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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019

PHYSICS

1. Stars moving towards earth show:


A) Red shift C) Blue shift
B) Green shift D) Yellow shift
2. A Stretched wire with clamed ends has a fundamental frequency of 1000 Hz. What
will
new fundamental frequency if the tension in the same wire increases by 2 times?
A) 980 Hz C) 1010 Hz
B) 1020 Hz D) 1410 Hz
3. The velocity of sound in a gas in which two waves of lengths 0.1 and 0.2 m produce 10
beats per second is:
-1 -1
A) 1 ms C) 3 ms
-1 -1
B) 2 ms D) 4 ms
4. Progressive wave of frequency 300 Hz are superposed to produce a system of
stationary
waves in which adjacent nodes are 1.5 m apart. What is the speed of progressive
waves?
A) 100 m/sec C) 450 m/sec
B) 200 m/sec D) 900 m/sec
st
5. The frequency of third harmonic is 300 Hz. The frequency of 1 overtone will be:
A) 100 Hz C) 200 Hz
B) 300 Hz D) 900 Hz

6. A source of sound wave moves away with the velocity of sound from a stationary
observer. The frequency of the note is __________.
A) Unchanged C) Halved
B) Doubled D) Squared
7. A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container because molecules
A) Have finite size C) Have momentum
B) Obey Boyle's law D) Collide with one another

8. In thermodynamics, the internal energy is a function of:


A) Time C) Temperature
B) State D) None of these

9. If N be Avogadro’s number and R be the gas constant per gram molecule of gas, then
the Boltzmann’s constant K is given by.
A) N + R C) R/NA
B) N/R D) NR

10. Which of the following is a work


A) TV C) PΔV
PΔV
B) T/V D) T
11. Diatomic gas molecules have
energy.
A) Vibrational C) Vibrational, Translational, rotational
B) Vibrational and Translational D) Both A and B
12. When piston is suddenly pushed in
ward
A) Q = U C)

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
) D) Q = ΔU

13. In the adiabatic process.


A) ΔT 0 C) Δ 0
) ΔQ 0 D) PVγ = 0

14. Suppose the pressure of 20 g of an ideal monatomic gas is tripled while its volume is
halved. What happens to the internal energy of the gas?
A) It stays the same, as the described changes do not involve internal energy.
B) It increases.
C) It decreases.
D) This depends on the molecular weight of the gas involved, thus this is indeterminate.
15. Increase in temperature of gas is due to
increase in
A) Translational K.E C) Rotational K.E
B) Gravitational K.E D) Vibrational K.E

16. Pressure of gas can be given by


2 2
A) P = 2N ( 1 mv ) C) P = N (1 mv )
3 2 3V 2
2
B) P = 2N (1 mv ) D) All of these
3V 2

17. Heat leaves a system, it is taken as


A) Positive C) Negative
B) Zero D) None of these

18. In an adiabatic compression, the temperature of the gas


A) Increases C) Decreases
B) Remain same D) becomes zero

19. Which equation describe the situation when heat is supplied at constant volume
A) Δ CPΔT C) Δ CVΔT
B) QP = CPΔT D) QP = CVΔT
20. Which equation express the Isothermal
process
A) PVγ = constant C) VT = constant
B) Q = W ) U

21. At constant temperature, the graph between V and 1/P is


A) Hyperbola C) Parabola
B) A curve of any shape D) A straight line

22. The temperature of 1 Kg of hydrogen gas is the same as that of 1 Kg helium gas if
A) Both have same Internal Energy C) Both have same volumes
B) Both have same Crms D) None of these
23. What is the Boolean equation for the logic gate shown?

A
Y
B
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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
A) ̅ (B) ̅ (C) ̿ (D) ̅ ̅
24. The following configuration of gates is equivalent to

A
B

A) NAND C) OR
B) XOR D) None of these

25. Identity the gate in the figure.

A) OR C) NOR
B) XOR D) NAND

26. Identity the gate in figure.

A) AND C) NOT
B) OR D) NAND
27. Refer to the circuit shown in figure. What inputs X and Y will produce a high output at
R?

X
Y

X = 0, Y = 0 X = 0, Y = 1
X = 1, Y = 1 X = 1, Y = 0

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
28. What is the Boolean equation of the network figure?

A
D

B
Y
C

A) ABCD B) A + BCD C) A + B + C + D D) AB + CD

29. Identify the gate in figure.

A) AND C) NOR
B) XOR D) NAND
30. The diagram shows a logic network which single gate is equivalent to the network?

