Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
DATE
04-08-2019
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12. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be
taken as final.
2. A particle is travelling on a curved path. In a certain time interval it speed changes from v to 2v,
however magnitude of change in velocity is 3 v , then
(1) Final velocity is perpendicular to initial velocity
(2) Final velocity vector makes an angle of 120o with initial velocity vector
(3) Final velocity vector makes an angle of 60o with initial velocity vector
(4) None of these
3. The velocity time graph of two particles moving along x-axis is shown in figure. At t = 0 both were at origin.
During first 4 sec, the instant when they are at maximum separation and the maximum separation are.
V(m/s)
4
2
1
t(sec)
4
(1) 2 sec, 4m (2) 2 sec, 32/7m (3) 16/7 sec, 32/7 m (4) 16/7 sec, 4m
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4. The x-z plane is the boundary between two transparent medium. Medium-I with y 0 has refractive
index and medium-II with y < 0 has refractive index 1. A ray of light in medium-I given by e i ˆi 3 ˆj
is incident on the plane surface of separation. If the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to
each other, find the value of .
2
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) (4) 2
3
2a x
5. A curved surface given by y = s in is silvered on one side as shown in figure. x and y are in
3 a
cm. If a ray incident on surface parallel to x–axis and reflected along y–axis then the co-ordinates of
point of incidence are.
y
Silvered Surface
a a a a a 3a a 3a
(1) , (2) , (3) ,
6
(4) ,
3 3 6 3 6
6. Three blocks A, B & C are connected by two strings x & y as shown in figure
A B C F
Spacex for Roughy Work
Smooth 2m 2m
The system is pulled in right direction by force F. If breaking strength of strings x & y are 100N & 220N
respectively then maximum value of F for which none of strings will breaks is.
(1) 400N (2) 440N (3) 300N (4) 330N
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7. A point object O is kept in front of a plane mirror AB having length 10m. The line AM makes an angle of
53o with mirror. An observer initially at point N on line CD start moving from rest towards D on line CD
with constant acceleration 7 m/s2. Then time for which he will see the object in mirror is.
C
B N
10m
53o O
M
A
6m 8m
Silvered Surface
D
8. In the figure shown, there is a equi -convex lens of radii of curvatures 20cm. The observers A & B are at
rest. Slab & lens are moving rightward as shown, then
5cm/s
3cm
O
B
5cm A air
air
air =1.5
10cm/s
=1.5
(1) Velocity of object O as observed by observer A is 10 cm/s is towards right
(2) Velocity of object O as observed by observer B is 75 cm/s is towards right
(3) Velocity of object O as observed by observer B is 75 cm/s is towards left.
(4) Velocity of object O as observed by observer B is 85 cm/s is towards right
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9. A concavo-convex lens of radii of curvatures 20 cm & 10 cm respectively silvered on one side as shown
then which of the following option is incorrect.
O
x Silvered
Surface
g=3/2
P
(1) If x = 8cm then final image coincide with object
(2) If x = 4cm then final image coincide with object
(3) If x < 4cm then final is virtual & enlarged.
(4) If x < 4cm & object is moving towards P then image is also moving towards P.
2
x
10. The refractive index of slab shown in figure varies with distance x from face AB as = 1 + . The
t
apparent distance of object observed by observer from face CD will be-
x
A C
O
2t
B D
t
8t
(1) t (2) t2 (3) (4) None of these
4 4 3
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11. Each of the figures below shows 3 blocks of masses 4m, 3m and 2m acted on by an external horizontal
force F. For each figure, which of the following options is INCORRECT. (FAB = Magnitude of the force
that block A exerts on block B, FBC = Magnitude of the force that block B exerts on block C) (Assume
that the surface on which the blocks move is frictionless.)
4m 3m 2m 4m 3m 2m
5F 2F
(1) In figure-1 FAB = (2) In figure-1 FBC =
9 9
4F 5F
(3) In figure-2 FAB = (4) In figure-2 FBC =
9 9
12. An object AB of length 10cm is moving with 5cm/s towards a convex mirror of focal length 20cm along
its axis. The convex mirror is also moving with 10cm/s away from object. At an instant end B of object
near to mirror is at a distance of 20cm then.
