 1st and 3rd statements, the
be the wife of E and E has no kids. common word is ‘the’ and common code
8) D is not husband of V, so only is ‘24’. So, ‘24’ stands for ‘the’.
possibility is V is wife of B and V has 2 And, in 2nd and 3rd statements, the
kids. common word is ‘is’ and the common
code is ‘21’.
The codes for all the words are given in
the following table:

20. Ans. A.
1) D visits the market on Monday with
his wife and 1 child.
2) C visits the market on Wednesday
with W and his daughter. 22. Ans. E.

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In 1st and 2nd statements, the common lives below Gazal.


word is ‘water’ and the common code is (So, we get 2 possible cases here)
‘39’. So, ‘39’ stands for ‘water’. Case 1:
Similarly, in 1st and 3rd statements, the
common word is ‘the’ and common code
is ‘24’. So, ‘24’ stands for ‘the’.
And, in 2nd and 3rd statements, the
common word is ‘is’ and the common
code is ‘21’.
The codes for all the words are given in
the following table:

Case 2:

23. Ans. C.
The → 24
Colorless → 19
Box → 74
In 1st and 2nd statements, the common
word is ‘water’ and the common code is
e) Dexit was born in Delhi and he lives
‘39’. So, ‘39’ stands for ‘water’.
immediately above Charles, who was
Similarly, in 1st and 3rd statements, the
born in Uttar Pradesh.
common word is ‘the’ and common code
Case 1
is ‘24’. So, ‘24’ stands for ‘the’.
And, in 2nd and 3rd statements, the
common word is ‘is’ and the common
code is ‘21’.
The codes for all the words are given in
the following table:

Case 2:

24. Ans. A.
a) Gazal lives on an odd numbered floor
but does not live on the top most floor.
b) 3 people live between Fatima and
Ena.
c) Fatima lives on an even numbered
floor
d) Ena belongs to Himachal Pradesh and f) Only 1 person lives between Barun

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and the person born in Maharashtra. a) Gazal lives on an odd numbered floor
g) Fatima belongs to neither Punjab nor but does not live on the top most floor.
Madhya Pradesh. b) 3 people live between Fatima and
Case 1: Ena.
c) Fatima lives on an even numbered
floor
d) Ena belongs to Himachal Pradesh and
lives below Gazal.
(So, we get 2 possible cases here)
Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 2:

h) One who belongs to Punjab lives


below Gazal and it is also given that
Barun was not born in Punjab.
(So, case 2 gets eliminated here)
Case 1: e) Dexit was born in Delhi and he lives
immediately above Charles, who was
born in Uttar Pradesh.
Case 1

After filling the remaining data, we get:


Case 2:

f) Only 1 person lives between Barun


25. Ans. A.

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and the person born in Maharashtra. a) Gazal lives on an odd numbered floor
g) Fatima belongs to neither Punjab nor but does not live on the top most floor.
Madhya Pradesh. b) 3 people live between Fatima and
Case 1: Ena.
c) Fatima lives on an even numbered
floor
d) Ena belongs to Himachal Pradesh and
lives below Gazal.
(So, we get 2 possible cases here)
Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 2:

h) One who belongs to Punjab lives


below Gazal and it is also given that
Barun was not born in Punjab.
(So, case 2 gets eliminated here) e) Dexit was born in Delhi and he lives
Case 1: immediately above Charles, who was
born in Uttar Pradesh.
Case 1

Case 2:
After filling the remaining data, we get:

f) Only 1 person lives between Barun


and the person born in Maharashtra.
g) Fatima belongs to neither Punjab nor
Madhya Pradesh.
26. Ans. B. Case 1:

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floor
d) Ena belongs to Himachal Pradesh and
lives below Gazal.
(So, we get 2 possible cases here)
Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 2:

h) One who belongs to Punjab lives


below Gazal and it is also given that
Barun was not born in Punjab.
(So, case 2 gets eliminated here)
Case 1:

e) Dexit was born in Delhi and he lives


immediately above Charles, who was
born in Uttar Pradesh.
Case 1

After filling the remaining data, we get:

Case 2:

27. Ans. E.
a) Gazal lives on an odd numbered floor
but does not live on the top most floor.
b) 3 people live between Fatima and
Ena.
c) Fatima lives on an even numbered f) Only 1 person lives between Barun

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and the person born in Maharashtra. a) Gazal lives on an odd numbered floor
g) Fatima belongs to neither Punjab nor but does not live on the top most floor.
Madhya Pradesh. b) 3 people live between Fatima and
Case 1: Ena.
c) Fatima lives on an even numbered
floor
d) Ena belongs to Himachal Pradesh and
lives below Gazal.
(So, we get 2 possible cases here)
Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 2:

h) One who belongs to Punjab lives


below Gazal and it is also given that
Barun was not born in Punjab.
(So, case 2 gets eliminated here)
Case 1: e) Dexit was born in Delhi and he lives
immediately above Charles, who was
born in Uttar Pradesh.
Case 1