A) Ex-NOR C) Ex-OR
B) NOR D) OR

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
31. For the given combination of gates, if the logic states of inputs A, B,
C are as follows A = B = C = 0 and A = B = I, C = 0 then the logic
states of output D are

A
B

D
C

A) 0,0 C) 1,0
B) 0,1 D) 1,1
32. The diagram shows a logic network which single gate is equivalent to the
network?

A) AND C) NOR
B) NAND D) XOR
33. The symbol give in figure represent

E C

A) N-P-N transistor C) Forward biased P-N junction diode


B) P-N-P transistor D) Reverse biased N-P junction diode

34. Break down region exist in


A) Diode C) Forward biased diode
B) Transistor D) Reverse biased diode
100
35. If R1 = infinity and R2 = 10 then gain of non-inverting Op-Amp is
A) 0 C) 2
B) 1 D) Infinity
36. The unit of the Sensitivity of CRO
is
A) V/mm C) Ohm/m
B) Ampere/division D) No units

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
37. CRO the ejected electron form a cloud around the Cathode which is known as
A) Electronic Cloud C) Charge density of cathode
B) Space charge D) None of these
38.Sec/ ohm is equal to:
A Farad B coulomb C joule D Ampere
39. If air is replaced by a dielectric in parallel plate capacitor, then the potential difference:
A decreases B increases C Remains constant D Both A and B
40. The value of 4 is:
A 9 x 109 NmC-2 B 1/ 9 x 109 Nm2C-2 C 1NmC-2 D 8.85 x 10-12 NmC-2

CHEMISTRY
+ 2+
41. The species Ar, K and Ca are isoelectronic (have same number of
electrons). In what
order do their radii increase. (Smallest → Largest)
2+ + 2+ +
A) Ar, Ca , K C) Ca , Ar, K
+ +2 2+ +
B) Ar, K , Ca D) Ca , K , Ar
42. Which one of the following methods is the most suitable for the
extraction of Barium?
A) Electrolyzing aqueous
barium chloride
B) Electrolyzing molten
barium chloride
C) Roasting barium sulphide
in air
D) Reducing barium oxide
with carbon
43. The solubilities of Group II-A metal sulphates decrease as the
proton number of the
metal increases. Which factor affects this trend?
A) The atomic radius of the
metal atom
B) The enthalpy change of of formation of the sulphates
C) the enthalpy change of hydration of the metal ion
D) the first ionization
energy of the metal
44. Which of the following elements forms largest size of ion
with a noble gas
configuration?
A) Al C) P
B) Cl D) S

45. Which group of the element has maximum M.P and B.P
A) I-A C) IV-A
B) II-A D) III-A

46. Which of the element has lowest M.P and B.P


A) B C) Mg
B) Ca D) Sr

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
st
47. Which property of 1 six elements of period 3 (Na to S)
continuously increase
numerically?
A) Atomic radius C) Oxidation state
st
B) 1 Ionization energy D) Melting point
48. In the periodic table the electronegativity of the elements in
A) Period 3 increases from
Na to Cl C) Group III increase from I to F
B) Group-2 increases from
Ba to Be D) All of above
-2
49. Which of the following SO4 are soluble in water?
A) MgSO4 C) SrSO4
B) CaSO4 D) BaSO4

50. Which of the following element form peroxide?


A) Mg C) Sr
B) Ca D) Li

51. Which of the following react with hot water?


A) Ca C) Mg
B) Sr D) Ba

52. Which of the following hydroxide is more basic in nature?


A) Be(OH)2 C) Ca(OH)2
B) Mg(OH)2 D) Sr(OH)2
53. Which of the following oxide of group II-A element is amphoteric ion
nature?
A) BeO C) BaO
B) MgO D) CaO
54. Which of the following elements carbonate do not decompose on
heating?
A) CaCO3 C) Na2CO3
B) MgCO3 D) SrCO3
55. Neon has all the
following uses
except
A) Acts as an anesthetic C) Neon sign
B) fluorescent tube D) Photography

56. Halogens show all the following property except?


A) All the halogens show common oxidation state -1
B) Chlorine does not show +1
oxidation state
C) Halogen can show both odd and even oxidation state
D) Halogen combine with metal to form ionic halides

57. Which of the following is not a use of chlorine


A) Sterilization of water C) Manufacturing of bleaching powder
B) Flame retardant D) Used for swimming pools