(1) Size of image of object AB at this instant is 3 cm in mirror
(2) Velocity of image of end A is 45/4 cm/s
(3) Velocity of image of end B is 54/5 cm/s
(4) Rate of change of length of image of AB is 9/20 cm/s
13. A motor is fixed inside a box which is moving upwards with velocity 5 m/s. String is winding at the rate 3
m/s. Then the velocity of block A will be:
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14. A body is thrown vertically upwards. Which one of the following graphs correctly represent the velocity
vs time ?
v v
(1) (2)
t
t
v v
(3) (4)
t t
15. A particle is projected from ground with 25 m/s at 37o with horizontal. A vertical plane mirror initial at a
distance 30m from point of projection is moving away from point of projection with 10 m/s. The relative
separation between particle and its image in plane mirror at t equal to 2sec will be.
10m/s
25m/s Silvered
Side
37o
30m
(1) 60m (2) 20m (3) 40m (4) 10m
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16. In the arrangement shown in figure block Q is being pulled with constant speed 9 m/s in horizontal
direction. All strings & pulleys are ideal then speeds of points A & B on string are
P Q
A 9m/s
Fixed
(1) 9m/s, 9m/s (2) 9m/s, 3m/s (3) 6m/s, 3m/s (4) 9m/s, 6m/s
17. A particle is moving along x – axis and its velocity (v) Vs position (x) graph is a curve as shown in
figure. Line PQR is normal to curve at point Q then instantaneous acceleration of particle at x = 2m is.
v(m/s)
P
v0
Q
R
x(m)
(2,0) (4,0)
18. A particle is moving along x-axis experiences a constant acceleration of 4 m/s 2 in negative x direction.
At time t = 3 sec it velocity was observed to be 8 m/s in positive x-direction. The distance travelled by
particle in time interval t = 0 to t = 7 sec will be:
(1) 42 m (2) 98 m (3) 49 m (4) 58 m
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19. A bead moves along a straight horizontal wire of length L, starting from the left end with velocity v 0. Its
retardation is proportional to the distance that remains to the right end of the wire. If bead reaches to
v 0
right end of the wire with velocity then initial acceleration at left end of wire will be-
2
2 2 2 2
3v0 v0 3v0 v0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2L 6L 6L 4L
20. Three stones are projected simultaneously with same speed v from top of a tower. Stone 1 is projected
horizontally & other two makes an angle with horizontal as shown in figure. Before stone 2 hits
2
ground, the distance between 1 and 3 was found to increase at constant rate v.
5
1
Then
(1) Angle is 37o
(2) Angle is 60o
(3) Rate at which distance between 2 & 3 increase is 3 v
8
(4) Rate at which distance between 2 & 3 increase is v
5
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21. A particle is projected from point A. A fly is standing at a tower at point B as shown in figure. When
particle passes from B, fly starts flying in horizontal direction with constant speed of 2 m/sec. Both will
meet at the same horizontal level at point C. Then : (g = 10 m/sec2)
9
(1) angle of projection is tan–1 (2) angle of projection is tan–1 (2)
2
(3) angle of projection is 45º (4) None of these
22. In an Atwood machine the sum of two masses is constant. The string & pulley are ideal. If the string can
sustain tension equal to 15/32 of the weight of sum of two masses then the least acceleration of two
masses will be:
(1) g/4 (2) g/2 (3) g/5 (4) None of these
23. In the given arrangement all strings and pulleys are ideal. When system was released it was observed
that m1 & m2 do not move. Then
m1
m2
Space for Rough Work
m3
m4
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24. Two blocks of equal masses have been placed on two faces of a fixed wedge as shown in figure. The
blocks are released from position where centre of one block is at a height h above the centre of other
block. The time after which the centre of two blocks will be at same level is-
m
h
m
60o 30o
2h h h 3h
(1) (2) 2 2 (3) 2 3 (4)
g g g g
25. A disc of mass 1 Kg lies on a smooth horizontal table. A light string runs half way around it as shown in
figure. One end of string is attached to a particle of mass 0.5 Kg & other end being pulled with a force
F. There is no friction between the disc and the string. The acceleration of end of the string to which
force is being applied is-
F=4N
1kg
m
0.5kg
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26. Two monkeys A & B are holding on the two sides of light string passing over a smooth pulley.
(mA = 8 Kg & mB = 10 Kg, g = 10m/s2)
A B
(1) If monkey A holds the string tightly & B goes down with acceleration 2 m/s 2 relative to the string then
monkey A feels greater than true weight of his own body.
(2) If monkey A holds string tightly & B goes down with acceleration 2 m/s 2 relative string then tension
in string is 60N
(3) If A holds string tightly and B goes down with acceleration 4 m/s 2 relative to string then A feels true
weight of his own body.
(4) If a holds string tightly & B goes down with acceleration 4 m/s 2 relative to string then both A & B fet
feels weight equals to 640/9 N.