After filling the remaining data, we get:


Case 2:

28. Ans. A.
f) Only 1 person lives between Barun

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and the person born in Maharashtra. 29. Ans. C.


g) Fatima belongs to neither Punjab nor ‘Digit’ and ‘even’ are not directly related
Madhya Pradesh. to each other. But, ‘digit’ can be partially
Case 1: or completely embedded into ‘even’. So,
conclusion I does not follow.
‘Digit’ and ‘even’ are not directly related
to each other. So, we cannot conclude
that all ‘even’ are ‘digit’, it is only a
possibility. So, conclusion II does not
follow.

Case 2:

30. Ans. C.
Common part of ‘cat’ and ‘bat’ is not
related to ‘dog’. So, conclusion I does
not follow.
Although ‘ant’ and ‘dog’ are not related
to each other, but it may be possible
that ‘dog’ may be partially or completely
embedded into ‘ant’. So, conclusion II
h) One who belongs to Punjab lives
does not follow.
below Gazal and it is also given that
Barun was not born in Punjab.
(So, case 2 gets eliminated here)
Case 1:

Only cat are dog means -> All dog are


cat.
31. Ans. D.
a) F sits to the immediate right of B
b) G sits second to F

After filling the remaining data, we get:

c) D sits 3 places away from F. And, it is


also given that A faces D

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d) E sits second to D a) F sits to the immediate right of B


b) G sits second to F

c) D sits 3 places away from F. And, it is


e) H sits second to C, who is not an
also given that A faces D
immediate neighbor of D
(So, case 2 gets eliminated here).

d) E sits second to D

32. Ans. B.
a) F sits to the immediate right of B e) H sits second to C, who is not an
b) G sits second to F immediate neighbor of D
(So, case 2 gets eliminated here).

c) D sits 3 places away from F. And, it is


also given that A faces D

34. Ans. C.
Lets first check the given options:
Symbols used are as follows:

d) E sits second to D

Using statement I, we get:


e) H sits second to C, who is not an
immediate neighbor of D
(So, case 2 gets eliminated here).

33. Ans. E.

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We can clearly see that B is either the 2 + 15)-2 = 17


granddaughter or the grandson of A. 17 + 13)-2 = 30
Using statement II, we get: 30 + 11)-2 = 41
41 + 9 = 50
39. Ans. D.
12 × 0.5 + 1 = 7
7×1+1=8
8 × 1.5 + 1 = 13
13 × 2 + 1 = 27
27 × 2.5 + 1 = 68.5
40. Ans. E.

B is the granddaughter of A. 1 × 0.5 + (–0.5) =


Therefore, Only statement II is needed
to answer the question. × 1 + (–1) = –1
35. Ans. E. –1 × 1.5 + (–1.5) = –3
Lets first check the given options: –3 × 2 + (–2) = –8
Using Statement I, we conclude: –8 × 2.5 + (–2.5) = –22.5
__ > B > __ > __ > ___ 41. Ans. C.
Therefore, we can not determine the
heaviest person.
Using statement II, we conclude:
B > C > D> ____
Therefore, no information is given about
the positions of A and E in this
arrangement. 42. Ans. C.
Using statement II and I, we conclude: Take nearest values
_ > B > C > D > _ so, either A or E is 199.99÷4.99×499.99÷100.01÷5.002
the heaviest. 40 × 1 = 40 (approx)
Using statement II and III, we conclude: 43. Ans. A.
Case 1: _ > B > C > D > _
Case 2 : B > C > _ > D > _
Case 3: B > _ > C > D > _
Therefore, we cannot determine the ? = 40
heaviest person as there are some 44. Ans. B.
possibilities.
Using Statement I, II and III:
A > B > C > D > E. ≈ 69 x 78 =
Therefore, we can determine the 5382
heaviest person (i.e. A) using all the 45. Ans. D.
statements together.
36. Ans. A.
101 + 11 = 112
112 – 22 = 90 ?≈
? = 73 × 57/19 = 219 ≈ 220
90 + 11 = 101 46. Ans. D.
101 – 22 = 79 Suppose all workers work for x days in
79 + 11 = 90 alternate days
37. Ans. C. So, number of days worked by each
worker
10, 17, 27, (42), 64 ⇒(x/15) + (x/10) + (x/15) + (x/12) = 1
first diff.---- 7, 10, 15, 22 Taking 60 as LCM, we get
3, 5, 7 ⇒(4x + 6x + 4x + 5x)/60 = 1
38. Ans. A. ⇒19x/60 = 1
⇒x = 60/19