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
58. Deficiency of which of the following halogen is the main cause of
goiter and dwarfism
A) Iodine C) Chlorine
B) Fluorine D) Bromine

59. The group which shows highest electrical conductance


A) I-A C) I-B
B) IV-A D) V-A

60. Which of the following cannot be decomposed by heating


A) NaHCO3 C) Ca(HCO3)2
B) Sr(HCO3)2 D) None of these
61. Which of the group of elements shows maximum binding energy?
A) III-B C) II-B
B) IV-B D) V-B
62. Which of the following element doesn’t belong to VI-B of transition
elements
A) Cr C) Mo
B) W D) Mn
63. The co-ordination number of Cr and its oxidation state in
[Cr(C2O4)(NH3)4]Cl is
A) 3,2 C) 5,6
B) 4,1 D) 6,3

64. Which complex ion shows trigonal bipyramid geometry?


2-
A) [MnCl4] C) [FeCl5]
2- 3+
B) [Cu(NH3)4] D) [CO(NH3)6]
65. Most of the elements show which of the following geometry
A) Tetrahedral C) Linear
B) Square planar D) Octahedral
66. In the 3d series, element in the beginning and element at the end mostly
show which of the following stable oxidation state:

A) 2-3 C) 3,5
B) 3,2 D) 3,6
67. Nitrogen shows anomalous behavior which property is shown by
nitrogen
A) Penthalide formation C) Complex formation
B) Allotropy D) Multiple bonds

68. Nitrogen is very essential and macro nutrient. It has many uses except
A) Fertilizers C) As an inert atomosphere
B) Acrylicfibre D) Nylon 6,6
69. H2SO4 is the heaviest chemical. It has all of the following properties
except
A) Dehydrating agent C) Drying agent
B) High boiling point due to
H-bonding D) Reducing agent

70. NH3 can be dried by

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
A) Con H2SO4 C) CaO
B) P4O10 D) Anhydrous CaCl2

71. By heating ammnioum dichromate, which gas is released


A) Oxygen C) Ammonia
B) Nitrogen gas D) Nitrous oxide
72. Which of the following compounds is most likely use to produce chlorine
when
concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to it
A) Al2O3 C) Fe2O3
B) CuO D) PbO2
73. Sulphur is used for
A) Gun powder C) Vulcanization of rubber
B) Fungicide D) All of them
74. Suphuric acid is not
used for
A) Pickling of metal C) In the preparation of fertilizers
B) In metallurgy D) Preservation of food
75. Which of the following statement is incorrect about 3d transition
series of transition elements

A) Melting and boiling point first increases due to increase of no of un-paired


electrons
B) Lower melting point of Zn, Cd and Hg are due to unpaired d electron
C) The atomic radii tend to reach minimum at the middle
D) Transition metals do not form compounds in lower oxidation state
76. Coordination number is very important in biological system. In this
context, which statement is incorrect:

A) Chlorophyll green pigment


contains Ca
B) Haemoglobin is red pigment of blood and contain Fe
C) Cyanocobalt amine
D) Carboxyl peptidase is an enzyme
77. Which of the following is
bidentateligend
A) Hydronium ion C) Oxalate
B) Ammonia D) EDTA

-4
78. [Fe(CN)6] has
A) Square planar C) Trigonal bipyramidal
B) Tetrahedral D) Octahedral
79. Which of the following is a
macro nutrient
A) Cu C) Cl
B) B D) Ca

80. Which of the following is second most widely used fertilizer


A) Urea C) DAP
B) Ammonium nitrate D) Calcium super phosphate

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81. Which of the following is a
reducing agent?
A) KMNO4 C) KI
B) K2Cr2O7 D) H2SO4
82. Transition elements form coloured compunds which pair of
complementary colour is
incorrect
A) Blue, orange C) Green, violet
B) Indigo, yellow D) Blue-green, red

83. The colour of the complex of any metal ion depends upon the:
A) Nature of ligand C) Geometry of the complex
B) Oxidation state D) All of these
84. Which of the following is anhydride of HNO2 (nitrous acid)
A) NO C) N2O3
B) NO2 D) N2O5
85. Sulphuric acids does
not act as
A) Dehydrating agent C) Reducing agent
B) Pickling D) Acid producing acid
86. Which of the following metal doesn’t produce hydrogen gas with
dil.sulphuric acid
A) Fe C) Mg
B) Zn D) Cu
87. The gases which are released when carbon is oxidized by hot
concentrated sulphuric acid are