27. A particle is moving along straight line whose position x at time t is described by x = t 3 – t2 where x is in
meters and t is in seconds. Then the average acceleration from t = 2 sec. to t = 4 sec. is :
(1) 16 m/s2 (2) 18 m/s2 (3) 22 m/s (4) 10 m/s2
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7
28. Refractive index of a prism is and the angle of prism is 60º. The minimum angle of incidence of a
3
ray that will be transmitted through the prism is :
(1) 30º (2) 45º (3) 15º (4) 50º
3
29. A particle is projected vertically upwards. It will be at of its greatest height at time t = t1 and t = t2.
4
30. A rod of length 4m is leaned against a wall as shown. It is released from the position when = 60o, The
end A of rod remains in contact with the wall and its end B remains in contact with floor as the rod
slides down. The distance covered by the centre of rod by the time it hits the floor is
A
4m
B
1 2 2
(1) m (2) m (3) m (4) m
3 3 3 3
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PART – B
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Consider the isoelectronic ions, K+, S2–, Cl– and Ca2+. The radii of these ionic species follow the order –
(1) Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2– (2) Cl– > S2– > K+ > Ca2+
(3) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ (4) K+ > Ca2+ > S2– > Cl–
32. Value of vander Waal's constants a and b for a gas depends upon :
(1) moles (2) volume (3) pressure (4) Gas taken
33. Which of the following contains both electrovalent and covalent bonds ?
(1) CH4 (2) H2O2 (3) NH4Cl (4) none of these
34. A 1.5 m solution of acetic acid () is mixed with 3 m solution of the acetic acid () to prepare 2 m
solution (m is molality of solution). Select the correct statement(s) :
1
(I) Mass ratio of solvents mixed is
2
2
(II) Mass ratio of solvents mixed is
1
109
(III) Mass ratio of solutions mixed is
59
59
(IV) Mass ratio of solutions mixed is
109
(1) I, III (2) I, IV (3) II, III (4) II, IV
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35. The given graph can be associated to which of the following orbital ?
36. The amount of arsenic pentasulphide (As2S5) that can be obtained when 35.5 g arsenic acid (H3AsO4)
is treated with excess H2S in the presence of conc. HCl (assuming 100% conversion) is :
(Given atomic weight of As = 75)
(1) 0.333 mol (2) 0.125 mol (3) 0.25 mol (4) 0.50 mol
37. An unknown gaseous hydrocarbon and oxygen gas are mixed in volume ratio 1 : 7 and exploded. The
resulting mixture upon cooling occupied a volume of V mL, half of which got absorbed in aq. KOH
(absorbs CO2) and the remaining half was absorbed in alkalline pyrogallol solution (absorbs O2).
Assuming all volumes to be measured under identical conditions :
(1) The molecular formula of hydrocarbon can be C2H6.
(2) The resulting mixture obtained after cooling contains 50% O2 and 50% CO by mole.
(3) The molecular formula of hydrocarbon can be C3H4.
(4) Molecular mass of hydrocarbon is definitely less than 28 u.
38. Total number of electrons having + m value equal to zero in 26Fe can be :
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39. What is the correct order of second ionisation energy for the following ?
(1) F < N < C < O (2) N < C < F < O (3) C < N < F < O (4) O < C < F < N
41. The compressibility factor of a gas is less than unity at 273 K and Vm = 22.4 L therefore,
(1) P > 1 atm (2) P = 1 atm (3) P < 1 atm (4) P = 2atm
43. At Boyle’s temperature, the graph of Z v/s P is drawn select correct graph.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
P
Space for Rough Work
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44. The compressibility factor for a gas is 0.9 at 273 K and 9 atm. Find the volume of 10–3 mol of gas at this
0.0821atm L
T and P (R = ).
mol K
45. Which of the following pairs consist of species which are both diamagnetic?
(1) NO (2) NO2 (3) ClO2
(1) (2) and (4) (2) (5) and (6) (3) (1) and (3) (4) (2) and (6)
46. The average charge on each O atom and average bond order of S–O bond in SO42– is :
(1) –1 & 1.67 (2) – 1/2 & 1.5 (3) –1/2 & 1.67 (4) –1/2 & 1.33
47. For which of the following orbitals, the probability of finding the electrons along both X-axis and Y-axis
is non-zero.
(1) dxy (2) d (3) pz (4) dzx
x2 y2
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49. In which of the following delocalisation of anion is not possible ?