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It means that every worker has to work Total wages to be paid to D = 12 × 55 =


for more than 3 days Rs. 660
If every worker work for 3 days ∴ B is the most expensive worker.
The work which get completed = (3/15) 49. Ans. B.
+ (3/10) + (3/15) + (3/12) Let the number of days worked by A is x
Taking 60 as LCM, we get days and by B is 2x days
⇒(12 + 18 + 12 + 15)/60 So, (x/15) + (2x/10) = 1/2
⇒57/60 Taking 30 As LCM on LHS, we get
Work remaining = 1 – (57/60) = 3/60 = ⇒(2x + 6x)/30 = 1/2
1/20 ⇒8x/30 = 1/2
Now, again A have to do work ⇒8x = 15
Let time taken by A to complete the ⇒x = 15/8
remaining work be x A has worked for 15/8 days
So, x/15 = 1/20 B has worked for 15/4 days
⇒20x = 15 Part of the total work done by A =
⇒x = 15/20 (15/8) × (1/15) = 1/8
⇒x = ¾ Part of the total work done by B =
So, A take 0.75 day to complete the (15/4) × (1/10) = 3/8
remaining work Hence, the answer = 1/8; 3/8.
Total time taken by the workers to 50. Ans. D.
complete the task = (3 × 4) + 0.75 Number of days worked by D = 165/55
⇒12 + 0.75 =3
⇒12.75 days Part of the total work done by D = 3/12
∴ Total time taken by the workers to So, part of the work done by B = 1/3 of
complete the task is 12 days 18 hours 3/12 = 1/12
47. Ans. C. And, part of the work done by C = 2/3 of
Work finished by B and C jointly = 1/12 = 1/18
(2/10) + (2/15) ∴ Part of the work done by A = 1 –
⇒(6 + 4)/30 [(3/12) + (1/12) + (1/18)] = (36 – 9 –
⇒10/30 = 1/3 3 – 2)/36 = 22/36 = 11/18
Work finished by B and D jointly = Let the number of days taken by A to do
(2/10) + (2/12) his work be x
⇒(12 + 10)/60 So, x/15 = 11/18
⇒22/60 = 11/30 ⇒ x = 165/18
Work finished by D alone = 2/12 = 1/6 Total wages received by A = (165/18) ×
Work left = 1 – (1/3) – (11/30) – (1/6) 42 = 6930/18 = Rs.385
Taking 30 as LCM, we get The number of days taken by B to do his
⇒(30 – 10 – 11 – 5)/30 work = 10/12
⇒4/30 = 2/15 Wages to be received by B = (10/12) ×
C can do 1/15 of the work in one day 70 = 700/12 = Rs. 175/3
Time taken by C to finish 2/15 task = 2 The number of days taken by C to do his
days work = 15/18
Total number of days worked by C = 2 + Wages to be received by C = (15/18) ×
2=4 40 = 600/18 = Rs. 100/3
Wages to be received by C = 4 × 40 = Ratio of wages of B and C = 175 ∶ 100 =
Rs. 160 7 ∶ 4.
∴ Wage earned by C for 4 days is Rs. ∴ The wages earned by A is Rs. 385 and
160 ratio of wages of B and C is 7 ∶ 4.
48. Ans. B. 51. Ans. A.
Total wages to be paid to A = 15 × 42 = Let SP of 1st = CP of 2nd = Rs. 100 p
Rs. 630
Total wages to be paid to B = 10 × 70 ∴ SP of 2nd = 100 × = 90 p.
= Rs. 700 Now both SP= (90 + 100)p = 190 p =
Total wages to be paid to C = 15 × 40 = 38 Rs.(given)
Rs. 600

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∴ CP of first = 100 x 100/125= 80 p.


both CP =(80 + 100) p = 180 p = 180 x
38/190 = Rs 36. Req. % = = 31.25%
Total profit = 38 −36 = Rs. 2 54. Ans. B.
52. Ans. A. Time taken by A and B to complete the
Assume that each vessel contains 20L of work while working together =
mixture
In the first vessel:

Volume of Hydrogen =
Volume of Helium = 20 – 16 = 4L So, x = (since 50% of the work
is done by A and B together)
In the second vessel: As, time taken by C to complete 50% of
the work = 8 x 3 = 24 days
Volume of Hydrogen = So, time taken by C to complete the
entire work = 24 x 2 = 48 days
Volume of Helium = 20 – 15 = 5L
After taking out 25% of the mixture Therefore, time taken by B and C to
from the first vessel and putting into the complete the work while working
second vessel
In the first vessel: together = days
Volume of Hydrogen = So option (b) is the correct answer.
55. Ans. A.
Volume of Helium = multiply by LCM of denominators
2, 3, 4
Total mixture removed = 4 + 1 = 5L 6 : 8 : 9 = First part : Second part :
In the second vessel: Third part,
First part (6) further sub-divided in ratio
Volume of Hydrogen = 1: 2 that is= 2 : 4
Volume of Helium = So the difference between these 2 parts
Now 5L of mixture taken from the ratio-wise= 4-2= 2
second vessel and added to the first
vessel. Now value of ratio 2 is = =
In the first vessel: 68 Rs.
Volume of Hydrogen = 56. Ans. A.
The amount invested by P in business A
= 15000 (approx.)
The amount invested by Q in business A
= 20000 (approx.)
Volume of Helium = The amount invested by R in business A
Final ratio of Hydrogen and Helium in = 14000 (approx.)
the first vessel = 15.8 : 4.2 = 79 : 21. The amount invested by S in business A
53. Ans. A. = 11250 (approx.)
37.5% = 3/8(i.e. if Man. cost is 8 units, The total amount invested in business A
then trans. cost is 3 units) = 60250
33.33% = 1/3(i.e. if Man. cost is 3 units, Average amount invested in business A
then trans. cost is 1 unit) = 15062.5
Given, (manufacturing cost + The amount invested by P in business B
transportation cost = total cost) = 25000 (approx.)
The amount invested by Q in business B
= 20000 (approx.)
The amount invested by R in business B
= 22500 (approx.)
The amount invested by S in business B
= 18000 (approx.)

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The total amount invested in business B So, the total profit amount from the
= 85500 business A = 100 A = Rs. 48000
Average amount invested in business B The total profit amount from the
= 21375 business B = 157.5 A = Rs. 75600
So, the required difference = 21375 – The total profit amount from the
15062.5 = 6312.5 business C = 97.5 A = Rs. 46800
So option (b) is the correct answer.
57. Ans. B. Ratio of their profit at the end of 10
Let total profit amount from the business years = [9000 x 7 + (9000+x)x3]:
A = 100A [14000 x 10]: [8500 x 7+(8500+y)x3]:
Total profit amount from the business B [15000x4+7000x4+36000x2]=6: 7: 5:
= 157.5% of 100A = 157.5A 8
Total profit amount from the business C (90000+3x): (140000): (85000+3y):
= 97.5% of 100 A = 97.5A (160000) = 6: 7: 5: 8
Total profit = 100A + 157.5A + 97.5A =
170400
355A = 17040
A = 480
So, the total profit amount from the
business A = 100 A = Rs. 48000
The total profit amount from the
Required difference = x – y = 10000 –
business B = 157.5 A = Rs. 75600
5000 = 5000
The total profit amount from the
business C = 97.5 A = Rs. 46800
So option (d) is the correct answer.
In business B –
59. Ans. D.
Ratio of their profit = (20000 x 3 +
The amount invested by Q in business A
15000 x 3): (22500 x 6) = 105: 135 =
= 20000 (approx.)
7: 9
The amount invested by R in business A
In business C –
= 14000 (approx.)
Ratio of their profit = (14000 x 10):
The collective amount invested by Q and
(8500 x 7 + 13500 x 3) = 14: 10 = 7: 5
R in business A = 34000
Total share of profit of Q from both the
The amount invested by P in business C
business together =
= 9000
The amount invested by S in business C
= 15000
Total share of profit of R from both the Required difference of amount invested
business together = by P and S in business C = 6000

So,
So, required difference = 62025 – 60375 So, x = 17.6 = 18%
= Rs. 1650 So option (d) is the correct answer.
60. Ans. B.
So option (b) is the correct answer. Let total profit amount from the business
58. Ans. D. A = 100A
Let total profit amount from the business Total profit amount from the business B
A = 100A = 157.5% of 100A = 157.5A
Total profit amount from the business B Total profit amount from the business C
= 157.5% of 100A = 157.5A = 97.5% of 100 A = 97.5A
Total profit amount from the business C Total profit = 100A + 157.5A + 97.5A =
= 97.5% of 100 A = 97.5A 170400
Total profit = 100A + 157.5A + 97.5A = 355A = 17040
170400 A = 480
355A = 17040 So, the total profit amount from the
A = 480 business A = 100 A = Rs. 48000