A) CO2 and SO2 C) CO2 and SO3


B) CO and SO2 D) CO and S

88. Nitrogen dioxide can be obtained by the thermal decomposition of


A) Silver nitrate C) Potassium nitrate
B) Sodium nitrate D) Lead nitrate

89. The acid used in the manufacture of explosives like trinitrotoluene is


A) Nitrous acid C) Sulphuric acid
B) Nitric acid D) Propanoic acid

90. Which statement is incorrect about phosphorous?


A) Phosphorus means light
bearing element
B) It is essential constituent
of bones
C) It occurs in seeds, yolk of
egg
D) Exists in the pentameric
form

91. Which of the following acids act both as reducing and oxidizing agent
A) HNO2 C) H3PO4
B) H2SO4 D) HClO4
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92. Which of the element are called non -typical transition elements
A) Ti C) Fe
B) Cr D) Cd

93. Which of the following technique is used to stop iron from corrosion
A) Pickling C) Galvanizing
B) Prilling D) Annealing

94. O2 is not used for


A) Oxy-acetylene torch C) In preparation of phenol
B) In metallurgies D) In purification of air in hospitals
95. Trans 2-butene can be obtained from 2-butyne
using
A) Na/NH3(liquid) C) H2/Pd(BaSO4) quinoline
B) LiAlH4 D) H2/Pd

96. Ethene on oxidation with alkaline potassium permanganate solution


A) Glycol C) Acetaldehyde
B) Acetone D) Glyoxal
97. Ozonolysis of ethene gives finally two
moles of
A) Methanal C) Ethanol
B) Methanol D) Methanoic acid
.
98. Synthetic rubber’s monomer
is
A) 2 – methyl 1, 3 – butadiene C) 2 – chloro 1, 3 – butadiene
B) 2,3 – dimethyl 1, 3 – butadiene D) 2,3 – dichloro 1, 3 – butadiene
99. In propene, the mode of hybridization
observed is
3 3 2
A) sp and sp C) sp and sp
D)
2 2
B) sp and sp sp
100. The number of only
xylene isomers is
A) 2 C) 3
B) 4 D) 5

BIOLOGY
101. Digestion of starch is carried out in human gut at __________ sites.
A) 1 C) 2
B) 3 D) 4

102. Digestion of polypeptide, in human gut is carried out at how many sites?
A) 1 C) 2
B) 3 D) 4

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103. Human oral cavity is laterally bound by
A) tongue and teeth C) Palate
B) Cheeks D) All of these

104. Which part of our gut performs a role analogous to teeth


A) Esophagus C) Pharynx
B) Stomach D) Duodenum

105. Which one of the following does not secrete starch digestive enzyme
A) Salivary glands C) Sublingual glands
B) Sub maxillary Glands D) Parotid Glands
106. Sodium bicarbonate and other salts present in saliva performs ________
functions
A) 1 C) 2
B) 3 D) 4
107. Digestion
of protein is
accomplished in
A) Oral cavity C) Stomach
B) Duodenum D) Jejunum
108. Which one
is secreted in
concentrated
form
A) Mucous C) Pepsinogen
B) Hydrochloric Acid D) Saliva

109. The secretion of gastric juice will be more, if;


A) Lipid content in food is more C) Protein content in food is more
B) Carbohydrate content in food is more D) Starch content in food is more
110. Secretion in duodenum is made
from
A) Pancreas C) Liver
B) Duodenal cells D) All of these
111. It is secreted by liver, stored in gall bladder and poured in
duodenum. It is
A) A green watery fluid C) A whitish watery fluid
B) A green semi solid D) A whitish semi solid
112. The vulnerabilities of liver are
added by
A) Its large size C) Its fixed position
B) It fragile tissue D) All of these
113. The release of bile may be
blocked by
A) Precipitation of cholesterol C) Precipitation bile pigment
B) Precipitation bile salts D) Precipitation of entire bile
114. It extends form duodenum to
ileum.
A) Caecum C) Colon
B) Ileum D) Jejunum

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115. The activity of digestion is
accomplished by
A) Duodenal juices C) Pancreatic juice
B) Intestinal juices D) Gastric juices

116. The condensation of fatty acids and glycerol takes place in


A) SER C) Epithelial cells of villi
B) Both A and B D) Lacteals
117. During the journey from the lumen of the gut to the cells of the
body; lipids are
A) First condensed, then hydrolyzed
B) First hydrolyzed, then condensed, then hydrolyzed again
C) First hydrolyzed, then condensed
D) First condensed, then hydrolyzed, then condensed again.