51. The reductive ozonolysis product of Ph–CH=CH–CH3 can be distinguished with the following
reagents/tests :
(1) Fehling solution (2) Tollen's reagent (3) Lucas reagent (4) 2,4-D.N.P. test
(i) O3
(M) C5H8
(ii) Zn + H2O
52.
H2 + Ni (N) Cl2 + h
53. Which of the following compound will not liberate CO2 gas on reaction with sodium bicarbonate ?
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54. An organic compound which gives Lucas test in 5 min as well as gives yellow ppt with I 2/ OH– is/are
OH
O OH OH
CH
(1) (2) CH3–CH2 (3) CH3–CH–CH3 (4) C2H5
56. Total number of structural unsaturated 3° alcohols possible with molecular formula C6H12O is :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
OCH3 O–CH3
OCH3 OCH3
58. Total no. of resonating structure without charge separation of give cation is (including the given
structure) ?
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59. How many groups (attached with benzene ring) can show + M effect.
CONH2 NO2 CN F
NH2 H
N
S
O
HO O N
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PART – C
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61.
If a, b, c R, and are roots of equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 a 0 , then 1 1 will be
2 2
(1) 0 (2) Positive (3) Negative (4) None of these
62. In an examination of a certain class, at least 69% of the students failed in Physics, at least 72% failed in
Chemistry, at least 80% failed in Mathematics and at least 85% failed in English. How many at least
must have failed in all the four subjects ?
(1) 8% (2) 7%
(3) 6% (4) 15%
63. Out of 30 computers of a room, 20 contain windows, 8 contain monitors, 25 contain CR drives, 20
contain atleast two from above three components and 6 contain all three components. Number of these
computers contain at least one component is a two digit number then sum of digit is equal
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) data inconsistent
64. The number of solution of the equation |x – 1| + |x – 10| = 9 + [x] – x is/are (where [.] denotes greatest
integer function)
(1) 2 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 0
2 1
If R and x x 3x 2 0 has real and distinct root and minimum value of
2
65. is ,then
2 2
value of 2 is
1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4
2
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66. Number of integral value of n for which n4 + 4 is a prime number is/are
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
67. Let A = {1, 2, 3} and R be a relation on A defined as R = {(1, 2), (1, 3)}, then R is
(1) Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
(2) Neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive
(3) Transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric
(4) None of these
70. Number of real values of x for which (x + 2)2 + (x2 + 5x + 6)2 + (x2 + 3x + 2)2 = 0 is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
71. If a,b,c R and quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 (a 0) has no real roots then
(1) c(a + b + c) < 0 (2) c(a + b + c) > 0 (3) a + b + c > 0 (4) c < 0
72. If f(x) = {x + [cos x]} + {x + [cos2 x]} + {x + [cos3x]} + {x + [cos4x]} +……..+ {x + [cos10x]}
where [.] and {.} denotes GIF and fractional part function respectively, then value of [f(e)] is
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
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Let f x
1
73. , [.] is the greatest integer function, then number of positive integral value in the
6 x 2 2
x 1
74. Number of integers which satisfy the inequality is/are
x 1
2 x 2
x
76. For function f(x) = nx + n – [nx + n] + tan (n N and [.] denotes greatest integer function), period will
4
be
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
S2020 4S2019
77. If and are roots of equation x2 – 4x – 3 = 0 and Sn n n , n N , then value of is
S2018
78. Let f(x) = sgn ([x] + [–x]) + sgn ({x} + {–x}) where [.] denotes greatest integer and {.} fractional part
function, then value of f ( ) f (e) f (0) f (cos ) is
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79. Number of real solution of the equation 10|x| = 1 + 2 x is/are
80. Let R = {(3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9), (12, 12), (6, 12), (3, 9), (3, 12), (3, 6)} be a relation on the set
A = {3, 6, 9, 12} then relation R is
(1) Reflexive and symmetric only (2) an equivalence relation
(3) Reflexive only (4) Reflexive and Transitive only
81. If cosA sin A – is maximum, then value of A is equal to
6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 2 6
1
83. Let 22 6 52 1 , where R, then maximum value of 2 2 1 2 is
84.
2 2
If minimum value of function f x 1 x 2 x 1 is g , then maximum value of g will be
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85. The complete set of value of a for which quadratic equation x 2 + 2ax + a2 – 1 = 0 has at least one
negative root is given by
(1) (1 , ) (2) ,1 (3) (–1 , ) (4) , 1
x2
86. Let range of expression is , x R, then value of 10 | | 7 | | is
x x2
2
3 3
(1) , 2, (2) , 2 3, (3) [2, 3] (4) , 2, 3
4 4
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