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The total profit amount from the determine the percentage of males
business B = 157.5 A = Rs. 75600 voted for Brand X or Y.
The total profit amount from the
business C = 97.5 A = Rs. 46800 2) 65% of males voted for brand X
In business A – This means 35% of males voted for
Ratio of profit share of Q and S = brand Y.
[20000 x 3 + 15000 x 3 + 22500 x 2]: Hence Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient,
[11250 x 8] = 15: 9 = 5: 3 but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
Profit share of S = to answer the question asked.
64. Ans. D.
Let total no. of words be ‘X’
In business B –
Ratio of profit share of Q and S = 1) =2
[25000 x T]: [18000 x 4 + 39000 x (T –
4)] = 25T: (39T – 84) 2) =6
Profit share of S = 75600 x [(39T – Value of ‘X’ can be found using any of
84)/(64T – 84)]=18000+19800=37800 the statements alone.
2(39T-84)=(64T – 84) 65. Ans. B.
78T – 168 = 64T - 84 From statement I:
14T = 84 Area = ½ × base × altitude
T=6 We know the base, but we do not know
So option (b) is the correct answer. corresponding altitude for sure.
61. Ans. A. Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient
Let the required number = 10x + y to answer the question.
From statement I:
(10x + y): (x + y) = 5 : 2 From statement II:
⇒x:y=1:5 Given, median to base = 5.5 cm
(X,Y) = (1,5), (2,10),(3,15) and so on We know that, median divide the
But X and Y can only be single digits triangle in two parts of equal area.
(X,Y) = (1,5) And the sides of the one part (half
∴ The two digit number = 15 triangle) will be 6 cm, 8/2 = 4 cm and
5.5 cm.
From statement II: X = Y – 4 We can find the area of half of the
We cannot get the value of the two digit triangle by using the formula
number with the help of statement II.
62. Ans. B. Area =
From statement I: ∴ Area of the original triangle = 2 × Area
We cannot find the required number of of the half of the triangle
days. Hence, statement II alone is sufficient to
From statement II: answer the question.
66. Ans. B.
1 man’s per day work = Required number of days = (6 × 15)/10
= 9.
67. Ans. B.
1 woman’s per day work = The number of total woman labor= 40
Now from equation 2:
Required no. of days = = 20% = 40
100% = 40*100/20= 200
Now total number of labor = 200.
days
From equation 1:
So, we can find the answer from Total excellent labor = 100
statement II.
63. Ans. B.
From equation 3:
1) 40% of females polled voted for X 5% of total labor
From the above statement we cannot 5*200/100= 10

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average Man = good Woman= 10 Now total number of labor = 200.


From equation 1:
From equation 4: Total excellent labor = 100
excellent Boy = 20*200/100= 40
From equation 3:
From equation 5: 5% of total labor
good Woman=good Boy=good Man=10 5*200/100= 10
now after collecting all the information, average Man = good Woman= 10
we can fill the table
From equation 4:
excellent Boy = 20*200/100= 40

From equation 5:
good Woman=good Boy=good Man=10
now after collecting all the information,
we can fill the table
Total excellent Woman = 100 – excellent
boy – excellent man
= 100 – 40 – 40 = 20

Total excellent Woman = 100 – excellent


boy – excellent man
= 100 – 40 – 40 = 20
Total man labor = 10+10+40=60

average Woman = 40-10-20=10 Total man labor = 10+10+40=60

Total boy = 100-10-40=50 average Woman = 40-10-20=10

Required number =sum of the number Total boy = 100-10-40=50


of total labors, who are good men and
good boys = 10 + 10 = 20.
68. Ans. C.
The number of total woman labor= 40
Now from equation 2:
20% = 40
100% = 40*100/20= 200 Required ratio = Number of males (Boys

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+ Men), who are average labors :


Number of females (Women), who are
average labors = (50 + 10) : 10 = 60 :
10 = 6 : 1.
69. Ans. A.
The number of total woman labor= 40
Now from equation 2: Total boy = 100-10-40=50
20% = 40
100% = 40*100/20= 200
Now total number of labor = 200.
From equation 1:
Total excellent labor = 100

From equation 3:
5% of total labor
5*200/100= 10 Given,
average Man = good Woman= 10 4 excellent man = 6 excellent woman =
9 excellent boy
From equation 4: ∴ Ratio of efficiencies of
excellent Boy = 20*200/100= 40 Excellent man : excellent woman :
excellent boy = 9 : 6 : 4
From equation 5: Let the total work = 4 × Efficiency of
good Woman=good Boy=good Man=10 excellent man × Number of days
now after collecting all the information, = 4 × 9 × 480 = 17280.
we can fill the table Required number of days = total
work/(Number of excellent men ×
Efficiency of an excellent man + Number
of excellent women × Efficiency of an
excellent woman + Number of excellent
boys × Efficiency of an excellent boy)
= 17280/(40 × 9 + 20 × 6 + 40 × 4) =
17280/640 = 27.
Total excellent Woman = 100 – excellent 70. Ans. E.
boy – excellent man The number of total woman labor= 40
= 100 – 40 – 40 = 20 Now from equation 2:
20% = 40
100% = 40*100/20= 200
Now total number of labor = 200.
From equation 1:
Total excellent labor = 100

From equation 3:
Total man labor = 10+10+40=60 5% of total labor
5*200/100= 10
average Man = good Woman= 10