118. A microbial activity can be encouraged in which part of gut.


A) Oral cavity C) Stomach
B) Duodenum D) Caecum

119. Over compaction of fecal matter may result in


A) Appendicitis C) Diarrhea
B) Constipation D) Jaundice
Every single beat of the heart involves
A) Four major stages C) Five major stages
B) Three major stages D) Six major stages

120. Throughout the cardiac cycle the blood pressure


A) Increases C) Decreases and increases
B) Decreases D) Increases and decreases

121. Major amount of oxygen is carried by blood in form of


A) Oxyhemoglobin C) Bicarbonate
B) Dissolved in plasma D) Carboxyhemoglobin
Blood leaves each kidney via.
A) Renal vein C) Afferent arteriole
B) Renal artery D) Efferent arteriole
122. A central cavity of the kidney in which urine is collected, following the
filtration of blood
and further processing through tubular system.
A) Renal Pelvis C) Renal corpuscle
B) Renal hilus D) Renal pyramid
123. Which one is wrong about
urethra
A) It is a tube, through which urine leaves the body
B) During urination, it receives urine from urinary bladder
C) It empties in the vagina in females.
D) It empties through the penis in males.

124. In human adults, urination is voluntarily controlled by


A) Sphincter at the base of urethra C) Sphincter at the distal end of urethra
B) Sphincter at the base of ureter D) Sphincter at the proximal end of ureter

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125. Cortical nephrons are
arranged along
A) Cortex C) Cortex and medulla
B) Medulla D) Either cortex and medulla
126. A nephron finally empties
into
A) Renal Pelvis C) Urinary bladder
B) Urine collecting tubule D) Ureter
127. Network of capillaries, which intermingle with proximal and distal tubules
of the
nephron is
A) Vasa recta C) Glomerulus.
B) Peritubular capillaries D) All of these

128. Pick up the choice which is incorrect about vasa recta


A) Is network of vessels C) Present in juxtamedullary nephrons only
B) Located in the loop of Henle D) Both A and B

129. The collecting tubule of a kidney is located between.


A) DCT and PCT C) PCT and renal pelvis
B) Loop of Henle and PCT D) DCT and renal pelvis
130. Glomerular filterate does not contains numerous useful substances such
as
A) Glucose C) Salts
B) Amino acids D) Plasma proteins
131. Reabsorption of all the constituents of glomerular filtrate takes place in
A) Proximal tubules C) Loop of Henle
B) Distal tubules D) None of these

132. During urine formation, tubular secretion occurs from


A) Tubular epithelium into the lumen C) Capillary epithelium into the lumen
B) Tubular lumen into the epithelium D) Capillary lumen into the epithelium

133. The pH value of the filtrate passing through the tubule is balanced by
A) Tubular secretion C) Both A and B
B) Hydrogen ions D) Hydroxyl ions

134. In restricted supply of water, the principal function of the body is


A) Conservation of water C) Counter current multiplier
B) Secretion of aldosterone D) All of these

In the sufficient supply of water, reabsorption of water from the filtrate is reduced by
A) Conservation of water C) Secretion of vasopressin
B) Counter current multiplier D) Secretion of aldosterone

135. When ADH is secreted


A) Conservation of water takes place C) Concentrated urine is produced
B) Volume is urine is reduce D) More frequent urination occurs
136. Counter-current multiplier
results in
A) Gradual concentration of the interstitial fluid

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
B) Gradual concentration of the urine
C) Gradual dilution of the urine
D) Gradual dilution of the interstitial fluid
137. A person produces hypertonic
urine, when
A) Water supply is sufficient C) ADH is not secreted
B) Water is supply is restricted D) Aldosterone is secreted

138. Active reabsorption occurs in


A) Descending loop of Henle C) Urine collecting tubule
B) Ascending loop of Henle D) Both B and C
139. Kidney as osmoregulatory
organ is assisted
A) Posterior pituitary C) Anterior pituitary
B) Adrenal medulla D) Adrenal cortex
140. Diuresis occurs under the
influence of
A) ADH C) Overdrinking
B) Vasopressin D) All of these

141. High levels of circulating calcium in blood is called.


A) Kidney stones C) Both A and B
B) Hypercalcemia D) Hyperoxaluria

142. High levels of circulating oxalates in blood is consequence of


A) Kidney stones C) Both A and B
B) Hyperoxaluria D) Hypercalcemia
143. Receptors in the hypothalamus
are
A) Chemoreceptors C) Photoreceptors
B) Thermoreceptors D) Both B and C
144. Meissner’s corpuscles do not
A) Situated deep in the body C) Consist of twisted endings
B) Consist of spiral endings D) End in a knob
145. Pacinian corpuscles
A) Lie in papillae C) Receive pressure stimulus
B) Are also non-encapsulated neuron endings D) Are touch receptors
146. The intensity of stimulus is
increased by
A) Repeated impulses C) Both A and B
B) Involving more fibers D) Force of impulse

147. Pick up the modality of sensation from the following


A) Pain and touch C) Touch and sight
B) Sight and sound D) All of these

148. Pick up the true choice


A) Pain receptors are nearly more abundant than cold receptors
B) Cold receptors are nearly more abundant than pain receptors
C) The heat or temperature receptors are more abundant than cold receptors
D) Both A and C

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THE AMBITIOUS ENTRY TEST 2019
149. Arrange the following receptors in abundance order
A) Heat, Cold, Pain C) Pain, Cold, Heat
B) Cold, Heat, pain D) Pain, Heat, Cold
150. ____________Are the chief structural and functional unit of
nervous system
A) Neurons C) Glial Cells
B) Neuroglia D) All of these

151. Once divide do not mature any further is true about


A) Nerve cells C) Skin cells
B) Glial cells D) None of these
152. Are the structures which are stimulated by impulse coming via
motor neuron.
A) Receptors C) Muscles
B) Glands D) Both B and C
153. Nerve Impulse/action
potential
A) Is a wave of chemical changes C) Travels along the length of neuron
B) Is a wave of electrical changes D) All of these

154. PNS nerve includes


A) Interneurons C) Associative neurons
B) Motor neurons D) All of these
155. It takes input from sense organs and conveys output to skeletal
muscles
A) Autonomic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system
B) Somatic nervous system D) Autonomic nervous system

156. Stimulus for relaxing responses are conveyed by


A) Somatic nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system
B) Autonomic nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system

157. Rumination is controlled by


A) Somatic nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system
B) Autonomic nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system

158. Protection against bumps and jolts to CNS is provided by


A) Cranium and vertebral column C) Meninges
B) CSF D) All of these
159. Which one of the following is
not hollow?
A) Brain C) CNS
B) Spinal cord D) None of these

160. A cluster of neurons produce sensation of pleasure in


A) Amygdala C) Cerebrum
B) Hippocampus D) Hypothalamus

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161. It is involved in storage of memory, fear, rage tranquility and
hunger
A) Amygdala C) Hypothalamus
B) Hippocampus D) Limbic system

162. Memory storage for behaviors is carried out by


A) Hippocampus C) Cerebellum
B) Cerebrum D) All of these

163. It prepares the body for highly energetic activity


A) Somatic nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system
B) Autonomic nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system
164. It slows down digestion
A) Somatic nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system
B) Autonomic nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system
165. Thy longest axon is held by
A) Motor neurons C) Associative neuron
B) Sensory neuron D) Interneuron

166. The dendrites and axons of relay neurons can be identified by


A) Dendron C) Long axon
B) Synaptic knobs D) Axonal dendrites

167. During inspiration, air rushes from outside due to


A) Open nostrils C) Open air passageways
B) Lower atmospheric pressure D) Higher atmospheric pressure

168. Blood constitutes the ___________of our body weight


th th
A) 1/10 C) 1/12
th th
B) 1/4 D) 3/4
rd
169. More than 2/3 of the ______percent of the human blood plasma is
sodium
A) 0.9 C) 9
B) 7-8 D) 7.4

170. Blood plasma may contain


A) Nitrogenous wastes C) Small amount of uric acid
B) Urea D) All of these

171. RBCs are synthesized in the bone marrow of


A) Sternum C) Ribs
B) Vertebrae D) All of these
172. A temporary seal used to prevent bleeding, until the damaged tissue can
be repaired is
A) Thrombus C) Blood clot
B) embolus D) Atheroma
173. The flow of lymph is
maintained by
A) Activity of skeletal muscles C) Movement of viscera
B) Breathing movements D) All of these