From equation 4:
excellent Boy = 20*200/100= 40

average Woman = 40-10-20=10 From equation 5:


good Woman=good Boy=good Man=10
now after collecting all the information,
we can fill the table

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rude, but the word ‘hoarse’ is incorrect


to characterize that.
Option 3 states that the little boy could
not convey the message due to
hoarseness in his throat. This option has
used the word appropriately.
72. Ans. D.
Total excellent Woman = 100 – excellent
‘Urn’ is a large container used to either
boy – excellent man
= 100 – 40 – 40 = 20 hold the ashes of a dead person or for
decorative purposes in a garden.
Therefore, we know that ‘urn’ is a noun.
Option 1 confuses the word ‘urn’ with
‘yearn’, which means longing for
someone.
Option 2 uses ‘urn’ appropriately as it
mentions of some decoration and
Total man labor = 10+10+40=60 carving done to make the vase/container
look like a valuable.
Option 3 again confuses ‘urn’ with ‘urge’.
‘She’ was embarrassed to let everyone
know about her ‘urge’ to steal and not
‘urn’. So, option 2 is the only one that
uses ‘urn’ in its correct meaning.
73. Ans. B.
average Woman = 40-10-20=10
Intent: refers to an intention or
purpose. This is a noun. It can be used
when one wants to speak about
something that the individual wishes to
achieve.
Intend: It can either be considered as
having one’s aim or plan or else it can
Total boy = 100-10-40=50 be defined as plan a particular role. It is
a verb.
Sentence 1 and 3 use the noun form of
‘intent’, which is incorrect. Sentence 2
uses ‘intend’ in its verb form, making it
the only correct choice.
74. Ans. E.
Number of boys labors, who are average The word ‘utter’ has two meanings. One
= 50 is to make some noise or say something,
Number of men labors = 60 while the second represents something
Required Ratio = 50 : 60 = 5 : 6. extreme. Sentence 1 uses the latter
71. Ans. B. meaning while Sentence 3 uses the
The word ‘hoarse’ is used to describe former meaning of the word. Sentence 2
rough voice coming out of the sore does not place the word in the sentence
throat. meaningfully, that’s why omitting it from
Option 1 mentions ‘her shouting and the list of correct answers.
making hoarse of herself’, which is 75. Ans. A.
incorrect as ‘hoarse’ could be used to A joins with F and B joins with D to
show her voice after shouting too much, make logical statements. A and F join to
but not for herself. Therefore, option 1 is show that both were arrested by the
incorrect. police, and B and D join to mean that
Option 2 incorrectly uses the word vaporizers add beauty to the interiors of
‘hoarse’ for attitude, which is not a house. C and E is not correct because
appropriate. Attitude could be rough or

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it mixes up the present and the past contain errors. The error in B-D is due to
tense . a missing word between ‘much of its’
76. Ans. E. and ‘quite similar’. Both B and D talk
A joins with E to show that Jim posed for about cuisines, so we know that they
photos after finishing off his meal. Apart join together. Error in C-E lies in the use
from this, B joins with D to show that of phrasal verb ‘staying away’ which
guidance is required by everyone around means 'avoid or not come' . Potluck is a
hotel rooms. C joins with F to show that gathering done to share food, which
the presence of so many knobs and cannot be done if the ones who are part
buttons gives a feel of a cockpit. The of it, stay away.
latter two cannot be considered the 80. Ans. B.
correct answers since there are errors in The sentence talks about how private
these. investors who are eager to sign US
Error in B-D lies in the use of ‘expertise projects are reluctant to do the same in
guidance’. The words ‘expertise’ and developing countries. Both (i) and (ii)
‘guidance’ are both nouns, which cannot suffice as per the context of the
come one after the other. We need to sentence. Thus, (B) is the right answer.
use 'expert' , the adjective to qualify the The highlighted phrase is incorrect as we
noun 'guidance'. Error in C-F lies in the need a helping verb such as ‘are’ before
use of ‘few different’ together. ‘A few’ ‘anxious’. Option (iii) is incorrect as
needs to be used in place of ‘few’. ‘caution’ is a noun and cannot modify
77. Ans. E. another noun such as ‘zones’.
A joins E to mean that the vehicle has an 81. Ans. A.
advantage of extra leg and head room. B The sentence talks about how any
joins D to mean that almonds are rich in resolutions will not be successful without
several vitamins and minerals. Finally, C an immediate commitment to disruptive
joins F to mean that her parents were energy development. Both (i) and (iii)
confused about their capacity to afford can replace the highlighted phrase to
her dancing hobby. None of these render the requisite contextual meaning.
sentences has any error. Thus, (A) is the right answer.
78. Ans. C. The highlighted phrase is incorrect as
The sentences A and E join together to ‘hollowed out’ should be replaced with
mean that nutrients give energy on ‘hollow’. In figurative terms, ‘hollow’
consumption, and at the same time you would mean something that will not
do not feel sluggish. The sentence does come true, and ‘hollowed out’ can only
not contain any grammatical error. C be used in a literal sense to mean
and D link together to mean that smog something that is made hollow. Option
chokes the city with its dust and smoke. (ii) is incorrect as ‘materialized’ is in the
This sentence also does not contain any simple past tense form, while we need a
grammatical flaws. The third sentence, verb in its base form to follow the modal
i.e. B and F join to give a meaning that verb ‘will’.
alcohol makes a person vulnerable to 82. Ans. D.
illness, but since the sentence has an The sentence talks about how developed
error with the word ‘make’, it cannot be countries are in a better position to solve
included as an option. Since the word the problem. All the given alternatives
‘make’ is used with ‘ash’, which is a can replace the highlighted part of the
singular noun, the word ‘make’ needs to statement to render the requisite
be changed to ‘makes’. meaning. Thus, (D) is the right answer.
79. Ans. A. The highlighted phrase is incorrect as
A joins with F to mean that the net was ‘suited’ is an adjective while ‘suit’ is a
returned to the fisherman, after the verb. We need an adjective to be
fishing was done. This sentence does not qualified by the adverb ‘more’.
contain any error. B and D along with C 83. Ans. E.
and E together give meanings to the The sentence talks about television
sentences, however, both the sentences networks, presidents and celebrity