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174. The lymph nodes are certain points, along the pathway of lymph vessels,
which are
Masses of secretary tissues where lymphocytes are present
present in the neck region, axilla and groin of humans
Are drained by a single afferent vessel
Both B and C

175. Lymphoid masses


Are present in the walls of digestive tract
Are present in the mucosa and sub mucosa
Produce lymphocytes
All of these

176. Which one of the following is wrong about human heart


Have two upper chambers with oxygenated blood and two lower chambers with
deoxygenated
Have two right chambers with oxygenated blood and two left chambers with
deoxygenated blood
Have the wall of right ventricle three times thicker than that of left ventricle
All of these

177..When the blood passes through the lungs it loses


A) Oxygen C) Wastes
B) food D) Carbon dioxide

178..Main .vein which returns the blood to the right atrium is


A) Pulmonary trunk C) Venae cave
B) Aorta D) Aortic arch
179. Which one is true about inspiration
The air with low oxygen and high carbon dioxide is inspired
Active contraction of lungs takes place
The muscles of diaphragm relax.
The muscles between the ribs contract
180. The ribs settle down inward and downward during
A) Removal of O2 rich air C) Removal of CO2 rich air
B) Exhalation D) Both B and C

ENGLISH

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some


segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to
identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains
the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle
corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ
Response From.
181.
At the aftermath of the explosion, people worked night and day to clear the area.
A) B) C) D)
182.

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All of we students must have an identification card in order to check books out of the
library.
A) B) C) D)
183.
Shoes of those kind are bad for the feet; low heels are better.
A) B) C) D)
184.
Shipwrecked on a desert island, coconuts and other fruits formed the basis of the sailor’s
diet.
A) B) C) D)
185.
It is the type of a book that no one but us likes.
A) B) C) D)
186.
Many of the events that lead up to the revolution took place in the capital.
A) B) C) D)
187.
Indigenous equipments can produce bigger, faster, better and cheaper results.
A) B) C) D)
188.
Without saying a word, the major gave a nod of ascent.
A) B) C) D)
189.
The tax cut will negatively affect both you and I.
A) B) C) D)
190.
The witness described the suspect as tall, light-skinned, and with a beard.
A) B) C) D)

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given.


Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to
that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

191.
A child is recovering in hospital from a serious attack of a stray dog.
A child is recovering at hospital from a serious attack by a stray dog.
A child is recovering in hospital after a serious attack by a stray dog.
A child is recovering at hospital by a serious attack from a stray dog.

192.
He is either buying a new house or he will rent an apartment for a year.
He is either buying a new house or is renting an apartment for a year.
He is either buying a new house or renting an apartment for a year.
Either he is buying a new house, or renting an apartment for a year.

193.
The more populated the area becomes, the more noise one has to contend.
The more populated the area becomes, the more noise one has to contend
with.
The more populated the area becomes, one has to contend with more noise.
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The more populated the area becomes, the more noise one has to contend.

194.
The economics of the trip was pleasing.
The economics of the trip were pleasing.
Economics of the trip were pleasing.
The economics of the trip was pleasing.

195.
Only after I went home I had remembered my dental appointment.
Only after I had gone home I had remembered my dental appointment.
Only after I went home did I remember my dental appointment.
Only after I had gone home did I remember my dental appointment.

196.
Before the flight of Sputnik, many people believed that space exploration was
impossible.
Before flight of Sputnik, many people had believed that space explorations were
impossible.
Before the flight of Sputnik, many people believed that space exploration will be
impossible.
Before the flight of Sputnik, many people believed that space exploration had
been impossible.

197.
When writing a proposal, an original task is set for research.
When writing a proposal, an original task is set by a scholar for research
When writing a proposal, a scholar sets an original task for research.
While writing proposal, scholar sets original task for research.

198.
"I am certain," said Jack "that the telephone is working now."
"I am certain," said Jack, "that the telephone is working now."
"I am certain" said Jack, "that the telephone is working now."
"I am certain," said Jack, "that the telephone is working now".
199.
I don't like him being out so late.
I don't like him being so late.
I don't like his being out so late.
I don't like his being lately.
200.

She wears old-fashioned glasses that make her to look intelligent.


She wears old-fashioned glasses which make her to look intelligent.
She wears old-fashioned glasses which make her look intelligently.
She wears old-fashioned glasses which make her look intelligent.

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