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soccer players from remote countries be done. Fatty acids are not mandating,
have noticed the world’s best and first they are important for our healthy
football freestyler. The highlighted existence. They are essential. So, we
phrase is grammatically and contextually should use 'essential' instead of
correct. Thus, (E) is the right answer. 'mandatory'. Hence, the correct answer
Option (i) is incorrect as ‘flashlight’ is B.
refers to a torch; ‘spotlight’ means 89. Ans. A.
attention, and would have been more “About” is a preposition used to suggest
suitable. a rough estimate about a thing
Option (ii) is incorrect as the present (approximately). In the given sentence
perfect tense construction ‘have + verb’ “about” could have been used, had the
always takes the past participle of the sentence been “About two weeks ago”.
verb; ‘taken’ would have been more Since a time indicator is missing here,
suitable instead of ‘took’. another preposition should be used to
Option (iii) is incorrect as ‘site’ means a convey an appropriate sense. Thus, we
place or location; it should be replaced can either use “in” or “within” to indicate
with ‘sight’, as the phrase ‘caught sight’ that the work was completed in the
means taken notice of, which would duration of two weeks. Thus., option A is
have made more sense in this context. the correct answer.
84. Ans. B. 90. Ans. C.
The sentence talks about how distillers Clearly, part C starts the sentence. Part
need to strike a balance between C should be followed by a verb to
adjusting to global demands and indicate the action related to the cities.
maintaining the unique tradition of their Hence, part E follows. This leaves us
product. Both (ii) and (iii) are with options B and C. So, either A can
contextually appropriate. Thus, (B) is follow E or B both of which seem logical
the right answer. after E. D is the second last part which
The highlighted phrase is incorrect as again seems to be followed either by A
‘untouch’ is grammatically incorrect; we or B. Now we must choose the
need an adjective here, and ‘untouched’ appropriate part to be fllowed by D and
would have been more suitable. Option E respectively.
(i) is incorrect as the present participle A language of “rationality and
‘maintaining’ is needed here to carry meritocracy” is a more appropriate term
forward the sentence in a grammatically than a language of “modern–secular and
coherent manner. cosmopolitan values”. Thus, D must be
85. Ans. D. followed by B. So the correct sequence
The word 'pristyne' is misspelt here. The after rearrangement is CEADB.
correct spelling is "pristine", which 91. Ans. C.
means clean and spotless. Hence, the The sentence attempts to define
correct answer is option D. prejudice. Prejudice refers to a
86. Ans. B. preconceived opinion that is not based
The word 'lyes' is misspelt here. The on reason or actual experience. This
correct spelling is "lies", which means to makes B as the first sentence in the
rest on a horizontal surface. Hence, the sequence. Sentence B ends with an
correct answer is option B. auxiliary verb 'be' and will be followed
87. Ans. B. by main verb 'disguised' mentioned in E.
The word 'legetimate' is misspelt here. Thus, BE is a logical pair. This eliminates
The correct spelling is "legitimate", all other options except C. 'Prejudices
which means valid or justifiable. Hence, could also be disguised in the form of
the correct answer is B. remarks' is a complete clause. To add to
Note: "to" in part 1 hasn't been used as this clause, we need to use conjunction
infinitive. 'that'. 'Stereotypes' are generalized tags
88. Ans. B. which can only be mentioned after the
‘Mandatory’ means something that has thing being stereotyped has been
been ordered by an authority and must mentioned. As per the context of the

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sentence, individuals are being derived because of it. The first two
stereotyped, making DC a logical pair. paragraphs establish the relation
'About' as a preposition requires an between education and internet making
object which in this case is 'Physical alternative I correct. Alternative II is
appearance and bodily disposition'. also correct as shown by the following
Thus, C will be followed by A. Thus, the sentences from the passage – “A
correct answer is option C, BEDCA being number of factors, however, inhibit full
the correct order. achievement of these gains. Lack of
92. Ans. A. access is first and foremost among
Only parts A, C or D can begin the these.” But alternative III is incorrect as
sentence as the other parts start would the passage clearly states the opposite
make it abrupt. Since none of the in the following sentence –
options start with D, it can be “Educationalists are enthusiastically
eliminated. Part A cannot be the first exploring opportunities and discovering
segment as it cannot be logically new ways in which they can use the
followed by any other part. Now, since C Internet to improve education
ends with the adjective “vivid”, a noun outcomes.”
must follow it, thus, part E comes next. Hence, option D is the correct response.
The term “attention to detail” makes a 96. Ans. D.
proper sense, thus, part B comes next. The given passage is about how
D and A follow after B. Thus, the correct technology and specifically the internet
sequence is CEBDA. can be incorporated in to the education
93. Ans. B. system and the benefits that can be
Clearly, CA makes an appropriate sense. derived because of it.
We need conjunction to connect part A The first statement can be inferred from
to the rest of the sentence. Hence, part the following sentence in the passage –
D follows. “Yet” as conjunction means “National policies that draw together
‘but at the same time; nevertheless.’ experience in both education and
The first part of the sentence talks about technology, within different countries’
how important Kasaragod district was national contexts, are essential if the
for Karnataka state. After “yet” the Internet’s contribution to education is to
second part of the sentence should be maximised.” This indicates that when
present a contrast to the first part of the the knowledge/ experience from
sentence. Thereby, part B should follow. different countries, the contribution of
This makes CADB a group. Therefore, internet to education enhances.
option B is the apt answer. The second statement can be inferred
94. Ans. E. from the following sentence in the
Clearly, EA makes sense and is passage – “Access to the Internet, with
grammatically correct too. Part A should sufficient bandwidth, is essential for the
be followed by part B to maintain a development of an information society.
parallel structure. Also, B states another Lack of broadband connectivity is
fact about selling rats in local markets. preventing widespread use of Internet in
Naturally, the reason will follow next. education and other areas of life in many
This means EABC is a group. Part D is countries.” Certainly, the developed
definitely not ending the sentence as it countries will have maximum access to
carries the subject of the sentence (the internet, thus developing an information
poor people), and must come in the society.
beginning of the sentence. Thus, the Statement III can be inferred from the
correct sequence is DEABC and option E following lines mentioned in the last
is the correct answer. paragraph of the passage, “The success
95. Ans. D. of Internet in education will be measured
The given passage is about how by educational outcomes: improvements
technology and specifically the internet in students’ attainments, job
can be incorporated into the education opportunities”. This means that job the
system and the benefits that can be existence of job opportunities would

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underline the importance of Internet in ‘Vision’ in context of the given passage


education. refers to the ability to think about or
Hence, option D is the correct answer as plan the future with imagination or
all the given statements can be inferred wisdom.
from the passage. Intellect – the faculty of reasoning and
97. Ans. A. understanding objectively, especially
Refer these lines from the passage: with regard to abstract matters.
“This is not just a matter of connectivity. Perception – the way in which something
For access to be meaningful, it must also is regarded, understood, or interpreted.
be affordable for schools and individuals, Proficiency – expertise
and teachers and students must acquire Inanity - silliness
digital literacy and other skills required Peccadillo - a relatively minor fault or
to make best use of it. Those teachers sin.
and students also need to find and use Hence, option B is the correct answer.
locally relevant content.” Thus, option A 100. Ans. C.
is the correct response. ‘Challenge’ in context of the given
98. Ans. E. passage means opposition.
In the beginning of the passage, it has Objection - an expression or feeling of
been clearly mentioned that, “Education disapproval or oppositionProposition - a
is both a basic human right and a statement or assertion that expresses a
core element of sustainable judgement or opinion.
development. It is the theme of the Sanction - permission or approval for an
United Nations’ fourth Sustainable action.
Development Goal, which seeks to Vindication - the action of clearing
“ensure inclusive and equitable someone of blame or suspicion.
quality education and promote lifelong Impugn - dispute the truth, validity, or
learning opportunities for all.” Education honesty of (a statement or motive)
enables individuals to build more Hence, option C is the correct answer.
prosperous and successful lives and
societies to achieve economic prosperity
and social welfare.” Thus, all the options
describe the author’s view regarding
education.
99. Ans. B.

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